Scholarly Article Identification 1

Week 2: Scholarly Article Identification 1

Your assignment is to complete a critique of an introduction of a peer-reviewed journal article. This handout will give you a few guidelines to follow.

What kind of a journal article is it?

An empirical/research article or a review of literature? Some of the guidelines offered here will apply to critiques of all kinds of articles, but each type of article may provoke questions that are especially pertinent to that type.

Initial information:

Name(s) of the author(s)
Title of article

Title of journal, volume number, date, month and page numbers

Basic informational summary:

Statement of the problem or issue discussed
The authorâ€™s purpose, approach or methods, hypothesis, and major conclusions.

The bulk of your critique, however, should consist of your qualified opinion of the article.

Read the article you are to critique once to get an overview. Then read it again, critically. At this point you may want to make some notes to yourself on your copy (not the libraryâ€™s copy, please).

Questions to address for a research article critique:

The following are some questions you may want to address in your critique no matter what type of article you are critiquing. (Use your discretion. These points donâ€™t have to be discussed in this

order, and some may not be pertinent to your particular article.)

Title:

Is the title of the article accurate and clear? Explain
What are key terms in the title to help the reader recognize the topic of the article?

Abstract

An abstract is a concise summary of the article. It briefly offers a sentence or two for each of the major sections of a research study (introduction, literature review, data collection/methodology, findings/results, discussion)

Is the abstract specific, representative of the article, and in the correct form?

Introduction

The introduction section lays out pertinent information to establish a context for the study. It should include direct connection to resources as evidence of the relevance and importance of the topic under study.

Is the purpose of the article made clear in the introduction? Explain
What is the purpose of the study?

Is the significance of the study described? Explain
Are there any key terms included/defined for the reader? Why?
Are the research question(s) present and explicitly stated? Explain
Is the research question(s) consistent with the studyâ€™s philosophical basis? Explain

Literature Review

The literature review serves as an overview of the most relevant scholars of the topic of the study. It should include direct connection to the topic of the study and include evidence of previous scholarship in the field.

Did the review include current research (studies published within the last three to five years)?
Did the review rely mainly on primary source articles? Explain.
Was the review merely a summary of existing work, or did it critically appraise key studies?
Did the review identify important trends or gaps in the literature? Explain

Methodology

The methodology section serves as the official stated process of the study. It should clearly explain the steps that the researcher used to conduct the research.

Did the author state what type of methodology was used, and why? Explain.
Who were the participants for the study? Be specific.

How were the participants selected for the study? Explain.
What type of data was collected from the participants? Explain.
How as the data collected? Be specific and explain.
How did the data collection help the author answer the research question(s)? Explain.
Were there any comments about the role of the researcher in the study? Be specific.

Were there any issues that occurred throughout the data collection process, for the researcher? Explain.
Are the study design and methods appropriate for the purposes of the study? Support
Have the procedures been presented in enough detail to enable a reader to duplicate them? Explain.

Findings/Results

This section serves as the official statement of what was found through the study.

What did the researcher find (list all findings/results)? Explain completely
Did the findings/results directly connect to the researcher question(s)? Explain
Did the researcher answer the research question(s) clearly support by the data? Explain

Discussion

This section serves as a dialogue between the literature and the researcherâ€™s findings/results.

Does the researcher discuss the findings/results in light of previous scholarship from the literature review? Explain
Are there any similarities or differences mentioned by the researcher between the data and the previous scholarship? Be specific.

Limitations/Further Investigation

This section indicates the limitations of the study.

What limitations does the researcher admit affected the study? Explain
Do you think the limitations compromised the integrity of the study? Why/why not?
Do the data raise any new questions that need further investigation? Explain

Article Identification Rubric

Criteria

Ratings

Pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePurpose

Accomplishes the goal of the assigned task using discipline specific knowledge

20 to >16.0 pts

Advanced

Comprehensively meets the assignment goals, surpassing baseline expectations. Target audience is addressed through communication reflecting thorough understanding of audience exigencies and values. Applies, synthesizes, and/or expands discipline-specific knowledge.

16 to >10.0 pts

Proficient

Adequately addresses minimum assignment requirements. Adequately addresses target audience. Appropriately and sufficiently incorporates discipline specific knowledge.

10 to >0 pts

Novice

Fails to meet one or more assignment goals. Some relevant audiences are not sufficiently addressed or writing is addressed to wrong audience. Incompletely or incorrectly applies discipline specific knowledge.

20 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeOrganization

Ideas are arranged logically, cohesively, and clearly.

20 to >16.0 pts

Advanced

Logical structure and arrangement of thesis/ideas. Cohesive paragraphs that convincingly develop the central argument/ ideas. Major and supporting ideas are presented clearly. Smooth transitions between ideas at sentence, paragraph, and section level.

16 to >10.0 pts

Proficient

Appropriate structure and arrangement of thesis/ideas. Cohesive paragraphs that develop the central argument/ideas. Major ideas are presented clearly. Adequate transitions between ideas at sentence and paragraph level.

10 to >0 pts

Novice

Ineffective structure and arrangement of thesis/ideas, lack of focus. Generally unified arguments/ideas but with gaps in cohesion. Hierarchy of ideas is unclear. Weak or ineffective transitions between ideas at sentence and paragraph level.

20 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeEvidence

Selection and integration of high-quality sources to support claims.

20 to >16.0 pts

Advanced

Selects superior quality sources to support claims. Discussion of sources provides clear and logical support for the claims. Comprehensively and effectively integrates high-quality evidence. Applies source documentation conventions correctly (e.g., few errors).

16 to >10.0 pts

Proficient

Selects relevant sources to support claims. Discussion of sources adequately supports claims. Effectively integrates evidence. Applies some source documentation conventions correctly (e.g., some errors in some conventions).

10 to >0 pts

Novice

Generally supports claims but some evidence may not be relevant. Discussion of sources in relation to claims is general, vague, or not relevant. Unevenly integrates evidence. Applies few source documentation conventions correctly (e.g. faulty use of quotations, citations, paraphrasing).

20 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAnalysis/Interpretation

Evaluation, integration, and synthesis of information/knowledge.

20 to >16.0 pts

Advanced

Discusses strengths and limitations of all relevant perspectives. Seamless integration of relevant information/knowledge into a coherent or new whole. Thorough discussion of outcomes/findings and their significance. Insightful and thorough discussion of implications. Thorough analysis of all relevant data to reach well-reasoned and accurate conclusion(s).

16 to >10.0 pts

Proficient

Discusses strengths and limitations of varied, but not all, perspectives. Sufficient integration of relevant information/knowledge, but may lack a unifying theme. Adequate discussion of outcomes/findings without addressing overall significance. Important implications are noted but may not be thoroughly addressed. Data are used correctly to reach proper conclusion(s).

10 to >0 pts

Novice

Fails to consider strengths and limitations of perspectives or approach is superficial. Irrelevant or poorly integrated information/knowledge. Incomplete, or uneven, discussion of outcomes/findings. Only the most obvious implications are noted. Misuse of, or reliance on, poorly collected data leads to faulty conclusion(s).

20 pts

This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeLanguage Conventions

Format, style and specialized vocabulary that constitute standardized written communication in a discipline and use of APA style.

20 to >16.0 pts

Advanced

Clearly and concisely follows writing style conventions. Applies discipline-specific terminology correctly and consistently. Supporting data and visuals are correct and appropriate. Mechanics (grammar, syntax, punctuation, spelling) follow rules of Standard English and adhere to APA style.

16 to >10.0 pts

Proficient

Mostly follows writing style conventions. Mostly applies discipline-specific terminology correctly. Supporting data and visuals are generally correct and appropriate. Mechanics (grammar, syntax, punctuation, spelling) follow rules of Standard English and adhere to APA style.

10 to >0 pts

Novice

Inconsistently follows writing style conventions. Insufficiently or incorrectly applies discipline-specific terminology. Supporting data and visuals are absent, extraneous or incorrectly presented. Mechanics (grammar, syntax, punctuation, spelling) follow rules of Standard English and adhere to APA style**.

Tips on how to write an Essay on Family

Question 181 A Blue Glass Face Inlay of King Akhenaten

This is a reading response assignment that requires 2 pages in the Chicago Manual Style. The paper should include a summary and critique. I am not trying to get an A on this assignment. I would like it to look like I wrote it so I’ll need someone to give it about 80% instead of 100%. Another person took the job and left me high and dry after informing them I needed the assignment (8 hours after purchase) ..

Question 182 Document Response

To what extent were Arthur Woodley’s and John Kerry’s experiences in Vietnam consistent with the goals of American policy as described by Kennedy and McNamara? Would Kennedy and McNamara have considered Woodley and Kerry model soldiers? Would Heinl have considered them model soldiers? Explain your answers. (Chapter 29, Reading the American Past)

Question 183 Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal.

Part I: Short Answer: Answer the following questions in two paragraphs per question. 1. Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal. 2. Why was the United States so reluctant to get involved in World War II? 3. What was the impact of World War II on American society? 4. Explain the motives and aims of the U.S. policy of “containment.” 5. Describe the “six-pronged” defensive strategy developed during the Truman era. 6. How did U.S. involvement in Guatemala, Cuba, and Iran (in the 1950’s) reflect Eisenhower’s “New Look” in American foreign policy? 7. What key factors contributed to the period of prosperity in the 1950’s? 8. Describe and explain the increase in religious participation in America in the 1950’s. 9. Describe and analyze the aims and key programs in Johnson’s “Great Society.” 10. Briefly explain why it was so difficult for three American presidents–Kennedy, Johnson, and Nixon–to withdraw from Vietnam, even though they all claimed to want to get out. 11. Explain America’s “move to the right” at the end of the 20th century. 12. Explain the Watergate scandal. What events led to it? Why did it lead to Nixon’s resignation? 13. What were the costs and benefits of globalization to the United States in the 1990’s and early 2000’s? 14. What impact did the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001 have on U.S. foreign and domestic policies? 15. What was Obama’s reform agenda, and what obstacles stood in the way of that agenda? Part II: Essay Answer each in an essay of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Write an essay in which you describe, analyze, and evaluate the struggle for civil rights since World War II. You should have a thesis that reflects your evaluation of the situation during this era, and should support that thesis with numerous details and examples from assigned readings. B. Write an essay in which you explain and analyze the significance of the Vietnam War in American life and history. In doing so, you should have a clear thesis and support that thesis with specific examples from the assigned readings. C. Write an essay in which you describe, how and why has America changed since 1865 in terms of equal rights, economic problems/issues, foreign policy, and/or culture?

Question 184 Civil Rights Matrix

Complete the Civil Rights Matrix by summarizing and stating the significance of each of the “snapshots” in the pursuit of Civil Rights in America. Be sure to use sources contained in the topic/course materials and/or from your instructor to complete the assignment. This assignment uses a scoring guide. Please review the scoring guide prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. While GCU style format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using GCU documentation guidelines, which can be found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.

Question 185 The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells

The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells This is a YouTube video that provides updated explanations of human development. This primary source documentary includes interactive timelines of the migration of early people that is well detailed and presents a great deal of information on human DNA. Students are to view this documentary in its entirety and answer the following question in Forum discussion. Discuss how does this documentary enhance your understanding of the debate between the ideas of creation and evolution. Provide examples from the documentary to help support your answer.

Question 186 Multicultural Curriculum Design

I need this assignment by 8 am May 1st Items need 2 page report Plus powerpoint including everything I should say in the video I already have selected a a topic and I have an outline! Look at the lesson plan to help you type the 2 page paper Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video explaining everything like how I made changes to the originally lesson plan! The powerpoint should tell me everything I need to say on the video. Like, how I demonstrated how I used the revised curriculum. and how I plan to teach the new curriculum to my class. Look below for teach instructions Curriculum Design You will take an existing curriculum unit or a professional development activity and create a new and improved unit or activity that embeds multicultural perspectives. The curriculum activity you choose should be already established and documented (online or via hard copy) because the original will be submitted along with the revised multicultural document. You should clearly identify within the report a minimum of 8-10 examples of Bank’s levels of multicultural curriculum reform. You will be asked to submit on video tape a portion of this unit that you have presented to a class (8-10 minutes) to demonstrate how you used the revised curriculum. All reports need to include an APPENDIX section that includes the following items: 1. Lesson plans 2. Resources 3. Visuals 4. Activities that you would use. Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video and the powerpoint just needs to tell me what to say and how I demonstrated how you used the revised curriculum…

Question 187 Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms

Instructions Complete a differentiation chart for your classroom. Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms. Using the course material and readings, show how you can apply the following strategies to your classroom to address the various learning needs within that classroom. (You will probably not have specifics on student interests or styles but you can generically incorporate activities that students can connect their interest and a variety of learning styles to the curricular content. Plan for students who are more visual learners, auditory learners, tactile, kinesthetic and those who require multimodal approaches.) The first column should have the type of differentiation. Then in column 2, state the subject you will use the specific strategy in. The third column, describe how you will use this strategy. In the last column, consider how you will group students for each strategy. Some strategies may be large group, small group, or even one-on-one. Compacting Tiered Assignments Independent Study Contracts Learning Centers Choice boards Adjusting questions (be sure and write comprehension questions according to Bloom’s taxonomy) Flexible Grouping Pre-teaching Re-teaching Response to Intervention Make sure to add a title page, reference page, and in-text citations.

Question 188 Early Childhood Education

Reflecting on the need to communicate the numerous critical and time sensitive issues in Early Childhood Education, what do you: Propose is the most timely and important Suggest is the best method(s) for informing and maintaining informational access to the public and policy makers (identify your audience) on the issue(s) Identify as your strengths to now engage in such work Perceive to still be weakness(es) that may hinder you work. How will you navigate and succeed regardless of said limitation(s). Respond in a professionally written 2-3 page paper

Question 189 What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor”

What changes or trends have you observed or reviewed in your readings that might confirm the growing diversity of young children who attend early childhood programs? How have individuals in you community responded to these changes? Identify the best methods for educating ELL students to high achievement levels. What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor”?

Question 190 Describe the affects of poverty on brain development

Describe the affects of poverty on brain development? What are the basic tenets in the promotion of resiliency? Why are the early years particularly important for all children in the areas of longterm learning and developmental outcomes?

Question 191 community engagement

The book review you write should be academic (likely with references to a few other sources – 3 is fine) and it should include some description of the book, an analysis of the content and an overall evaluation of how and why the book contributes to the field or participatory learning, research, theory, facilitation, and community engagement. You might also consider doing some of the required course reading in advance and then use some of that reading to compare the text with other topics that are related. For example, I suggest reading the first two chapters in Pedagogy of the Oppressed by Paulo Friere as they apply to all of the books considered as texts. Finally, what do you consider strengths and weaknesses in the book, key learnings, and what does the book say or not say about participation, popular education, dialogue or other key concepts in participatory realms of thinking and doing (or ideas linked to community engagement and adult learning). More generally, the book review is a critique of why you would or would not recommend this book based on the content, writing, theory and ideas presented. Reviews should explain and critique why the book is or is not significant in the given topic. The review will be evaluated based on the above criteria, clarity of writing style, proper formatting, grammar, use of APA style, and your critical analysis of the content. Proofread carefully. The review should be 1000-1250 words max. (12 pt font in times new roman with 1 inch margins). Use APA style (6th Ed). All instructions I received from my prof. Plz check carefully and I attached book too for your review. If your review will be good, I will offer you my others assignments too

Question 192 How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism

How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism? Identify examples of institutional racism. Discuss the implications of instructional racism on children’s development on family functioning and on society in general.

Question 193 Education

Specifically, discuss the emotional impact on the parent(s) when children develop proficiency that they themselves do not have. 2. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of parent’s limited English proficiency? (Remember not every ELL parent speaks Spanish. Therefore, a Spanish interpreter is not a solve all solution and is difficult to find interpreters in all languages) 3. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of a parent’s limited educational background? 4. Specifically, how will you minimize the mismatch between school culture and home culture? 5. Specifically, how will you work to minimize the logistical issue barriers (work hours, transportation, etc) to maximize parent involvement?

Question 194 High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components

High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components? 2. Describe the messages that media (television, movies, magazines, newspapers, Internet) convey about people living with limited incomes or within the poverty threshold. Identify at least five specific examples examples which demonstrate those messages. 3. What is the importance of resiliency? Give an example of how you have been resilient?

Question 195 Lesson Plan Analysis

【Actually this EDUCATION assignment is due July.4. It is a bit urgent. Take this order if you are confident to complete it on time in a satisfactory quality.】 ————————————————————————– This assignment has Part I and Part II. Part I is a 2-page lesson plan, using the provided template. Part II is an analytic paper that should be 1,000 words (+/-10%) not including references. 【Detailed Instructions for this assignment are in the attachment files, which I will provide you in our message box for convenience. 】 Read them carefully

Question 196 create a Newletter

Parent Newsletter: Based on the classroom you observed, develop a newsletter for that parent population. The newsletter should cover the current learning objectives and/or activities taking place in the class or camp, inform parents about how to help with the class or camp, reminders about what their child needs to do or bring, and upcoming events such as field trips or splash days. The newsletter must include information about how to contact the teacher with questions or in an emergency (phone, email, or text), increase family awareness of the daily routines and activities of the class, and how to request a parent-teacher conference, or if there is already a schedule for conferences established. Be creative and welcoming, design your newsletter in the way you think parents would be interested in reading it and that gives them suggestions for increasing their involvement/engagement with the class. Use the material from the readings about communicating with families as you develop the newsletter to make it relevant. The Parent Newsletter should be developed with correct spelling and format, using pictures or graphics to make it appealing, and most importantly,provide timely and relevant information for families who are the intended audience. After you have edited and spell checked your newsletter, save it as a PDF and submit to the Dropbox for this assignment.

Question 197 Family Involvement Plan

Family Involvement Plan: This portion of the project focuses on the generation of two reports. The first report will establish ways to assist the family in developing or maintaining a high and comfortable level of involvement in their current early childhood care/education setting. The second report will create a school/childcare plan that promotes additional involvement opportunities for all families involved in the setting. You will use your Family Interview report to assist you in developing these two plans. Each plan is to be three -five pages and provide detailed and descriptive information that specifies what the family should do and what the child care/education setting should do for all families. The purpose of both reports is to use the strategies learned in your course readings and from the interview to create an applied project that assists families and child care settings alike.

Question 199 What is Inclusive Teaching

What is Inclusive Teaching? 2. How do Personal Identity and Otherness work together? How do Personal Identify and Otherness work in isolation? 3. How do educator’s experiences affect inclusion? How will your personal biases affect your role as a teacher?

Question 200 Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals

Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals. According to Powell and Driver (2013), “teachers and school staff can talk with parents about the possibility of their child needing to undergo an evaluation for ADHD, but the official diagnosis must come from a medical professional or clinician (i.e., medical doctor, psychiatrist, or psychologist)” (Section 5.5). Reflect on what this statement means to you. How can you talk with parents about this subject without sounding as if you are diagnosing? What advice can you provide to parents who come to you with concerns about their child without implying that a disability is present? I need this assignment done by tomorrow

Question 201 Problems Students Face

Topic: Problems that students face Type: Documented persuasive essay Purpose: To convince the reader to believe as the author does using documented evidence Sources: 7 Quoted 5 non internet 3 different magazine or journal sources Length: 3 pages 1 Bibliography page

Question 202 What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences

Course Reflection Write a one- to two-page reflection that addresses the following: a.How has your own image of children with learning disabilities been affected during this class? b.What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences? c.How do you see this class affecting how you will plan and implement curricula for young children? d.What is one topic you might like to research and gain new information on based on your learning in class?

Question 203 children must develop strong self-regulation skills

Regardless of a child’s unique qualities, one thing remains the same; to improve learning and behavior, children must develop strong self-regulation skills. Read the article from the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC), “Developing Young Children’s Self-Regulation Through Everyday Experiences (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” The marshmallow experiment is a famous test conducted by Walter Mischel at Stanford University and discussed by Daniel Goleman in his popular work. In the 1960s, a group of four-year-olds were given a marshmallow and promised another only if they could wait 20 minutes before eating the first one. Some children could wait and others could not. The researchers then followed the progress of each child into adolescence, and demonstrated that those with the ability to wait were better adjusted and more dependable (determined via surveys of their parents and teachers), and scored an average of 210 points higher on the Scholastic Aptitude Test. Read the American Psychological Association (APA) article, “Delaying Gratification (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” Reflect on the information in the NAEYC article, the article, and your text and explain how toddlers with better self-regulation skills are less likely to demonstrate behavior problems in preschool. Explain why these self-regulation skills are so important and how you will promote the learning of self-regulation. How will you deliberately teach self-regulation as part of everyday experience? Share an example of your own self-regulation skills that you can model for others.

Question 204 Biopoem

Part1: http://www.readwritethink.org/files/resources/lesson_images/lesson398/biopoem.pdf you have a informed perspective on Jefferson’s beliefs about education. Using information from the textbook and/or your own additional research, complete this assignment. Part 2:

Question 205 Leadership Styles

* It’s not letting me change the date, but I would need this today. You will watch two video clips this week; (1) The leadership style of General Patton from the 1970 Academy Award winning film Patton and (2) The leadership style of Colonel Lawrence Chamberlain in Gettysburg as he begins his leadership for the Union Army just prior to the Battle of Gettysburg. Patton video: Please analyze some of the transactional leadership skills of this heroic World War II leader to our quest of enhancing student learning in today’s schools. Consider Patton’s leadership strengths that could prove helpful in causing positive change in classrooms today, as well as aspects of Patton’s leadership that would not be effective or recommended in leading students today. Chamberlain video: One of Chamberlain’s first roles as a leader is to transform 120 mutineers into a fighting army. In this segment from the famed film titled Gettysburg, you will observe a revered transformational leader in action who helped change the course of American history. In a 3-4-page paper, identify the leadership style depicted in each of the video clips you viewed this week and compare/contrast the efforts made by the video leaders to develop a shared vision, establish a working relationship, and enlist others in the effort before them. Make relevant applications of these strengths to your leadership today in the classroom. In addition, please describe your thoughts about the benefits and/or disadvantages of adopting a transformational leadership style versus a transactional one. Cite information you have gleaned from your text readings. Include an APA appropriate reference page (view your APA handbook or online resources for assistance). Paper must follow APA 6th edition writing style.

Question 206 expanding

use the details from my Circle of Viewpoints document to write a post from the perspective of Thomas Jefferson, as if I was an actor portraying him in the discussion board.

Question 207 Reading Assignment

Based on Attached file- 1. Provide an Abstract of the reading between 90-100 Words; 2. Two (2) issues for discussion of your choosing based on the reading; 3. Two (2) concepts that you did not know what they meant (or that were unclear to you) with your best definition/explanation of them. 4. The reading assignment should be two and half pages

Question 208 Analyze ‘Man on the Street’ Interview Responses

take you away from the computer and into the streets (not literally). Find six people in your circle of acquaintances, colleagues, or friends, and then ask them the following questions: What kind of change have you experienced in an organization? In what way did the leaders in your organization prepare you for the change? (please be as specific as possible) How was the change communicated to the organization (i.e., suddenly, carefully planned communication)? Was there buy-in from the organization’s employees? Explain how you felt during the change. Describe your feelings after the change. What one thing would you do differently if you were leading the change? Once you have gathered the responses, analyze the answers, and then summarize your findings in a table structured in a comprehensible way that will help you convey your findings to readers. Next, create a PowerPoint, 12 powerpoint slides. Five scholarly resources, APA format. Example format inculded

Question 209 BBC Documentary Questions Assignment

Please change wording of answers for questions 6 and beyond. Respond to questions that have not been answers using same format. To answer these questions, expert must watch this documentary: http://www.dailymotion.com/video/x40jndd Lastly, write a 3-paragraph with a reflection of the documentary. NOTE: ANSWERS MUST BE DESCRIPTIVE AND WRITTEN IN FULL SENTENCES. ALL ANSWERS AND REFLECTION MUST BE AT THE UNIVERSITY LEVEL, EXPRESS CLEARLY, AND HAVE CORRECT GRAMMAR.

Question 210 Resume and Cover Letter

Using the recommendations and models presented on the websites www.susanireland.com and www.best-interview-strategies.com, develop (or update) your resume so that it is ready for your school counseling position search process. In addition to your resume, prepare a form cover letter that will serve as the template for your job search. Keep in mind that this letter will need to be modified depending on the school districts and schools to which you are applying. This document should be 4 pages in length. Job post for a cover letter: https://www.glassdoor.com/job-listing/counselor-teacherjobs-JV_IC1131270_KO0,9_KE10,21.htm?jl=2212370944

Get Expert Solutions to Accounting Questions at Homeworknest.com in 2hours!

Accounting Questions – Get Expert Solutions at Homeworknest.com in 5 hours!

Quiz 1.

Analyzing the Airline Industry C 3. Divide into groups. Assume your group is analyzing the fate of the larger airlines, such as United and American. You have the following information: a. Between 1999 and now, the long-term debt, including lease obligations, of the largest airlines more than doubled. b. The price of fuel has increased by one-third. c. Passenger loads are only now getting back to pre-9/11 levels. d. Severe price competition from discount airlines exists. Identify the ratios that you consider most important to consider in assessing the future of the large airlines and discuss the effect of each of the above factors on the ratios. Be prepared to present all or part of your findings in class.

Quiz 2.

Using Investors’ Services C 2. Go to the website for Moody’s Investors Service. Click on “ratings,” which will show revisions of debt ratings issued by Moody’s in the past few days. Choose a rating that has been upgraded or downgraded and read the short press announcement related to it. What reasons does Moody’s give for the change in rating? What is Moody’s assessment of the future of the company or institution? What financial performance measures are mentioned in the article? Summarize your findings and be prepared to share them in class.

Quiz 3.

ffect of a One-Time Item on a Loan Decision C 5. Apple a Day, Inc., and Unforgettable Edibles, Inc. are food catering businesses that operate in the same metropolitan area. Their customers include Fortune 500 companies, regional firms, and individuals. The two firms reported similar profit margins for the current year, and both base bonuses for managers on the achievement of a target profit margin and return on equity. Each firm has submitted a loan request to you, a loan officer for City National Bank. They have provided you with the following information:

Quiz 4.

Comparison of International Companies’ Operating Cycles C 4. Ratio analysis enables one to compare the performance of companies whose financial statements are presented in different currencies. Selected data from 2006 for two large pharmaceutical companies—one American, Pfizer, Inc., and one Swiss, Roche—are presented next (in millions).15

For each company, calculate the receivable turnover, days’ sales uncollected, inventory turnover, days’ inventory on hand, payables turnover, and days’ payable. Then determine the operating cycle and days of financing required for each company. (Accounts receivable in 2005 were $9,103 for Pfizer and SF7,698 for Roche. Inventories in 2005 were $5,478 for Pfizer and SF5,041 for Roche. Accounts payable in 2005 were $2,073 for Pfizer and SF2,373 for Roche.) Prepare a memo containing your analysis of the operating cycles of these companies.

Quiz 5.

Do you think it is acceptable to change the bonus targets for executives during the year if the year turns out to be not as successful as planned? What if an unexpected, world-shaking event occurs and has a negative effect on business, such as 9/11 had on the airline industry? What are three standards of comparison? Which of these might justify changing the bonus targets during the year?

Quiz 6.

Executive Compensation C 1. Executive compensation is often based on meeting certain targets for revenue growth, earnings, earnings per share, return on assets, or other performance measures. But what if performance is not living up to expectations? Some companies are simply changing the targets. For instance, Sun Microsystems’ proxy as quoted in the Wall Street Journal states that “due to economic challenges experienced during the last fiscal year, our earnings per share and revenues are significantly below plan. As such, the Bonus Plan was amended to reduce the target bonus to 50% of the original plan and base the target bonus solely on the third and fourth quarters.”14 Sun Microsystems was not alone. Other companies, such as AT&T Wireless, Estee Lauder, and UST, also lowered targets for executive bonuses.

Quiz 7.

Comprehensive Ratio Analysis of Two Companies P 10. Caitlin Cleary is considering an investment in the common stock of a chain of souvenir stores. She has narrowed her choice to two companies, Dover Corporation and Calais Corporation, whose income statements and balance sheets are presented here. During the year, Dover Corporation paid a total of $50,000 in dividends. The market price per share of its stock is currently $60. In comparison, Calais Corporation paid a total of $114,000 in dividends, and the current market price of its stock is $76 per share. Dover Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $271,500 and net capital expenditures of $625,000. Calais Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $492,500 and net capital expenditures of $1,050,000. Information for prior years is not readily available. Assume that all notes payable are current liabilities and all bonds payable are long-term liabilities and that there is no change in inventory.

Quiz 8.

Compare the two companies by inserting the ratio calculations from 1 through 5 in a table with the following column headings: Ratio, Name, Dover, Calais, and Company with More Favorable Ratio. Indicate in the last column which company had the more favorable ratio in each case.

Quiz 9.

James Smith, 45 years old, is new to your practice. This is your first

meeting with him, and you would like to ask him some questions

regarding his medication/health history. During the course of your

conversation you learn that he has a history of coronary heart

disease and is currently taking a baby aspirin each day. He takes

acetaminophen for general aches and pains. He also likes to have a

glass of wine with dinner each night and does not mind a few beers

when he is watching football. During the course of his examination

you and the dentist find two cavities, which are filled that day. Mr.

Smith is experiencing some mild pain after the procedure.

What is the rationale for using acetaminophen instead of an

NSAID to treat Mr. Smith’s pain?

What dose and duration of therapy should be recommended

for Mr. Smith?

At what doses does hepatotoxicity occur with

acetaminophen?

How can Mr. Smith avoid acetaminophen toxicity?
Compare and contrast acetaminophen to aspirin in terms of

pharmacology, adverse effects, and therapeutic effects.

224

What is the role of aspirin in the prevention of heart attack

or stroke?

Are any dental concerns associated with low-dose aspirin

therapy?

Can Mr. Smith take a drug like ibuprofen?
What should be said to Mr. Smith during a counseling

session regarding acetaminophen?

Quiz 10.

Kellogg Company has its headquarters in Battle Creek, Michigan. The company manufactures and sells ready-to-eat breakfast cereals and convenience foods including cookies, toaster pastries, and cereal bars.

Selected data from Kellogg Company’s recent annual report follows (dollar amounts in millions).

		Current Year		Prior Year	2 Years Ago
Sales		$14,580		$14,792	$14,197
Gross profit %	34.73	41.26	38.28
Operating profit	1,024	2,837	1,562
Net cash flow less capital expenditures	1,211	1,170	1,225
Net earnings	633	1,808	961

In its annual reports, Kellogg Company has indicated that it plans to achieve sustainability of its operating results with operating principles that emphasize profit-rich, sustainable sales growth, as well as cash flow and return on invested capital. Kellogg believes its steady earnings growth, strong cash flow, and continued investment during a multi-year period demonstrates the strength and flexibility of its business model.

Instructions

Compute the percentage change in sales, operating profit, net cash flow less capital expenditures, and net earnings from year to year for the years presented.
Evaluate Kellogg’s performance. Which trend seems most favorable? Which trend seems least favorable? What are the implications of these trends for Kellogg’s sustainable performance objectives? Explain.

Quiz 11.

Presented below is income statement information of the Schefter Corporation for the year ended December 31, 2021.

Sales revenue $492,000 Cost of goods sold 284,000
Salaries expense 80,000 Insurance expense 12,000
Interest revenue 6,000 Interest expense 4,000
Advertising expense 10,000 Income tax expense 30,000
Gain on sale of investments 8,000 Depreciation expense 20,000

Prepare the necessary closing entries at December 31, 2021.

Quiz 12.

Choose the correct.Rouge Company’s $250,000 net income for the quarter ended September 30 included the following after-tax items:
∙ A $20,000 cumulative effect loss resulting from a change in inventory valuation method made
on September 1.
∙ $0 of the $60,000 annual property taxes paid on February 1.
For the quarter ended September 30, the amount of net income that Rouge should report is
a. $235,000
b. $250,000
c. $255,000
d. $270,000

Quiz 13.

Analyzing profitability

Sampler Company sells two products, Sigma and Zeta, with a sales mix of 70% and 30%, respectively, Sigma has a contribution margin per unit of $26, and Zeta has a contribution margin per unit of $21. The company sold 700 total units in September. Calculate the total amount each product contributed to the coverage of fixed costs and the total contribution margin for the company.

Quiz 14.

The following are a series of unrelated situations.

Halen Company’s unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2020, included the following accounts.

		Debit	Credit
Accounts receivable		$53,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts	4,000
Net sales		$1,200,000

Halen Company estimates its bad debt expense to be 7% of gross accounts receivable. Determine its bad debt expense for 2020.

An analysis and aging of Stuart Corp. accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, disclosed the following.

Amounts estimated to be uncollectible		$ 180,000
Accounts receivable	1,750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts (per books)	125,000

What is the net amount expected to be collected of Stuart’s receivables at December 31, 2020?

Shore Co. provides for doubtful accounts based on 4% of gross accounts receivable, The following data are available for 2020.

Credit sales during 2020		$4,400,000
Bad debt expense	57,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts 1/1/20	17,000
Collection of accounts written off in prior years (customer credit was reestablished)	8,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible during 2020	30,000

What is the balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts at December 31, 2020?

At the end of its first year of operations, December 31, 2020, Darden Inc. reported the following information.

Accounts receivable, net of allowance for doubtful accounts		$950,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible during 2020	24,000
Bad debt expense for 2020	84,000

What should be the balance in accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, before subtracting the allowance for doubtful accounts?

The following accounts were taken from Bullock Inc.’s trial balance at December 31, 2020.

		Debit	Credit
Net credit sales			$750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts	$ 14,000
Accounts receivable	310,000

If doubtful accounts are 3% of accounts receivable, determine the bad debt expense to be reported for 2020.

Instructions

Answer the questions relating to each of the five independent situations as requested.

Quiz 15.

Journalizing the alternative treatment of deferred revenues

On September 1, 2018, Salem Landscaping collected $24,000 in advance from customers for landscaping services. The service revenue will be earned monthly over the 12-month period ending August 31, 2019.

Requirements

Journalize the entry on September 1 by using the alternative treatment of deferred revenues.

Record the December 31, 2018 adjusting entry.

Quiz 16.

Included in Outkast Company’s December 31, 2020, trial balance are the following accounts: Prepaid Rent $5,200, Debt Investments (to be held to maturity until 2023) $56,000, Unearned Fees $17,000, Land (held for investment) $39,000, and Notes Receivable (long-term) $42,000. Prepare the long-term investments section of the balance sheet.

Quiz 17.

Product Cost Method of Product Pricing

La Femme Accessories Inc. produces women's handbags. The cost of producing 1,100 handbags is as follows:

Direct materials	$14,600
Direct labor	7,400
Factory overhead	6,400
Total manufacturing cost	$28,400

The selling and administrative expenses are $28,700. The management desires a profit equal to 14% of invested assets of $498,000.

If required, round your answers to nearest whole number.\

Determine the selling price of handbags. Round your answers to nearest whole value.

Cost	$per unit
Markup	$per unit
Selling price	$per unit

Quiz 18.

On August 3, Sonar Sales decides to establish a $275 petty cash fund to relieve the burden on Accounting.

(a)	Journalize the establishment of this fund.*
(b)	On August 11, the petty cash fund has receipts for mail and postage of $124.75, contributions and donations of $53.25, meals and entertainment of $63.85, and $32.75 in the ending cash balance. Journalize the replenishment of the fund.*
(c)	On August 12, Sonar Sales decides to increase petty cash to $400. Journalize this transaction.*
	*Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles.

Quiz 19.

The trend of PepsiCo’s stock price and price/earnings (P/E) ratio for the seven years shown.
PepsiCo’s prospects, including developments likely to affect the company’s future.
Trend Analysis E 7. Using 2006 as the base year, prepare a trend analysis of the following data, and tell whether the situation shown by the trends is favorable or unfavorable. (Round your answers to one decimal place.)

Ace My Homework, AceMyHomework com, AceMyHomework Shutdown, AceMyHomework to Homeworknest.com, and Calculus Engineering Questions, Best Homework Help Website, Best website for college Asignments Help, Cheap Assignments Help, Chinese student Homework Help, College Lifestyle, College Math Help, College professor, College Professors, College roommates, CouponLx, CouponLx Homework Nest, Covid-19 Homework tests, Exam day, Exam stress, Fall Semester, Free Books with All college Subject Assignment Answers, Free Homework Help, Group project, Homework during lockdown, Homework EBooks 2020, Homework Help, Homework Help App, Homework help on Google, Homework Study music On YouTube, Introverted students, Math is Fun, Math Org Forums, Memory techniques, New semester, Online tools, Online tutor, Online Tutoring, Online Tutors, Operations Management, Permutations, PHD thesis topics, PHD Thesis Writer, Procrastination, Productivity, Reading list, Resume boosting jobs, School and Work, School and work balance, Sociology Questions, Spring Semester, Student budget, Study apps, Study Break, Study Tips, Summer Break, Summer course, Summer job, website for hmeworkhelp like coursemerit, website for hmeworkhelp like ninjaessays, website for hmeworkhelp like studypool, Website for Homework Help Like AceMyHomework, website similar to AceMyHomework.com, write my essay
—

Quiz 20.

On June 1, Guitar Magazine collected cash of $51,000 on future annual subscriptions starting on July 1.

Requirements

Journalize the transaction to record the collection of cash on June 1.
Journalize the transaction required at December 31, the magazine’s year-end, assuming no revenue earned has been recorded. (Round adjustment to the nearest whole dollar.)

Economics assignment help UK, US, Canada

You can get economics assignments help from our expert economic assignment essay writers at Homework Nest today. Find an economics prof at homeworknest.com

Econ 3057, 4438, 8038: Industrial

Organisation

Assignment 6 solution

Semester I 2020

Due: Friday May 29th at 5 pm

[30 points] Freezeme is the unique supplier of refrigerators in a market with two types

of consumers. Each consumer is interested in buying at most one unit. Refrigerators

might come in di¤erent qualities. From any given quality level S, a consumer of type

1 derives a utility of

U1 = S 􀀀 p;

and a consumer of type 2 gets utility

U2 = S 􀀀 p;

where p is the price, and > 1 is a constant. If a consumer does not buy, his/her

utility is 0. Freezeme found out that there are 100 consumers of type 1 and 70 of type

Freezeme has a marginal cost of production of 10 (regardless of quality) and the

(quantity-independent) cost of developing a product of quality S is S2

2 .

(a) Suppose Freezeme develop two refrigerators, one of quality S1, the other one of

quality S2, with S2 > S1. Freezeme.s product manager I.S. Cold claims that

their products can be considered as being vertically di¤erentiated. Is she right?

Explain your answer. [4 points]

(b) Suppose that Freezeme could distinguish between consumers of type 1 and con-

sumers of type 2. Freezeme wants to develop two di¤erent fridges to serve the two

di¤erent types of consumers. What would Freezeme.s optimal price and quality

for each group of consumers be? [For each given quality, the .rm uses uniform

pricing. That is, the .rm charges pi for product with quality Si, i = 1; 2.] Assume

that the .rm can prevent arbitrage. [8 points]

the quality for type 1 consumers? Explain why the .rm would ever want to o¤er

a product of lower quality to the higher valuation type consumers. [4 points]

Assume for the remainder of this problem that Freezeme is unable to distinguish

between consumers of type 1 and consumers of type 2. Also assume that the

condition you identi.ed in part (c) holds.

(d) Freezeme wants to serve the two types of consumers with two di¤erent qualities,

S1 and S2. The .rm wants to .nd the optimal pairs (S1; p1) and (S2; p2) that

maximize their pro.t. [(Si; pi) for type i of consumers.] In order to do so, they

need to separate the two types of consumers. Given a menu f(S1; p1); (S2; p2)g,

write down the two constraints such that both types of consumers purchase the

products. Write down the two constraints such that both types of consumers

prefer to purchase the quality price pair intended for them rather than the one

intended for the other type. [These constraints will be in terms (S1; p1) and

(S2; p2).] [4 points]

(e) Find the optimal pairs (S1; p1) and (S2; p2) that maximize Freezemen.s pro.t

assuming that the .rm wants to o¤er two di¤erent qualities S2 > S1. [Hint: Two

out of the four inequalities constraints will be binding.] [10 points]

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Start a new post with the following information and give it an appropriate subject, like “Patton
Ch 1”:
a) From the appropriate chapter, select a question from the Questions for
Review from the end of the appropriate chapter in the e-book, (copy) the question in your
initial post (1 point).
b) Using your own words, correctly answer the selected question (2 points).
c) Read and reply to another classmate’s post (1 point).
d) Provide a thoughtful and correct reply (1 point).

Use the data in HAPPINESS.RAW for this question. See also Computer Exercise C15 in Chapter 13.
1. (i) Estimate a probit probability model relatingvhappytooccattendandregattend, and include a full set of year dummies. Find the average partial effects foroccat- tendandregattend. How do these compare with those from estimating a linear probability model?
2. (ii) Define a variable,highinc, equal to one if family income is above $25,000. Includehighinc,unem10,educ, andteensto the probit estimation in part (ii). Is the APE ofregattendaffected much? What about its statistical significance?
3. (iii) Discuss the APEs and statistical significance of the four new variables in part (ii). Do the estimates make sense?
4. (iv) Controlling for the factors in part (ii), do there appear to be differences in happi- ness by gender or race? Justify your answer.

Attachments:

How does the DD schedule shift if there is a decline in investment demand? 2. Suppose there is a permanent fall in private aggregate demand for a country’s output (a downward shift of the entire aggregate demand schedule). What is the effect on output? What government policy response would you recommend? 3. A new government is elected and announces that once it is inaugurated, it will increase the money supply. Use the DD-AA model to study the economy’s response to this announcement.

During the current COVID-19 pandemic many countries have imposed quarantine on their
populations in order to limit/ stop the spread of the disease and avoid overload on the health
system. While these measures are justified from the health perspective, they have major economic
consequences. In this assignment you are asked to analyse different economic aspects related to the
COVID-19 pandemic.
Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.

manager of a nightclub realizes that demand for drinks is more elastic among students and is trying to determine the optimal pricing schedule. Specifically, he estimates the following average demand for his customer types: Under 25: q^r=18-5p Over 25: q=10-2p The two age groups visit the nightclub in equal numbers on average. Assume that drinks cost the club $2 to make. If the manager cannot identify to which group his customers belong, what is the uniform monopoly price? If the manager can identify to which group his customers belong, what price will he charge each group. Assume the manager can only charge a single price to each group. If the manager can charge a separate entry fee and a price per drink for each group, what two-part price will the manager set for reach group. Now suppose that once again it is impossible to identify which group the customers belong. Suppose the manager lowers the price of drinks to equal to marginal cost and still wanted to attract both customers, what entry fee would the manager set?

A student has to decide whether to go to a party on the night before an exam. If they go to the
party, then they have the probability ? of writing a good exam and the probability 1 ? of writing
a bad exam. If they do not go to the party, then they have the probability > ? of writing a good
exam.
The student has the utility u = x1/2 + H if they go to the party and get the mark x on the exam.
But, if they do not go to the party they have the utility u = x1/2. The professor gets to choose xb
(the mark she gives to bad exams) and xg the mark she gives to good exams. Students also have
the option of going to the party and then quitting the course. This gives them the utility U + H
where U > 0.
(a) What is the student’s expected utility from going to the party and her expected utility from
not going to the party?
(b) Assuming students do not quit the course, what marks (xg, xb) can the professor set to stop
students partying? Draw a picture of this set of marks with yg = pxg on one axis and
yb = pxb on the other. Explain how this set changes as H and ? change.
(c) What marks can the professor set so the students prefer partying and taking the exam to
quitting the course? What marks can the professor set so the students prefer not partying and
taking the exam to quitting the course? Show these sets on a new picture.
(d) Suppose that the professor wants to promote equity and thus aims to make the di?erence
xg xb as small as possible while still stopping students from going to the party, but she
ignores the possibility that students will quit the course. What marks (xg, xb) should she set
to achieve her objective? Will this result in the outcome she planned?
(e) Suppose now the professor wants to minimise xg xb while still getting students to not party
and attend the course. Plot the contours of her objective function on your (yg, yb) picture.
What marks (xg, xb) should she set to achieve her objective now?
(f) The professor has other variables that she can control: she can make the exam harder, which
decreases and ?, and she can make the party fail by calling the campus authorities, which
decreases H. How does each of these variables a?ect her ability to achieve the objectives
described above?

Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.
Demand components: Consumption
b) What factors usually determine individual consumption? In light of these factors analyse
how the situation with the COVID-19 pandemic is likely to affect aggregate consumption.
Use the theory studied in the course in your answer. You may want to provide some
examples for your chosen country.
Part 3 (20 marks)
Demand components: Investment and net exports
Analyse the effects of the COVID-19 pandemic on investment and trade (exports and imports, in
particular). Refer to the theories studied in the course. Provide some examples from your chosen
country. Do you think investment and trade will also be affected after the pandemic is over?
Explain.

The tabulation of the incremental cash ?ows between alternatives A and B is shown on the next page. Alternative A has a 3-year life and alternative B a 6-year life. If neither alternative has a salvage value, what is ( a ) the ?rst cost of alternative A and ( b ) the ? rst cost of alternative B? Year Incremental Cash Flow (B – A), $ 0 –20,000 1 5,000 2 5,000 3 12,000 4 5,000 5 5,000 6 5,000

Based on consulting economist’s report, th total and marginal cost functions for Advanced Electronics, Inc. are

TC = 200 + 5Q – 0.04Q² + 0.001Q³

MC = 5 – 0.08Q + 0.003Q²

The president of the company determines that knowing only these equations is inadequate for decision making. You have been directed to do the following:

Determine the level of fixed cost (if any) and equations for average total cost.
Determine the rate of output that results in minimum average variable cost

If fixed costs increase to $500, what output rate will result in minimum average variable cost

You are given the following model:

appr = b 0 + b1 loanprc + b 2atotinc +b 3 atotinc.^2sq. + b4obrat + b5pubrec + u,

4 5 2 b 0 b1 b 2 b 3 b b ,

in which:

– approve: =1 if loan is approved, and 0 if not.

– obrat: other obligations, % of total income

– pubrec: = 1 if filed for bankruptcy

– atotinc: Total monthly income

– loanprc: loan amount /purchase price

– atotinc.^2sq. = atotinc* atotinc

What sign would you expect from each partial slope coefficient in the model above? Justify your answers.

From the estimation of model above, one can obtain the following:

appr = 1.2-0.189loanprc +1.7e^-06atotinc-4.3e^-11atotinc^2-0.0054obrat-0.28 pubrec

(0.04) (0.038) (2.7e^ -06 ) (5.6e^ -11 ) (0.00088) (0.0358)

R^2= 0.1087 n =1989

Interpret the coefficients of pubrec, and of loanprc.
How do you explain the signs of atotinc and atotinc^2 ?

Assuming that global international trade sharply declines because of the “trade war” (in the forms
of increases in tariff and other trade barriers such as import quota and export subsidies on both
sides) between the U.S. and China, the U.S. and the European Union, and the U.S. and Japan.
Everything being equal, explain in 700-800 words the likely impact on the following:
• Global productivity, economic growth and inflation
• Australian consumers who buy goods imported from China, Japan and the United States.
• Australian producers who need to source from both China and the United States.
• Australian exporters such as a mining company who exports iron ore and coal to China and
Japan.

An economy produces three goods: houses, guns, and apples. The price of each is $1. For the purposes of this problem, assume that all exchange involving houses involves newly constructed houses.
(a) Households buy 10 houses and 90 apples, eating them. The government buys 10 guns. There is no other economic activity. What are the values of the different components of GDP (consumption, investment, government spending, exports/imports)?
(b) The next year, households buy 10 houses and 90 apples. The government buys 10 guns. Farmers take the seeds from 10 more apples and plant them. Households then sell 10 apples to France for $1 each and buy 10 bananas from Canada for $2 each, eating them too. What are the values of the components of GDP?
(c) Return to the economy in part 1a. The government notices that the two richest households consume 40 apples each, while the ten poorest consume one each. It levies a tax of 30 apples on each of the rich households, and gives 6 apples each to the 10 poorest households. All other purchases by households and the government are the same as in
(a). Calculate the components of GDP.

A company must purchase one reactor to be used in an overall operation. Four reactors have been designed, all of which are equally capable of giving the required service. The following data apply to the four designs:

Q1: Cost-saving proposals 600 words (max. 200 words per proposal)Recognising these cost elements of this business, or a typical business like this, propose ways it can cleverly save costs (be more cost-efficient) by: (i) reducing fixed cost (ii) reducing variable cost (iii) cost-shifting (passing on/sharing part of the costs onto customers, workers, the government, the public in general etc.) (iv) aiming to achieve better economies of scale ?Propose three cost-saving ideas using any of (i) to (iv). E.g.: two of (i) and one of (ii). ? Discuss them: why you proposed it, why it is a good idea, what challenges might there be to implement them (if any).
Q2: Competitive strategy proposals 600 words (max. 200 word per proposal) What competitive strategy can your chosen business use to gain an advantage in sales over its rivals? ? (i) the five generic competitive strategies (ii) the 4Cs (contrast, combination, constraint, context) (iii) the 4Qs (questions: 1. Is your business relevant? Can you make it more relevant/offer real or essential or higher consumer needs? 2. Are customers dependent on you or not? How to make them more dependent? 3. Do customers prefer us to our competitors? How to make them prefer us? 4. Are we excellent at something? How do we become excellent compared to rivals?)(iv) six ways to differentiate yourself (product, service, channel, relationship etc.) ?Propose three ideas using any of (i) to (iv). E.g.: (ii), (ii) again, and (iv). ? Discuss them: why you proposed it, why it is a good idea, what challenges might there be to implement them (if any)

In what follows, ignore the negative impact that social distancing has on household income. Assume that individuals’ income remains unchanged. The government would now like you to help them understand “hoarding” behaviour and its effect on the market. We will define

hoarding behaviour as the tendency to buy excessive amounts of a good, though individuals are not expected to usemore of the good. For example, the government sees that individuals are hoarding toilet paper—they are buying excessive amounts, though they are using a normal amount. (6 marks) a. You decide to describe individual hoarding behaviour using game theory. You model the behaviour using a simultaneous game between two players. Assume the actions that each player can choose are to “hoard” or “not hoard”. You are seeing that nearly everyone people in society is engaging in various types of hoarding behaviours, even though everyone would be better off without any hoarding. What type of game can best describe the decision to “hoard” versus “not hoard”? (1 marks)
Given your answer to part (a), assign a set of real payoffs to each action, drawthe normal form game and defineand describethe Nash Equilibrium. (3 marks)
Is the Nash Equilibrium socially efficient? If not, what types of policy might you recommend to encourage individuals to achieve an outcome that is efficient? (2 marks)

Find a real world example from 2019-2020 of a change in market conditions, for example an observed change in prices or the quantity of a good or service. Using theories of economics, such as the demand and supply model, explain the impact of changing market conditions on the price and quantity of goods or services traded. The real world example:

will be sourced from newspapers or other media.
be for a specific city, country or global and over some time period.
The assignment must, as a minimum, include:
- an introduction;
- a description of the relevant market, including the product or service, location and degree of competitiveness;
- an analysis (including appropriate diagrams) of how changing market conditions are influencing or have influenced or may influence prices/quantities, and
- a conclusion.

In what follows, ignore the negative impact that social distancing has on individuals’ income. Assume that individuals’ income remains unchanged with and without social distancing. Now that people are “social distancing” and are on home quarantine they are spending significantly more time at home and have more free time since they do not need to commute to work. In part (a), (b) and (c), you need to discuss how the market moves (what happens to supply and demand) and thus what happens to the equilibrium price and quantity. (5 marks) a. Ceteris paribus, describe with graph and words what happens in the market for online moving streaming, e.g. Netflix. Assume there is only oneonline moving streaming service. You do not need to consider the market for other goods. (2 marks)
Given you answer to part 2a above, now consider the impact on the market for books, which is a perfectly competitive market (consider both digital and print books as a single category). Your answer should consider two key “facts” of the case: (1) people have more time at home and (2) people are watching more movies. (2 marks)
Given your answer to part 2a above, now consider the impact on the market for popcorn. You should assume that even in the time of the pandemic, people enjoy eating popcorn while watching a movie. (1 mark)

Using the principles of economics covered in learning materials from week 1 to week 10 inclusive,
students should apply their understanding to analyse the macroeconomic issues and the policy
responses. Students are expected to conduct some basic research and to reference journal articles,
professional websites and other sources in the process.
Required:
The due date for this group assignment is Week 10.
Total marks: 80
Based on the article above, you are required to complete the following questions:
1. Using a diagram, illustrate and describe Australia’s rate of inflation since 2000. (10 marks)
2. Describe the measures undertaken by the Reserve Bank of Australia in combating inflation while
maintaining low unemployment. Discuss whether they have been successful. (20 marks)
3. Discuss the impacts (both positive and negative) of inflation which have influenced the
macroeconomic variables of the real Gross Domestic Product and total employment of Australia.
(20 marks)
4. Describe the type(s) of unemployment Australia is currently facing? Analyse how these types of
unemployment affect the Australian economy. (20 marks)
5. Using examples from the article, explain the following microeconomic concepts. (10 marks)
i. Diseconomies of scale
ii. Negative externalities
6. i. Overall presentation/formatting of the group report. (5 marks)
ii. Referencing (formatting and accuracy). (5 marks)

Explain the difference between monopoly and monopoly power. In reality, do monopolists always have more monopoly power than firms in oligopolistic sectors? Why or why not? With the aid of an example,

Question1

In 2017, Nepal’s production of rice and machinery was published by the Nepal Bureau of Statistics(NBS)as indicated by the table below:

Production in Nepal

Position	P	Q	R	S	T	U	V	W	X	Y	Z
Rice (1000 tons)	0	10	26	37	45	50	55	59	66	77	80
Machinery (units)	90	89	85	80	75	70	65	60	50	30	0

Based on the table above, a production possibility frontier(PPF)for Nepal can be plotted as below:

Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions:

A.Name positions B, V and D. Also,as indicated in thetable, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice??????????(3marks)

B.Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:

B1:Suppose Nepal begins to manufacture fertilizers.Explain the impact of the discovery of fertilizerson Nepal’s economy usingone of thePPF above.

(2marks)

B2:Also,supposing there is a discovery of steel in Nepal, explain the impact of steelon the economy of Nepal usingone of the PPF above. (2 marks)

B3:Finally, theMinister of Finance in Nepal advicesthe World Bank that in order to increase rice production and machinery, each sector requires USD 50 billion, or a total of 100 billion.This 100 billion is made available by the World Bank.Explain the impact ofthese 100 billion budgetary allocationsto the economy of Nepal. Use one of the PPF above.??(3 marks)

Assessment Question Week 3:

Markets in Action: Demand and Supply

Question 2

Suppose the graph below represents the demand and supply forriceat various prices, answer the questions that follow.

Thegraph above is represented in the table below. Please complete the tablebelowidentifying the shortage or surplus.

Price (10kg bag)	Demand (10 kg bags)	Supply (SS) (10 kg bags)	Surplus (+) Shortage (-)
10	89	29
20	70	40
30	55	55
40	39	67
50	25	80
60	11	95

A.Based on your findings in the table above, what is the market equilibrium price and quantity forrice? ???????(3 marks)

B.Also, please examine the factors thatcanmotivate the government to reduce the price of rice at $20 per 10 kg bag and theeffectsofthatgovernmentlegislation on the rice market.????? (7marks)

Assessment Question Week4:

Price Elasticity of demand and supply

Question 3

The price for cigarettessold by Big Tobacco Co Ltdwas6.00 per packet in March 2018. During the month of March, the consumption of cigarettes was1000 packets.However, the Board of Directors of Big Tobacco Co Ltddecided to increase the price by 25% during the monthofApril. As a manager you noted that price elasticity of demand was 0.8.As a manager Big Tobacco Co Ltd:

A.Advise yourmanagement ofthe strategy that could be adoptedby your firm to maintainsales.?(5 Marks)

B.Also,advise your government on recommendedinterventions in the cigarette market.?????????(5Marks)

Assessment Question Week5:

Production costs

Question 4

John was a high school teacher earning $ 80,000 per year. He quit his job to start his own business in pizza catering.In order to learn how to run the pizza catering business, John enrolled in a TAFE to acquire catering skills.John’s course was for 3 months. John had to pay $2,000 as tuition for the 3 months.

After the training, John withdrew $110,000 from his savings account. He had been earning 5 percent interest per year for this account. He also borrowed $50,000.00 from his friend whom he pays 6 percent interest per year. Further,to start the businessJohn used hisownpremises. He wasreceiving$12,000from rentper year. Finally, to start the business John uses $50,000 he had been given by his father to go on holiday to USA.

John’s first year of business can be summarised as follows:

Item	Amount $
Revenue- Pizza Section	400,000
Revenue- Beverages Section	190,000
2 Cashiers(wages per worker)	55,000
Pizza ingredients	50,000
Manager	75,000
3 Pizza bakers (wages per baker)	60,000
Equipment	10,000

Based on your calculated accounting profit and economic profit, would you advise John to return to his teaching job? Show your work???(10 marks)

Assessment Question Week6:

Market Structure: Perfect Competition and Monopoly

Question 5

The above diagram illustrates the short run cost curves for Sarah Mat, a rice farmer in Queensland.Calculate the profit or loss for Sarah Mat and, examine the key characteristics for perfect competition firm with reference to Sarah’s farm.(10 Marks)

Students select a real-world case study based on their own industry or workplace context, and submit a 2500-word report on an appropriate aspect of business economics. The assessment task is intended to simulate the composition of a formal report to senior management concerning a strategic initiative.

Following the problem solving and decision making approach discussed in Chapter 1 to solve the following issues relevant to the selected workplace industry and incorporate the following:

Does the company make decisions based on depreciation or overhead? If so, does this lead to bad decisions? What can be done to fix the problem? What was the profit consequences of the change [Refer to Chapter 3 of the prescribed textbook especially on Sunk Cost of Depreciation or Fixed Cost of Overhead].
Describe an extant decision made by the company. Discuss the marginal cost and marginal benefit of the decision. Was the right decision reached? If not, what should be done differently? What was the profit consequences of the change?[Chapter 3: Benefits, Costs, and Decisions].

c.Describe an investment decision the company has made. Discuss the opportunity costs and benefits of the decision. Did your company make the right decision? If not, what would you do differently? What was the NPV of the investment? [Refer to Chapter 5 of the prescribed textbook: Investment Decisions: Look Ahead and Reason Back].

Students are expected to demonstrate a sound theoretical and practical understanding of managerial economics in their analysis and discussions, as well as an awareness of the moral, ethical, and cultural aspects economics decision-making.

The composition of the formal report is staged across the first four weeks of the course, whereby students prepare a component of the report and share their research to receive informal peer feedback:

Week 2: Select Your Case Study and Describe

(a) Explain how GDP is measured in your country. Provide real life examples. (4 marks)
While your textbook is your first point of reference, you should consult other references in order to receive full marks. Use real life examples (with references) to support your discussion.
(b) Explain the macroeconomic effects of COVID-19 pandemic on your country using economic theory, real life data and illustrate them on appropriate diagrams. (10 marks)
This is your case study that you need to describe in details, provide relevant information, use table, diagrams where appropriate. You should use real data as much as possible. Refer to the textbook for the theoretical framework.
(b) Using your home country as a case study outline two main economic measures government applied to the national economy due to COVID-19 pandemic. Analyse the effect of such measures on inflation, output and employment using economic theory. What measures would you suggest and why? Explain using theory and real data. (12 marks)

Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions: A. Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks) B. Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow: Economics Homework Help at HomeworkNest.com Point B is inside the PPF curve. It shows efficient utilization of resources, and the production can be increased by using the resources efficiently. Point V is on the PPF, which shows the full utilization of resources. Point D is outside the PPF curve, which shows production at this point is beyond the potential of Nepal due to limited resources. Thus, this would be the unattainable level of production given the available resources (Galles, Graves & Sexton, 2019). If Nepal produces 10,000 more rice, the point moves to V from T. Thus, the rice would increase by 10,000, and machinery production would reduce by ten units. Hence, the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 units of rice is ten units of rice. B) 1. Production of fertilizers means that rice

ATT&T and Time Warner (Spectrum) has been viewed a great deal since it may have great benefits for customers. But the critics of such merger claim that this deal will hurt customers. Should the Government approve this merger? Provide your arguments or against the deal.

Let the fixed price of good is Birr 72. If the cost function of perfect competitive market is given by C= Q3-12Q2+10Q+100, then find profit maximizing level of output

Question 1
Using a production possibilities frontier (PPF) diagram, determine how does the PPF change
in response to the following events:
a) Reducing skilled migration into the country
b) Imposing import taxes (tariffs) on intermediate inputs
c) Increasing the expenditure on research and development
d) An increase in the retirement age
e) The effects of natural disaster
Question 2
Identify what sort of effect the following events have:
a) A decrease in oil prices as a consequence of a price dispute in the world oil markets
b) The onset and prevalence of a pandemic
c) The implementation of subsidies to manufacturing of cars in Australia
d) The implementation of a Carbon tax in the economy. A Carbon tax is charged
according to the level of emissions of greenhouse gases in an economy.
e) The implementation of a new loan program to university students in the education
sector
You are required to explain whether the event acts on the demand or supply side, and whether
the event leads to a quantity or price change, or leads to a shift in demand and/or supply.
Make sure to explain what sort of assumptions you are making on the elasticities of demand
and supply.
Question 3
Compare the impact of a recession that reduces consumer income by 10 percent on the
consumption of technology goods and house rentals. Suppose that the income elasticity of
demand for technology goods is 3 and the income elasticity of demand for house rentals is
0.3. Based on your response, make a policy argument to support through government
funding either businesses or house rentals.

In 1984 and 1985, the small Latin American country of Bolivia experienced hyperinflation. Below are some key macroeconomic data from those years: Macroeconomic Data for Bolivia, April 1984 – October 1985

Are rapid economic growth and equal distribution of personal income necessarily conflicting objectives?

Analyse and evaluate the market structure of the airline industry. In your analysis, determine
whether the current market is concentrated or not. In your discussion, use economic tools or models
to make this decision. You should also consider who owns Jetstar when making these calculations.
2. With the events of COVID-19, there is a possibility that Virgin Australia may fold. Assuming this
market share will be taken up by QANTAS, calculate the new HHI for the industry. What do you think
will happen to air ticket prices? Explain and justify with relevant economic concepts
3. A couple of States, including NSW, are expected to help bail out Virgin Australia. Do you think this
will be good for the industry? Do you think it will be good for Qantas?

Tutorial Submission Question 1

Assessment Question Week 2:

Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)

Question 1

In 2017, Nepal’s production of rice and machinery was published by the Nepal Bureau of Statistics (NBS) as indicated by the table below:

Production in Nepal

Position	P	Q	R	S	T	U	V	W	X	Y	Z
Rice (1000 tons)	0	10	26	37	45	50	55	59	66	77	80
Machinery (units)	90	89	85	80	75	70	65	60	50	30	0

Based on the table above, a production possibility frontier (PPF) for Nepal can be plotted as below:

Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions:

Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks)
Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:

B1: Suppose Nepal begins to manufacture fertilizers. Explain the impact of the discovery of fertilizers on Nepal’s economy using one of the PPF above.

(2 marks)

B2: Also, supposing there is a discovery of steel in Nepal, explain the impact of steel on the economy of Nepal using one of the PPF above. (2 marks)

B3: Finally, the Minister of Finance in Nepal advices the World Bank that in order to increase rice production and machinery, each sector requires USD 50 billion, or a total of 100 billion. This 100 billion is made available by the World Bank. Explain the impact of these 100 billion budgetary allocations to the economy of Nepal. Use one of the PPF above. (3 marks)

Assessment Question Week 3:

Markets in Action: Demand and Supply

Question 2

Suppose the graph below represents the demand and supply for rice at various prices, answer the questions that follow.

The graph above is represented in the table below. Please complete the table below identifying the shortage or surplus.

Price (10kg bag)	Demand (10 kg bags)	Supply (SS) (10 kg bags)	Surplus (+) Shortage (-)
10	89	29
20	70	40
30	55	55
40	39	67
50	25	80
60	11	95

Based on your findings in the table above, what is the market equilibrium price and quantity for rice? (3 marks)
Also, please examine the factors that can motivate the government to reduce the price of rice at $20 per 10 kg bag and the effects of that government legislation on the rice market. (7marks)

Assessment Question Week4:

Price Elasticity of demand and supply

Question 3

The price for cigarettes sold by Big Tobacco Co Ltd was 6.00 per packet in March 2018. During the month of March, the consumption of cigarettes was 1000 packets. However, the Board of Directors of Big Tobacco Co Ltd decided to increase the price by 25% during the month of April. As a manager you noted that price elasticity of demand was 0.8. As a manager Big Tobacco Co Ltd:

Advise your management of the strategy that could be adopted by your firm to maintain sales. (5 Marks)
Also, advise your government on recommended interventions in the cigarette market. (5 Marks)

Assessment Question Week 5:

Production costs

Question 4

John was a high school teacher earning $ 80,000 per year. He quit his job to start his own business in pizza catering. In order to learn how to run the pizza catering business, John enrolled in a TAFE to acquire catering skills. John’s course was for 3 months. John had to pay $2,000 as tuition for the 3 months.

After the training, John withdrew $110,000 from his savings account. He had been earning 5 percent interest per year for this account. He also borrowed $50,000.00 from his friend whom he pays 6 percent interest per year. Further, to start the business John used his own premises. He was receiving $12,000 from rent per year. Finally, to start the business John uses $50,000 he had been given by his father to go on holiday to USA.

John’s first year of business can be summarised as follows:

Item	Amount $
Revenue- Pizza Section	400,000
Revenue- Beverages Section	190,000
2 Cashiers (wages per worker)	55,000
Pizza ingredients	50,000
Manager	75,000
3 Pizza bakers (wages per baker)	60,000
Equipment	10,000

Based on your calculated accounting profit and economic profit, would you advise John to return to his teaching job? Show your work (10 marks)

Assessment Question Week6:

Market Structure: Perfect Competition and Monopoly

Question 5

The above diagram illustrates the short run cost curves for Sarah Mat, a rice farmer in Queensland. Calculate the profit or loss for Sarah Mat and, examine the key characteristics for perfect competition firm with reference to Sarah’s farm.(10 Marks)

Attachments:

Your goal: to advise them on how to be cost-efficient, be more competitive in the market, grow the business, and design their pricing and non-pricing strategies.
In essence: you will develop ideas to make that business more successful, and more resilient and long-lasting, even in fierce competitive situations or in very difficult economic conditions. You will present it in a report (see sample report in the ‘Questions: research report’ document.
(i) published data you find about the business on the Internet— their website, possibly with photographs of their premise, location, how many staff they employ (you can just judge this yourself, if that information is not available), online information about their products or services. See the ‘questions: research report’ document again, instruction no. 3.
You may not be able to get all of these but get as much information as you reasonably can. Use your judgement for the rest or rely on past visits to the shop or store (or what people told you about visits to the store). You do not need to be very precise.
(ii) the business should be a business in Sydney or Manly.

Instruction:

1) The answers of the assignment must be printed.

2) Make sure that the content of your answers is clear and understandable.

Question 1)

The Oslo Accords (including the Protocol on Economic Relations) signed in 1994 had set the stage for the National Palestinian Authority (NPA) to assume political and economic sovereignty in major WBG cities. Although, the skewed integration withOccupation state )Israel( economy (the dependence on) Israeli( economy) did not structurally change. The Palestinian Central Bureau of Statistics (PCBS) have published data for national accounts for this period:

http://www.pcbs.gov.ps/site/lang__ar/507/default.aspx

Use the data posted in this web-link to answer the following questions:

1) Use graph to describe changes in real GDP between 2004 and 2014.

2) Use pie graph to describe the share of GDP components in 2014.

Question 2)

The relative recovery of the Palestinian economy prevailed in the 90s was cut short by the breakout of the Second Intifada in September 2000. Following this date, Palestinians endured devastating measures including, relentless Israeli internal and external closures, loss of land and other natural resource, an astronomical rise in unemployment, mainly due to the termination of labor inflow to Israel, and the purposely destruction of physical infrastructure by Israel.

Based on the data posted on:

http://www.pcbs.gov.ps/site/lang__ar/507/default.aspx

a) Use graph to describe changes in real GDP between 2000 and 2008.
b) What is the GDP component that cause the change in read GDP between 2000 and 2008.

Question 3)

In short, talk about the most important provisions of Paris economic agreement ( Paris Protocol) signed in 1994, explain its effects on the Palestinian economy.

Analyze the baseline model of Schumpeterian growth in Section 14.1 assuming that (14.5) is not satisfied.

(a) Show that monopolists set a limit price.

(b) Characterize the BGP equilibrium growth rate.

(d) Now consider a hypothetical economy in which the previous highest quality producer disappears, so that the monopolist can charge a markup of 1/(1- ß) instead of the limit price. Show that the BGP growth rate in this hypothetical economy is strictly greater than the growth rate characterized in part b. Explain this result.

Students who successfully complete this subject will be able to:
1. demonstrate an advanced level of understanding of theories that propose exogenous drivers of economic
growth to explain economic growth differences;
2. demonstrate integrated knowledge of theories that propose endogenous drivers of economic growth to
explain economic growth differences and recognise that social and environmental issues are inextricably
linked to economic growth;
3. contrast real economic data on theory-informed drivers of economic growth in a rich and a poor country
to design advanced-level and integrated economic growth policy recommendations for the poor country.
These outcomes will contribute to your overall achievement of course learning outcomes. Your course learning
outcomes can be located in the entry for your course in the electronic JCU Course and Subject Handbook 2020 (click
on ‘Course Information’ bar/ select ‘Undergraduate Courses’ or ‘Postgraduate Courses’/ select relevant course/
scroll down to ‘Academic Requirements for Course Completion’, ‘Course learning outcomes’).

Case Study 1. Describe the destination with reference to location, size, demographics, governance and a brief history of tourism development. (20 marks) 2. Discuss the major impacts of Covid 19 on tourism for the destination, including social, cultural, political, economic and environmental. In this discussion, provide various examples & compare different states for each impact and the measures in place to minimise the negative and maximise any positive aspects of these impacts. (40 marks) 3. Analysis the communication between; global tourism networks, national and local tourism organisations, private business and the community, and its importance, for a destination, during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks) 4. Examine the role governmental leadership, in the destination, has taken in supporting the tourism industry during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks)

Consider the US quarterly real gross national product from the first quar-
ter of 1947 to the third quarter of 2011. The data are in the file q-GNPC96 txt,
seasonally adjusted, and in billions of chained 2005 dollars. Let xt be the
growth rate series of the real GDP.
The ar command identifies an AR(4) model for xt via the AIC cri-
terion. Fit the model. Is the model adequate? Why?
The sample PACF of xt specifies an AR(3) model. Fit the model. Is
it adequate? Why?
What is the model for xt if one uses in-sample model comparison?
Why?
Divide the data into estimation and forecasting subsamples using
the fourth quarter of 2000 as the initial forecast origin and apply the
backtesting procedure with MSFE as the criterion. Select a model
for xt. Justify the choice.
To answer questions in Problems 3, (a) use 5% significance level in
tests, and (b) use 10 lags of serial correlations for return series.

Pick one question to answer only.
1. How can states respond effectively to cyber-attacks originating beyond their own borders?
Compare and evaluate responses of two or three different governments.
2. How have the Internet and cyber-weapons
impacted on-going conflicts, and how will they
impact conflicts in the future? Respond using
multiple recent, ongoing, or potential future
conflict scenarios.

Write a MATLAB code (.m file) to compare the bit error rate of (15,11) Hamming code and ¼-convolutional code in addition to the performance of uncoded system. The simulation parameters are shown below:

Daily foreign exchange rates (spot rates) can be obtained from the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. The data are the noon buying rates in New York City certified by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. Consider the exchange rates between the U.S. dollar and the British pound and Japanese yen from January 2, 2007 to November 30, 2011.

(i) Compute the daily log return of each exchange rate.

(ii) Compute the sample mean, standard deviation, skewness, excess kurtosis, minimum, and maximum of the log returns of each exchange rate.

(iii) Obtain a density plot of the daily log returns of Dollar-Yen exchange rate.

(iv) Test H0 : = 0 versus Ha : 6= 0, where denotes the mean of the daily log return of Dollar-Yen exchange rate. Use the 5% significance level to draw the conclusion. If not specifically specified, use 5% significance level to draw conclusions in the exercises.

Consider the US quarterly real gross national product from the first quarter of 1947 to the third quarter of 2011. The data are in the file q-GNPC96.txt, seasonally adjusted, and in billions of chained 2005 dollars. Let xt be the growth rate series of the real GDP.

(a) The ar command identifies an AR(4) model for xt via the AIC criterion. Fit the model. Is the model adequate? Why?

(b) The sample PACF of xt species an AR(3) model. Fit the model. Is it adequate? Why?

(d) Divide the data into estimation and forecasting subsamples using the fourth quarter of 2000 as the initial forecast origin and apply the backtesting procedure with MSFE as the criterion. Select a model for xt. Justify the choice.

To answer questions in Problems 3, (a) use 5% significance level in tests, and (b) use 10 lags of serial correlations for return series.

Consider the daily stock returns of Procter & Gamble from September 1, 2001, to September 30, 2011. The simple returns are available from CRSP and in the le d-pg-0111.txt. Transform the simple returns to log returns.

(a) Is there any serial correlation in the log returns?

(b) Fit an MA model, where the maximum order is Q = 20, to the log returns to remove serial correlations. Write down the fitted model. Is the model adequate?

(d) Fit an EGARCH model to xt. Perform model checking and write down the fitted model.

Case Study 1. Describe the destination with reference to location, size, demographics, governance and a brief history of tourism development. (20 marks) 2. Discuss the major impacts of Covid 19 on tourism for the destination, including social, cultural, political, economic and environmental. In this discussion, provide examples of each impact and the measures in place to minimise the negative and maximise any positive aspects of these impacts. (40 marks) 3. Analysis the communication between; global tourism networks, national and local tourism organisations, private business and the community, and its importance, for a destination, during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks) 4. Examine the role governmental leadership, in the destination, has taken in supporting the tourism industry during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks)

What does the name of the IS curve stand for? Note the following identity might give you some hint:
My to break the left-hand side of the above equation into three kinds of savings. We have discussed under the consumption model the idea of precautionary savings. Does the idea of precautionary saving apply to the government level and/or the country level? Be creative and please give some concrete examples.

Brazil’s Economic Structure’s Critical Overview.
America’s Economic Structure’s Critical Overview.
Evaluation of China’s Trade Policies and Economy.

Who wrote this article, when, how did they gather this information? Did they provide Apple with this information and ask them to comment on their data?

Profile Apple:

How many products and what kind does it produce

What year did Apple move to global supply chains and why? What do they claim about foreign workers and factories

What is Apple’s strategy for production? Which other industries follow this model?

What is the rationale for this? How does Apple relate this to innovation?

How many workers are employed by foreign contractors in producing Apple products?

How many workers are employed in US by Apple? Overseas?

What is Apple’s profit per employee?

At the time of this article, what is the current value of the stock? What has been the increase in value since 2005? Before the impact of the Coronavirus?

What is an example of a manager’s salary package? What is Tim Cook’s package?

Analytical Study of the supply and demand
Economics as a science.
Consumerism Impact and Evolution.
Interest rate as a political factor in an organization.
Impact of Unemployment in today’s economy.
Illegal Immigration affecting a country’s Economy.
Impact of Supply and Demand on Pricing.

(a) Is there a difference between the price of oil in the market for oil and the price of reserves in the market for reserves? Explain. (b) What is the Hotelling Rule? (c) Does it assume profit maximization by owners of oil deposits? (d) What does it imply about the price at which oil is sold over time? (e) How would you expect non-renewable resource by a monopolist to differ from extraction by a price-taking firm? (f) With a pollution externality, Pigou demonstrated that the presence of a harmful real externality leads private decision making by a profit-maximizing firm to generate an outcome that is not socially optimal. Is that also the case with the inter-temporal externality associated with extraction of this non-renewable resource – is the profit maximizing extraction also not socially optimal? Explain. (g) Is socially optimal extraction of a non-renewable resource sustainable? Lecture: Non-Renewable Resources – Economics of oil 2 (a) A non-renewable resource firms owns two deposits of copper, where the potential amount of copper in the deposits are the same but one is located at a shallower depth and has a lower cost of extraction. How should it exploit those two resources? Should it extract some copper from each deposit every year, or should it do something different? Describe the extraction strategy it should employ, and the underlying economic rationale. (b) Has the world price of oil risen, from 2000 to now, approximately at the interest rate, as a simple version of the Hotelling rule would suggest? (e) If not, why not? What factors could explain this?

Accounting Assignments Help US Canada Australia

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough college assignments?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – https://www.homeworknest.com/. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions at Homework Nest. You can also find the best VarsityTutors at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Get Accounting Homework Help at www.homeworkhest.com Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and…

Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and operating income as
changes occur in the units sold, selling price, variable cost per unit, or fixed costs of a product.
3-2 Describe the assumptions underlying CVP analysis.
The assumptions underlying the CVP analysis outlined in Chapter 3 are
1. Changes in the level of revenues and costs arise only because of changes in the number of product (or
service) units sold.
2. Total costs can be separated into a fixed component that does not vary with the units sold and a variable
component that changes with the number of units sold.
3. When represented graphically, the behaviors of total revenues and total costs are linear (represented as a
straight line) in relation to number of units sold within a relevant range and time period.
4. The selling price, variable cost per unit, and fixed costs are known and constant

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy…

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy are married and have three children, Alice, Bryson, and Carl. They live at 500 Main Street, Phoenix, AZ 85021. Robert is a counselor working for a company called Healthy U. Amy works part-time as a pharmacy tech at Walgreens. Here are their social security numbers and birthdates:

View complete question »

Name	Social Security Number	Birthdate
Robert	123-56-3214	1/15/1988
Amy	564-52-6363	2/23/1990
Alice	558-99-3336	5/5/2013
Bryson	120-33-4566

Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6…

Task One
It is stated under AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’ that companies must value and record as an expense
any options granted to employees in exchange for their services. Previously Australian companies
recorded share-based payments in the notes to the financial statements, arguing that share-based
payments did not cost the company anything.
Required
a) Explain the reasoning that led to the development of AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’.
b) Discuss briefly the possible economic implications of AASB 2.
(10 marks)
Task Two
Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6 years
and a face value of $20 each. Annual interest of 5% is payable at the end of each year. The notes
were issued at their face value and each note can be converted into one ordinary share in Sampras
Ltd at any time over their lives. Organisations with a similar risk profile to Sampras Ltd have issued
debt with similar terms but without the option to convert at the rate of 7% per annum.

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair market…

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair
market value of 100% issued shares of the company as at 31 December 2018 (‘valuation
date’). The purpose of the valuation is to assist the company in its deliberation of the
prospective sale of the equity stakes to new strategic investor. The deliverable for this
valuation engagement will be in the form of a valuation report, documenting the entire
valuation process, to be issued to the company.

Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented…

Week 1 The fundamental qualitative characteristics that financial information must possess to be useful to the primary users of general purpose financial reports—identified in the Conceptual Framework are ‘relevance’ and ‘faithful representation’.
Required: a) Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) b) Provide one example where information is not relevant but is faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) c) Provide one example where information is relevant and faithfully represented. (4 marks, maximum 150 words)
Week 2 a) What is a social contract and how does it relate to organisational legitimacy? (6 marks, maximum 300 words) b) Explain two ways organisations can use corporate disclosure policy to maintain or regain organisational legitimacy? (4 marks, maximum 200 words)
Week 3 Diamond Ltd acquired an item of polishing equipment on 1 July 2015 for $440,000. The equipment is expected to have a useful life of 10 years and the straight-line method of depreciation is to be used. It has salvage value of $40,000. On 1 July 2017, the equipment is deemed to have a fair value of $424,000 and revaluation is undertaken in accordance with the Diamond Ltd policy of measuring property, plant and equipment at fair value. The asset is still usable for next 8 years but the salvage value is determined to be zero. The asset is sold for $356,000 on 1 July 2019.
Required: Provide the journal entries necessary at the following dates to account for the above transactions and events. (Ignore narrations). Show your working. (10 marks) • 01/07/2015 • 01/07/2017 • 01/07/2019
Week 4 Snowy Ltd acquires Pax Ltd on 1 July 2018 for $5,000,000 being the fair value of the consideration transferred. At that date, Pax Ltd’s net identifiable assets have a fair value of $4,400,000. Goodwill of $600,000 is therefore the difference between the aggregate of the consideration transferred and the net identifiable assets acquired.
The fair value of the net identifiable assets of Pax Limited are determined as follows: ($000) Patent rights 200 Machinery 1,000 Buildings 1,500 Land 2,300 5,000 Less: Bank loan 600 Net assets 4,400 At the end of the reporting period of 30 June 2019, the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,500,000. The carrying amount of the net identifiable assets of Pax Ltd, excluding goodwill, is unchanged and remains at $4,400,000.
Required: a) Prepare the journal entry to account for any impairment of goodwill. (6 marks) b) Assume instead that at the end of the reporting period the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,200,000. Determine the impairment of goodwill amount. (No journal entries required) (4 marks)
Week 5 On 1 July 2019, Fisher Ltd decides to lease a cargo ship from XFinance Ltd. The term of the lease is 20 years. The implicit interest rate in the lease is 10 per cent. The fair value of the cargo ship at the commencement of the lease is $2,215,560. The lease is non-cancellable, and requires a lease payment of $300,000 on inception of the lease (on 1 July 2019) and lease payments of $250,000 on 30 June each year (starting 30 June 2020). Included within the $250,000 lease payments is an amount of $25,000 representing payment to the lessor for the insurance and maintenance of the cargo ship. There is no residual payment required. Annuity factor, n=20; r = 10% is 8.5136.
Required: a) Prove that the interest rate implicit in the lease is 10 per cent. (2 marks) b) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of Fisher Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020. (4 marks) c) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of XFinance Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020.

James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL)….

James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL).
After purchasing 1,000 shares of SNL, James received a letter (via email) from the company
secretary advising him of a forthcoming annual general meeting (AGM). As a new
shareholder of SNL, James has plenty of questions to SNL’s company secretary.
James rings and asks SNL’s company secretary to explain to him what is meant by the terms
‘member’ and ‘shareholder’, and the different ways in which a person may become a member.
He also asks to explain who may be eligible to become a member, and how many members
a company is permitted to have. Finally, James asks: how does a person cease to be a
member of a company?
1. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his questions above. Use relevant sections of the Corporations Act
2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (5 marks)
At the company’s annual general meeting, James bumps into the company secretary. James
had observed that the notice he had received advising him of his company’s annual general
meeting had stated that it would commence ‘at 1 pm’. Yet, on the day, the annual general
meeting had not commenced until 1.10 pm because the chair had been delayed in traffic
while trying to reach the meeting’s venue. James surmised that this delay in starting the
meeting could constitute a procedural irregularity that could only be rectified by his company
conducting the whole annual general meeting again.
2. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his question on procedural irregularity. Use relevant sections of the
Corporations Act 2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (3 marks)

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company…

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company
produces various food products including meats and milks. You work as a management accountant in
this company.
Your manager has asked one of your colleagues in the management accounting department to
prepare a comparative profit or loss report for the current and previous month. The manager wants
the report to cover only meat production in Victoria’s branches. Your colleague suggests that since
the company has different branches and products, financial statements should cover all of the
company’s activities. He also suggested that the report should be prepared for a financial year in
accordance with accounting standards.
Using your knowledge of financial and managerial accounting, general and specific purpose financial
reports and various users of accounting information, advise your colleague as to the approach they
should adopt to meet the manager’s requirements and ensure the information correctly reflects the
department’s operations.
Your answer needs to be in your own words and correctly referenced to receive full marks.

Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources….

You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed
several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions
below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which…

Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which
apply to reporting by Australian companies and corporate groups, including Company Law,
International and Australian Accounting Standards, and Stock Exchange requirements;
2. Critically analyse and interpret the financial statements and other disclosures produced by
Australian companies and corporate groups;
3. Apply Australian Accounting Standards and Corporate Legislation to the financial reporting
processes of a range of corporate forms including companies and joint ventures;
4. Evaluate financial accounting problems and select appropriate accounting strategies for the
accounting entity;
5. Prepare accounting reports for companies and other corporate forms that meet the compliance
requirements of the professional and legal bodies in Australia;
6. Make judgments about appropriate use of accounting standards and accurately apply appropriate
treatments and communicate these outcomes to a diverse range of stakeholders.

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits…

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars….

Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars. Management predicts that ending finished goods inventory for the first quarter will be 71,400 units. The following unit sales of the transmissions are expected during the rest of the year: second quarter, 357,000 units; third quarter, 347,000 units; and fourth quarter, 260,500 units. Company policy calls for the ending finished goods inventory of a quarter to equal 20% of the next quarter’s budgeted sales.
Propare a production budget for both the second and third quarters that shows the number of transmissions to manufacture.

Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts… 1 answer below »

Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts in selecting the accounts to be debited and credited. (Do not insert theaccount numbers in the journal at this time.) 11 Cash 31 Emily Page, Capital 12 Accounts Receivable 32 Emily Page, Drawing 14 Supplies 41 Fees Earned 15 Prepaid Rent 51 Salary Expense 16 Prepaid Insurance 52 Rent Expense 18 Office Equipment 53 Supplies Expense 19 Accumulated Depreciation 54 Depreciation Expense 21 Accounts Payable 55 Insurance Expense 22 Salaries Payable 59 Miscellaneous Expense 23 Unearned Fees 2. Post the journal to a ledger of four-column accounts. 3. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance. 4. At the end of June, the following adjustment data were assembled. Analyze and use these data to complete parts (5) and (6). a. Insurance expired during June is $200. b. Supplies on hand on June 30 are $650. c. Depreciation of office equipment for June is $250. d. Accrued receptionist salary on June 30 is $220. e. Rent expired during June is $2,000. f. Unearned fees on June 30 are $1,875. 5. Enter the unadjusted trial balance on an end-of-period spreadsheet (work sheet) and complete the spreadsheet. 6. Journalize and post the adjusting entries. 7. Prepare an adjusted trial balance. 8. Prepare an income statement, a statement of owner’s equity, and a balance sheet. 9. Prepare and post the closing entries. (Income Summary is account #33 in the chart of accounts.) Indicate closed accounts by inserting a line in both the Balance columns opposite the closing entry. 10. Prepare a post-closing trial balance.

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of $12,500…

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of
$12,500 and negotiating a loan for the balance. The estimated life of the vehicle was
12 years and residual value $3,000. The vehicle was to be depreciated at the rate of
30% using the declining balance method.
Depreciation is recorded on 30th June each year.
On 30th September, 2017 and 30th September, 2018 all three vehicles were serviced
at a cost of $5,400.
On 31st March, 2019 Vehicle No 1 is sold to Extratta Traders because for $8,000.
You are required to:
a. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2017 to show the
Motor Vehicles account; 3 marks
b. Record all the journal entries that took place from 1st July 2017 to 30th June
2019 (ignore GST and show all calculations). 17 marks
c. If revenue for the financial year 2018 was $61,500, prepare an extract from the
Profit and Loss Statement at 30th June 2018 indicating associated
expenses for motor vehicles for the year. 3 marks
d. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2019 to show the
Motor Vehicles account. 3 marks
B. Why would Utensilite choose the two methods of depreciation it has? What is
the impact of each method on Profit figures over the life of the asset? Describe
two other depreciation methods that could have been used to depreciate the
motor vehicles. Which of the four methods do you believe is most appropriate
for motor vehicles and why?

Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance…

Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance sheet from the adjusted trial balance of Hanson Storage. Ms. Hanson’s capital account balance of $40,340 consists of a $30,340 beginning-year balance plus a $10,000 investment during the current year.

What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?…

QUESTIONS1. What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?2. What are the four basic purposes of internal control? Give an example of each one? B. EXERCISE1. The California State University (CSU) system is the largest four-year higher education system in the United States. In 2004, all twenty-three CSU campuses adopted People Soft, an enterprise resource planning system, for managing finances, personnel records and other important functions. The project was referred to as the Common Management System (CMS). Considering Brown’s taxonomy of risk, identify five risks the CSU and its management took by making the PeopleSoft decision.2. The following is a question in which one is expected to evaluate internal controls. The Art Appreciation Society operates a museum for the benefit and enjoyment of the community. During hours when the museum is open to the public, two clerks who are positioned at the entrance collect a $5 admission fee from each nonmember patron. Members of the Art Appreciation Society are permitted to enter free of charge upon presentation of their members hip cards. At the end of each day one of the clerks delivers the proceeds to the treasurer. The treasurer counts the cash in the presence of the clerk and places it in a safe. Each Friday afternoon the treasurer and one of the clerks deliver all cash held in the safe to the bank, and receive an authenticated deposit slip which provides the basis for the weekly entry in the cash receipts journal. The Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society has identified a need to improve their system of internal control over cash admission fees. The Board had determined that the cost of installing turnstiles, sales booths, or otherwise altering the physical layout of the museum will greatly exceed any benefits that may be derived. However, the Board has agreed that the sale of admission tickets must be an integral part of its improvement efforts. Smith has been asked by the Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society to review the internal control over cash admission fees and provide suggestions for improvement. Required Indicate weaknesses in the existing system of internal control over cash admission fees, which Smith should identify, and recommend one improvement for each of the weaknesses identified.

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. -State for each variable…

Task 1: Variable List 1. Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. 2. State for each variable whether it is qualitative or quantitative; if it is qualitative, state whether it is nominal or ordinal, and if it is quantitative, state whether it is discrete or continuous. Task 2: Histogram 3. Create a histogram showing the distribution of salaries. Find the 5-number summary of the distribution of salaries. Comment upon the shape of the distribution: is it symmetric? If it is not, is it positively or negatively skewed? Are there any outliers present? If so, are they of particular interest? State which central measure would be best to use to describe the centre of this distribution, and the reason(s) why.

Attachments:

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years….

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures 2015-2016,…

Part A (70 marks)
In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures
2015-2016, the Income Tax Rates Amendment (Working Holiday Maker Reform) Act 2017
(the ‘WHMR Act’) was passed. The WHMR Act proposed changes to tax rules for working
holiday makers on 417 and 462 visas (‘backpackers’) as a means of raising revenue. This,
with other proposed legislative amendments concerning working holiday makers, has been
referred to in the media as the ‘Backpacker Tax’.
Choose and read ONE of the following cases.
Clemens and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 124 (6 March 2015); or
Jaczenko and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 125 (6 March 2015);or
Koustrup and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 126 (6 March 2015)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What issues are being considered in your chosen case, and what decision
(conclusion) is reached? (20 marks)
2. Would the decision in your chosen case support the need for a change to the
residency rules for backpackers in Australia? Give reasons (20 marks)
3. How does the WHMR Act treat income earned by ‘backpackers’ in Australia? (10
marks)
4. Is this different to the way income earned by ‘backpackers’ was treated prior to the
introduction of the WHMR Act? If so, how? (20 marks)

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the…

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the core features of
international business strategy. They argue that: “(s)everal of these cases focus on company and country
scenarios related to China, Germany, Mexico, Myanmar, Russia, Venezuela, and prominent other markets.”
(p609) These cases cover a range of international companies including Apple, Dominos, Ford, General Motors,
Microsoft, Philips Siemens, Skype and Volkswagen. As well, these cases in general relates to several unit learning
outcomes including differing elements of international business – related theories, national differences, the
global trade and investment environment, the strategy and structure of international business, and international
business functions.
Required:
This Group Assignment is comprised of two parts.
Part A: Written Report on Two Cases (15%) [this part must be submitted via Turnitin by 5:00pm Friday 24
January 2020] – Expected length – Total 2000 words (i.e., 1000 words for each case)
First, you, as a group, are required to select two out of twenty cases as included at the end of the text by Hill
and Hult (2019 – pp608 – 634). The selection of these two cases will be determined by the coordinator of the
unit and will be allocated in Week 4 during Semester 3, 2019.
Second, you are required to:
a. Summarise and elaborate the respective case scenarios;
b. Answer and critically evaluate the set questions in each case; and
c. Demonstrate applicable theories and issues of international business relates to the selected case.
Third, as well, you are required to provide your reflections and conclusions using contemporary aspects of
international business relating to the case.
The expectation is that you are required to use academic and professional authentic references in analysing
the case and writing the report. Please go through unit outline for guidelines about Turnitin submission and
referencing style.
The Group Assignment develops students’ theoretical and technical skills in international business theory and
strategy as well as their written communication skills. You are required to form a group by Week 4 with no
more than THREE members of your class. Each member is fully responsible for the discussion, preparation,
composition and submission of the integrated case analysis in group. Failure by a student to attend,
contribute, and submit the assignment will result in the said student receiving a zero (0) mark weighting for
this assessment task. You must attach a completed, signed coversheet and a self and peer contribution
evaluation form with your written assignment.

Attachments:

Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing…

Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing swimming pools. During the year
ended 30 June 2019 Michael received $915,000 in cash for sales of equipment andmaterials and for pool services. Wages of
$275,000 were paid to his staff. This included an amount of $50,000 paid to his brother. The work of the brother could have been
done by an unrelated person for $10,000. On 1 June 2019, Michael paid $4,530 to his lawyer to complete the winding up of a
business he had operated at a loss in earlier years. One of Michael’s customers bought some pool materials for $600 on credit
on 21 June 2018 but could not pay the account which was issued on the same day because he went bankrupt in November 2018.
Michael wrote off the debt on 1 July 2019. During the year ended 30 June 2019 Michael paid rates and taxes of $5,270 on a
vacant block of land. Michael was thinking of putting a holiday house on the block of land.
Michael made an interest free loan of $500,000 on 1 January 2019 to one of his employees. The employee used the loan for two
purposes: 30% for the purchase of an investment property and 70% to pay off his home mortgage. On 1 March 2019 Michael
paid the life Insurance premium for one of his employees in the amount of $25,000.
Michael bought a rental property on 4 July 2018 for $1,000,000. He borrowed $750,000 of this money on the same day from
the bank to buy the property. The term of the loan was 4 years. The property was leased on 4 July 2018. He received rent in
cash from his tenants during the year ended 30 June 2019 in the amount of $95,000. On 1 July 2018 Michael paid the bank a loan
application fee of $1,570

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business…

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business and residential customers Students will nave the opportunity to establish payroll records and to complete a month of payroll information for Wayland. Wayland Custom Woodworking is located at 1716 Nichol Street. Logan. Utah. 84321. phone number 435-555-9877. The owner is Mark Wayland. Wayland’s EN is 91-7444533. and the Utah Employer Account Number Is 999.92904 Wayland has determined it will pay their employees on a semimonthly basis. Federal income tax should be computed using the percentage method.
For Pan 2 of this project, you will complete payroll for the last month (December) of the fourth Quarter (Q4) of 2018. which consists of the final two pay periods of the year. Then file the annual tax forms for Wayland as well as prepare each employee’s Form W-2 In Part 2.
The SUTA (Ur) rate for Wayland Custom Woodworking is 2.6 percent on the first $34,300. The state withholding rate is 4.95 percent for all Income levels and marital statuses.

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still…

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the…

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the
fifth largest in Australia.
The 2019 integrated annual report for the Company is provided on the subject Moodle shell.
Using the 2019 Report, compare the financial results of the Company between 2018 and
2019. You should use any financial information provided in the 2019 reports (including
ratios, and narratives) to conclude on the improvements or not in financial position and
profitability. You discussion should focus on reasons for this.
What other information would you need to make an assessment of Lendlease?
Word Limit 1100 words, Marks = 45
Question 2.
The 2019 integrated annual report is the fourth for Lendlease. Explain what is an
integrated report, and how Lendlease is Managing and Measuring Value.
What is your opinion of the Sustainability achievements of Lendlease?

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal…

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal
Court of Australia decision Addy v Commissioner of Taxation [2019] FCA 1768.
(Hint: you may either read the decision or read at least one of the several
commentaries available online)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What are the possible consequences of this decision for ‘backpackers’ who have
already paid tax in accordance with WHMR Act? Give reasons.(20 marks)
2. How has the Australian Tax Office (ATO) responded to the decision in Addy v
Commissioner of Taxation? (10 marks)

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the…

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the first month.

Transactions on May 1:

Don Humes invested $40,000 cash in the company, as its sole owner.
Hired two employees to work in the warehouse. They will each be paid a salary of $3,050 per month.
Signed a 2-year rental agreement on a warehouse; paid $24,000 cash in advance for the first year.
Purchased furniture and equipment costing $30,000. A cash payment of $10,000 was made immediately; the remainder will be paid in 6 months.
Paid $1,800 cash for a one-year insurance policy on the furniture and equipment.

Transactions during the remainder of the month:

Purchased basic office supplies for $500 cash.
Purchased more office supplies for $1,500 on account.
Total revenues earned were $20,000—$8,000 cash and $12,000 on account.
Paid $400 to suppliers for accounts payable due.
Received $3,000 from customers in payment of accounts receivable.
Received utility bills in the amount of $350, to be paid next month.
Paid the monthly salaries of the two employees, totalling $6,100.

Instructions

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is…

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is September 21, 1961, and Bruce’s is June 27, 1960. Bruce is the office manager for Ames Dental Clinic. Alice is the CPA at Lehman, York & Hunter CPA, LP. The Jones provide over half of the support of their two children, Cynthia (born January 25, 1994, Social Security number (017-44-9126) and John (born February 7, 1995, Social Security number (017-27-4148), who live with them. Both children are full-time students and live with the Jones except when they are away at college. Cynthia is in her third year of college, and earned $8,750 from a summer internship in 2019, and John is in his first year of college and he earned $6,500 from a part-time job in 2019. In 2019, the Jones’ paid $4,500 for Cynthia’s college tuition and $7,500 for John’s college tuition. The Jones also provided all the support for their 26-year-old son Ryan who recently graduated from law school but cannot find employment. Ryan lives in DC. According to Mr. Jones on July 01, 2019, he and his wife exchanged their two-family house in Westchester County (378 Pinebrook Blvd, New Rochelle, NY), which they rented entirely from January 01, 2005 to July 01, 2019, for a four family rental property located at 581 Atlantic Avenue, Brooklyn, NY. At the time of the exchange, the FMV of the two-family house was $900,000, and the adjusted basis was $275,000. The four-family house had an adjusted basis of $600,000 and a FMV of $800,000. The two-family home was subject to a $100,000 mortgage, which the buyer assumed. The Jones also owned and rented a two-unit commercial retail building located at 1560 Avenue A, New York NY, which they purchased on December 01, 2018 and placed in service on January 01, 2019. Information for all three of the rental properties is listed below. In March 2019, Bruce decided to start his own business; a retail bicycle shop to be located in NYC near Central Park called “Bruce’s Bikes.” On April 20, 2019, Bruce signed a 10-year lease at a monthly rental rate of $10,000, effective May 01, 2019, for retail space on 110th Street and CPW. The lease provided that Bruce was responsible for the costs of improving the retail space for its intended use. The terms of the lease also provided that the first three months were rent-free so that Bruce could complete the construction needed to operate a retail bike shop. When Bruce executed the lease he paid the landlord $30,000 as a security deposit. On May 01, 2019, Bruce paid a contractor $225,000 to provide all construction work relating to the build-out, which included electrical, plumbing, and carpentry. On June 01, 2019, Bruce purchased the following assets for the business:

Attachments:

Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers -Discuss how management…

Assignment In recent years, successful companies have begun to focus on managing cross-company processes with suppliers to reduce costs, increase speed, and improve quality. In tis print advertisement J.D. Edwards, a producer of ERP software systems notes that companies must ‘collaborate or die’. Required: a) Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers b) Discuss how management accounting information can play a role in different stages of collaboration Limit: 4-6 pages Instructions: Format: A4 paper, corner stapled; no folders accepted; typewritten in 1½ spacing; pages must be numbered. A completed assignment cover sheet must be attached to the front of your assignment. Style Guide: Assignments should be closely checked for errors of typing, spelling, grammar, etc. Where you use specific material from any source, you must provide reference to the specific quotation, and all sources consulted must be included in a bibliography at the end of your assignment. Penalties for late lodgement: A maximum penalty of 10 per cent of the mark allocated to this assignment will be deducted for each day that the assignment is late

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights…

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in…

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in harmonised international accounting practices across countries have been growing over the last ten years. Study based in emerging economies, such as China (He et al., 2012), Romania (Albu et al., 2014), India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh (Ali et al., 2006), South Pacific Island countries (Chand, 2005), United Arab Emeritus (Irvine, 2008), and Turkey (Misirlioglu et al., 2013), have consistently reported the challenge of effectively implementing IFRS in those countries due to country-specific contextual issues. Nobes (2015) also reported challenging issues in implanting IFRS in developed countries.
Assignment questions
1. Prepare a report critically arguing why having a single set of accounting standards (i.e. IFRS) for a world-wise use is inherently problematic.
2. Review literature explaining the contextual issues of implementing IFRS in emerging economies and in developed countries.
3. Critique whether adoption and use of IFRS will lead to improved financial reporting quality.

Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum…

Question 1 (2 marks) ‘Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum and face to face group learning, for all levels of students around the world, due to the Covid-19 pandemic. Online has asked you to research customer preferences and to recommend a pricing policy. There are limited price differences relating to the timing of classes in the Northern Hemisphere. However, for Southern Hemisphere classes running a class at or below 45 students (normal class size is 50) costs significantly more for Online to run the class. Required (200 words): a. In addition to customer preferences, what information would you like to gather before recommending a pricing policy? Explain why each item you list is relevant. b. Explain why it is important to understand customer preferences before investing in the infrastructure to run the system. c. Is the need to consider customer preferences different for this organisation than for another type of organisation? Why or why not? Question 2 (3 marks) Given you are constrained to your house due to Covid-19 you have decided to try and launch your own small business. Required (200 words): a. Design a small business and document 1 key product. Name your business and product. List a maximum of 10 costs that will be involved in selling your product and explain why they are either a variable or fixed cost. b. Estimate a reasonable selling price per unit for your product and estimate a value for each of the costs you listed in part a. c. Workout your Breakeven point, showing all calculations. d. Assume you require a profit of $25,000, calculate your new breakeven point, showing all calculations. e. Define and calculate the ‘Margin of Safety’, in both units and dollars, assuming you sell 75,000 units. Ensure you include all calculations.

Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:…

Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:
May June
Budgeted hours 6 000 8 000
One-hour visits (hrs x 0.2 x 1) 1 200 1 600
Half-hour visits (hrs x 0.8 x .5) 2 400 3 200
Total direct professional labour 3 600 4 800
Hourly wage rate for dentists $200 $200
Total direct professional labour cost $720 000 $960 000

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping precinct….

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping
precinct. The business, called the “Hunny Pots”, sells two types of pots, Large and
Small.
The Business has registered for GST and has an ABN 40 741 258 639. It pays GST
quarterly to the Australian Tax Office.
Accounting system
The company has financial year end 30 June and prepares adjusting entries at the
end of the each month. The firm uses the following journals to maintain its accounting
records
? Sales Journal: to record all credit sales of inventory
? Purchased Journal: to record credit purchases of inventory
? Cash Receipts Journal: to records all cash receipts
? Cash Payments Journal: to records all cash payment
? General Journal: to record all transactions other than the above
The company maintains a general ledger for each account. Subsidiary ledgers are
used to record separate details that Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable.
The company uses a perpetual inventory recording system.
Goods and services tax (GST)
The company is registered for GST and therefore is required to pay GST on its
purchases and collect GST on its sales. All prices include GST unless specifically
excluded
Unadjusted Trial Balance and Chart of Accounts
The unadjusted Trial Balance as at 29 February 2020 and a Chart of Accounts is
presented on the next page.
Accounting Procedures
The transactions are recorded by you, the accountant for Hunny Pots on a daily basis
in the appropriate journal. Transactions are posted daily from the General Journal.
Transactions are also posted daily to the Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable
subsidiary ledgers. Total of the Special Journals are posted to the appropriate
accounts at the end of the account period.

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues…

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues related to the materials covered in this course. In the contemporary discussion forum participation, students will be required to contribute informative responses during the specified period, demonstrating engagement and interaction with contemporary tax issues. In considering the development of your responses, you will need consider what each of the articles are concerned about and what the relevance to the tax system is. For example, is the topic about some event that has occurred to a particular taxpayer(s) or perhaps there is a particular kind of activity that needs considering? Determine what the relevant tax issues might be, in terms of the topics we have been covering in this course. There is no mandatory word limit, however a good guide is to consider a paragraph or two, per post.

Please note that weeks do not necessarily corelate perfectly with topics and therefore I do not generally reference/align content or assessments to particular weeks. Moreover, although we have provided a structure to scaffold learning by splitting the syllabus into topics, there are a lot over cross overs and interactions between topics. As such, I would ensure you are familiar with how things fit together.

For example, if you are a foreign resident (topic 2) who undertakes some kind of activities in Australia, then your tax rates will differ (topic 1) to tax residents. You will include only Australian sourced income (topic 2), and you will need to consider whether the activities are amount to assessable income (topic 3), or perhaps are captured by capital provisions (topic 4), or neither, and if so whether any expenditure may be deductible (topics 6,7), and so on.

We generally assign topics 1-9 to Assessment 1.

Marking Criteria	Short Description	Mark
1. Relevant Contribution.	Demonstrated ability to prepare and contribute relevant posts to the discussion forum topic(s).	2.5
2. Synthesis and Analysis.	Ability to synthesise material in order to raise issues or construct a persuasive and substantive response.	2.5
3. Interaction and Engagement.	Ability to engage in a reflective discourse. The extent of engagement with students, in terms of interaction, insight and direction offered.	2.5
4. Presentation and Referencing.	The extent of appropriate organisation and structure; legal terminology and writing skills.

Homework Nest is the best website for helping busy college student with their Assignments. Is your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

Question 1: Mathematics

Math 111 – S2020 – Covering Week 14 – Weekly Assignment

Directions: Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work. Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so. All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering. Your final answer must be circled.

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem. Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between and its antiderivative. Give examples.

(5 points) Using the knowledge that , explain why the indefinite integral must have the “added at the end. Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

Two students are studying on campus. Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library. Zach texts John that he’s hungry. John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer. Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time. Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

Given Zach travels with the velocity and John travels with velocity where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach. In other words, and

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer? How long does it take John to get there?

( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by and the x-axis. Determine the area bound by by and the x-axis.

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

( 6 points)

Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
Evaluate the definite integral to find the area bound by and the x-axis.
Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

For on the interval using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval. Which will overestimate? Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values. You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

Question 2: Finance

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

(iii) Provide for auditors remuneration
(iv) Income tax expense
(v) Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
(vi) Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

(vii) Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
(viii) Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
(ix) On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Required:

(a) Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
(21 Marks)
(b) Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
(4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

Who can write an admission essay for my new college

Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

Question 3: Mathematics

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

	A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
	A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
	A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
	A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
	A 95% confidence interval with

A.	2.262
B.	2.861
C.	1.671
D.	2.045
E.	2.571
F.	2.205
G.	1.665

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best). For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications. State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better. State the null and alternative hypotheses.

For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

	a.	Type I Error
	b.	Type II Error
	c.	We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
	d.	We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

	The critical value at 90% confidence is
	Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
	The value of 1-P should be set equal to
	The organization must select an SRS of at least

A.	1.645
B.	0.50
C.	0.50
D.	423
E.	1.96
F.	1.976
G.	.25
H.	.75
I.	466
J.	1692

Question 4: Chemistry

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

Temperature of Air (^oC) (x-axis)	Volume of Air (mL) (y-axis)
100	140
20	110
4	105

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________^oC

Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

Answer:

Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3^oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 ^oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

Answer:

Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

Answer:

Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

Answer:

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

1. Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

2. Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

3. Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t₁ vs. v₁, t₂ vs. v₂ and t₃ vs.v₃). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

	Temperature (°C)	Volume of Water (mL)	Volume of Air (mL) (Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)
Part 1 (t₁, v₁)
Part 2 (t₂, v₂)
Part 3 (t₃, v₃)	Temperature of Boiling water:		Total Volume of Flask:

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

Absolute Zero: _____________^oC

Question 5: Other

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted. While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
Major divisions are clear visually.
All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

No misspellings or typos are present.
Writer uses complete sentences.
Work is writer’s original text.
Grammar and punctuation are correct

Question 6: History

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

Question 7: Law

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus. You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

II.

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female. In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination. Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City. The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

III.

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram. Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

Question 8: Computer Science

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

Question 9: General

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

A B C

Adversity Beliefs About A Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events) (Our thoughts) (how we feel and behave)

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

Question 10: Other

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity. I am giving you quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons. Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image. Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core? (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms:

aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different. Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life? Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law. Take all this to the next step. Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

Part II

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

Question 11: Religious Studies

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

Question 12: Finance

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

	Year 1	Year 2	Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project:	€1,800,000	€2,900,000	€2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project:	€350,000	€390,000	€280,000

BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

Question 13: Business Finance

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

Question 14: Finance

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

Question 15: Engineering

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

Question 16: Mathematics

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

Question 17: Computer Science

Assignment 3 Question

Further Background

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

Complete the Following

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

Agile Methodologies

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

Plan and Monitor Project

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA	STANDARDS
CRITERIA	High Distinction	Distinction	Credit	Pass	Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why. 6 marks	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00)	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09)	Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49)	Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89)	Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)
Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project. Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration. Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration. 6 marks	Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (5.10-6.00)	Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (4.50-5.09)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. (3.90-4.49)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors. (3.00-3.89)	Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong. Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong. Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong. (0.00-2.99)
Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures) 2 Marks	Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49)	Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29)	Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation 1 Marks	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00)	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84)	Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74)	Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64)	Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

Question 18: Business

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

Question 19: General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

Question 20: General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

Question 21: General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

Question 22: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 23: Statistics

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor. The participants are divided by gender. Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

Question 24: Music

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

They taught themselves.

They learned in school.

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

None of the above

Machismo

It was difficult for them to learn the music

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

immigration

drug dealing

social diseases

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

Form

Texture

Pitch

Timbre

4.Rhythm

Volume and articulation of sounds

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

Frequency of the tone

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

Refers to the dancer him/herself

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

Body

Time

Space

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

. Idiophones

. Chordophones

1.Aerophones

Vibrations of air columns

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

Vibrations of strings

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

A piano solo

An opera

An open drum circle

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

the sung farewell in a corrido.

a statement of protest in popular song.

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

Diaspora

Essentialization

Stereotype

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

Triple meter

Compound meter

Huapango

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

Tecnobanda

Quebredita

Chicken scratch

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

Gloría Rios

Amparo Ochoa

Judith Reyes

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

Emilio Zapata

Jorge Negrete

Agustín Lara

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

Idiophone

Membranophone

Aerophone

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

Bajo sexto

Mandolin

Guitarrón

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

giving space to women composers.

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

Question 21 options:

Kunqu

Zarzuela

Opera

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

Zapateado

Ceili

Baile

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

May 5th.

April 15th.

September 16th.

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

Music, verse, and instrumentation

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

Music, verse, and choreography

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

Question 25 (1 point)

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

True

False

Question 26 (1 point)

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

True

False

Question 27 (1 point)

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

True

False

Question 28 (1 point)

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

True

False

Question 29 (1 point)

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

True

False

Question 30 (1 point)

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

True

False

Question 31 (1 point)

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

True

False

Question 32 (1 point)

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

True

False

Question 33 (1 point)

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

True

False

Question 34 (1 point)

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

True

False

Question 35 (1 point)

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

True

False

Question 36 (1 point)

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

True

False

Question 37 (1 point)

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

True

False

Question 38 (1 point)

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

True

False

Question 39 (1 point)

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

True

False

Top of Form

39 of 39 questions saved

Bottom of Form

Internet connection lost. No longer saving answers…Internet connection restored! Saving all answers…

Question 25: Business

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled. For example:

What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

Question 26: Business

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

Question 27: Business

For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Question 28: Economics

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

Question 10

0 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 1

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 3

10 out of 10 points

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

Question 29: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 30: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 31: Psychology

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

Grogginess

Blurred vision

Headaches

Dryness of the mouth

The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

transfer information into long-term memory.

remember significant events from the distant past.

perform basic mathematical calculations.

remember one’s own name.

One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

is generally reversible

is not reversible

involves a slow increase in symptoms

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

can result from short term use

can result from low doses

occurs in less than 2% of patients

may often be irreversible

Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

A familiar person is actually a double.

You are a famous or important person.

People are out to get you.

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

The rights of mentally ill individuals

The rights of society to be protected

both of these

neither of these

Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

NGRI

GBMI

both of these

neither of these

In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

schizotypal personality disorder

schizoaffective disorder

schizophreniform disorder

brief psychotic disorder

One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

both of these statements are correct

neither of these statements are correct

Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

children tend to outgrow ADHD

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

restricted behavior pattern

social impairment

ritualistic behavior

maintenance of sameness

Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

an anxiety disorder

a mood disorder

a split personality

obsessive-compulsive disorder

The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

careless mistakes

fidgeting

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

all of these

If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

head trauma

Parkinson’s disease

Huntington’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

Disorganized speech

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

psychological testing

mental status exam

autopsy

reported observations of the patient by family members

Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

hallucinations

delusions

both a and b

neither a nor b

Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

dementia

Alzheimer’s

delirium

amnesic disorder

In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

hallucinations.

delusions.

both of these

neither of these

One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

None of the above

Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

Which of the following statements is true?

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

None of these

The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

is based on well controlled studies

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

has no scientific evidence

Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

stimulant medication

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

over-involvement

criticism

emotional distance

Hostility

Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

have a genetic component

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

are unique to children

Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

at birth

by age one

by age three

by teen years

At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

jealous

erotomanic

somatic

persecutory

The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

variable home structure

unshared environment

environmental phenomenon

unique perceptive interpretation

Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

Question 32: Psychology

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

the development of primary sex characteristics

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

hypothalamus

pituitary gland

thyroid hormones

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

epiphyses.

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

estrogens

androgens

thyroid glands

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

infants.

toddlers.

elementary schoolchildren.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

greater in girls than boys.

about the same in both genders.

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

Lilly, someone who began dating early

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

body fat.

hormones.

diet and exercise.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

sex differences in body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

appearance of facial hair

growth of testes and scrotum

growth of penis

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

genetically inherited.

often determined culturally.

a major embarrassment for most boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

underarm hair.

menarche.

acne.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

androgens only; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; testes

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

regular ovulation

development of the nipples of the breasts

growth of pubic hair

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

nutritional deficiencies

excessive exercise

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

genetic factors.

environmental factors.

None of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

good nutrition

family conflict

peer pressure

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

her most stressful days of the month

days she feels most sexually aroused

her biological sister living in a different city

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

endocrine trend.

menarche trend.

secular trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

secular trend.

longitudinal trend.

physiologic trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

sanitation.

infectious diseases.

genetics.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

cross-sectional

cross-sequential

secular

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

cross-sectional study.

cross-sequential study.

correlational study.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

early maturation

stressful life events

the delayed phase preference

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

family relationships.

nutrition.

activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

longitudinal design.

adolescent growth spurt.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

mood fluctuations throughout the day

television, computers, and artificial light sources

early school starting times

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

school should be held year-round.

school should begin later in the morning.

school should begin earlier in the morning.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

less likely to be depressed.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

Alison, who is a late mature

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

when the girl reaches menarche early

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

do better in school.

be ostracized by their classmates.

get along with their parents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

greater popularity

a more positive self-concept

greater confidence in one’s self

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

experiment with drugs and alcohol

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

often expected to be more mature than they are.

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

more intellectual curiosity.

greater exploratory behavior.

higher levels of social initiative.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

less frequent temper tantrums

less depression

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

being less popular, especially with boys

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

have a more negative self-image.

succeed in school.

perceive themselves as attractive.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

the developmental readiness hypothesis

the maturational deviance hypothesis

genetic makeup

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

All of the above.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

early; late

late; late

early; early

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

delayed phase preference

secular trend

feedback loop

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

early-maturing Black girls

early-maturing White boys

early-maturing White girls

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

decreases from childhood to adolescence.

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

normal adolescent eating patterns.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

depression

alcohol and tobacco use

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder

obesity.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder.

deprivation syndrome.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

obesity nervosa.

purging.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

to be physically inactive.

suffer from chronic illness.

anorexia nervosa.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

chronic illness.

cardiovascular disease.

risky behaviors.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

suicide

homicide

cancer

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

Hispanic females

White females

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

whether biologic

Question 33: Education

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

Question 34: Health Care

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

Question 35: Health Care

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

Question 36: Health Care

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m² of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

Where Can I pay for College Algebra and Math Homework Help

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

Question 37: Other

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

· Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
· Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

· Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
· Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
· Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

· Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
· Custom Tab Stops
· Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

· Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
· Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

· Custom Margins
· WordArt
· Paragraph Shading
· Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
· Insert and format an image
· A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
· Columns

Submission:

· Print your document
· Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score	Item	12	8	4	0
	Content	Content is well chosen and well written	Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content	Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written	Very little relevant content is included in the resume
	Overall Look	Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing	Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional	Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional	Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
	Header/Footer	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document.	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document	Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer	Content is not included in the header or footer
	Tab Stops	Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable	Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable	Custom tab stops make the content less readable	Custom tab stops are not applied
	Styles	Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing	Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Styles make the content less readable	Styles are not applied
	Font Choices	Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing	Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Font choices make the content less readable	Custom fonts and font styles are not included
	Paragraph and Line Spacing	Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing	Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable	Custom spacing makes the content less readable	Custom spacing is not included
	Other Features	Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism	Did not use any other features

Question 38: Biology

Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

________________________

In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

Which of the following statements are FALSE?
An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
BB X Bb
Bb x bb
BB X bb
Bb x Bb

Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
Because both parents passed on white alleles

In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
male with
male without
female with
female without

14 The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

What is the name of this graphic device?

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’. The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

Question 39: Biology

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

Why study primates?
What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
Why do primates have long growth and development?
What are the primate residence patterns?
What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
What is the importance of grooming?
How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
What is the basic primate social unit?
How do primates communicate?
What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
How do primates acquire food?
How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

- What is a hominin?
- Why did hominins emerge?
- Patchy Forest Hypothesis
- Provisioning Hypothesis
- What is bipedalism?
- What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

What is honing and non-honing chewing?
What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

Homo hablis
o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

Homo naledi
Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

What are archaic Homo sapiens?
Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

Australopithecines (robust)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

Homo	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019


Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

Question 40: Finance

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

Question 41: Finance

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

Question 1: Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

Substance abuse

Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
Compensation
B. Denial
C. Suppression
D. Undoing
Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
Alcohol
B. Barbiturates
C. Heroin
D. Marijuana
Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
Aid in GABA inhibition.
B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
Diazepam
B. Carbamazepine
C. Clonidine
D. Methadone
Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
B. Recurrent flashback events
C. Psychological dependence after initial use
D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
C. Women working in careers outside the home
D. Women working in the home
Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
Depressant.
B. Hallucinogenic.
C. Stimulant.
D. Tranquilizing.
When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
Acetylcholine excess
B. Dopamine depletion
C. Serotonin inhibition
D. Norepinephrine rebound
Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
Caretaking.
B. Codependent.
C. Helpful.
D. Supportive.
During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
How long have you used substances?
B. How often do you use substances?
C. How do you get substances into your body?
D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
E. How much of each substance do you use?
F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
G. What substances do you use?

Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
Seizures
B. Shivering
C. Anxiety
D. Chest pain
Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
B. Control eating impulses
C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
D. Eat only three meals per day
A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
B. Succimer (Chemet)
C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Naloxone (Narcan)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
“I trust you not to purge.”
B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
“If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
C. The family is poor
D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
They tend to overprotect their children
B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
Remaining with the client and staying calm
B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
C. Discussing the future with the client
D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
B. Focus discussions on food and weight
C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
Carbonated beverages
B. Aftershave lotion
C. Toothpaste
D. Cheese
Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
B. Provide privacy during meals
C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
C. Use of drugs or alcohol
D. History of previous victimization
A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
Acetate accumulation
B. Thiamine deficiency
C. Triglyceride buildup.
D. A below-normal serum potassium level
A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
Client’s physical needs
B. Client’s safety needs
C. Client’s psychosocial needs
D. Client’s medical needs
The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
Accept responsibility for own behaviors
B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
A postoperative infection
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Acute sepsis.
D. Pneumonia.
Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Opiate withdrawal
D. Cocaine withdrawal
A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
D. Epinephrine.
A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
“I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
“Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
B. Depression and physical withdrawal
C. Silence and noncompliance
D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
“I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
Coronary artery spasm
B. Brady arrhythmias
C. Neurobehavioral deficits
D. Panic disorder
A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
Begin after seven (7) days
B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
Keeping the client restrained in bed
B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
D. One who talks about wanting to die
Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
Allergies
B. Cancer
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hepatitis A
Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
The student discusses conflicts over drug use
B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
Clozapine (Clozaril)
B. Thiothixene (Navane)
C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
Al-Anon
B. Make Today Count
C. Emotions Anonymous
D. Alcoholics Anonymous
A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
Antisocial personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D. Narcissistic personality disorder
Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
Has only moderate impulse control
B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
Manipulate her husband
B. Gain control of one part of her life
C. Commit suicide
D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
Psychotherapy
B. Total abstinence
C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
D. Aversion therap

Paranoid schizo, schizo

A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
an example of presenting reality.
B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
C. focusing on emotional content.
D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
“I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
D. go to their room until the voices go away.
A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
Assist the client with feeding.
B. Assist the client with showering.
C. Reassure the client about safety.
D. Encourage socialization with peers.
A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
has a more predictable onset of action.
B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
C. produces fewer drug interactions.
D. has a longer duration of action.
A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
“Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
Risk for violence toward self or others
B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
C. Ineffective family coping
D. Impaired verbal communication
The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
delusion.
B. looseness of association.
C. illusion.
D. hallucination.
Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C. haloperidol (Haldol)
D. midazolam (Versed)
A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
“I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
“This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
Tardive dyskinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Akathisia
What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B. haloperidol (Haldol)
C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
Aggressive behavior
B. Paranoid thoughts
C. Emotional affect
D. Independence needs
During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
“When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
a false belief about the functioning of the body.
B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
Agranulocytosis
B. Extrapyramidal effects
C. Anticholinergic effects
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
Helping the client to participate in social interactions
B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
Benztropine (Cogentin).
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
C. propranolol (Inderal).
D. haloperidol (Haldol).
A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

Question 2: Heath Care

A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

A) Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
B) Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
C) Encourage the client to go to bed early.
D) Keep the client busy during the day.

A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

A) Provide ample information.
B) Support the client when in delusion.
C) Reduce distracting stimuli.
D) Offer a large-muscle activity

Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

A) Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
B) Administer lithium before meals.
C) Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
D) Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

A) Reactive depression
B) Mania
C) Psychotic depression
D) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

A) Weight gain
B) Lack of energy
C) Memory loss
D) Increased sleep

What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Hyperalertness

Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

A) Euthymia
B) Dysthymia
C) Cyclothymia
D) Psychotic depression

Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

A) Psychosis
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Hypertensive crisis
D) Hallucinations

Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Acetylcholine

Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

A) Behavioral therapy
B) Supportive psychotherapy
C) Interpersonal psychotherapy
D) Cognitive therapy

The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

A) Major depression
B) Seasonal affective disorder
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Reactive depression

The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

A) The central nervous system
B) The autonomic nervous system
C) The limbic system
D) The peripheral nervous system

A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

A) Serotonin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dopamine
The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

A) Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

B) Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

C) Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

D) Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

A) “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
B) “How long have you been taking the medication?”
C) “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
D) “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

Page 6

A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
A) Fruit salad
B) Lobster
C) Pork medallions
D) Spinach and feta salad

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

A) Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
B) Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
C) Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
D) Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

A) Hypertension
B) Dizziness
C) Hallucinations
D) Sexual dysfunction

The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

A) “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
B) “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
C) “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
D) “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

A) Vagal nerve stimulation
B) Electroconvulsive therapy
C) Deep brain stimulation
D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Page 8

The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

A) Headache
B) Blurred vision
C) Hearing loss
D) Vertigo

Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

A) Do not leave any syringe unattended.
B) Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
C) View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

D) Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

A) “How are you currently feeling?”
B) “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
C) “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
D) “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

A) Hopelessness
B) Risk for Injury
C) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
D) Ineffective Coping

Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

A) Client appearance
B) Body language
C) Speech
D) Energy level
E) Work history

The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

A) Thyroid gland and thyroxin
B) Pineal gland and melatonin
C) Pancreas and insulin
D) Pituitary gland and oxytocin

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

A) September/October
B) February/March
C) April/May
D) December/January

When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

A) The disease remits as the client ages.
B) The disease increases as the client ages.
C) The depression increases as the client ages.
D) The manic phase increases as the client ages.

The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

A) A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
B) Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
C) Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
D) Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

A) Antidiabetics
B) Antihypertensives
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Antianginals

The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

A) Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

B) Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
C) Limit sodium intake daily.
D) Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
E) Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
F) Monitor intake and output

The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

A) Mania
B) Hypothyroidism
C) A pituitary deficiency
D) A cerebral vascular accident

When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

A) Cold and allergy medications
B) Antiulcer medications
C) Multivitamins
D) Laxatives

Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

A) Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
B) Install skylights.
C) Sleep in a darkened room.
D) Stay indoors during the winter time.

The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
A) Speaking in slow, brief sentences
B) Presenting the reality of the situation
C) Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
D) Being present without speaking

Question 3: Health Care

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

“I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
“I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
“I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
“I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

Bladder distention
Decreased blood pressure
Calf swelling
Diminished bowel sounds
Calf swelling

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
Remove the stockings at least once per shift
Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

Auscultate lung sounds
Measure urine output
Monitor blood pressure readings
Monitor serum electrolyte levels
Auscultate lung sounds

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

“I can concentrate best in the morning.”
“It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
“I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
“You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

Touch the face with a cotton ball
Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

Walking briskly
Riding a bicycle
Performing isometric exercises
Engaging in high-impact aerobics

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

Erythema on pressure points
Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
A bowel movement every other day

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Check the client for injuries
Move hazardous objects away from the client
Notify the provider
Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

“I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
“Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
“You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
“The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

“Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
“Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
“Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
“Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

Insert an implanted port
Close a laceration with sutures
Place an endotracheal tube
Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

Lacrimal apparatus
Pupil clarity
Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
Visual fields
Visual acuity

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

Airborne
Droplet
Contact
Protective environment

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
Draw up medications together in the same syringe
Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
Cleanse the wound from the center outward
Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

Purulent exudate
Warmth
Skin blanching
Bleeding

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

Critical pathway
Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
Transfer report
Medication administration record (MAR)

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

Protective environment
Airborne precautions
Droplet precaution
Contact precautions

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

Suction the client’s airway
Administer a bronchodilator
Increase the humidity in the client’s room
Assist the client to an upright position

A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

BUN 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

Bend at the waist
Keep his feet close together
Use his back muscles for lifting
Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

The medication
The route
The dose
The frequency

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

Tomato juice
Banana slices
Pancakes
Fried egg

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

“What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
“I blame medical science for not curing me.”
“Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
“Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask the client to consider a direct donation
Withhold the blood transfusion
Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

Role ambiguity
Sick role
Role overload
Role conflict

Role overload

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

“When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
“Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
“At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
“Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

Biofeedback
Aloe
Feverfew
Acupuncture

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

“I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
“I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
“I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
“I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

“We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
“This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
“After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
“We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Tell the client which food should eat first.
Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

“I’m having mild pain.”
“The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
“I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
“The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

“They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
“They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
“They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
“They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Neck vein distention
Urine specific gravity 1.010
Rapid heart rate
Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
Administer a pain medication to the client

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Place the client in a side-lying position
Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
Shave excess hair from the insertion site
Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

Side-lying
Supine
Semi-Fowler’s
Trendelenburg

Question 4: Health Care

1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Turn the patient every 2 hr
i) The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
b) Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
i) The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end of life
c) Hold oral care
i) The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
d) Increase the room’s temperature
i) Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

2) A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

a) Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
i) The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
b) Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
i) A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
c) Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
i) Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
d) Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
i) The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

3) A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Place the client in a side lying position
i) The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
b) Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
i) Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
c) Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
i) The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
d) Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
i) The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

4) A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

a) The client is receiving formula at room temperature
i) Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
b) The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
i) Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
c) The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
i) Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
d) The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
i) It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

5) A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

a) Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
i) A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
b) Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
i) And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
c) Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
i) The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
d) Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
i) The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

6) A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

a) Protective environment
i) Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
b) Airborne precautions
i) Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
c) Droplets precautions
i) Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
d) Contact precautions
i) Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

7) A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
i) The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
b) Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
i) Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
c) Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
i) In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
d) Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
i) Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

8) A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

a) Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
i) The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
b) Complete an incident report
i) The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
c) Consult the facility’s risk manager
i) The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
d) Notify the nursing manager
i) The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

9) A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

a) “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
i) As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
b) “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
i) Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
c) “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
i) Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
d) “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
i) Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

10) A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

a) “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
b) “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
c) “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
i) The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
d) “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
i) With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

11) A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

a) Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
i) The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
b) Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
i) Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
c) Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
i) Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
d) Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
i) An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

12) A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

a) “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
i) A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
b) “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
i) Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
c) “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
i) The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
d) “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
i) The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

13) A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
i) A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
b) Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
i) Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
c) Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
i) The nurse should not lock the remaining controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
d) Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
i) The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

14) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

a) “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
b) “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
i) This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
c) “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
d) “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
i) This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

15) A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

a) Insert the catheter at 45* angle
i) Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
b) Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
i) The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
c) Shave excess hair from the insertion site
i) The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
d) Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
i) The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

16) A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

a) Use a bed exit alarm system
i) The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
b) Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
i) Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
c) Apply one soft wrist restraint
i) Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
d) Dim the lights in the pt’s room
i) Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

17) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Assist the pt into a prone position
i) The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
b) Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
i) The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
c) Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
i) The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
d) Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
i) The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

18) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a) Numbness of the extremities
i) Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
b) Bradycardia
i) Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
c) Positive Chvostek’s sign
i) A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
d) Abdominal cramping
i) The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

19) A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

a) Crackles
i) Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
b) Rhonchi
i) Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
c) Friction rub
i) Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
d) Normal breath sounds
i) These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

20) A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a) “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
b) “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
c) “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
i) The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
d) “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

21) A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

a) Increase in hematocrit
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
b) Increase in respiratory rate
i) Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
c) Decrease in heart rate
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
d) Decrease in capillary refill time
i) Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

22) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

a) Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
i) The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
b) Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
i) The 1^staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
c) Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
i) If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
d) Administer a pain medication to the client
i) Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

23) A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

a) Role ambiguity
i) Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
b) Sick role
i) Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
c) Role overload
i) The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
d) Role conflict
i) Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

24) A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

a) Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
i) The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
b) Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
i) The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
c) Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
i) The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5^thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
d) Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
i) When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

25) A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

a) During the admission process
i) Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
b) As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
i) Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
c) During the initial team conference
i) Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
d) After consulting with the pt’s family
i) The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

26) A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a) “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
i) Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
b) “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
i) Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
c) “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
i) Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
d) “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
i) Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

27) A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

a) A lesion with uniform pigmentation
i) Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
b) New appearance of petechiae
i) Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
c) A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
i) An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
d) The presence of a papule
i) Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

28) A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Insert the needle at a 15* angle
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
b) Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
c) Administering the medication into the abdomen
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
d) Massage the site following the injection
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

29) A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

a) Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
i) The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
b) Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
i) Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO₂)
c) Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
i) The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
d) Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
i) Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

30) A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

a) Critical pathway
i) A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
b) Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
i) SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
c) Transfer report
i) The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
d) Medication administration record (MAR)
i) The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

31) A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
i) The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
b) Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
i) The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
c) Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
i) The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
d) Massage the injection site after administration
i) The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

32) A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

a) The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
i) The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
b) When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
i) To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
c) The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
i) The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
d) The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
i) The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

33) A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

a) “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
b) “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
i) Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
c) “Does the pain radiate?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
d) “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

34) A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

a) The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
i) The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
b) The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
i) The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
c) The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
i) The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
d) The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
i) The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

35) A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

a) Alginate
i) Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
b) Guaze
i) Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
c) Transparent
i) Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
d) Hydrocolloid
i) Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

36) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

a) Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
i) The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
b) Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
i) The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

Question 5: Health Care

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)   Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)   Tarsals
b)   Tibia
c)   Sphenoid
d)   Scapula
e)   Clavicle

3) Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5) Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

a
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

8) How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

10) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

12) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

a)   E
b)   F
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

14) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)   H
c)   I
d)   J
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

16) The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   G
e)   None of the selections are correct

18) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)   D
b)   E
c)   F
d)   I
e)   J

20) What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)   E
b)   B
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

22) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

24) Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

26) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

28) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

30) This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and C

34) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
a)   B
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

37) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

38)   Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

39) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)   Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

41) Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

a)   C
b)   D
c)   H
d)   I
e)   J

43) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   B
e)   F

45) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

47) This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

Question 6: Biology

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene. Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

Question 7: Chemistry

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

Question 8: Physics

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

Question 9: Psychology

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

What topic and research question did you pursue?
How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
What insights did you gather about your research question?
What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

Question 10: Statistics

Mid Semester Assignment

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

(20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a) What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b) All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c) The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

(14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

(20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

(a) Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b) What is the mean and variance of X?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d) If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e) The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

(37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

(a) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

(b) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

(c) Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

(d) Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

(e) Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

(i) If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

(9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

(a) What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

(b) What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

(c) If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

(d) When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

Question 11: Psychology

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

Question 12: Business

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

Question 13: Business

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

Question 14: Statistics

Assignment #4

A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

Assignment 3

1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
c. What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

3. Use the table below to answer the questions below:

Column A Z score	Column B Area Between the mean and Z	Column C Area beyond the Z score
.12	.0478	.4522
1.40	.4192	.0808
1.41	.4207	.0793
1.42	.4222	.0778
1.43	.4236	.0762
1.44	.4251	.0749
1.45	.4265	.0735
1.46	.4279	.0721
1.47	.4292	.0708
1.48	.4306	.0694
1.49	.4319	.0681

What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student	Year	Criminal Justice Major
1	Sophmore	Yes
2	Senior	No
3	Junior	Yes
4	Freshman	No
5	Freshman	Yes
6	Sophmore	Yes
7	Sophmore	Yes
8	Junior	No
9	Sophmore	Yes
10	Sophmore	No

What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
a sophomore?
a student majoring in sociology?
a freshman or a sophomore?
not a freshman?

What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

Question 15: Sociology

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

Question 16: History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17: General Question

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

Question 18: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 19: Mathematics

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

Question 20: Nursing

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

Question 21: Biology

Why Study Biology?
What is Life?
What About?
How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
Role of Experiments
Experimental Design
Experimental Problems
Higher Levels of Organization
Scientific Names
Categories of Biological Classification
Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
Fungi
Plants
Animals
Animal Cell Features
History of Microscopes & Cells
Cell Theory
Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
Components of Nucleus

Question 22: Accounting

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?

11d. Producer surplus is the

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?

17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:

27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?

29c. The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:

The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:

31c. Frictional unemployment is

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases

34a. Technological improvement causes

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

40d. An increase in the price level will

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?

Question 23: Accounting

1)   The financial system is primarily a means by which   1)
A)   funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)   the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)   business firms distribute their goods.
D)   money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)   Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?   2)
A)   Wells Fargo Bank   B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit   D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)   If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):   3)
A)   liability to both you and Intel.   B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.   D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?   4)
A)   corporate equities   B) life insurance
C) bank deposits   D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)   Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)   profitability   B) risk sharing   C) information   D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)   Economists define risk as
A)   the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)   the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)   the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Economists define liquidity as
A)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)   the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)   the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)   the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)   Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)   computer   B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine   D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)   reduces the difference between the return on three-‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)   relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)   guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)   eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13-‐14 Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)   Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)   bonds.   B) dividends.   C) stocks.   D) coupons.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)   Securitization is the process of   11)
A)   issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)   converting loans into securities.
C)   issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)   reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)   If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)   a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   Financial markets   13)
A)   act as go-‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)   channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)   channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)   generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is   14)
A)   a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)   a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)   an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)   Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)   Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)   George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)   Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)   Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)   Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)   primarily through government agencies.
B)   indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)   indirectly through financial markets.
D)   directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)   Bank of America
C)   NASDAQ
D)   Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   bank   B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund   D) insurance company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)   The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)   provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)   provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)   help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)   borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)   Financial intermediaries
A)   include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)   directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)   include banks and other depository institutions.
D)   are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)   A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)   in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)   for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)   in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)   for government securities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)   A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)   both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)   both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)   both involve the use of financial markets.
D)   both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.   B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.   D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)   Economists define money as 24)
A)   cash in circulation.
B)   bonds issued by large corporations.
C)   anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)   deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)   The Federal Reserve System   25)
A)   is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)   is the central bank of the United States.
C)   is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

D) is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)   Monetary policy refers to the government’s   26)
A)   plans for retiring the national debt.
B)   management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

C)   decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
D)   decisions on how much money to spend.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Diversification refers to the   27)
A)   difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)   difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)   difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)   splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)   The purpose of diversification is to
A)   increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)   reduce tax liability.
C)   reduce risk.
D)   reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)   The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)   savers to earn interest tax-‐free.
C)   savers to hold many assets.
D)   borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   Liquidity
A)   was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)   is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)   is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)   is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)   Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)   treasury bond   B) stock
C) money market mutual fund   D) house
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)   Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)   bonds issued by state governments   B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds   D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)   The financial system performs the role of communicating information by   33)
A)   incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)   constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)   providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)   constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)   The distinguishing feature of a well-‐functioning financial market is the
A)   continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)   increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)   continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)   incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)   In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)   the Federal Reserve System.
B)   Congress and the President acting together.
C)   the President.
D)   Congress.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

36)   In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)   Fannie Mae.
B)   Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)   the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)   the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)   A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)   large businesses.   B) federal government.
C) small businesses.   D) state governments.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)   What made the recession of 2007-‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)   it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)   the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)   the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)   the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)   All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)   there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)   large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)   the financial system was disrupted
D)   unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)   Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   the savings of relatives and friends
B)   their own savings
C)   global investors
D)   local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)   All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)   it involves small loans
B)   lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)   many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-‐income countries
D)   the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)   Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)   Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)   Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)   More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)   Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2   Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)   The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)   securitization   B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading   D) microlending
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)   Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)   securitization   B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting   D) lending to households
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)   All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)   coupon payments on bonds   B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks   D) fees on loans

46)   Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both   50)
A)   help regulate the banking system.
B)   reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)   sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)   directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

51)   All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   alt-‐A mortgages.
B)   mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)   adjustable-‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)   subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52) Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A) when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

C) when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)   All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   lenders loosened lending standards.
B)   borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)   mortgage-‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)   investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15-‐16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)   Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)   those with fixed-‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)   those with adjustable-‐rate mortgages
C)   subprime borrowers
D)   those with alt-‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)   The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed   55)
A)   the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)   the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

C) the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
D) the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)   Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?   56)
A)   J.P. Morgan   B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)   Alt-‐A borrowers were those who
A)   borrowed using “ʺinterest-‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)   did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)   chose adjustable-‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-‐rate mortgages.
D)   used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)   The financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)   American International Group (AIG)   B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)   At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)   declines in the value of mortgage-‐backed securities.
B)   holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)   defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)   not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

60)   Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:   60)
A)   alt A   B) securitized   C) adjustable   D) subprime
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)   The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to   61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)   allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)   increase the return to savers
D)   enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)   An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently   1) is
A)   they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)   they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)   the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)   they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)   By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)   goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)   individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)   individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)   individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)   The most important economic benefit from specialization is that it   3)
A)   eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)   makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)   makes barter possible.
D)   leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   When an economy relies on specialization,   4)
A)   each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)   the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)   each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)   Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must   5)
A)   have an extensive system of higher education.
B)   develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)   be heavily agricultural.
D)   be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)   Barter is   6)
A)   the basis for economic specialization.
B)   the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)   another name for money.
D)   an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Under a system of barter   7)

A)   currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)   goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)   each individual trades output directly with another.
D)   only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

8)   Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)   An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)   An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)   An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)   An individual deposits three twenty-‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   In a barter system individuals   9)
A)   will almost invariably specialize.
B)   find it impossible to specialize.
C)   find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)   must be entirely self-‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)   A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)   the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)   taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)   the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)   traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11) Under a barter system
A) each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

B) prices for goods are very stable.
D) each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12) How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)   poorly-‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)   the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)   the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)   the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card. Andy’ʹs problem illustrates the drawback to a barter system known as A) the specialization problem.
B)   the transactions problem.
C)   the many prices problem.
D)   the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

15)   Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)   Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)   The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)   Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)   Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)   Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)   government rationing
B)   barter
C)   money
D)   the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)   Marlboro cigarettes   B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins   D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)   Money eliminates the need for
A)   people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)   specialization.
C)   the market system.
D)   any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

19)   Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that   19)
A)   the need for specialization is reduced.
B)   the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)   the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)   transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)   Commodity money can best be described as   20)
A)   standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)   a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21) Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A) the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)   The introduction of money to an economy results in:   22)
A)   a more efficient barter system   B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization   D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   Money can BEST be described as:   23)
A)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)   any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)   commodities that have intrinsic value
D)   paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24) Money is a medium of exchange in that 26)

A)   it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)   other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)   currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)   money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)   checks at commercial banks.
B)   currency.
C)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)   gold coins.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)   When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)   money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)   money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

29)   When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)   money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)   money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   An asset is
A)   the same thing as a liability.   B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

C) anything that never declines in value. D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)   The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money   31)
A)   may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)   serves as a medium of exchange.
C)   is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)   retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)   Wealth is
A)   equal to income.
B)   a flow variable.
C)   the sum of the value of assets.
D)   the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)   The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)   stock of all assets, money is an individual’s stock of currency and currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Question 24: Economics

Real wages in the United States in the long run:
A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
The long-run trend of real wages:
A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
C. has been upward.
D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
A. decreased by 2 percent.
B. increased by 2 percent.
C. increased by 3 percent.
D. increased by 8 percent.
Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
A. total output.
B. stock of capital.
C. output per worker.
D. international trade.
Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
A. the law of diminishing returns.
B. improvements in technology.
C. reductions in wage rates.
D. increases in the quantity of labor.

The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
D. the supply of labor has increased.
If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 3 percent.
C. fall by 3 percent.
D. rise by 11 percent.
If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 4 percent.
C. fall by 4 percent.
D. rise by 8 percent.
Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
Marginal resource cost refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
A. of diminishing returns.
B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
C. of declining MRC.
D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
A. perfectly inelastic.
B. perfectly elastic.
C. highly inelastic.
D. highly elastic.
A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
A. marginal revenue product is zero.
B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
C. marginal resource cost is zero.
D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
B. is a monopsonist.
C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
A. 2 units of labor.
B. 3 units of labor.
C. 4 units of labor.
D. 5 units of labor.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
A. $16.
B. $30.
C. $24.
D. $32.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $24.
D. $30.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
C. is a “wage taker.”
D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. has a principal-agent problem.
B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
A. $2.
B. $3.
C. $4.
D. $16.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $8.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
A. $8.
B. $52.
C. $2.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
A. pure monopolist.
B. discriminating monopolist.
C. monopolistic competitor.
D. pure competitor.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
A. 2 workers.
B. 3 workers.
C. 4 workers.
D. 5 workers.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
A. $16.
B. $24.
C. $32.
D. $48.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
A. $20.
B. $16.
C. $12.
D. $8.

Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
A. upsloping; horizontal
B. downsloping; vertical
C. vertical; upsloping
D. horizontal; upsloping

The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
A. monopsonist.
B. monopolist.
C. bilateral competitor.
D. bilateral monopolist.

In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
A. $9.
B. $10.
C. $15.
D. $21.

Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

In monopsony:
A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
B. the work force is highly mobile.
C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
A. worker’s wage rate.
B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

A monopsonistic employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
A. and employment will both be lower.
B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
D. and employment will both be higher.

“Player drafts” of professional athletes:
A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

Which of the following is not correct?
A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
A. $15.
B. $25.
C. $35.
D. $45.

Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
A. W4.
B. W3.
C. W2.
D. W1.

Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
C. industrial unions.
D. craft unions.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and E.
C. B and G.
D. B and F.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and F.
C. B and F.
D. A and F.
Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
A. D minus A
B. D
C. C
D. B

Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
A. D minus A
B. F
C. C
D. B

A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
A. inclusive unionism.
B. exclusive unionism.
C. bilateral monopoly.
D. monopsony.

Occupational licensing:
A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
A. wage rate will rise.
B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
B. employment may either increase or decrease.
C. employment will increase.
D. employment will decrease.

The electricians’ union is a good example of:
A. exclusive unionism.
B. an industrial union.
C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
D. inclusive unionism.

Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
A. increasing the supply of labor.
B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
C. decreasing the demand for labor.
D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
C. increase the demand for construction workers.
D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

Craft unions:
A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
A. be logically indeterminate.
B. be established at the level desired by the union.
C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
D. always be established at the competitive level.

If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
A. a cartel.
B. countervailing power.
C. a bilateral monopoly.
D. an internal labor market.

Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
D. not alter its level of employment.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
D. eight workers would be hired.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
A. below $7.
B. between $5 and $8.
C. above $5.
D. above $8.

Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
B. economy has high unemployment.
C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
B. reduces employment.
C. undermines incentives to work.
D. is deflationary.

Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
D. geographic immobilities.

Compensating differences in wages:
A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
A. differences in worker training and skills.
B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
C. geographic immobilities.
D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

The idea of compensating differences is used:
A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

Data on education and earnings reveal:
A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
B. no relationship between the two.
C. a positive relationship between the two.
D. a negative relationship between the two.

According to age-earnings data,
A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

Human capital is best defined as:
A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
D. the exchange of money for real assets.

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. discrimination

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographical immobility of workers
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. compensating wage differentials

Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographic immobility of workers
B. discrimination
C. noncompeting groups
D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
B. the neglecting or evading of work.
C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
A. equalizing differences.
B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
C. shirking.
D. the free-rider problem.

The idea of efficiency wages is that:
A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
D. increasing the supply of labor.

Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
A. royalties.
B. profit-sharing.
C. bonuses.
D. piece rates.

A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
D. reduce total compensation payments.

Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
C. offset monopsony.
D. address the principal-agent problem.

One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

Question25: Psychology

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes
c. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
d. the number of driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. cognitive perspective

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of a driving simulator
b. the use of nicotine
c. the driving skills of each driver
d. the number of collisions

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
b. educational knowledge
c. replication
d. publication

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Experimenters can justify the use of deception because ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is not that harmful
b. there is informed consent
c. it may be necessary for the experiment to work
d. research is more important than people

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
All of the following variables, except for __________ show a negative correlation.
Choose one answer.
a. school grades and IQ scores
b. men’s educational level and their income
c. height and weight
d. alcohol consumption and scores on a driving test

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
One of the reasons psychodynamic theories have persisted over the years is that they are ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. used by the majority of psychologists
b. difficult to scientifically test and, thus, difficult to disprove
c. based on facts
d. supported by significant scientific research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experiment
d. correlational studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
Choose one answer.
a. rare
b. common
c. expected
d. imperfect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. description
b. control
c. prediction
d. explanation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
b. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades
b. her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz
c. there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
d. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing behavior
b. controlling behavior
c. explaining behavior
d. predicting behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed but only when necessary.
b. There are rules that prevent the killing of animals.
c. There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals.
d. New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. volunteer bias
c. the principle of falsifiability
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
Freud stressed the importance of _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. adolescence
b. early adulthood
c. early childhood experiences
d. middle adulthood

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. emotion
b. keeping a closed mind
c. authority and expertise
d. reason and logical evaluation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient represents two things: ______________________ and ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a representative sample; strength
b. strength; direction of the relationship
c. the experimental group; control group
d. direction of the relationship; expectant functionality
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Dr. Mosher is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a ___________________ .
Choose one answer.
a. evolutionary psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist ect
c. cognitive psychologist
d. biopsychological psychologist
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the ______.
Choose one answer.
a. survey method
b. experimental method
c. naturalistic observation method
d. psychometric approach

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
The majority of psychologists work in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. colleges and universities
b. public school
c. government
d. private practice

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Sam described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. observer effect
b. restaurant effect
c. butterfly effect
d. parent effect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
________________ is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.
Choose one answer.
a. Statistics
b. The scientific method
c. The double-blind method
d. Checks and balances

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. a case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experimentation
d. participant observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly?
Choose one answer.
a. to comply with legal requirements
b. to allow researchers to replicate experiments
c. to identify all the extraneous variables
d. to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits
b. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness
c. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements
d. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
Choose one answer.
a. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
b. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid.
c. It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings.
d. It is basically the same process as objective introspection.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. educational knowledge
b. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
c. publication
d. replication

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1

All of the following are accurate statements regarding random assignment EXCEPT ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is a procedure in which each subject has the same possibility of being assigned to a given group
b. it is a procedure in which subjects are assigned to a positive correlation or a negative correlation condition
c. it is a procedure for assigning people to experimental and control groups
d. it is a procedure that allows individual characteristics to be roughly balanced between groups

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication.
b. A psychologist has no medical training.
c. A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school.
d. An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Rob was named to the first team all-American basketball team last year. However, he is academically ineligible to play this year due to failing several classes. As a result, he is ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. supporting the idea that negative stereotypes exist for collegiate student athletes that they are likely to perform poorly in academics compared to non-athletes
b. supporting the idea that professors are biased in grading assignments of collegiate student athletes
c. supporting the idea that athletes have higher GPAs than non-athletes
d. supporting the idea that collegiate student athletes are not as smart as non-athletes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is concerning critical thinking and astrology?
Choose one answer.
a. Research shows no connection between astrological signs and personality.
b. Astrology is based on stars and, therefore, it is scientific. ect
c. Astrology is used by a lot of people.
d. Although there are many skeptics, astrology has strong evidence suggesting it is a valid science.
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. confounding variable
b. independent variable
c. dependent variable
d. random variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Professor Holden gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question ly, her students need to remember that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated
b. given these variables, the correlation will be positive
c. given these variables, the correlation will be negative
d. a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. understanding
b. changing
c. describing
d. predicting

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
“There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Choose one answer.
a. Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested.
b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
c. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
d. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was developed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Sigmund Freud
d. William Tell

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities?
Choose one answer.
a. functionalist
b. behavioralist
c. psychodynamic
d. Gestaltist

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of collisions
b. the use of nicotine
c. the use of a driving simulator
d. the driving skills of each driver

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. biopsies of the brain of a cadaver
b. acute time of death in stroke patients
c. images of the living brain
d. select biopsied portions of a brain

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. cognitive perspective
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
The work of Freud was built around __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes
b. a method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior
c. a method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations
d. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing
b. understanding
c. predicting ect
d. changing
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. Gestalt
b. behavioral
c. humanistic
d. psychodynamic

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
The goals of psychology are to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. understand, compare, and analyze human behavior
b. explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind
c. describe, understand, predict, and control behavior
d. improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. logical and well thought out
b. focusing on opinion
c. giving it a lot of thought
d. seeing one side of an argument very clearly

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Wesleyan University researchers Jamison and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
b. a correlation between collegiate athletes exposure to the negative stereotypes, the better they performed on an intelligence test
c. collegiate student athletes performed better in the classroom if they were made aware of the impact of
negative stereotypes
d. professors often excuse absences by collegiate student athletes who miss class due to attending practices

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. replications
b. experimenter effects
c. volunteer biases
d. single-blind studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
b. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
A psychologist evaluated Tameka, an eight-year-old child who has experienced difficulty in school. The psychologist sent questionnaires to 100 teachers to determine if they had ever seen similar cases. Based on the teachers’ responses, the psychologist hypothesized that a particular diet might cause the learning problem. Following her tabulation of the responses, she designed a study that would tell her if diet were the actual cause. Which of the following lists, in order from first to last, the research methods this psychologist used?
Choose one answer.
a. experiment, case study, survey
b. correlation, case study, experiment
c. naturalistic observation, survey, experiment
d. case study, survey, experiment

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
An operational definition is ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships
b. a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested
c. the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation
d. the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
Choose one answer.
a. structuralism; observable behavior
b. psychoanalysis; unconscious conflict
c. Gestalt; whole
d. natural selection; functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the cigarette without nicotine is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the control group
b. the experimental group
c. the no-control group
d. the driving simulator

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. the principle of falsifiability
c. volunteer bias
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. explanation etc.
b. description
c. control
d. prediction
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. the science of behavior
b. the science of behavior and mental processes
c. the science of human behavior and mental processes
d. the science of mental processes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
Choose one answer.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. Gestalt

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. room crowding
c. eating McDonald’s food
d. observer effects

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning critical thinking is etc.?
Choose one answer.
a. There are few truths that need not be tested.
b. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
c. Some authorities should not be questioned.
d. All evidence is not equal in quality.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 26: Chemist

Homework 6

An ammonia water solution is added at a specified rate to a charge of a formaldehyde water solution. The reaction is instantaneous, that is, as soon as the ammonia and formaldehyde mix they react forming HMT and water; the reaction is also highly exothermic. A cooling jacket surrounds the reactor to cool the liquid.

Process Information:

Initial charge of formaldehyde water solution = 1000 kg

Mass fraction of formaldehyde in the original solution = 0.42

Initial temperature of formaldehyde water solution = 50 oC

Feed flow rate: ; Ammonia mass fraction in feed:

Feed temperature:

Heat capacity of reactants and products:

Heat of reaction (assumed constant):

Overall heat transfer coefficient:

By the way, the jacket volume (volume of liquid in the jacket) is 2 m3. Be careful with the units!

The feeding time is 130 minutes.

a) Assume that the cooling water flow rate is so high that its temperature due to heat transfer hardly increases that is, its exit temperature is also. Find the heat transfer area such that the reactor temperature just rises to by the end of the feeding time.
b) Assume now that the utility plant providing the cooling water is limited in its capacity, and we must remove the assumption of very high cooling flow and thus, constant cooling temperature. It is necessary to find out the water flow rate that experiences no more than increase in temperature, that is, the maximum exit water temperature cannot be over, and at the same time does not allow the reactor’s content to exceed by the end of the feeding time. Use the heat transfer area obtained in (a).

Question 27: Science

Midterm Exam

Return to Assessment List

Comment: Outstanding!

Part 1 of 1 –

100.0/ 100.0 Points

Question 1 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder is an example of a ____?

A.High explosive

B.Low explosive

C.Flammable liquid

D.Caustic explosive

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which explosive is considered to be the first composite explosive developed?

A.Gunpowder and/or Blackpowder

B.Poudre B

C.Greek Fire

D.Saltpeter

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An explosive is a substance capable of producing an explosion by its own ______.

A.Matter

B.Structure

C.Density

D.Energy

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Who introduced blackpowder to Europe?

A.Nobel

B.Munroe

C.Schwartz

D.Bacon

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder contains a __________ and a ___________ chemical mixture.

A.Fuel & oxidizer

B.Oxidizer & primer

C.Oxidizer & granulate

D.Fuel & nitrate compound

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

High explosives ____________ under the influence of shock.

A.Burn

B.Deflagrate

C.Fizzle

D.Detonate

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

According to Tenny Davis, this type of ordnance/munition contains 3 classes of explosives.

A.Dynamite

B.TNT

C.Blasting Cap

D.Complete round of ammunition

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This inventor discovered liquid nitroglycerine.

A.Ascanio Sobrero

B.Alfred Noble

C.Charles Munroe

D.Albert Schwartz

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This process greatly improved upon the quality and production efforts of Blackpowder.

A.Milling and/or corning

B.Sensitizing

C.Drying

D.Wetting

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

TNT is also known as _______?

A.Triluene

B.Trinitrotoluene

C.Tetracycaline

D.Tritium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

__________ was the 1st smokeless powder.

A.Ballistite

B.Poudre B

C.Gunpowder

D.Blackpowder

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which country developed the 1st explosive testing procedures to determine adequate safety handling precautions?

A.England

B.Sweden

C.Germany

D.China

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

___________ is a chemical reaction which takes place between a substance and oxygen.

A.Combustion

B.Equilibrium

C.Kinetics

D.Dissolution

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The combustion process of propellant and explosive substances can be defined as a _____________.

A.Self-sustaining reaction

B.Exothermic reaction

C.Rapid-oxidizing reaction

D.All of the above

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The propagation of any explosion reaction through a deflagration explosive is based on _____________.

A.Thermal reactions

B.Chemical kinetics

C.Thermo mechanics

D.Kinetic combustion

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosives can be classified by the ease with which they can be _______ and _________.

A.Composed and detonated

B.Composed and deflagrated

C.Detonated and dissolved

D.Ignited and subsequently exploded

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Incendiary compositions containing saltpeter, sulphur, and combustible materials over a century ago were used primarily for ______ and ______.

A.War and amusement

B.Amusement and theology

C.War and advanced space exploration

D.DNA testing and amusement

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Antimony is also known as ________.

A.Sb2S3 which is referred to as Antimony sulphide

B.Sb8h1

C.Saltpeter

D.Sulphur

Answer Key:

Question 19 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Permitted explosives are also known as ____________.

A.Primary explosives

B.Secondary explosives

C.Commercial explosives

D.Special explosives

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical explosive was the 1st compound to be globally accepted as a basic compound for military use.

A.Picric acid

B.Blasting gelatin

C.Blackpowder

D.Potassium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 21 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical code provides the makeup for TNT.

A.C7H5N3O6

B.C5H8N4O12

C.CH4N4O2

D.C3H6N6O6

Answer Key:

Question 22 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosions by type can be divided into which 3 groups?

A.Atomic, chemical, & kinetic

B.Kinetic, overpressure, & blastwave

C.Chemical, atomic, & mechamical

D.Atomic, chemical, & physical

Answer Key:

Question 23 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Atomic energy is approximately how many times greater than chemical energy?

A.A million to a billion

B.A hundred and to million

C.A hundred to a thousand

D.A thousand to a million

Answer Key:

Question 24 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An erupting volcano is an example of what type of explosion?

A.Physical

B.Chemical

C.Atomic

D.Kinetic

Answer Key:

Question 25 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Chemical explosions can be divided into how many groups?

A.2

B.1

C.3

D.4

Answer Key:

Question 28: Health Care

To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient’s elective surgery.

Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner’s initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient’s response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management. Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his follow-up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient’s recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient’s neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient’s parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can’t transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication’s side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient’s symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient’s spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient’s use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient’s chronological age.

An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient’s murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient’s family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

acknowledge the family’s anxiety.
arrange for a meeting with a social worker.
escort the family to a conference room.
gently direct the family to maintain composure.

An acute care nurse practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who is intubated for mechanical ventilation. The patient’s arterial blood gas results are: pH-7.35; PCO2-44 mm Hg; HCO3-22 mEq/L; and PO2-52 mm Hg. The current ventilator settings are: Assist control; Respiratory rate-14 breaths/min; Tidal volume (TV)-400 mL; Fraction of inspired O2-100%; and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP)-5 cm H2O. The nurse practitioner’s next action is to increase the:

peak pressure alarm to 40 mm Hg.
PEEP to 10 cm H2O.
respiratory rate to 18 breaths/min.
TV to 500 mL.
Question 29: Health Care

Care of Adults and Older Adults

The nursing unit manager on a medical teaching unit says that she would like a nurse to present a case study at interdisciplinary rounds on a patient who has compartment syndrome from a leg injury. This is the first patient you have cared for with this complication, and you have difficulty presenting your ideas in front of a group. What would you do?
Ask to attend the rounds to increase your understanding of the condition.
Research the condition and present what you have learned as well as your assessment findings and care measures.
Suggest that a more experienced nurse be selected to present this case study.
Approach the unit manager, explain your difficulty presenting in front of interdisciplinary team members, and ask to be excused from presenting.
Which of the following situations would indicate a professional boundary violation?
To empathize with a patient’s situation, sharing a personal experience with a patient that is very similar to the situation the patient is experiencing.
Reminding a patient who has dementia that certain sexual touch behaviours are not acceptable.
Being concerned about a patient’s welfare and seeking ways to protect the client’s best interests.
Having well-intentioned behaviours that detract from achievable health outcomes for patients.

An important component of professional practice is self-awareness. Why is self-awareness an important basis for nursing practice?
It may prevent biases and assumptions from affecting relationships.
It may allow the nurse to examine how biases and assumptions could interfere with therapeutic effectiveness.
It may enable the nurse to treat people from different cultural backgrounds according to the dominant beliefs of their culture.
It allows for mo re objectivity in facilitating the healing process.

Which of the following is a theoretical perspective that underlies group process and effectiveness?
The personality style theory acknowledges that the nature of individuals in a group helps us understand group dynamics and sources of conflict in the group.
When groups are formed to complete a task, the task functions need to be assigned to individuals to ensure effective group functioning.
Considering the roles and functions or groups would explain the developmental theory of groups.
For group effectiveness, a group needs to have homogeneity and common views and interests.

Which of the following group principles interfere with the effectiveness of a group?
Groups get to know each other while focusing on accomplishing tasks.
Groups set norms, cooperate, and monitor progress.
Groups encourage similarity of viewpoints and minimize differing opinions.
Groups deal with conflicts and allow members to express their differences.

Janna, age 27 years, a sing le mother, appreciates the help you have given her through the birth of her first child. When you conclude your last follow-up community visit, she expresses gratitude and suggests that you come back and visit her and the baby for regular outings. How would you respond?
Acknowledge your appreciation of this experience, explain that her nursing needs have been met, and tell her you have to leave to care for other new mot hers.
Thank her for the offer and tell her that you will have to give her a call to see whether you will be able to work in outings in your personal schedule.
Tell her this would be unprofessional.
Stale that you would really like to do this but you are too busy with your other commitments.

How would you respond to Mr. Carlson?
Remind him that he has signed the consent and that the surgery has been scheduled.
Discuss his fear s regarding the surgery and reassure him that many patients want to change their minds as the surgery draws near.
Explore reasons why he wishes to cancel the surgery, clarify his concerns, and reinforce that he can change his mind if he chooses.
Tell him not to make up his mind until the doctor comes to talk to him again.

Mr. Carlson makes the decision to sign himself out of the hospital. What actions would you take?
Ensure that he signs the release form and contact the doctor and the operating room staff.
Convince him 10 slay because heart surgery is very important.
Contact the nursing unit manager and document it in the chart.
Realistically explain the wail list for surgery and what could happen to him.

You are admitting Darlene, age 40 years, who has come in for regulation of her insulin dependent diabetes. When she is unpacking, you note that she has a bag with some of her used syringes with needles, which she places in the top drawer of her bedside table. What would you do?
Rein force that she should keep the syringes in her suitcase so there are no injuries to staff members.
Ask her why she is keeping the used syringes and ensure they are disposed of safely.
Ask her to glove and dispose of the contaminated syringes in the needle receptacle.
Report the incident to the diabetic care team so effective teaching can be done.

You are supervising a nursing student during a dressing change. When the student is removing the dressing from a leg ulcer, the patient begins to yell and swear at both of you. He threatens to throw the water pitcher if both of you don’t leave his room immediately. What should you do?
Leave the leg ulcer undressed and exit the room immediately.
Report the incident to the doctor and have him or her explain that this behaviour will not be tolerated.
Temporarily dress the wound, explain that verbal abuse is not tolerated, leave the room and return later to discuss alternate wound dressing strategies.
Firmly explain that that behaviour will not be tolerated, remove the water pitcher, and continue applying the dressing

You have completed your initial assessment and charting on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When you go back into the room 1 hour later, you note that his Status has changed: He has become confused end does not know where he is; is taking short, rapid breaths at 34 breaths/min; has to sit up to breathe; and has a bluish tinge around his lips. His oxygen saturation levels have gone from 94% to 84%. What would you document for the assessment?
Confused and disoriented X3, Dyspneic, Pallor of lips. Oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 84%.
Confused, Cheyne Stokes breathing at rate of 34/min. Positioned in Fowler’s position. Blue lips.
Disoriented, Tachypneic breathing at 34/min.Short of breath. Oxygen saturation at 84%.
Disoriented to place, tachypneic, shallow breathing at 34/min, orthopneic with circumoral cyanosis. Oxygen saturation at 84%.

Laurana, age 24 years, is being discharged today after the birth of her first baby. She is concerned about how she will manage at home and wonders how she can get her questions answered. What sources of information would you suggest?
Parents and friends.
A retired nurse in her neighborhood and web sites.
Community health clinics, telehealth, and hospital-based web site.
Pamphlets, library books, husband, parents, and in-laws.

What is the most important responsibility when inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
Accurate measurement and lubrication of the NG tube.
Asking the patient to breathe deeply when the tube is inserted past the nasopharynx.
Encouraging the patient to swallow sips of water to facilitate the insertion.
Checking the placement of the tube by aspiration and testing the pH of the contents.

Case Study: Mrs. April Hume, age 86 years, has been admitted with advanced liver metastasis after a mastectomy. She is very weak and is experiencing abdominal pain, has ascites, and is having difficulty breathing. She has requested that only supportive measures be given. Questions 14 and 15

Which would be priority nursing Interventions?
Addressing concerns she might have regarding death and dying, encouraging family support, and promoting her independence in meeting her needs.
Initiating oxygen therapy, Fowler’s positioning, pain control, and addressing her Questions and concerns.
Encouraging her to eat, mobilizing her every 2 hours, and having her perform deep breathing and coughing exercises every half hour.
Ensuring that she under stands that she is on a palliative care unit and explaining that only comfort measures she requests will be followed.

Mrs. Hume is anxious and concerned about her breathing difficulties. She states that she feels that breathing is taking so much energy that she is hardly able to eat. She is having difficulty mobilizing because of the pain and spends most of her time in bed. She says that her family is concerned about her lack of progress. What would you do?
Explore other ways to more effectively control her symptoms and advocate for her when approaching her family.
Rein force the meaning of supportive care to her family and restrict their visits so Mrs. Hume has more rest time.
Provide support for the family and encourage Mrs. Hume to become more actively involved in her care.
Determine where the patient is regarding the stages of dying and discuss the findings with her family.

If a mass casualty occurs near your acute care unit what would be included in a disaster preparedness plan?
An informal fan out to contact and inform all registered nurses about the disaster and elicit their help in assisting with the casualties.
A formal written plan of action for coordinating the response of the hospital staff and to designate how different areas will be used.
A designation of levels of casualty care and having nurses volunteer services at different levels.
A formal plan to ensure that medical supplies and medications are available for the great number of casualties.

Mrs. Jones recently had a cystectomy for bladder cancer. She has an ileal conduit (urostomy). What teaching would you include?
How to protect the skin, how to apply a dressing over the ostomy site, and the importance of reporting shreds of mucus in the urine as evidence of a urinary tract infection.
Stoma care and application of an ostomy pouch and drainage bag, increasing intake of fluids, observing amount and the colour of the urine.
Odour control, skin cleansing, and irrigation of the ostomy.
Signs of infections or skin breakdown, intermittent application of the appliance, and the importance of dietary restrictions.

Which of the following patients require increased sensory stimulation to prevent sensory deprivation?
A 24-year-old patient who has been admitted with an anxiety disorder and appears very agitated.
A 60-year-old patient, who is blind, reads books through use of Braille, listens to the radio, and regularly takes walks around the unit.
A 65-year-old patient, who has employment-induced presbycusis and advanced glaucoma.
An 84-year-old patient who has hemiparesis and ambulates with a walker.

Mrs. Starface, age 62 years, a First Nations patient, has been admitted with a chronic cough and progressive weight loss. She has a positive Mantoux test result, and is placed in isolation for suspected tuberculosis. What isolation precautions should the nurse take?
Have her wear a disposable mask when she is transported to the radiography department.
Wear a gown and gloves while in her isolation room.
Wear a disposable mask, gown, and gloves while giving care.
Discourage visitors from spending time with the patient to reduce transmission.

Mrs. Mames, age 27 years, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted in active labour. She states that her contractions are very intense and that she needs pain medication. What is the most important factor to assess before analgesic administration?
Her respiratory rate and fetal heart rate during contractions.
The frequency, duration, and intensity of her contractions.
The effectiveness of the coaching from her husband.
How well she manages through the next five contractions.

Mrs. Dravies, gravida 2, para 1, is admitted at 8 weeks gestation for a moderate amount of bleeding and abdominal cramps. A day later, the bleeding stops, and she is being discharged. What would you include in discharge teaching?
Ask her how badly she wants this baby and what she would be willing to do to ensure carrying the baby to term.
Ask her if she understands the reason for the cramping and bleeding and explain what precautions she could take to retain the pregnancy.
Explain that nurse aborts the fetus if it is abnormal and that bleeding and cramps may indicate an abnormality.
Ask her if she has been eating nutritious meals and restricting her activity during pregnancy.

Mr. Jones, age 64 years, had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday. How could you detect hypovolemic shock in this client?
Slow, irregular heart rate and pulse deficit.
Bounding pulse and hypotension.
Pallor, cold extremities, and tachycardia.
Dark red-tinged urine, shivering, and confusion.

Jennifer, age 16 years, is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery room after wiring of a fractured jaw. She is conscious. Her breathing has become noisy and shallow. Her oxygen saturation levels were at 98 and now are at 90. What actions would you take?
Position her in Sims position with her head to the side, give oxygen as ordered, and suction if needed.
Position her in Fowler’s position to assist her in breathing and give oxygen as ordered.
Insert an airway, suction her, and position her in the supine position.
Encourage her to breathe deeply, position her in the prone position, and give oxygen as ordered.

Daniel, age 16 years, had a cast applied after a fracture of the tibia. When teaching him before discharge about detecting signs of impaired circulation and nervous system functioning, which signs would indicate problems?
Pallor, coolness, and numbness of the toes.
Pain at the fracture site and a small amount of bleeding through the cast.
Inability to move the leg at the fracture site.
Slight edema of the foot and presence of pedal pulse.
Mr. Blair had a bowel resection 2 days ago and has had a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted. He is complaining of increased abdominal pain and nausea. What assessments or actions would be most appropriate?
Check the patency and amount of drainage from the NG tube.
Give him an analgesic and antiemetic as ordered.
Irrigate the NG tube with water and give an analgesic as ordered.
Explain that nausea is common because the NG tube irritates the gag reflex.
Mr. Evans has ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver. He is jaundiced and malnourished. Which of the following problems is not associated with cirrhosis of the liver?
Eupnea related to esophageal varices.
Potential for pressure ulcers related to malnourishment.
Concentrated, dark urine related to kidney excretion of bile byproducts.
Confusion and disorientation related to increase in circulating toxins.
Mrs. Chu had a cholecystectomy 2 days ago. Which signs would indicate a wound infection?
Serosanguineous drainage, temperature of 38-degree C, and abdominal pain.
Purulent drainage, pain in the mid incision, and temperature of 38.5-degree C.
Serous drainage, temperature of 38 degree C, and redness of the incision line.
Sanguinous drainage, temperature of 37.5 degree C, and bradycardia.

Dillon is 7 years old and weighs 30 kg. He has acute streptococcal pharyngitis. He is prescribed Keflex (cephalexin) 26.67 mg/kg q6h. How much would he receive in each dose?
150 mg.
200 mg.
400 mg.
None of the above.

Jane, age 18 years, has an asthma attack when in the hospital. She is in respiratory distress. What initial action would you take?
Position her in the supine position and administer oxygen and bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in the Sims position and gave bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and give bronchodilators as ordered.
Give bronchodilators and steroid medication as ordered.

Mrs. Jones, age 34 years, returns from the recovery room after bowel surgery. She is receiving morphine sulfate through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. When you assess her pain levels, her pain intensity is 8 of 10. When you ask her if she has been using the button to relieve her pain, she states, “I’m afraid that I’ll become addicted if I use too much morphine.” Which would be the best response to her concern?
“Morphine is not addicting in these circumstances.”
“You need to take the morphine to help you rest and recuperate from the surgery; you can deal with the addiction later.”
“When morphine is used to alleviate severe pain for 2 to 3 days, there is little likelihood of becoming addicted.”
“Have you had problems with drug addiction before?”

Mr. Keaton, age 65 years, has a plastic anemia and is going to receive a transfusion of packed blood cells. In addition to taking vital signs and verifying that packed blood cells are matched to the patient, what other assessments would you make?
Assess pain at the transfusion site and transfuse the packed blood cells over 5 hours to lessen reactions.
Check the patient regarding chills, low back pain, dyspnea, and skin itching during the transfusion.
Ask the patient about headaches, maintaining bed rest during the transfusion, and reducing intake of fluids to reduce the likelihood of fluid overload.
Transfuse the blood quickly for the first 15 minutes and then check for abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms.

Mrs. Kilts, age 84 years, has hypostatic pneumonia. When you complete your assessment, which of the following would indicate hypoxia?
Tachypnea, orthopnea, tachycardia, and circumoral cyanosis.
Hypotension, bradycardia, braypnea, and use of accessory muscles in the neck.
Eupnea, hypertension, bradycardia, and cyanosis of the nail beds.
Occasional productive cough, pursed-lip breathing, and nasal flaring.

When you enter the recreation room, you observe Sara Jones, age 20 years, pacing, speaking in a threatening manner, and appearing to defend herself. She has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. What approach would you take?
Approach her directly and tell her you are going to get her some medication to help her calm down.
Ignore her until she calms down and then approach her gently and ask what is wrong.
Ask her if she is hallucinating and whether she has taken her medication today,
Approach her calmly and find out what is causing her to be upset.

Mr. Pritchard, age 55 years, has been informed by his doctor that his pancreatic cancer is inoperable and that it has spread to his liver. When you enter the room, he states, “The doctor feels that things are hopeless. I hate this place. You’re all so useless. Just leave me alone.” What would be a therapeutic response?
“This is devastating news for you. I’ll let you have some time and will come back later.”
“You arc much too young to have inoperable cancer. How does your family fee l about this?”
“You’ll need to get over this. Your family needs you to get your affairs in order.”
“Why are you upset with us? You need some time to calm down.”

Mr. Corwin, age 74 years, has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) after a right hip fracture. What are important priorities on the first postoperative day?
Supporting the leg to maintain adduction, ensuring adequate pain control, and maintaining bed rest.
Assessing the neurovascular status in the right leg; providing pa in control; and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises, position changes, and early ambulation.
Assessing for skin integrity, enhancing his nutritional status, and restricting his movement and activity in bed.
Preventing confusion and disorientation, restricting analgesics, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing.

Mr. Balm, age 70 years, comes into the emergency department with acute onset of severe chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety. His respirations are 28 breaths/min, and he has circumoral cyanosis with an oxygen saturation of 84%.

What would your immediate actions be?

Gather information regarding the nature and intensity of the chest pain.
Place him in Fowler’s position, Initiate oxygen therapy, and gel an analgesic ordered.
Keep him in the supine position, encourage deep breathing, and request an ECG.
Get an order for an analgesic, position him in the side-lying position, and encourage pursed- lip breathing.

During a gymnastics practice, 18-year-old Tracey falls and fractures her right tibia. The doctor asks to be notified if anterior compartment syndrome presents in the right extremity. What signs and symptoms would indicate this syndrome?
Edema of the right foot, loss of sensation in the right leg, and hypotension.
Edema of the right foot, redness on the skin surface or the calf, and poor capillary refill in the toenails.
Severe pain aggravated by plantarflexion, tense and tender muscles in the lateral right calf, and paresthesia.
Painful contracture of the calf muscles, inability to extend the leg, and redness arid warmth in the calf region.

Mr. Harris, age 65 years, had a n abdominal perineal resection for cancer of the rectum. He is receiving morphine via a patient-control analgesia (PCA) pump. What would your priority assessment be regarding the analgesia?
The rate and depth of respiration.
The pulse rate and blood pres sure
The effectiveness of pain control
The accuracy of the programming on the pump.

You are caring for Shauna, an 18- year-old gymnast who has been admitted for investigation of seizures. She weighs 50 kg. For two meals, you observe that she eats a very small amount of salad and skim milk. What approach would you take?
Tell her you will have a dietician come to assess her eating habits.
Ask her about her usual eating patterns and reason for her low intake.
In form the doctor regarding her poor intake and suggest an appetite stimulant.
Inform her that it she isn’t eating foods, a nasogastric feeding tube will have to be inserted.

When you complete the initial postoperative assessment for Mr. Violini, age 55 years, you note that his IV is in fusing at 200 cc/hr. You check the order, which reads: “IV of 1000 cc D5S to infuse over 8 hours.” What actions would you lake?
Continue infusing the IV at 200 cc/hr and observe his hydration status.
Change the rate to 125 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Reduce the rate to 150 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Tell him that he should not adjust the flow clamp on the IV.

Dana Evans, age 19 years, has been admitted after an asthma attack. When you complete your assessment, you observe that she is anxious, has audible wheezing, and is using her neck muscles when breathing. What would you do?
Position her in orthopneic position, encourage coughing exercises, and ask her to calm down.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen, and give her the ordered pm lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg.
Encourage her to lie in a semi-prone position, perform diaphragmatic breathing, and give her the ordered pm beclomethasone dipropionate (Beclovent) inhaler.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen as ordered, and give her the ordered pm med salbutamol (ventolin) by inhaler.

Mr. Lexus, age 33 years, comes into the emergency department with severe back pain radiating to the left lower groin region. The doctor suspects renal calculi and orders meperidine HCI (Demerol) 100 mg 1M q3-4h pm. One hour after Mr. Lexus receives the medication, he states that the pain is still at 8 of 10. What actions would you take?
Explain that the medication takes longer than 1 hour to exert its effects.
Tell him he will have to wait for 2 more hours before he can get his next injection.
Contact the doctor, explain that the pain is still at 8 of 10, and request a higher dosage.
Ask Mr. Lexus if he has routinely taken pain killers or street drugs.

Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using critical thinking skills?
The nurse follows the routine of the unit and encourages others to do the same.
The nurse asks another nurse to outline the steps in performing a wound packing.
The nurse does not know the answer and checks to find the answer on the unit or in the library.
The nurse asks the patient about the symptoms she is experiencing an d lists them on the care plan.

Which is the most important step in the nursing process?
The assessment step because it involves collecting, organizing, and validating information that is used for the remaining steps.
The nursing diagnosis step because it involves identifying the problems.
The planning steps because it identifies ways to reduce, prevent and resolve problems.
The implementation step because it ensures that interventions are effective.

When identifying the nursing diagnosis or patient problems, which statement is most accurate?
The nursing diagnosis helps to clarify the medical diagnosis and the problems that result from this diagnosis.
Critical thinking skills are used to interpret, analyze, and duster the assessment data to determine the problems.
The nursing diagnosis focuses on ways to prevent, reduce, or resolve the identified problems.
The identification of patient problems provides the means of measuring the degree to which the goals are met.

When performing a psychosocial assessment, which areas should be assessed?
Breathing patterns, circulation patterns, and metabolic needs.
Health ha bits, family, and social and sexual pattern).
General survey, movement, eating habits, and activities of daily living.
Rest and sleep patterns, activity and exercise patterns, and coping and stress tolerance.

What is the primary purpose of conducting a health history?
Identify the risk factors and how to promote health for the client.
Obtain information to identify the level of health of the client and his or her past illnesses.
Examine the chief complaint of the client and related factors.
Provide for health teaching opportunities.
When completing the physical assessment of the abdomen, which is the first skill used in the assessment?

Which of the following statements heard during shift report identifies an important priority for action?
A patient is reluctant to ambulate on the evening of surgery.
A postoperative patient’s pulse has been increasing, and his blood pressure is decreasing.
A postoperative patient is drowsy and slow to respond when the analgesic is at its maximal effect.
A postoperative patient has not voided for 5 hours alter surgery.

Upon completion of teaching related to Lanoxin (digoxin), a client is able to explain the effects of the medication and when not take it and can also identify the radial pulse site. What would this indicate?
An accurate assessment of her teaching needs.
An evaluation of psychomotor and cognitive learning.
A high degree of motivation.
An independent learner.

When teaching a group of middle-aged women, what would you include when discussing primary prevention?
Prevention of anemia and type 1 diabetes.
Prevention of ulcers and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fall prevention and maintaining joint mobility.
Prevention of osteoporosis and the importance of regular breast self-examinations and regular Pap smears.

A community health nurse is planning to address the needs of elderly adults living in their homes. What primary area s should be included in this discussion?
Importance of exercise, balanced nutrition and hydration, and safety and fall prevention.
Prevention of joint deterioration and mobility problems.
Prevention of hearing and visual deficits.
Importance of frequent doctor visits and access to health care resources.

Which of the following legal definitions is true?
Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect victims in emergency situations.
Negligence is intentional failure to act responsibly or deliberate omission of a professional act.
Malpractice is failure to perform professional duties that result in patient injury.
Scope of practice involves general guidelines that define nursing.

A nurse has delegated the taking of vital signs for an unregulated health care provider. When a client’s blood pressure is reported as high, the registered nurse rechecks the blood, pressure and other vital signs for the patient. What would these actions be called?
Obligation to the patient.
Reversing of delegation.
Empowerment of the patient.
Accountability for care.

When suctioning a tracheotomy, which actions are correct?
Insert the suction catheter as far as patient can tolerate and suction for 25 seconds.
Oxygenate the patient and then suction for 10 to 15 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
Suction every 15minutes to prevent secretions, from accumulating.
Commence suctioning upon insertion of the catheter and continue for 5 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. He is sent to the hospital unit after emergency chest tube insertion. What would constitute an emergency situation with the chest tube?
Bubbling of air in the underwater seal chamber.
Improper suction setting on the wall suction.
Disconnection of the connecting tubing from the chest tube.
Drainage of bloody material into the drainage chamber.

A postoperative patient after bowel surgery has orders for DAT (diet as tolerated). What assessments would indicate return of peristalsis?
Distended abdomen and tympany on percussion.
Soft abdomen and absence of bowel sounds on auscultation.
Intermittent cramping, abdominal pain and bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
Nausea, vomiting, and pain on palpation.

A patient has a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine after a bowel resection. What are the nursing responsibilities after the client has self-administered a bolus of medication?
Have the client mobilize to reduce the harmful effects of morphine.
Ensure that the client understands that a bolus may take up to 15 minute to alleviate the pain.
Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to lessen respiratory depression.
Reduce the amount of IV pain medication being administered on a regular basis.

Your assigned patient has been requesting a stronger pain medication. In response, the doctor has ordered morphine combined with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. How would you explain the effectiveness of these two medications?
Combining these two drugs will increase pain relief without the increased side effects of increasing the morphine dose.
The two drugs are antagonistic, so they will relieve the pain but will counteract the side effects.
Combining the two drugs will lessen the incidence of addiction.
The NSAID will relieve muscle pain; the morphine will act centrally on the central nervous system to relieve pain.

In addition to the pain medication, what other measures help promote comfort and alleviate pain?
Encouraging ambulation and vigorous rubbing of the inflamed tissues.
Gentle massage of the area, warm and cold applications, guided imagery, and TENS.
Prolonged heat applications followed by prolonged cold application to the area
Encouraging tensing of muscles and performing distraction exercises.

Which of the following would be indicators of severe hypoxia?
Generalized pallor and eupnea.
Circumoral cyanosis and Pa02 of 70 mm Hg.
Low oxygen saturation levels of 95%.
Increased anxiety and drowsiness.
What nursing measures are important when a Foley retention catheter has been inserted?
The Foley catheter should be left unsecured to prevent urethral irritation.
Urine samples should be obtained by disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag.
The patient should limit fluid intake to keep the catheter patent.
Reflux of urine from the tubing to the bladder should be prevented.

You read through your assigned patient’s chart. The history states: “Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; reduced CSWM in left leg.” What do these medical history terms and abbreviations indicate.’?
The patient is experiencing intermittent shortness of breath, is unable to breathe unless in a supine position, and has impaired venous return in the left leg.
The patient is experiencing painful breathing and shortness of breath with exertion and has impaired arterial flow to the left leg.
The patient is experiencing periods of severe shortness of breath at night and impaired circulation and sensory and motor functioning in the left leg.
The patient has reduced breathing capacity, loss of breathing reserve, and impaired motor movement of the left leg.

Which sexuality alterations might emerge after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
The patient may be concerned that a heart attack may occur during orgasm.
Emotional concerns may interfere with the phase of resolution.
The arousal phase may he affected by personal concerns.
Sexual dysfunction may present because of reduced ventricular contractions.

Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate impaired arterial circulation in the lower extremities?
Capillary refill in the toenails with in 2 seconds.
Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse; coolness and decreased sensation in the feet.
Edema and coolness in the ankles and feet.
Redness, inflammation, and sharp pain with calf muscle con traction.

Which of the following isolation precautions would be relevant for the communicable illness identified?
Airborne precautions are indicated for varicella (chickenpox) and involve wearing a mask when in the room.
Gloves, a mask, and a gown are worn when changing a wound dressing infected with Staphylococcus
If a patient is infected with VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus), vital signs equipment is brought into the room every time it is needed.
Specimens obtained from a contaminated wound would be transferred directly to the laboratory without special precautions.

You are developing a care plan for a patient with tuberculosis. What isolation precautions would you take?
Use a special mask to prevent inhaling infected airborne droplets.
Wear a mask, gown, and gloves when providing care.
Wear c, gown and gloves when in contact with the patient.
Prevent visitors from visiting to reduce the possibility of transmission.

You arc assessing a patient who has been in a car accident. He complains about sore ribs and painful breathing on the left side of his chest cage. What assessment findings would alert you to a pneumothorax?
Pain on exhalation; fatigue.
Dyspnea; decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
Bradycardia and hypertension.
Tachypnea and hyperventilation.

A patient has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Suddenly, the patient develops chest pain and severe dyspnea. He looks anxious and is very apprehensive. What actions would you take?
Position him in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and call the physician.
Auscultate for abnormal breath sounds and encourage deep breathing.
Encourage pursed- lip breathing and coughing exercises.
Ambulate the patient, encourage deep breaths, and take the apical pulse.
Your patient has a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following neurologic deficits may present after a CVA?
Visual field deficits such as homonymous hemianopsia.
Emotional changes such as lack of emotional response and enhanced coping.
Motor deficits such as paresthesia with numbness and tingling.
Verbal deficits such as dysphagia and memory loss.

Which of the following assessment findings are associated with cholelithiasis?
Associated risk factors include being male and athletic.
Jaundice is seen if the calculus lodges in the common bile duct.
Biliary colic attacks occur when there is stone formation in the gallbladder.
Symptoms of pain include steady LUQ pain radiating to the left scapula.
Which of the following assessment findings are seen in patients with cancer of the head of the pancreas?
Early onset of pain.
Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
Early onset of jaundice and pruritus.
Presence of steatorrhea, melena stools, and dilute urine.

A client presents with cirrhosis of the liver secondary to alcohol abuse. What assessment findings would indicate portal hypertension?
Ascites and hematemesis.
Pulmonary edema.
Absence of jugular vein distension.
Cramps and watery diarrhea.

Alter a total hip arthroplasty, what are the most important precautions to prevent dislocation?
Limit movement s resulting in internal rotation and adduction of the affected hip.
Use a pillow under the knees to prevent hip flexion.
Reduce extension and hyperextension of the affected hip.
Use toile t seats to prevent circumduction of the hip joint.
Without hand washing between activities, a nurse makes an occupied bed and then assists another patient with meal preparation. Considering the chain of infection, which statement is true?
The new portal of entry of microorganisms could be through the mouth.
The mode of transmission is through direct contact.
Microorganisms from the bed making would be spread by direct contact.
An epidemic infect ion would occur if pathogens from the health care agency caused an illness.
What are characteristics of effective decision making strategies in a nurse?
Reviewing the chart and duplicating the actions of previous nurses.
Gathering assessment data and analyzing and identifying-priority problems.
Independently developing a plan of care based on the nurse’s workload.
Willingness to follow the doctor’s orders and directions without questioning his or her rationale.
What are important considerations when assessing and caring for a patient with pyrexia?
The patient usually experiences a decrease in vital signs.
The patient usually exhibits flushing of the skin and jaundice.
The patient may experience dehydration and convulsions from a high temperature.
The patient may experience increased urine output and dilute urine.
Which of the following statements is true regarding wound healing when an infection is present?
The infected portion of the wound will likely heal by primary intention.
The inflammatory phase of healing will be shortened.
The proliferative or regeneration phase will be delayed and prolonged.
There will be less for mat ion of granulation tissue because of the infection,

Which of the following assessment factors would indicate a need for oral pharyngeal suctioning?
Thin sputum and a weak cough.
Breathing rate of 36 breaths/min; noisy, gurgling respirations.
Auscultation of fluid (rales and rhonchi) in the lower lobes of the lungs.
Oxygen saturation levels of 95%; use of diaphragmatic breathing.

Which of the following is an important consideration when performing oral-pharyngeal suctioning?
Oxygen provided before suctioning limits the effectiveness of the suction.
The nurse should only suction when the patient agrees to the procedure.
Fluid intake should be limited to reduce the secretions produced.
The duration of each suctioning episode should be IO to 15 seconds.
What important postoperative care measures related to care of chest tubes should be done the day after a lobectomy?
Disconnect the tubing to empty and measure drainage at the end of each shift.
Frequently check the dressing and chest tube for drainage.
Ensure that all connections arc securely taped.
Position the patient in the prone or supine position to permit optimal drainage.

Nutrients are important for wound healing. Which of the following is true regarding the role of specific nutrients in healing?
Vitamin C is needed for building capillaries and fibroblasts in the inflammatory phase.
Essential amino acids art’ needed to ensure building blocks are present for building or proliferative phase.
Nonessential fatty acids to provide a good supply of glucose for energy.
Vitamin K is needed for the convalescent phase to help restore energy and nutrient needs.
Mr. John G. has a history of cramps and has been experiencing diarrhea for the past 2 days. His urine is concentrated. You would assess for:
Dehydration by checking tissue turgor and checking mucous membranes.
Impaction as a result of the surgery.
Signs of kidney suppression because of the concentrated urine.
Absence of bowel sounds in the abdomen.

What assessment findings would indicate circulatory overload from too rapid an IV in fusion?
Decreased pulse, decreased blood pressure, and jugular vein distension.
Increased pulse, increased respirations, and jugular vein distension.
Headache, paleness, and hypertension.
Increased temperature, peripheral edema, and decreased pulse rate.

Which is the priority system to assess when a patient has severe hypothyroidism?
Respiratory system.
Heart and circulation.
Neuro logic system.
Integumentary system.
A patient with diabetes is being tested for glvcosylated hemoglobin. How would you explain the reason for this diagnostic test?
It determines the fasting blood glucose level.
It determines the average blood glucose level in the previous; months.
It determines the ratio of glucose to hemoglobin.
It is used to identify a reduction in hemoglobin because of high glucose levels.

Case Study: Mr. Evan Jenkins, age 65 years, has had type 2 diabetes for 20 years and has been admitted to the hospital with chronic renal failure. Questions 87 to 90

When completing the initial assessment, which signs would indicate circulatory overload?
Increased blood pressure, apprehension, and shock.
Weigh t gain, coughing of frothy sputum, and jugular vein distension.
Cool, dry skin; gastric distension; and pleural edema.
Apprehension, poor tissue turgor, and bradycardia.
Which of the following statements is true regarding end-stage renal failure?
A common cause of renal failure is pyelonephritis.
It results in an increase in erythropoietin, leading to chronic fatigue.
It results in a decrease in creatinine and blood urea nitrogen.
It is characterized by fluid volume excess, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia.
What are important nursing care measures for a patient with chronic renal failure?
Prepare the client for temporary peritoneal dialysis or hemodialvsis.
Restrict sodium and potassium; restrict fluids as ordered.
Provide a diet high in protein; restrict fluids as ordered.
Monitor for hypotension and maintain accurate intake and output records.
Mr. Jenkins makes this comment just before his hemodialysis treatment: “What have I got to live for? I’d just like this to be over.” How would you interpret these comments?
This indicates feelings of depression associated with a long –term, incurable disease.
This response will be temporary, and he will feel much better after his hemodialysis is initiated.
His family is no t providing the support he needs at this time.
This is an unusual response and indicates that his cognitive abilities have become impaired by the disease.
A client has just been transferred to the postanesthesia recovery room. What are the most important initial assessments that need to be completed?
Skin color, warmth of extremities, and mental status assessment.

Question 30: Health Care

NSG 4029 WEEK 5 KNOWLEDGE CHECK
1. Technology competence is:

The goals of nursing informatics are effectiveness, efficiency and safety.
An informatics nurse violates a patient’s legal right to privacy and confidentiality by:
Which fields in nursing were affected by the information technology?

Question 31: Law

The purpose of this paper is to enable you to complete an original research project on a relevant topic in the administration of justice. Drawing on the extant literature and using your own unique research frame, you will develop and complete a research paper that answers your unique questions (your electives classes in AJ will help) about an issue in the administration of justice. While your own interests will guide your research, it is crucial to use the literature available to develop an informed and professional research paper.

Paper Requirements: After your topic is selected and approved. (1) Abstract: should include your research questions, the theory (AJ 100 or 105 will help) or theories that inform your research, the methods of data collection and analysis (see AJ 301/2) to be used, and what you believe you will find as a result of your study (see course objectives). (2) BODY: After you have identified a specific topic, you will then develop your own unique area of discussion and analysis: introduction, literature review, theory and methods, and possible finding (your previous courses in AJ will help such as AJ 100,105, 211,240, etc.). (3) Citations: You must use the APA guide for identifying authors cited in the text as well as the bibliography listing all sources used in alphabetical order. If you are not familiar with APA, there are reference guides in the library as well as on-line sources. (4) Placement of graphs, figures, or tables: If you use graphs, figures, or tables in your paper, I would prefer that you note their location in the text, [TABLE 1 HERE], and compile all tables at the end of the paper. This is easier for both the writer and the reader. (5) Format: Papers must be type, double spaced, with one-inch side, top, and bottom margins and use a 12-point font.. The minimum page requirement for the paper is 12 pages (NOTE: cover, reference, graphs, figures and, tables pages will not be counted as part of the 12 pages). While I do not specify a maximum length, I am anticipating that most people will submit papers 12 pages long.

Question 32: Business

Explain what happens to the 95 % confidence interval as the sample size increases. (2 marks)
Explain what happens to the width of the confidence interval for a 99% interval versus a 95%. (2 marks)

Q2. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we do not know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) or the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm and the sample standard deviation as 25cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval for the population mean (4 marks)
Compare your interval here and last week – which is larger and why? (2 marks)

To answer ii question, you need to answer the question below.

Tutorial covering Lecture Topic 6: Part 1 Confidence intervals. (answer this in different page)

Q3. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) is 25, but we do not know the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval around the sample mean. (3 marks)
In your answer to i) will the specific confidence interval you have derived contain the population mean? Explain carefully. (2 marks)

Question 33: Business

INDIVIDUAL LEARNING PROJECT INSTRUCTIONS The Individual Learning Project is an opportunity for you to evaluate yourself and your role within your organization by completing 10 self-assessment activities. You will begin the paper by completing a modified Abstract that details a past, present, or future job you will use as a basis for analyzing the self-assessment results. You will then write a full-page analysis of each assessment and combine all 10 together according to the provided format for submission at the end of the course. Each self-assessment must have at least 1 reference from your textbook to support your analysis and be cited according to current APA. You will find the Self-Assessment Activities in Connect. These are the activities you must complete. They are found at the end of the indicated chapter. CHAPTER SELF-ASSESSMENT ACTIVITY 2 Are You Introverted or Extraverted? 4 How Do You Cope With Stressful Situations? 5 How Strong Are Your Growth Needs? 7 What is your Preferred Decision-Making Style? 8 What Team Roles Do You Prefer? 9 Are You An Active Listener? 10 What’s Your Approach to Influencing Co-Workers? 11 What’s Your Preferred Conflict Handling Style? 12 Do Leaders Make a Difference? 13 What Organizational Structure Do You Prefer? After completing an assessment, analyze it by using the scoring key located in Connect and write an analysis with the following components: Title of the self-assessment (centered at the top of the page) 1. Purpose of assessment 2. Your actual score 3. The interpretation of your score, using the assessment feedback 4. How you can use the results of this self-assessment to improve your effectiveness and/or efficiency in an organization Page and Paper Format: • Components 1–3 above must not exceed 1/4 of the space on the page. • Component 4 above must occupy the remaining 3/4 of the space on the page. • All pages must be double-spaced with 1” margins (right, left, top, bottom) and left-justified. • Font must be Times New Roman and 12-pt size. • Titles for each assessment must be centered according to current APA format. • The first line of paragraphs must be indented 5 spaces. • For the submitted collection of analyses, attach a standard cover page like the sample document accompanying these instructions. Your submissions must also include a reference page. • Submit the collection as a Microsoft Word document. • Page headers must include short title and pagination (use Microsoft Word header function) with standard numbering according to APA requirements

Question 34: English

Notes on plagiarism:

According to the Arab Open University By-laws, “the following acts represent cases of cheating and plagiarism:

Verbatim copying of printed material and submitting them without proper academic acknowledgement and documentation.
Verbatim copying of material from the Internet, including tables and graphics.
Copying other students’ notes or answers.
Using paid or unpaid material prepared for the student by individuals or firms.

Penalties for plagiarism ranges from failure in the STMA to expulsion from the university.

Collaboration with anyone else (including fellow students) is strictly prohibited.

All quotations used must be referenced.

Declaration: I hereby declare that the submitted STMA is my own work and I have not copied any other person’s work or plagiarized in any other form as specified above.

Student Signature:

FACULTY OF LANGUAGE STUDIES

EL120: English Phonetics and Linguistics

Exam Instructions:

There are THREE parts to this examination paper as in the following table:

Part	Question No.	Marks per section
A		50
B	a	7.5
	b	5
	c	2.5
C		35
TOTAL		100

You are required to answer all THREE parts.

Follow carefully the instruction in each part.

Review your answers carefully paying attention to your grammar, spelling and punctuation as well as to relevant textual elements (e.g. paragraphing, cohesion & coherence) as part of the mark for each question will be given to language accuracy and text organization.

You are required to answer ALL questions

PART A

Answer the following questions in a paragraph form in not less than 150 words each. USE YOUR OWN WORDS (50marks)

Explain why there are more sounds than letters of the alphabet in English? Illustrate your answer with examples. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

What are the differences between a phoneme and an allophone? Refer to at least 2 features as examples of allophones and the effect of neighboring sounds. Use examples of your own to illustrate your answer. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

PART B

a) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following consonant descriptions and provide examples of this symbol in three positions (initial, medial, final)

(7.5 Marks)

i) Voiced dental fricative: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

ii) Voiceless velar plosive/stop: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

iii) Voiceless post alveolar affricate: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

b) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following descriptions of RP

vowels: Put each vowel in three examples of your own. (5 Marks)

A long, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

A short, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

c) Use the above two vowels in b) in two sets of minimal pairs to illustrate the difference between them. (2.5 marks)

________________ & ___________________
________________ & ___________________

PART C

Which of the following statements is true (T) and which is false (F)? Provide the correct answer in case of “FALSE” . Explain The Phonetic Rule Relevant To Each Of The 7 Statements. (35 Marks)

The pronunciation in connected speech of “good girl” as / good girl / is an example of aspiration.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The difference between the /f/ in the word fish and the /v/ sound in the word vase has to do with voicing.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The pronunciation of the underlined vowel sounds in the following words is identical (the same): four – founder – soup.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The alveolar ridge is the organ responsible for creating voiced and voiceless sounds.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The /t/ in till has the same pronunciation as the /t/ in still.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

/l/ in light – while – milk is the same allophone.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The place of the stress in the word ‘object’ is the same in the noun and the verb.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 35: History

Please write a 250-word essay about a NJ Historical figure (that you select) found within the chapters of the Maxine Lurie text. Tell why this person is important, what they did, how others reacted to their actions, how this person relates to the present, and your Personal Analysis of the individual’s actions.

Question 36: General

What would Mary T. Norton think of the women’s movement of the 1970’s? What would she think of today’s society? Since Norton envisioned a female Governor and a female President, do you think she should have run for those offices? Why? How has Mary T. Norton impacted your life?

Question 37: Human Resource

What do you believe would be the most important components of the selection process for the following jobs? a Telemarketer,

Restaurant manager
c. School teacher
d. A beginner football player

Question 38: Finance

Instructions:

1	This is an individual assignment.
2	Your assignment should be typed using font-size 12, Times New Roman, and 1.5 spacing.
3	Your report should not exceed 2000 words in length. This excludes quotes, references.
4	It should contain complete references by using the APA referencing method for all citations made in the paper (including internet citations). An essay without citations would be considered as plagiarism and would be awarded a failed grade.
5	A Turnitin originality report has to be attached to the assignment. You will have to register yourself at www.turnitin.com. The information required when submitting your assignment are : · Class ID: 24175513 · Enrollment Password: d2fin100
6	The assignment should submit online through LMS
7	You must submit your assignment by 30 April 2020. Failure to submit the assignment by the stipulated date would result in your assignment not being marked or marked as zero.

You will be given a selected public listed company that listed in Bursa Malaysia as your research target.

You are required to find all the necessary financial information from the companies’ Annual Reports, on the companies’ website, online searching etc., in order to perform the different tasks that required by this assignment as shown in the following sections.

You are required to write an analysis report on your selected company to present you findings. Your reports should start with an introduction to introduce the background of the company and perform industry and competitive analysis to understand the intense of competitiveness in the market.

Section A

In the first section of your report, you are required to examine the short-term financial activities of your selected company.

Using the following assumptions together with the information you collect from the company’s annual report to perform the required task:

Assumption:

Assuming a constant rate for purchases, production, and sales throughout the year.
Assuming all sales are on credit.
Assume a 365-day year.
Assuming the credit period that currently offer by the company to their customers are close to the company’s average collection period, and they did not offer any cash discount.
Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

Required:

Calculate the following ratios for your selected company (based on the latest annual report):
1. Average age of Inventory
2. Average collection period
3. Average payment period
what are your selected company’s operating cycle (OC), cash conversion cycle (CCC), and the resource needs to support its cash conversion cycle (based on the latest annual report)?
The company are contemplating to introduce a cash discount of 3 percent to those who pay the account within 10 days, while the others are still expect to pay according to the current credit period. The following assumption have been made:
The sales revenues are expected to increase by 3 percent.
40 percent of the customers are expected to take the 3 percent discount.

The average collection periods are expected to reduce by 30%

The bad debt expenses are expected to decrease from 1.5% of sales to 1% of sales.
The firm’s opportunity cost of tying up funds in account receivable is 12%
All the costs of sales are variable cost and 50 percent of the other operational costs are variable cost.

Other incomes remain unchanged.

You are required to calculate the following items:

Additional profit contribution from the increase in sales revenue
Cost/cost savings of marginal investment in account receivable
Cost/cost savings of marginal bad debts
Cost of cash discount
Net profit/loss from initiating of proposed cash discount
Use your findings from part (a) to part (e) to assess whether offering the cash discount can be justified financially.

Answer the following questions:
1. Why is working capital management one of the most important and time-consuming activities of the financial manager?
2. What is the relationship between the predictability of a firm’s cash inflows and its required level of net working capital? How are net working capital, liquidity, and risk of insolvency related?
3. What are the basic trade-offs in a tightening of credit standards?

Section B

In this second section, you are required to conduct an equity analysis on your selected company. Your report should include the following content:

You are required to perform the equity valuation on the selected company to find the intrinsic value by using an appropriate equity valuation model.
Explain your selected equity valuation model, and why you think your selected model is appropriate to use to value the selected company.
Explain how you estimate/obtain the inputs for your valuation model, and why you think the method you use to estimate the input is appropriate for your selected company.
You should use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to calculate the required return for the selected company. You may find the Beta of your selected company from investing.com.
For the market return, you should use the return on FBM KLCI index as a proxy for the market return. You should first find the average monthly changes for FBM KLCI over the past twenty years and then annualized it to find the annual capital gains. You should then add the average annual capital gains with the long-term average dividend yield of FBMKLCI to find the annual market return. The average dividend yield for FBMKLCI are assumed to be 3.5%.
You should use the yield of 10 years Malaysian Government Securities to represent the risk-free rate.
Based on this information, you can then calculate required rate of return for the common stock of your selected company.
Using all of this information from the previous steps, you are then required to find the intrinsic value for your selected company.
You will also need to find out what is the current price of your selected company.
Explain how the outbreak of the Covid-19 will affect your selected company.
Based on your analysis, would you recommend buying this stock at the current market price? Explain why you make that recommendation.

Assessment Criteria

For your guidance, your assignment report will be marked as follows:

	Question	Marks (%)
	Introduction, Company Background and industry analysis	10
Section A	Working Capital Management
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	25
	Theory and explanation	15
Section B	Equity Valuation and Cost of Capital
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	30
	Explanation, discussion and analysis	15
	Conclusion and recommendation	5
	Total	100

The marks will then convert into the final weightage of 50%.

College Students Use this website www.homeworknest.com for college assignmemts help. Online Homework Tutoring 2019, 2020,2021, Get tutored on your subjects by Expert Tutors!

A farmer has 1000 acre of land on which he can grow corn, wheat and
soya beans. Each acre of corn cost Rs. 100 for preparation, requires 7
man days of work and yields a profit of Rs. 30. An acre of wheat cost Rs.
120 for preparation, requires 10 man days of work and yields a profit of
Rs. 40. An acre of soya beans cost Rs. 70 to prepare, requires 8 man days
of work and yields a profit of Rs, 200. If the farmer has Rs. 1, 00,000 for
preparation and count on 8000man days of work, how many acres
should be allocated to each crop to maximize profit. (Use Simplex
Method)
Discuss the profitability of different alternatives

Question 2: Chemistry

Calculate the density of a proton, given that the mass of a proton is 1.0073 amu and the diameter of a proton is 1.72×10−15 m.

Question 3: Chemistry

An atom has a diameter of 2.50 Å and the nucleus of that atom has a diameter of 4.50×10−5 Å. Determine the fraction of the volume of the atom that is taken up by the nucleus. Assume the atom and the nucleus are a sphere.

Question 1: General Question

NURS 6501 Week 10 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A)

Question 1: Health Care

HEA-306: MEN’S HEALTH

Required Internet Resources

Gender and Ethnic Differences in Health Beliefs and Behaviors:
- Ek, S. (2015). Gender differences in health information behaviour: A Finnish population-based survey. Health Promotion International, 30(3), 736-745.
- Korin, M. R. et al. Men’s and Women’s Health Beliefs Differentially Predict Coronary Heart Disease Incidence in a Population-Based Sample. Health Education & Behavior, 40(2), 231-239.

Drug Enhanced Masculinity:
- Cherney, K. (2019, January 3). 7 Common Side Effects of Erectile Dysfunction Medication.
- (2019). Effects of Performance-Enhancing Drugs.

Health Risks and Risk Factors
- American Heart Association. (2019). Heart-Health Risk Assessments from the American Heart Association.
- BMJ company. (2016, August 25). Social Determinants of Health.
  .
- (2018, May 21). Quick Maps of Heart Disease, Stroke, and Socio-economic Conditions.
- (2014, September). Choose More than 50 Ways to Prevent Type 2 Diabetes.

Written Assignment 1: Health Risk Assessment

The purpose of this activity is to reflect on and identify your potential risk factors for diseases and identify strategies that promote healthy lifestyles. While many of these health risks are the same for women, the focus of this course is men’s health. Therefore, women taking this course should ask a male to complete the assessment.

Review the variables and complete the Sample Health Risk Assessment.

Write a 3–5 page paper addressing the areas identified in the grading rubric below for this activity.

Grading Criteria	Points Allocated	Points Earned
Describe your total HRA score and the total score for each category (e.g., physical activity, nutrition, general health).	10
Discuss results. ● What do you think the overall score means for you? Did it surprise you? ● Which category score was the highest and which one was the lowest? Did that surprise you?	20
Describe 3 positive behaviors you identified. How can they be enhanced? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.	30
Describe 3 behaviors you identified that could use improvement. How can they be improved? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.	30
APA, Grammar, and Organization: ● Uses correct spelling, grammar, and sentence structure. ● Correct use of APA style.	10
Total		/100

Discussion Forum 5: Health Risk Assessment Findings

Complete your Sample Health Risk Assessment Written Assignment and discuss your findings in Discussion Forum 5.

Based on what you have learned, do you think this assessment includes the most important variables/risk factors of health? If not, which variables / risk factors are not included?
Do you see any benefit to using a tool like this? Why or why not?
Did you identify any strategies to reduce health risk that you had not considered before?

Question 2: Health Care

Module 10: Critical Thinking Critical Thinking Assignment (105 points) Draft a response plan as a part of the World Health Organization’s strategic planning proposal for natural disasters or disease outbreak specific to the Eastern Mediterranean Region to protect pilgrims during the Hajj. Research a disease or natural disaster in which the WHO seeks to advise the KSA on how to react. Also, as you draft your response plan, consider the policy requirements that are in place for Health Conditions for Travelers to Saudi Arabia for the Pilgrimage to Mecca (Hajj). Draft a 5-6 page policy, not including the cover and reference pages, using the readings, research, and your knowledge of healthcare consumerism influencing marketing. Your paper should analyze the following substantive requirements: Describe what natural disaster or disease you are planning to mitigate through the response plan. Examine the global and regional organizations that could aid in this situation. Assess the humanitarian challenges that should be considered. Provide specific information regarding the implementation of this policy. Recommend how to monitor to continually monitor the implementation to ensure its success. Your report should meet the following structural requirements: Be five to six pages in length, not including the cover or reference pages. Be formatted according to Saudi Electronic University and APA writing guidelines. Provide support for your statements with in-text citations from a minimum of six scholarly articles. Two of these sources may be from the class readings, textbook, or lectures, but four must be external. Utilize headings to organize the content in your work.

Question 3: Health Care

Quantitative or Qualitative Critique

Student Name

NSG 3036

Date

Qualitative (Individual) Critique

Questions

Is the specific qualitative approach named and described? What is it? (Houser ch 15).
Does the phenomenon lend itself to study by qualitative methods or would a quantitative approach have been more appropriate? Why/ why not?
Does the study focus on the subjective nature of human experience? Explain.
Does the researcher clearly describe how participants were selected? How was the sample size determined? Describe.
Is the data collection and recording process fully presented? If so, how?
Is it clear how researcher bias in data collection was avoided? Explain. (Houser p. 394).
Is the data analysis method consistent with the purpose and approach of the study? Why/why not?
Are the study findings clearly presented and study limitations acknowledged? If so, how?
Will the study findings have significance for nursing? Why/why not?
APA citation for the article:

Each item and the citation are worth 10 points each for a total of 100 points.

Total Grade =

Quantitative (Individual) Critique

Questions

Is the design clearly identified and described in the research report? What is the design?
Is the design appropriate to test the study hypothesis(es) or answer the research question(s)? Why/ why not?
Did the study use an experimental or nonexperimental design? Was the most appropriate type of experimental design used? Explain your reasoning. (Houser pp. 41-43).
What means were used to control for threats to internal validity? External validity? (Houser p. 243).
Was assignment of subjects to the experimental and control group clearly described? If so, how? (Houser chapter 7).
Does the research design allow the researcher to draw a cause-and-effect relationship between the variables? Describe.
Are the study findings clearly presented and study limitations acknowledged? If so, how?
What means were used to control for extraneous variables, such as subject characteristics? Please explain.
Will the study findings have significance for nursing? Why/why not?
APA citation for the article:

Each item and the citation are worth 10 points each for a total of 100 points

Instructions

This is an assignment for TWO SEPARATE Critiques using TWO SEPARATE studies

Paper must be typed and citation in APA format.
Type the answer directly below the question.
Only utilize the articles that were approved by Dr. Ramjohn
Cover page follows APA format.
One paper is completed for the qualitative study
One paper is completed for the qualitative study
Each paper is to be turned in as a hard copy bound in the following format from front to back: cover page, critique of the paper, reference page and article attached.
If you fail to turn a paper in on time 10 points will be deducted automatically.

Question 4: Religious Studies

Jewish History

Part 1: Common Holy Days in Jewish Religious Traditions

Complete the table below with information about Jewish holy days. Identify at least seven Jewish religious holy days and place each holy day in the correct season (time of year). Provide a brief explanation of each holy day you identified.

Note: An example has been provided. You may add additional rows or move the text fields to different locations within the table as needed.

Fall (September – November)	Winter (December – February)	Spring (March – May)	Summer (June – August)
Enter text.	Example: Hanukkah Hanukkah is an 8 day-long Festival of Lights. It is a celebration of the victory of the Maccabees over the armies of Syria, as well as the rededication of the Temple in Jerusalem.	Enter text.	Enter text.
Enter text.	Enter text.	Enter text.	Enter text.

Fall

(September – November)

Winter

(December – February)

Spring

(March – May)

Summer

(June – August)

Enter text.

Example:

Hanukkah

Hanukkah is an 8 day-long Festival of Lights. It is a celebration of the victory of the Maccabees over the armies of Syria, as well as the rededication of the Temple in Jerusalem.

Enter text.

Part 2: Major Sects of Judaism

Select three major sects of Judaism to compare and contrast. Identify them in the table below.

Sect of Judaism	Enter text.
Sect of Judaism	Enter text.
Sect of Judaism	Enter text.

In the table below, list at least two similarities and two differences among the sects of Judaism you selected.

Similarities	Differences
Enter text.	Enter text.

Part 3: Summary

Write a 525- to 700-word summary that includes the following:

A description of the life and importance of one key person in Jewish history
An explanation of one key event in the history of Judaism that is connected to that person
A description of any rituals, symbols, or sacred texts in Judaism associated with this event or person
Brief explanation of Jewish ethics

Summary
Enter text.

Include references formatted according to APA guidelines. You may find helpful resources for formatting citations in the Center for Writing Excellence in the University Library.

References
Enter text.

Question 5: Other

Explain merit pay. Address what level of risk is associated with the employees. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 2. Discuss how performance appraisals should be conducted. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 3. Evaluate how performance appraisals are used in pay-for-performance plans. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 4. Explain whether or not pay-for-performance affects employee behavior. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words.

Question 6: Law

Liberty University – CJUS 330 Ch.15-Study Questions / CJUS 330 chapter 15 Study Questions/ CJUS 330 Questions

How much deference (or conversely, scrutiny) an appellate court will afford to the decisions of a judge, jury, or administrative agency in an appeal is referred to as the ____________.

deferential standard
appellate standard
principle or review
standard of review

Which court is responsible for hearing cases for which there are automatic reviews?

trial court
intermediate court of appeals
state court of last resort
federal circuit court

If a defendant loses an appeal, what is the first step to take in order to file a subsequent appeal?

File a notice of appeal.
File a petition for a writ of certiorari.
File a writ of habeas corpus.
File a motion for appeal.

Which of the following statements is true?

Criminal appeals always involve questions of fact decided by a judge or jury.
In contrast to the highly deferential appellate review of factual issues, questions of law are reviewed without deference on appeal.
Appellate courts are willing to second-guess findings of fact made in lower courts.
Many appeals are “routine,” which means they have the likelihood of succeeding.

____________ errors are defects that seriously affect substantial rights.

Substantial
Reversible
Plain
Grievous

If a defendant convicted in a U.S. circuit court files for an appeal, which type of court has jurisdiction?

U.S. Supreme Court
intermediate courts of appeals
state courts of last resort
U.S. circuit courts

Which of the following are opinions written “by the court” without attribution to a specific judicial author?

dissenting opinion
concurring opinion
plurality opinion
per curium opinion

During trial, attorneys must make timely objections to the judge’s rulings on points of law or the objections will be deemed waived. This is known as which of the following?

mandatory objection rule
contemporaneous objection rule
appellate objection rule
interlocutory objection rule

The ____________ consists of the materials that advance to the appellate court.

writ of certiorari
standards of review
appellate court record
notice of appeal

A defendant who makes a guilty plea on a felony charge, therefore accepting the sentence recommended by the prosecutor, subsequently requests an appeal. The appeal is based upon the failure of the court to inquire as to whether the plea was voluntary. In this example, the error is subject to which type of test?

classic trial errors rule
reversible error rule
plain error rule
harmless error rule

Losing parties at trial have the discretion to file an appeal except in what type of cases?

felony cases
civil cases
misdemeanor cases
capital punishment cases

How does the role of the appellate court differ from the trial court?

It retries cases sent from the lower court.
It focuses on the evidence and how it was obtained.
It focuses on how decisions were made in the trial court.
It reexamines the facts presented during the trial.

The leading causes of ____________ include mistaken identifications, improper forensic evidence, false confessions, unreliable informants, tunnel vision and misconduct by justice professionals, and inadequate defense representation.

appeals
wrongful convictions
hung juries
postconviction reviews

Why do criminal appeals rarely succeed?

The appellate court reversal often produces only minor victories for many criminal defendants.
If the appellate court reverses and remands the case to the lower court for a new trial, many defendants will be convicted a second time.
The appellate standards of review often find that no reversible error was committed during the trial court proceedings.
The appellate courts are reluctant to overturn decisions by the lower courts because of time and cost constraints.

Which court is seen as more conservative with rulings that cut back on abortion rights, condoned mandatory drug testing, and permitted capital punishment for juveniles and developmentally impaired persons who were convicted of murder?

the Warren Court
the Burger Court
the Rehnquist Court
the Roberts Court

What was the purpose of the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996?

It restricted the time periods and the number of habeas corpus petitions prisoners file.
It restricted courts from hearing habeas corpus petitions from convicted terrorists.
It restricted courts from pursuing all terrorism cases as death penalty cases.
It increased penalties for those convicted of domestic terrorism

What does it mean when a case is reversed and remanded?

The case is overturned and sent back to the lower court for further hearing.
The case is overturned and terminated.
The case is returned to the lower court for a retrial.
The case is affirmed and returned to the lower court for further hearing.

What are the two primary functions of appeal?

judicial oversight and checks on prosecution
error correction and policy formation
error correction and process oversight
crime control philosophy enforcement and compliance

Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which postconviction differs from appeals?

They may be filed only by those actually in custody.
They may raise only constitutional defects, not technical ones.
They may be somewhat broader than appeals.
Many state court systems limit postconviction remedies.

The U.S. Supreme Court and most state high courts of last resort have largely ____________.

discretionary appellate jurisdiction
mandatory appellate jurisdiction
limited appellate jurisdiction
constitutional appellate jurisdiction

Which of the following has led to an increase in the broader range of criminal cases being appealed?

relaxation of appellate court rules
increase in the penalties for crimes
increase in meritorious issues of broader concern
public awareness of trial rules

How do state courts of last resort and the U.S. Supreme Court help set justice policy?

By utilizing the political associations that come with the appointment of the judges.
By exercising caution as to how they word their opinions.
Through their exercise of their discretionary appellate jurisdiction.
Through their exercise of their experience in handling difficult questions of law.

Which of the following terms refers to the movement in the state supreme courts to reinvigorate state constitutions as sources of individual rights over and above the rights granted by the U.S. Constitution?

new judicial federalism
rights-generous doctrine
state constitutional reformation
restorative representation

Postconviction reviews are termed collateral attacks because they are attempts to ____________.

avoid the effects of a prior court decision by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
overturn prior court decision by bringing in new evidence
affirm prior court decisions by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
change the way the process was handled in the lower court

A defendant has been acquitted by a jury of charges filed against him by the state. The prosecution subsequently discovers incriminating evidence that was not presented during the trial. The prosecutor decides to recharge the individual with the crime. However, the court denies the motion for a new trial. Under what rules is the judge basing the denial?

Fifth Amendment protection against double jeopardy
Fifth and Fourteenth Amendment violation of due process
Fourth Amendment protection against admissibility of illegally obtained evidence
Eighth Amendment protection against cruel and unusual punishment

Question 7: General Question

NSG 5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG 5002 Quiz 4 (2019): South University (Already graded A)

Question 8: General Question

NSG 5003 Week 3 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: South University

Question 9: General Question

Liberty BIOL 101 Quiz 4 Latest Version

Question 10: General Question

Liberty University CSTU 101 Quiz 4 Latest

Question 11: Business

Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.

Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:

Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
Options for the needs analysis
Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
Your recommendations for training and recruitment

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

Question 12: Other

Lab Report: Elasticity

Answer the questions below. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.

Total score: ____ of 27 points

(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)

Write the goal of the lab or the question you tried to answer.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)

Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)

State your hypothesis.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)

Use the data from your experiment to complete this data table.

TCype of Rubber Band	Original Length (cm)	Mass (g)	Length with Mass (cm)	Stretch Length (cm)
thin



medium
Graph your data: Plot mass against stretch length for each rubber band. Use a different symbol for each rubber band. Make a key so that you are able to tell the plots apart. Answer: (Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points) Did your data agree with your hypothesis? Explain. Answer: Type your answer here. (Score for Question 7: ___ of 3 points) Draw a trend line that characterizes the data for the thick rubber band. Then, use your graph to predict the thick rubber band’s stretch length if it had a 400 g mass attached to answer: Answer: Type your answer here.


thick

Question 13: Other

Total score: ____ of 24 points

(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)

B.Write the goal of the labs on levers and pulleys or the question you tried to answer.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)

C.Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)

D.State your hypothesis.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)

E.Use the data from the lab on levers to complete the data tables.

Answer:

Resistance

Force, as added mass to resistance side (g) converted to (N)	Arm length (m)	Work
300 g = 2.94 N	0.70
300 g = 2.94 N	0.75
300 g = 2.94 N	0.80
300 g = 2.94 N	0.85

Effort

A Force (N) applied to balance the lever with no mass on effort side	B Pulling force applied to the spring scale (n) when mass is added to effort side	Total force B-A	Arm length (m)	Work
0.87			0.50
1.53			0.45
2.18			0.40
3.30			0.35

(Score for Question 5: ___ of 6 points)

F.Use the data from the lab on pulleys to complete this data table.

Answer:

Pulley System	Distance String Pulled (cm)	Effort: Force (N)	Effort: Work	Distance Mass Lifted (cm)	Resistance: Force (N)	Resistance: Work
single fixed-position pulley
single moving pulley
one fixed-position pulley with one moving pulley

(Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points)

G.Compare your data with your hypothesis. Explain how the data supports or does not support your hypothesis. If your data does not support your hypothesis, use the data you collected to answer the original question.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

Question 14: Finance

Using Microsoft Excel, demonstrate your understanding of the Time Value of Money concepts discussed
in the text by answering the following questions. Upload your answer to canvas.

You graduate from IU and get a job with an annual salary of $50,000.
a. (1 point) Your boss calls you into the office and says she is happy with your performance and is going to give you a $1,000 raise. What percentage raise is this for you?
b. (1 points) If the Inflation Rate is 2.0%, what is the actual amount of your raise?
(3 points) At your graduation, your parents give you a $2,000 graduation gift in cash. You decide to invest this money in an Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU) Term Certificate and the current Annual Rate is 2.80%. If you leave this money alone for 5 years and it compounds monthly, how much money do you have in this savings account after 5 years?
(3 points) You decide after graduation to start saving for your retirement. Even though it might be tough at first, you decide to invest $200 a month for 40 years. If you your investment earns 10% APR and the interest is compounded monthly, how much will you have earned?
After graduation you decide to buy your first car. You decide you want to get a Kia because it has a 10 year/100,000 mile warranty. You buy a 2019 Kia Sorrento EX for $35,000 and finance the vehicle through Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU). Today’s new car loans are 4.29% APR.
a. (2 points) If you finance this car for 66 months, what is your monthly payment?
b. (4 points) Create an amortization table showing monthly payment, monthly interest and monthly principle paid. After the first year (12 months), how much interest have you paid?
In order to diversify your investing strategy, after graduation you decide to also
invest annually in Tesla, Inc. You decide to invest your $300 annual bonus every January 1st in Tesla stock. It is possible to purchase parts of a share…i.e. 2.5 shares…

Date Amount Price per share # share purchased
2015 $300 $24 how many?
2016 $300 $21 how many?
2017 $ 300 $31 how many?
2018 $ 300 $33 how many?

(2 point) how many shares of stock did you buy each year

(2 point) If you sell all of your stock today and the share price is $28, how much money did you receive for the sale of that stock?

(2 points) How much money do you Gain or Lose?

You decide you want to experiment a little with investing in bonds. Your grandma gives you $1,000 at graduation and you want to put it away in a safe place. You find a government bond to buy. The bond will mature in 5 years and pays a coupon once a year.
a. (2 points) If the Annual Coupon Rate is 5%, what is your coupon payment?
b. (3 points) If you assume that the annual discount rate is 4% compounded annually, how much is the bond worth today?

Question 15: Business

Informational Interview Report

My interview job is market research analytics specialist. Below is the information needed for the report.

Deliverables (combine these into one document) 1. A 2-3 page, single-spaced report about your interview, written in memo format 2. An APA-style reference list 3. A list of interview questions. Here is the link you can pick 10-12 questions.(https://s3.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/blackboard.learn.xythos.prod/5a30bcf95ea52/4120098?response-content-disposition=inline%3B%20filename%2A%3DUTF-8%27%27200%2520Great%2520Informational%2520Interview%2520Questions%2520to%2520Choose%2520From.pdf&response-content-type=application%2Fpdf&X-Amz-Algorithm=AWS4-HMAC-SHA256&X-Amz-Date=20191104T005520Z&X-Amz-SignedHeaders=host&X-Amz-Expires=21600&X-Amz-Credential=AKIAIL7WQYDOOHAZJGWQ%2F20191104%2Fus-east-1%2Fs3%2Faws4_request&X-Amz-Signature=428f5253c04c93abd8cd60a47a283cf038a5f662868fb46e764fccdc70bc89ab)

Learning Goals • Learn to identify appropriate sources of career information • Gain experience contacting and persuading a professional to meet with you • Expand your knowledge of your profession and industry • Practice active listening in an interview setting • Learn how to synthesize and organize relevant information • Become familiar with the professional memo format

Assignment Summary An informational interview is a meeting with a working professional who can give you an inside view of an occupation, organization, and/or industry that is of interest to you. You will identify an appropriate interviewee; research their industry; schedule an interview; build a list of appropriate questions; conduct an in-person interview and take notes; send a thank you note; and write a reflective report about what you learned and how it applies to your professional future.

Assignment Details The first 2-3 pages of your assignment, formatted as a memo to your professor and typed single-spaced, should include: (1) Your Professional Goals and the Purpose of the Interview (1 paragraph): Briefly describe your career interests and 2-3 career goals and then explain why this interviewee is relevant to those goals. (2) Biography of Interviewee (1-2 paragraphs): Sum up the interviewee’s professional biography, including his/her professional background, current title and responsibilities, organization, and a summary of the interviewee’s career journey, from beginning to date. (3) Industry Overview (2-3 paragraphs, based on research): Provide an overview of the industry including market size, types of careers in the industry, nature of work in the field, types of writing and communication skills required, and other skills needed. Incorporate information from both the interview and additional research you have done. Use 3-5 sources of information for this section and provide in-text citations using APA formatting. (You will also provide a list of references at the end of the paper.) A good place to start is the GMU Library BUS 303 InfoGuide: http://infoguides.gmu.edu/BUS303 (4) Interview Summary (1-2 paragraphs): Provide a summary of your interview, focusing on the most valuable information that your interviewee provided. Do not include a complete transcript of your interviewee’s responses and do not use an “I asked…and she answered…” format. Instead, paraphrase the responses in a narrative format. (5) Reflection (2-3 paragraphs): This is the most important part of your memo. Synthesize 2-3 meaningful highlights or “take-aways” from the interview and reflect on their implications for your career. (6) Interview Questions: A list of 10-12 questions you thoughtfully prepared prior to the interview,

in the order that you intended to ask them. (It’s okay if you don’t end up asking them exactly as

you planned—but it’s important to have a list.) You need to write the questions yourself; do not

plagiarize a list of questions from the internet. Think about what you would really like to know

from this person. One question you should definitely ask is, “What are employers in your industry

looking for in new college graduates?” (7) Reference List: A list of 3-5 sources you used for your industry overview. Be sure to use APA formatting.

Question 16: Business

As people become increasingly comfortable posting their lives online via social networks like Facebook or through microblogs like Twitter, some companies have begun to build Web dossiers of consumers. They do this by mining the social Web on Facebook, Twitter, blogs, and online forums. Then they sell it to other companies. And here is the deal . . . most consumers have no idea that this is being done.

While the use of customer data has been around for a few years (especially through companies like Amazon who use algorithms based on customer searches and purchases to make product recommendations), there are some privacy advocates who feel that mining and using data from the social Web crosses ethical lines. For their part, the companies that aggregate this information say that they are using this information to detect behavioral patterns in order for companies to provide better products and customer service.

SOURCE: “How Companies Are Using Your Social Media Data,” http://mashable.com/2010/03/02/data-mining-social-media.

Instructions:

Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment. Answer the following three question!

Questions

Do think that this practice violates privacy, or is it acceptable since it uses information that a person has posted voluntarily?
What are some promising ways that companies can use this data?
What are some questionable ways that companies can use this data?

Question 17: English

What is counterargument in the opinion essay? In other words, if someone disagreed with the author, what would they say, what would be their position?

Your claim for this one MUST be in your words. Then find the evidence that supports it; be mindful that there is specific counterargument in the essay.

Your explanation should include an accurate summary of the author’s argument in order to understand the counterargument.

Question 18: Biology

The minimum length for this assignment is 1,200 words. Be sure to check your Turn tin report. Darwin was not the first to consider evolution as a process but he did come up with the first effective explanation for how it happens. Describe Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection. Explain how this theory was a major advance over prior ideas as to how organisms changed over time. Give evidence in support of evolution and describe the driving forces for evolutionary change.

Question 19: English

ENGL 2328 –Writing Assignment At this point in the semester, we have looked at even more authors and a much larger smattering of their work. The textbooks have touched upon a number of varied points of interest from different schools of philosophical thought. The books and our discussions have addressed the major paradigm shifts in American Literature (and history) from the Civil War to the middle of the 20th Century. The authors’ points of view have come into play aswe have muddled our way through this often confusing span of decades. More importantly, your points of view have begun to permeate the discussion, giving it a much more relevant and modern scope. (Alice, while in Wonderland,might say, “moderner and moderner.”) Once again, topic selection is up to you. However, this time, the scope of the project is going to be a bit more pointed than before. As with the first project, everything we have approached thus far this semester is fair game, as is anything we will be reading next week (please use something different than you did for the first paper). What I would like to see this time is a critical comparative analysis in which you look at more than one work and more than one author and comparatively analyze them. This is the long paper –about seven to eight pages long –the one that requires at least four sources cited within it, in MLA format of course which means that you must include a works cited page. The works cited page is not one of the seven to eight pages of your paper. Make sure you use credible sources like those found through the library databases. Do not cite Wikipedia, SparkNotes, Cliff Notes, 123HelpMe.com, cheattheprof.com, Gradesaver.com, MegaEssays.com, or any other source that subverts the research process—substantial grade reductions will occur if you use sources such as those listed above

Question 20: Computer Science

Write a loop that continually asks the user what pets the user has, until the user enters “rock”, in which case the loop ends. It should acknowledge the user in the following format. For the first pet, it should say “You have a dog with a total of 1 pet(s)” if they enter dog, and so on.

Question 21: Engineering

Two products A and B are made involving two chemical operations for each. Each unit of product A requires 2 hours on Operation 1 and 3 hours on Operation 2. Each unit of product B requires 3 hours on Operation 1 and 4 hours on Operation 2. Available time for Operation 1 is 16 hours and for Operation 2 is 24 hours. The production of product B also results in a by-product C at no extra cost. Though some of this by-product can be sold at a profit, the remainder has to be destroyed. Product A sells for $8 profit per unit, while product B sells for $20 profit per unit. By product C can be sold at a unit profit of $6 per unit, but if it cannot be sold, the cost of disposal is $5 per unit. The company gets 2 units of C for each unit of B produced. Determine the optimal production quantity of A and B, keeping C in mind so as to make the largest profit.

Question 22: Health Care

Imagine that you are working in a healthcare facility and you want to apply FOCUS PDCA Process

How you can apply this technique? In addition, what is the main result when you used FOCUS PDCA?

Question 23: Other

Research the role of the Nurse Practitioner. Select and describe an Advanced Nurse Practitioner role. For example, Family Nurse Practitioner or Gerontological Nurse Practitioner Find one research articles and one expert opinion article about this role and summarize the articles. Examples of state innovations include Maryland’s hospital rate setting, Vermont’s single payer system, and Massachusetts’ health reforms Analyze the effects of the advanced practice nurse role in terms of healthcare and patient outcomes.

Instruction

Submission Instructions: The paper is to be clear and concise and students will lose points for improper grammar, punctuation and misspelling. The paper is to be no shorter than 4 pages; nor longer than 5 pages in length, excluding the title, abstract and references page. Incorporate a minimum of 5 current (published within last five years) scholarly journal articles or primary legal sources (statutes, court opinions) within your work. Journal articles and books should be referenced according to current APA style.

Question 24: Business

Evaluate financial ratios in a minimum 1,050 words which includes the following:

Explain the uses for each of the three classifications of ratios: liquidity, solvency, and profitability.
Calculate the current ratio, profit margin, and after tax ROE, of any publicly traded company. Then locate and compare these with the ratios provided for that firm by Yahoo Finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar.
. Display your calculations in a chart with the formulas and that compares the ones you calculated with the ones you located from Yahoo finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar. They will more than likely not be the exact same amounts because of the difference in dates of the calculations you did and the published dates.

Question 25: Finance

Instruction

The topic for the paper is (The Capital Asset Pricing Model). Paper must be 12 pages in length including a cover sheet and reference page. The paper must follow APA citation style.

Question 26: Finance

You are considering a covenant for the new loan agreement that would require SME Bank to maintain a 100% or higher provision coverage of the Portfolio at Risk in arrears one day or more (“PAR1+”). This means that the entire stock of provisions (general and specific) would have to exceed the PAR1+ balance outstanding at any time. Would SME Bank comply with this covenant as of October 2016 either in terms of the provisions actually held or considering what the bank should have held when correctly applying the prudential rules? Would you consider this a reasonable covenant, or would you argue for a different definition or level of coverage as per your experience? 2. Calculate the three transition matrixes for the Jul-Aug 2016, Aug-Sep 2016 and Sep- Oct 2016 transitions. Use the enhanced transition matrix method including principal paydown as described in Unit 4 and in file U4_Ex5_TransitionMatrix.xlsx. Carry out the transition matrix to 331-360+ days in 30 day arrears increments. Any arrear balances above 360 days should be summarized into the 331-360+ category. Find the average transition matrix across the three monthly transitions. Please use KES equivalent balance amounts for all transition matrix calculations. Give a short business Interpretation of the average transition behavior at SME Bank. Compare your findings with some of the transition matrix examples discussed in the Unit 4.1 text. What might explain the transition patterns seen here? 3. Bonus Question (20%): Take the average monthly transition through the matrix exponential calculation up to 12 months. In the matrix exponential find the conditional probabilities of balances reaching 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months depending on their initial levels of arrears. Calculate IAS 39 compliant empirical provisions for the entire portfolio as of October 2016, using the transition matrix exponential results, with a default definition of having reached 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months. Also take into account the empirical LGD levels at this institution that have been separately estimated as: LGD=60% for KES loans and LGD=45% for USD loans. SME Bank is known in the market for its effective legal collections and requiring relatively strong collateral from SME borrowers, particularly for USD loans.

Question 27: Health Care

Instruction

Topic: Ascending and descending venography PowerPoint Presentation (25 slides) including images.

Precise, no plagiarism, references required (word cited APA format)

Question 2: General Question

Liberty University PSYC 221 quiz 1

Question 3: General Question

Ashford MGT 330 Week 4 Assignment Team Management Activity and Reflection

Question 4: General Question

NURS 4100 Week 4 Quiz / NURS4100 Week 4 Quiz (2019): Quality and Safety through Evidence Based Practice- Walden University (Already graded A)

Question 5: General Question

WRTG 101 APA quiz 100 percent.docx

Question 6: General Question

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach (one slide for each step) in detail including its goal, and create an example aligned to the scenario above to illustrate how that stage would be implemented toward the problem’s solution.
Define the two types of research data this process gathers and their pros and cons. Share examples of each type that would be useful in solving the scenario.
Compare and contrast the Five-Step Process with two alternative methods for conducting marketing research. What are the pros and cons of each?
Define what it means to differentiate a service and provide an example to illustrate how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use the strategy to help increase target market interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the organization.

Question 7: General Question

NURS-6531N-8, Adv. Practice Care of Adults.2019 Summer

Question 8: General Question

NR 509 Week 6 Quiz Answers 2019:Chamberlain College Of Nursing

Question 9: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

What is the purpose of a Training Needs Analysis (TNA)? Is it always necessary? Remember, a needs analysis determines the need for training intervention.

Question 10: Business

Assignment Content

Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.

Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:

Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
Options for the needs analysis
Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
Your recommendations for training and recruitment

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

Question 11: Other

Risk is a combination of: The probability that an event will occur, and the probability that a terrorist will be able to successfully plan an attack?A. TRUE
B. FALSE
2. When conducting a building assessment which of the following should be a member of the multi-functional team? A. engineer/ architect
B. Security
C. Emergency Manager
D. subject matter experts
E. All of the above
3. The initial step of a risk assessment is to: A. Collect site data from interactive GIS maps.
B. Interview staff to determine if there are alternates assigned to key functions.
C. Define and understand a building’s core functions and processes, and identify building infrastructure.
D. Evaluate the security master plan.
4. Mitigation measures can be conducted by which of the following means? A. Regulatory measures
B. Rehabilitation of facilities
C. Protective and control structures
D. all of the above
5. When designating or designing a Continuity of Operations (COOP) facility,which hazards should be considered? A. Man-made
B. Natural
C. terrorist
D. All of the above
6. The concept of Design basis Threat (DBT) is essential to building protection because? A. DBT establishes the threat tactics that architects and engineers use in designing mitigations for a new structure or renovation.
B. DBT provides the mitigations necessary to ensure that standoff is kept to a minimum.
C. DBT provides a means to identify and characterize all threat groups operating in the local area that could impact the buildings occupancy.
D. DBT establishes the minimum criteria necessary for the proper selection of window thickness and fragment retention films.
7. Assembling a GIS Portfolio can help in performing a Vulnerability Assessment on a continuity facility? A. TRUE
B. FALSE
8. The best way to lower peak incident pressure and the reflective wave is? A. reflective wave does not matter
B. peak incident pressure does not cause damage
C. increase distance of detonation
D. Decrease distance of detonation
9. Resilience is the ability of an organization or asset to _________________ its critical functionality in a short period of time after the impact of an adverse event. A. Back-up data for
B. gracefully shut-down computer functions of
C. Contract or transfer the responsibility of
D. Maintain or recover quickly
10. Continuity programs are a required and critical component of Government and critical infrastructure operations, and during emergencies and disasters, ensure that the Government at all levels can continue to operate and provide essential functions and services. A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Which biological agents are contagiousA. Small pox
B. Ricin
C. Salmonella
D. Anthrax
12. Which item is an example of a threat and/or hazard that could potentially impact a building or site? A. Bombing
B. Armed Attack
C. Kidnapping
D. All of the above
13. CBR detectors can not be successfully integrated into the buildings security operations center and building automation systems. A. TRUE
B. FALSE
14. The consequences are defined as the degree of ________________ that is caused by the loss of an asset. A. customer dissatisfaction
B. debilitating impact
C. productivity interruption
D. economic disruption
15. The four main categories of consequences are? A. Loss of life, loss of communications, loss of revenue, loss of client base
B. Human impacts, economic impacts, public confidence impacts, and impacts on government ability
C. Impacts of government ability, damage to company name, distribution of product lines, loss of life
D. Human impacts, economic impacts, Public confidence and Re-election impacts
16. Lacerations occur the furthest distance from an explosive event as a result of? A. blast loading effects of the 2/3’s conflaguration.
B. Projectile debris from progressive collapse
C. high- velocity glass fragments.
D. Sub-standard structural components.
17. Personal protective equipment is only effective against specific agents if: A. The PPE is worn correctly when needed
B. The purchased equipment is one size fits all
C. The HVAC system is turned off and the building is sealed
D. The PPE is stored in warm dry office space
18. When estimating the direct consequences of an attack you should consider, the target, the effect of the weapon, physical and environmental conditions and ________________ ? A. potential losses
B. cascading effects
C. how many people work in the building
D. estimated damage
19. The most commonly selected terrorist targets, worldwide, are? A. Commercial facilities
B. Law enforcement facilities
C. Government facilities
D. Military bases
20. What preparations are needed in order to safely shelter in place? A. Supplies to seal the room, HEPA filter, food and water, windows and a well practiced plan
B. Supplies to seal room, HVAC shutoff, carbon dioxide absorbers, food and water, communications, and a well practiced plan
C. Permanently sealed room, direct phone line, 1 gallon of water per person per day, good ventilation
D. Lan ports for laptops, printer paper, office supplies, food and water, Duct tape and plastic, plants

Question 12: Chemistry

Calculate the mass of KHP which will result in an endpoint of 25 mL when titrated against 0.093 M NaOH

Question 13: Other

Contemplate whether prices should reflect the value the customers are willing to pay or whether they should be based upon the cost of the product or service to the company. Bring in a product or service example to support and provide clarity on your position.

Unit VI Case Study

Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.

Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.

Option 1: Southwest Airlines (pp. 490–491)

What is the product and service model of Southwest? Who is their primary target market, and how is Southwest positioned with this group?
What is the pricing strategy of Southwest compared to other airlines? Is this a differentiating factor?
What risks does Southwest Airlines face both from a macro and micro environmental standpoint?
Can Southwest continue to thrive as a low-cost airline when tough economic times hit or as other airlines mimic its business model?

Option 2: Amazon.com (pp. 522–523)

With respect to the distribution, why has Amazon succeeded when so many other companies have failed?
From a theoretical standpoint, what is Amazon’s pricing model? Why is this so effective? How does this compare to their competitors?
Discuss how Amazon has used differentiation and positioning as two key components in maintaining a competitive advantage.
Thinking about the changes in the macro and micro environment, what is next for Amazon? Where else can it grow?

Option 3: Best Buy (pp. 554–555)

What were the keys to Best Buy’s success? How have they differentiated themselves?
What pricing model has Best Buy adopted?
What are the challenges it faces in today’s retail environment from both a micro and macro environmental standpoint?
How else can Best Buy compete against retail competitors like Walmart and Costco as well as online competitors like Amazon.com?

In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

Question 14: English

Night by Elie Wiesel

n his encounter with the dentist, Elie looses one of his gold teeth. Why does Elie relent and finally give up the tooth?

Question 15: Accounting

A business manager estimates that when p dollars are charged for every unit of a product, the sales will be x=380−20p units. At this level of production, the average cost is modeled by A(x)=5+x50
(a.) Find the total revenue and total cost functions, and express the profit as a function of x. (b.) What price should the manufacturer charge to maximize profit? What is the maximum profit?

Question 16: Statistics

A sample of 10 mothers wants to know if they sleep less than the population in terms of the number of hours they sleep. Their average number of hours they sleep is 6.8. We know that the average hours of sleep in the population is 8 with a standard deviation of 3.

Conduct a z test to see if the sample of mothers differs from the population.

(Be sure to complete all four steps of a hypothesis test.) α=.05

Question 17: Statistics

Find the probability of getting a total of twelve when five balanced dice are rolled. Show all work.

Question 18: Chemistry

dissolving calcium iodate in water is exothermic or endothermic?

Question 19: Economics

Suppose you are using risk-benefit analysis to evaluate a policy aimed at limiting the use of a pesticide applied to grain crops. Describe the risks and benefits that would have to be estimated to conduct this analysis properly.”

Question 20: Business

Term Project

you will choose an organization (a public or privatefirm, a non-profit or an educational institution EXCEPT OZYEGIN), visit the organization at least TWO times andcollect data on information systems by interviewing the managers and employees of IS/IT departments. Data collection should capture the information system architecture of the organization, the information systems used and their usage, the value add of information systems, IT function and its governance, future IS projects. Furthermore,
you are expected to make observations, identify IS-related problems and offer your solutions. The organization can be of any industry; however, I don’t suggest the IT industry, it might be confusing or overwhelming for you. The firm should be of appropriate size that it has its own IT function; therefore, micro / entrepreneurial firms do not fit. The firm should NOT be too big, in bigger firms you won’t be able to interview the CIO / IT manager. If the firm has multiple businesses, make sure that you choose one and concentrate on it.

Summary:

Step 1: Identify your organization, prepare a report about it, explain the business, why is it an interesting context, whom you plan to contact etc. We will evaluate the appropriateness of your choice together, you may not proceed in the project without my approval. You may change the firm later; however, you need to re-prepare the report and re-submit.

Requirements

Your report should be min 400 words. Shorter essays will NOT be accepted.

Your report should be submitted as a Word document (.doc or .docx). Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).

The file name should contain the last names of all team members and the assignment number e.g. Yilmaz_Yucel_Guzel_Sezgin_ProjectReport1.docx. Please make sure that you insert the names and Student ID of ALL team members.

E-mail or hard copy submissions are NOT accepted.

Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade.

Failure to submit the report will result in 5 points deduction from your project grade.

Question 21: Psychology

Can you give me 2 different short responses for this discussion question below? No more than 175 words.

You have learned so much in this class about research methodology in psychology and other behavioral sciences!

What is the most interesting, useful or surprising thing you learned this term?

Question 22: English

Essay- 38 murders who saw murder and didn’t call the police…

https://www2.southeastern.edu/Academics/Faculty/scraig/gansberg.html

Write an essay pretend to be one of the people and why didn’t you call the police

Question 23: Physics

A 20N block is being pushed across a horizontal table by an 18N force. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is 0.4, find the acceleration of the block.

A 0.5m/s²

B 1m/s²

C 5m/s²

D 7.5m/s²

Question 24: History

Please type, double-space your answers to the following questions. These answers must be in MLA format.

List and describe early Pacific Northwest history from Native Americans in the pre-contact era to the end of the Progressive Era (about 1920). Include information about early Native American history and culture, early white exploration of the area, fur trade and early immigration into area, the Oregon Trail, Railroad expansion into the area and its multiple effects and the struggle for labor rights.

You need to consider major historical events, important people studied, factors related to culture, economics, and the impact on the environment.

These topics will be discussed in class on Monday. Bring any questions you may have to our class.

Question 25: Computer Science

When creating an algorithm, there are many different ways to accomplish the same task. Describe what you might look for in selecting the correct algorithm for your place of business.

Question 26: Law

School Shooters School shootings have unfortunately become a common occurrence in today’s society. Students of all ages are affected, from those in elementary school to those at the college level. Suppose that a school shooting had occurred in your community and that the shooter was still at-large. Identify and list important criteria that could be used to create a criminal profile. Then, locate a minimum of two (2) articles that discuss real-life school shooting suspects. Test and analyze your criteria. What other factors could you add to your profile? Discuss your results. Your paper should be no more than two (2) pages and should include an APA citation for the article analyzed

Question 27: Law

What’s Fair? This week, you will read “The Case for Procedural Justice: Fairness as a Crime Prevention Tool.” This article discusses strategies that law enforcement officers can use to implement the procedural justice theory in their community. Using that information, design a brochure that could be used to train new officers. Consider the type of information police would need to know about this view as well as effective strategies. It may be helpful to provide scripted examples of conversations that officers would have with citizens. Your brochure should be no more than two (2) pages and should utilize APA format.

Question 28: General Question

Research 5 companies/organizations’ websites on how they recruit individuals into their companies/organizations. Rate them from highest to lowest and explain why you rated them that way, emphasizing their strengths and weaknesses. Requirements: 500 minimum/ 750 maximum with Biblical integration woven into the entire document.

Question 29: Health Care

Prompt: Write a paper about the benefits of being a first mover, the response of a second mover, and the response/characteristics of a late mover. Include a discussion of customer loyalty and earning above average returns. Also discuss the effect of competitor response to returns earned. Requirements: 500 words minimum; APA format: a minimum of three peer reviewed references Book used: Hitt, H. A., Hoskisson, R. E., & Ireland, R. D. (2017). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: competitiveness and globalization (12th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage. ISBN: 9781305502147

Question 30: English

write three paragraphs about an article called “BEGINNING YOUR JOURNEY” so basically write what you liked in it!

Question 5: General Question

Wichita State University – NURS 345Chapter 1

Question 6: English

Assignment: “Proposal Critique”

In this assignment you will be rewriting and critiquing the proposal provided HERE (Please see attachment). There are at least six improvements to be made in the document. Your job is to identify the six improvements and then, using track changes, rewrite or fix the error. Also, using the comments tool, give a brief explanation to why it is wrong and why you fixed it the way you did. Note: If your word processing program does not have track changes, you will need to insert comments in brackets using red font at the improvement location.

In your document, you should:
Identify at least six proposal weaknesses using track changes.
Include a critique paragraph of at least 150 words at the end of the document.
Discuss improvements for each of the weaknesses in your critique.
Ensure both the comments and critique are concise and error-free

A Proposal

To:

From:
Date:
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
Problem and Solution
Mason Office Center is a lovely Georgian building containing four offices. However, the interior is not attractive or inviting for clients/customers and employees. The off-white walls throughout the complex seem dull and boring, adjectives the tenants do not want associated with their businesses. In addition, the air in the building is musty and unpleasant at times.
Green Thumb Planting can provide and maintain a beautiful plantscape in the building that will attract visitors and employees as well as purify the air and introduce more oxygen. Research shows that people respond positively to interiors with at least two plants per room. These changes can be made in an unobtrusive, cost-effective manner.
Objectives of Proposed Plan
Installing plantings in Mason Office Center will give visitors and employees a more appealing and cleaner environment, producing positive feelings and greater productivity.
Background
I have been in the interior plant maintenance business for 32 years and have owned and operated Green Thumb Planting for the last seven years. All associates with Green Thumb Planting take pride in their work, and Green Thumb is happy to provide references.
Methods
Within two weeks of your signing a contract, our design team will interview you and produce a plan showing installation, including the number and types of plants, color and design of containers, and placement. The team will adjust the plan according to your preference.

Furthermore, Green Thumb is concerned about the environment and thus uses only organic methods. No harmful chemicals are used in its plantscapes.
Based on Green Thumb’s design formula, the building could use 31 large and 14 medium-sized low-light plants. Green Thumb’s service agreement provides plants and pots, weekly maintenance, and monthly replacement of weak plants.

Scheduling
When a plan is agreed upon, Green Thumb will schedule installation within one week. Installation can be accomplished during the evening hours to avoid interrupting your tenants’ business activities. All soil and materials will be brought into the building in specially designed trolleys to prevent spillage and damage to floors. I anticipate being able to complete the job in two nights. Once the plantscape is installed, Green Thumb Planting staff will visit Mason Office Center once a week to maintain the plants.
Capabilities and Qualifications of Personnel
I have a BS degree in landscape design and 32 years of experience in the business. In addition, all personnel have undergone thorough background and criminal checks and are bonded. Your satisfaction with Green Thumb’s plantings and employees are guaranteed.
Budget
The installation cost is $923.40, and the monthly maintenance fee is $75.00 per month. You will incur no other charges to have an inviting, attractive, clean green environment in Mason Office Building.

Installation costs include the following:

31 large 6 braided ficus trees at $25 each $150.00
6 chamaedorea palms at $20 120.00
10 herb topiaries at $20 200.00
9 Chinese evergreens at $25 225.00
14 medium
5 moth orchids at $15 $ 75.00
9 angel ivy at $15 135.00
SUBTOTAL $905.00
Tax 8% 72.40
TOTAL $977.40

Conclusion
For an effortless, inexpensive, attractive, clean environment at Mason Office Center, accept Green Thumb’s proposal. Please send a memorandum of acceptance to Green Thumb Planting, 101 Sienna Way, Ayden, NC 28513-7101.

Signature Assignment: Public Stewardship Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper outlining the critical need for public stewardship in budgeting.
Detail the needs and methods for training public officials and staff members for ethical public budget preparation and maintenance strategies.
Include the following:
Detail the need and importance of public stewardship in budgeting
Ethical requirements for leaders to consider for proper public stewardship
Consequences of unethical or poor public stewardship
Consider utilizing a recent current events article for reference to a recent incident of unethical public stewardship of budgetary monies.
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the University Library.

Question 8: Business

Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.

Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
Do not use a National Brand

Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business. You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”. Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15. Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis. You need three Objectives for the business. Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s. Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings. End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

Matching Definitions
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the clientÕs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Diana Prince
Age: 37
Gender: Female
Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm
Height: 5’5″
Weight: 165 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 31%
Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.

NSG6430 Midterm Exam / NSG 6430 Week 5 Midterm Exam (2019): South University (Already graded A)

Question 13: Health Care

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University

Question 14: Philosophy

Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)

Question 15: Law

Instruction
Write a reflection of what you have learned about boundaries and dual relationships in counseling. 1 1/2 pages (no APA format))

Business Ethics Identify an ethical public policy that is currently present in society. Write an argument in support of the policy or against the policy using at least one of the three public policy models – market economy, social democracy, or neo-mercantile. Indicate which would be your option and why. What are the possible consequences of your decision?

Instruction
You must use the textbook as a reference as well as a minimum of one other reference. Be sure to include a reference page and internal citations. Check the course outline for formatting instructions. Your paper should be 1 ½ to 2 pages in length, double spaced, with Times New Roman 12 pt font and 1” margins. Your heading should be single spaced in the top right corner of your paper and consist of your name, assignment number (Assignment #1), and BMGT 4390. Be sure that you include a reference page and internal citation formatted in either APA or MLA format.

Question 17: Health Care

Topic: Health Care Systems Prompt: Define outpatient care. What are several key changes that have been instrumental in shifting the balance between inpatient and outpatient services? How do outpatient services support the continuity of care in the delivery of health services? Why is it important for hospital administrators to regard outpatient care as a key component of their overall business strategy?

Instruction
1. Ensure that you meet the minimum word count which is 800 word count. 2. Include two references in addition to the text book and a Biblical reference. 3. Add Biblical integration section to Essay , which includes the verse and how it it applies. 4. Use spell check 5. Always submit assignments in essay format, double spaced using APA. 6. List questions then the answers. 7. The posts must contain original information. I hope this helps!!

Graduate School Scholarly Book Review (Criminal Justice)

Scholarly Book Review – The final component of this course is for you to read and review one of the following books: 1.) Pacifying the Homeland: Intelligence Fusion and Mass Supervision; or 2.) Solitary: The Inside Story of Supermax Isolation and How We Can Abolish It. University of California Press. ISBN: 9780520292239. For this assignment, you must cite at least five peer-reviewed articles, not books, in your review. Your scholarly book review must be between 2,250 to 2,700 words. For this assignment, you need to do more than merely provide a synopsis of the book. Rather, provide a scholarly analysis of the book and explain what, if anything, it contributes to our understanding of the criminal justice system. Students who do a particularly good job with this assignment will be encouraged to submit their work to a scholarly journal. Scholarly publications are often very helpful in gaining admittance to Ph.D. programs. Doing this assignment might also provide you with an opportunity down the road to demonstrate to your supervisors at work that you have an ability to synthesize information into an interesting, evocative report. Also, scholarly book reviews enhance one’s visibility as a burgeoning scholar, and make a contribution to the field of criminal justice, and provide invaluable opportunities for personal growth. The instructor will provide everyone with an example of a scholarly book at the beginning of the course. Several Lamar University graduate students have published book review essays they have written in my courses in academic journals. All scholarly book reviews will be submitted either by the student or the instructor to Safe for originality in order to ensure that there is not any forms of plagiarism, either deliberate or accidental. It must be evident that all papers are original works. If a Safe report reveals any evidence of plagiarism, the paper will not be graded and will be assigned a “zero.” Students should visit with the instructor before the assignment is due if they have any questions about this. Also, if a student fails to cite at least five peer-reviewed journal articles and include these in the references at the end of the book review, it will incur an automatic penalty of twenty points. Please, note the instructor will not, under any circumstances, receive late book reviews, regardless of the reason. in mind, this is an assignment that students are encouraged to work on throughout the semester Please follow the writing rubric in Appendix 1 to understand how you are required to write the paper.

Question 19: Business

Portfolio 2 Questions
PART 1 : Questions from your text book (eBook chapters 3, 4 & 5)

Chapter 3, 4 & 5: ( Answer using lecture slides and eBook)

Q1: Identify a major ethical dilemma in each of the last five decades.
Q2: Identify a key development in business ethics in each of the last five decades.

Reflection tip: Which decade did you connect with the most and why? How does the ethical dilemma of that decade impact you in the present?

PART 2 : Lecture Pods/Videos

Q1: View the video lecture pods (Purpose of Professional Bodies) and make a note of the main points you learned about professional bodies. After viewing the first lecture pod, visit the site of a Professional Body you might be interested in joining as a graduate, and find the answers to the following questions:
How do I become a member?
What must I do to maintain membership?
Do they have a code of conduct and what is required?
Do they have a code of ethics?

Hint: This question is important in helping you prepare for certain parts of Assessment 1 (Executive summary)
Q2:

Access APES 110 Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants and make sure you understand the five fundamental principles. For each of the five principles, think of a scenario which may potentially create threats to compliance with the principle.
Reflection tip: Which objectivity out of the five is the most important to you (even if you are not in the accounting profession, these objectivities are important in other disciplines too)
Q3: View Supplementary videos – Please summarise one to two key points on the following
Are there penalties for breaching the codes? three videos:
SABC Digital News | Accounting and Auditing professional bodies to help fight corruption
Association for Project Management | Professional Bodies, what role do they play in building and maintaining world class competence?
Niobe Elliott | Professional Bodies ICT

Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?

Q4: Videos from CNN and ABC News on Ethics –
How to buy ethical chocolate video
Should chocolate makers like Cadbury and Nestle be held accountable for the actions of their suppliers? Is it their responsibility to ensure that their suppliers produce cocoa without using child labour of child slave labour?
If you were Nestle’s CEO, what would you do? Buy the more expensive FairTrade cocoa, or continue to but the less expensive, less ethical cocoa?

Fire Kills Over 100 Factory Workers in Bangladesh video
How can companies like Tommy Hilfiger and Wal-Mart emphasize to their employees the importance of choosing suppliers that behave ethically? Discuss how an organisation’s culture can help dictate employee behaviour.

Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?

PART 3 : Reading 2: 2017 Graduate Outcome Survey National Report, Jan 2017

Please refer to Table 3 (Undergraduate Employment Outcomes by study area), 2016 and 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Please refer to Table 8 (Undergraduate Employment by Occupation and study area), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 2.6 Skills formation and utilisation – comment on Table 9 (Importance of Qualification for undergraduates’ Current Employment), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 28 (Undergraduate median full-time salaries by study area), 2016 and 2017 and provide comments on salary related to your profession.

Reflection tip: What are your thoughts about your chosen profession after reading this article and exploring the statistics? How is this information going to impact you in the workforce?

PART 4 : Vietnam Economic News (8-14 Sep)

Please read Vietnam Economic News from the above dates and provide a summary (any one article and one paragraph) on any article that relates to your profession, career/employment or ethical issues. Vietnam Economic News is available from web site http://ven.vn/

Reflection tip: What is the VEN reading about and how does the information presented impact your thinking? How does your article relate to this week’s topic? what are the positive aspects and how would you apply that in the future? and/or what are the negative aspects and how would you avoid them?

Portfolio Reflection Guidelines:
Provide a 100 to 150 words of reflection on your learning from the homework questions. You may reflect on the question(s) you particularly engaged with and your work experiences. Please use the following as guidelines.

Reflection GUIDELINES must be used Possible questions you could use to meet these guidelines
Evaluate Significance What is the relative value of the overall learning experience from the resources and portfolio questions for this week?
Reconstruct the experience What are the most salient points of what you experienced when learning from the resources for this week?
Analysis: Why did it happen that way? What interpretations, explanations help you to make sense of the learning experience?
Distil: What lessons can be learnt? What positive aspects from learning resources are worth using in the future?
Apply: Prepare for future situations What will you change as a result of learning experience from this week? What preparation do you need now to respond to situations in the future?
(Cottrell 2015: 236-237).

Internal Analysis

Instruction
ow that you understand the concept of a competitor analysis, you must now be able to communicate your organization’s strategy to all employees. The CEO for your organization has announced that the organization must put more of a focus on consumer-driven health care, and an urgent care clinic division will be added as an answer to the recent uptick in retail health clinics in your area. For this assignment, develop a 4-6-page action plan, not including title page and reference page, that will facilitate communication of the strategy. Your action plan should include, but is not limited to, the following: Goals or objectives that detail how the new urgent care clinic division will contribute to the set strategy (e.g., tie this in with the organizational statements you constructed) What will be required to meet the goals and objectives Who is responsible for each goal and objective What resources will be required to achieve goals and objectives How results will be measured and evaluated At least 1 page of your report should be dedicated to explaining the process for communicating the plan across the organization.

Question 21: General

Assessment @ a glance
Task Use the Data Science Road Map, your Excel & Descriptive Statistics skills to analyse two data sets to solve a problem
Learning outcomes Present and describe information effectively
Suggest ways to improve decision making processes
Value 15%
Submission Learnline Submit Here
Week 7 (see Learnline for details)
Volume & Documentation Two documents are required:
An Excel workbook showing data analysis and a data dashboard
A 2- 4-page report in Word summarising outcomes and decisions (see required template in task details)
Group or Individual Individual
Criteria See separate document

Overview
This assignment will enable you to practice your data analytics skills learned to date. You need to implement the Data Science Road Map and respond to the scenario on page 2.

SCENARIO
You are Aya Baxter and you are working as a data analyst in a tertiary institution. Your manager has been asked by a Senior staff member responsible for student engagement to analyse a data set of an ‘at risk’ first year university class (often with a high failure rate) to understand the demographics and the potential for all students to successfully complete the unit. The institution is looking to implement some student support strategies but first need to understand the student cohort in some detail.
To: Aya Baxter
From: Monica Dave
Subject: Student Engagement project
Dear Aya,
The Pro Vice Chancellor (PVC) Student Engagement is gathering data regarding some of the problematic subjects we teach in first year across the institution. She is particularly interested in a data set from a first year Statistics unit which has had some very high fail rates in the past.
Could you please review the data sets extracted from the student system and the Learning Management system and provide some advice including a brief report to help with planning intervention strategies to ensure that students can be successful.
You will need to include a range of descriptive statistics and data visualisations (in the form of a data dashboard) so that the PVC and colleagues will be able to quickly understand the situation when in their next meeting which is scheduled for Week 8 of this semester.
It would be great if you could get this work to me no later than Friday, Week7
I look forward to your response
Monica Dave
Preparation
In order to prepare a reply to the email, you will need to examine and analyse the datasets thoroughly. There are two separate excel files that will need to be reviewed.
Remember the process to use and the importance of the first step: Identifying the problem. The data will be messy, you need to clean the data and decide what will be best for your analysis. After cleaning the data, you will need to do some explorations about what its telling you. Consider the variables against which data is being recorded and the various relationships between variables that may be of help. A consideration of the ethical aspects of this request should also be included.
Demonstrate your use of a pivot table to manipulate the data as part of your analysis. Use the pivot table to create an Interactive data dashboard that includes at least 3 charts from which decision making is possible.

Presentation
The structure for the report is as follows:
Title page
Problem: outline the problem you are trying to solve based on the scenario outlined below and the data sets you receive.
Data Wrangling: outline the steps you took to clean the data initially and the processes you used to understand what was in the data set you received. Include screen captures etc to show the process used.
Features extracted: based on your problem, what features did you choose to work with and why?
Ethical considerations: use the factors from the Business Ethics Canvas to write about the ethical aspects you considered
Modelling & Analysis: what visualisation and statistical processes did you employ to find answers to the problem you identified. Why did you choose these?
Present Results: this should include a data dashboard created in EXCEL and contain both visual, numerical and textual data. Data in your report should refer to data in the spreadsheet
References (where appropriate)

Criteria
Data Analysis Skills (Use of the Data Science Road Map process to structure the analysis; discuss the ethics😉
Demonstration of Statistical Thinking skills (ability to use the language, concepts and processes of statistics to address the problem presented)

Demonstration of EXCEL SKILLS (pivot tables, data dashboards, functions)
Communication skills – ability to write a coherent report
Innovation/Originality – for going above and beyond!

Instruction
Read, summarize and give your opinion on the attached paper.

A Research Agenda Acknowledging the Persistence of Passwords∗
Cormac Herley
Microsoft Research, Redmond, USA
Abstract
Despite countless attempts and near-universal desire to replace them, passwords are more widely used and firmly entrenched than ever. Our exploration of this leads us to argue that no silver bullet will meet all requirements, and not only will passwords be with us for some time, but in many instances they are the solution which best fits the scenario of use. Among broad authentication re- search directions to follow, we first suggest better means to concretely identify actual requirements (surprisingly overlooked to date) and weight their relative importance in target scenarios; this will support approaches aiming to identify best-fit mechanisms in light of requirements. Second, for scenarios where indeed passwords appear to be the best-fit solution, we suggest designing better means to support passwords themselves. We highlight the need for more systematic research, and how the pre- mature conclusion that passwords are dead has lead to the neglect of important research questions.
1 Introduction
“Well, in our country,” said Alice, still panting a little, “you’d generally get to somewhere else if you run very fast for a long time, as we’ve been doing.” “A slow sort of country!” said the Queen. “Now, here, you see, it takes all the running you can do, to keep in the same place. If you want to get somewhere else, you must run at least twice as fast as that!”
– Lewis Carroll, Through the Looking-Glass
One view of password research is that little progress has been made in the past 20 years. Despite countless attempts to dislodge them, passwords are more widely
∗Version: August 25, 2011. Copyright IEEE. Author’s version for personal use. Not to be offered for sale or otherwise re-printed, re- published or re-used without permission. A version of this paper will appear in IEEE Security&Privacy Magazine in early 2012.
Paul C. van Oorschot
Carleton University, Ottawa, Canada
used and firmly entrenched than ever. The list of new technologies, research efforts and industry initiatives that have tried to supplant them is impressive in effort, and disappointing in outcome. We consider the possible rea- sons in an attempt to learn from this failure. We find that despite almost universal agreement on the desirability of finding something to replace passwords, much confusion has resulted from a failure to specify both the actual re- quirements needed of a replacement, and a relative rank- ing of such requirements. If a solution which satisfies all needs cannot be found, then “best fit” approaches should be explored. The premature conclusion that passwords are dead has generated some perverse effects. We argue that it is time to admit that passwords will be with us for some time, and moreover, that in many instances they are the best-fit among currently known solutions.
We suggest two broad research directions. First, we suggest research that identifies scenarios where pass- words are indeed the best fit and encourages means to better support them; this could have tremendous positive impact given the scale of password deployment. Second, we suggest research systematically prioritizing compet- ing requirements (as rarely can all requirements be met), and using this in comparing alternatives.
We assert the need to better understand the loss situ- ation (what the actual losses related to password com- promises are, and what attack vectors they result from); our current data poor state means perception drives de- cisions more than evidence. Password research has been far from systematic. For example, we still ask many of the same questions asked 15 or 20 years ago and the liter- ature is void of agreement on many issues for which con- sensus should be possible. We attribute this to a lack of a well-organized research agenda, and a lack of systemat- ically documented knowledge. Our goal is to promote a research agenda that both better supports passwords, and allows progress forward.
2 The Resilience of Passwords
Neither users nor security experts would mourn the pass- ing of passwords. For users the main issue is usability. Major complaints are triggered by mandatory password changes (e.g., every 90 days) and complex policies. Frus- tration increases greatly with the number of password that a user must manage. For example, larger portfolios of passwords increase forgetting and login errors.
The security shortcomings of passwords are many and well-known. They are static in the short term and thus replayable upon capture. Early attacks focussed on their vulnerability to guessing and brute-forcing. More recently phishing and keystroke logging have allowed password harvesting on an industrial scale [8]. There are also economic problems. Agent-supported password resets are expensive. The alternative, self-service au- tomated password resets, often rely on much weaker secondary authentication systems, such as “secret ques- tions” [9] (e.g., facilitating compromise of Sarah Palin’s email account).

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
Nonetheless, passwords have shown incredible per- sistence. More than seven years after Bill Gates de- clared (2004) “the password is dead”, not only have we failed to get rid of them, but they continue to multi- ply as an almost universal means of Internet authenti- cation, protecting hundreds of millions of accounts on some large sites. Two decades of stories on how urgent and imperative it is to replace them has had little impact: stronger alternatives and two-factor schemes are rele- gated to the fringes. Sites that offer a choice of authen- tication mechanisms (e.g., Paypal, Blizzard World-of- Warcraft) find negligible user uptake of password alter- natives. End-user authentication technologies involving biometrics and tokens (see O’Gorman [11]), client-side public-key-infrastructure (see Housley and Polk [7]), and graphical variations of passwords (see Biddle et al. [1]), have largely failed to gain mainstream deployment. New proposals “to replace passwords” are offered with reg- ularity but expectations of success are so low that they are sometimes labeled as Yet Another Authentication Scheme (YAAS). Progress on federated identity systems has been glacial. A crowded and active offering space in 2004 is noticeably quieter in 2011. There is little ev- idence of user adoption of OpenID [12]. After a 1.0 re- lease by the Eclipse Higgins Project in February 2008 there have been no major updates. Sxip Identity stopped supporting its Sxipper product in April 2011, and Mi- crosoft announced in early 2011 that there would be no future versions of its federated client Cardspace.
There are many reasons for these failures. Approaches that require client hardware (e.g., fingerprints, smart- cards) face an obvious chicken-and-egg barrier. Phys- ical tokens are expensive and few users aspire to carry
the dozens that would be required to replace all of their passwords. Single-signon schemes offer a single point of failure. Password managers often have poor support for roaming and inadequately studied usability [3]. The extra security of proposed alternatives to passwords may not always justify the cost. Organizations may prefer the devil-they-know in the form of current levels of fraud to an unknown devil of support costs for more com- plex technologies. Revocation is more complicated for stronger authentication. Self-service password resets that many rely upon are no longer simple if hardware tokens are involved. Usability is an issue for many stronger schemes (e.g., longer login times). The enthusiasm that users show for getting rid of passwords has not trans- lated into support for alternatives. Non-technical issues are possibly to blame. Mis-aligned incentives can cause desirable solutions to fail. Overall, the reasons for these failures are as many and diverse as the failures them- selves.
Not only have proposed alternatives failed, but we have learnt little from the failures. Is federated identity a bad approach, or have the timing and incentives just been wrong? Do the many failed single-signon initia- tives teach that the whole idea is wrong, or merely that execution has been flawed? Might password managers see wider adoption if roaming were better supported? In spite of considerable research, execution and deployment effort, very little has been ruled in or out; those who seek to replace passwords in 2012 ask many of the same ques- tions asked in 1995. Single sign-on was an active topic of debate in the early 1990’s and remains so today. No progress results from continuing to revisit the same ques- tions without decision. There have been improvements, secure cookies, HTTPonly (which prevents cookie steal- ing) and tracking the history IP addresses, for example. However these have largely been behind-the-scenes and have not affected the user experience. While many things have changed beyond recognition, passwords have ad- vanced little since the days when a 500 MByte disk cost $600, thousands lined up overnight to buy copies of Win- dows 95, and the 1.5 MegaPixel Kodak DCS 420 digital camera retailed for $14,000.
Passwords, though unloved, deserve some words of praise. They have brought us this far: they are the means by which two billion Internet users access email, bank- ing, social networking and other services. They are es- sentially free from the service provider viewpoint, and are readily understood by users. They allow instanta- neous account setup. Revocation is as simple as chang- ing the password. Those who forget their passwords can be emailed either reset links or the passwords themselves (this practice, though insecure, is common for low-value sites). All of this is automated and instantaneous. They allow access to one’s accounts from anywhere in the
2
world assuming nothing more than a simple browser. So- phisticated users can protect themselves from many of the threats. Deploying a functioning password system is relatively simple (although deployment errors are com- mon [2]). Arguably, the Internet could not have grown to its current size and influence without them. Some non- profit sites, such as Wikipedia and Craigslist, have tens of millions of users. Facebook grew from nothing to just shy of one million users before taking any funding. Ev- ery startup wishes to emulate that growth story, and in many cases the only acceptable marginal cost per user is $0. While growing from one to a million users, authen- tication often must be free; in growing from one to 500 million users there is seldom a good time to mandate a new (more costly) user authentication system. Passwords have an impressive record of accomplishment.
3 Confusion Reigns: Goals, Costs, Benefits
Among security experts there is near-unanimous agree- ment on the desirability of “replacing passwords.” Yet, this meta-goal is accepted without an understanding of what exactly is required of a replacement, and what will improve once they have been replaced. There is consid- erable confusion as to the costs and benefits of replacing passwords. This makes it essentially impossible to effec- tively evaluate and compare proposals.
Poor security is obviously the main concern of secu- rity experts. However, since even strong authentication technologies are vulnerable to certain attacks (e.g., ses- sion hijacking involving client-end malware), more de- tail on exactly what is required of a replacement is es- sential. The U.S. government’s 2011 NSTIC initiative— “National Strategy for Trusted Identities in Cyberspace” [10]—summarizes things concisely: “passwords are in- convenient and insecure.” This would suggest that the implicit goal is: “more security, more usability (at rea- sonable cost).” While there is little to disagree with here, this does not point to a way forward. There must be min- imum security and usability goals to be met; incremen- tal improvement in either is probably not worth the cost of disruption. A solution that answers all security con- cerns, provides unequivocally greater usability and dis- rupts nothing seems unattainable: it is likely impossible to find a silver bullet achieving all goals simultaneously. That many attempts have sought this suggests an over- constrained problem. In the absence of a silver bullet the messy work of trade-offs cannot be escaped.
3.1 Confusion on properties needed
What properties do we actually need? Which weak- nesses are unacceptable in a replacement and which can we live with? What are the usability requirements, given
that active web-users must authenticate to dozens of sites? Previous attempts to replace passwords demon- strate confusion as to which threats to address.
As one example, the problem of malware-infected clients has been with us for some time and contin- ues. Yet, many recent proposals, including OpenID and Cardspace and most password managers offer no protec- tion against malware-infected clients. There is confu- sion about whether, in a particular deployment environ- ment, the guessing attacks of concern are online or off- line. Relatively weak passwords may suffice if relevant attacks must be online, allowing other mitigation; much greater strength is required if off-line attacks apply.
Passwords have been with us since the earliest days of computing. The rules, policies and “best practices” that govern their use have grown over time. The policy requirements of many organizations are enforced sim- ply for compliance with security audits or industry best practices. The reasons for some requirements are poorly understood, or long forgotten; in some cases the threats underlying a policy item are no longer applicable, or it is unclear whether the policy accomplishes the design goal. Password expiration, as discussed in Section 5, is an example where there is a high usability cost, yet the best evidence suggests the security objective is not being achieved [15].
The resources currently protected by passwords are as diverse as the Internet itself, ranging from bank and brokerage accounts with significant assets to throwaway email accounts. Clearly, not all accounts in all environ- ments have the same security needs. The objectives of different password-requesting web-sites vary immensely, and are not always centered on security. Passwords might be required to limit liability (if personal informa- tion is compromised), for legal reasons (some laws apply if a door is closed but not if open), to get an email address as username for contact information, or to convey or in- crease the feeling of value in a site. Not all users have the same needs—for celebrities, politicians and people in the public eye, even email and Twitter accounts may re- quire better protection than others need for banking. Not all passwords are equal. The consequences of compro- mise are at least as diverse as what they protect. Health records, employee accounts and banking are at one end of the spectrum; compromise here can be extremely se- rious. Merchant and retailer accounts come next; there might be an opportunity for mischief or vandalism but the damage is likely more limited. Email and social net- working sites present the opportunity for inconvenience and reputation loss. Passwords that allow access to site content, airport WiFi networks etc., rank lowest, protect- ing the site more than the user.
There is confusion as to whether we seek one solu- tion or many. We assert that it is naive to expect that a
3 Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
single approach will supplant passwords in every nook and cranny into which they have forced themselves; sev- eral or many technologies are necessary, which itself has advantages over a single solution. We noted earlier the problem is over-constrained in goals. The general confu- sion suggests a problem also insufficiently specified.
3.2 Inability to quantify harm
The insecurity of passwords certainly causes harm. Yet, how much harm exactly is caused by password compro- mises is a subject of speculation. Most organizations reveal nothing of their losses unless compelled. While there is no shortage of estimates, most lack a description of methodology, and many are produced by or for se- curity vendors whose prime motivation is not necessarily accuracy. In the last two years, estimates of “cyber-crime losses” ranged over three orders of magnitude, from $560 million (P. Peterson, Cisco) to $1 trillion (E. Amoroso, AT&T); the inconsistency inspires little confidence in any of these numbers. How bad are things actually— how much harm does the average user suffer? Accurately predicting the benefit of replacing passwords requires ac- curately quantifying harm.
Harm is sometimes suffered by the user, sometimes by the site. Historically, a compromised user account might pose a serious threat to the network itself. Today, a compromised Hotmail account is inconvenient for the user, and might be used to send spam, but poses little threat of direct loss to the site or other users (although indirect damage from compromised accounts may re- sult from their use to spread malware or “stuck in Lon- don” scams). Worst- and average-case harm can differ in severity by orders of magnitude. Gaining possession of an email password might in some circumstances allow an attacker to access a bank account. However the average case is far less serious. Some harms are reversible and some not. Consumers are generally made whole for di- rect costs upon loss of money [5]. Loss of privacy from leaked health records cannot be repaired. Confusing the picture further, indirect harm can be many times greater than direct. Money is the most obvious loss, but time, frustration and reputation are also at stake. As with many forms of crime, online thieves may cause damage out of proportion to the money they make.
Password compromise does not always lead to harm. In fact, we have little idea how often one leads to the other [6]. Survey after survey finds that users ignore most security precautions, yet it seems implausible that two billion people would use the Internet if a majority suffered serious harm each year. The leak of 32 million RockYou user credentials [13] has not been linked to any visible surge in fraud (albeit, proving such direct links convincingly can be difficult). The reasons for this ap-
parent lack of visible harm are poorly understood. Evacuating funds from high value accounts is non- trivial. There is evidence that many more accounts are compromised every year than can be evacuated and that money mules, not passwords, are the bottle-neck re- source in the cyber-crime pipeline [5]. Privilege esca- lation (from low to high value accounts) may be harder than it appears. Stealing passwords and monetizing stolen passwords are distinct events. It is quite possi- ble that current systems are failing at preventing the first event, but succeeding at preventing the second. When are passwords not the last line of defence, but simply one hurdle in a complex fraud prevention apparatus? Aca- demic researchers typically have no data on this. Back- end fraud detection at banks may catch more attempted fraud than researchers imagine. The research literature, largely assuming that passwords are the last line of de- fense, generally lacks discussion of back-end protec- tion. What fraction of password compromises lead to attempted fraud, and what fraction of attempted fraud
succeeds, are simply matters of speculation.
Finally, since riddance is not an end in itself, what im- proves if we get rid of passwords? The goal, presum- ably, is to reduce actual and potential harm (or improve usability without reducing security). Inability to quan- tify harm precludes quantifying the expected improve- ment from alternatives. It is common to cite impressively large fraud estimates when making the case against pass- words. However, establishing how much reduction we might expect of a replacement is rarely attempted. For example the NSTIC document [10] asserts that ID theft cost $37 billion in 2010, but is silent on how much, if any, of this can be laid at the door of passwords. This matters, as displacing passwords will be costly, and no replace- ment will be free of vulnerabilities itself. It would be disappointing to incur all the cost only to find fraud lev- els unchanged (e.g., if session-hijacking were to replace keystroke logging). It would be counter-productive to mandate strong authentication for all email accounts, if passwords are not a major source of loss. Again, without
quantification of the harms we proceed blindly.
3.3 Confusion on cost of ousting passwords
If replacing passwords were an easy proposition, it is likely that one of the many attempts would have suc- ceeded by now. That progress has eluded us suggests that the costs will be large. There will also be benefits, of course. Do the benefits exceed the costs? Answering this is complicated by the number of stake-holders and their diversity of interests. No one actor owns the whole problem. Users, web service providers, browser vendors, software companies, government agencies and law en- forcement all have some involvement or stake. The ben-
4
efit of any proposal may exceed the cost for one party, but not for others. No one party can impose a solution, but several may veto solutions; e.g., users resist innovations where usability is poor.
Organizational difficulties and the alignment of incen- tives plays a large role. OpenID provides a lesson in in- centives: while many sites offer to be identifying parties, few accept the risk of disintermediation of becoming re- lying parties [12]. Economics may play as large a role as technology in deciding outcomes. The sunk costs that many organizations have in passwords pose a large bar- rier to change. Not only is there no first-mover advan- tage, in moving to any new authentication system, there is often real advantage in being last. Given the cost, con- fusion, training and customer support calls that introduc- ing a novel system brings it can be better to let others go first and learn from their experience. The risk of user defection may be unacceptable for web service providers competing vigorously for traffic. Underestimating these factors can lead us to believe that proposals have far bet- ter cost/benefit tradeoff than is actually the case. The many failed attempts to replace passwords offer a cau- tionary lesson: asserting that promised (un-quantified) reduction in harm outweighs the business risks has been tried many times. It has a long history of failure, and this will probably continue.
While the research community is unable to quantify harm, individual companies presumably have estimates of their losses from ongoing threats. Their actions cur- rently reveal a preference for password-related losses as opposed to the uncertainty of alternatives. To assume that they’re wrong is to assume that the research community understands the business trade-offs better than businesses themselves do.
Finally, in segments where the costs of replacement are greater than the benefits, improving usability may be the main driving force, with passwords persisting until a more usable alternative is found. Segments where ben- efits of replacement can be shown to clearly dominate costs are good candidates for more complex solutions— however, the “clear showing” is not so easy.

G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A
G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A

Question 2: General Question

USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)

USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)

Question 4: General Question

Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest
Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest
Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest

NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest

Question 6: General Question

NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions

NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)

Question 8: General Question

MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest

MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest

Question 10: General Question

BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest

Question 11: History

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 4: Liberty University (Already graded A )
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 4: Liberty University (Already graded A )

ASSESSMENT 2 – Essay
Written Assessment: You are required to write a formal academic essay. The essay will require an introduction, body, conclusion and reference list. All in-text citations must have a corresponding entry in the reference list. You are required to use APA (6’h ed.) for formatting your essay, citing evidence in your essay and constructing your reference list.
Due date: 17/9/2019 By 5pm AEST
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 1,500 +/- 10%
Purpose: The aim of this essay is to enable students to demonstrate an understanding of and ability to apply the Transtheoretical Model of Change (Stages of Change Model) within an evidence-based framework. In addition to this, students will identify components of Motivational Interviewing which could be utilised to assist with enabling a patient to change their health behaviours.
Learning outcomes assessed: This assessment task assesses L01, L02, L03, LO4
How to submit: Students will submit their assessment to LEO via Turnitin. You should submit your final draft to Turnitin well in advance of the due date (ideally, several days before) to ensure that you get your Turnitin originality report and have time to work on any issues identified by Turnitin.
Return of assignment: The assignment will be returned via Turnitin on LEO with a grade and feedback summary.
Task
Harry is a 58-year-old male who has been admitted to the surgical ward on which you are working for a hip replacement. You have been allocated to care for him for the next 4 days. He weighs 165kg and is due to have a hip replacement tomorrow. He states -I’ve been overweight for years and that’s just how I am. I love food and I am a chef, so I am around food all day long. My doctor says my weight is impacting on my health-.
Using the Transtheoretical Model of Change and Motivational Interviewing techniques, describe how you could support Harry through the Stages of Change cycle to maintenance.
Utilize evidenced based literature to support your discussion. For the purposes of this paper, while seminal work (early literature) may be referenced, current literature is a requirement.

Choose a patient-care situation in which the RN should intervene and advocate for the patient. An example of such a situation might be when a patient has not been given complete informed consent.

Include the following in your paper:
Describe the clinical situation concisely and descriptively. It can be an actual situation or a hypothetical one.
Apply the Bioethical Decision Making Model to the specific clinical ethical situation that you choose. Address each section of the model in your paper.
Conclude with a discussion of nursing advocacy in the clinical setting and the nurse’s role as a patient advocate.
Your paper should be 4-5 pages.
You must reference and cite 1-2 scholarly sources other than your text. Include a title page and a reference page to cite your text and adhere to APA formatting.
Review the rubric for further information on how your assignment will be graded.
Due: Sunday, 11:59 p.m. (Pacific time)
Attached it is the Bioethical Decision Making Model

From the list below, choose a subject you would like to research. This will be the topic of your thread:
·         Long-term customer loyalty and relationships
·         Global marketing
·         The importance of marketing research
·         Defending the practice of social media marketing

Threads:
·         Title your thread according to your topic. Have a title page, and attach a Microsoft Word document with your thread, in addition to the normal discussion board.
·         In at least 600 words, discuss your topic by addressing the following items:
o    Explain the concept of the marketing management topic selected for your paper (Your textbook is a good source for this item).
o    Examine at least 1 practical application/example for your topic.
o    Formulate a question about your topic that your classmates will respond to.
o    Have a separate heading for each of these 3 sections.

Replies:
·         You must respond to at least 2 of your classmates’ threads with a reply of at least 250 words. Your replies must do the following:
·         Answer the question posed in the thread.
·         Respond to the practical example in the thread by sharing a practical example that differs from the one in the thread.
·         Reference at least 1 scholarly source for each reply.
Note about Responses: Seek to understand your classmates’ threads (including the marketing management theory, the facts presented in their posts, their points of view, and their real-world examples). Aim to communicate your own understanding of relevant facts, your values, and your perspective of the topic.

Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.

Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.

Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words

Question 16: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Describe the performance management process in your current organization( Tjx Companies Inc). What’s good about it? bad? How can it be improved?

Matching
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client Õs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Write up to 500 words per essay. One of the consequences of the “flattening of the world” is that many U.S. manufacturing jobs have
moved to lower-wage countries like China. Yet according to Davidson (“Making it in America”), many of the automotive parts made by
Standard Motor Products are unlikely to move to China any time soon. Why? To what extent is the pattern of international production
described by Davidson consistent with Vernon’s Product-Life Cycle theory?

Question 20: Education

HIUS 420 PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
For the duration of this course, you will submit 2 PowerPoint presentations. You will be evaluated on the following points:
·         Content of presentation.
·         Organization of presentation.
·         Appearance of presentation.
See the PowerPoint Presentation Grading Rubric for a full description of each point.
For this assignment, you will choose a topic from the PowerPoint Presentations Topics document. If you choose a topic that is not listed in the document, you must seek approval from the instructor. You will then develop a PowerPoint presentation with 10–12 slides. You must not exceed the assigned amount of slides. It is important for you to be concise and clear on the slides, and present relevant and organized information in the notes.
Each of the PowerPoint Presentations has 2 components:
A.    Select a topic from the PowerPoint Submission Topics document, and develop your PowerPoint Submission.
a.       You may use materials from the class, scholarly resources, and Internet sources; however, you must be careful to ensure that the source material is providing correct information.
b.      Unless an image is copyrighted, you may use images from the Internet.
c.       Use an attractive and effective background in your PowerPoint presentation.
d.      The last slide of the presentation must be a bibliography. This will include all resources utilized. You must apply current Turabian formatting.
e.       Do not include links to videos (e.g. YouTube), or to other websites.
B.     Submit presentation notes that further develop each slide.
a.       250–300 words for each slide’s notes.
b.      This submission may be in an extended outline format.
c.       You must include your notes in the “Notes” section of each PowerPoint slide.
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Savannah University NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A
Savannah University NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A

Question 22: Health Care

MN502 Unit 7 / MN 502 Unit 7 / MN502 Unit7
Sustainability Focused Business Model of Practice
MN 502- Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing

Question 23: Health Care

MN502 Unit 3 / MN 502 Unit 3 / MN502 Unit3 | A+ work
MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Stewart Leadership…

Question 24: Health Care

MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Running head: PERSONAL PHILOSOPHY OF ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE
Personal Philosophy of the APN
MN502 Unit 3

MN502-4: Develop a philosophy that supports advanced nursing practice reflecting the values, beliefs, and cultural competencies relative to nursing practice, science, and theory.
Now that you have spent the last 8 weeks discussing theory development and exploring models and philosophies that guide advance practice nursing, it is time for you to put it all together. In this Assignment, you will create a presentation using any form of presentation software (e.g., PowerPoint®, Prezi™, Movenote™, Powtoons™, Slidedog™, and so on). Your presentation should bring together the theory that best fits your concept of advance practice nursing, the model that you will use to translate this into practice, and your final philosophy of advance practice nursing related to your role after graduation.
Please remember that your presentation should contain slides that have bullet points. The bullets should number no more than four to six per slide. The bullet point is not written as a complete sentence. It contains key words. You, as the presenter will explain in depth what each bullet point means in the audio portion of the presentation. Slides may contain graphics, but should be uncluttered. Background and font colors should be of sufficient contrast to make reading them easy on the eyes. Attention to colors should be paid so that a person who is colorblind can easily read the presentation.
Assignment Details
The presentation should consist of a series of slides that include:
Title Slide: A title slide that identifies the title of the presentation and name of the student.
Introduction Slide: An introduction slide that includes brief information about you and your program track. The slide should also explain to the audience the purpose of the presentation.
Model Slides: The third and fourth slides will address your chosen model. The bullet points should consist of the specific characteristics of the model. You will need at least one citation that identifies where the model came from. Your audio will expound upon the model and what the characteristics mean. The fourth slide should include why you chose the model and how you will apply it in practice.
Theory Slides: The next three slides will focus on your chosen theory. The first slide should present your theory and why you chose it. The next slide would present the key concepts of the theory and how it has been used to date in past research no older than 5 years ago. The third slide will discuss how you will use this theory in practice as an advance practice nurse upon graduation.
Philosophy Slide: The next area will consist of one slide that presents your philosophy of advance practice nursing in the post-graduate role you will assume. The philosophy statement will consist of one to three sentences that distill the essence of what you believe advance practice nursing is and your conception of nursing as a profession. It is written in the first person and present tense. It is a personal statement of your beliefs about the profession of nursing. This should present guiding statements for your future practice in the advanced practice role. An example of a philosophy statement might read this way:Advanced practice nursing takes the art and science of nursing to a level of “other” and “self” interacting together to reach a state of optimal wellness guided with compassion and love for the culture of the “other.”
Graphical Slide: The next-to-last slide will be a graphical representation of how the model, theory, and your philosophy fit together.
Conclusion Slide: The last slide will be a conclusion that brings together everything you have presented. It is not a summary that just reiterates what you presented. It is a judgment about what you presented and bring the audience home, ending the presentation on a positive note about the future.
You will need supporting citations for your theory and model slides, and possibly for your philosophy, as appropriate. You will include the citations where appropriate and your very last slide will be a reference slide.
The total slide count should not exceed 15 slides. This does not include the reference slide(s) or the title slide.
Organization, documentation, references formatting guidelines must follow APA 6th edition: To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Home.
Total points: 300
Assignment Requirements
Before finalizing your work, you should:
be sure to read the Assignment description carefully(as displayed above);
consult the Grading Rubric(under the Course Home) to make sure you have included everything necessary; and
utilize spelling and grammar check to minimize errors.
Your writing Assignment should:
follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.);
be well ordered,logical,and unified, as well as original and insightful;
display superior content, organization, style, and mechanics; and
use APA 6th Edition format.

PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)

Question 27: Business

Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.

Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.

Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words

Question 28: General Question

BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest

Question 29: General Question

FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest

ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz

FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)

Magazine article summary: Select 1 article dealing with any sociological concept or issue. Summarize the main points of the article using your own words as well as including what interested you about the article and/ or what you learned. Additionally, you will need to identify the sociological concepts that are involved in the article you select, as well as give your thoughts on the implication these concepts are having, or will have on our society. The article may be selected only from: Newsweek, Time, National Geographic, or US News and World Report. This summary should be 2–3 pages long and must have a copy of the article attached to the summary or send the link. Sending the link does not count as proper APA documentation. MAKE sure to send the complete APA citation. Save the attachment as a Word or pdf file ONLY.

This inquiry assignment should be typed using black ink, 10 to 12 New Times Roman font, double-spaced, and with 1 inch margins. Additionally, papers are expected to be free of major grammatical errors as well as spelling errors.

Question 2: Sociology

1. Based on your reading, do you think it is ethical for sociologists to mislead research subjects or to NOT identify themselves as sociologists to their research participants?
2. What if identifying themselves would put sociologists in danger? What if it would put someone else in danger?
3. What if identifying themselves would destroy their ability to study a certain setting or group? Would this change your initial response? Why or why not?

Assume that you are the project manager for an upcoming new information systems project designed to replace your organization’s old inventory management system. The server and database will also be upgraded. Name one risk of project derailment or failure that you might anticipate? How might you mitigate this risk? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VII
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
3. Evaluate the process of developing an information system for an organization.
3.1 Assess the core activities and methodologies involved in building information systems.
3.2 Explain how organizations can align information systems development projects with business
strategies and goals.
3.3 Analyze the role of project management in developing information systems.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 13: Building Information Systems Chapter 14: Managing Projects
Unit Lesson
Developing Information Systems
Why do we develop new systems? The answer to this question is pretty evident if you think about it. No organization will remain the same for too long if it wants to be effective, efficient, and competitive. The concept of organizational change goes hand in hand with implementing new systems—regardless of whether you purchase new systems or develop them in-house. There is a whole discipline of quality management based on organizational change, process improvement, and business process redesign that supports the use of technology to improve business processes. For many organizations, the concept of business process redesign is never-ending due to the continual need for evaluating current processes, designing new processes, implementing new processes, and seeking to optimize processes (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
Let’s look at an office environment as an example. An office environment is not generally set up to be process efficient like an assembly line in an automobile assembly plant. However, people in office environments often get new information systems. Why is that? There are always ways of being more efficient in every type of workplace. There are always new ways to automate manual tasks—even just being able to access data faster is a plus. Most systems development comes from a desire to solve a problem. For example, how can we gather some specific data, manipulate it somehow, and output it into information that makes sense to us or that we can use to make good business decisions?
What is involved in the process of developing a new information system? There are some core activities involved in systems development. These activities or steps in the process might actually be common sense to some of us. Different theorists can break the systems development process into different steps, but for the purposes of this course, we will say that there are six basic activities.
Systems analysis – How do you know how to solve the problem unless you do some analysis first? What is the exact problem? What are the causes? What are the requirements? What are some potential solutions? Are these solutions feasible? Based on many factors including time, cost, benefits, and impacts, management will choose a solution.
Systems design – How do you get written user requirements into technical requirements? What are the system specifications? What is the functionality? What should the user involvement be? The systems design document should lay out the entire solution so that the developers can create the new system.
Programming – This is where a lot of the work happens because the developer has to take the technical document and create an operational system. In many cases, organizations will purchase
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
UNIT VII STUDY GUIDE
Managing Information Systems Development
software packages from a vendor. If the tasks are standard or customUizNabITlex, tShTeUnDpuYrcGhUaIsDinEg a
system may be a good option.
Testing – There are different forms of testing. The developer will test as they go, making sure there is
functionality in the system. Then, the developer or a quality assurance (QA) representative will perform unit testing on the applications or modules one at a time. The next step would be to test the whole system to make sure everything works in unison. There will also likely be some regression testing, which means the tester will make sure no other systems are harmed by what this new system is doing. The final step is to test with the user to make sure the system is functional.
Conversion – This involves the process of going live with the new system. There are many ways of doing this. Two popular ways involve a phased approach or direct cutover. Many times, organizations can even run systems in parallel until they are ready to turn off the old system.
Production and maintenance – This step involves a review process over a period of time to make sure that there are no bugs that need to be addressed.
So, how does one manage all of this? Just like any process, there are ways to manage the software development process to make sure that the rules are followed and that the process is as efficient as possible. Depending on the size of the project, managers may need some tools to help document and manage the process. First, it is important to note that there are different methodologies for developing systems. Structured methodologies are top-down, step-by-step methodologies that use data entities whereby progress flows from one logical step to the next. Object-oriented development methodologies are more iterative and incremental. They use objects that are data accompanied with information/instructions concerning that data.
To manage the software development process, most development shops use a software systems development life cycle (SDLC) program. The original SDLC was called the waterfall method and was characterized by having formal stages where one stage had to be completed before the next one began. That sounds a bit rigid, does it not? It works well for smaller, less complex software projects, but it does not work well for larger, more complex projects. Since the development of the waterfall SDLC, there have been many other approaches that have been developed. For example, prototyping is a popular method where parts of the system are created and presented to the user for use and approval. If the user does not approve, then adjustments can be made and presented again. This method can be used in conjunction with the waterfall method and adds an iterative element. More recently, several methods have been developed that are more versatile and iterative in nature. One of the more popular methods is called agile development, which focuses on the quick delivery of small subprojects, each treated as a full project. Agile is used in many software development shops.
Just as technology has adapted over time to answer the needs of organizations, so have the methods and processes been used to support technology advancement and information systems development.
How does project management fit into this? You might ask yourself if you have an SDLC, why do you need project management? Broadly speaking, a project is a set of activities that work together to achieve some business objective. That business objective might be to build a new warehouse or it might be to build a new system. Either way, the project has to be managed. Nowadays, most complex systems go outside the boundaries of just software development. There may be hardware, network, server, database, and security considerations. You may even have prominent involvement from the business side of the organization. For the actual software development portion of the project, you can use an SDLC methodology to manage that process and project management to manage the overall project.
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
There are some higher-level considerations for organizations and project management as well.
How can you align your systems projects with business goals? The organization’s business strategy drives the selection of projects. Many organizations will have a steering committee or similar facsimile to drive this selection process.
How can organizations link their information systems projects to their business plan? An information systems plan will help make the link between specific technology and corporate goals. The plan will list the corporate goals and specify how the information technology will support the achievement of those goals through current systems and new development and acquisitions.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
How can you assess a business value to the information systems that you areUdNeIvTelxopSiTngU?DTYhGeUvIaDluEe of a system is based on whether it provides enough returns to justify its cost. However, remember that there are
always tangible and intangible benefits when discussing value.
All of these are important considerations in the process of developing information systems for organizations.
Reference
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following articles explore the factors of information system development project success which is relevant information to the subject in this unit. Our unit’s chapters cover both systems development and project management.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Haron, H., Gui, A., & Lenny, M. (2014). Factors influencing information technology project success: A case of university information system development division of Bina Nusantara University. International Journal Of Organizational Innovation, 755-765.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
For this activity, you will create a 5-10 minute video presentation.
Imagine that you are the owner of your own software development company. You have been asked by the local school board to provide a video tutorial for career day at the local high school. Your video will explain the steps involved in the information systems development process.
To create a viewable video, you will need a device with video capabilities and an account set up with www.youtube.com.
Once you have set up your Youtube account, you will need to create your video. You can create your video using any laptop w/webcam, smartphone, or tablet with video capabilities. Once you have created your video, you will upload it to Youtube via the device’s own capabilities or the Youtube website.
As you view your newly uploaded video on Youtube via your computer, there will be a Share button directly underneath the viewing panel. When you click on the Share button, a new set of options will display including Facebook and Twitter links. Beneath those links is the web URL for your video. Copy and paste that link into a Word document with a brief summary description of your video.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
Title
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Unit 7 Essay due 9/16/19 by 12 noon
Introduction:
The learning outcome for this unit involves the process of developing an information system (IS) for an organization. There are many factors involved in this process, including core activities and the methodologies for managing the process. Project management plays a part as well. Additionally, IS development does not happen in a silo; there is also the business side to consider as part of the process. All of these considerations are brought together and addressed in this assignment.
Assignment Instructions:
For this assignment, you will need to access the CSU Online Library to research two articles concerning information systems development and project management. Drawing on these two articles, your textbook, and other sources, write an essay that addresses the following:
Provide a well-formulated thesis statement in your introduction paragraph.
Explain how a business user could be involved in the core activities of building an information system.
Analyze how software development methodologies (such as agile development) can work in tandem with project management for the benefit of both information systems development projects and organizations.
Evaluate how project managers and/or IT managers can ensure that information system development projects are in alignment with business strategies and goals.
Summarize your findings in a five-page paper using proper APA formatting.
Your response must be at least five pages in length, not including the title and references pages, and in APA format. You are required to use the two outside articles. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA citations.

Question 4: Business

This paper is a personal paper (use I, my, he, she). You must write in first person not third person. Has to be 15 full pages! Write about Ethical issues as it relates to workplace code of conduct

MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Using a mass balance, obtain an analytic expression that can be used for determining the time required to consume a finite fuel

Question 6: Health Care

Evidence-Based Project
Is there a difference between “common practice” and “best practice”?
When you first went to work for your current organization, experienced colleagues may have shared with you details about processes and procedures. Perhaps you even attended an orientation session to brief you on these matters. As a “rookie,” you likely kept the nature of your questions to those with answers that would best help you perform your new role.
Over time and with experience, perhaps you recognized aspects of these processes and procedures that you wanted to question further. This is the realm of clinical inquiry.
Clinical inquiry is the practice of asking questions about clinical practice. To continuously improve patient care, all nurses should consistently use clinical inquiry to question why they are doing something the way they are doing it. Do they know why it is done this way, or is it just because we have always done it this way? Is it a common practice or a best practice?
In this Assignment, you will identify clinical areas of interest and inquiry and practice searching for research in support of maintaining or changing these practices. You will also analyze this research to compare research methodologies employed.
To Prepare:
Review the Resources and identify a clinical issue of interest that can form the basis of a clinical inquiry.
Based on the clinical issue of interest and using keywords related to the clinical issue of interest, search at least four different databases in the Walden Library to identify at least four relevant peer-reviewed articles related to your clinical issue of interest.
Review the results of your peer-reviewed research and reflect on the process of using an unfiltered database to search for peer-reviewed research.
Reflect on the types of research methodologies contained in the four relevant peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry
Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following:
Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Provide APA citations of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies
After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following:
The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format.
A brief (1-paragraph) statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.
A brief (1- to 2-paragraph) description of the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following: · Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest. · Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest. · Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected. · Provide APA citations of the four-peer reviewed articles you selected.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 36 (36%) – 40 (40%) The presentation clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and thoroughly describes in detail how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and clearly identifies in detail four or more research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of four or more peer-reviewed articles selected. Good 32 (32%) – 35 (35%) The presentation accurately identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of at least four peer-reviewed articles selected. Fair 28 (28%) – 31 (31%) The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Poor 0 (0%) – 27 (27%) The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies less than four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles or is missing. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Feedback: Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following: · The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. · A brief statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest. · A brief description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. · A brief description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 45 (45%) – 50 (50%) The response accurately and clearly provides a full citation of each article in APA format. The responses accurately and thoroughly explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including a detailed explanation of the ethics of research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the aims of the research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the research methodology used, and clearly identify the type of methodology used with specific and relevant examples. The responses accurately and clearly describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including a detailed explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provide a complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources related to the selection of articles and two or three course-specific resources. Good 40 (40%) – 44 (44%) The response accurately provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses accurately explain the selection of these peer-reviewed articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including an accurate explanation of ethics. The responses accurately describe the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. The responses accurately describe the research methodology used and type of methodology used with some examples. The responses accurately describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including an explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles selected. The responses provide an accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource related to the selection of the peer-reviewed articles. The response integrates at least one outside resource and two or three course-specific resources. Fair 35 (35%) – 39 (39%) The response inaccurately or vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses inaccurately or vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including the explanation of the ethics. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the aims of the research of each article. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the research methodology used and the type of methodology used, with only some examples. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provided vaguely or inaccurately synthesize outside resources related to the selection of the articles. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the responses provided. Poor 0 (0%) – 34 (34%) The response inaccurately and vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format or is missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue, including the explanation of ethics of research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the aims of the research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the research methodology used, the type of methodology used with no examples present, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the strengths of each of the methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of the methodology, or they are missing. The responses provide a vague and inaccurate synthesis of outside resources related to the selection of the articles and fail to integrate any resources to support the responses provided, or is missing. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided, which delineates all required criteria.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided, which delineates all required criteria. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated but are brief and not descriptive. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity less than 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion is provided. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Contains a few (one or two) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Contains several (three or four) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Required Readings
Melnyk, B. M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: A guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

Chapter 2, “Asking Compelling Clinical Questions” (pp. 33–54)
Chapter 21, “Generating Evidence Through Quantitative and Qualitative Research” (pp. 607–653)
Grant, M. J., & Booth, A. (2009). A typology of reviews: An analysis of 14 review types and associated methodologies. Health Information and Libraries Journal, 26, 91–108. doi:10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x. Retrieved from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/pdf/10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoare, Z., & Hoe, J. (2013). Understanding quantitative research: Part 2. Nursing Standard, 27(18), 48–55. doi:10.7748/ns2013.01.27.18.48.c9488. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/publication/239615585_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_2
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoe, J., & Hoare, Z. (2012). Understanding quantitative research: Part 1. Nursing Standard, 27(15), 52–57. doi:10.7748/ns2012.12.27.15.52.c9485. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Juanita_Hoe/publication/235369193_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_1/links/…
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.

Walden University Library. (n.d.-a). Databases A-Z: Find the best library databases for your research. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from https://academicguides.waldenu.edu/az.php

Walden University Library. (n.d.-b). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Boolean terms. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/boolean

Walden University Library. (n.d.-c). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Introduction to keyword searching. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/searching-basics

Document: Matrix Worksheet Template (Word document)

Required Media

Centers for Research Quality. (2015a, August 13). Overview of qualitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/IsAUNs-IoSQ

Centers for Research Quality. (2015b, August 13). Overview of quantitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/cwU8as9ZNlA

Laureate Education (Producer). (2018). Review of research: Anatomy of a research study[Mutlimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.

Schulich Library McGill. (2017, June 6). Types of reviews [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/5Rv9z7Mp4kg

Assignment 1: Advanced Health Service Planning (92295) Spring 2019 Part 1: Understanding Models of Care (500-750 words)
1. Develop an understanding of ‘models of care’ by responding to the following short answer questions using reliable evidence to support your responses:
o What are models of care?
o Why are models of care important in health service planning?
o How specific are models of care in the health sector in terms of population groups,
settings, a health problem, workforce, type of care? Identify and describe an example of a published model of care for each of these domains and briefly explain the model used in each and their benefits for the health system and patients.
Part 2: Comparative Analysis of Models of Care (1750-2000 words)
Student allocation (see class list for your assessment number)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Older People
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Obstetrics (Expectant Mothers)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Rural Dwellers
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islanders
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Children
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Homeless People
Context
The large Health District covers a region of over 1 million people with two age groups predominating i.e. under 25 years and over 55 years. The region has a complex mix of outer regional, low density suburban development areas and highly urbanised areas spread across thirteen Local Government Areas. The population includes people from over 100 different culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds and a greater than average number of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples.
The health services currently provided across the District include population health programs and services; ambulatory, primary health care and community services; hospital inpatient and outpatient services, and allied, imaging and pathology services, among others. Facilities include six public hospitals and a range of outpatient and community health services, as well as over 50 private general medical practices. Other facilities located in the region include a growing number of private allied and surgical health care facilities and two Primary Health Networks. There is a high and growing number of private residential aged care facilities.
Identify the most appropriate model of care for the population you are assigned that currently does or could best support the following aspects:
Clinical co-management (medical, allied health, nursing, etc.)
Health care integration (across multiple facilities of the local health system)
Public healthcare cost reduction
Patient, family/caregiver needs and support
Timely care
Through a comparative analysis, provide reasoned arguments supported by reliable evidence and/or real-world examples for selecting the models i.e. identify the rationale behind your decision by comparing your selected model with other models of care available for your population. Contextualise information in your response in relation to the health district context given above. NB: Students must analyse primary papers, not review papers, as review papers do not provide the detail needed to adequately compare models).

A spacecraft is moving through empty space at 8 m/s-1 . A meteoroid travelling at 15m/s-1 comes from behind and at an angle of 45 degrees to the line of movement of the rocket , crashes into the rocket and becomes embedded in it. the rocket has a mass of 350kg and the meteorite mass is 20kg . calculate the velocity of the rocket.

Question 9: Business

you are working for a company that is considering investing in a foreign country. Investing in countries with different traditions is an important element of your company’s long-term strategic goals. As such, management has requested a report regarding the attractiveness of alternative countries based on the potential return of FDI. Accordingly, the ranking of the top 25 countries in term of FDI attractiveness is a crucial ingredient for your report. A colleague mentioned a potentially useful tool called he Foreign District Investment (FDI) Confidence Index. The FDI Confidence Index is a regular survey of global executives conducted be A.T. Kearney. Find this index and provide additional information regarding how the index is constructed.

Question 10: Statistics

A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6

Question 11: Finance

Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?

Question 12: Health Care

Instruction
What are some research designs that justify themselves in the field of nursing research? Choose one and explain why you chose it. Give an example of how this research design is used in your nursing discipline.

Instruction
The student will complete a theological essay that will address the relationship of human sinfulness to an aspect of the doctrine of salvation. Students will examine one of the biblical images of salvation (adoption, conversion, regeneration, redemption, reconciliation, justification, election, sanctification, or glorification) and define and describe the doctrine with its biblical, historical and theological contours as well as discuss how this image of salvation relates to and addresses the problem of sin. Finally, the student will apply the implications of this doctrine to the Christian life and for the student’s chosen vocation. The essay will be 750-1000 words and the formatting should be compatible with your current degree program.

Question 14: Mathematics

MATHEMATICAL METHODS FOR ENGINEERS 1 (MATH 1063) CALCULUS 1 (MATH 1054
Problem Solving Exercise 1
PleaseconsulttheCourseOutlinefordetailsofhowtosubmityoursolutions,andpenal- ties for late submission.
Note: You need to submit your solutions via the online submission tool on the web site. If you have not done this before, try it out well in advance of the due date so that you have time to address any problems. Consult the University’s ITHelpDesk if you have problems with submission.
Put your name on every page of your submission. You may type your submission, or write it by hand.
If you photograph your solutions to make a digital file, and the image is difficult to read (poor focus, poor lighting), your mark will suffer a penalty. The marker may not be able to award many marks at all, if they cannot see what you have done. It is your responsibility to ensure that your work is legible, so look critically at what you are handing in before submitting it.
Your solutons should be complete, in that they should explain how you obtained the final answer or answers. A reader of your work should be able to understand the entire process of what you have done.

For example: Find lim x2 − 1. x→1 x−1
The correct answer is 2, but that by itself is not very helpful and would score low marks. It could have been a lucky guess!
A more worthy solution would be:
lim x2 − 1 = lim (x − 1)(x + 1) (factorise numerator)
x→1 x−1 x→1 x−1
= lim(x+1) (maycancelx−1̸=0sincex̸=1)
x→1 = 2.
Give your solutions plenty of space and keep them tidy. Don’t squeeze things in at the bottom of a page – start a new page. You want to make life easy for the reader of your work.
If you receive help in solving a question, you need to disclose this information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you received help, and who gave you the help. This is important in order to avoid plagiarism charges. Likewise, if you offered help to someone, you need to disclose that information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you offered help, and who benefited from your help. On the first page of your submission you also need to reference any sources you used other than our textbook, the tutorial exercises, and the lecture recordings for our course. This includes online sources.
1
1. From first principles, find the derivative of the function f (x) = 4×3 − x2 − 5. That is,
find
lim f(x + h) − f(x). h→0 h
2. Using the rules of differentiation (that is, not from first principles) find the derivatives of each of the following functions. If you use the product rule, quotient rule or chain rule, be sure to indicate where you have done that. Do not simplify your answers.
(a) f(x)=tanx2 +2x.
(b) f(x)=(x2 +1)(x3 −1).
(c) g(x) = x3 − 1. x2 + 1
sinx (d) h(x)= 1+cosx.
[10 marks]
3. Find the domain and range for each of the functions f, g, and h below, justifying your answers. Use radians for trigonometric functions.
(a) f(x) = 1 , (b) g(x) = cos x, (c) h(x) = f(g(x)). 1−x2
[4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 16 marks]
4. (a)
[3 + 2 + 4 = 9 marks]
Verify that the line y = −2x − 1 goes through the point (1, −3) and that it is a tangent to the graph of y = x2. [Hint: There should be precisely one point common to the line and the parabola, so precisely one solution to −2x − 1 = x2.]
(b) There is another line through point (1, −3) that is a tangent to y = x2. Find its equation, and the coordinates of the point where it touches the parabola.
[4 + 5 = 9 marks]
2
A civil engineering student wants to understand how water flows out of a reservoir through a drain hole at its bottom. She decides to use calculus to build a model of the water flow. If V (t) represents the volume of water inside the reservoir at time t, she thinks it is reasonable to say that the more water there is in the reservoir, the faster the
water will flow out. The quantity dV represents the rate at which the volume of water dt
in the reservoir changes. At time t = 0 the reservoir contains V (0) = 500 litres of water. After some thought, the student settles on the model
dV =−kV(t), dt
where k > 0 is a fixed (but unknown) constant.
(a) Why did she put a negative sign in her equation? Justify.
(b) After doing some theoretical work, she concludes that V (t) = 500e−kt is the solution to the model. Verify that she is correct.
(c) How could the value of k be determined?
(d) Criticise the model: In your opinion, does this model accurately reflect how water
flows out of a reservoir? Justify.
[2 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 11 marks]
A popular brand of chocolate (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Toblerone) is sold in the form of a long bar with a triangular cross-section. You are asked to design a box for this chocolate bar. The cross-section of the box is to be an equilateral triangle. The surface area of the box is to be 500 cm2. The volume is to be as large as possible.
Model this problem, but don’t carry out the calculations needed to solve it. You may need to use some simple geometry.
Your answer should include
(a) a labelled sketch of the box,
(b) statements defining appropriate variables (with units),
(c) a formula for a function that would have to be maximised or minimised, and (d) equations that encode any relationships between your variables.
[3 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 12 marks]
[Total 67 marks]

Discuss the following using a maximum of 20 pages and a minimum of 10 good quality references (there is no maximum reference count). The paper should be laid out and properly cited in APA format. You will submit a brief comparison of how Canada and Iran differ or are similar in any aspect relevant to the business environment as covered in this class. In this paper, you will: Define, explain the macro environment and how it differs and same. Only looking between Canada and Iran, select one industry in Iran or Canada that has been negatively impacted by any political agreements. Explain the negative or positive impact of this agreement on that industry. If you were a manager in the industry that you identified having been negatively affected by a political agreement, using concepts from the course, what would you recommend to your senior managers as a possible plan to change the negative impact to either a neutral or positive impacts?

Instruction
Three pages. As a school leader, how would you plan for professional development for your campus? What steps would be involved? Would you use regularly scheduled staff meetings as part of your program? What is your analysis of the value and use of online school district and campus staff development?

Short Paper Rubric

Low Medium High Comments
Elements of Writing Many grammar or mechanical errors detract from the writing.
Minimum grammar or mechanical errors.
No grammar or mechanical errors.
APA Style Does not follow APA style, e.g. no cover page, reference page, or citations not appropriate Minimum APA errors No APA errors
Sources No source cited Uses only the textbook as a source Uses at least one source in addition to the textbook
Application of theory or law
(graphic organizer) Does not apply the theory/law to a practical situation Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a simple way Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a detailed manner
Response Response minimally addresses the topic but is not clear and logical. Response addresses the topic but lacks coherence and flow. Response addresses the topic, has an introduction and closure, and transitions easily between paragraphs.

Short Paper 4 : Campus Curricular Programs How would you use sound, research-based practice in the development, implementation, and evaluation of campus curricular, co-curricular, and extracurricular programs? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.

Question 18: Education

Instruction
Short paper #1: Data-driven Decision Making How would you implement procedures for gathering, analyzing, and using data from a variety of sources for informed campus decision making? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.

Question 19: Law

Instruction
Select a topic of your choice related to the management of criminal justice professionals and write a 5 page research paper.

Question 20: Other

Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Question 21: Computer Science

Sustainability Integration: ICT Planning and Design
This assessment is designed to be completed after you have completed your design project and proposal. Ensure you have completed your design project and have had it assessed by your teacher and returned.
Ensure you have completed the Sustainability training before you attempt this assignment
Assignment
You have just designed a solution for an organisation. A late change request has come through from the CEO and she would like some additions to the proposal. She has been reading a lot about how ICT systems are having a large impact on the carbon footprint of business.
Revisit your design, using your new Green IT skills and integrate sustainability elements to it. These elements must include, but are not limited to the following:
Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption
An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential
energy savings and financial costs
A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan
Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term
solutions that will save power immediately and long term
List these additions in a priority order and approximate the cost of each change
To complete this assignment you will need access to the internet. Here are some useful links:
http://www.eu-energystar.org/en/en_008.shtml http://www.greenit.org.au/ http://2virtualize.com/index_files/greendatacenter.htm http://42u.com/
http://sustainabledirections.com.au/
Feel free to contact your teacher if you require any assistance.
Submission
Upload your completed documents on the Upskilled Student Portal.

Part 1: Initial Plan budget. (Using math for decision-making)
You are a manager with budget authority for a new IT project that is being developed for your department. The project is being developed internally by the company IT staff. You are developing a budget for the project. In this scenario, you will be in integrating information systems and information technology to progress an organization toward their organizational objectives. Consider the information given to determine how much capital you will need to raise to complete this project successfully. Your goal is determine the budget needed to complete the project within the stated timeline and maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract. Note that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project. In this case, you have wisely decided to add a 10% strategic reserve to the development phase of the project.
Here are some calculations related to this project. Answer the following 10 questions. You can use Microsoft Excel to do this work; however you must show your answers and detailed calculations.
Part 2: Writing Assignment to explain the tradeoffs during the life of development phase of the project. You will not perform any mathematical calculations for this section of the Assignment. Conduct research to ensure that you understand this concept of the project management triangle. Do not perform any calculations for this portion.
Given:
·                   IT Project Timeline: 1 January 2016– – 31 March 2017
·                   3 weeks of holiday time is planned off during this timeline
·                   Do not forget the concept of a leap year
·                   Assume vacation weeks are not paid for the purpose of this problem, as vacation pay is paid and allocated by a separate corporate budget funding source different from the IT Project funding source
·                   If total weeks are computed as a non-whole number of weeks, round to the nearest week
·                   Carry out items to the thousands place for fractions (for example 1/3 = 0.333) prior to continuing calculations, then round up or down as needed to whole numbers for final dollar values
·                   40 hour work week is the standard contracted work week
·                   No overtime is allowed to keep costs down
·                   10 managers
·                   100 union employees
·                   Manager salary is $100 per hour
·                   Union salary is $35 per hour
·                   Systems planning cost is $50K
·                   System development cost is $1.5M
·                   System fielding cost is $250K
·                   System Maintenance (5 year contract, amortized, payments begin at project start) = $5.0M
·                   Strategic reserve, when (if) applied to the timeline, should also be applied to the maintenance costs during the timeframe of the timeline. However maintenance costs beyond the timeline have been negotiated as a firm fixed priced contract and no longer require the use of strategic reserve in addition to the negotiated price
Answer the following questions: (Show your work):
1.          How many work weeks are in the project timeline, where work will actually occur?
2.          How much money does the team cost per hour?
3.          How much money does the team cost per week?
4.          How much money does the team cost for the duration of the IT Project?
5.          Remembering that maintenance is amortized, and that payments begin during the first month of the project, and that all other system costs are assigned to the project; what is the total systems cost through the timeline completion on 31 March 2017?
6.          What is the total project cost through completion on 31 March 2017?
7.          After project completion on 31 March 2017, what will be the remainder cost for maintenance that will still need to be budgeted and managed?
8.          Forecasting a budget with no strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
9.          With the addition of a ten % strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
10.       Considering that you decide to budget using the strategic reserve, and you need to budget for the entire maintenance cost, what is the total amount of capital you will need to raise to complete the project successful during the timeline, and then maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract, noting that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project?
Written Portion – Discussion of the project management triangle
An example situation:
The project manager has come to you with the following:
1.          Some of your employees who will be using the system have suggested changes which will end up improving the system but will take longer to develop and implement. She feels that they would be beneficial changes.
2.          Two of her developers and one of her managers have left to work for another company. The company has a hiring freeze so she is unable to replace them. This will most likely add time to the project but it will also result in small savings in terms of labor cost.

You are also the aware of the following information:
1.          When the budget was approved there was a strategic reserve to allow for contingencies.
2.          You have some additional discretionary funds which you were hoping to be able to use them for bonuses for you employees at the end of the year.
3.          You have a lot of faith in the project and believe that it will eventually improve the productivity of your employees. He also realize that it will take time after the project is fully implemented for this productivity to be realized and that there is a likelihood that it will actually decrease for a couple of months while people are learning the new system.
4.          You know that you have a number of people in your department that are nearing retirement and are not in favor of having to learn a new system.
To meet the requirements of this Assignment, write an APA style paper in which you take the role of manager to discuss the pros and cons of making any changes to the plan regarding the initial goals of performance, cost, and schedule. For the paper do not do any calculations. The facts presented are examples of the types of situations that you might encounter. You do not have to address these situations.
Limit your discussion to the tradeoffs among these three areas. How do performance, cost, and schedule interact? Discuss the concept of the project triangle, also called the triple constraint, or iron triangle.
Ensure you turn in your unit Project as a single Microsoft Word document, in APA format, with a cover page and reference page citing at least two online references on the unit concept topics and the eBook as a reference. Your work should compose 2–3 pages of content (double spaced, 12 point Times New Roman font).
This Assignment addresses the following outcomes:
MT300-1: Describe the role managers play in integrating information systems and information technology (IS/IT) within an organization.
MT300-2: Solve business problems using information systems.
GEL- 2.3: Solve real-world problems using mathematical skills
Your paper must be double-spaced, Times New Roman, 12 pt. font, and follow APA 6th edition format. You are required to include at least two references using the appropriate APA format. A title page and a reference page are required.

Question 24: Economics
Match the words with definitions
The quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded
Direct relationship between price and quantity produced
Increase in price of one will cause increased demand for the other
Inverse relationship between price and quantity purchased
Products usually used together
Hot dogs, Spam, or Raman noodles
This is intended to keep landlords from charging unreasonably high rents
Consumers buy more when incomes increase.
The quantity demanded is greater than the quantity supplied
prices are not allowed to fall below a certain level

Complementary good
Shortage
Price Ceiling
Normal Good
Law of Supply
Inferior Good
Law of Demand
Surplus
Substitute good
Price Floor

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

Question 26: Health Care

NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%
NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%

Question 27: Health Care

NSG6440 (Date Completed:06-09-2019) Score:98%
NSG6440 (Date Completed:06-09-2019) Score:98%

Question 28: Health Care

NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)
NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)

You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. The firm is devising a new employee handbook. You have been asked to create two sections:
The Company Policy regarding Alcohol/Drug Testing
The Company Policy regarding Employer Monitoring of Employees.

Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.

Include and cite applicable laws for each topic as the basis for the policy. You may use federal, state, or case law as the foundation for your work. Following is a list of topics you may want to consider in your policies:
Pre-employment drug/alcohol testing
Random drug/alcohol testing
Procedure for employees who disagree with results of drug/alcohol Testing
Drug/alcohol procedure for contracted government employees who work in satellite offices
Drug testing in states with legal marijuana use
Monitoring of employee desktop computers
Monitoring of employee personal social media use
Monitoring of employee cell phone and company car

Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.

Create your own 1,050-word policy, using APA format for the cover page and references. Both policies should be included in a single document with subheadings to delineate “Alcohol/Drug Testing” and “Employee Monitoring.”

Assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1.   Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2.   Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3.   Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4.   Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5.   Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6.   Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)
BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)

Question 4: General Questions

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 8 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 McClure stated that the founders did not approve of slavery, but accepted the compromises in the Constitution because
Question 2 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 3 McClure clearly states that slavery was the source of the war.
Question 4 According to McClure, the basis of state sovereignty was established in
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what did Northerners tend to name battles after?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the Northern reaction to the Federal Draft Conscription?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what happened to Jefferson Davis after the fall of the Confederacy?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, it was the deeper issue of power between the State and the Nation that created the conflict that led to war.
Question 2 McClure stated that the Civil War was the result of
Question 3 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 4 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was the President of the Confederate States?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was one reason the Emancipation Proclamation was issued?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was the last capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 2 According to McClure, Jefferson believed in the supreme power of
Question 3 McClure stated that it was necessary for the Constitution to be a series of compromises.
Question 4 According to McClure and Jefferson, which of the following was NOT a danger of centralized government:
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which state did the upper Southern states look to as a model?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Sherman’s March to the Sea located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what did the Civil War do for Northern businesses?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who were some of the last soldiers to put down their arms at the end of the Civil War?

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 7 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 3 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who was responsible for the caning of Senator Sumner?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 2 Why did the Mexican government think they could win a war against the United States?
Question 3 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where did John Brown’s raid take place?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the key issue preventing Northern and Southern states from ever truly reaching compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 6 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who is the founder of the Church of Jesus Christ Latter Day Saints?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what are “ardent spirits”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 5 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the name of one of the ships that Jefferson sent to fight the Barbary Pirates?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was the longest serving Supreme Court Justice as well as a cousin of Thomas Jefferson?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who was the President during the Missouri Compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these was a nickname Andrew Jackson earned during his Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the practice of bringing goods to the Caribbean, “paper unloading” them, paying customs duties, and sending them to Europe?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who served as Thomas Jefferson’s First Lady?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s “peaceable coercion”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what professions did Jackson occupy before being elected to the Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, where was the USS Philadelphia captured and grounded?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, when was Jefferson’s embargo lifted?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why did the United States remain neutral in South American matters until 1822?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these authors did NOT rise to popularity during this time period?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was the new party on the rise in Jacksonian America?

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 4 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Which of the following is NOT one of the qualifications for becoming President of the United States?
What does Amendment Four prevent?
Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Which is most likely NOT a reason that the Federalist position ultimately prevailed?
The first sentence of the Constitution states: “We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.” The words “insure domestic Tranquility” may have been a reference to
On June 21, 1788, which state’s vote gave Federalists the nine states needed to ratify the Constitution?
Many Anti-Federalists were concerned that the Constitution did not
Question 1 How many witnesses are necessary in order to convict someone of treason?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 4 What does Amendment Four prevent?
Question 5 The Ninth Amendment makes clear that the rights brought out in the Bill of Rights are the only rights citizens of the United States have.
Question 6 According to the video, our American system of government was formed by what decision?
Question 7 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following caused issues between American merchant shipping and the British?
Question 1 Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 To which branch of government does the Constitution grant sole power of taxation?
Question 4 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 5 Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Question 6 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who requested that Madison draft a new constitution to replace the Articles of Confederation?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following groups sympathized with the French although they disagreed with the excesses of the Revolution?

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 3 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2 The Declaration of Independence claimed that the king had abdicated his right to governing the colonies because he
Question 3 According to the video presentation, most Americans understood
Question 4 According to the video presentation, Thomas Paine felt that who or what should rule in America?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the primary form of communication in the 18th century?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, where did the second Virginia Convention meet?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 1
Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2
In every case of the violation of English rights listed in the Declaration of Independence, the colonists had
Question 3
According to the video presentation, what was the most quoted source in literature of the Era of the American Revolution?
Question 4
According to the video presentation, how did Chief Justice Earl Warren describe the relationship between Christianity and the United States?
Question 5
According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6
According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, what did the establishment of the Committees of Correspondence pave the way for?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 1
Many of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence involved
Question 2
One of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence was that he fundamentally altered longstanding ___________________.
Question 3
According to the video presentation, people at the time of the Revolution saw a connection to
Question 4
According to the video presentation, who is a Founding Father who the British thought was the key instigator of the American Revolution?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, which colony started the intercolonial movement of the Committees of Correspondence?
Question 8
According to the video presentation, what was the policy passed after the Boston Tea Party to make Bostonians repay the East India Trading Company for the tea that was destroyed?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, why did the British want to move the war further south?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did the Revolutionary War end?

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 2 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 Colonial assemblies were needed to deal with such responsibilities as
Question 2 The attempts of the British to seize Fort Duquesne were part of a larger ambition to gain control of
Question 3 The Proclamation of 1763 restricted English colonists to territory
Question 4 What aspect of the New England economy grew most dramatically in the eighteenth century?
Question 5 Which of the following events happened last?
Question 6 The Great Awakening was a movement that reflected a renew interest in
Question 7 The term Anglicization refers to
Question 8 Who were the Old Lights?
Question 9 Which region of colonial America was the most ethnically diverse?
Question 10 In what way did the slave codes of the mainland British colonies ensure the continuity of the institution
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 3 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how did the fashionable world set itself apart?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, once a luxury good became common, what happened?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was Samuel Davies?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, in which region of the American colonies did Baptists become predominant?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what would the College of New Jersey later come to be called?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, when did the TransAtlantic slave trade begin?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 3 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how was wealth defined prior to the 17 th century?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, where was conspicuous consumption most conspicuous?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the name of the first independent Baptist church?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was the first independent Baptist church located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, which college was founded in 1693 as an Anglican school?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, the concept of race based slavery began when?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?

HIUS 221 Mindtap Activities 1 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Module 1: The Atlantic World, Exploration and Early Settlement
1.1 Picturing History
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” and the information in bubbles on the map reveal the estimated native population in North America to be million. This number between 1492 and 1800 by 2000.
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” reveals that the estimated native population steadily decreased from approximately 4.4 million in 1492 to well below 1 million in. Following this decline, the native population until about 1900. After 1900, the native population 2000. During this same period, the estimated nonnative population increased by some 200 million
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the pie chart titled “World population estimates for 1500 (in millions)” reveals that the Americas contained some million people in 1500. Based on the figure corresponding to the information in bubbles on the map, 5.85 million people resided in, which is much less than the population in Mexico and slightly larger than the population in North America at this time. As seen on the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000,” the estimated decreased dramatically between 1492 and 1800 but rebounded slightly during the twentieth century.
1.2 A Growing World
When discussing European efforts to expand trade networks between the mid-fifteenth and late sixteenth centuries, historians refer to this period as what?
The Age of Exploration
The Opening of the Silk Road
The Mapping of the Atlantic World
The network of land routes between Europe and Asia was known as what?
The Road to Constantinople
The Mediterranean Thoroughfare
The Silk Road
Select the correct response from the dropdown menu.
In mid-fifteenth- through late-sixteenth-century Europe, men and women performed labor roles specific to their
1.3 Native American and West African Societies before Contact
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Peaked between 300 and 900 AD
Empire consisted of dozens of states
Arrived in the Valley of Mexico around 1200 AD
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Was in decline by the time European explorers arrived
Exercised vast power in Mesoamerica for about three hundred years before European explorers arrived
Developed wealth by conquering neighboring peoples
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Developed a society based on military strength
Established a civilization in the Valley of Mexico
Developed an economy based partly on trade

HIUS 222 Content Quiz 8 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

How did President Reagan influence defense spending?
2 out of 2 points
President George W. Bush received a mandate from the 2000 presidential election.
2 out of 2 points
What happened to President Clinton because of the Lewinsky affair and his testimony about it?
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning Bill Clinton is true?
2 out of 2 points
Where did the United States fight wars between 2001 and 2013?
How did Dr. Falwell and his work with Moral Majority influence how Americans think about religion and government involvement?
2 out of 2 points
Why did Dr. Falwell found Moral Majority?
2 out of 2 points
Who was Jerry Falwell, Sr.?
2 out of 2 points
How did the Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev signal his desire to change past policies in 1988?
2 out of 2 points
Which area did Jimmy Carter stress in his foreign policies?
2 out of 2 points
What Iraqi decision led to the Gulf War of 1991?
2 out of 2 points
What did Iranians who took American hostages demand in return for their release?
2 out of 2 points
Where were challenges to communist rule the least successful in the late 1980s?
2 out of 2 points
How did Jimmy Carter appeal to voters in 1976?
What was the “war on terror” a response to?
2 out of 2 points
Where was the term “terrorism” first used?
2 out of 2 points
Why did the House vote to impeach President Clinton in 1998?
What is true about the Human Genome Project?
2 out of 2 points
Which nation makes up the third crux in what President George W. Bush described as the “axis of evil” with Iraq and Iran?
2 out of 2 points
What was unique about the 1996 election?
What issue undermined the popularity of George H. W. Bush more than any other? Why?
Question 1 President Carter decided against attempting a military rescue to free the hostages in Iran.
Question 3 Troubling aspects of the Watergate scandal included all of the following EXCEPT for
Question 4 How did Republicans portray liberals to working class voters in the 1980s?
Question 6 The “safe sex” message gained currency in the wake of
Question 7 In the election of 1972, Richard Nixon easily defeated the antiwar candidate
Question 9 In a speech later called the “malaise speech,” President Carter expressed his feeling that
Question 10 President George H. W. Bush’s call for U.S. military involvement in the Persian Gulf came when
Question 11 Which of the following individuals was NOT part of George W. Bush’s administration?
Question 13 Violence ensued when an allwhite jury acquitted the officers in the beating of Rodney King.
Question 15 President Bush muted his response to the fall of the Berlin Wall because
Question 16 President Obama was the first president to consider a comprehensive plan to provide all Americans with health care.
Question 17 In the late 1990s, how did President Clinton choose to fight alQaeda and prevent potential terrorist attacks?

Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America From Reconstruction Through the 1920’s
Question 14: History

Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points

You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidentsfrom the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

Introduce your paper with your previously crafted thesis statement.
Identify two to three (2-3) international events from the past five years that can be traced back to a foreign policy created after the Civil War.
Discuss three (3) aspects of US history since 1865 that has led to the US’s rise as a world super power policeman.
Identify three to five (3-5) international incidents since World War II where America has taken on a policing role.
Determine three to five (3-5) driving forces that fueled international policy decisions involving the international incidents you outlined previously. (Consider treaties, exit strategies, elections, wars, etc.)
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Analyze the rise of the United States to a world “superpower” and how that status has shaped its internal developments in recent decades.
Recognize the major turning points in American history since the Civil War.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in contemporary U.S. history.
Write clearly and concisely about contemporary U.S. history using proper writing mechanics.

This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a narrative and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit two (2) sections for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.
Note: For additional information on how to submit more than one file for an assignment, follow the instructions in the document “How to Submit Multiple Files for an Assignment”, located here.
Imagine that you have just been hired by a new company as the director of the HR department. You have been tasked to hire a new secretary for the department and to develop an employee compensation and benefits package that will be used for that position upon hire. Develop a PowerPoint presentation to present this information to your Vice President. Go to the Bureau of Labor Statistics’ (BLS) Website, located at www.bls.gov, for information regarding organizations and pay in your geographical area.
Section 1: NarrativeWrite a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:
1.   Choose the type of organization for which you are designing the package.
2.   Develop an employee compensation and benefits package for this new position. Support your ideas for the compensation/benefits package.
3.   Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Section 1 of your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Question 16: Biology

In 750-1,000 words, identify and describe the issues affecting standards of practice related to competency of medical care identified in the Lyckholm and Hackney article.
In addition to summarizing the relevant points of the article, explain the relevance that standards of practice have (or will have) to you as a practitioner.

Question 17: Biology

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic are the two major categories of cells making up life on earth. Both these types require water and carbon.
Describe the characteristics of water and carbon that makes them important to living things in general, and to specific forms of life including plants, animals, and prokaryotes. Why is NASA looking for water on Mars?
Describe the differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. How have the characteristics of each kind of cell put limitations and provided opportunities for the survival and divergence of modern living things? Why might both cell types be considered equally successful? Make sure to consider both Domains of Prokaryotes.

Question 18: Computer Science

The reasons why companies use HRIS vary widely. Large companies will use HRIS in certain ways while other, smaller companies may use it in other ways. Consider the following questions:
What are your perceptions of an HRIS?
What can an HRIS do for an organization?
List why your organization would want to or does use an HRIS.
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care” Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.

From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.

Question 20: Urban Planning and Policy

Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),

How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?

Question 22: Business

About Your Signature Assignment
This signature assignment is designed to align with specific program student learning outcome(s) in your program. Program Student Learning Outcomes are broad statements that describe what students should know and be able to do upon completion of their degree. The signature assignments might be graded with an automated rubric that allows the University to collect data that can be aggregated across a location or college/school and used for program improvements.
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics
Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, say you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial
Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.
Provide a 1,600-word detailed, statistical report including the following:
Explain the context of the case
Provide a research foundation for the topic
Present graphs
Explain outliers
Prepare calculations
Conduct hypotheses tests
Discuss inferences you have made from the results
This assignment is broken down into four parts:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis (3-4 paragraphs)
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.
State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?
Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?
Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?
Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics (3-4 paragraphs)
Examine the given data.
Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).
Identify any outliers in the data.
Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.
Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.
Part 3 – Inferential Statistics (2-3 paragraphs)
Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.
Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.
Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations (1-2 paragraphs)
Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.

Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Review the article, “Personal Electronic Devices in the Workplace” Balancing Interests in a BYOD World.” Discuss the reasons why companies should or should not consider a BYOD program. Consider issues of security and privacy in your discussion.

Question 25: Business

Identify and describe the specific issues Maalick encountered in the workplace. Do the
actions of other workers at Treton represent discrimination and harassment? What
elements of law are important for Treton to consider?
Evaluate the, Marta Ford, in response to Maalick’s situation. What could she have done
to prevent the situation and what more could she do to ensure that this type of situation
would not occur in the future?

3. How would you characterize Clive Jenkins’ behavior and response to this situation?
4. What resolution to this situation might Judith Dixon suggest?
5. What are the broader implications of this situation for Treton? What type of
organizational review might Dixon initiate or suggest from a corporate perspective?

Question 26: Business

The most popular way for international expansion is for a local firm to acquire foreign companies. One of the most benefits for international expansion is global distribution capability that helps expanding the market share.
There are different implications of running a company that is within or outside of the European Union. If you were the head of a firm based in the United States, please answer the following questions, providing the rationale behind your answers:
Would you seek to acquire a company within the European Union or outside of it? Why?
Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the choice you made.
Describe the advantages and disadvantages inherent in the option you did not choose.
Explain why an MNC may invest funds in a financial market outside its own country.
Explain why some financial institutions prefer to provide credit in financial markets outside their own country.
APA format. Reference page needed, not inclued in page count. All information needs to be cited

Chapter 2 Vocabulary Name:
Fill in the parentheses with the letter of the term being described.
g. Economic system
n. Command System
l. Market
j. Product markets
o. Invisible hand
f. Market System
k. Resource Markets
h. Households
i. Circular flow
m. Laissez-faire capitalism

1. ( m ) Individual decision making with little or no government interference.

2. ( ) Self-interest helps people provide goods that are in demand by society (they will sell.)
3. ( ) Economic decisions are made by central planners, as the Communists did.

4. ( ) Place in the circular flow where resources are provided.

5. ( f ) Economic decisions are made by individual buyers and sellers

6. ( ) Where buyers and sellers come together to exchange goods or services.

7.    (  ) Markets where businesses provide output for household consumption, like a Winn Dixie
8.    (  ) Markets where households provide their resources for businesses to use in production, like an employment office or realtor.
9.    (  ) Shows the flow of resources from households to businesses through resource markets and the flow of money from households to businesses through output markets.
10.  (  ) How a society is organized to make the 4 basic production decisions.

Assignment 4 Current and Future Economic Issues Impacting Health Care Sector

Use the Internet or Strayer online databases to research five (5) of what you believe to be the most important and pressing economic issues that confront the United States healthcare industry today and will continue to do so into the next decade.

Provide a review of these issues in a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:

Provide a detailed description of the issues that you have researched.
Analyze the most significant economic effects of the researched issues on healthcare industry. Provide at least two (2) examples of these issues to support your response.
Suggest specific strategies that relevant entities / stakeholders may use to address the selected issues from an economic perspective. Justify your response.
Determine the strategic manner in which the United States can apply best economic best practices from other countries in addressing these issues.
Assess the likelihood of government and or private sector effectively addressing the issues.
Use at least ten (10) current references. Five (5) of these references must be from current peer-reviewed sources to support and substantiate your comments and perspectives.

Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
The development of using slaves for labor
Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.

Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models

Question 31: Education

Liberty University – UNIV 104Review Test Submission_ Preview 5 – 201640 Fall 2016 .
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Create an overview of the process and steps involved in human resource planning, recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and hiring of employees.
Develop a comprehensive strategy for training new employees. Focusing on the role of the new employees within the organization.
Propose two to four (2-4) training strategies aimed at motivating the employees to learn key aspects about their new jobs.
Determine key issues that human resource management employees would be likely to encounter in the health care field. Prepare a plan that will enable the new employees to address each issue which includes instructional strategies, resources that will be utilized, and evaluation criteria for determining success.
Design at least three (3) visual components that enhance the program you have outlined, such as charts or diagrams.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources

Question 33: Health Care

NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+
NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+

Signature Week 6 QNT561 final Signature Assignment
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics

Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, imagine you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial

Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.

Provide a 1,600-word detailed, four part, statistical report with the following sections:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations

Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.

State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?

Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?

Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?

Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics

Examine the given data.

Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).

Identify any outliers in the data.

Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.

Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.

Part 3 – Inferential Statistics

Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.

Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.

Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations

Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

Question 36: Health Care

NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment
NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment

Question 1: General Question

South University NSG 5003 Chapter 14: Cancer in Children

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
a.
Down syndrome
c.
Retinoblastoma
b.
Wilms tumor
d.
Neuroblastoma
ANS:
Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common genetic defect linked to the development of acute leukemia. Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute lymphoblastic and myelogenous leukemia and a higher risk for developing acute megakaryocytic leukemia. No current research supports a link between the other stated congenital malformations and acute leukemia.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 444

2. When are childhood cancers most often diagnosed?
a.
During infancy
c.
After diagnosis of a chronic illness
b.
At peak times of physical growth
d.
After an acute illness
ANS:
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. No current research supports the other options.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 443

3. Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in which type of cancer?
a.
Breast cancer
c.
Vaginal cancer
b.
Leukemia
d.
Lymphoma
ANS:
DES has been identified as a transplacental chemical carcinogen; a small percentage of the daughters of women who took DES during pregnancy developed adenocarcinomas of the vagina. No current research supports a link between the drug and other cancers.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445

4. Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
a.
40%
c.
60%
b.
50%
d.
80%
ANS:
Currently, more than 80% of children diagnosed with cancer are cured.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445

5. Most childhood cancers arise from the:
a.
Epithelium
c.
Embryologic ectodermal layer
b.
Mesodermal germ layer
d.
Viscera
ANS:

Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that gives rise to connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. The other options are not common sites from which cancers originate.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 443

6. Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
a.
Wilms tumor
c.
Osteosarcoma
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
ANS:
Wilms tumors are linked with other genetically linked childhood cancers. It is the only form among the available options that is associated with congenital malformation syndromes.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 443 | Table 14-1

7. Research data support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to which virus?
a.
Herpes simplex virus
c.
Varicella zoster virus
b.
Influenza
d.
Epstein-Barr virus
ANS:
The strongest association between viruses and the development of cancer in children has been the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and Hodgkin disease. No current research supports a link between the remaining options and childhood cancer.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445

8. A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has an increased risk of developing:
a.
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
c.
Epstein-Barr
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Leukemia
ANS:
Children with AIDS have an increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma. Leukemia is linked to retinoblastoma. Epstein-Barr has been linked to the development of some cancers, whereas no known link has been found between AIDS and the development of leukemia.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445

9. Which intervention has the greatest affect on a child’s mortality rate when diagnosed with cancer?
a.
Age at the time of diagnosis
b.
Participation in clinical trials
c.
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d.
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
ANS:

Mortality rates have significantly declined in the past 40 years largely as a result of advances in treatment and participation in clinical trials. Although important, the other options are not believed to have an affect on the decline of the mortality rate of childhood cancer.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445

10. Which statement is likely true regarding children being treated for cancer with radiation therapy?
a.
They will most likely have a successful remission of tumor growth.
b.
They seldom require follow-up maintenance treatments.
c.
They are prone to experience severe developmental delays.
d.
They are at increased risk for developing adult cancers.
ANS:
Although the need exists for long-term studies, research has shown a correlation between radiation-induced malignancies from radiotherapy (as in cancer treatment) or radiation exposure from diagnostic imaging; both have shown to increase the risk of developing cancer during adulthood. The other options are not necessarily true regarding the outcomes of radiation therapy for childhood cancers.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445

11. How should the nurse reply when a parent questions why a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head was not ordered for their 5-year-old child after a minor fall?
a.
Physicians are cautious about ordering CT scan on children younger than 10 years
of age.
b.
CT scans are seldom conclusive when used to diagnosis head injuries in young
children.
c.
The child’s symptoms will determine whether a CT scan is necessary and worth
the expense.
d.
Research suggests that repeated CT scans can increase the risk of developing brain
cancer.
ANS:
Findings from a recent study of 176,587 children suggest that those who have two or three CT scans of the head before the age of 22 years are three times more likely to develop brain cancer as those in the general population, and the risk of developing leukemia is three times as great in those who received five to ten CT scans. The other options do not represent the logic behind not ordering a CT scan in relationship to minor head trauma.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445 | What’s New box

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

12. Childhood exposure to which risk factors increases the susceptibility for developing cancers? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Low birth weight
b.
Chemotherapy
c.
Ionizing radiation
d.
Cigarette smoke

e.
Hodgkin disease

ANS: , C, E
Childhood exposure to ionizing radiation, drugs, or existing cancer-causing viruses has been associated with the risk of developing cancer. Although unhealthy, no current research identifies cigarette smoke or low birth weight as risk factors for childhood cancer.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 445 | Table 14-3

13. Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers?
(Select all that apply.)
a.
Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
b.
Childhood cancers are far less likely to be associated with genetic mutations.
c.
Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
d.
Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
e.
Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
ANS: , B
Overall, cancers in children are very different than adult cancers and are associated with far fewer genetic mutations. Research does not support the other options.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 442 | Page 444 | What’s New box

14. Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that ultimately produces which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Connective tissue
b.
Digestive system
c.
Muscles
d.
Kidneys
e.
Blood
ANS: , C, D, E
Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer, which gives rise to connective tissue, bone cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. Cancers of the digestive tract do not originate in the mesodermal germ layer.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 443

15. Which statements are true regarding cancers that develop in children? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Childhood cancers tend to be fast growing.
b.
Childhood cancers are diagnosed during growth spurts.
c.
Childhood cancer generally metastasizes by the time of diagnosis.
d.
Childhood cancer is typically at low risk for aggressive metastasis.
e.
Childhood cancers respond well to standardized treatment modalities.
ANS: , B, C
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. In general, they are extremely fast growing, with 80% having distant spread (metastases) at diagnosis.
The other options are not true regarding childhood cancers.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 443

16. The nurse is preparing a discussion on cancer and its occurrence among college-aged students. Which cancers will the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Colorectal
b.
Testicular
c.
Thyroid
d.
Breast
e.
Lung
ANS: , B, C, D
The most common cancers among the adolescent and young adult population (15 to 39 years of age) are Hodgkin lymphoma, leukemia, germ-cell tumors (particularly testicular), central nervous system tumors, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, thyroid cancer, melanoma, sarcomas, and breast, cervical, liver, thyroid and colorectal cancers. Lung cancer generally develops after chronic inhalation of nicotine-containing products.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 442

Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which pathway carries sensory information toward the central nervous system (CNS)?
a.
Ascending
c.
Somatic
b.
Descending
d.
Efferent
ANS:
Peripheral nerve pathways can be afferent (ascending) pathways that carry sensory impulses toward the CNS. The remaining options do not carry sensory information to the CNS.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 448

2. Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
a.
Large nonmyelinated
c.
Small nonmyelinated
b.
Large myelinated
d.
Small myelinated
ANS:
If the myelin layer is tightly wrapped many times around the axon and is forming the nodes of Ranvier, then conduction velocity increases and the neuron is referred to as myelinated. The increased diameter of the myelinated axons allows for the transmission of impulses at a faster rate. The other options do not affect nervous impulse transmission rates.

PTS: 1 REF: Pages 448-450

3. Which nerves are capable of regeneration?
a.
Nerves within the brain and spinal cord
b.
Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed
c.
Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system
d.
Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system

PTS: 1 REF: Pages 450-451

4. The neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, is secreted in the:
a.
Somatic nervous system
c.
Sympathetic postganglion
b.
Parasympathetic preganglion
d.
Parasympathetic postganglion
ANS:
Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers release norepinephrine (adrenaline). The remaining options do not reflect the correct site of norepinephrine secretion.

PTS: 1 REF: Pages 473-474

5. Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to:
a.
Form a myelin sheath
c.
Transport nutrients
b.
Remove cellular debris
d.
Line the ventricles

ANS:
The function of oligodendroglia (oligodendrocytes) is to deposit myelin within the central nervous system (CNS). Oligodendroglia are the CNS counterpart of Schwann cells. The remaining options are not reflective of the common function of these structures.

PTS: 1 REF: Pages 449-450

6. During a synapse, what change occurs after the neurotransmitter binds to the receptor?
a.
The permeability of the presynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
b.
The permeability of the postsynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
c.
The postsynaptic cell prevents any change in permeability and destroys the action
potential.
d.
The presynaptic cell synthesizes and secretes additional neurotransmitters.
ANS:
The binding of the neurotransmitter at the receptor site changes the permeability of the postsynaptic neuron and, consequently, its membrane potential. The remaining options do not accurately describe the occurrence.

PTS: 1 REF: Pages 452-453

7. What name is given to a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential for maintaining wakefulness?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Reticular activating system
d.
Pons
ANS:
The reticular activating system is essential for maintaining wakefulness. The remaining options are not essential to this function.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 454

8. Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Cerebellum
c.
Prefrontal lobe
b.
Limbic system
d.
Occipital lobe
ANS:
The prefrontal area is responsible for goal-oriented behavior (i.e., ability to concentrate), short-term or recall memory, and the elaboration of thought and inhibition on the limbic (emotional) areas of the CNS. The remaining options are not involved in these functions.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 456

9. The region responsible for the motor aspects of speech is located in the:
a.
Wernicke area in the temporal lobe
c.
Wronka area in the parietal lobe
b.
Broca area in the frontal lobe
d.
Barlow area in the occipital lobe
ANS:
Broca speech area is the only region responsible for the motor aspects of speech.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 457

10. Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Medulla oblongata
d.
Basal ganglia
ANS:
Parkinson and Huntington diseases are conditions associated with defects of the basal ganglia. No current research supports the role of any of the other options in these diseases.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 457

11. Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Subthalamus
b.
Epithalamus
d.
Hypothalamus
ANS:
Hypothalamic function falls into two major areas: (1) maintenance of a constant internal environment, and (2) implementation of behavioral patterns. The remaining options do not address these functions.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 459

12. The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of which colliculi?
a.
Inferior
c.
Mid
b.
Superior
d.
Posterior
ANS:
The superior colliculi are involved with voluntary and involuntary visual motor movements (e.g., the ability of the eyes to track moving objects in the visual field). Tracking moving objects is not the primary function of the remaining options.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 459

13. What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
a.
Hypothalamus and subthalamus
c.
Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
b.
Parietal and frontal lobes
d.
Basal ganglia and medulla oblongata
ANS:
Extensive connections with the limbic system and prefrontal cortex mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states. The remaining options are not involved in these expressions.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 457

14. Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
a.
Pons
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Midbrain
d.
Medulla oblongata
ANS:

The medulla oblongata makes up the myelencephalon and is the lowest portion of the brainstem. Reflex activities, such as heart rate, respiration, blood pressure, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting, are controlled only in this area.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 460

15. From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves V through VIII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the pons.

PTS: 1 REF: Pages 459-460

16. From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves IX through XII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the medulla oblongata.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 460

17. Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture?
a.
Cerebrum
c.
Diencephalon
b.
Cerebellum
d.
Brainstem
ANS:
The cerebellum is responsible for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture. This role is not assumed by any of the remaining options.

PTS: 1 REF: Page 459

18. Which statement is true regarding upper motor neurons?
a.
Upper motor neurons directly influence muscles.
b.
They modify spinal reflex arcs.
c.
Upper motor neurons are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
d.
They extend their dendritic processes out of the CNS.
ANS:
Upper motor neurons (i.e., corticospinal tract) are the classification of motor pathways completely contained within the CNS. Their primary roles include directing, influencing, and modifying reflex arcs, lower-level control centers, and motor and some sensory neurons

Question 2: General Question

NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

Question 3: General Question

Write a 350- to 700-word paper in which you investigate the interrelationship between the
entertainment media and culture. Answer the following questions:
⦁ In what ways have various forms of entertainment media shaped American culture and its values?
⦁ Are the social influences of entertainment media mostly positive or negative? Explain.
Provide specific examples.
Conclude your paper with thoughts on whether the entertainment media are a reflection of or a catalyst for societal behaviors and attitudes.

Write a 350- to 700-word pitch to either a movie or television producer. Your pitch will explain your idea for a new TV or movie program that is based on current market trends. You will need to research what the popular genres are in either movies or television and write your pitch with the intention of selling a story that falls in line with what is currently profitable.
Include an analysis discussing how current popular entertainment trends do or do not reflect American cultural values and their influence on social behavior as well.

Question 4: General Question

Strayer University, Lithonia – ACC 100Accounting Assignment 2.docx
Strayer University, Lithonia – ACC 100Accounting Assignment 2.docx

Question 5: Biology

Each essay response is required to be a minimum of 250 words. Because these essays are open-book, take the time to provide ample information, detail, and personal analysis in each essay response. While there is a minimum word requirement for each essay, there is not a maximum word limit. Feel free to elaborate as needed with relevant information to meet your own personal level of satisfaction.
1. Describe the sliding filament theory, the size principle of motor unit recruitment, and the all or none theory? When training a bodybuilder, why is an understanding of these three principles necessary and how can they be applied when designing training programs for bodybuilders?
2. The author of the textbook describes six core lifts as being necessary to include when designing a training program for a bodybuilder (squat, overhead press, chin-ups, bench press, deadlift, and bar dips). Why does the author feel that these lifts should form the foundation of a bodybuilder’s program? What advantages do these lifts offer? Do you agree with the author’s assessment that these lifts should form the foundation of a training program for bodybuilders? Why or why not?
3. Describe the factors that contribute to muscle hypertrophy. When designing a training program to optimize muscle hypertrophy, what steps can you take to make sure that each factor is accounted for?
4. What style of periodization do you feel would be best for optimizing a bodybuilder’s physique? Defend your answer.
5. Briefly describe the variables that contribute to a bodybuilder’s ability to recover from training. What steps should be taken by a trainer to ensure that optimal recovery is achieved?

Question 6: Biology

You are working with an amateur bodybuilder who is 12 months out from a bodybuilding competition. Design a year-long periodized training program for the athlete with the objective of optimizing the client’s physique at the time of the competition. The training program should include the following:
A list of assessments to be performed at the onset of the training program
A warm-up and cool down for each training day
A detailed year-long periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. The program should include a Foundational Training phase, a Hypertrophy phase, and a Cutting phase.
An explanation as to why you made your recommendations for each phase of training.
Nutrition and supplement recommendations to support the bodybuilder during each phase of training.

Question 7: Biology

Create a video or script demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training. The video or script should be completed within the following guidelines:
1. Introduce yourself by name, school, or association that you work for, etc.
2. Identify the athlete and sport you are coaching and the athlete’s position in the training cycle.
3. Introduce the layout of the training program and then begin training. (NOTE: Training should be specific for the athlete’s needs.)
4. Walkthrough training techniques with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
5. Include both a warm-up and cool-down routine with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
OPTION 2: Training Script
If you are unable to create a video demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training, you will need to write a script for the video you would produce if you had the resources. Requirements for the script:
1. The script should be 1500+ words typed and submitted in a Word (.DOC) or PDF format. For ease of review, please used Size 12 font in Black.
2. The format should be easily readable. The reviewer should be able to read your script and get a mental image of what is trying to be relayed. See sample play scripts or movie scripts for sample formats.
3. Since you will not have visual examples, the script will need to convey your vision. Be detailed but concise.

Question 8: Biology

Design year-long training programs for one of the athletes below. Design off-season, pre-season, early season, and competitive season workouts. Include weight training, plyometrics, endurance, and flexibility training.
Choose one of the following:
A. High school football player (specify position)
B. College basketball player (specify position)
C. Minor league baseball player (specify position)
Provide details for the type of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on. A coach or athlete should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you for clarity of further explanation. Provide a rationale for your recommendations. For each season of each 1-year training program, you will include a ONE WEEK ‘example’ of what you would focus on with your client in that given season. For example, in a given week, you will show a proper strength training program for Monday, Wednesday, Friday and will show Plyometrics, agility, and speed on Tuesday/Thursday and you will provide the full exercise program for that given period of time.
⦁ Off-Season: 1-week’ sample’ program
⦁ Pre Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Early Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Competitive Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Post Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
You will also provide a rationale/explanation regarding your client’s goals for each season and how the programming and training protocol you provided will most appropriately and effectively assist the client in achieving their goals for the following season.

You will provide all of the necessary aspects of your clients’ programming including:
⦁ Initial goals and assessments
⦁ Proper warm-up and cool down for each training day.
⦁ Season appropriate training: exercise prescription, sets, reps and intensity
⦁ Re-assess your client’s progress and update their goals at the beginning of each season in his or her one-year program

Question 9: Biology

Write a 250-word essay response to the following question.
Describe the stretch-shortening cycle and how it relates to exercise.
Analyze two athletes performing a power clean and a power snatch. Do a detailed technical analysis of each lift. List the critical elements of each lift and note any technique deviations.
Pick an athlete and conduct a series of tests appropriate for their sport. What tests did you conduct and what were the results? What do the results tell you about your athlete? What goals will be set for the next testing period?
Give an example of a sports athlete that utilizes each of the three major energy pathways. How long does the body utilize each pathway as its main energy source?

Question 10: Biology

5 Short Answer Questions: 1. Discuss the three E’s of nutrition. Explain how PDIs fit into the three E’s of nutrition. 2. Describe the significance of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins on health and performance? What are the general recommendations for each macronutrient intake? How do body type, health status, and performance goals influence these recommendations? 3. Explain the difference between micronutrients and macronutrients. What role do micronutrients play in maintaining and optimizing health and performance? What are the common micronutrient deficiencies seen in athletes? 4. Describe the path of food through the digestive system and explain each organ's role in the digestive process. What are some factors that influence digestion? 5. Perform a body composition assessment on a subject using one of the methods outlined in Unit 14. Discuss the methodology you used, including possible deviations that could have occurred during testing. Then identify the somatotype of your subject and provide a macronutrient split recommendation for your subject based on his/her somatotype. Explain why you feel that the macronutrient split you provided is appropriate for your client.

Question 11: Biology

For this case study, you ideally will need to recruit a healthy adult competitive athlete. This person can be a recreational sports athlete, college athlete, or other type of active athlete. Alternatively, you can even use yourself. Note that this is just an academic exercise, so the person you are working with does not need to follow the program.
Go through Steps 1 to 8 from Unit 17, provided below, and develop nutritional guidelines for your subject, dependent on the season that he/she is in. Then provide a discussion as to why you made your recommendations.
Show all calculations that may apply, using the methods in the course textbook related to the Steps. Make note of the person’s age, gender, sport, and athletic season.
Step 1: Determine body composition.
Step 2: Determine daily caloric expenditure range for training days and non-training days and for competition days.
Step 3: Determine the bioenergetics the sport primarily demands for peak athletic performance; Athlete- Type; Anaerobic – Immediate Energy System; Anaerobic Glycolytic; Anaerobic Glycolytic – Oxidative Glycolytic; and Oxidative. Some examples of sports are included below.
Step 4: Determine daily protein intake estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember from your lessons that protein requirements can differ among different Athlete-Types and among individual athletes. This gives a scientific reason for making protein intake a priority for sports nutrition programs, in addition to other factors.
Step 5: Determine daily carbohydrate estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember to plan for carbohydrate beverage intake before, during, and after practice and for sports events as appropriate. Modulate carbohydrate type and amount with meals and snacks to meet specific nutrition goals.
Step 6: Determine fat (essential fatty acids) intake estimate and plan, and select foods and cooking methods to achieve it. Keeping fat intake under 30 percent of total daily calories will be an ongoing skill to master. For certain sports, maintaining low fat intake during the season—between 15 and 20 percent of total daily calories—can be challenging and requires extra effort to make sure athletes are ingesting adequate amounts of the essential fatty acids: linoleic and alpha-pnolenic acids. Add healthy sources of essential fatty acids in addition to EPA and DHA as required for health.
Step 7: Maintain proper fluid intake estimate to meet daily requirements, as determined by the amount of physical activity, environmental factors, and specific athletic training, performance, and health needs.
Step 8: Determine the needs for using special sports nutrition and dietary supplement products.

Question 12: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 13: Biology

Nurs 6512 Final Latest Version Walden University

Question 14: Biology

Nurs 6512 Midterm Latest Version Walden University

Question 15: Business

One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions

Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?

Question 16: Business

Imagine that you have been appointed as the Chief Compliance Officer for “NIKE”
Create a four to six (4-6) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you:

⦁ Summarize your chosen company’s Supplier Code of Conduct information
⦁ In your own words, explain how each aspect of your Supplier Code of Conduct is committed to ethical business practices and society social responsibility.
⦁ Discuss your company’s stance on each of the following areas:
a. Empowering Workers
b. Labor and Human Rights
c. Health and Safety
d. The Environment
e. Accountability
⦁ Identify the key ways that your company’s Code of Conduct has changed in recent years (i.e. have there been any improvements made).
⦁ Examine the manner in which your company’s Supplier Code of Conduct helps the organization operate as a socially responsible organization.
⦁ Provide detailed speaker notes of what you would say if you were delivering the presentation.

Question 17: Business

QSO 500 Milestone One Guidelines and Rubric
Overview: In this final project, you will create a research report based on the application of action research processes for developing problem solving strategies. In designing the report, you will follow the best practices for ethical research. You will utilize the research process to inform decisions in your professional life and as a framework for approaching research projects in other courses in your program. The final product will be a comprehensive research report using the five-step research process (identify the problem; understand the theoretical framework of the problem; design the research study; collect, explain, and analyze the data; report the results; and make conclusions and recommendations).
For Milestone One, submit a draft of your business problem and literature review. Using the problem you identified in your Module One journal and the feedback you received, describe the research problem including the context in which it exists. Using the problem statement, describe the stakeholders and research objective. Based on the research objective, develop a research question that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study. Consider the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study.
After describing your business problem and research question, prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Prompt: Refer to the given case study Maruti Suzuki India: Defending Market Leadership in the A-Segment and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report. Prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be from professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Specifically the following critical elements must be addressed:
Business Problem: Refer to the given case study and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report.
A. Describe the research problem, including the context in which it exists. In other words, what caused or precipitated this problem? What has already been done to address it?
B. Describe the key stakeholders (or potential stakeholders) of your business problem. In other words, who are the people who have the most to gain or lose from a decision?
C. Explain the research objective. How would it benefit the stakeholder to know the results?
D. Develop a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study.
E. Discuss the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study. Consider the following: How will data be collected and protected? How will human subjects be used, treated, and protected?
Literature Review:
A. Explain the theories that best ground your organizational problem. Support your explanation with specific examples. These theories might be management, behavioral, social, and/or business related.
B. Discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature and the potential impact these may have on your research.
C. Summarize at least one other research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study.
D. From the literature, analyze at least one other organization that has faced similar problems, explaining what they have done to address the problem.
Rubric
Guidelines for Submission: Your milestone must be submitted as a 5- to 6-page Microsoft Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, one-inch margins, and at least seven sources cited in APA format.
Critical Elements
Proficient (100%)
Needs Improvement (75%)
Not Evident (0%)
Value
Business Problem: Research Problem
Describes the research problem, including the context in which it exists
Describes the research problem, but description is cursory or does not include the context in which the problem exists
Does not describe the research problem
9
Business Problem: Stakeholders
Describes all key stakeholders of the business problem
Describes the stakeholders of the business problem, but description is cursory or neglects to address all key stakeholders
Does not describe the stakeholders of the business problem
9
Business Problem: Research Objective
Explains the research objective, including how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Explains the research objective, but explanation is cursory or does not show how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Does not explain the research objective
9
Business Problem: Research Question
Develops a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study
Develops a research question based on the research objective, but it does not clearly or concisely articulate in one sentence the purpose of the study
Does not develop a research question based on the research objective
Business Problem: Ethical Issues
Discusses all key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
Discusses real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study, but discussion is cursory, contains issues of clarity, or neglects to address key ethical issues
Does not discuss real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
12
Literature Review: Theories
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem with support from specific examples
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem, but explanation is cursory or not supported with specific examples
Does not explain the theories that best ground the organizational problem
12
Literature Review: Bias and Limitations
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, including the potential impact on research
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, but discussion contains issues of clarity or does not address the potential impact on research
Does not discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature
12
Literature Review: Other Research Study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study, but summary is cursory or contains inaccuracies
Does not summarize another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated
12
Literature Review: Other Organization
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, including an explanation of what was done to address the problem
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, but analysis is cursory or does not explain what was done to address the problem
Does not analyze another organization that has faced similar problems
12
Articulation of Response
Submission has no major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization
Submission has major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that negatively impact readability and articulation of main ideas
Submission has critical errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that prevent understanding of ideas
4
Total
100%

Question 18: Business

You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. Norman is the mid-level manager responsible for the southern regional office. The following events have recently occurred in Norman’s office:
⦁ Ken, an estate planner in Norman’s office, recently adopted a baby with his wife. He applied for 12-week family leave, but was denied by Norman because his wife did not physically give birth. The corporate human resource department (where you work) was not given notice of this decision.
⦁ June, part of the full-time housekeeping staff, has been asking other employees if they would like to join a union. There are currently no unions within the organization.
⦁ Maria is concerned about ladders that are placed around the office for remodeling. Norman said not to worry, and that there are no official policies for safety in an office setting.

Prepare a 15- to 20-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes responding to Norman from a Human Resource standpoint. The video or presentation should address the following topics:
⦁ An overview of the FMLA and its key provisions relating to Ken.
⦁ Recommended resolution for Ken’s situation (both for Ken as an employee and as a company handling these requests moving forward).
⦁ An overview of key labor laws to briefly educate Norman on employee rights in unionizing.
⦁ A brief discussion of OSHA and possible application to Norman’s office setting.

Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 19: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁ Discuss an element of the FSLA, and give an example of how it is enforced. Include who is and who is not exempt from this element’s regulation.

Question 20: Business

Calculations: Calculate the client’s target heart rate using the Karvonen formula.

Training Program: Design
a full 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
⦁ A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
⦁ Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the client’s needs
⦁ Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
⦁ A fully detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
⦁ Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
⦁ Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client’s history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Peter Parker
Age: 28
Gender: Male
Resting Heart Rate: 80 bpm
Height: 6’4″
Weight: 252 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 29%
Background and Goals: Peter is a 28-year-old civil servant with a 9-to-5 desk job. He is 6’4″ tall and weighs 252 lb. He played football and basketball in high school and some intramural sports in college, but has not worked out or been very active since. His diet is sporadic and consists of mostly processed and prepackaged foods that are quick and easy to prepare. Peter’s goals are to lose weight, tone his body, and lead a healthier lifestyle. Based on Peter’s current lifestyle and existing exercise and nutrition habits, design a 12-week progressive training program to help him best achieve his goals.

Question 21: Economics

One of the first lessons you will learn in Economics is that in order to do something, or buy something, it often means you cannot do or have something else. Life is full of choices and tradeoffs: “You cannot have your cake and eat it too,” or ” There is no such thing as a free lunch.” What is this course costing you? What is your opportunity cost to take this course? As an introductory assignment, answer each of these in the Discussions.
1) Write about what you could be doing instead of taking this course. It could be something else right at this minute. It could be going on vacation (or buying gas) with the tuition and book money, or it could be another class that conflicted with this, and
(2) Describe a choice you have had to make recently that involved make a choice between 2 alternatives not involving this course, and which way you decided to go. This could be going out to dine or buying gas, buying food rather than new clothes, or even a career change.

Question 22: Education

American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 92%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
Back to Status page
contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

Question 23: Health Care

Walden University – NURS 6501Completed Week 7 Quiz Graded A

Question 24: Health Care

Walden University – NURS 6501NURS 6501 wk. 6 quiz Graded A

Question 25: Health Care

Walden University
NURS
NURS 6501
NURS 6501 Week 5 quiz

Question 26: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 4 Quiz Graded A

Question 27: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 3 Quiz Graded A

Question 28: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 2 Quiz Graded A

Question 29: Health Care

NURS 6501 advanced pathophysiology week1 latest Graded A

Question 30: Health Care

Walden University > NURS 6630 Final Exam (2019) Score A

Question 31: Health Care

NSG 6020 Week 7 Quiz ANSWERS Latest SOUTH UNIVERSITY HEALTH ASSESSMENT NSG6020.docx

Question 32: Health Care

How has nursing practice evolved over time? Discuss the key leaders and historical events that have influenced the advancement of nursing, nursing education, and nursing roles that are now part of the contemporary nursing profession. 200-300 words, 2 citations

Question 33: Health Care

NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)

Question 34; Health Care

South University NSG 5003 Final exam 2019 (Already Graded A)
South University NSG5003 Final
Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death
Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

?Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:

a)
Oncotic pressure

b)
Buffering

c)
Net filtration

d)
Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)

Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:

a)
Capillary hydrostatic

b)
Interstitial hydrostatic

c)
Capillary oncotic

d)
Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:

a)
The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)
The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)
The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)
The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:

a)
Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)
Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)
Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)
Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:

a)
High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)
High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)
High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)
High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:

a)
Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)
. Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)
Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)
Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:

a)
Hypopolarization

b)
Hyperexcitability

c)
Depolarization

d)
Repolarization
Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:

a)
20:1

b)
1:20

c)
10:2

d)
10:5
Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:

a)
Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)
Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)
Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)
Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:

a)
A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)
Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)
An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)
Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:

a)
Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)
Bind antigens to antibodies

c)
Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)
Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:

a)
Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)
Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)
Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)
Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:

a)
Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)
Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)
Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)
Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Save
Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:

a)
Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)
Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)
Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)
Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:

a)
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)
Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)
Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:

a)
Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)
Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)
Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)
Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Save
Question 23 (5 points)

? Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:

a)
Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

b)
Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

c)
Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

d)
Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
Question 24 (5 points)
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
Question 24 options:

a)
Killed organisms or extracts of antigens

b)
Live organisms weakened to produce antigens

c)
Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified

d)
Recombinant pathogenic protein
Question 25 (5 points)

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Question 25 options:

a)
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b)
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c)
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells

d)
Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 26 (5 points)

Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:

a)
Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.

b)
The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.

c)
Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.

d)
The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)

What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:

a)
Infection

b)
Ultraviolet damage

c)
Pain

d)
Erythema
Question 28 (5 points)

When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:

a)
Age at the time of diagnosis

b)
Participation in clinical trials

c)
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center

d)
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)

Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:

a)
Pons

b)
Midbrain

c)
Cerebellum

d)
Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)

The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:

a)
Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)
Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)
Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)
Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:

a)
Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)
Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)
Autonomic hyperreflexia

d)
Retrograde hyperreflexia
Save
Question 32 (5 points)

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:

a)
. In larger veins

b)
Near capillary sphincters

c)
At branches of arteries

d)
On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:

a)
A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)
Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)
The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus

d)
A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)

Graves disease develops from:
Question 34 options:

a)
A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b)
An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

c)
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d)
Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)

Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:

a)
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b)
Diminished levels of TRH

c)
High levels of TSH

d)
Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:

a)
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.

b)
. Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi

c)
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.

d)
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:

a)
Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

b)
The need for lispro instead of regular insulin

c)
An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas

d)
The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas

Question 38 (5 points)

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:

a)
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

b)
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)
Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

d)
T cells

Question 39 (5 points)

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:

a)
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration

b)
The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

c)
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

d)
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)

Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 1: Business

Strategy Club Assignment

Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions 1. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and review videos related to Chapter 2. Summarize ten key points. 2. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and click on Student Resources and then click on Mission Statement Article and prepare your proposed mission statements for this course according to that article, which simply expands on the material presented in Chapter 2 about the statements being customer-focused. 3. Identify the nine components required for an effective mission statement. Find the new ASU mission and assess the extent to which it complies to these criteria. 4. If an organization does not have a vision or mission state, describe a good process for developing them.

Question 2: Business

Instruction
This assignment is an opportunity for you to reflect on how you negotiated the interest payment in the class financial simulation we carried out, and on the general outcomes in the market. In your 1-2 page write-up, make sure to answer the following questions: 1. For one Full Information session, describe your negotiation strategy by referring to your role (borrower, with high or low quality project, or lender), the interest payment you agreed to, and your final profit. 2. Describe your negotiation strategy in one Limited Information session, by referring to the same items as in question 1 above. 3. What do you think are some problems arising in trading with Limited Information as based on your experience in the financial market simulation? Explain. 4. How do you think the limited information trading impacted the agreed interest rate? Did it impact high and low quality borrowers in the same way? How about lenders? Overall, who benefited and who was hurt by the lack of information? Explain. For your reference, here is the Excel sheet containing the transactions from the class simulation:

Question 3: Education

Instruction
PART 1: Students are to submit a matrix that compares the three disability laws in relation to the specified components (a – h). The matrix provides side-by-side comparisons of each law. A template of the matrix is provided. Also the rubric is attached. Please be sure to review the rubric. A. Type of Law B. Eligibility criteria C. Evaluation procedures/guidelines D. Services provided to support students and parents E. Population(s) served (age groups covered) F. Due Process procedures – Parental Rights G. Funding source(s) to support special services provided H. Administrative Office or Agency that monitors and enforces the law PART 2: Video reflections (3 videos) Click on each link below to watch a short video about individuals with InD, LD, and ADHD. Write a brief summary of each video, which highlights significant shifts in the manner in which individuals with specific disabilities are treated or perceived by others. What were your overall impressions; were they positive or negative? Did the content of the video cause you to change your perceptions of individuals with specific disabilities? Why or why not? 1. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0gTtwMGHPes 2. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CYHzJGTA6KM 3. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fWCocjh5aK0&feature=youtu.be Your reflections/reactions to the videos assigned should be edited for minor grammatical errors and adhere to the general writing style and formatting guidelines of the APA Manual (6th ed.).

COMPONENTS:
Provide a description of each component below.
IDEA 2004 Section 504 ADA
Type of Law
(2 points)

Broad Eligibility Criteria
(2 points)

Evaluation Procedures/Guidelines
(2 points)

Types of Services Provided
(2 points)

Population Served: Age Group(s) Covered
(2 point)

Due Process Procedures
(2 points)

Special Funds Provided to Implement the Law
(1 point)

Administrative Office or Agency that Monitors/Enforces the Law (2 points)

Total Points: _______ (max. 15 points)

Question 4: Education

Instruction
PART 1: Answer the following questions in a paragraph each (4-5 sentences required for each question) 1. Why is parent participation so critical to the IEP process? Why have legislators mandated parent and family participation? 2.To what extend do cultures influence educational practices, and to what extend do educational practices influence cultures? 3. Identify common barriers to effective communication between parents and educators. Describe at least three “best practice” strategies teachers could use to promote effective and frequent communication with parents of children with disabilities. Describe three additional “best practices” that promote active parental engagement and meaningful partnerships. PART 2: The literature is replete with documentation that active parent involvement is highly correlated with positive student outcomes. Extensive research has been dedicated to better understanding the underlying issues as to why some parents actively participate in their child’s school activities while others do not, despite the sometimes numerous attempts made by teachers and the school administration to get parents involved. The required article reading presents the findings of a research study that explored parents’ perceptions of the schools’ efforts to get them engaged in their child’s education. Instructions: Read and submit your critique of the following journal article: Rodriguez, R. J., Blatz, E. T. & Elbaum, B. (2014). Parents’ views of schools’ involvement efforts. Exceptional Children, 8(1), 79-95. doi: 10.1177/0014402914532232 Your critique should include a brief summary of the content that highlights the main points expressed in the article. Include in your critique your perspectives and reactions to what the authors said or recommended, making sure you support or justify your viewpoints with examples or references to other articles and resources. Submission Instructions: Article critiques must be carefully edited and formatted according to APA (6th ed.). Critiques should range between 2 – 3 typed pages, not including the reference page.

Question 5: English
DOCUMENTED ESSAY: Literature Research Paper on Alice Walker’s Novel The Color Purple
As part of your coursework for Gender Roles in Literature / ENG 226, you will be writing a documented research essay, on a literary topic of your choice, which analyzes Alice Walker’s seminal novel The Color Purple. The purpose of this paper is for you to demonstrate your ability to research and analyze a specific topic about the novel, develop an interpretive argument, and synthesize your findings into a unified, coherent, and analytical documented essay.
TOPIC: You may develop any literary topic you wish about the novel, except for biographical studies of Alice Walker. Your documented research essay must focus on the author’s writing, not her life. For example, some possible topics you might consider for your research paper:
➢ Ebonics and the African-American Vernacular in The Color Purple
➢ The Sexual Awakening of Celie
➢ The Role of Sofia in Celie’s Life – and in the Lives of Other Characters –in The Color Purple ➢ The Power of the Feminine as Exhibited in The Color Purple
➢ Celie’s Letters to God and the African-American Slave Narratives (such as Frederick Douglass’ Narrative of the Life of . . . an American Slave and Solomon Northup’s Twelve Years a Slave)
➢ Gender Roles and Their Impact in The Color Purple
SOURCES: You should use your research as a vehicle to drive your own thoughts, deliberations, and arguments as you write your essay. As well as your own thoughts, analyses, interpretations, and conclusions on your chosen topic, your paper must have:
➢ One primary source (the literature text itself). You must include direct quotes and paraphrased cited quotations from The Color Purple in your paper.
➢ At least THREE (3) secondary Scholarly Academic sources (writings about the literary text) of two pages or longer:
o At least one secondary source of information/analysis/critical study must be from a peer-reviewed article from an academic scholarly database. Good scholarly databases to start your research are the following (accessible via RCC Library Website):
▪ EBSCO Humanities Source
▪ GALE Artemis Literary Sources
▪ Literature Criticism Online
▪ JSTOR
o At least one of the secondary sources of information/analysis/critical study should be from a BOOK in print, either an e-book or paper & ink (NOTE: a paper & ink physical book earns you extra-credit points!)
Please Note: You should avoid using Internet sites ending with <.net> or <.com>. These sites are usually commercial, not scholarly, and therefore too superficial for college-level work. Use them to gather initial, general information to START your search. They should NEVER be your sole source of information.
FORMAT: Your paper must be / must have:
➢ At least 1500 words / about five pages of text in length (word count does not include the Works Cited page)
➢ Written utilizing correct MLA-8 citation and formatting rules
➢ Double-spaced, typed, using 12-point font size, Times New Roman or comparable font ➢ Quotes taken from the Original Literature (the Primary Source)
➢ At least two (2) short direct quotations
➢ One long (block) direct quotation
➢ At least two (2) paraphrased quotations
➢ All Support Materials, to be submitted with the documented essay
➢ Submitted into Blackboard no later than the due dates for draft & final essay
Question 6: Mathematics

MAC1105 Discussion Assignment 2: Solving Quadratic Equations The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods for solving quadratic equations.

MAC1105 Discussion Assignment 2: Solving Quadratic Equations

The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods forsolving quadratic equations.

Use the Discussions Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 1, 2, and 3

Step 1: Choose a method, covered in Section 1.5 of the textbook, (factoring,square root property, completing the square, and the quadratic formula) to solveeach of the following quadratic equations. Each method can be used only ONCE.

A) 4×2 – 27 = 0
B) 4×2 – 8x – 5 = 0
C) 4×2 – 8x – 12 = 0
D) 4×2 – 9x – 7 = 0

You may solve the equation if that clarifies which method should be used, but the solutions and answers should not be typed into the Discussion Board orsubmitted to the Assignments Link.

Step 2: In a posting to the Discussion Board in Falcon Online, explain the solutionmethod you chose for each equation and why you chose it. Refer to each equationby letter when stating the solution method. It is not necessary to post the solutions and answers. The posting should be written with complete sentences and proper grammar. The following explanation is not an acceptable part of the posting: “Thiswas the last method left.”

Step 3: Next, read at least two original posts by other students. After reading atleast two other original posts, reply to one other original post with acorrection/addition that enhances the explanation.

Use the Assignments Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 4 and 5

Step 4: Use the Equation Editor in MS Word to type a document showing thecomplete solution
(all steps) and correct answer to both of the following problems

The document should be saved in .docx, .doc, .pdf, or .rtf format.

Question 8: Other

Question 9: Psychology

Instruction
Vicarious trauma is similar to but distinctly different from burnout and counter-transference. To treat and prevent vicarious trauma effectively, you must be able to distinguish between the three phenomena. Since vicarious trauma, burnout, and counter-transference are closely related, consider how you would educate future supervisees in understanding the similarities and differences of each. For this Application, review this week’s Course Media “Introduction with Laura Simpson” and consider the implications vicarious trauma may have on the counseling process. The assignment: (2–3 pages) Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and burnout. Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and counter-transference. Explain two implications vicarious trauma might have on the counseling process. Be specific. Explain one insight you had or conclusion you drew for each comparison. Be specific. Support your Application Assignment with specific references to all resources used in its preparation. You are asked to provide a reference list only for those resources not included in the Learning Resources for this course.

Question 10: Physics

Question 11: Business

Question 12: Statistics

A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
⦁ a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
⦁ b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
⦁ c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
⦁ d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6

Question 13: Finance

Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?

Question 14: Other

Management Information Systems

Many organizations have started using behavioral targeting in order to capture your website visitor movements. This data is used in order to personalize advertising when you are surfing the web. Some businesses have started collecting personal information outside of your web clicking to create a profile of you. Do you have any personal issues with these practices? At what point could this type of data collection turn into an ethical dilemma? How about a legal issue? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work.

Case Study Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation
Vodafone Group PLC is the largest mobile service provider by revenue in the world, with 400 million customers across Europe, the Middle East, Africa, Asia Pacific, and the United States. In 2013, it had revenues of $64.6 billion and more than 86,000 employees working in over 30 countries. Since its founding nearly 30 years ago, the business has experienced phenomenal growth, largely by establishing local operating companies that provides products and services to their local markets.
As a result, the company was very decentralized, lacking common practices, centralized operations, and data sharing among its various operating companies. Most of Vodafone’s mobile subsidiaries operated as independent companies with their own business processes. Vodafone was a network of individual businesses, but it wanted to function more like a single global firm to better deal with competitive pressures. Management called for a major business transformation to make this happen.
In 2006, Vodafone’s board of directors approved the “Evolution Vodafone” Business Transformation Program” (EVO) designed to refashion Vodafone into a truly global company, with a centralized shared services organization and common worldwide business processes in finances, human resources, and supply chain management for all of the operating companies. (Shared services refers to the consolidation of business operations that are used by multiple parts of the same organization in order to reduce costs and redundancy.) A common SAP ERP system would provide the technology platform for these changes by supporting information-sharing and common business processes that would simplify and speed up work throughout the company. Additional software tools from Informatica, Opentext, Readsoft, Sabrix, Redwood, HP, and Remedy that could integrate with SAP were added to the mix.
Vodafone’s system turned out to be one of the biggest SAP ERP implementations in the world. How did Vodafone pull it off? First of all, Vodafone’s management realized the company lacked the expertise and resources to manage such a complex project entirely on its own. It enlisted the consulting firms Accenture and IBM to provide skills and services that this ambitious project required and which were not available inside the company.
The company spent a year identifying and designing its new business processes and establishing the scope of this project. The management team wanted to limit risks to non-customer-facing processes that were nevertheless important sources of value for the firm. Customer-facing front-end processes were excluded from the first phase of the rollout to keep the transformation more manageable.
Procurement was targeted as the first set of processes to be transformed using the new ERP system. Vodafone had been allowing each of its local companies to manage its own procurement, which prevented it from leveraging the massive purchasing power the company could obtain by managing relationships with material and service suppliers from a single entity. By generating savings from centralized procurement, the transformation project would be able to quickly show a return on investment and win further support. Vodafone did not establish a centralized procurement department but instead created a centralized procurement company based in Luxembourg that uses the SAP ERP platform. Most of the company’s spending goes through this central organization. Suppliers benefit because the system helps them plan their sales to Vodafone and they only need to work with a single purchaser instead of many. This new way of doing business included a new purchase-to-pay process in which invoices are approved automatically for payment by matching them with purchase orders and receipts.
Once the new procurement process and organization were running, Vodafone started creating a centralized shared services organization based on the SAP ERP system. It selected Budapest, Hungary as the pilot location for this new arrangement. Vodafone Hungary is a mid-sized company with 2,000 employees with a small IT platform based on Oracle software. This made Vodafone Hungary more receptive to changing its information system and business processes than Vodafone organizations in larger countries, and Hungary had already been using Oracle systems. There, Vodafone built an entire shared services organization from scratch while simultaneously implementing the SAP ERP system. Vodafone then set up two more shared services organizations in India running on SAP.
After Hungary, Vodafone implemented the new procurement process and SAP software for its German operating company. Germany is Vodafone’s largest market, and accounts for more than 20 percent of Vodafone’s total revenue. Vodafone Germany is a much larger organization than Vodafone Hungary, with 13,000 employees, over 130 local legacy systems, and many customized business processes to replace. Work habits were more deeply entrenched, and Vodafone encountered some employee resistance as it tried to implement the new systems and processes. To minimize risk, Vodafone used a phased, incremental implementation, did a tremendous amount of testing, and made all the necessary system modifications before the system went live. Special support teams were dispatched to work with all the employees affected by the transition. These efforts helped address problems and employee resistance before they got out of hand. Once the German implementation was deemed successful, Vodafone rolled out the new system at many more operating companies, prioritizing the implementations based on each operating company’s size, complexity, and willingness to change.
No two rollouts proceeded the same way because each operating company had unique challenges and demands. Many of these companies had grown rapidly, and had numerous legacy systems based on local requirements. There were large numbers of users, interfaces, and legal requirements to deal with. Vodafone’s project team had to balance the need to proceed rapidly with the need to ensure that the system was implemented carefully.
Vodafone’s implementation plan called for a core project team to visit each individual operating company and implement the new processes locally, assisted by a systems integrator and local resources. Local teams and senior management met with the global teams, IT consultants, and local IT vendors in a friendly environment to encourage knowledge-sharing and openness to change. The success of each rollout was based on multiple factors, including the number and complexity of each unit’s legacy systems, the skills of each local project team, and the willingness of each local organization to embrace change. Vodafone enlisted the services of the global consulting firm Accenture to provide skills where needed and assist with change management in the local companies. Over time, the Vodafone project team and the Accenture consultants learned how to tailor their activities to the needs of each operating company. For example, if no representatives from an operating company showed up for the project launch meeting or they attended but showed little interest, the project team knew that company might be less cooperative. In such cases, the project would require more resources and attention.
The project team also had to be sensitive to local trends as system rollouts took place. For instance, if an operating company was located in a country experiencing economic downturn, its employees might be more resistant to the rollout. Some might see a major business and technology change as an improvement in their situation, while others might see it as another thing to cope with during a very stressful time.
As it finished rolling out the system to its remaining operating companies, the Vodafone project team used what it had learned to make improvements to its earlier ERP implementations. For example, testing and employee feedback revealed that more attention should be paid to usability. So, the project team enhanced the system’s interfaces to make them more user-friendly.
Given the nature of the business, Vodafone’s management wants about 80% of the company’s internal transactions to take place on a mobile device. According to Niall O’Sullivan, Vodafone’s Global Finance Transformation Director, management believes mobile apps will be a major advantage in driving compliance, increasing ease of use, and reducing resistance to the actual processes themselves. The goal is to have the vast majority of user interactions with the system take place on a mobile phone. According to O’Sullivan, mobility provides easy access for employees who don’t typically engage with the SAP system, so more employees are using the system. The more people use the system, the greater the return on investment. Over 60,000 employees around the world now use the new system, with 80,000 expected by the end of 2014.
Vodafone is now rolling out some of its enterprise applications for mobile devices, and so far, four have been selected. The first to go mobile was a travel and expense reporting application. Employees are able to take a photo of their receipts and get reimbursed without using any paper, and they can issue or approve requests for leave on their mobile phones all at one time. This application has reduced the time required to file travel expenses from 30 minutes to 10 minutes, with 7,500 expense claims filed each week, resulting in 300 person-days’ potential savings per week. Vodafone’s future mobile plans call for the development of a mobility portal and the integration of approval applications with finance, HR, and electronic sourcing.
Vodafone’s business process transformation and ERP system have increased business efficiency and produced annual cost savings of $719 million. The total cost of ownership (TCO) of information technology has been lowered. Throughout the world, Vodafone has a consistent way of working and a more unified organizational structure. Getting the various operating companies to think and act more uniformly and to adopt a shared service model has produced benefits that are not immediately quantifiable, but should lead to further profitability in the long run.
Sources: “Customer Journey,” Vodafone Group PLC. www.mysap.com, accessed May 28, 2014,”www.vodafone.com, accessed May 29, 2014; Derek DuPreez, “Vodafone HANA Project Moves Beyond Trial Despite Skills Challenge,” TechWorld, March 11, 2013; “Using SAP MaxAttention to Safeguard the Global Rollout of SAP ERP,” www.mysap.com, accessed April 8, 2013; and David Hannon, “Vodafone Walks the Talk,” SAP InsiderPROFILES, October-December 2012.
Case Study Questions
⦁ 9-13 Identify and describe the problem discussed in this case. What management, organization, and technology factors contributed to the problem?
⦁ 9-14 Why did Vodafone have to spend so much time dealing with change during its business transformation?
⦁ 9-15 Why was an ERP system required for Vodafone’s global business transformation?
⦁ 9-16 What management, organization, and technology issues had to be addressed by the Vodafone project team to ensure the transformation would be successful?
⦁ 9-17 What were the business benefits of Vodafone’s global business transformation? How did it change decision making and the way the company operated?

Instructions

Introduction:
The main learning outcome for this unit addresses advanced information systems solutions. You need to be able to understand not only the concepts behind implementing an advanced solution like ERP, but also the management and technological factors involved in an implementation, the value added by implementing advanced systems, what prompts the need for an advanced system like an ERP system, and the potential benefits of implementing IS advanced systems such as ERP systems. This case gives them a successfully implemented case to analyze.
Assignment Instructions:
Review what you have learned about enterprise resource planning (ERP) from the textbook and from the unit’s study guide.
Analyze the case study titled “Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation” on pp. 376-378 in your textbook.
For this assignment, you will need to:
analyze and discuss the central issue(s) faced by Vodafone, including the contributing management and technological factors;
explain why ERP was a necessary information system solution to address the organization’s issues;
evaluate the success of Vodafone’s implementation plan and provide one suggestion to improve the process;
discuss the value the new ERP system brought to Vodafone as a company; and
summarize your findings in a two to three page paper.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VI
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
9. Examine advanced information systems solutions such as ERP (enterprise resource planning) and SAP (software application and products).
⦁ 9.1 Explain the value added to organizations by implementing advanced information systems
solutions.
⦁ 9.2 Examine different advanced information systems solutions available for businesses.
⦁ 9.3 Analyze different features and functionality offered by advanced information systems solutions.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 9: Achieving Operational Excellence and Customer Intimacy: Enterprise Applications Chapter 10: E-Commerce: Digital Markets, Digital Goods
Unit Lesson
Advanced Information Systems
What exactly are advanced information system solutions? Most people who have worked in an office setting have a good understanding of the processes that affect their everyday lives. They understand that the data they enter or scan is stored in a database, and certain processes they run may close out a monthly account, process a payroll run, or bill a customer. These types of processes, while they seem separate, are often very integrated.
In years past, organizations had large mainframes. These mainframes had to process transactions in batches, usually at night, and until that batch process happened, the screens you were viewing were not always completely correct. For example, you could place an order for a customer, but you would not see the order until the next day. Unfortunately, that also meant that you could not see the inventory reduction until the next day as well. This means you might place an order and there might not be any of that item left in stock at the time. A salesperson or customer service representative might have to go look at three or four different screens to get a good picture of the customer’s account health or to research a problem—even with this batching process. Once client-servers came to organizations, employees had to look at two completely different computers to research that same problem (until organizations could get all of their data and processes moved off of those old mainframes).
Now that businesses have grown so much, many of them have multiple product lines, systems, servers, and databases. In the past, managers would have to wait for big printouts of various reports to make business decisions. Enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems works to integrate all of those critical systems together so they can talk to each other. The applications that make up the enterprise software are created based on predefined best business practices. Think of it this way: When a business purchases a piece of equipment, that order is entered into accounting the same way for all businesses. If a customer makes a purchase, it should generally be handled the same way. When you hire someone, you have the same laws to follow. There may be some customization, but that is handled in the application as well (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
From a managerial perspective, what is the value in enterprise systems?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1

UNIT VI STUDY GUIDE
Advanced Information System Solutions
This is the question we have to ask ourselves when adopting any sort of informUaNtIioTnxsSyTstUemDYs sGoUluIDtioEn, is it not? We do not just spend large amounts of money on something without understanding the value it offers us
as a company. We have discussed the value of data in previous chapters. Among the other reasons enterprise systems bring us value, they also help us to have firm-wide information to make better decisions.
The bottom line is this: Advanced information system solutions can help organizations in many different ways, such as operating more effectively and efficiently, making better decisions, managing our goods more effectively, reaching our customers faster, and being more competitive and innovative. Anyone can see the value in that!
What Are Some Other Advanced Information System Solutions?
Supply chain management (SCM): Many large organizations (such as Walmart and Amazon) use supply chain management (SCM) to help their organization manage their suppliers and goods more efficiently. If you have thousands of suppliers and hundreds of thousands of orders, it would be impossible to keep up with everything. SCM software can manage all of this and allows for forecasting and decision making as well. Imagine that many of your suppliers are in other countries; this means you have a global supply chain that is even more complex to manage.
Customer relationship management (CRM): Customer relationship management (CRM) involves managing customers. Again, if you have 50,000 customers, how do you keep up with what they purchased? Sure, you can store that information in a database but would it be easy to manage those relationships? How would you keep up with the marketing incentives you have offered them? Better yet, what about the marketing incentives that you want them to pass on to their customers?
Systems application products (SAP): Systems application products (SAP) are a brand of enterprise resource systems. Oracle and Microsoft both have their own brands of enterprise resource systems as well. While all of these vendors offer very similar base functionalities, each of them compete against each other by bringing their own special capabilities to their enterprise resource system offerings.
E-commerce: Another type of advanced information systems involves e-commerce. The explosion of Internet purchasing is no surprise to anyone, but the technology involved in e-commerce is pretty unique. In the past, retailers had pretty tight control over everything. The options for consumers were not plentiful. Still, word of mouth was still prevalent so a business could suffer if it did not treat its customers well. Now, retailers have invited the world to comment on their websites. Sure, they can always delete bad comments, but knowledge is power. Have you ever had a bad experience at a store and wondered if it ever got past the customer service person that you complained to? E-commerce gives retailers global reach, which can be an advantage and a disadvantage. Advanced information systems have given retailers the ability to allow customers to interact with each other through social media-style functionality. Retailers can now personalize your viewing experience based on your web searches. This type of customer targeting was not possible before more advanced information systems were developed.
We have discussed business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce, but there have also been many types of e- commerce, e-commerce business models, and e-commerce revenue models developed. Social media is one of the most predominant focuses of marketing today. Another focus of late is m-commerce, which is mobile commerce.
One of the biggest boons to business-to-business e-commerce is the development of electronic data interchange (EDI). This service enables the transfer of data between two organizations. For example, an organization may receive an electronic bill from a supplier through EDI. Conversely, the organization can sent a notice of payment back to the supplier via EDI. An organization can send all of its UPS shipping information to UPS in the form of an EDI file.
Would any of this be possible without advanced information system solutions? What do you think the future holds for information systems and technology as businesses grow bigger and bigger?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
Reference UNIT x STUDY GUIDE Title
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following journal article is a great study on the critical success factors involved in the implementation of enterprise systems. You are encouraged to review this information.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Ahmad, N., Haleem, A., & Syed, A. (2013). Compilation of critical success factors in implementation of enterprise systems: A study on Indian organizations. Global Journal Of Flexible Systems Management, 13(4), 217-232. doi:10.1007/s40171-013-0019-8.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
Assume that you have been hired as the new Social Media Manager for the e-commerce division of a retail chain. Create a seven to ten PowerPoint slide presentation to outline your strategic plan for integrating social media into the existing e-commerce business for the organization.
You may use various sources including your textbook and the CSU Online Library. Be sure to cite all sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. Cover and reference slides do not count in the length requirement. You may also use the slide notes function.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3

Unit 6 Assessment

How can organizations create value by implementing an advanced information system solution paired with the appropriate business model?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length

What is social CRM? Why are some organizations hesitant to implement this advanced information system technology?
Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Recall the e-commerce Internet business model discussed in the unit readings. Identify three different businesses that use this model and their successful descriptions for solutions to information systems.
Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 15: Mathematics

⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 16: Physics
WORKSHEET Pre-Lab 2 (hand in at start of lab 2)
1. Consider an experiment where a marble is rolling between sensors for a computer controlled timer called a photogate. The sensor measures the time the photogate is blocked as the diameter of the marble passes by. You have measured the following quantities to determine the speed (v) of a marble rolling in front of a photogate. The uncertainty in time is estimated from the spread in values of several trials, and the size of the marble is known with a manufacturer specification on the uncertainty.
tblocked=(0.024±0.002)s and d=(2.54±0.01)cm
Determine the following, showing your work below neatly for each %σt %σd %σv σv and v.
These quantities mean: percent uncertainties in time blocked, diameter of marble, speed of marble respectively. Then the absolute uncertainty in the speed of marble, and finally the speed of the marble itself.
Your final reporting of the speed should look like (with numbers) v=________±_______cm/s
1
2. Consider the formula 2 ∆ . This is a kinematic equation relating final speed, initial speed, acceleration, and displacement. You will solve this equation for the acceleration, “a”, insert measured values for the other quantities and report “a” along with its uncertainty. The goal is to use error propagation to determine uncertainties.
You are given vi = 0.00 (consider this exact), and
vf = (1.87±0.04)m/s, and x=(30.0±0.3)cm.
Which rule will you apply to determine the result for acceleration along with its uncertainty?
Question 17: Mathematics
Question 8 Alone.
Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.

MAT2001-SFE- Digital Assignment-1
⦁ Find the mean, median and mode for the following data.
⦁ The mean of five numbers 6,9,2,x,y is 5 and the standard deviation is x,y.
√
6. Find the values of
Class mark 10.5 30.5 50.5 70.5 90.5 110.5
Fequency 19 6 3 2 1 2
3. A continuous random variable has the probability density function . { kx4 −1 < x < 0
f(x) = 0 otherwise Find the value of k and also find P [(X > 1/2)/(X < −1/4)].
⦁ Find the first four moments about the origin for a random variable X having the probability density function f (x) = 4x(9 − x2 ) , 0 ≤ x ≤ 3.
81
⦁ An investment firm offers its customers municipal bonds that mature after varying number of years. Given that the cumulative distribution function of T , the number of years to maturity for
a randomly selected bond is,

 0, t < 1
 1 / 4 , 1 ≤ t < 3 F(t)=1/2, 3≤t<5 3/4, 5≤t<7
1, t≥7
Find (a)P(T = 5)(b)P(T > 3)(c)P(1.4 < T < 6)(d)P(T ≤ 5/T ≥ 2).
6. The waiting time, in hours, between successive speeders spotted by a radar unit is a continuous random variable with cumulative distributive function
{
0, x<0 1−e−8x, x≥0
F(x) =
Find the probability of waiting less than 12 minutes between successive speeders (i) using the
cumulative distribution function of X (ii) using the probability density function of X.
⦁ If the probability density function of X is given by
{ 2(1−x), 0<x<1 f(x) = 0, otherwise
(a) Show that E(Xr) = 2 . (b) Using this evaluate E[(2X + 1)2]. (r + 1)(r + 2)
⦁ Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.
⦁ Ifthejointprobabilitydensityfunctionofvariable(X,Y)isgivenbyf(x,y)= 9(1+x+y) ,x> 2(1 + x)4(1 + y)4
X 1 3 k 7 8 10
Y 8 12 15 17 18 20
0, y > 0, find the mariginal densities of X and Y . Are they independent?
10. The joint density function of a R.V (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,0 < x < 1;0 < y < x. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
11. The joint density function of a random variable (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,1 ≤ x ≤ y ≤ 2
9 and = 0 , elsewhere. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
⦁ If the joint p.d.f of a two dimensional random variable (X,Y) is given by f (x, y) = 3(x + y), in x > 0, y > 0 and x + y ≤ 1 and =0, elsewhere, find Var(X), Var(y) and Cov(X,Y).
⦁ If the simple moments of a random variable X are given by E(Xr) = 0.6, for r = 1,2,3,…, show that P (X = 0) = 0.4, P (X = 1) = 0.6 and P (X ≤ 2) = 0.
⦁ The two regression lines are y = a+bx and x = c+dy. Find the values of E(X), E(Y) and rXY . Can you find SX and SY from them?
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables with variances σX2 and σY2 , prove that r(X, X − Y ) = √σX .
σ X2 + σ Y2
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables such that the correlation coefficient between (2X+Y)
and (X+2Y) is equal to 1, find the coefficient of correlation between X and Y. 2

Report values for %σvf %σx a %σa σa
Your last statement should look like a=________±__________m/s2.
2
Question 18: Health Care

Need 3 healthcare discussion questions answers to the following:
Take a few minutes to think about the healthcare system as it exists today.
(1) Discuss why quality management is critical?
(2) Explain the three principals of total quality which are customer focus, teamwork, and continuous improvement?
(3) Discuss two ways to ensure healthcare quality is important at the organizational, community, and national level.

In responding to the discussion questions, make sure you provide examples to support each part of the question, and each question should be answered with at least 250 words.
Total discussion questions should be at least 750 words minimum. Need this by Saturday Aug 31. If there are any questions, please let me know.

Question 19: Engineering

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/show-steps-reduction-matlab-code-find-transfer-fuctions-q31106239

Question 20: Physics

A heavy block of mass 625 kg is suspended by a cable is moving downwards with an initial velocity of 7.3 m/s. If the tension in the cable as the block comes to rest is 5000 N calculate the distance travelled by the block(a) 25.0 m(b) 13.6 m(c) 2.72 m(d) 14.8 m

Question 21: General Question

This is a personal paper. It is not a research paper. You can use I,we,she,he etc (cannot be written in 3rd person). The subject is Group Process-write about a personal team and/or group experience including issues faced and how the issues were resolved. Must be 15 pages. No grammatical errors or typos.

Question 22: Health Care

Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
The Quadruple Aim provides broad categories of goals to pursue to maintain and improve healthcare. Within each goal are many issues that, if addressed successfully, may have a positive impact on outcomes. For example, healthcare leaders are being tasked to shift from an emphasis on disease management often provided in an acute care setting to health promotion and disease prevention delivered in primary care settings. Efforts in this area can have significant positive impacts by reducing the need for primary healthcare and by reducing the stress on the healthcare system.

Changes in the industry only serve to stress what has always been true; namely, that the healthcare field has always faced significant challenges, and that goals to improve healthcare will always involve multiple stakeholders. This should not seem surprising given the circumstances. Indeed, when a growing population needs care, there are factors involved such as the demands of providing that care and the rising costs associated with healthcare. Generally, it is not surprising that the field of healthcare is an industry facing multifaceted issues that evolve over time.

In this module’s Discussion, you reviewed some healthcare issues/stressors and selected one for further review. For this Assignment, you will consider in more detail the healthcare issue/stressor you selected. You will also review research that addresses the issue/stressor and write a white paper to your organization’s leadership that addresses the issue/stressor you selected.

To Prepare:
⦁ Review the national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the Resources and reflect on the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected for study.
⦁ Reflect on the feedback you received from your colleagues on your Discussion post for the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected.
⦁ Identify and review two additional scholarly resources (not included in the Resources for this module) that focus on change strategies implemented by healthcare organizations to address your selected national healthcare issue/stressor.

The Assignment (3-4 Pages):
Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing your selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following:
⦁ Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).
⦁ Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources on the national healthcare issue/stressor. Explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
⦁ Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected. Explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.

Looking Ahead
The paper you develop in Module 1 will be revisited and revised in Module 2. Review the Assignment instructions for Module 2 to prepare for your revised paper.

Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing the selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following: ·   Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 23 (23%) – 25 (25%)
The response accurately and thoroughly describes in detail the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate, clear, and detailed data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Good 20 (20%) – 22 (22%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Fair 18 (18%) – 19 (19%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague or inaccurate.
The response includes vague or inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Poor 0 (0%) – 17 (17%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing.
The response includes vague and inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected, or is missing.
Feedback:
·   Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources, on the national healthcare issue/stressor and explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response fully integrates at least 2 outside resources and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that fully support the summary provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response integrates at least 1 outside resource and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations that is vague or inaccurate.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of no outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided, or is missing.
The response fails to integrate any resources to support the summary provided.
Feedback:
·   Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected and explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively, with specific and accurate examples.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively. May include some specific examples.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague or inaccurate. May include some vague or inaccurate examples.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided, or is missing.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing. Does not include any examples.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity.
A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion is provided which delineates all required criteria.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is stated, yet is brief and not descriptive.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time.
No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion was provided.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct APA format with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)

Question 23: Health Care

Evaluating a Statistical Study Assignment

To complete this assignment, select one of the articles below taken from the online library and answer the questions that follow.

Articles:
Trends in Patient Information Preferences and Acquisition
Determining College Performance of Allied Health students
The Impact of College Sports Success on the Quantity and Quality of Student Applications
Child Abuse: Radiologic-Pathologic Correlation
Reference Equations for the Six-Minute Walk in Healthy Adults

Questions:

⦁ Briefly summarize (2 or 3 sentences) the objectives and findings of the study
⦁ Describe the data analyzed in the study. Identify the data’s level of measurement. How was it collected? Evaluate possible sources of error or bias in the data.
⦁ What population characteristics or parameters were the researchers trying to evaluate or estimate? What sample statistics were used as indicators?
⦁ Identify one of the researcher’s null hypothesis and the corresponding alternate hypothesis. Did the researchers accept or reject the null hypothesis? What was the confidence interval (significance level) used for evaluating the hypothesis. Evaluate how choosing a different confidence interval could impact the execution or results of the study.
⦁ Identify the type I and type II errors associated with accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. Given the context of the study, which type of error is more critical to avoid? Why?
⦁ How might the results of this study be used? Describe how the knowledge gained could be applied. Suggest additional research that could be pursued to supplement these findings.

Question 24: Mathematics

https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/basic-probability
https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/statistical-significance-experiment
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 25: Health Care

Evidence-Based Practice and the Quadruple Aim
Healthcare organizations continually seek to optimize healthcare performance. For years, this approach was a three-pronged one known as the Triple Aim, with efforts focused on improved population health, enhanced patient experience, and lower healthcare costs.
More recently, this approach has evolved to a Quadruple Aim by including a focus on improving the work life of healthcare providers. Each of these measures are impacted by decisions made at the organizational level, and organizations have increasingly turned to EBP to inform and justify these decisions.
To Prepare:
⦁ Read the articles by Sikka, Morath, & Leape (2015); Crabtree, Brennan, Davis, & Coyle (2016); and Kim et al. (2016) provided in the Resources.
⦁ Reflect on how EBP might impact (or not impact) the Quadruple Aim in healthcare.
⦁ Consider the impact that EBP may have on factors impacting these quadruple aim elements, such as preventable medical errors or healthcare delivery.
To Complete:
Write a brief analysis (no longer than 2 pages) of the connection between EBP and the Quadruple Aim.
Your analysis should address how EBP might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:
⦁ Patient experience
⦁ Population health
⦁ Costs
⦁ Work life of healthcare providers
Write a brief analysis of the connection between evidence-based practice and the Quadruple Aim. Your analysis should address how evidence-based practice might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:

·   Patient experience
·   Population health
·   Costs
·   Work life of healthcare providers–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 77 (77%) – 85 (85%)
Good 68 (68%) – 76 (76%)
Fair 60 (60%) – 67 (67%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 59 (59%)
Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization:
Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards:
Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running head, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)

Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)

less than 20% similarities
Question 26: English

I need 5 questions answered from my english class the book is called practical argument 3rd edition
Read Student Sample Essay pp. 361-367 and answer the questions below using complete sentences and clear explanations:
1. Summarize the argument Blaine is making in one sentence.
2. Give three examples of evidence that Blaine uses to prove her argument. Cite the page numbers. Do you think this is enough evidence to support her argument? Why? Why not?
3. Does Blaine give an opposing argument? If so, summarize what it is and how she refutes it.
4. Does Blaine establish a strong context for her argument? Explain why or why not by using specific examples from the text. Make sure to cite the page numbers when stating an example from the text.
5. Do you agree or disagree with Blaine’s argument? Why or why not.

Question 27: Business

Question 29: Business

For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:
⦁ Library Article: How Netflix Reinvented HR
⦁ Article: The Woman Behind the Netflix Culture Doc
⦁ Presentation: Netflix Culture: Freedom & Responsibility
⦁ This information will be a key part of your final project for this course. According to Legal Dictionary, a fact pattern is “a concise description of all the occurrences or circumstances of a particular case, without any discussion of their consequences under the law.”
⦁ In other words, it provides the basic information—who, what, when, where, and why (which we will call the 5W approach):
⦁ Who: The individuals and organization involved in the issue
⦁ What: The issue at hand. What variables have created the situation that needs resolution, and what facts regarding the individuals involved and the organization can be codified as factual statements.
⦁ When: The timetable as to when the issue began and the approximate timeframe in which it must be settled. If not definitively known, provide an estimate of the duration.
⦁ Where: The geographic location, department, or division in which the problem exists.
⦁ Why: The drivers that created the situation needing resolution.
⦁ How: The ways in which the organizational culture may directly and/or indirectly impact the negotiation in an interpersonal or organization conflict situation.

For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:

Question 31: General Question

This forum is designed to engage us in a discussion involving a comparison between Kouzes and Posner’s Leadership Practices and Senge’s Five disciplines (click for link). Support your assertions with scholarly source material. Examine the document showing the table of comparisons and answer the following:
1. In what ways are the two sources suggestive of similar theoretical concepts and/or presentation?
Values/Actions Congruence, Shared Vision, Learning Together Through Collaboration,
2. How are they different?
Question the Status Quo, Integration of the Whole
3. What are your conclusions about the thinking of these leadership scholars as expressed in the table and with regard to additional sources you may elect to include in your discussion.

Question 32: Education

1.      What building blocks can an organization use to sustain competitive advantage?
2.      Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?
What is a value chain? Why is efficiency so important in an organizations value chain?
3.      What does an internal analysis help a company to determine? How does this contribute to the overall health (value creation, competitive advantage, profitability) of the company?
4.      Why do companies fail? How does competitive advantage relate to failure?
5.      What are functional level strategies? How can functional level strategy contribute to efficiency?
6.      Describe economies of scale and its relation to competitive advantage. What strategic significance does economies of scale have?
7.      How does innovation relate to competitive advantage? What can be done to sustain innovation?
8.      How does customer relations contribute to competitive advantage? What is the effect of customer relations on value creation and its components?
9.

Assignment 2

Chapter 3 Questions:

10. Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?

Question 33: Health Care

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

Question 34: Health Care

NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment
NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment

Question 35: Health Care

Week 1 Discussion Nurs 6051 Transforming Nursing and Healthcare Through Technology

Question 36: English

Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care” Please respond to the following:
⦁ From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
⦁ Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.

Question 37: History

Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America from Reconstruction Through the 1920’s

Question 38: History

Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points

You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidents from the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Question 39: Gender Studies

Question 40: Gender studies

Apply information from the Aquifer Case Study to answer the following discussion questions:
⦁ Discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.
⦁ Describe the physical exam and diagnostic tools to be used for Mr. Payne. Are there any additional you would have liked to be included that were not?
⦁ Please list 3 differential diagnoses for Mr. Payne and explain why you chose them. What was your final diagnosis and how did you make the determination?
⦁ What plan of care will Mr. Payne be given at this visit, include drug therapy and treatments; what is the patient education and follow-up?

discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.

Question 41: Chemistry

Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models

Question 42: Geology

Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
⦁ The development of using slaves for labor
⦁ Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
⦁ Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.

Question 43: Geology

Describe the additional complications facing an MNC compared with a domestic corporation when it is evaluating a capital budgeting project. Why should an MNC’s capital budgeting decision be based on the parent’s results rather than those of the subsidiary? Is an MNC generally faced with incurring double taxation on its profits in the subsidiary’s country? Why or why not?

Question 44: Urban Planning and Policy

Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
⦁ How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
⦁ Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
⦁ How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),

How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?

Question 45: Computer Science

Question 47: Biology

Question 48: General Question

Assignment 4 HR Training Class New Employee Customer Service Training

Imagine that you are a member of the HR department of a small retail company and upper management has asked you to create a new employee customer service training class for all new employees.

Write a six to seven (6-7) pages paper in which you:

1. Justify the use of a needs assessment of your company’s proposed employee customer service training, stressing five (5) ways in which such an assessment would expose any existing performance deficiencies.

2. Develop a customer service training implementation plan and determine the method of training (i.e., presentation, discussion, case study, discovery, role play, simulation, modeling, or on-the-job training).

3. Justify why you selected the training method that you did.

4. Propose two (2) ways to motivate an employee who has no interest in attending a training class.

5. Develop a survey to collect feedback from the employees who attend the training.

6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Question 49: Engineering

Read the article “Cognitive Effects of Risperidone in Children with Autism and Irritable Behavior”, and identify the research questions and/or hypotheses as they are stated. Consider the following questions: What are the variables (sample sizes, population, treatments, etc.)? How was the analysis of variance used in this article (and what type of ANOVA was used)?
Write a two- to three-page paper presenting the information listed below. In addition, provide a title page and reference page in APA style. Cite any references made to the article within the body of the paper in APA style. Your paper should begin with an introductory paragraph (including a thesis statement) and end with a concluding paragraph summarizing the major points made in the body of the paper and reaffirming the thesis.
The body of your paper must:
1.   Determine what question(s) the authors are trying to answer by doing this research.
2.   Determine the hypothesis being tested and the concepts that were applied in this process.
3.   Evaluate the article and critique the statistical analysis employed in the study. Would you have included more and/or different variables? Explain your answer.
4.   Examine the assumptions and limitations of the statistical study. What would you have done differently in this case? Explain your answer.
5.   Identify how the authors applied statistical testing to the problem.
6.   Interpret the findings of the author(s) using statistical concepts.

Question 50: Engineering

assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1.   Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2.   Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3.   Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4.   Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5.   Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6.   Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Question 51: Astronomy

Crane Corp., a company whose stock is publicly traded, provides a noncontributory
defined-benefit pension plan for its employees. The company’s actuary has provided the following information for the year ended December 31, 2018:

Projected benefit obligation $622000
Accumulated benefit obligation 449000Fair value of plan assets 740000Service cost 180000Interest on projected benefit obligation 12000Amortization of prior service cost 36000Expected and actual return on plan assets 46500
The market-related asset value equals the fair value of plan assets. No contributions have been made for 2018 pension cost. In its December 31, 2018 balance sheet, Crane should report a pension asset / liability of

Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More. This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods. Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi. A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients. Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses. The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi. These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based. The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item. The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen. This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors. Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores. Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product. While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much. A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution. To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets. The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail. This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel. Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up. Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel. The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler. Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up? If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism? Why or
why not? If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel. Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market. Be specific in your response. Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter. Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products? How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix? Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
⦁ Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
⦁ If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
⦁ What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
⦁ Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁ The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
⦁ Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
⦁ Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
⦁ What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
⦁ What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
⦁ How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
⦁ What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
⦁ What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
⦁ What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
⦁ What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
⦁ What technology could be used for project communications?
⦁ At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
⦁ What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
⦁ How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
⦁ What business opportunity might project completion create?
⦁ What is the potential financial impact of the project?
⦁ What are the expected results of the project?
⦁ What value will the project add?
⦁ What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
⦁ Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
⦁ Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
⦁ Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

⦁ Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
⦁ Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
⦁ Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
⦁ Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

⦁ Requirements to Prove Under the Law
⦁ Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
⦁ Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

Question 1
⦁ After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
⦁ One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
⦁ The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
⦁ True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
⦁ The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
⦁ An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
⦁ A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
⦁ A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
⦁ During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
⦁ During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
⦁ A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
⦁ A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
⦁ The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
⦁ A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
⦁ A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
⦁ A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
⦁ During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
⦁ The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
⦁ At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
⦁ The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
⦁ A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
⦁ The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
⦁ A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
⦁ True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
⦁ A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
⦁ The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
⦁ A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
⦁ When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
⦁ A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
⦁ A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
⦁ The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
⦁ The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
⦁ In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
⦁ Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
⦁ The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
⦁ A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
⦁ An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations. (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3. The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4. When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5. The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6. Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7. The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8. The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9. When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10. Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12. The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13. A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14. Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15. Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16. What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17. During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18. When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19. The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20. The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22. A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23. Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24. A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25. A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26. A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27. In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28. The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29. The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30. Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1. A = first-level priority problem

2. B = second-level priority problem

3. C = third-level priority problem

MSC: Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT: First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
⦁ What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
⦁ What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
⦁ How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
⦁ Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
⦁ Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
⦁ What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
⦁ What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
⦁ What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
⦁ What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
⦁ By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
⦁ By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
⦁ By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
⦁ It improves the performance of the employee.
⦁ It helps in reducing employee turnover.
⦁ It helps in boosting the performance of the company.

References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
1
Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

⦁ (1) A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
⦁ (2) A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
⦁ (3) A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (4) A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (5) A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
2
studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
⦁ All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
⦁ Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
⦁ Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
⦁ Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
⦁ Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
3
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
⦁ Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
⦁ Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
⦁ Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
⦁ If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
⦁ If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
4
get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
⦁ You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
⦁ It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
⦁ Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
⦁ Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
⦁ All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
5

the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
6
assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
⦁ Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
⦁ Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
⦁ Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
⦁ Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
7

for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
⦁ i) Title Page:
⦁ Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
⦁ Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
⦁ Team Members
⦁ Originality Statement
⦁ ii) Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
⦁ Purpose:
⦁ The Business Opportunity
⦁ The Product
⦁ Main Findings:
⦁ The Market Strategy
⦁ The Management Team
⦁ Profit and Cash Projections
⦁ Investment Needs
⦁ Returns to Investors
⦁ Conclusions and Recommendations
⦁ iii) Table of Contents
⦁ iv) Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
⦁ The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
⦁ Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
8
your situation as possible.
⦁ What products and services do we deliver?
⦁ Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
⦁ Which customer groups are our primary groups?
⦁ Where are our primary customers
⦁ What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
⦁ What is our competitive advantage?
⦁ What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
⦁ Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
⦁ Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
⦁ Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
⦁ Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
⦁ Goal One
⦁ Goal Two
⦁ Goal Three
⦁ Goal Four
⦁ Goal Five
⦁ Goal Six
⦁ Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
9
Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
⦁ Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
⦁ A brief history of the business
⦁ Corporate and business cultures
⦁ Nature of the business and it main activities
⦁ Location
⦁ Current stage in its life cycle
⦁ Past performance and key achievements
⦁ Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
⦁ Relationships with key stakeholders
⦁ Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
⦁ Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
⦁ Industry
⦁ Markets, Customers and Suppliers
⦁ Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
⦁ What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
⦁ Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
⦁ What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
⦁ What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
⦁ What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
⦁ What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
⦁ What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
⦁ How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
⦁ Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
⦁ Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
10
⦁ What are their decision criteria?
⦁ Where are the products bought?
⦁ How are the products bought?
⦁ When are the products bought?
⦁ Why are the products bought?
⦁ How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
⦁ How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
⦁ What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
⦁ In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
⦁ How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
⦁ What are you going to do about their responses?
⦁ What are the major barriers to market entry?
⦁ What are the critical success factors for each market?
⦁ What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
⦁ Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

⦁ What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Describe your current and near-future products?
⦁ What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
⦁ What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
⦁ What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
⦁ What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
⦁ At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
⦁ Research completed
⦁ Prototype completed
⦁ In-house testing
⦁ Customer testing
⦁ Market ready
⦁ First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
11
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Product and Market Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
⦁ Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
⦁ Product benefits highly valued by the customer
⦁ Product promotion
⦁ Customer communication, interaction and feedback
⦁ Product support for the life of the product
⦁ Customer service
⦁ Product pricing and purchasing
⦁ Product presentation and packaging
⦁ Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
⦁ Sources of R&D
⦁ Current and planned
⦁ Strategic alliances for R&D
⦁ Intellectual Property Protection
⦁ Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
⦁ Shared intellectual property and its protection
⦁ Intellectual property being used, but not owned
⦁ Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

12
⦁ Current and planned R&D activities
⦁ Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
⦁ Plant design, location, size and site requirements
⦁ Access to key manufacturing technologies
⦁ Production capacity and capability requirements
⦁ Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
⦁ In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
⦁ The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
⦁ Equipment needs
⦁ Inventory management
⦁ Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
⦁ Product and production costings
⦁ Purchasing systems
⦁ Quality control systems
⦁ Manufacturing resources planning
⦁ Material requirements planning
⦁ Warehousing
⦁ Scheduling and dispatch
⦁ Material supplies and inventory
⦁ Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
⦁ Risk management
⦁ Key staffing and skills requirements
⦁ Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
⦁ Work systems and teams for staff
⦁ Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
⦁ Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
⦁ Benchmarking and best-practice
13
8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Supply Chain Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
⦁ Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
⦁ Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
⦁ Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
⦁ Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
⦁ Financial management
⦁ Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
⦁ Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
⦁ Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
⦁ Employee performance and morale
⦁ Stakeholder relationships
⦁ Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
14
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
⦁ Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
⦁ Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
⦁ Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
⦁ Are they regularly consulted?
⦁ Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
⦁ Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
⦁ The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
⦁ Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
⦁ Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
⦁ Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
⦁ Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
⦁ Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
⦁ Encouraging innovation across the company
⦁ Providing leadership and building morale
⦁ Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
⦁ Occupational health and safety
⦁ Industrial relations
⦁ Wages and on-costs
⦁ Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Environmental and Social Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
15
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
⦁ Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
⦁ Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
⦁ Corporate governance
⦁ Taxation
⦁ Superannuation
⦁ Employing staff
⦁ Health and safety
⦁ Trade Practices
⦁ Intellectual Property Rights
⦁ Environmental Issues
⦁ The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
⦁ Corporate Structures
⦁ Company Constitution
⦁ Board of Directors – Size and Composition
⦁ Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
⦁ Board Performance
⦁ Advisors to the Board
⦁ Shareholder Agreements
⦁ Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
⦁ What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
⦁ Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
⦁ How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
⦁ What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
⦁ Key Strategic Goal
⦁ Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
⦁ Strategies to achieve each objective
⦁ Task Plans to achieve each strategy
⦁ Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
17
key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
⦁ Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
⦁ Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
18

Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

⦁ Initial Registration
⦁ The possible creation of easements
⦁ The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
⦁ The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
⦁ Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

Question 1: General Questions

Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest

Question 2: General Questions

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University

Question 3: General Questions

NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019

Question 4: General Questions

HIEU 201 Chapter 2 quiz: Liberty University 1. The biblical account of the Exodus identifies ________ as leading the Hebrews out of Egypt 2. Under the rule of David’s son Solomon, 3. The Old Testament 4. The Hebrews thought of Yahweh as 5. Which of the following describes the Hebrews’ relationship with the natural world? 6. In the history of the Hebrew people, the covenant has served to 7. The historical significance of Israelite law was that it 8. The Hebrews regarded history as 9. During the flowering of the prophetic movement, the Hebrew prophets 10. All of the following is true of universalism in Hebrew thought EXCEPT 11. The first five books of the Old Testament are known as the 12. The Hebrews originated in 13. During the eleventh century B.C., the leadership of Saul united the ________ Hebrew tribes in Canaan. 14. After the fall of Israel to the Assyrians in 722 B.C. 15. The Hebrews’ concept of Yahweh 16. Which of the following is a fundamental Hebrew belief about the individual? 17. The Hebrews’ belief in moral responsibility resulted from 18. The Old Testament discussed slaves 19. Under Hebrew law, within the family 20. The legacy of the ancient Jews includes all of the following EXCEPT

Question 5: Business

State of Estates” is a national estate planning firm with 2,500 employees in eight states.

Research, as a team, three relevant court cases on age discrimination.
⦁ SUPREME COURT OF THE UNITED STATES GOMEZ-PEREZ v. POTTER, POSTMASTER GENERAL
⦁ Texas Roadhouse to Pay $12 Million to Settle EEOC Age Discrimination Lawsuit
⦁ Jury awards more than $800,000 in an age-discrimination case

Design a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes for the senior management team at “State of Estates” to train them on the following topics:

⦁ The concept of “BFOQ” and how it applies to age

Give examples of how this concept has been applied to employment situations involving the age of the employee.

Question 6: Business

Strayer University – BUS 499BUS 499 Assignment 3 Business Level and Corporate Level Strategies ( IKEA )
In this assignment, you are to use the same corporation you selected and focused on for Assignments 1 and 2.
Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.

Question 7: Business

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own
Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
⦁ Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
⦁ Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
⦁ Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
⦁ Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

Question 8: Business

CSIA 360 case 4 Public-Private Partnership

Cybersecurity Public-Private Partnership, participate or not participate?
CISA 360Cybersecurity in Government Organizations

Question 9: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
· The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 10: Business

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 11: Business

Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.
Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 12: Health Care

NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 6 Quiz (2018)-Walden University Question 1 A 9-year-old male contracted influenza. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern to the nurse? Question 2 An 11-year-old female presents with a low-grade fever and cough. She is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. What type of pneumonia does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? Question 3 A 42-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he suffered a severe head injury. He died shortly after the accident from loss of respiration. The nurse suspects the area of the brain most likely involved is the: Question 4 A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment? Question 5 A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? Question 6 A 7-month-old male presents with cystic fibrosis (CF) accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent, loose, and oily stools. Sweat testing reveals increased chloride. Which of the following should the nurse observe for that would accompany this disease? Question 7 A 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes.

Question 13: Mathematics

⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) first.
⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) second.
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 14: Finance

As we discussed, there are four main factors that to go into loan pricing for financial institutions. As a bank manager, you are most concerned with the fourth factor that is the profit margin. Explain how the inflation and the interest rates are important when calculating the potential profit margin. Do any of these factors change if the loan is a fixed interest rate versus a variable interest rate? Your response must be at least 75 words in length.

Question 15: Finance

Deposit insurance is one safeguard that has been implemented against a potential bank run. After the financial crisis, the Federal Reserve increased the amount of money insured from $100,000 to $250,000. A bank customer has asked you why the increase was made and what this means for her money at your bank. Explain to the customer how the increase was a tool used by the Federal Reserve to help control the money supply, and discuss the benefits this brings to the customer. Your response must be at least 75 words in length

Question 16: Health Care

HER Security issue concerns

Assignment.

One of the best ways to learn about a subject is to discuss it with those who work in the industry. You can learn first-hand the real-world pros and cons of EHR security issues.

For this assignment, you will write a 1.5 – 2.0 page paper analyzing the issues surrounding what you discovered that are security concerns and issues are with EHR. In doing so the format should be written as if you gathered information from a manager of Health IT department.

Paper Topic:

⦁ What are the safety and security issues they see surrounding the use of electronic health systems technology?

Questions:

You are to create the questions and answer questions through research that revolve around password protections, internal information thefts, outside hacking, HIPAA concerns, ransomware, employee use of personal emails, PHI concerns, or any other avenues you care to explore.

Provide analysis and additional outside research to support the concerns. You will be graded on your strength of choice of interviewee, the depth of your questioning, outside research, and the structure of your write up.
.

Question 17: Engineering

Questions are on chegg website

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/batch-production-unit-part-produced-result-6-operations-raw-material-cost-part-450-30-part-q39537037

Question 18: English

Argumentative essay on the immigration system of the US and if it works or doesn’t work 1,300 words

Question 19: Health Care

Instruction
A. Identify a current nursing practice within your healthcare setting that requires change. Note: You can describe your setting without identifying it by name and begin to introduce the specific problem that you will be addressing. 1. Describe the current nursing practice. Note: Describe the current practice and what may be wrong with the current practice that is resulting in the identified problem. 2. Discuss why the current nursing practice needs to be changed. B. Identify the key stakeholders within your healthcare setting who are part of the current nursing practice. 1. Describe the role each identified key stakeholder will play to support the proposed practice change. Note: These are the individuals who will make up the team to plan, implement and evaluate the change. C. Create an evidence critique table (see “Sample Evidence Critique Table”). Note: Insert your evidence critique table into your paper. 1. Identify five sources from scholarly peer-reviewed journals, which adhere to the following standards: a. Each source must be published within the past five years. b. Each source must relate to the change identified in part A. c. Each source must be listed in the table using APA format. 2. Identify the evidence strength of each chosen source, using the Strength of Evidence information in the study plan. 3. Identify the evidence hierarchy of each chosen source, using the Evidence Hierarchy information in the study plan. D. Develop an evidence summary based on the findings from part C that includes each of the five sources used (suggested length of 1–2 pages for all sources). Note: Create one well developed paragraph for each article which includes the purpose, methods or study design, results or conclusions and how the article supports the practice change recommendation. E. Recommend a specific best practice based on the evidence summary developed in part D. F. Identify a practice change model that is appropriate to apply to the proposed practice change. Note: Identify the model that you have chosen and give a brief description of how it is generally used. 1. Justify why you chose the practice change model and how it is relevant to the proposed practice change. 2. Explain how to apply the identified model to guide the implementation of the proposed practice change. Note: Clearly articulate how the model will be used to guide change and address each step individually and with specific detail. G. Discuss possible barriers to successful implementation of the proposed practice change. H. Discuss any possible ethical implications that may arise while planning or implementing the proposed practice change. Note: Describe which ethical principle(s) or ANA Code of Ethics provision(s) speaks to, or supports, your practice change and why. I. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

Attention
If you want to edit this document,
go to the file tab (upper left), click download as, click Microsoft Word, and then save the document.

Title of Paper
Student Name (no credentials)
Western Governors University
Title of Paper – centered (no bolding or underlining) on 1st Page
SEE LAST PAGE FOR TEMPLATE NOTE

Professional Practice Description
Key Stakeholders
Evidence Critique Table
Full APA citation for 5 sources.
Include doi or url. Evidence Strength (I-VII) and
Evidence Hierarchy
Chan, H. Y., Dai, Y. T., & Hou, C. (2016). Evaluation of a tablet-based instruction of breathing technique in patients with COPD. International Journal of Medical Informatics, 94, 263-270. https://doi-org.wgu.idm.oclc.org/10.1016/j.ijmedinf.2016.06.018
Level II, RCT
Piamjariyakul, U., Werkowitch, M., Wick, J., Russell, C., Vacek, J. L., & Smith, C. E. (2015). Caregiver coaching program effect: Reducing heart failure patient rehospitalizations and improving caregiver outcomes among African Americans. Heart & Lung – The Journal of Acute and Critical Care, 44(6), 466-473. Retrieved from:
http://www.sciencedirect.com.wgu.idm.oclc.org/science/article/pii/S0147956315001843
Level II, RCT

Evidence Summary
Evidence-Based Practice Recommendation
Practice Change Model
Potential Barriers
Ethical Considerations
References
Provide a reference in APA format for all in-text citations.
TEMPLATE NOTE:
This template provides a guide for graduate-level, scholarly papers that require APA style and formatting (American Psychological Association, 2010). The recommended font style is Times New Roman, and the font size is 12. Margins are set at one inch for top, bottom, left, and right.
Always begin your paper with an introductory paragraph or section that includes the purpose of your paper and what will be written in the paper – it may be helpful to write the paper first, then go back and write the introduction. The introduction should be included in the paper but does not require an introduction heading. Each content area/section of the paper should have a heading.
To follow is the recommended format for your title page and section headings consistent with APA format. The Title page is a separate page. Each section should include sufficient detail to meet the task requirements. All paragraphs should have at least three sentences. The References page is a separate page at the end of the paper.

Question 20: Other

Week 8- Assignment: Prepare a Revised Literature Review and Reflection

Instruction
This assignment has two components that will be submitted as one final comprehensive document: Part 1: Revise your literature review paper. Using the feedback and comments you received from your professor on the first draft of the literature review in Week 6, revise and edit the paper to reflect that feedback and incorporate all comments. Use the Track Changes option to indicate how you have incorporated the feedback, and use the Insert Comment option to indicate those areas where you have identified a need to revise further, where you have made recommended changes, and where you have made other adjustments based on what you have learned about scholarly writing throughout this course. Part 2: Prepare a reflection to include as an appendix to your literature review. Prepare a brief reflection paper in which you note any remaining questions and concerns that you may have about becoming an effective scholarly writer. Discuss areas of strengths and areas for further growth and development. Identify at least five resources available to NCU students to further enhance your writing skills and note how you will use them in the future. Part 1 Length: 12-15 pages Part 2 (appendix) Length: 2-3 pages Total Length: 14-18 pages, not including title and reference pages Your submission should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards.

Question 21: Other

Week 7- Assignment: Present your Research Findings

Instruction

Using the topic from Weeks 1 and 2, prepare a PowerPoint presentation suitable for an introductory psychology course that would be offered to undergraduate students. Your presentation should include the following: Be sure to include a title slide. Introduce your audience to the topic. Provide an overview and background information on the topic. Explain at least three key points about the topic. Discuss at least two research findings presented in your research articles. Summarize the key points. Your final slide(s) should be your reference slide(s). Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Speaker’s notes are located underneath the slide itself (where you see “click to add notes”). Support your presentation with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases on each slide with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

Question 22: Other

Week 6- Assignment: Prepare a Literature Review

Instruction

Prepare a literature review that addresses the topic you have been working on throughout this course. Remember, you likely have prepared literature reviews, albeit probably as sections of previous papers in your studies. The challenge for you now is that you will apply a critical eye toward what is known about the research topic and what you can identify as possible gaps in past research. Your previous assignments will offer great help to you as you put your literature review together. Specifically, you will need to: Introduce the problem. Include a clear and concise thesis statement. Provide sufficient background to the reader. Identify similarities between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the similarities. Identify differences between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the differences. Synthesize the themes and relationships you have identified in your research into the topic. Summarize the key findings of previous research. Conclude with an assessment of the status of the problem being researched. Support your literature review with at least 10 references from scholarly resources. You may incorporate the 10 resources you have used in other assignments as well as include other resources you have located throughout the course. Length: 8-10 pages, not including title and reference pages Your assignment should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards

homework shark, all homework help at www.homeworknest.com 2024 Study Cheat Sheet

Question 1: General

ORGANIZATIONAL THEORY GRAD LEVEL CASE STUDY

Question 1: General Question.

BSC 2347 Module 04 Quiz / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College

Question 2: General Question.

BSC 2347 Module 11 Final Exam / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 11 Final Exam (Latest): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

Question 3: General Question

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

Question 4: General Question

South University NSG6430 Final Exam 2019/ South University NSG 6430 Final Exam 2019 (Already graded A)

Question 5: General Question

Define Ecological responsibility? It was a piece of Corporate social responsibility (CSR). Explain It has turned into an overall issue as associations are under expanding weight to act in socially mindful ways. Discuss its whole critical significance to California and its “clean” and “green” picture

Question 6: Mathematics

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

Question 7: Mathematics

Techware Incorporated is considering the introduction of two new software products to the market. The company has four options regarding these two proposed products: introduce neither product, introduce product 1 only, introduce product 2 only, or introduce both products. Research and development costs for products 1 and 2 are $180,000 and $150,000, respectively. Note that the first option entails no costs because research and development efforts have not yet begun. The success of these software products depends on the trend of the national economy in the coming year and on the consumers’ reaction to these products. The company’s revenues earned by introducing product 1 only, product2 only, or both products in various states of the national economy are given in the file Final Exam Q4. The probabilities of observing a strong, fair, or weak trend in the national economy in the coming year are assessed to be 0.30, 0.50, and 0.20, respectively.

Create a payoff table that specifies Techware’s net revenue (in dollars) for each possible decision and each outcome with respect to the trend in the national economy.
Identify the strategy that maximize Techware’s expected net revenue from the given marketing opportunities.

Question 8: Mathematics

Determine the maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94 percent. Assume they have other debt payments totaling $381 per month and a combined annual income of $86,200. Monthly escrow payments for real estate taxes and homeowner’s insurance are estimated to be $113 (Assume a 36 percent maximum of annual income for total debt and escrow payments.)

The maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94% is $

Question 9: Mathematics

Math 302 Quiz 5 2019 (Already Graded A+)

Question 1 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher hypothesizes that the variation in the amount of money spent on business dinners is greater than the variation of the amount of money spent on lunches. The variance of nine business dinners was $6.12 and the variance of 12 business lunches was $0.87. What is the test value?

A.3.10

B.9.61

C.7.03

D.49.50

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pharmaceutical company is testing the effectiveness of a new drug for lowering cholesterol. As part of this trial, they wish to determine whether there is a difference between the effectiveness for women and for men. Assume α = 0.05. What is the test value?

Women Men

Sample size 50 80

Mean effect 7 6.95

Sample variance 3 4

A.t = 0.151

B.z = 0.455

C.t = 3.252

D.z = 0.081

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Members of the general adult population volunteer an average of 4.2 hours per week. A random sample of 20 female college students and 18 male college students produced the results given in the table below. At the .01 level of significance, is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a difference exists between the mean number of volunteer hours per week for male and female college students?

Females Males

Sample size 20 18

Sample mean 3.8 2.5

Sample variance 3.5 2.2

A.No, because the test value 2.38 is greater than the critical value

B.No, because the test value 2.38 does not exceed the critical value

C.No, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

D.Yes, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

Answer Key:

Part 2 of 8 – 4.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 4 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In choosing the “best-fitting” line through a set of points in linear regression, we choose the one with the:

A.smallest number of outliers

B.smallest sum of squared residuals

C.largest number of points on the line

D.largest sum of squared residuals

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A single variable X can explain a large percentage of the variation in some other variable Y when the two variables are:

A.highly correlated

B.mutually exclusive

C.directly related

D.inversely related

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Outliers are observations that

A.render the study useless

B.lie outside the typical pattern of points

C.disrupt the entire linear trend

D.lie outside the sample

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Correlation is a summary measure that indicates:

A.the strength of the linear relationship between pairs of variables

B.the rate of change in Y for a one unit change in X

C.the magnitude of difference between two variables

D.a curved relationship among the variables

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

If an estimated regression line has a Y-intercept of –7.5 and a slope of 2.5, then when X = 3, the actual value of Y is:

A.5

B.unknown

C.10

D.0

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 9 of 17 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A field researcher is gathering data on the trunk diameters of mature pine and spruce trees in a certain area. The following are the results of his random sampling. Can he conclude, at the 0.10 level of significance, that the average trunk diameter of a pine tree is greater than the average diameter of a spruce tree?

Pine trees Spruce trees

Sample size 30 35

Mean trunk diameter (cm) 45 39

Sample variance 120 140

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

Test value: 2.121 Round your answer to three decimal places.

What is the critical value?

Critical value: 1.311 Round your answer to three decimal places.

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 10 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The marketing manager of a large supermarket chain would like to determine the effect of shelf space (in feet) on the weekly sales of international food (in hundreds of dollars). A random sample of 12 equal –sized stores is selected, with the following results:

Store Shelf Space(X) Weekly Sales(Y)

1 10 2.0

2 10 2.6

3 10 1.8

4 15 2.3

5 15 2.8

6 15 3.0

7 20 2.7

8 20 3.1

9 20 3.2

10 25 3.0

11 25 3.3

12 25 3.5

Find the equation of the regression line for these data. What is the value of the standard error of the estimate? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. Do not use a dollar sign. For example, 0.345 would be a legitimate entry. 0.308

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A company has observed that there is a linear relationship between indirect labor expense (ILE) , in dollars, and direct labor hours (DLH). Data for direct labor hours and indirect labor expense for 18 months are given in the file ILE_and_DLH.xlsx

Treating ILE as the response variable, use regression to fit a straight line to all 18 data points.

Using your estimated regression output, predict the indirect labor expenses for a month in which the company has 31 direct labor hours.

Place your answer, rounded to 1 decimal place, in the blank. Do not use any stray punctuation marks or a dollar sign. For example, 458.9 would be a legitimate entry. 525.4

Answer Key:

Part 5 of 8 – 0.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 12 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Two teams of workers assemble automobile engines at a manufacturing plant in Michigan. A random sample of 145 assemblies from team 1 shows 15 unacceptable assemblies. A similar random sample of 125 assemblies from team 2 shows 8 unacceptable assemblies.

If you are interested in determining if there is sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 10% significance level, that the two teams differ with respect to their proportions of unacceptable assemblies, what is/are the critical value you would use to conduct such a test of hypothesis?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. If there are two critical values, place only the positive value in the blank. For example, 2.34 would be a legitimate entry. 1.15

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 17 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Are America’s top chief executive officers (CEOs) really worth all that money? One way to answer this question is to look at the annual company percentage increase in revenue versus the CEO’s annual percentage salary increase in that same company. Suppose that a random sample of companies yielded the following data:

percent change for corporation 15 12 3 12 28 6 8 2

percent change for CEO 6 17 -4 12 32 -1 7 2

Do these data indicate that the population mean percentage increase in corporate revenue is greater than the population mean percentage increase in CEO salary? Use a 5% level of significance. What is the critical value that you would use to conduct this test of hypothesis? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 2.345 would be a legitimate entry. 1.010

Answer Key:

Part 6 of 8 – 2.0/ 3.0 Points

Question 14 of 17 2.0/ 3.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Researchers conducted an experiment to measure the effect of a drug on improving the quality of sleep as determined by how many more minutes of REM sleep were measured for each participant. One group of participants were given the experimental drug; the other (control) group was given a placebo. Does the evidence indicate that the drug improved the amount of REM sleep at a 0.01 level of significance? Answer each of the following parts.

Experimental group Control group

sample size 35 50

mean sleep improvement 12.8 9.1

sample variance 56.3 61.2

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

Round your answer to two decimal places.

What is the P-value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

What is the conclusion of this hypothesis test? Choose one.

There is sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
There is sufficient evidence to show that the quality of sleep is different for the experimental drug than for the control drug.
There is not sufficient evidence to show that the control drug decreased the quality of sleep.

Answer:

Answer Key:

Feedback: This is a t-test of independent samples. Use the formula on page 480 to compute the t test value:

This is a right-tail test with test value t = 2.198423 and df = 34 (using the smaller sample size). The P-value is 0.0174 using TDIST(2.1983423,34,1) or the Critical Values workbook.

Because the P-value is greater than alpha (0.01), there is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.

Part 7 of 8 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 15 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In conducting hypothesis testing for difference between two means when samples are dependent (paired samples), the variable under consideration is ; the sample mean difference between the pairs.

True

False

Answer Key:

Part 8 of 8 – 2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 16 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

In a simple regression analysis, if the standard error of estimate sest = 15 and the number of observations n = 10, then the sum of the residuals squared must be 120.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 17 1.0/ 1.0 Points

To help explain or predict the response variable in every regression study, we use one or more explanatory variables. These variables are also called predictor variables or independent variables.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 10: Mathematics

Part 1 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 1 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If 25 tickets are sold and 2 prizes are to be awarded, find the probability that one person will win both prizes if that person buys exactly 2 tickets.

A.1/600

B.1/2300

C.1/300

D.1/700

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.65, then P(A and B) is:

A.0.25

B.0.90

C.0.40

D.Cannot be determined from the information given

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If one tosses a coin enough times, the proportion of “heads” will approach 0.5. This is an example of:

A.the Law of Large Numbers

B.the Empirical Rule

C.the Central Limit Theorem

D.subjective probabilities

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A furniture manufacturer offers bookcases in 5 different sizes and 3 different colors. If every color is available in every size, then the total number of different bookcases is

A.5

B.8

C.15

D.30

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = P(A|B), then events A and B are said to be

mutually exclusive

complementary

independent

exhaustive

Answer Key:

Part 2 of 6 – 5.0/ 5.0 Points

Question 6 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A multiple choice quiz consists of 6 questions, each with 4 possible answers. If a student guesses at the answer to each question, then the mean number of correct answers is

A.6.00

B.1.50

C.4.00

D.10.00

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose that 50 identical batteries are being tested. After 8 hours of continuous use, assume that a given battery is still operating with a probability of 0.70 and has failed with a probability of 0.30.

What is the probability that fewer than 25 batteries will last at least 8 hours?

A.0.0009

B.0.9991

C.0.8967

D.0.0024

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

The following data were obtained from a survey of college students. The variable X represents the number of non-assigned books read during the past six months.

x 0 1 2 3 4 5

P (X=x) 0.20 0.25 0.20 0.15 0.10 0.10

Find P( X 3)

A.0.80

B.0.85

C.0.15

D.0.20

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A die is rolled 360 times. Find the standard deviation for the number of 3s that will be rolled.

A.60

B.50

C.7.1

D.5.9

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pet supplier has a stock of parakeets of which 10% are blue parakeets. A pet store orders 3 parakeets from this supplier. If the supplier selects the parakeets at random, what is the chance that the pet store gets exactly one blue parakeet?

A.0.081

B.0.243

C.0.027

D.0.003

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 6 – 2.0/ 4.0 Points

Question 11 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total

Same 10 14 24 48

Changed 262 82 8 352

Total 272 96 32 400

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. .7443

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Find the mean of the following probability distribution.

X 1 2 3 4 5

P(X) 0.20 0.10 0.35 0.05 0.30

Round your answer to two decimal place as necessary. For example, 4.56 would be a legitimate entry.

Mean = 2.26

Answer Key:

Feedback: Mean = (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10) + (3)(0.35) + (4)(0.05) + (5)(0.30) = 3.15

Comment: This is a distribution, to find the mean, you find

E = sumx * P(x)

I have shared with you videos on how to do this in the examples in the discussion last week,

Question 13 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased Fewer Same More Total

Same 10 14 24 48

Changed 262 82 8 352

Total 272 96 32 400

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before and changed brands? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. 0.6550

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Ann is applying for a bank loan to open a pizza franchise. She must first complete a written application and then, if the written application is approved, be interviewed by bank officers. If an applicant’s written application is not approved the applicant is not granted an interview with the bank officers. Past records for this bank show that the probability of an applicant having his or her written application approved is 0.63. Records also indicate that the interviewing committee of bank officers approves 85% of the individuals they interview. Find the probability that Ann’s loan request is approved. Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.76 would be a legitimate entry. 0.54

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 6 – 4.0/ 4.0 Points

Question 15 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A restaurant menu has a price-fixed complete dinner that consists of an appetizer, entrée, beverage, and dessert. You have a choice of five appetizers, ten entrees, three beverages, and six desserts. How many possible complete dinners are possible? Place your answer, as a whole number—no decimal places—in the blank. For example 176 would be a legitimate entry 900

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

Find the probability that the ice cream was sold on a cone and was vanilla flavor.Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.34 would be a legitimate entry. 0.10

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) is a very visible group whose main focus is to educate the public about the harm caused by drunk drivers. A study was recently done that emphasized the problem we all face with drinking and driving. Five hundred accidents that occurred on a Saturday night were analyzed. Two items noted were the number of vehicles involved and whether alcohol played a role in the accident. The numbers are shown below:

Number of Vehicles Involved

Did alcohol play a role? 1 2 3

Yes 60 110 30 200

No 40 215 45 300

100 325 75

Given alcohol was involved, what proportion of accidents involved a single vehicle?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.23 is a legitimate entry. 0.30

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

Find the probability that the ice cream was strawberry flavor, given that it was sold in a cup. Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.3456 would be a legitimate entry. 0.3825

Answer Key:

Comment: You got the previous one

Part 5 of 6 – 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 19 of 20 0.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A or B) = 0.70.

True

False

Answer Key:

Part 6 of 6 – 1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 20 of 20 1.0/ 1.0 Points

True or False: The probability of a success must remain the same for each trial in a binomial experiment.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 11: Mathematics

Part 1 of 3 –

4.0/ 7.0 Points

Question 1 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The percent defective for parts produced by a manufacturing process is targeted at 4%. The process is monitored daily by taking samples of sizes n = 160 units. Suppose that today’s sample contains 14 defectives.

How many units would have to be sampled to be 95% confident that you can estimate the fraction of defective parts within 2% (using the information from today’s sample–that is using the result that )?

Question 2 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 9 production managers with over 15 years of experience has an average salary of $71,000 and a sample standard deviation of $18,000.

Question 3 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

The personnel department of a large corporation wants to estimate the family dental expenses of its employees to determine the feasibility of providing a dental insurance plan. A random sample of 12 employees reveals the following family dental expenses (in dollars): 115, 370, 250, 593, 540, 225, 177, 425, 318, 182, 275, and 228.

Construct a 99% confidence interval estimate for the standard deviation of family dental expenses for all employees of this corporation.

Place your LOWER limit, in dollars rounded to 1 decimal place, in the first blank. Do not use a dollar sign, a comma, or any other stray mark. For example, 98.4 would be a legitimate entry. 175.5

Question 4 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 5 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 6 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

Question 7 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Part 2 of 3 –

11.0/ 11.0 Points

Question 8 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 23 European countries found that the variance of life expectancy was 7.3 years. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the variance of life expectancy in Europe?

A.27.2 < < 118.3

B.5.6 < < 10.3

C.4.4 < < 14.6

D.28.9 < < 115.0

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

If you increase the confidence level, the confidence interval ____________.

A.stays the same

B.increases

C.decreases

D.may increase or decrease, depending on the sample data

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The average gas mileage of a certain model car is 26 miles per gallon. If the gas mileages are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1.3, find the probability that a randomly selected car of this model has a gas mileage between 25.8 and 26.3 miles per gallon.

A.0.15

B.0.85

C.0.70

D.0.30

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher wishes to know, with 98% confidence, the percentage of women who wear shoes that are too small for their feet. A previous study conducted by the Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons found that 80% of women wear shoes that are too small for their feet. If the researcher wants her estimate to be within 3% of the true proportion, how large a sample is necessary?

A.966

B.683

C.183

D.484

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

From a sample of 500 items, 30 were found to be defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective will be:

A..06

B.16.667

C.30

D.0.60

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The upper limit of the 90% confidence interval for the population proportion p, given that n = 100; and = 0.20 is

A.0.7342

B.0.5316

C.0.2658

D.0.4684

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A food snack manufacturer samples 15 bags of pretzels off the assembly line and weighed their contents. If the sample mean is 10.0 and the sample standard deviation is 0.15, find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true mean.

A.(9.96, 10.04)

B.(9.68, 10.32)

C.(9.97, 10.80)

D.(9.92, 10.08)

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Compute where t₂₀ has a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom.

A.0.1767

B.0.8233

C.0.6466

D.0.5334

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

At a large department store, the average number of years of employment for a cashier is 5.7 with a standard deviation of 1.8 years. If the number of years of employment at this department store is normally distributed, what is the probability that a cashier selected at random has worked at the store for over 10 years?

A.0.4916

B.0.9916

C.0.0084

D.0.0054

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?

A.Smaller sample size and higher confidence level

B.Larger sample size and lower confidence level

C.Smaller sample size and lower confidence level

D.Larger sample size and higher confidence level

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A recent study of 750 Internet users in Europe found that 35% of Internet users were women. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true proportion of women in Europe who use the Internet?

A.0.321 < p < 0.379

B.0.316 < p < 0.384

C.0.309 < p < 0.391

D.0.305 < p < 0.395

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 3 –

2.0/ 2.0 Points

Question 19 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

As a general rule, the normal distribution is used to approximate the sampling distribution of the sample proportion, , only if the sample size n is greater than 30.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A 90% confidence interval estimate for a population mean is determined to be 72.8 to 79.6. If the confidence level is reduced to 80%, the confidence interval becomes narrower.

True

False

Answer Key:

Question 12: Computer Science

Assignment 2: Forensic Lab Design
worth 100 points

Imagine the university that employs you as an information security professional has recently identified the need to design and build a digital forensic laboratory. You have been tasked with designing the lab for the organization.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

Explicate the steps you would take to plan a budget for the lab, keeping in mind the general business objective to avoid unneeded costs.
Recommend the physical requirements and controls that you would consider implementing in order to keep the lab safe and secure.
Identify at least three (3) hardware and software tools that you would include in the design of the lab and explain your reasons behind your choices.
Identify the high-level criteria that would be considered when selecting the forensic workstations to be utilized.
Describe the mandatory policies, processes, and procedures you would implement in order to maintain the lab environment and preserve evidence.
Design a floor plan for the lab using a diagramming application such as Visio or Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Open Project Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Describe the purpose and structure of a digital forensics lab.
Examine and explain the evidence life cycle.
Describe the constraints on digital forensic investigations.
Develop a computer forensics deployment plan that addresses and solves a proposed business problem.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in computer forensics.
Write clearly and concisely about computer forensics topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Question 13: Business

Assignment 1: PICOT Question and Justification

Question 14: Business

BUSI 681 BO1 LUO Quiz 8

Question 15: Business

BUSI201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019 BUSI 201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019

Question 16: Business

HESI EXIT RN EXAM V1-V7 2019

Question 17: Business

Advantages of DNA testing

1 paper of ideas

Question 18: Business

Research, Fact and Findings Documentation about private genetic testing

1 page

Question 19: Health Care

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

Question 20: Religious Studies

BIBL 105 Quiz 1 / BIBL105 Quiz 1 (3 Latest Versions) – Old Testament Survey -Liberty University (100% Correct, Already graded A)

Question 21: Mathematics

Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

Question 22: Business

Each individual student will be required to conduct two analyses of a business article, case study, or original business topic investigation and present the analysis, findings, and implications to the rest of the class. Critical analysis is required (do not simply summarize an article). Analysis should be summarized in a document. Analysis should be summarized in a 2-3 page single spaced document. The article/case can involve any topic of the student’s interest related to entrepreneurship broadly defined including new ventures, social entrepreneurship, angel investing, venture capital, corporate entrepreneurship, innovation, and others.

Question 23: General Question

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

Question 24: General Question

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

Question 25: General Question

Liberty University CSTU 101 quiz 5/ CSTU 101 Quiz 5 (Latest): Liberty University (Already graded A)

Question 26: Business

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Zane, a 26-year-old male, came upon a car accident and immediately started to help the victims, who were pinned in their car. There was blood all over the scene and Zane acted without having any personal protective equipment. While helping the victims, he cut his arms in several places on the sharp metal and shards of glass. A few weeks later, he developed flu-like symptoms that persisted for several days. He went to his clinic and tested negative for influenza.

Because of his recent exposure, Zane’s doctor was suspicious of blood borne pathogens. Which of the following disorders are blood-borne diseases?

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Lab tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in Zane’s blood. Briefly describe why there are antibodies present.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Briefly define “autoimmunity” and “immunodeficiency” in your own words. Which of these conditions is Zane more likely to develop?

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

During the primary HIV infection, which of the following cells decreases in number?

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements is true?

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

HIV is a retrovirus. Briefly describe how a retrovirus is different from other viruses.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Zane is worried about passing the virus to his friends and family. Which of the following bodily fluids can transmit HIV? (Select all that apply.)

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The initial symptoms of HIV infection are followed by clinical latency. Which of the following statements is true?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS?

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Justine, a 39-year-old female, has recently been diagnosed with lymphoma. She has a family history of several cancers, but not lymphoma. Her personal medical history includes mononucleosis, asthma, and two full-term pregnancies and vaginal births. Before her diagnosis, she had been feeling “generally sick” and felt several lumps on her neck and armpits. She had a fever that wouldn’t go away and had been waking up sweaty in the middle of the night. Microscopy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.

Based on the information given, which of the type of lymphoma does Justine have?

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Reed Sternberg cells are derived from which type of normal cell?

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Which of Justine’s symptoms signify the presence of lymphadenopathy?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Aside from the symptoms noted in Justine’s case, list and briefly describe 3 other symptoms of lymphoma.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Lymphoma is definitively diagnosed by which of the following procedures?

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s treatment?

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s diagnosis?

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which part of Justine’s case study is considered a risk factor for her diagnosis?

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Chemotherapy is a very general term for using medications to treat cancers. Briefly describe how chemotherapy would help Justine.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

How would a bone marrow transplant help treat Justine’s condition?

Question 27: General Question

NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

Question 28: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

Question 29: Business

600 words/easy money! There are various federal and state employment and labor laws protecting both employees and employers. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is the federal agency responsible for interpreting, investigating, and enforcing federal employment laws against workplace discrimination. In Week 2, you considered the legal components in a job description. In Week 4, you analyzed forms of discrimination when conducting a performance appraisal. For this discussion, you will look at protected classes identified by the EEOC. Protected classes are groups of people with common characteristics that are legally protected from employment discrimination.

Instruction

In your initial post, Describe three protected classes and the laws that exist to protect them. Explain how the EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination against a protected individual. Discuss how employers can prevent and respond to allegations of employment discrimination. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words and cite at least one scholarly source to support your response.

Question 30: Literary Studies

– Find 3 credible sources (.org, .edu, .gov or library sources) for your Final Research Essay if you haven’t already found them.

Annotated Bibliography Journal

Underneath each MLA Citation of your source include a paragraph (5-8 sentences) that explain:

What the source is about

What the author of the source gives information about or states about your text

How the information in the source relates to the literature you are examining

How or where in your essay do you plan to use this source and/or with which criticism does this source pertain to and how?

WILL PROVIDED BOOK ACCESS ONCE ASSIGNED

Case Study–Chapter 8—Century Medical-Page 336

Each question must be broken down in the following way:

Problem: (You can be brief in this summation on the overall problem)

Causes of the Problem: (Show critical thinking in your assessment)

Alternative Solutions: (Demonstrate your critical thinking with different ideas to resolve the issue while incorporating good organizational practices)

Best Alternative: (This will be your primary recommendation/solution that you believe is best)

Implementation Steps: (Detail how your recommendations might be utilized to solve the matter)

If you were Nolan, how would you approach the project at work now?

The new boss had little appreciation for all types of information. Use textbook terms to describe the type of information he embraced, and the type he rejected. How might this be

explained? How might this be changed?

In the work world, is it ever best to move on to a different way when your boss totally rejects what you believe strongly is the best approach? If, in this case, Nolan does not continue to challenge the ideas of his new boss, what would you predict will happen?

This is your CEO speaking, the above questions are just a guide, thoroughly analyze this case in terms of what you have learned in the first eight chapters of the text. What this means is you will need to look at all the aspects of each chapter we have covered and see if anything is applicable here, if so, how, this needs to be in your written paper. After your analysis, make a one paragraph recommendation (this is in addition to your analysis which needs to be on paper) to me of what you think the next steps should be for my company. No, you don’t just turn in a one paragraph paper, use the steps below to thoroughly analyze the case then give me the recommendations. Again this is just a guide, be thorough.

You need to use APA guidelines meaning you do need to cite or give me references and you will need a cover sheet, and again I want to hear what is in your head, heart and mind.

Question 2: Healthcare

Write a 300 word discussion post about current news that (a) condenses and thematically organizes the key issues from the news that pertain to environmental public health; and (b) make at least one connection to the issues or themed covered in the course readings and discussions. Pose 2 questions to launch class discussion. You will only have to create the media post one time during the semester; you will always have to complete the discussion replies. A posting schedule will be created by random selection of student names.

Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70. The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers. Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper (use template)

Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
What technology could be used for project communications?
At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
What business opportunity might project completion create?
What is the potential financial impact of the project?
What are the expected results of the project?
What value will the project add?
What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Question 1
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

2. A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3. The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

10. Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

14. Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

16. What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

MATCHING

1. A = first-level priority problem

2. B = second-level priority problem

3. C = third-level priority problem

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
It improves the performance of the employee.
It helps in reducing employee turnover.
It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Question 25: Business

Question 26: Health Care

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

Question 28: Other

(1) A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
(2) A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
(3) A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
(4) A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
(5) A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
2
studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
3
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
4
get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
5

the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
6
assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
7

for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
i) Title Page:
Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
Team Members
Originality Statement
ii) Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
Purpose:
The Business Opportunity
The Product
Main Findings:
The Market Strategy
The Management Team
Profit and Cash Projections
Investment Needs
Returns to Investors
Conclusions and Recommendations
iii) Table of Contents
iv) Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
8
your situation as possible.
What products and services do we deliver?
Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
Which customer groups are our primary groups?
Where are our primary customers
What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
What is our competitive advantage?
What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
Goal One
Goal Two
Goal Three
Goal Four
Goal Five
Goal Six
Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
9
Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
A brief history of the business
Corporate and business cultures
Nature of the business and it main activities
Location
Current stage in its life cycle
Past performance and key achievements
Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
Relationships with key stakeholders
Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
Industry
Markets, Customers and Suppliers
Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
10
What are their decision criteria?
Where are the products bought?
How are the products bought?
When are the products bought?
Why are the products bought?
How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
What are you going to do about their responses?
What are the major barriers to market entry?
What are the critical success factors for each market?
What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Describe your current and near-future products?
What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
Research completed
Prototype completed
In-house testing
Customer testing
Market ready
First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
11
Current Situation
Key Product and Market Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
Product benefits highly valued by the customer
Product promotion
Customer communication, interaction and feedback
Product support for the life of the product
Customer service
Product pricing and purchasing
Product presentation and packaging
Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
Sources of R&D
Current and planned
Strategic alliances for R&D
Intellectual Property Protection
Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
Shared intellectual property and its protection
Intellectual property being used, but not owned
Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

12
Current and planned R&D activities
Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
Plant design, location, size and site requirements
Access to key manufacturing technologies
Production capacity and capability requirements
Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
Equipment needs
Inventory management
Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
Product and production costings
Purchasing systems
Quality control systems
Manufacturing resources planning
Material requirements planning
Warehousing
Scheduling and dispatch
Material supplies and inventory
Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
Risk management
Key staffing and skills requirements
Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
Work systems and teams for staff
Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
Benchmarking and best-practice
13
8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Supply Chain Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
Financial management
Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
Employee performance and morale
Stakeholder relationships
Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
14
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
Are they regularly consulted?
Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
Encouraging innovation across the company
Providing leadership and building morale
Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
Occupational health and safety
Industrial relations
Wages and on-costs
Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Environmental and Social Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
15
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
Corporate governance
Taxation
Superannuation
Employing staff
Health and safety
Trade Practices
Intellectual Property Rights
Environmental Issues
The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
Corporate Structures
Company Constitution
Board of Directors – Size and Composition
Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
Board Performance
Advisors to the Board
Shareholder Agreements
Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
Key Strategic Goal
Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
Strategies to achieve each objective
Task Plans to achieve each strategy
Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
17
key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
18

Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

Initial Registration
The possible creation of easements
The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

Question 30: Philosophy

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Question 32: Business

Question 3: Psychology

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

Question 4: Other

Proposal for Term Project

Format: Outline 1-2 pages maximum (not including cover page)

In outline format, make sure to clearly explain your chosen research topic and your rationale for how it relates to course themes.

Students are encouraged to email their instructor in advance for support or guidance on their topics.

Annotated Bibliography

Format: APA annotated bibliography format 5-7 pages (not including cover sheet)

Noting your topic in 2-3 sentences at the top of the first page, you will then present annotations for 5 scholarly/credible sources (e.g. not social media, magazines or books made for popular audiences, etc.) related to your chosen topic. Make sure to adequately yet briefly summarize the source, and assess its credibility/application to your topic.

Final Research Paper

Format: Essay, 8-10 pages (not including cover or reference sheet), APA format

Building on the research from your annotated bibliography, and any research you have done since those submission, prepare in essay format an 8-10 page paper that provides the rationale for the topic chosen and its significance in terms of diversity/equity/resilience and practice, key findings from your research, and a conclusion that summarizes what you learned and its significance for your future community mental health practice.

Presentation/discussion of Research Paper

Students will prepare a 5-10 minute presentation of the key findings of their major research paper. This is a formal presentation, however presentation slides are optional. Students should be prepared to take questions or engage in class discussion for the last few minutes of their presentation. A hard copy of presentation notes or slides is to be submitted to the instructor at the beginning of the presentation. Presentations will be on the final class of the semester; no alternate date will be available unless the student wishes to present earlier than the scheduled date.

Praxis Assignment: Day of Social Justice/AOP

Praxis & Reflective Paper (3-4 pages)

(This assignment has been adapted from Langhout et al.’s (2013) “The Praxis Assignment: Experiential Learning in a Large Social-Community Psychology Class”, Journal of Prevention and Intervention in the Community, 41, 61-67.

Anti-oppression practice is just that—practice—not just theory. As outlined in this course, AOP is embodied at three levels: personal, relational, and on the collective level. For this assignment you will attempt to live one day embodying AOP

Part One:

For this assignment, your challenge is to live each minute of a 24-hour period embodying AOP.

not to use unearned privilege
not to participate in oppression
to enact egalitarian power structures.

When participating in this day, examine all your behavior—from what you wear, what you say, what you eat, how you interact with others, every thought, action, or word spoken.

As you do this, think carefully about each and every thing you do and ask yourself the following questions:
“What are the AOP implications of what I am doing?”
“Is there another way I should be doing or saying this that would lead to a more transformative way of being in the world?”
Do not limit yourself to the “easy” things like being nice, or giving money to a cause in front of the grocery store.

Part Two:

Write a 3-4 page reflective analysis of what the day was like for you. Address the following questions but not in Q&A form – this should read like a reflective essay:

Briefly summarize your day: How did you choose to behaviorally operationalize AOP? How does what you did relate to the concept or definition of AOP?
How did others respond to your efforts at enacting AOP?
What was the day like for you?
Why is every day not like this for you?
How does this exercise relate to your own accountability, privilege, or oppression?

This submission should reflect course themes but does not require direct integration of course theory unless you choose to integrate some to benefit your analysis.

Question 5: Other

700- to 1,050-word paper that examines the effect of legal, safety, and regulatory requirements on the human resources process. Your paper should focus on employee-related regulations established by the United States, such as the Department of Labor, the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Department of Homeland Security. Include your thoughts on the following statement: “Common sense and compassion in the workplace have been replaced by litigation.” Include at least 3 references.

Question 12: Economics

Production function that uses one variable function

Question 13: Other

Need help with an assignment must be 1500 words with 3 scholoaryly sources within the last 5 years. Must include in text citation the questions are listed below

In a narrative format, discuss the following: Were the characteristics described in this unit consistent or inconsistent with your experience/perception of African American culture? Where do a majority of your perceptions about African Americans come from? What information are you still missing to make a more complete picture?
Research reveals that young, unemployed African American and Hispanic males pay a higher punishment penalty than other types of offenders. What accounts for this?
What are some individual and organizational recommendations to improve the experiences, employment, and status of African-Americans in organizations?

Reply to jenn 100 words

During the Civil Rights era, when Blacks were protesting in certain states such as Alabama, which ended up in Washington, D.C., Law Enforcement Officers was used as a tool for segregationists governors and other leaders to interrupt protests with violent practices towards Blacks, including Whites, who protested for Civil Rights (Hohle, 2019). The role in relation to Law Enforcement Officers, for example, The leaders, such as some of the leaders of Birmingham, Alabama, had ordered the Law Enforcement Officers in Alabama, through the use of dogs, as well as the use of fire hoses, including other methods of violence, which even resulted in some deaths, attacked Civil Rights protestors that was only demonstrating for the cause of justice, along with equal treatment for all. This violent treatment has extended through the harassment of Blacks through the Jim Crow System, which was very popular, especially in places of business (Hailey, 2000). The Justice System through the courts posed a dual role, which started out as a greater problem and became a greater solution, during the Civil Rights Movement. The Court System, for example, the duel role that it demonstrated was the evolving from the backing of the Jim Crow System, to the integration of public schools through our Supreme Court, not to mention, the admission of our first Black Supreme Court Justice, Honorable Thurgood Marshall in the year of 1961, which shows a breakthrough of progress in an imperfect Court System (History, 2009). There are many imperfections in our court systems, which needs work, but because of brave groups of people that are willing to stand up in the face of injustice, which began with brave Americans as a whole, equality is slowly evolving (Graber, n.d.) Our Law Enforcement System, regardless of some flaws, has favorable points, because, most of our Law Enforcement Officers are dedicated people who are trying to keep our streets safe from criminals. Regardless of the many problems that are existent, even in both our Court Systems, along with Law Enforcement issues, we have still come along way, and still have a long way to go as long as diversity exists (McNamara, & Burns, 2009).

Reply to Jon 100 words listed below

The Civil Rights Movement has been an ongoing process throughout the United States. “The Civil Rights Movement is an umbrella term for the many varieties of activism that sought to secure full political, social, and economic rights for African Americans in the period from 1946 to 1968 (Khan, 2019).” For years African Americans were treated as being inferior to Caucasians. During these times African Americans were not allowed to eat, sleep, drink, or go to school in the same places that white people did. African Americans were rejected by the public as well as local law enforcement. On several occasions Blacks were beaten and had dogs and fire hoses turned on them by the very people who took an oath to protect.

Law enforcement during the civil rights movement was used as a scare tactic. During protests they stood with batons, weapons draw, and/or dogs waiting to unleash terror on African Americans who were peacefully protesting. During the Birmingham Campaign in May of 1963, “Police dogs, held by officers, jump at a man with torn trousers during a non-violent demonstration (Bond-Nelms, C., 2018).” Even though slavery was over the hatred still lingered on. Even after the Supreme Court stepped in, Whites still did not want to conform to the fact that blacks were no longer considered slaves.

The landmark case during the civil rights movement was Brown v. Board of Education. Once schools were desegregated whites still did not want to go to school with blacks and blacks were kept out of these schools. In this case “the Court reasoned that the segregation of public education based on race instilled a sense of inferiority that had a hugely detrimental effect on the education and personal growth of African American children (Brown, 2019).” The Court stepped up to the place and put an end to segregation which would allow blacks to receive the same education as their white counterparts.

Reference

Question 14: Business

This is geared towards a teams in my class.

Team Leadership Development Plan Part B: Post-Course Assessment

Articulate 3 development goals and propose a plan for meeting those goals in the future

Question 15: Mathematics

1.
Use properties of exponents to rewrite each of the following complex numbers in a simpler form.
where e = euler’s number and i the sqrt(-1)

e^(ix) *e(iy)
e^(ix)^n
(e^(ix))/(e^(iy))

This is for precalculus with BYU.

I believe the problem wants me to convert the complex numbers into polar form but I have no idea. I could really use a full explanation.

Question 16: Engineering

Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below

Cost Analysis and Bidding- Graduate Students Assignment 3 Q1: If 1,490 compacted cubic yards of in-place soil is required for a project, how many loads of import will be required? The import material has a swell of 14 percent and shrinkage of 95 percent. The trucks can haul 12 loose cubic yards. Q2: Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below. A two-foot working distance is required and the excavation will be sloped 1:1.75 (1.75 vertical feet for every horizontal foot). Also, determine the amount of backfill needed for the continuous footing and foundation in compacted cubic yards. Q3: An asphalt paving crew is used to pave a 500-foot by 300-foot parking lot. The parking lot will be paved in 12-foot-wide strips running the long (500-foot) direction. The machine paves 11 lineal feet of 12-foot-wide parking lot per minute. A single lift of asphalt will be used on the parking lot. After completing a pass, it takes the crew 10 minutes to turn the paving machine around and get ready for the next pass. The crew consists of a foreperson, six operators, and a laborer. Using a system efficiency of 50 minutes per hour, determine the number of labor hours required to place 1 lineal foot of parking lot 12 feet wide.

Question 17: Finance

As a pratical matter, East Coast Yachts is unlikely to be willing to raise external equity captital, in part because the owners don’t want to dilute their existing ownership and control positions. However, East Coast Yachts is planning for a growth rate of 20 percent next year. What are your conclusions and recommendations about the feasibility of East Coast’s expansion plans?

Sales

Cost of goods sold

Other expenses

Depreciation

Earnings before interest and taxes

Interest

Taxable income

Taxes (40%)

Net income

Dividends $4,759,301

Addition to retained earnings $11,103,499

$210,900,000

148,600,000

25,192,400

6,879,000

$30,229,800

3,791,000

$26,483,000

10,575,200

$15,862,800

Asset		Liabilities

Current Asset		Current liabilities
Cash	3,285,600	Account payable	$ 6,977,700
Account receivable Inventory	5,910,800 6,627,300	Note payable Total	14,342,600 21,320,300
Total Fixed Assets	$15,823,700	Long-term debt Owner’s equity	36,400,000
Net plant and equipment	$101,481,200	Common stock and paid- in surplus	5,580,000
		Retained earnings	54,004,600
Total asset	117,304,900	Total Total liabilities and equity	59,584,600 117,304,900

Question 18: Other

Need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholarly sources must include in text citation.. Question is listed below.

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

Question 19: Mathematics

An insurance company sells automobile liability and collision insurance. Let X denote the percentage of liability policies that

Question 20: Other

need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholoary sources must have in text citation as well the question is listed below

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

Question 21: Finance

Q (5 pts) A bank purchased $ 250 mln cap of 6% at a premium of 0.50% of face value. A $ 250 mln floor of 3% is also available at 0.40% of face value.
If interest rates rise to 7% what is the amount received by the bank? What is the net saving after deduction of the premium?
If the bank purchased also the floor what are the net savings if interest rates rise to 9%?
What are the net savings if interest rates fall to 3%?

Show calculations

Question 22: Business

300-500 words (Tesla)

Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Give examples of how Tesla addresses:

Corporate Social Responsibility (2 examples required)
Environmental Sustainability (2 examples required)

If they are not involved In any activities, suggest what they might best become involved in. Be specific with concrete examples. Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Question 23: History

Why was the Civil War fought? Was it unavoidable or could you propose a solution that would have spared bloodshed?

Question 24: Other

2 pages give a description of the Toronto Raptors team and metrics
used to evaluate its effectiveness…..

Question 25: Other

Need help with an assignment must reply 100 words listed below.

Reply to Brandon Cart 100 words

The eyes of criminal justice should be blind regarding “race, creed or color” (Weedmark); but their eyes should be kept open to respond appropriately to the differences in culture. Training is essential for all aspects of criminal justice in order to learn how to interact with different cultures. Social diversity is more widespread in criminal justice than any other profession. The American Bar Association reported that African American males have a higher incarceration and is likely to serve time in prison. Whereas, the rate is lower for Hispanic and white males (Weedmark).

Social awareness is important because criminal justice professionals must understand multicultural differences. When a certain group of people feel they are being alienated by the criminal justice system due to disparities, their distrust of the system is will likely increase (Weedmark).

In addition, there has always been tension between the United States regarding people of different “races, ethnicity, sexual orientation and religion” (McNamara & Burns 2009). The belief of America being a society that mixes individuals from all backgrounds and cultures in a positive manner is inaccurate. Certain cultures who do not have certain power as a dominant group, feel they are treated differently and unjustly (McNamara & Burns 2009).

When law enforcement agencies are constantly singling out certain individuals due to their race or ethnicity (racial profiling), they are likely to have a negative view of law enforcement. If the citizens feel law enforcement cannot be trusted or will act unjustly, officers will “lose their ability and authority to function effectively” (Race, Trust and Police Legitimacy 2016).

Quality treatment is important because individuals tend to base their opinions regarding law enforcement by their personal experiences with them. If the encounter was a bad experience, they are likely to tell others about the encounter; which will cause many to form a negative view of law enforcement due to experiences of others (Horowitz 2007)

Re3ply to Melinda 100 words listed below

Diversity is a concept that people can embrace to increase their knowledge of different cultures to enhance being comfortable interacting and communicating with other people from different cultures (McNamara & Burns, 2009). Diversity is not an inherent characteristic of anyone, regardless of the person’s race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or gender. Diversity is based on an individual’s ability and openness to learning. Diversity is a belief that promotes incorporating various cultures within a society’s major institutions (Yockey, 2019). This idea is usually applied to the demographics of different major organizations of cities, neighborhoods, businesses, and schools (Yockey, 2019). In a society that practices diversity, a school would represent the demographic makeup of the population of that area. The school’s population would mirror the same statistical breakdown as the population (Yockey, 2019). When diversity exists in an environment, there is a diverse presence of individuals, all of whom represent unique and different attitudes, beliefs, and characteristics.

Culture is the shared norms, behaviors, and values that are shared by people and passed on generationally over lifetimes (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity in the criminal justice system would reflect certain attributes such as advocacy of equal respect given to the various cultures in society, promotion of the maintenance of cultural diversity, and policies in which people of various ethnic and religious groups are addressed by the authorities that are defined by the group to which they belong (Bronsther, 2019). Cultural diversity avoids presenting any specific ethnic, religious, or cultural values as central. Culture signifies a custom of shared beliefs that are held by people who belong to the same group and their social interaction is regulated by norms that are primarily determined by their culture (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity is necessary for all areas of criminal justice because if society does not see all citizens in this country as Americans, then stereotypes of cultures, practices, and racial characteristics will persist (Bronsther, 2019). This will result in the continued mistreatment of people because of poor or misunderstood values, attitudes, and beliefs of members of different groups.

The criminal justice system in the United States is viewed as a functioning group of agencies that respond to and process crimes and criminals. This system relies on humans participating and interacting with one another to dispense justice fairly for all (Entrikin, 2019). When individuals working in the system interpret the laws and procedures with their personal ethnocentric views, this creates a bias against people with different cultural beliefs (Entrikin, 2019). One example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement is the way Middle Eastern people are mistreated or ostracized since the 9/11 attacks on the United States. Some people behave as if all Muslims are terrorists and treat them all as terrorists. The United States is definitely a blended society more than other countries, but not necessarily blended cohesively.

References:

Bronsther, J. (2019). Torture and respect. Journal of Criminal Law & Criminology, 109(3), 423-490. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2246152015?accountid=56725

Entrikin, J. L. (2019). The death of common law. Harvard Journal of Law and Public Policy, 42(2), 351-487. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2215510088?accountid=56725

McNamara, R. H., & Burns, R. G. (2009). Multiculturalism in the criminal justice system. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.

Question 26: Psychology

Question 27: Psychology

Essay 1 Questions

Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 1 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

In this question you will make up an experiment using classical conditioning. Please create an example using the following scenario.

Explain how you would evoke a startle response (reflex) using classical conditioning in an unsuspecting friend using an abnormal signal (produces the reflex). Describe your friend’s reflex response and a signal that will produce that reflex response; then choose another signal for the reflex and predict the outcome of using that signal. Clearly label the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), Unconditioned Response (UCR), Conditioned Stimulus (CS), and Conditioned Response (CR). Include a description of the setting and process for this hypothetical situation. Below is an abbreviated example.

For example, every time your roommate opens the refrigerator door you make an alarm goes off on your phone and the roommate jumps. After this happens several times, the roommate will jump when they open the refrigerator door even without the alarm going off.

Signal (NS)	Opening the refrigerator
UCS	Sound of an alarm
UCR	Jumps
CS	Opens refrigerator
CR	Jumps

Describe how you would use operant conditioning, with a program of shaping, to get a messy roommate to make his/her bed neatly. Include and label the antecedent stimulus, response, and reinforcement of the changing program standards, and a method of self-regulation for the roommate.

In a hypothetical psychology internship, you have encountered a child with destructive tendencies. She bites herself, her dog, and your bag of supplies. Being afraid for her safety and your own well-being, you institute a plan to change her behavior. Suggest a punishment, with her possible reactions to that punishment. Then, try substituting an alternative behavior by reinforcing an incompatible response. Label the antecedent stimulus for the biting response, Punishment I or II, escape or avoidance, and the reinforcement for the new named response. What do you consider to be the best theory or method for improving this child’s behavior?

Give an example of a situation where you can model more effective behavior for someone whom you could positively influence. Describe in detail: yourself (the model), the observer, the behavior, and the reinforcement using at least 5 principles of Social Learning Theory.

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Question 28: Business

I need understanding of what to do.. I’m not sure how to start it and I have a hard time understanding what exactly what to do with this Microsoft Project Software for this particular project.

I need a tutorial if possible.

Project Instructions

The project for this class is the “Red Zuma Project,” discussed in the Larson and Gray textbook pg 621. Refer to your textbook for all instructions for this assignment. This project will be divided into 2 submissions:

Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

You must submit a Microsoft Word file that contains properly labeled sections, (that includes appropriate screen shots from Microsoft Project), answers all the questions, AND contains all your completed Microsoft Project files.

It is very important that you label your work as you are answering the questions and preparing your various tables, charts, and diagrams. Credit will only be given to the work that is clearly marked and organized.

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

Question 29: Psychology

Discussion Board Forum 3– MUST BE 300 words

Dual-Store Model of Memory

Question/Prompt: Discuss all 3 components of the Dual-Store Model of Memory. Give an example of the development of a piece of information through all 3 structures of your memory according to the Dual-Store Model. At each stage, give the verbal or visual stimulus and the cognitive processing for transferring information between stages. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

Question 30: Business

Write a four to six 4 page paper in which you:

Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.

Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 3 Assignment 1

Student Full Name

Strayer University

BUS499 Business Administration Capstone

Dr. Grizzell

Dr. Gardner

Date

Everything in Blue should be deleted

Due Week 3 and worth 115 points

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. For a list of companies you can choose from, go to https://www.forbes.com/top-public-companies/list/5/#tab:overall . Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.

Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!

Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.

Week 3 Assignment 1

Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this introduction.

Globalization

Thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how your chosen company has been involved in expanding globally, how it has been impacted by global competition, and the global economy. Do not simply define the term globalization. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact globalization has had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the globalization concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about globalization in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company has locations in other countries, do not simply list the various countries in which the company does business. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted your chosen corporation. Do not Google “globalization” or simply provide a definition. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation.

Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the globalization concepts covered in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Globalization that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Technology

Thoroughly assess how technological changes have impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how the company has been impacted by cloud computing, social media, crowdfunding, program apps, email, texting, websites, mobile, automation, robotics, IOT (Internet of Things), AI (Artificial Intelligence), e-commerce, data and analytics, etc. Research how the company may have been impacted by diffusion and disruptive technologies as explained in the textbook. Do not simply define the term technology. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact changes in technology have had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concept of technology covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about technology in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company is technologically advanced, do not simply list the various technologies they possess but rather evaluate how changes in technology have impacted the corporation. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Do not Google “technology” or simply provide a definition. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how changes in technology have impacted your chosen corporation.

Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the technology concepts covered in this course. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Technology that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Industrial Organization Model

Thoroughly apply the industrial organization model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). This model is based upon the corporation’s external environment which is anything outside of the corporation that can influence or impact its business (macro)/operations (micro). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn above average returns (hint: see figure 1.2 in the textbook). Do not Google “Industrial Organization Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Resource-Based Model

Thoroughly apply the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). Consider the corporation’s unique resources (corporate culture, land, location, equipment, brand, reputation, trademarks, patents, etc.) and capabilities (skills, experience, capabilities, etc. that set it apart from its competition). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn superior returns (hint: see figure 1.3 in the textbook). Do not Google “Resource-Based Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Vision

Thoroughly assess how the vision statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual vision statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding vision in your assessment of your selected corporation’s vision statement. Do not simply provide a definition of vision or general statements. In addition to the actual vision statement for your corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of vision, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s vision statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on vision that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Mission

Thoroughly assess how the mission statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual mission statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding mission in your assessment of your selected corporation’s mission statement. Do not simply provide a definition of mission or general statements. In addition to the mission statement of your selected corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of mission, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s mission statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on mission that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Stakeholders

Thoroughly evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of your selected corporation. Do not Google “stakeholders” and simply provide a definition or list. You must provide an evaluation that demonstrates your understanding of each classification of stakeholders, as described in this course. Do not write in general terms about stakeholders. Your evaluation must describe how each classification of stakeholders impacts your selected corporation’s success (hint: see figure 1.4 in the textbook). Study Chapter 1 for additional background on Stakeholders as it provides a solid background on stakeholders that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Sources

Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.

Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course text book to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.

Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.

The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.

Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic

source requires logging in).

When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:

Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)

The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.

Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.

Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?

Additional things to keep in mind.

You will be graded on the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 1: Communications

MGTS2606 Individual Assignment Final (USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 2: Health Care.

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

Question 3: Health Care

Final Exam Nurs 6531

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Answer YES

Question 4: Health Care

Walden University NURS 6630 midterm

QUESTION 1

A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?” I received 0/1 for this answer??

1 points

QUESTION 2

Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true? My correct answer was several psychiatric meds were developed after discovery of endogenous neurotransmitters. (The answer wording is different.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points

QUESTION 3

When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 4 ?

During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region. This is wrong

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points

While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points

QUESTION 6

Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points

QUESTION 7

Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered. Correct answer

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points

QUESTION 8

It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires l

lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points

QUESTION 9

1. As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points

QUESTION 10

1. The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

The patient smokes cigarettes. This is correct!

The patient has hypertension.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points

QUESTION 11

1. A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

Alert staff to possible seizures

Write an order for a different mood stabilizer For some reason I got 0/1 points for this??

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper

1 points

QUESTION 12

1. A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?

Review Amitriptyline (Elavil) level Correct answer

Order a liver function test

Check the patient’s blood pressure and pulse

Order a stat platelet count

1 points

QUESTION 13

1. A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?

To promote the availability of serotonin

To decrease serotonin

To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body

To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine

1 points

QUESTION 14

1. The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?

“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”

“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”

“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”

“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”

1 points

QUESTION 15

1. Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?

“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”

“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.”

“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”

“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 16

1. A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?

Benzodiazepine

Mirtazapine (Remeron)

Ketamine

Varenicline (Chantix)

1 points

QUESTION 17

1. The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug?

Full agonists

Antagonists

Partial agonists

Inverse agonists

1 points

QUESTION 18

1. A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”

“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”

“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.”

“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”

1 points

QUESTION 19

1. The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?

Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure

Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure

Voltage-sensitive ion channels

Anticonvulsants

1 points

QUESTION 20 ?

1. Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?

“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.” Not correct

“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”

“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”

“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”

1 points

QUESTION 21

1. A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy? I did not have this question

Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality

Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences

Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting

Measuring symptoms of psychosis

1 points

QUESTION 22

1. Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?

Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.

The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.

MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.

D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists. Correct answer

1 points

QUESTION 23

1. Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?

“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”

“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”

“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”Correct

“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”

1 points

QUESTION 24

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?

Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.

Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.

The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 25

1. A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?

Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

1 points

QUESTION 26

1. The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?

Hypersexuality

Amenorrhea

Dystonia

Tardive dyskinesia correct answer

1 points

QUESTION 27

1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?Not on my test

Olanzapine to clozapine

Asenapine to Risperidone

Aripripazole to ziprasidone

Aripripazole to clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 28

1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?Not on my test

Quetiapine

Paliperidone

Lurasidone

Clozapine

1 points

QUESTION 29

1. Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?

Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.

D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.

D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.

D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points

QUESTION 30

1. Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?

An underlying depressive disorder

The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one This is correct

The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 31

1. The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?Not on mytest

Long-term use of antipsychotics

Genetic disposition

Age

A and C

2333326

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 32

The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?

Those that are potent D2 antagonists

Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties

D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway

Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors

1 points

QUESTION 33

Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?

5HT2 antagonism

D2 antagonismThis was wrong 0/1

Alpha-2 antagonism

D2 partial agonist

1 points

QUESTION 34

A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?

Norepinephrine

Dopamine

Serotonin

A and C

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 35

Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?

The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.

The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.

The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.

The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.

1 points

QUESTION 36

The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?

Patient with a bipolar I designationI don’t know why but this was marked 0/1 for me

Patient with a bipolar II designation

Patient with a bipolar III designation

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 37

Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?Not on my test

The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.

The patient may experience severe depression.

The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.

The patient may experience increased mood cycling.

1 points

QUESTION 38

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?

The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.

The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.

The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.

The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.

1 points

QUESTION 39

Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.

Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.

Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.

1 points

QUESTION 40

Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?

“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”

“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”

“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”

“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”

1 points

QUESTION 41

The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?

Insomnia

Suicidal ideation

Problems concentrating

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 42

Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?

Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.

Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.

Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.

The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs. Correct

1 points

QUESTION 43

The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?I had different answer choicesthe correct answer was Both have actions at sigma receptors that contribute to both anxiolytic and antipsychotic effects

Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.

Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.

Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.

Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.

1 points

QUESTION 44

A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?

Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.

The patient cannot take any antihistamines.

The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.

The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.

1 points

QUESTION 45

After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?

Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.

Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.

Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.

All of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 46

A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?

First onset in puberty or early adulthood

Late onset of menses

Premenstrual syndrome

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 47

A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:

MAOI plus SNRI

SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI

NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine

NDRI plus modafinil

1 points

*Q/UESTION 48

Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?

She may experience withdrawal symptoms.

She may experience increased trauma.

Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.

It can lead to difficulties with concentration.

1 points

QUESTION 49

A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?

Weight gain can be problematic.

Sedation is very common.

Induction of mania is rare.

Seizures are not unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 50

The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?

Stop the venlafaxine

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%

Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

1 points

QUESTION 51

A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?

It can affect her menstruation.

Suicidality can be common among young adults.

Sedation may be problematic.

Weight gain is unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 52

Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?

He has fibromyalgia.

He has arrhythmia.

He uses alcohol.

He is overweight.

1 points

QUESTION 53

A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

1 points

QUESTION 54

A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

The patient has hepatic impairment.

The patient has moderate renal impairment.

The patient has severe renal impairment.

The patient has cardiac impairment.

1 points

QUESTION 55

The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.

Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade causes blurred vision.

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockade causes weight gain.

Muscarinic M3 receptor blockade causes sedation.

1 points

QUESTION 56

A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?

“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”

“You should not consume processed meats.”

“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”

“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”

1 points

QUESTION 57

A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?

“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”

“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.” Correct

1 points

QUESTION 58

Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).This was marked 0/1 for me

Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.This is probably the right answer

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.

1 points

QUESTION 59

The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?

Patient with PTSD

Patient with partial seizures

Patient with galactose intolerance

Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency

1 points

QUESTION 60

Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?

The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.

The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.

1 points

QUESTION 61

A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?

mirtazapine (Remeron)

doxepin (Silenor)

alprazolam (Xanax)

trazadone (Oleptro)

1 points

QUESTION 62

A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?

Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression

Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression

Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions

Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression

1 points

QUESTION 63

The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

Platelet Count

1 points

QUESTION 64

A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following? I don’t think I had this question

There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease

Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome

It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression

There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age

1 points

QUESTION 65

A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

Valporoic Acid (Depakene)

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 66

A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression?didn’t have this question I

Omega-3-fatty-acids

Soybean lecithin

Inositol

L-methylfolate

1 points

QUESTION 67

The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?

Valporic Acid (Depakene)

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Lithium (Lithobid)This question is repeated and on one I got 1/1 and the other I got 0/1 for this sameexact question.

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

1 points

QUESTION 68

The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?

Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD

Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.

Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

1 points

QUESTION 69

A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:

Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain

Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation

Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)

Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other

1 points

QUESTION 70

During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:

“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”I got 0/1 for this answer I don’t know why??

“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”

“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”

“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”

1 points

QUESTION 71

The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason:The answers are phrased differently.. The correct answer is that alcohol works onthe GABA A receptor

Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.

Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines

Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate

Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy

1 points

QUESTION 72

After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?

Respiratory depression

Sedation and restlessness

Sweating and nausea (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)

Bradycardia and tachypnea

1 points

QUESTION 73

A patient is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is: I didn’t have this question

“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”

“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”

“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”

“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.”

1 points

QUESTION 74 ?

The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:

Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?

What do you do when you feel fear?

Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?

What makes your fear better?

1 points

QUESTION 75

A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:

He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.

Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.

This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.

This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.

1 points

Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers.

Here are some parts of other questions I had that I jotted down a enough of the ? so you know what Its about and my answers and if they were right or wrong:

What is an accurate description of psychosis? It’s a syndrome associated with a number of psychiatric disorders (Correct)

Mrs. Schwalzman 52 has schizophrenia and has no history of depression. She has apathy and no joy in life. What can the PMHNP infer?Her new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system corre

Question 5: Health Care

NUTR1023 EXERCISE AND DIET PLAN Workout Plan……..

Question 6: Health Care

MHA 622 Virtues and values…………………

Question 7: Health Care

MHA 612 Zero-based budgeting in health care

Question 8: Health Care

IHP 525 Final Milestone Project…………..

Question 9: Health Care.

HIST 200 OBESITY IN CANADA………………………

Question 10: Health Care

NUR 2058 Dimensions Of Nursing Final Exam | Complete

True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both conventional and integrative medicine.

Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their practice.

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs or function is:

What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?

True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.

Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?

A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which of the following?

With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
What is the definition of the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?

These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an even more profound effect on an individual’s cultural identity.

Which of the following is a key element to effective education of nursing students?

Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of privacy:

Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative medicine?

When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following would not be included in its definition?

This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally competent care.

Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right of confidentiality?

Which of the following best describes conventional and integrative medicine?

Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to resolve difficult crises?

Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as defined by state law?

Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric nurses

The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse preceptor?

A) Each hospital establishes its own policy regarding spirituality. B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a policy related to spirituality in health care C) The Joint Commission has a standard of patient care with inclusion of spirituality. D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of the chaplain or pastoral care.

What is the first step in the delegation process?

A) Allowing the person to observe the RN performing the task before making the assignment B) Determining the skill level of the person to whom the task is to be delegated C) Obtaining permission from the client for another care provider to help with the care D) Instructing the person to whom the task is delegated about the assignment

What is the mos

What is the most important element for the nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?

A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about the disease process and the modalities of treatment B) The distance the client lives from the primary health-care facility C) The age difference between the client and the nurse D) What type of insurance coverage the client has

Identify a secured setting for the practice of forensic nursing.

A) Crime scenes B) Women’s shelters C) Emergency rooms D) Correctional institutions

What would be a likely result of the development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing clinical information and management data?

A) A failure to determine the impact nurses have on outcomes B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually does C) The establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities D) A decrease in the number of nursing diagnoses

A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.

A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one meeting with the staff nurse B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff nurse to the night shift C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues D) Notes that the vocal staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and disregards her comments as worthless

When do most health-care expenditures occur in a person’s life?

A) As old age sets in due to the development of multiple chronic illnesses B) During the last 6 months of life C) During childhood due to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries D) During and shortly after being born

Which assignment is most appropriate for a CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit from the outpatient clinic?

A) Completing the admission vital signs and assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia care unit after nephrectomy B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a whole-blood transfusion C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch

What is the primary goal of the nurse navigator role?

A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or adverse client outcomes B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through the treatment maze easier C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and knowledge with business knowledge D) Provide health care for inmates in correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons

True or False: It is estimated that 98,000 people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.

A) False B) True

Identify a communication style that involves interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of others.

A) Aggressive B) Assertive C) Dishonest D) Submissive

Which nursing intervention is of limited effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual Distress?

A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and values immediately when requested to do so by the client. B) Contact an appropriate spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client. C) Express a willingness to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to the client’s health in the treatment setting. D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.

When does the encoding process of communication take place?

A) The message is sent in a way that causes confusion in the receiver. B) The receiver thinks about the information, understands it, and forms an idea based on the message. C) The sender sends the message. D) The receiver responds to the message and gives feedback.

Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?

A) Hippocrates B) Emperor Darius C) Cyrus the Great D) William Harvey

Identify the task that may be delegated to an LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.

A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a newly admitted client B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours C) Teaching a new diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections D) Adding potassium to an intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging

A patient is anxious about a procedure. Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following practices is the nurse implementing?

A) Transcendental Meditation B) Guided Imagery C) Therapeutic Talking D) Visualization

Identify the primary change that increased the need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.

A) The development of new oversight procedures for Medicare and Medicaid B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system C) The new regulations that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act D) The closing of many college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding

Identify the four concepts that are common in most nursing theories.

A) Client, health, environment, nursing B) Hospital, nursing home, clinic, physician’s office C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers D) Care, adaptation, system, cure

Which of the following demonstrates the planning phase of the nursing process?

A) The nurse specifies short and long term outcomes for the client B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term outcomes were met C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health history D) The nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers

What is the best way to increase the motivation to learn in the elderly population?

A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly person does not change behavior appropriately B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in behavior. C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not contaminated by misinformation from the past. D) Use the power disparity between the teacher and the client to reinforce basic principles

Why is it important for nurses in general practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?

A) They may one day wish to become certified in forensic nursing B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination C) Nurses are often in positions to report crimes or preserve evidence. D) With the increasing involvement of nurses in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases

Why is term healing preferred to medicine when referring to alternative and complementary modalities?

A) Clients might associate alternative treatments with hospital care. B) Nurses have had a strong influence in naming this modality. C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care. D) Medicine implies that only physicians can carry out the treatment

An example of civility in the classroom consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone etiquette?

A) False B) True

What primary skills are required of the nurse to provide cultural competent care?

A) All of the above B) Sensitivity C) Understanding D) Communication

Both nursing models and theories help explain and direct nursing actions.

A) True B) False

Which of the following statements is most accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?

A) They make up the single largest expenditure for the federal government budget B) They are relatively healthy and most manage their chronic conditions at home C) They all have chronic diseases and are in assisted-care facilities. D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad spirits.

Although the assessment techniques used for different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.

A) True B) False

The client’s short term outcome was to sit up in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome, determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of the nursing process is this?

A) Evaluation B) Assessment C) Planning D) Diagnosis

This lengthy assessment tool provides a thorough overview of a client’s culture.

A) Minority Model B) Purnell’s Model C) Non-English Model D) Bio-Cultural Model

True or False: By law, supplements are regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

A) False B) True

Which of the following describes Callista Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?

A) Multistep process that helps the client adapt and reach the highest level of functioning B) Assistance in self-care activities to help the client achieve health C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s health-care needs D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in activities to restore stability.

An ethical code does which of the following?

A) dictates decisions B) provides a framework for decision-making C) sets firm rules D) provides a group of legally binding values

To which individual can the charge nurse delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly admitted client?

A) LPN B) CNA, level II C) CNA, level III D) RN

A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating, turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?

A) Partially compensated care B) Supportive developmental care C) Self-care D) Wholly compensated care

Function in nursing informatics focuses on which of the following?

A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to guide the gathering of data B) Areas of research that lead to new knowledge C) The levels of special interest, including technology and concepts of nursing theory D) How the management and processing of information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information

Identify the best method for a nurse to acknowledge a client’s autonomy

A) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities B) Follow only the instructions of the client’s family C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client’s care needs D) Know and understand the state’s laws that address living wills

Select the most appropriate client for the RN to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).

A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings B) A client with difficulty walking and requires assistance to the bathroom C) A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations

What is best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?

A) Laws B) Values C) Morals D) Ethics

Which of the following is known as a healing practice that uses the human energy system?

A) Visualization B) Therapeutic Touch C) Hypnosis D) Guided Imagery

The analysis that tracks events leading to error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent further error in a blame-free environment is called:

A) Quality Improvement B) Root Cause Analysis C) Case Management D) Leapfrog

Nurses who learn about another person’s culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.

A) False B) True

Using errors as learning opportunities is a key element in building which of the following?

A) Magnet hospital B) Shared decision-making environment C) system of improvements and quality care D) Just culture organization

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.

A) True B) False

Which of the following is considered the best preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?

A) Choose your battles B) Confront the conflict C) Postpone the conflict D) Ignore the conflict

Which statement made by a nursing student during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study of the topic?

A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible for education about the task to be performed.” B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating nursing.” C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.” D) “The tasks delegated should have expected and predictable outcomes.”

Which statement by a nurse manager during a staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?

A) “I am the manager and we will do it my way.” B) “You have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.” C) “I’m sorry, but your suggestion was useless to solving the problem.” D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you think is best.”

A physician writes a DNR order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?

A) The client’s next of kin B) The client C) The client’s spouse D) The client’s only child

A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is. What best explains this act?

A) “The law requires that most of the assets be absorbed.” B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.” C) “The law has been written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.” D) “The law has been written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”

Clients may develop this when they view that the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.

A) Passive Obedience B) Active Obedience C) Health Care Aversion D) Communication Synergy

Which is the principle upon which Nightingale’s spirituality was based?

A) Scientific rationalism B) A sense of a divine intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her own inner connection with this higher reality C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior, the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts D) The beliefs of her Unitarian and Anglican parents

Client Satisfaction is not another way to measure quality of care.

A) False B) True

What is one disadvantage to the electronic health care system that health care workers are concerned about?

A) Computer glitches B) Inexpensive computer systems C) Improved communication D) May be used by multiple users at one time

Which is not part of the role of the forensic correctional nurse?

A) Provide health screenings B) Respond to emergency situations C) Prescribe medications D) Develop health-care plans

The nurse identifies a problem list for the client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?

A) Assessment B) Diagnosis C) Evaluation  D) Planning

What is the federally funded national health insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?

A) Medicare B) Exclusive Provider Organization C) Long-term care insurance D) Medicaid

T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2 to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for T.S.?

A) Rehabilitation Center B) Long-term care facility C) Home with homecare D) Assisted living

What is the primary reason some nurses have difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?

A) Death of a client may indicate that the care they were providing was insufficient B) Their education has focused them on keeping clients alive and promoting health. C) They have an internal conflict in coping with their own fears of death. D) They become very emotional when clients they are caring for die.

What is the most effective method nurses can use to gain power over nursing practice?

A) Confront hospital administrators about inadequate staffing B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available C) Join professional organizations in large numbers D) Use union tactics to increase salaries

The establishment of a professional organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a profession.

A) False B) True

Why is heritage consistency important to cultural groups?

A) It allows them to advance within the larger culture B) It allows them to retain many of their cultural elements C) It allows them to fit in with the larger culture D) All of the above

Identify the term used when a person lives with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses and is aware of a transcendent reality.

A) Religion B) Spirituality C) Truth D) Meditation

True or False: Total quality improvement is based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.

A) False B) True

Which of the following is not a reason the State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?

A) Conviction of a serious crime B) Ethical conduct in the practice of nursing C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care D) Failure to renew a nursing license while still practicing nursing

What would be a characteristic of the ideal electronic health care record?

A) The system is unique to the institution it resides in. B) It reflects only the past medical history. C) The system reflects the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received. D) It depicts the current health status, but does not provide the medical history

The type of reimbursement system that pays a fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:

A) Capitated Payment System B) Managed Care Organization C) Preferred Provider Organization D) Prospective Payment System

Which of the following organizations provides nursing with a code of ethics?

A) Institute of Medicine B) Department of Health C) Board of Nursing  D) American Nurses Association

Which of the following reasons is not a reason for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?

A) Desire for greater control over one’s health B) Traditions passed on from parents C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative therapies D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care

Identify the primary driving force behind the development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.

A) Easy access to computers B) Consumer concerns about access to health care C) Increase sophistication of physicians’ computers skills D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban areas

The establishment of a professional organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.

A) True B) False

A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery. What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant (CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?

A) Skill level of each staff member B) Staff preferences for specific clients C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station D) Developmental needs of clients

What is acute care of sick persons that is provided in hospitals called?

A) Primary intervention B) Assistive intervention C) Secondary intervention D) Tertiary intervention

Identify the characteristics of a task that is to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.

A) The task is routine in nature and follows hospital policies. B) The client is relatively stable. C) The client requires a dressing change at the beginning of the shift. D) The task requires decision-making to complete it.

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.

A) True B) False

Identify the health-care area in which the use of computers has improved the efficiency of care.

A) Physician record keeping B) Interdepartmental communication C) Documentation D) Medication administration

What is a major benefit for the elderly who now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and smartphones?

A) They can reach hospitals and family if they need help. B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they abandon it. C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment that they might not otherwise seek. D) They now have a new source of entertainment to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.

This federally funded program is known for financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.

A) Medicaid B) Medicare C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) D) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)

What is the primary purpose for the development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?

A) Focus nursing education on competencies to reduce the number of medical errors B) Increase the number of students in nursing programs C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to increased client acuity D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs

Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to communication?

A) Refers the problem to a supervisor B) Confronts the other person loudly and in front of an audience C) Uses the incident as a threat D) Sets up a one-on-one meeting at a specific time

What advantage does the electronic health record system have over traditional paper systems?

A) More portable B) Fewer privacy issues C) Unbreakable D) Reduces redundancy

Question 11: Health Care

NCS 1201 Client Teaching Activity(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 12: Philosophy

PHI-103 Libertarianism vs. Compatibilism Worksheet

Question 13: Philosophy

SCIE1000 Philosophy Essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 14: Philosophy

PHIL 201 Response Paper Mccloskey Article(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 15: Sociology

SOC-102 Bureaucracy essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Question 16: Computer Studies

Case study 3 assignment IFS(ST. LUKE’S HEALTH CARE SYSTEM(USE AS GUIDE ONLY)

Discussion Questions

Visit the NetMotion Web site (www.netmotionwireless.com) and access and read other Mobility XE success stories. Discuss the patterns that can be observed in the benefits that Mobility XE users have realized via its deployment and use.
Do some Internet research on the security implications of HIPPA requirements for hospital networks. Discuss the major types of security mechanisms that must be in place to ensure hospital compliance with HIPPA requirements.
Do some Internet research on the use of VLANs in hospitals. Summarize the benefits of using VLANs in hospitals and identify examples of how St. Luke’s could further enhance its wireless network by implementing VLANs.

Read the Case Study and answer the “Discussion Points” in a clear but concise way. Be sure to reference all sources cited and use APA formatting throughout.

I prefer you to upload your file in a .docx format – but if you don’t have MS Word- please convert the file to PDF and upload.

Refer to the Case Study Rubrics for more detailed criteria.

Question 17: Computer Science

CIS 525 Week 2 Assignment 1 Agile versus Waterfall

Assignment 1: Agile versus Waterfall

Due Week 2 and worth 110 points

The following resources may be helpful when completing this assignment:

“WATERFALL vs. AGILE METHODOLOGY”(You may also view the article at http://agileintro.wordpress.com/2008/01/04/waterfall-vs-agile-methodology/.)
“Understanding the pros and cons of the Waterfall Model of software development”(You may also view the article at http://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-the-pros-and-cons-of-the-waterfall-model-of-software-development/6118423.)
“Transitioning from waterfall to iterative development”(You may also view the article at http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/rational/library/4243.html.)

Agile approach to project management has become more and more popular in recent years. Agile framework is different from traditional waterfall model. It has considerable impact on how projects are planned and executed.

Imagine that you have been assigned as a project manager to manage your company’s e-Commerce Website where customers can browse the company’s products, place orders, and interact with the company’s customer service representatives. Your project must be completed in three (3) months and you have about twelve (12) people in the team. There are three (3) offshore developers in Ireland and two (2) QA testers in Dallas, TX. The rest of the project team and the product owner are in San Diego, CA.

Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:

Compare and contrast agile and Waterfall models of managing a project in the context of building an e-Commerce Website. Include diagrams or tables through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Word or Visio, or an open source alternative such as Dia to show the differences and similarities. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
Evaluate the pros and cons in agile and Waterfall project management in terms of planning and the execution of projects and collaboration among project team members.
Determine whether you would use an “Agile” or “Waterfall” model to manage the project for your company. Support your rationale.
Identify and analyze the major pitfalls and misconceptions inherited in your chosen approach. Propose key actions that you, as a project manager, could take in order to mitigate the risks associated with the previously identified misconceptions.
Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. You may use the resources above or others of your choosing.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Dia and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Compare and contrast agile project management methods with traditional project management.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in advanced agile project management topics.
Write clearly and concisely about advanced agile project management topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Question 18: Computer Science

DECO2500 Exam2013-human-computer-interaction Set 1 & 2

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 1

What is the best description of a conceptual model?
A high level description of how a system is organised and how it operates
Interaction paradigms and interaction modes
A diagram showing the mental model of the user and the system

image

The problem space faced by the designer when gathering user requirements.
Which statement best reflects interaction design?
Interaction design is a new discipline
Interaction design is multidisciplinary
Interaction design combines the disciplines of software engineering and psychology
Interaction design is an application of common sense.
What are the elements of the Gulf of Execution?
Information processing elements involved in working out what the system did
Information processing elements involved in working out how to interact with the system
Forming intentions, specifying right action, selecting appropriate interface mechanism.
Processing the interface, interpreting interface information, and assessing information meaning.
How do recent approaches to “embodied interaction” differ from earlier accounts of the role of cognition in humancomputer interaction?
Accounts of interaction focus on the cognitive activity of multiple individuals, not just one individual
Accounts of interaction support cognitive strategies such as annotating and cognitive tracing.
Accounts of interaction put greater emphasis on how emotions are embodied in people.
Accounts of interaction are more grounded in the ways people experience the world through physical interaction.
What was an important early drawback of the Clearboard system by Ishii et al. (1993).
It required people to move to a dedicated video conferencing facility at their workplace
As people moved closer to the board to talk with a remote colleague, the video system no longer picked them up
People found it uncomfortable to interact “looking down” at a colleague.
All of the above.
According to Quintanar (1982) how do users rate an interface/system that gives them personalised feedback?
They rate it as more honest
They rate it as less honest
They rate it as more likeable
They rate it as less likeable.
What is a principal limitation of multimedia as a means for presenting educational material, according to Rogers and Aldrich (1996)?
Learners may fixate on just one medium, such as text, and not process further information available in other media.
Learners may hop between media and only partially process the information in each one
Learners may feel that they are being patronised
Learners may need tools to help them keep track of the information with which they have and have not yet engaged.
Which of the following options best represents the core values of usercentred design, as originally articulated by Gould & Lewis (1985)?
Focusing on users and their tasks in the design process
Measuring progress towards usability goals throughout development
Developing and testing in several cycles
All of the above.
When conducting an investigation with human participants for research or commercial reasons, which provision(s) for consent must be made?
Approval of the research by a properly constituted ethics committee independent of the researchers
Participants informed they do not have to take part if they do not want to
Participants fully informed of their right to withdraw from the investigation without consequences to them
All of the above.
How did Buchenau and Suri (2000) use “experience prototyping” in a study described in Rogers et al. (2011)?
They built a game prototype that broke accessibility rules to make it frustrating for anyone to use
They built a “third age empathy suit” to help designers experience the loss of mobility and sensory perception in the elderly
They used contextual design meetings to get different people’s perspectives on the prototype
Their prototyping gave designers an idea of what wearing a chestimplanted automatic defibrillator might be like.
Which of the following is an important disadvantage of usability laboratory studies?
They emphasize controlled experimentation
They do not capture the context of people’s work or home activities
They do not exercise sufficient control to really understand users’ thinking
They do not directly involve users.
What did physiological monitoring show in the game evaluation study by Mandryk and Inkpen (2004)?
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
Participants’ heart rate was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer.
Participants’ heart rate was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
According to many experts, how many users should be included in a usability test?
Seven plus or minus two (59 users)
Between 5 and 12, depending on needs
A large enough sample of users to perform statistical tests
At least 10 users.
What is the fundamental insight underlying the “cognitive walkthough” method of evaluation?
The idea that cognitive processes are the most important aspect of the user experience
The idea that users can sometimes be left out of evaluation
The idea that users learn by exploring an interface
The idea that experts need to work handinhand with users to develop an optimal user experience.

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 2

Which of the following is a better example of a user experience goal than a usability goal?
Effectiveness
Learnability
Helpfulness
Safety.
What is an “affordance” according to Norman (1999):
Property of an object that indicates to people how to use the object.
The return on investment of the usercentred design process.
The opportunity cost of not using usercentred design.
An instruction on an interface signalling how to use the interface.
According to Rogers et al. (2011) what was the primary reason for the success of the iPod?
Powerful functionality
User experience
Access to content
Conceptual design.
Which is the best definition of an interaction paradigm?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interaction mode?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
Which is the best definition of an interface metaphor?
In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which humansystem interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
What the human does to make inputs and receive information from the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
What interaction paradigm did the Xerox Star use?
Conversation
Knowledge of a physical desktop
Embedded computing
Windows, Icons, Mouse, and Pointer (WIMP).
Which of the following is the most likely interface metaphor used by a smart phone calendar function?
Restaurant menu
Touchscreen interface
A paper diary
Mobile technology.
What is the principal interaction mode for a Wii system?
Gesture and body movements
Haptic (touch) interface
Exploring and browsing
Infrared position detection.
Which of the following is a design implication of our understanding of human attention?
Tactile feedback should make the same kinds of distinctions that a person would feel in the world (e.g. pushing vs. pulling)
Text should be legible and distinguishable from its background under different lighting conditions.
Avoid cluttering the interface with more information than is needed at the present moment for the user.
Sounds should be audible and distinguishable.
Why is Miller’s (1956) theory that our working memory can hold 7 +/ 2 items of information not a useful design guideline for number of menu items, tool bar icons, etc?
We can scan such items: we don’t need to remember them
People can actually hold much less than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
People can actually hold much more than 7 +/ 2 items in memory
This was not Miller’s theory – it was Norman’s theory.
What issue do Rogers et al. (2011) raise about contextaware reminding systems such as comMotion (Marmasse & Schmandt, 2000)?
Context is hard to define
The kind of reminding such systems provide is probably more useful to those with memory problems than to those with normal memory
Such systems are cumbersome to carry and may distract the user from other tasks that they are doing.
The comMotion system does not have a good mental model of the user.
What was the feature of the Hydra system that distinguished it from other telepresence/teleconferencing systems?
It embedded a robot in the remote location to interact with remote colleagues in different locations.
It created a video wall that allowed people in two remotely located common rooms to interact with each other informally.
It used the principle of “translucence” to make the participants and their activities more visible to all participants.
The spatial arrangement of Hydra units created a spatial layout of face images and speech sounds that could happen in a physical environment.
What is affective computing? Select the best answer.
Computing that produces interfaces than engage human emotions.
Computing that produces interfaces in an efficient manner.
Interfaces that apologize to their users
Interfaces that look and behave like people.
The character Rea is an example of what?
A realestate agent
A zoomorphic interface
A persuasive technology
An embodied agent.
Based on informal tests, what was the most effective way in which the WaterBot system change domestic water usage?
By coloring the water when usage was high
By providing a colored graph that indicated a person’s water use
By sounding chimes when water usage was high
None of the above.
Which is the best example of triangulation in data gathering?
Collecting information about designer’s model, user’s mental model, and system image.
Using different theories with which to interpret data.
Using multiple researchers in a usercentred evaluation.
Collecting data from users in different ways with different methods.
What is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews for gathering

information about users’ tasks?

Information about how tasks are actually performed, rather than ideally performed, may be gathered.
Answers to all potentially relevant questions may not be gathered.
The data collected are rich and complex.
Different interviewees may give different answers to the questions.
What is a disadvantage of using focus groups to elicit user requirements?
Users may not be able to articulate what their requirements are.
Diverse or sensitive issues may be raised.
People don’t necessarily respond the same way in a test as they would do in real life.
Differences of opinion may emerge that confuse the requirements gathering process.
A question format that collects users’ opinions on a verbal scale (eg.,

strongly disagree to strongly agree) is called what?

A psychometric scale
A Likert scale
A questionnaire
An openresponse questionnaire item.
What is a “participant observer”
An observer who partly participates in the activity they are observing.
A participant who observes the activity they are participating in.
An observer who watches participants.
A participant who watches observers.
Which set of properties best characterises an “ethnographic” study?
Participant observation, cultural engagement, collection of diverse forms of evidence and data
Participant observation, scientific objectivity, removal of cultural bias
“Anthropological strangeness”, collection of audiovisual data.
Use of the model human processor to analyse findings.
What was an important feature of the process by which the Mobiphos photograph sharing application (Patel et al., 2009) was evaluated?
Agile programming methods were interlaces with iterative user testing.
Four different data gathering techniques were used.
Participatory design was used.
Vibrations indicated the arrival of new photos in the application.
In the following data set, which number is the mode? 4 5 5 5 6 7 8 8
5
5.5
6
None of the above.
What is an affinity diagram?
A diagram showing the degree of connection between people in social networks
A diagram used to show people’s cultural affinities or sense of belonging to groups.
A diagram that organises individual ideas and insights into a hierarchy showing themes.
A variant of a tag cloud that is generated from thinkaloud protocols.
Select the best way of analysing qualitative user comments collected during a user test.
Classify the comments into categories and count number of comments in each category.
Find the average and the standard deviation of the data and report it in the body of the report.
Use a scatterplot to graph users on the x axis and comments on the y axis.
Look for critical incidents to report.
What are web analytics?
Online methods for performing usability tests through the cloud.
Webbased methods for performing analysis of video records and electronic logs of user interaction
Webbased methods for performing statistical analysis of data, using tools such as SPSS.
Online methods for analysing and visualising patterns of visiting a website, viewing pages, etc..
How would a researcher perform an analysis of user data from the perspective of Activity Theory?
Classify user comments according to the tool, subject, object, community, rules, division of labor, and outcome expressed.
Classify user comments according to the representational state or medium the user is handling at each point in time.
Analyse data in successive passes, including open coding, axial coding, and selective coding.
Try to determine the mental model of the user on the basis of the activity they are carrying out.
Which of the following is not one of Saffer’s (2010) four approaches to

interaction design?

Usercentred design
Systems design
Genius design
Conceptual design.
Should endusers always have a high degree of participation in software development?
Yes: the fundamental principle of interaction design is early involvement of endusers, which should be universally applied.
Not always: different levels of participant are warranted for different kinds of projects and different project stages.
Never: endusers do not know how to articulate their own requirements and do not necessarily have enough technical expertise
None of the above.
What is the Volere shell?
An operating system similar to Unix.
A template for specifying system requirements.
A framework for defining personas and scenarios
A template for creating cultural probe packages.
What is Contextual Inquiry?
A component of Contextual Design.
A way of asking about user context for awareness applications.
Participant observation in relevant use contexts
A component of Contextual Embodiment Theory.
“An informal narrative description of human activities or tasks in a story that allows exploration and discussion of contexts, needs, and requirements”. This best describes which of the following?
Use case
Essential use case
Storyboard
Scenario.
Which of the following is a problem with lowlevel prototyping?
Testers tend to comment on superficial aspects and not content.
They take too long to build.
User expectations can be set too high.
None of the above.
What is the most important property that a prototype should have?
It should support a wide range of user tests.
It should look like the final product.
It should allow the key design concepts to be tested with users.
It should be easy to throw away.
Where would a cardbased prototype best fit in the design process?
After conceptual design, before scenario design
After scenario design, before storyboarding.
After storyboarding, before lowlevel prototyping.
After lowlevel prototyping, before highlevel prototyping.
What kind of activity does the D.E.C.I.D.E. acronym support?
Planning and conducting an evaluation and analysing the data.
Conducting user tests.
Deciding what kind of prototype to use for user tests.
Deciding whether to perform empirical or analytical evaluations.
You are running a user test session and your participant wants to leave half way through the session. What do you do?
Ask them to stay until the end as planned, so you can collect your

data.

After ensuring they do not need medical help, let them leave, with your thanks.
Offer them an incentive payment to encourage them to finish the session.
Refuse to let them leave until they have finished the session.
Which professional groups are most appropriately involved in preparation and performance of the classic kind of cognitive walkthrough?
End users and designers
Designers and usability experts
Usability experts and marketing personnel
Designers and marketing personnel.
How was the GOMS (Goals, Operators, Methods, Selection rules) used in Project Ernestine (Gray et al., 1993)?
GOMS allowed researchers to predict how long it would take telephone operators to use a new computer interface.
GOMS predicted the errors that telephone operators would make before the operators used the new software.
GOMS predicted the increase in mental workload experienced by the telephone operators
Interface metaphors.

Question 19: Mathematics

MAT 510 Week 11 Final Exam | Complete

Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
Question 13 Process models are used to:
Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

Question 20: Business

ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions

QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation

The following information is given about Nadak Co.:

The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.

Required:

Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)

Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)

QUESTION 2 (9 Marks) Financial Reporting Principles, Accounting Standards and Auditing, & Sustainability Reporting

Provide short answers to the following:

What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)

QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)

BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.

2012 2011

Return on Equity 13% 12%

Return on Assets 8% 9%

Profit margin 20 18%

Asset turnover 0.40 0.50

Days in inventory 72 days 55 days

Days in debtors 42 days 42 days

Current ratio 1.6 1.5

Quick ratio 0.7 1.1

Debt-to-Equity ratio 1.4 1.0

Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders’ Equity

Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets

Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity

Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales

Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets

Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365

Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365

Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities

Quick Ratio Current Assets – Inventory/Current Liabilities

Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders’ Equity

Required

Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.

QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts

Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:

Credit sales

86,500

Cash sales

6,100

Credit purchases

93,200

Cash received from debtors

67,800

Cash paid to creditors

55,890

Cash purchases

4,300

Discount received from

7,500

creditors

Discount allowed to debtors

3,500

Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.

QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)

The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):

DR CR

$ $

Bank Overdraft 10,000

Accounts Receivable 200,000

Allowance for Doubtful Debts 1,000

Inventory 100,000

Prepaid Rent 10,000

Property, Plant and 450,000

Equipment

Accumulated Depreciation – PPE 200,000

Accounts Payable 60,000

Bank loan 50,000

Contributed Capital 310,000

Retained Profit at 1 July 2013 34,000

Sales revenue 4,50,000

Cost of Goods Sold 265,000

Interest Expense 5,000

Wages Expenses 80,000

Rent Expense 5,000

The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:

Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
$5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.

Part A (12 Marks)

Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.

Part B (7 Marks)

Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:

Part C (4 Marks)

In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.

QUESTION 6 (15 marks) Inventory

The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:

Date Cash Purchases Cash Sales Balance

1 June 100 units @ $10

10 June 80 units @ $12

18 June 140 units @ $20

25 June 30 units @ $14

30 June 50 units @ $25

Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.

Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)

Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)

3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION

4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE

QUESTION 7 (10Marks) Noncurrent assets

On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.

Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)

What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)

3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)

1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)

Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)

Part A (2 marks)

For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost

Item Cost Classification

1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale

2)Depreciation of head office computers

3)Salaries of production line workers for a

manufacturer

4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s

½ mark each entry

Part B (9.5 marks)

Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:

direct labour cost of $200 000
raw materials purchased of $400 000
total overhead cost of $500 000.

The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:

31 January 1 January

(ending) (beginning)

Raw materials inventory $80 000 $95 000

Work in progress inventory $110 000 $60 000

Finished goods inventory $255 000 $75 000

Required:

Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.

Part C (2 marks)

Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.

What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?

Question 9 – MCQ practice questions

You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.

Question 21: Business

MKTG1280 Sample Practice-Exam-2016-Chapter-1-10

Question 22: Business

HTF 201 Part 1 & 2 Questions(Answered)

Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (50 Credits)

A restaurant manager notes that actual labor costs exceed the expected labor costs for the volume of business during the week. The manager calls a management meeting to discuss the situation and, if necessary, take corrective action to prevent excessive labor costs for upcoming weeks. Which of the following management functions best describes the kind of work that the management team will be performing?

planning
staffing
controlling
organizing

Effective control systems can help food and beverage managers:

identify mistakes and plan tactics to correct them.
create a mission statement.
identify new menu items to offer.
define strategic objectives.

Which of the following statements about the role of standards in the control process is TRUE?

Industry averages are the best source of information for establishing standards.
Financial standards should always be set on the basis of past financial statements.

Standards can be established for revenue goals and sales targets as well as for employee attendance and safety records.

Standards are effective only if they state an expected level of performance for individual employees.

Robert, the newly hired manager at the independently owned Seasons Restaurant, has discovered that calculations of actual food costs include the cost of providing employee meals. However, employee meals are not included as costs in establishing the restaurant’s standard food costs. Which of the following principles of developing an effective control process has been violated?

Information about actual operating results must be simple and easy to collect.

Actual information must be collected in a manner consistent with the procedures and formats used to establish performance standards.
Checks on the controls should be part of the control system itself.

Actual information generated for control purposes should be compatible with the formats used in accounting systems.

A shopper service is a(n):

service offered by many businesses to assist guests who are unable to visit the operation in person.

Internet-based buying service that offers managers greater control of the purchasing and receiving function.
system of supply in which vendors automatically resupply the restaurant on a schedule

determined by the food and beverage manager.

control tactic that involves observing and reporting the actual operations of a business.

The cost effectiveness of a control system is measured by:

comparing the cost of implementing the control system with the cost reductions achieved by using the system.

evaluating how well the control system helps identify what corrective action is necessary to bring actual operating results closer to established standards of performance.
assessing the timeliness by which control information is made available to managers.

determining if the control system gives priority to factors that are most relevant to attaining the operation’s goals.

Service has been slow at the Season’s Restaurant. The manager has traced the problem to the flow of products from the storeroom to production areas. Which of the following control points is likely to be the focus of corrective action?

preparing
serving
issuing
storing
purchasing

A formula for producing a food and beverage item is called a(n):

product specification.
portion control percentage.
algorithm.
standard recipe.

Which of the following control tools links a restaurant’s suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring that the proper quality of products is available for food production and service?

yield percentage worksheets
standard purchase specifications
standard recipes
standard portion size specifications

If the original yield for a standard recipe is 25 portions and the desired yield is 125 portions, what is the adjustment factor?

To produce a desired yield of 20 pounds from a standard recipe with a standard yield of 5 pounds, the amount of each recipe ingredient used should be multiplied by:

5.0.
4.0.
0.4.
0.25
The information is not enough

Which of the following budgeting processes ensures that plans are specifically geared to individual operations within multi-unit food service companies?

reforecasting
bottom-up budgeting
top-down budgeting
mark-up budgeting

Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost?

general manager’s salary
rent expense
property taxes
food costs

At the 120-seat Riverside Restaurant, total variable costs for September were $12,000. For October, the manager expects to sell 10 percent more meals than in September. If the increase in sales volume occurs, the manager should expect the total fixed costs for October to be:

lower than in September.
higher than in September.
relatively the same as in September.
impossible to forecast with any accuracy.

At the Virtual Cafe, the average price per meal sold is $15 with an average variable cost of $7. Fixed costs for July are expected to be $30,000. If the restaurant manager expects to sell 5,000 meals in July, the net income (or loss) for the month would be:

$25,000 net income.
$10,000 net income.
$0 (breakeven).
$10,000 net loss.
The information isn’t enough

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor influencing decisions to change a menu?

consumer demand
menu mix
supply levels
competition

A chicken dinner has a standard food cost of $3.50. If a 30-percent food cost is desired, what would be the base selling price using the ingredients mark-up method?

$11.67
$12.60
$14.76
cannot be determined

According to the information in the following table answer the questions from 18 to 20.

RU Prime-rib burger

10 Servings

Purchase

Cost/Purchase

Ingredient

Amount Needed

Unit

ground prime rib

lb.

10-lb box

$60.00

crispy fried onions

cup

1 gallon

$32.00

Worcestershire sauce

cup

1 gallon*

$16.00

pre-sliced mushrooms

#10 can

6 #10/case

$18.00

hamburger buns

a dozen

$6.00

spreadable cheddar cheese

lb.

5 lb.

$15.00

*1 gallon = 16 cups

The standard portion cost of the ground prime rib is:

$5.40
$1.80
$2.00
$6.00

The standard portion cost of each prime-rib burger is

$3.40
$14.70
$3.50
$3.20

If the budgeted food cost is 35%, according to the ingredients markup pricing method, the base selling price for this menu item should be:

$5.14
$10.00
$9.14
$9.71
cannot be determined

After analyzing menu items, the management team at the Sports Bar & Grill decided that they could increase the prices of several menu items, sell fewer of them, but increase overall revenues. The demand for these menu items would best be characterized as:

inelastic.
high.
elastic.
low.

The corporate management team of a theme restaurant chain recently evaluated the chain’s menu items and identified several puzzles. Which of the following would be reasonable strategies for the management team to adopt in relation to these items?

Decrease prices.
Place the items in more visible locations on the menu.
Shift demand to these items by using suggestive selling techniques.
All of the above are reasonable strategies.
None of the above are reasonable strategies.

Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution margin as:

puzzles.
plowhorses.
stars.
dogs.

The Night Owl Restaurant expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. Total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000. The average selling price per meal sold at the breakeven point would be:

$10.

The Daylight Diner expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. If total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000, what would the average selling price per meal sold be if the operation is to meet its $12,000 profit goal for the month?

In relation to the food service purchasing cycle, which of the following positions is generally responsible for completing an issue requisition when items are needed in food production areas?

chef
purchasing agent
receiving agent
storeroom clerk

Which of the following terms describes a series of records, documents, or reports that trace the flow of resources through an operation?

purchase specification
audit trail
delivery invoice
inventory checklist

In relation to the purchasing function, the term quality refers to:

highest price.
popularity of a menu item.
suitability for intended use.
greatest value.

A stockout can occur as a result of:

employing a perpetual inventory system.
over-purchasing.
inadequate menu engineering.
under-purchasing.

With the minimum/maximum ordering system, the quantity of the order point of an item in storage is determined by the:

usage rate plus the minimum level.
usage rate plus the lead-time quantity.
lead-time quantity plus the safety level.
lead-time quantity minus the safety level.

According to the information in the table below, minimum/maximum ordering system is used in determining the quantity of the purchase order, answer the questions from 30 to 32:

Purchase unit

10-lb poly bag (frozen chicken)

Usage rate

100 lb per day

Order period

5 days

Lead time

1 day

Safety level

100 lb

The order point quantity of this item should be at:
100lb
200lb
300lb

Question 6: Business

Instruction:

Now that you have had an opportunity to learn about our lesson subject matter it is now time for you to complete your Poster Project

Remember the target audience for the poster. The poster should demonstrate knowledge of the particular topic or event being talked about (promoted), and its importance to the society and culture as well as an understanding of this subject matter. Your poster should be colourful and well laid out. The poster should demonstrate thoughtful consideration and careful planning.

assess the challenges facing a business that wants to market a product internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

compare the approaches taken by various companies to market their products internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

demonstrate an understanding of the logistics of, and challenges associated with, distribution to local, national, and international markets

Question 7: Health Care

Instruction

In a 2- to 3-page essay, answer the following questions: List and describe five elements of system control. What happens if one of these systems is skipped or not specifically addressed? Provide evidence from personal examples. As a healthcare manager, how will you ensure these issues are addressed? Support your opinions with evidence from your prior learning experiences and external, peer-reviewed sources available through the WCU Library. You may cite particular courses or readings from prior coursework in your paper. Your paper should be 2–3 pages in length and follow current APA formatting and citation.

Question 8: Health Care

Instruction

In this activity, you are expanding a business into an international market by examining economic systems and choosing appropriate entry modes based on host country circumstances. Click the link below to access the activity. After completing the activity, click the button to download the PDF file and attach it to this assignment. Write a reflection in which you address the following: What did you learn about entrepreneurship during this activity? Provide a detailed real-world example of a situation in which you could apply these concepts. Your reflection should be 1–2 pages in length, include evidence or information from at least one credible source, and follow APA formatting and citation.

400lb

The purchase units (bag) should be ordered at the order point are:

The number of pounds at the maximum inventory level would be:

500lb
600lb
300lb
200lb

Which of the following best characterizes the purchasing function of franchisees of a multi-unit food and beverage company?

Franchisees may purchase products such as fresh produce and bakery items locally, but must buy all other items from the franchisor company.
Franchisees are required to purchase all products—regardless of type—from their franchisors.

Franchisees are not required to purchase products from specific sources such as company commissaries, but they are required by franchisors to adhere to company-developed specifications in products purchased from any supplier.

As part of their agreement with franchisors, franchisees are permitted to purchase both food and non-food products for their operation from any supplier without restriction.

Ownership of product is transferred from the supplier to the food and beverage operation when the receiving employee signs the:

delivery invoice.
daily receiving report.
purchase order.
standard purchase specification sheet.

To help make the receiving function secure and efficient, the physical transfer of food and beverage products to the storage area should be the responsibility of:

supplier delivery personnel.
assigned staff from the property.
the food and beverage controller.
either a or c above.

How would fresh meats be categorized by an ABCD inventory classification system?

Class A: high in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class B: low in perishability and high in cost per serving
Class C: high in perishability and low in cost per serving
Class D: low in perishability and low in cost per serving

Which of the following statements about food products classified as “directs” is TRUE?

Usage rates and inventory levels determine the purchasing pattern for directs.
Directs are recorded in inventory records.

Directs are considered part of the food costs for the day on which they are received and stored.
Directs are controlled by a minimum/maximum inventory system.

Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?

issuing
storing
purchasing
accounting

When a distributor shreds whole cabbages and places the shredded cabbage in bags for sale to restaurants, the distributor has added __________ value to the product.

form
time
informational
place

According to the reading: Food Distribution, which of the following is not a distribution alternative in theory?

Self-distribution
Order from national or regional broad-line distributors
Developing a primary-vendor relationship with a broad-line distributor
Contracting for delivery with a systems specialist
Catalog online ordering

Answer the questions 41 and 42 based on the following table.

Physical Inventory

Type of Products _____________________ Month _______________

Amount in

product

Storage unit

storage

purchase cost

ground beef

10-lb bag

6 bags

2.55/lb

canned peaches

6#10/cs

3-3/6 cs

39.00/cs

flour

50 lb/bag

2 bags

24.10/bag

In the table above, “3-3/6 cs” denotes

3.83 cases
3.50 cases
3.36 cases
3.30 cases

According to the table above, the total value of the physical inventory is:

$212.87
$200.00
$194.54
$192.20
$337.70

Several yield tests for roasting rounds of beef have been carefully undertaken. A summary of results (average per round) follows:

As purchased (AP) Weight = 22lb 8 oz

Servable (EP) weight = 18 lb

Cost (AP) = $8.00 per lb

According to the above test results, answer the questions from 43 -45

The cost per servable pound is:

$10.13

$10.00
$8.00
Cannot determine

How many pounds of rounds should be purchased for a weekend event being planned for 275 guests, if the edible portion served on each plate should weighs 6 oz?

129 lb

131 lb
103 lb
Cannot determine.

If the purchase price (AP) per pound raises to $10, the cost of servable pound is:

$12.00

$ 11.00
$12.50
$ 11.50

Perpetual Inventory

Product Name: Frozen lobsters (case)

Carried forward: __0______

Date

Out

Balance

1/7

1/9

1/10

1/12

1/15

According to the perpetual inventory sheet shown above, there should be ______ cases in the inventory on Jan. 15.

Part II. Short Answer ( 24 credits)

What are the major differences between restaurants within hotels and freestanding restaurants (2 credits)? How these differences may create unique operation challenges to the food service operations within lodging facilities (2 credits)?
The following are the main factors suggested to consider when designing cost control systems for food operations. Circle ONLY five of them and explain how these factors should be considered when designing food cost control systems for a restaurant. (5 credits)
(1) What is a purchase specification (1 credit) ? (2) What essential piece of information must a written purchase specification include (3 credits) ? (3) Write a purchase specification for a RU Dinning menu item ingredient, beef patty, used for the Prime Rib burger (2 credits); (4) list the major benefits of developing a purchase specification for a food and beverage operation. (3 credits)
Select any one of the following control points and describe in details what an ideal cost control system should be for this control point (including control methods, measures, standards and standard procedures, if it is used for an independent freestanding restaurant (6 credits).

Question 23: Business

MGT 498 Final Exam Answers | Complete

1) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?

2) Research suggests that strategic management evolves through four sequential phases in corporations. The first phase is

3) Strategic management is that set of managerial decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of a corporation. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of the strategic management process?

4) The relationship among the board of directors, top management, and shareholders is referred to as

5) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as

6) Who said that the social responsibility of business is a “fundamentally subversive doctrine” and that the one social responsibility of business is “to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays with the rules of the game…”?

7) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of external environmental scanning?

8) According to Porter, the corporation is most concerned with

9) When a company determines a competency’s competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as

10) An acronym for the assessment of the external and internal environments of the business corporation in the process of strategy formulation/strategic planning is

11) In the development of a SFAS matrix, the first step is to

12) The technique that illustrates how management can match the external opportunities and threats with its strengths and weaknesses to yield four sets of strategic alternatives is called a (an)

13) Which strategy specifies the firm’s overall direction in terms of its general orientation toward growth, the industries or markets in which it competes, and the manner in which it coordinates activities and transfers resources among business units?

14) Continuous improvement is an operations concept developed in

15) The process by which a firm approaches its cross-border activities and those of competitors, and plans to approach them in the future, is called

16) What question must managers ask concerning the relationship between economic logic and international strategy?

How does our international strategy contribute to the economic logic of our business and corporate strategies?

17) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?

18) The strategy that deals with product and process innovation and improvement is known as a ________ strategy.

19) The hiring of new people with new skills, firing of people with inappropriate or substandard skills, and/or training existing employees to learn new skills are included the process of

20) The strategy implementation tool used to determine what actions are going to be taken, by whom, during what time frame, and with what expected results is called a(n)

21) Executives with a particular mix of skills and experiences may be classified as an executive type and paired with

22) According to the text, what is the “key” to effective management of change in culture?

23) The sum total of the activities and choices required for the execution of a strategic plan is known as in

24) Who typically implements strategy in large, multi-industry corporations?

25) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the evaluation and control of performance?

26) The end result of activity is known as

27) Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?

28) Because of the belief that accounting-based numbers such as ROI, ROE, and EPS are not reliable indicators of a corporation’s economic value, which method of corporate performance is now preferred?

29) Which company experienced a tarnished reputation and scandal after experiencing behavior substitution when employees altered their behavior on the job to fit the reward system?

30) Suboptimization occurs when

Question 24: Business

ACC 349 Final Exam | Complete Solution

1) What is the best way to handle manufacturing overhead costs in order to get the most timely job cost information?

The company should add actual manufacturing overhead costs to jobs as soon as the overhead costs are incurred.
B. The company should determine an allocation rate as soon as the actual costs are known, and then apply manufacturing overhead to jobs.
C. The company should account for only the direct production costs.
D. The company should apply overhead using an estimated rate throughout the year.

2) At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead has been over applied. What occurred to create this situation?

The company incurred more manufacturing overhead costs than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
B. The actual manufacturing overhead costs were less than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
C. The company incurred more total job costs than the amount budgeted for the job.
D. Estimated manufacturing overhead was less than actual manufacturing overhead costs.

3) Luca Company overapplied manufacturing overhead during 2006. Which one of the following is part of the year end entry to dispose of the overapplied amount assuming the amount is material?

A decrease to work in process inventory
B. A decrease to applied overhead
C. An increase to finished goods
D. An increase to cost of goods sold

4) Which of the following would be accounted for using a job order cost system?

The production of textbooks
B. The production of town homes
C. The pasteurization of milk
D. The production of cans of spinach

5) Which one of the following is NEVER part of recording the issuance of raw materials in a job order cost system?

Debit Manufacturing Overhead
B. Debit Finished Goods Inventory
C. Debit Work in Process Inventory
D. Credit Raw Materials Inventory

6) What is unique about the flow of costs in a job order cost system?

It involves accumulating material, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs as they are incurred in order to determine the job cost.
B. Each job is costed separately in a Work in Process subsidiary ledger.
C. Job costs cannot be measured until all overhead costs are determined.
D. There are no costs remaining in Work in Process at year end.

7) Which one of the following costs would be included in manufacturing overhead of a lawn mower manufacturer?

The cost of the fuel lines that run from the motor to the gas tank
B. The cost of the wheels
C. Depreciation on the testing equipment
D. The wages earned by motor assemblers

8) What broad functions do the management of an organization perform?

Planning, directing, and controlling
B. Directing, manufacturing, and controlling
C. Planning, directing, and selling
D. Planning, manufacturing, and controlling

9) Which of the following represents the correct order in which inventories are reported on a manufacturer’s balance sheet?

Work in process, finished goods raw materials
B. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods
C. Finished goods, work in process, raw materials
D. Work in process, raw materials, finished goods

10) In traditional costing systems, overhead is generally applied based on

machine hours
B. direct labor
C. direct material dollars
D. units of production

11) An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n)

overhead rate
B. product activity
C. cost driver
D. cost pool

12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with

computing the activity-based overhead rate
B. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product
C. identifying the activity-cost pools
D. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

13) Which of the following factors would suggest a switch to activity-based costing?

Overhead costs constitute a significant portion of total costs.
B. Production managers use data provided by the existing system.
C. Product lines similar in volume and manufacturing complexity.
D. The manufacturing process has been stable.

14) All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT that

the objective of installing ABC in service firms is different than it is in a manufacturing firm
B. the general approach to identifying activities and activity cost pools is the same in a service company as in a manufacturing company
C. activity-based costing has been widely adopted in service industries
D. a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs in service industries

15) What sometimes makes implementation of activity-based costing difficult in service industries is

identifying activities, activity cost plus, and cost drivers
B. attempting to reduce or eliminate nonvalue-added activities
C. the labeling of activities as value-added
D. that a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs

16) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

$60,000
B. $90,000
C. $150,000
D. $75,000

17) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Mini A using activity-based costing is

$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $1,920,000
D. $1,200,000

18) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Maxi B using activity-based costing is

$1,536,000
B. $1,664,000
C. $2,000,000
D. $1,280,000

19) Seran Company has contacted Truckel Inc. with an offer to sell it 5,000 of the wickets for $18 each. If Truckel makes the wickets, variable costs are $11 per unit. Fixed costs are $12 per unit; however, $5 per unit is avoidable. Should Truckel make or buy the wickets?

Buy; savings = $10,000
B. Make; savings = $20,000
C. Make; savings = $10,000
D. Buy; savings = $25,000

20) Rosen, Inc. has 10,000 obsolete calculators, which are carried in inventory at a cost of $20,000. If the calculators are scrapped, they can be sold for $1.10 each (for parts). If they are repackaged, at a cost of $15,000, they could be sold to toy stores for $2.50 per unit. What alternative should be chosen, and why?

Repackage; revenue is $5,000 greater than cost.
B. Scrap; incremental loss is $9,000.
C. Repackage; receive profit of $10,000.
D. Scrap; profit is $1,000 greater.

21) The cost to produce Part A was $10 per unit in 2005. During 2006, it has increased to $11 per unit. In 2006, Supplier Company has offered to supply Part A for $9 per unit. For the make-or-buy decision,

incremental costs are $1 per unit
B. net relevant costs are $1 per unit
C. differential costs are $2 per unit
D. incremental revenues are $2 per unit

22) Hartley, Inc. has one product with a selling price per unit of $200, the unit variable cost is $75, and the total monthly fixed costs are $300,000. How much is Hartley’s contribution margin ratio?

37.5%
B. 150%.
C. 266.6%
D. 62.5%.

23) Which statement describes a fixed cost?

The amount per unit varies depending on the activity level.
B. It varies in total at every level of activity.
C. It remains the same per unit regardless of activity level.
D. Its total varies proportionally to the level of activity.

24) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?

$28,000
B. $18,000
C. $6,000
D. $12,000

25) Variable costing

is required under GAAP
B. is used for external reporting purposes
C. is also known as full costing
D. treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a period cost

26) Which cost is NOT charged to the product under variable costing?

Direct labor
B. Direct materials
C. Fixed manufacturing overhead
D. Variable manufacturing overhead

27) Orbach Company sells its product for $40 per unit. During 2005, it produced 60,000 units and sold 50,000 units (there was no beginning inventory). Costs per unit are: direct materials $10, direct labor $6, and variable overhead $2. Fixed costs are: $480,000 manufacturing overhead, and $60,000 selling and administrative expenses. The per unit manufacturing cost under absorption costing is

$18
B. $16
C. $27
D. $26

28) Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of using standard costs?

Standard costs can be useful in setting prices for finished goods.
B. Standard costs can reduce clerical costs.
C. Standard costs can make employees “cost-conscious.”
D. Standard costs can be used as a means of finding fault with performance.

29) The difference between a budget and a standard is that

a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened
B. standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system
C. a budget expresses a total amount while a standard expresses a unit amount
D. a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be

30) If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, they should

offer wage incentives to those meeting standards
B. set tight standards in order to motivate people
C. not employ any standards
D. set loose standards that are easy to fulfill

31) The per-unit standards for direct materials are 2 gallons at $4 per gallon. Last month, 11,200 gallons of direct materials that actually cost $42,400 were used to produce 6,000 units of product. The direct materials quantity variance for last month was

$2,400 favorable
B. $5,600 unfavorable
C. $3,200 unfavorable
D. $3,200 favorable

32) The standard number of hours that should have been worked for the output attained is 8,000 direct labor hours and the actual number of direct labor hours worked was 8,400. If the direct labor price variance was $8,400 unfavorable, and the standard rate of pay was $18 per direct labor hour, what was the actual rate of pay for direct labor?

$15 per direct labor hour
B. $18 per direct labor hour
C. $19 per direct labor hour
D. $17 per direct labor hour

33) The total variance is $10,000. The total materials variance is $4,000. The total labor variance is twice the total overhead variance. What is the total overhead variance?

$2,000
B. $4,000
C. $3,000
D. $1,000

34) Manufacturing overhead costs are applied to work in process on the basis of

standard hours allowed
B. actual overhead costs incurred
C. ratio of actual variable to fixed costs
D. actual hours worked

35) The overhead volume variance relates only to

variable overhead costs
B. both variable and fixed overhead costs
C. all manufacturing costs
D. fixed overhead costs

36) If the standard hours allowed are less than the standard hours at normal capacity,

the overhead volume variance will be unfavorable
B. the overhead controllable variance will be favorable
C. variable overhead costs will be overapplied
D. variable overhead costs will be underapplied

37) Gottberg Mugs is planning to sell 2,000 mugs and mugs during April. Each mug requires 2 pounds of resin and a half hour of direct labor. Resin costs $1 per pound and employees of the company are paid $12.50 per hour. Manufacturing overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. Gottberg has 2,000 pounds of resin in beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400 pounds in ending inventory. How much is the total amount of budgeted direct labor for April?

$12,500
B. $25,000
C. $27,500
D. $13,750

38) Lewis Hats is planning to sell 600 straw hats. Each hat requires a half pound of straw and a quarter hour of direct labor. Straw costs $0.20 per pound and employees of the company are paid $22 per hour. Lewis has 80 pounds of straw and 40 hats in beginning inventory and wants to have 50 pounds of straw and 60 hats in ending inventory. How many units should Lewis Hats produce in April?

600
B. 580
C. 630
D. 620

39) At January 1, 2004, Barry, Inc. has beginning inventory of 4,000 widgets. Barry estimates it will sell 35,000 units during the first quarter of 2004 with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. Barry’s policy is to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter’s sales. Each widget costs $1 and is sold for $1.50. How much is budgeted sales revenue for the third quarter of 2004?

$57,525
B. $63,525
C. $42,350
D. $63,000

40) In most cases, prices are set by the

customers
B. largest competitor
C. selling company
D. competitive market

41) A company must price its product to cover its costs and earn a reasonable profit in

all cases
B. its early years
C. the long run
D. the short run

42) The cost-plus pricing approach’s major advantage is

it considers customer demand
B. that sales volume has no effect on per unit costs
C. it is simple to compute
D. it can be used to determine a product’s target cost

Question 25: Economics

ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

A resource is anything that:
A) can be used in production.
B) you pay for.
C) is in scarce supply.
D) can be consumed.

Scarcity in economics means:
A) not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
B) the wants of people are limited.
C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

Opportunity cost is:
A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
B) the dollar payment for a product.
C) the benefit derived from a product.
D) the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
A) $10,000
B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
D) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

We are forced to make choices because of:
A) exploitation.
B) efficiency.
C) scarcity.
D) the margin.

A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
A) at the fringe
B) in the beginning
C) at the margin
D) after the fact

A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
A) prices; sells
B) trade-offs; produces
C) trade-offs; consumes
D) shortages; produces

When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
A) is constant.
B) is measured in dollar terms.
C) is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
D) usually decreases.

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:

Figure: Guns and Butter

(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E, and F:

A) indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
A) bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant costs of guns and butter.
D) linear because of constant costs.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
C) involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
D) has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

Free trade between countries:
A) should be based on absolute advantage.
B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
D) will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

Figure: Comparative Advantage

Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
A) 1 unit of oranges.
B) ¼ unit of oranges.
C) 4 units of oranges.
D) 10 units of oranges

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

(Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
A) economic growth.
B) technical efficiency.
C) resource underutilization.
D) the law of increasing opportunity cost.

Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
D) the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
A) a fall in the price of videos
B) an increase in the price of videos
C) an increase in the supply of videos
D) an increase in the incomes of buyers

The law of demand states other things equal:
A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
D) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
A) buyer’s incomes.
B) price of Luis’s Pizza.
C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
A) increase the demand for good A.
B) increase the demand for good B.
C) decrease the demand for good A.
D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

(Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B.
B) B to A.
C) C to A.
D) E to B.

(Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part ofconsumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) C to A.
B) A to B.
C) B to E.
D) E to B.

When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
A) substitutes.
B) complements.
C) both expensive.
D) both inexpensive.

Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
A) a decrease in the price of paper
B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
C) an increase in college enrollments
D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

A good is normal if:
A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
C) when income increases, the demand increases.
D) income and the demand are unrelated.

Exam #2

The typical supply curve illustrates that:
A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
C) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
D) price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
A) expectations regarding future prices
B) the technology of production
C) the cost of production
D) consumer tastes

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B

(Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to C
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) B to E

The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
D) the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

Excess supply occurs when:
A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
C) the price is below equilibrium price.
D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
D) ) the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

Use the following to answer question 9:

Figure: DVD Market

(Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
B) an increase in demand.
C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
D) an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
D) The price of salsa triples.

Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
A) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
B) the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
C) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
D) the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) not change.
D) cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
A) quantity demanded to a change in price.
B) price to a change in quantity demanded.
C) the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
D) the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
A) price elastic.
B) price inelastic.
C) price unit-elastic.
D) perfectly price inelastic.

Use the following to answer question 17:

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

(Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
A) $30.
B) $45.
C) $60.
D) $90.

Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
A) 1.17
B) 1.50
C) 0.85
D) 1.00

The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
A) 500
B) 50%
C) 3.5
D) 2.6

If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
A) price-inelastic
B) price unit-elastic
C) price-elastic
D) positive

To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
A) less than 0
B) equal to 0
C) positive, yet almost equal to 0
D) greater than 0

A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
A) horizontal
B) downward-sloping
C) upward-sloping
D) vertical

The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
A) between 1 and 0
B) less than 0
C) equal to 0
D) greater than 0

To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
A) her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
B) her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
C) her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
D) her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
A) exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
B) is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
C) is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
D) exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
A) average.
B) top.
C) margin.
D) end.

Use the following to answer question 27:

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

(Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
A) $68.50
B) $100
C) $50
D) $10

If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
A) society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
B) society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
C) society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
D) the market is producing too much of the good.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 11

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 12

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 16

0 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 18

0 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

Matthew’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

Question 41

0 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”

Question 43

0 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.

Question 48

0 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 50

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31: Psychology

PSY 203 Week 4 Personality Perspectives Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper comparing the main themes of the social-cognitive perspective with the humanistic perspective.

Describe the main concepts involved in each perspective.
Explain how the perspectives differ from one another.
Identify possible limitations of each perspective.

Include a minimum of two peer-reviewed articles.

Format citations in your paper consistent with APA guidelines

Question 32: Psychology

PSYC 10004 Sample Practice-Exam-2015 MCQS Personality-Psychology

Sample Personality Exam Questions (answers at bottom of document)

How many trait dimensions did Cattell propose?
2
3
5
16
Which statement best describes how Allport and Odbert attempted to define the trait universe?
correlational analysis of trait adjectives
factor analysis of trait adjectives
selection of trait adjectives that describe psychological differences between people
selection of trait adjectives that people use to evaluate each other
Which is of the following statements about factor analysis is correct?
finds groups of variables that have similar meanings
finds groups of variables that correlate with one another
finds groups of variables that can be factored
finds groups of variables that have similar means
Which of the following is not an established alternative label for the relevant Big Five factor?
Extraversion & “Surgency”
Conscientiousness & “Morality”
Neuroticism & “Emotional instability”
Openness to Experience & “Culture”
Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationships between Big Five traits and emotion dimensions?
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s and Gray’s theories is incorrect?
For Eysenck, Neuroticism is related to limbic system reactivity.
For Gray, the “behavioural activation system” is linked to sensitivity to reward and pleasure.
For Gray, Impulsivity involves having a weak “behavioural inhibition system”.
Gray’s Anxiety dimension corresponds to a mixture of Neuroticism and Introversion in Eysenck’s system.
Which of the following statements about traits and values is incorrect?
the structure of values appears to differ across cultures more than the structure of traits
values are cognitions, traits are not
traits appear to have more dimensions than values
unlike traits, values are inherently desirable to the person who has them
Which of the following is NOT one of the six virtue classes in the VIA classification of strengths?

Justice
Transcendence
Humanity
Creativity
Which two vocational interest types are next to one another in Holland’s model?
Realistic & Enterprising
Conventional & Social
Artistic & Investigative
Realistic & Artistic
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding biological research and theory

on personality?

extraverts’ brains are typically over-stimulated
shared environmental factors are more important than nonshared factors
the heritability of personality traits is sometimes calculated from twin studies
2D:4D digit ratio research shows the importance of circulating levels of neurotransmitters in the brain
Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s work on personality is correct?
Introverts have highly arousable autonomic nervous systems
Neuroticism is associated with stimulus hunger
Extraverts tend to like stimulant drugs more than Introverts
High levels of Psychoticism put people at risk of depression
Roughly what proportion of the variability in most personality traits tends to be heritable?
20%
40%
60%
80%
Which Freudian defence mechanism does this statement illustrate: “I’m not jealous, you are”?
projection
repression
sublimation
denial
Which of the following is CORRECT about Freud’s genetic model of personality?
the anal stage takes place in the first two years of life.
it recognises that personality has a large heritable component.
fixations in the oral stage can lead to passivity and dependency.
it has received extensive empirical support from developmental psychologists.
One of these four lists contains concepts from Freud’s topographic, structural and genetic models, in that order. Which is it?
Unconscious, ego, repression
Unconscious, id, reaction formation
Preconscious, superego, regression
Preconscious, superfly, fixation
Psychoanalytic theory is NOT often criticized for which of the following?
being unfalsifiable
being unscientific
being deterministic
being simplistic
Which of the following statements about cognitive approaches to personality is correct?
the repertory grid assesses people on a standard set of personal constructs
pessimistic explanatory style involves explaining negative events using internal, stable and global causes
self-complexity has repeatedly been shown to protect against depression
emotional intelligence is a component of verbal intelligence
Which of the following is an external, unstable attribution for why something happened to a person?
fate
the weather
hard work
bad mood
Which of the following statements about research on the self is incorrect?
High self-complexity buffers people against stressful life events
High self-complexity is associated with having more self-aspects with less overlap
Self-esteem is more a side-effect of achievement than a cause of it
Average self-esteem levels may be rising in Western societies
Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect research on self-esteem?
it is more likely to be a byproduct of academic achievement than a cause of it
it makes people secure so that they are less likely to act aggressively when they are insulted.
having stable self-esteem may be more important than having high self esteem.
defensive self-esteem involves having high explicit self-esteem but low implicit self-esteem.
Which of the following forms of coping illustrates the indicated kind of coping

strategy?

Emotion-focused: attacking a person who is making you unhappy
Problem-focused: recognizing that an issue is causing you difficulties
Emotion-focused: imagining that a problem will just go away
Problem-focused: actively trying to change how you feel about a stressor
Which of the following statements about personality change is NOT correct?
mean levels of internal attribution have increased in recent decades
there is much evidence of mean level change in adulthood
rank order stability is measured by correlation coefficients
rank order stability increases with age
Which of the following statements about rank-order stability of personality is NOT correct?

it may be partially due to environmental selection (i.e., people selecting environments that support their traits).
it increases with age.
it is incompatible with evidence that the mean levels of Big Five traits change with increasing age.
it is measured by re-test correlations in longitudinal studies.
According to Erikson, what contrasts with Industry in one of his eight stages?
Shame & doubt
Isolation
Guilt
Inferiority
Which statement about “lay theories” of personality is false?
entity theorists believe personality is not malleable
entity theorists stereotype people more than incremental theorists
incremental theorists hold a ‘dynamic’ view of personality
incremental theorists attribute differences between social groups to innate factors

26 . The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does this imply?

convergent validity
content validity
internal consistency
retest reliability
Which kind of validity or reliability does NOT match the description that follows it?
re-test reliability: people get similar scores when they do a test on different occasions.
discriminant validity: a test of one personality characteristic does not correlate with tests that measure different characteristics.
convergent validity: people get similar scores on a test when different people administer it to them.
internal consistency: the items in the test all correlate with one another.
Which kind of validity scale is designed to detect random patterns of responding on a personality inventory?
infrequency scale
incompatibility scale
lie scale
defensiveness scale
Which of the following is NOT a weakness of many projective personality tests?
poor predictive validity
poor inter-rater reliability
susceptible to faking good bias
susceptible to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
Which of these potential flaws of psychobiographies is correctly defined?
originology: over-emphasis on early life events in explaining the person
pathography: insufficiently empathic interpretation of the person
determinism: focussing too much on a single factor in explaining the person
hagiography: portrayal of the person as extremely ugly

Question 33: Psychology

Psych 2230 Sample Practice-Exam2014-questions-and-answersChapters-1-13

Question 34: Psychology

PSYC 215 SOCIAL PSYCH EXAMS CHAPTER 3 to 8

Exam #3

The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
A) marginal utility
B) maximum utility
C) average utility
D) required utility

The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
A) greater than that from the first.
B) equal to that from the first.
C) less than that from the first.
D) not comparable to that of the first.

Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
A) 150
B) 200
C) 350
D) 475

Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
D) MUx = MUy

Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
A) 50
B) 10
C) 5
D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
C) not be maximizing her utility.
D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

(Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

(Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
A) fifth
B) sixth
C) seventh
D) eighth

A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
A) long run
B) fixed run
C) short run
D) nominal run

Use the following to answer question 15:

Figure: Short-Run Costs

(Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
A) average total
B) average variable
C) marginal
D) total

If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
A) average total cost is increasing.
B) average total cost is decreasing.
C) average total cost is unchanged.
D) marginal cost is decreasing.

A firm’s marginal cost is:
A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
B) the slope of the total cost curve.
C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
A) economies of scale
B) diseconomies of scale
C) constant returns to scale
D) variable returns to scale

In the model of perfect competition:
A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
C) no individual or firm has enough power to

Question 26: General Question

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

a)Oncotic pressure

b)Buffering

c)Net filtration

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

c)Capillary oncotic

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

a)Hypopolarization

b)Hyperexcitability

c)Depolarization

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

a)20:1

b)1:20

c)10:2

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

Question 9: Psychology

Instruction

develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development). SEE ATTACHED for more detailed instructions on requirements.

Final Project: Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling

Families face many challenges in today’s world and marriage, couple, and family counselors (MCF) are the professionals who help families navigate difficult times. Families are a working system and each element of that system impact the operation of the system and the individual members. Issues such as substance abuse, family violence, divorce, mental illness, infidelity, and child abuse present counselors with numerous treatment challenges. As an MCF counselor, will you be ready to address them?

For the Final Project, you will consider the clients in the solution focused YouTube videos you viewed earlier in the course (see: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tjdJhdA9mE4&list=PLgswj8XPfriWqAECgkNLXLjG vjUXdfSYQ)

For your Final Project, you are to develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development).

Your project should include all of the following sections:

Legal and ethical considerations regarding the family circumstances 2. Multicultural considerations
3. Identify any family life cycle considerations
4. Theoretical counseling model you would use in the case with rationale 5. Specific issues facing the family
Assessment techniques you would use in the case with rationale
7. Intervention plan for the family
8. Research (at least five references) that support your intervention plan
9. Prognosis for the family
10. A reflection on your learning experience in this course and your preparedness for working as a marriage, couple, and family counselor.

Although the Final Project is not to be submitted until Day 7 of Week 12, you should become familiar with the project requirements and have them in mind as you proceed through the course. The Final Project will be evaluated according to the final project rubric. Be sure that the Final Project is written using APA format. Information on scholarly writing may be found in the APA Manual (6th ed.) and at the Purdue OWL Writing Center site (http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/). The Final Project is due (in Blackboard AND TK20) on Day 7 of Week 12.

Question 10: Science

Instruction

For this paper you must cite and reference 2 sources. The paper should be 2–3 pages and written using current APA format. Your paper should address the following: a. How would you prepare for the following situation? (provide realistic examples and details for safety and survival) (Scenario) At this moment, you are sitting at home working on your class. Suddenly, the National Weather Bureau sends an alert across your cell phone—a tornado is headed your way. You have 15 minutes before touchdown in your neighborhood. What is your plan? This is a ‘shelter in place’ scenario, you cannot outrun the tornado. Identify a safe place in your home to take shelter. You must include research. Cite and reference two sources and explain the recommended safety measures in a tornado emergency and how you would apply them to your specific living arrangements. b. How prepared are you in the event of a disaster? Describe your level of disaster preparedness using specific examples and references to your “go-bag” and preparedness checklist assignments. Example: “I am more prepared for a water-related disaster than a fire-related disaster even though I live in a highly secluded, forested area. I have a boat as transportation in the event of flooding, but I do not have rain barrels or fire barrier supplies on hand.” Example: “There were many missing items on my preparedness checklist. I realized that I do not own a flashlight. If I had to use my phone as a light it would drain the battery very quickly. c. Reflect on how prepared you were before this class and compare it with how prepared you are now. Have you acquired any new emergency items? Do you plan to take any additional trainings or certification courses? Have you shared your knowledge with friends and family? Review the rubric for more information on how the assignment will be graded.

Question 11: General

INTL725 INSTRUCTIONS FOR GROUP PROJECT

INTERNATIONAL MARKET RESEARCH

Worth 25% of final mark

Week 8: 5% group research proposal (in-class)
Week 11-12: 5% group presentation on research proposal
Week 12: 5% group progress report (in-class)
Week 13: 10% group final report (in-class)

Each student will receive a different mark, depending on his/her contribution.

Instructions

Select trade agreement, market and sector
Have an idea of a market and a sector that you know well.
Consult the list of Canada’s trade agreements to find the one that your market and sector can benefit (filter Status to “5 In force”).

https://www.international.gc.ca/trade-commerce/trade-agreements-accords-commerciaux/agr-acc/index.aspx?lang=eng

Finalize your market and sector, the ones that can benefit from the selected trade agreement(s).

Work with your group: discussing the trade agreement(s)
Each student prepares a research proposal (due Week 8 in class).
The group will make a presentation (Weeks 11-12).
Each student prepares a progress report (due Week 12 in class).
Each student prepares a final report (due Week 13 in class).

Starting your research
Keep in mind that this is an applied research (see the difference between applied and basic research), and the proposal and report should have a business format (see the difference between a business report and an academic report).
Consult the Market Research section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/market-research.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information. The link “Conducting Market Research” by Canada Business Network is particularly helpful.
Consult the Data and Statistics section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/data-statistics.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information.
Consult the Market Reports section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/market-report-access.jsp
Consult the Related Resources section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/related-resources.jsp
Consult “Step #4: Setting out: Identifying your target market” in GAC “Step-by-step guide to exporting 2017”: http://tradecommissioner.gc.ca/exporters-exportateurs/guide-exporting-guide-exportation.aspx?lang=eng
Consult sources suggested by GAC:

www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca

www.cia.gov (CIA World Factbook)

www.export.gov/mrktresearch/ (U.S. Commercial Service)

www.eiu.com (Economist Intelligence Unit)

www.fitt.ca, www.tradeready.ca

Other governments’ websites

Note: Do not use other sources, unless you can prove that they are good sources. Mark will be deducted if you use other sources without showing that they are credible sources.

Working on your Research Proposal

See Research Proposal – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult the handout on the purpose and layout of a research proposal.

Length:

2 pages, plus cover letter, title page, graphs and references

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter (to the Canadian company)

Title Page

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity*

Research Objectives*

Methodology* (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Implementation Plan (time and cost estimates)

Conclusion

References

* most important in a research proposal

Required sources (at least 6):

At least five reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
One business journal article

Reminder about writing: Each paragraph should have only one major point. The first sentence is the summary of the paragraph. The length of a paragraph should be 1/3 – ½ of a page.

Working on your Group Presentation

Please prepare PowerPoint for your presentation.

See Research Proposal Presentation – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.
Consult the article “Is your elevator pitch ready?” by Canada Business:

https://canadabusiness.ca/blog/is-your-elevator-pitch-ready-1/

How To Prepare an Oral Research Presentation:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LzIJFD-ddoI

PowerPoint format (one slide each):

Introduction (introduce speakers and structure of presentation)

Background on the trade agreement(s)

For each student, 3-5 slides:

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology / Sampling / Implementation Plan (time and cost)

Thank the audience and ask for questions

Length: 8 minutes presentation + 2 minutes Q&A / group

Working on your Research Report (Progress and Final)

See Research Report – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.

Length:

4 pages, plus cover letter, title page and references, tables, charts, graphs, pictures, maps

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter

Title Page

Executive Summary *

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Data Analysis

Data Interpretation

Business Implications

Conclusion

References

* most important

Required sources (at least 10):

At least six reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
Three business journal articles from at least two different journals
One printed book (such as the textbook)

Marking Rubric for Research Proposal:

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level

B-level

C-level

D-level

Unsatisfactory

Mark

Business opportunity

Identifies significant opportunity

Identifies good opportunity

Identifies adequate opportunity

Identifies some opportunity

Does not identify a clear opportunity

Research objectives, methodology, and sampling

Excellent

Good

Adequate

Acceptable

Unsatisfactory

Use of professional sources

Uses professional sources extensively and effectively

Uses professional sources sufficiently

Uses professional sources adequately

Uses some professional sources

Does not use professional sources

APA format

Documents sources using APA format precisely

Writing effectiveness

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively, with only a few errors

Writes clearly and concisely, with many errors

Writing is unclear, with too many errors

Writing is unclear and unfocused, with many serious errors

/0.5

Total:

Group members:

________________________________
________________________________
________________________________
________________________________

Marking Rubric for Group Presentation:

Criteriononsetation points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc	A-level	B-level	C-level	D-level	Unsatisfactory	Mark
Content: Business opportunity	Effectively presents the opportunity	Sufficiently present the opportunity	Adequately presents the opportunity	Present the opportunity acceptably	Does not clearly identify the opportunity	/2
Content: Research objectives, methodology, and sampling	Excellent	Good	Adequate	Acceptable	Unsatisfactory	/2
Documentation: Use of professional sources	All sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Most sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Some sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	A few sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation	Sources of data are not documented and mentioned in the presentation	/1
Organization	Sequence is logical and interesting; audience can follow easily	Sequence is logical and interesting, additional explanation could be helpful	Sequence is logical; a lot more explanation could be helpful	Sequence not very logical; audience has difficulty following the presentation	Sequence not logical; audience cannot understand the presentation	/1
PowerPoint quality	Attractive, easy to follow, no errors	Attractive, easy to follow, only a few errors	Attractive, easy to follow, many errors	Not attractive, many errors	Not attractive, difficult to follow, many serious errors	/1
Speaking skills (articulation, proper rate, proper pronunciation, good posture, eye contact, enthusiasm, confidence)	Excellent	Good	Adequate	Acceptable	Inadequate	/1
Length of presentation	Uses 10 minutes effectively, does not go overtime	Uses 10 minutes sufficiently, does not goes overtime	Uses 10 minutes adequately, does not goes overtime	Uses 10 minutes adequately, goes overtime	Does not use 10 minutes adequately	/1
Q&A	Handles the questions effectively	Handles the questions properly	Handles the questions adequately	Handles the questions satisfactorily	Does not handle the questions satisfactorily	/1
Total:						/10

Additional comments (for each presenter) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

throughout

Documents sources using APA format with a few errors

Documents sources using APA format with many errors

Does not use APA format adequately

Does not use APA format

/0.5

Homework Nest Offers Best Custom College Homework Help on All Subjects. Click https://homeworknest.com and register to Get Best Homework Help Chat Tutoring Services Today!

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 15: General Question

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/show-excel-show-work-including-formulars-considering-investment-stock-market-identified-tw-q39604624

Question 16: Other

Unit 4 DB AM

Do you think that brands have a finite life, or do you believe that brands can last forever? Support your position with detailed explanations and the use of a brand example

Unit IV Essay

Marketing Plan: Part II

Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed in the Unit II assignment. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the subsequent marketing plan that you will compile. The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).

This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.

Provide a segmentation and target market analysis.
- In this section of the marketing plan, you should identify the four criteria useful in segmenting the market, and apply them to your company. Explain how identifying the target market is more clearly defined once a marketer has conducted segmentation on the population. Explain several target markets for your company using detailed explanations.
Include a competitive and industry analysis.
- This section of the marketing plan should identify three or four competitors of your company. These can be direct or indirect competitors. (Note: Not all companies have competitors.) Differentiate each competitor based upon multiple criteria. Additionally, conduct an industry analysis by looking at the health of the industry in which your company resides. Identify whether the industry has grown or shrunk in the last 5–10 years. Explain why understanding the competitors and the health of the industry are important elements of the marketing plan.
Provide a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis.
- In this section, you will compile a SWOT analysis of your company. The internal strengths and weaknesses as well as the external opportunities and threats need to be identified and explained (include at least 2–3 elements under each area of the SWOT). The value proposition will be demonstrated through a strong showing in the strengths section of the SWOT analysis. Reference the SWOT analysis explanation in the Unit I Lesson for additional insight on how to compile this analysis.

Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).

Question 17: Accounting

The Swiss Clock Shop manufactures clocks on a highly automatedassembly line. Its costing system uses two cost categories, directmaterials and conversion costs. Each product must pass through theAssembly Department and the Testing Department. Direct materialsare added at the beginning of the production process. Conversioncosts are allocated evenly throughout production. Swiss Clock Shopuses weighted-average costing.

Data for the Assembly Department for June 2010 are:

Work in process, beginninginventory 250 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (50% complete)

Units started during June 800 units

Work in process, ending inventory: 150 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (75% complete)

Costs for June 2010:

Work in process, beginning inventory:

Directmaterials $180,000

Conversion costs $270,000

Direct materials costs added duringJune $1,000,000

Conversion costs added during June $1,000,000

prepare equivalent unit schedule for direct materials

prepare equivalent unit schedule for conversion costs

prepare direct materials costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transfered out and ending work in progress

prepare conversion costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transferred out) and ending

Question 18: Engineering

If the velocity of block A up the incline is increasing at the rate of 0.060 m/s each second, determine the acceleration of B.

Question 19: General Question

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/heights-women-aged-20-29-follow-approximately-n-642-28-distribution-men-age-heights-distri-q32003221

Question 20: Chemistry

A student, Ken, is given a mixture containing two carbonate compounds. The mixture includes MgCO3 and (NH4)2CO3. The mixture is 65.33>span class=”MJX_Assistive_MathML” role=”presentation”### CO3 is by mass. What is the mass percent of MgCO3 in the mixture?

Question 21: Business

Assignment

– Select an industry (e.g. healthcare, agriculture). Identify ONE information system (e.g. transaction processing system, business intelligence, collaboration, knowledge management etc) that is unique to this industry and supports the core business (e.g. if you choose aviation industry, explore an aviation information system) (Hint: The system should be used mainly and only in that industry. Do not choose generic IS such as accounting, payroll, email, Microsoft Office. Also do not pick up a product of an IT firm such Microsoft Sharepoint Portal; we are not interested in a branded product, the same IS can be produced by multiple IT firms. If you are not certain about the IS, email me your alternatives and we will discuss.

– Collect information on this specific IS using Internet, your textbook, other reading materials, videos, users or manufacturers / service providers.

– Prepare a report about this IS by addressing following questions (you dont have to answer one by one, your writeup should answer below questions):

What are the characteristics of this IS? What are the main functionalities / features? (Provide technical information as well). Identify couple of IT firms that produce this IS (It can be the case that there is only one IT firm that offers this IS. Then state this fact.)
Which processes are supported by this IS? Who are the users (function, title, profession etc.) Describe in detail
Which specific benefits does this IS offer for companies AND all stakeholders (including customers)? Which strategic objectives can be fulfilled using this IS?
Are there any concerns / risks about usage of this IS: privacy, security, investment, technical etc.

Rules

The educational systems that we use such as LMS, SIS are excluded.
Your report should be of 1500 words, double-spaced, 12-point Times New Roman font, with 1-inch margins on all sides. Do not include questions to the text and word count. Name, title etc should be excluded as well. Submission below that will NOT be graded.
Your report should be submitted as a Word document(.doc or .docx). Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).
The file name should contain your name and last name (e.g. First_Name_LastName_Assignment1).
Provide reference/citation for the sources that you referred (web page, textbook, person). The references are not counted towards the word limitation; you can present the list of references at the end of the report. I will deduct 5 points from submissions without references.
You should submit your assignment via LMS. E-mail and hardcopy submissions will NOT be accepted.
Late submissions will NOT be accepted. Please check the duedate and time.
Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade. I will deduct points if you don’t use proper business English.
Make sure that the report presents your original ideas. Do NOT copy paste the text from the source (e.g. Internet) or borrow lines from your friends. Your report will be checked by a plagiarism tool; identical or similar (above 50%) assignments will NOT be graded.

Question 22: Mathematics

A point estimate of a population parameter is a single value of a statistic. For example, the sample mean x is a point estimate of the population mean μ. Similarly, the sample proportion p is a point estimate of the population proportion P.

Question 23: Mathematics

If the population proportion of women carrying HPV were 19%, what is the chance that the sample proportion could exceed 20%

Question 24: English

Compare the movie, smooth talk, with the story, ”where are you going, where have you been?” or the short film, ”where are you going, where have you been?” you could also compare all three. some of the things you could discuss are: Did you think the casting was done right? what did the movie leave out? What did the film add that wasn’t in the story? the ending is different in the movie, smooth talk, than it is in the short story was scarier? which was more interesting to you? these are just ideas but you can compare them using whatever criteria you like.

Question 25: Economics

The prices of consumer goods in Los Angeles and Miami are different: some things are cheaper in Mi-ami, while others are cheaper in Los Angeles. Suppose the price of every consumer good in Houstonis exactly halfway between the Miami price of that good and the Los Angeles price. A market research firm surveys 1000 consumers, who have different preferences over consumption bundles, and differ-ent incomes. The consumers are asked to rank these three cities in terms of the consumption bundles that they could afford in each place. The result of the survey is that 450 consumers rank Los Angeles first, 350 rank Houston first and 200 rank Miami first. Do all these consumers have rational preferences?

Question 26: Business

Costs are classified according to the type of analysis that is being done. Suppose you were offered a job making $50,000 annually after you received your undergraduate degree. However, you made a decision to get your MBA in 2 years rather than taking the job. You will incur tuition, books and living costs for these 2 years.

REQUIRED:

What costs are relevant to your decision? Note that some costs relevant to a decision may not be quantitative.
What is the opportunity cost of this decision.
Comment on response of 2 classmates. Agree or disagree

Question 27: Business

Tired of the worn out carpet in her house, Lee purchased bamboo plank flooring for $2,000 from Big Floors, Inc. She agreed to pay add an extra $2,200 for Big Floor to install for a total contract price of $4200. Which law governs this transaction?

Question 28: Religious Study

Research has shown that Kenyan value system today comprises of money, glamour, power and prestige. Explain the meaning of each

Question 29: Other

Does recycling contribute to the release of greenhouse gasses?

Question 30: Psychology

Correlation is NOT the same as Causation!

In the media, correlations are often presented as if there is a causal relationship. For example, a news outlet might report: Research suggests there could be a link between dairy intake and the risk of developing prostate and ovarian cancers. Then they ask: Does milk cause cancer? As a researcher, I have been interviewed by magazines and this is really frustrating!

Class, provide an example of when a media outlet reported a correlation as if there was causation (be sure to show your source), then, explain why correlations do not show causation.

Question 31: Literary Studies

Critical Thinking/ Written Communication/ Social Responsibility

Representation in the Media and Entertainment = How our own identity (Hispanic female, black male, queen person, etc.) is presented in culture: TV, Film Literature, Magazines, etc. Psychologists, Advertisers Analysts and artists agree that representation in media and entertainment (M&E) affects and individual deeply and with long lasting effects.

Do Research on Representation in the Media and Entertainment and write a 2-page essay answering the question:

Do you think that race relations and gen der issues in this country could be improved if Media and Entertainment changed their practices to be more equitable to people of color, women and women of color?

Some Research Topics:

Equity in Casting
Equity in film
Equity in theatre
Representation in film
Hollywood Diversity Report
Effects of tv on minorities
Effects of tv race and gende
Women and advertising
How woman is portrayed in film
Masculinity in TV and Film
Homophobia and the effects on Queer youth

Question 32: Political Science

Instruction

Answer the following question in 3-5 sentences each. 17. What is the “American Dream,” according to King? 18. How does King define and defend nonviolence? 19. What is “innocence,” according to Baldwin? Why is it problematic? 20. What is Baldwin’s assessment of the Nation of Islam? 21. How does Baldwin connect love and politics? 22. What are the key elements of Malcolm X’s conception of black nationalism? 23. What is the relationship between capitalism and racism, according to the Black Panthers? The League of Revolutionary Black Workers? Angela Davis? 24. Why does Baker advocate organization, rather than mobilization? 25. How does King define Black Power, and what is his assessment of it? 26. What is the relationship between the “world house” and American democracy? 27. How does color-blind discourse affect our understanding of Hurricane Katrina? 28. Why is gender significant for understanding Hurricane Katrina? 29. What is neoliberalism? 30. How does exposure to rap affect political attitudes? 31. Why are authenticity and hyper masculinity problematic? 32. What are the three most important indicators that criminal justice today constitutes “the new Jim Crow”? 33. Why is Alexander critical of color-blindness? 34. What are the strongest arguments for and against reparations?

Course Name	Course POLS 393-01 Online		Term and Year: Fall 2019
CRN
Class Time	This class is asynchronous (students can log-in on their own terms as long as assignments are completed on time). Please pay attention to those dates on the class calendar in this syllabus. The expectation is that all work will be turned in by 11:59pm every Sunday.
Class Location	https://texsu.blackboard.com/webapps/login/ Student Username Is: last name + first name initial + last 4 digits of T# Student password is: 6 digit birth date (MMDDYY)
Course Prerequisites
Instructor	Linda D. Smith
Office Location	PA 402	Office Hours		By Request
Instructor Email	Linda.Smith@tsu.edu	Instructor Phone		713.313.5261
Preferred Methods of Contact	Email is the best way to reach me, if you do not have a response in 48 hours, please assume that your email was not received and follow up.
Blackboard Help	For Blackboard troubleshoots dial Dr. Claiborne at 713.313.4853

Course Description
Course Purpose	This course aims to introduce you to the cannon of African American political thought. Through readings, media, and discussions, we will explore how black Americans have defined themselves, espoused their thoughts on power and subjugation. We will explore the relationship between slavery and democracy, the role of historical and collective memory, the political significance of culture, and the connections between race and nation. While underscoring the intersections of race, class, gender, and sexuality we will also exploring the construction of identity.
Learning Objectives	1) Become familiar with the foundational text of African American Political Thought 2) Understand the historical roots of different factions of African American Political Thought. 3) Form and analyze arguments centered around race and power.

Material
Textbooks	W. E. B. Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk (Bedford) Frederick Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom (Yale) Ida B. Wells-Barnett, On Lynchings (Humanity Books) Marcus Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches of Marcus Garvey (Dover) James Baldwin, The Fire Next Time (Beacon) Martin Luther King, Jr., Where Do We Go From Here? (Beacon) Michelle Alexander, The New Jim Crow (Open Media) Lester Spence, Stare in the Darkness (Minnesota)
Required Software	Microsoft Word
Required Technology	Due to the nature of this course, you will need access to a computer to complete assignments for this course. There are several labs you can access to use computers on campus. Please check their operating hours. 1. Fairchild Tiger Hub 2. Student Center Lab, 2^nd Floor 3. Labs within colleges

Grading

Grading should be clear and explicit. You may include format, number, weight for assignments, descriptions, as well as a rubric. Below is just an example.

Grading Scale

A+,A, A-
B+ B B- C+ C C- D+		Ds and Fs are failing grades in this course
D		(Refer to Catalog)
D-
F

Major Assignments and Grade Distribution

Response Questions	Each week students will provide a response to a question based on the reading for the week. These essays are not summary essays but rather they must provide your own original thought supported by the readings. These are short essay questions with a maximum word limit of 500 words. Please see BlackBoard for the Response Question Rubric.	60% of grade
Final Project	Students are to identify a minimum of 5 different contemporary political leaders/thinkers and conduct a study are the writings, speeches, etc. of these individuals. Students are to trace the intellectual lineage (conservatism, black nationalism, black feminism, etc. ) , thinkers that clearly have had an influence on the individual’s political thought. Students should also identify with whom the individual is engaged in debate with, and ultimately students need to detail the main arguments the individual is making and the future implications that the arguments may have. The Rubric can be found on the assignment link of BlackBoard.	30% of grade
Class Participation	You are expected to respond to at least one of your classmate’s blogpost for every assignment ( response question).	10% Percentage/Points of Total Grade
	Total:	100% or 100 Points

Course Outline

This can be in the form of a course calendar. We have included a calendar format below.

Overview / Course Responsibilities

All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.

Each week you will have three assignments due:

(1) Discussion Board Assignment

(2) One Discussion Board Response (minimum)

I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.

Course Schedule

Date

Chapter / Focus

Assignments

8/26

I. Introduction: Streams of African American Political Thought

None

09/02

II. Defining Questions: The Souls of Black Folk

Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk, Forethought-ch.3

Response question #1

Du Bois, ch. 4-6, Washington, “Atlanta Exposition Address”*

Response questions #2, 3

Responses due 09//15

09/16

Du Bois, ch. 7-10

Response question #4

Du Bois, 11-Afterthought

Response questions #5, 6

Responses Due9/22

09/23

III. American Terrors

Walker, Appeal, Preamble-Article I*

Response question #7

Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom, Editor’s Preface, Intro. (pp. 5-25),

ch. 1-14

Response question #8

Douglass, ch. 15-25, “Letter to His Old Master,” “The Nature of Slavery,” and “What to the Slave is the Fourth of July?”

Response questions #9, 10

Responses

due

09/29

09/30

Wells-Barnett, “Southern Horrors,” as far as you can get in “A Red Record”

Response questions #11, 12

Wells-Barnett, finish “A Red Record”

Response question #13

Responses Due 10/06

10/07

IV. Black Internationalism

Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches, pp.1-82

Response questions #14, 15

Garvey, pp.119-22, 138-47, 160-69, 181-94; Du Bois, “The Souls of White Folk”*

Response questions #16

Response Due 10/13

10/14

V. The Civil Rights Revolution

King, “American Dream,”* “Letter from Birmingham City Jail,”* “I Have a Dream”*

Response questions #17, 18

Baldwin, The Fire Next Time, as far as you can get.

Response question #19

Responses Due 10/20

10/21

Baldwin, concluded.

Response questions #20, 21

Malcolm X: “Message to the Grassroots” (http://teachingamericanhistory.org/library/document/message-to-grassroots/); “The Ballot or the Bullet”*

Response question #22

Responses Due 10/27

10/28

Newton and Seale, “What We Want/What We Believe,” “Rules of the Black Panther Party”*; The League of Revolutionary Black Workers, “Our Thing Is DRUM!”*; Angela Davis, “Political Prisoners, Prisons and Black Liberation”*

Response question #23

Response Due 11/03

11/04

Charles Payne, “Ella Baker and Models of Social Change”*; King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch.1-2

Response questions #24, 25

King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch. 4-6

Response question #26

Responses Due 11/10

11/11

VI. Post-Civil Rights Challenges

Screening of Kevin Jerome Everson and Claudrena Harold, Sugar-Coated Arsenic

Bobo, “Katrina: Unmasking Race, Poverty, and Politics in the 21^st Century”*; Ransby, “Katrina, Black Women, and the Deadly Discourse on Black Poverty in America”*; Frymer, et al., “New Orleans Is Not the Exception”*; Dawson, “After the Deluge”*; Harris and Carbado, “Loot or Find: Fact or Frame?”*

Response questions #27, 28

Stare in the Darkness, Intro., ch. 1-2

Response questions #29, 30

Response Due 11/17

11/18

Spence, Stare in the Darkness, ch. 3-Conc.

Response question #31

Alexander, New Jim Crow, Intro., ch. 1-3

Response question #32

: Alexander, New Jim Crow, ch. 4-6

Response question #33

Response Due 12/01

11/25

VII. Remembering the Past, Imagining the Future

Reparations: Forman, et al. “The Black Manifesto”*; Coates, “The Case for Reparations”*; Reed, “The Case Against Reparations”*; McWhorter, “Against Reparations”*; Virginia resolution expressing “regret” for slavery*

Response question #34

http://muse.jhu.edu/journals/theory_and_event/toc/tae.17.3S.html: Essays by Melvin Rogers, Michelle Smith, Lisa Miller, and Vesla Weaver

https://www.nytimes.com/2019/06/19/us/politics/slavery-reparations-hearing.html By Sheryl Gay Stolberg

Response Due 12/08

Essential Policies
Attendance Policy	All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted. Each week you will have three assignments due: (1) Readings (2) Response Questions ( Posted on Blogs) (3) Reply to at least two classmates blog post I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.
Assignment Policies	Late Work Not accepted under any circumstances other than medical documentation	Students may may share articles, videos, audio recordings, etc on topics related to the course content with a brief summary and analysis.
Academic Misconduct Policy	Engaging in any form of academic dishonesty with respect to examinations, course assignments, research projects, grades, and/or academic records, including, but not limited to plagiarism, cheating on exams, changing grades, and taking another student’s exam. ( COC 6.2)
ADA Policy	The ADA of 1990 provides civil rights protection for individual with disabilities. It guarantees equal opportunities for “qualified individuals” with disabilities in all public facilities, educational programs, activities, services and benefits. The ADA upholds and maintains compliance standards to ensure institutions of higher education policies, procedures and practices are non-discriminatory. Students needing academic accommodations should contact the Office of Disability Services at 713-313-7691.

Question 33: Sociology

Instruction

Guidelines for Observation Paper The object of this paper is to observe and analyze social interactions and gatherings by using sociological theory. Students are free to observe any event, gathering, interaction (parties, religious services, fraternity and sorority and other club events, athletic games, etc.). Structure: Introduction–tell the reader what you are observing and why you chose this particular event or group. This should be one paragraph. Observation– provided a detailed (“thick”) description of the event, noting its participants (ages, gender, race, ethnicity, class, etc) but most importantly the interactions and “social rituals” you witness. This should be 3 or 4 pages. Applying Theory– Apply the sociological theory we have discussed in class. Which particular theory (theories) best explains what you observed? Remember to apply theory to the actual and specific actions and behaviors that you observed (don’t just say basketball is a good example of so and so theory because the game stresses solidarity and team spirit). What was it about the particular event you observed that is best explained by the theory (or theories) that you selected? This section can be two or three pages. Conclusion– here is your chance to sum things up, speculate, and be more general. You should answer the “so what” question. What does your observation and application say about the particular slice of social life that you selected? The conclusion should be one or two paragraphs. REMEMBER TO ATTACH SOME PROOF (TICKETS, BULLETINS, PHOTOS, ETC.) THAT YOU ACTUALLY OBSERVED THIS EVENT!

Question 34: Economics

Identify a specific job within a specific company that you might be interested in applying for after you graduate from the University of Phoenix. Research the job and the field in general, as well as ethical issues managerial accountants have faced that would pertain to that field. Also, educate yourself on the basics of operations within the job and company you have selected. Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper to include the following:

Instruction

The job would be the CFO of the bank I currently work at which is BBVA and international bank Summarize the main duties of the job. Describe a specific ethical issue you might face in that position using 2 credible sources to support your description. Summarize the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide. Analyze how the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide applies to the ethical issue. Predict how you would handle the ethical issue. Hypothesize what would happen if no one in the company followed the IMA’s standards of ethical practice. Assess why it is important to follow the IMA’s stand

Question 35: Other

I need a strong American English writer to write a 20-page paper synthesizing literature information. The assignment will not be paid if it does not meet the standards of the assignment. This is a very serious and tough writing assignment. When responding please explain your understanding of synthesizing information.

PROBLEM 4S–8B Equivalent Units, Cost per Equivalent Unit, Applying Costs—FIFO Method

CHECK FIGURE

(4) Ending work in process: $40,800

Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. The following information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.

		Percent Completed
	Units	Materials	Conversion
Work in process, beginning…	50,000	60%	30%
Started into production………	470,000
Completed and transferred out	450,000
Work in process, ending………	60,000	70%	20%

Cost in the beginning work in process inventory and cost added during June were as follows for the Mixing Department:

	Materials	Conversion
Work in process, beginning…	$24,500	$9,500
Cost added during June……….	$377,600	$274,200

The company uses the FIFO method to compute unit product costs.

Required:

Determine the equivalent units for June for the Mixing Department.
Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the Mixing Department.
Determine the total cost of ending work in process inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the next department in June.
Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the ending work in process inventory and to the units transferred out with the costs in beginning inventory and costs added during the period.

What is an overhead cost?

Cost for the ceiling at the officeCost set aside for the distribution part of the process

Cost for everything that is not directly materials and laborThere is no such thing as an overhead cost

2. What is a cost driver?

Whatever causes a change in overhead cost

A phenomenon driving costs down for your business

An already budgeted expense

There is no such thing as a cost driver

202E04 – Problem 4-14 First Department Equivalent Units…

Problem 4-14: First Department — Equivalent Units, Cost per EU, Applying Costs — W/A Methods.Problem 4A-11 (Problem 4-14 Using FIFO Method)Given:Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. Thefollowing information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.PhysicalPercent CompletedUnits to Account For:UnitsMaterialsConversionBWIP70,000 70%40%Units Started460,000 Completed & T/O450,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%Costs to Account For:MaterialsConversionTotalBWIP$36,550 $13,500 $50,050 Cost added during period391,850 287,300 679,150 $428,400 $300,800 $729,200 Required:Assume that the company uses the WA method.1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the first process.2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the first process.3. Determine the total cost of EWIP inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the nextprocess in June.4.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your Tutors at www.homeworknest.com in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 1: General Question

Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)

Question 2: General Question

Question 1 A ____ has first claim on specified assets, while a ____ is a debenture that has claims against a firm’s assets that are junior to the claims of mortgage bonds and regular debentures.

Question 2 When firms issue ____, the amount of interest and principal to be paid is based on specified market conditions. The amount of the repayment may be tied to a Treasury bond price index or even to a stock index.

Question 3 Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.

Question 4 ____ bids for Treasury bonds specify a price that the bidder is willing to pay and a dollar amount of securities to be purchased.

Question 16 The actual relationship reflecting the response of a bond’s price to a change in bond yields is

Question 17 Assume a bond with a $1,000 par value and a 7 percent coupon rate, three years remaining to maturity, and a 9 percent yield to maturity. The duration of this bond is ____ years.

Question 18 The difference between the 30-year mortgage rate and the 30-year Treasury bond rate is primarily attributable to

Question 21 A __________ is a privately negotiated contract that protects investors against the risk of default on particular debt securities such as mortgage-backed securities.

Question 22 Which of the following is not a guarantor of federally insured mortgages?

Question 23 ____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase homes.

Question 24 An adjustable-rate mortgage increases interest rate risk for the ____, but reduces interest rate risk for the ____.

Question 36 The ____ index can be used to measure risk-adjusted performance of a stock while controlling for the stock’s beta.

Question 37 According to the capital asset pricing model, the required return by investors on a security is

Question 38 The demand by foreign investors for the stock of a U.S. firm sold on a U.S. exchange may be higher when the dollar is expected to ____, other things being equal. (Assume the firm’s operations are unaffected by the value of the dollar.)

Question 39 A beta of 1.1 means that for a given 1 percent change in the value of the market, the _______ is expected to change by 1.1 percent in the same direction.

Question 40 The ____ is commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate in the capital asset pricing model.

Question 41 If the standard deviation of a stock’s returns over the last 12 quarters is 4 percent, and if there is no perceived change in volatility, there is a ____ percent probability that the stock’s returns will be within ____ percentage points of the expected outcome.

Question 47 While an investor’s ability to simultaneously consider multiple markets to accommodate its orders was perceived to allow for more competitive pricing (lower transactions costs), it also led to a form of “_______________” whereby traders with relatively faster access to specific markets can use another trader’s planned orders and move ahead of that order.

Question 50 The risk of a short sale is that the stock price

Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the EWIP inventory and the unitstransferred out with the costs in BWIP and costs added during the period.Honeybutter, Inc.Mixing Department Cost of Production ReportWeighted Average and FIFO Process Costing MethodsFor the Month of JuneEquivalent UnitsPhysical FlowD/MConversionDegree of CompletionUnits to Account for:D/MConversionBWIP70%40%70,000 Started during June460,000 Total530,000 Units Accounted for:Completed Units 450,000 From BWIP30%60%70,000 21,000 42,000 Started And Completed100%100%380,000 380,000 380,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%80,000 60,000 20,000 Total530,000 Calculation of Equivalent UnitsFIFO Equivalent Units(A)461,000 442,000 Plus BWIP EU from previous period49,000 28,000 Weighted Average Equivalent Units(B)510,000 470,000

Question

Instruction

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements. Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS). Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response. Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment. Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

Homeland Security Organizations and Agencies

The homeland security system in the United States is a “national” system in the sense that it includes all levels of government—federal, state, local, and tribal—as well as the private sector and volunteer organizations. It does not refer to the federal government exclusively, nor just to the U.S. Department of Homeland Security. It is a comprehensive, integrated, multidisciplinary, and multijurisdictional system including a wide variety of organizations and agencies at all levels. Organizations and agencies must work together and effectively coordinate their efforts to prevent and respond to natural and man-made disasters and hazards. Documents such as the “National Incident Management System” (NIMS), the “National Response Framework” (NRF), and the “National Preparedness Guidelines” were created to help organizations and agencies coordinate their efforts. In this Discussion, you examine how specific organizations and agencies interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to a threat to homeland security.

To prepare for this Discussion:

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements.

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS).

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response.

Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment.

Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

Think in terms of, and in reference to, the roles and capabilities of each respective organization and/or agency you identified and how they might interact and coordinate their efforts.

Post a brief description of the threat you selected. Then describe at least two organizations and/or agencies in the national homeland security system that would respond to this threat. Include how and why they might respond. Finally, explain how the organizations and/or agencies might interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to the threat. Be specific, and use examples to illustrate your explanation.

Question 3: General Question

Question 1

6 out of 6 points

According to Higgins, nonprofit organizations have:

Question 2

6 out of 6 points

Managers of nonprofit organizations must measure their success by:

· Question 3

6 out of 6 points

This method relates to the actions necessary to implement the strategic plan.

· Question 4

6 out of 6 points

The beginning of management as a field of study dates approximately to the:

· Question 5

6 out of 6 points

La Piana Consulting defines the intensity of the commitment that two or more nonprofits must make to each other as:

· Question 6

6 out of 6 points

Most nonprofits obtain revenue from:

· Question 7

6 out of 6 points

Strive Partnership measures the partnership’s performance through the use of a(an):

· Question 8

6 out of 6 points

According to Edgar Schein, logos, ceremonies, and symbols belong to this defined category of culture.

· Question 9

6 out of 6 points

According to Collins, this type of leadership exists when the leader has the power to simply make decisions.

· Question 10

6 out of 6 points

The perception that nonprofits are less well managed than businesses is:

· Question 11

Nonprofit management literature is drawn from which of the three areas?

· Question 12

6 out of 6 points

Very high may suggest that an organization is inefficient, or even participating in unethical or fraudulent behavior.

· Question 13

6 out of 6 points

As Letts and colleagues observe, managers often face two challenges—getting the job done and:

· Question 16

6 out of 6 points

Which decade marked a turning point in public policy, with government outsourcing more of the delivery and management of social and human services to nonprofits, which resulted in the increased need for professional management in nonprofit organizations and an increased number of students interested in working for nonprofit organizations?

· Question 17

6 out of 6 points

Demands for accountability and the need for systems and procedures to comply with greater scrutiny and regulation also have contributed to the need for:

· Question 18

6 out of 6 points

Nonprofit managers should be committed to performance measurement but:

· Question 19

6 out of 6 points

One way to reduce dependency and thus maintain more autonomy is to:

· Question 20

According to the Independent Sector, one hour of volunteer time contributed to a nonprofit organization in 2013 was worth:

· Question 21

6 out of 6 points

Giving up something in return for something is referred to as a(an):

· Question 22

6 out of 6 points

A proposed merger between Operation Smile and Smile Train was cancelled due to:

· Question 23

6 out of 6 points

Roberta is participating in an interview about her nonprofit organization. The interview is being conducted by a local radio station. Roberta is communicating with the:

· Question 24

Needs Grading

Draw a diagram of Patricia Bradshow’s five board configurations.

· Question 25

Needs Grading

Explain the three basic elements that effective planning begins with?

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific references to the Learning Resources.

Learning Resources

Readings

Article: Kettl, D. F. (2003). Contingent coordination: Practical and theoretical puzzles for homeland security. The American Review of Public Administration, 33(3), 253–277.

Use the LegalTrac database, and search using the article’s title.

Article: Wise, C. R. (2006). Organizing for homeland security after Katrina: Is adaptive management what’s missing? Public Administration Review, 66(3), 302–318.

Use the ABI/INFORM Global database, and search using the article’s title.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National incident management system. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nims/NIMS_core.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–8 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2007). National preparedness guidelines. Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=2.3.4 2.3.4.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–11 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National response framework. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nrf/nrf-core.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–26 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security Council. (2010). Quadrennial homeland security review report. Retrieved from http://www.iaem.com/documents/QHSRReportFeb2010.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 21–36 of this article.

Online Article: Emergency Management Institute. (2007). Principles of emergency management supplement. Retrieved from http://training.fema.gov/emiweb/edu/08conf/Emergency%20Management%20Principles%20Monograph%20Final.doc

Optional Resources

Online Article: Bach, R., & Kaufman, D. J. (2009). A social infrastructure for hometown security: Advancing the homeland security paradigm. Homeland Security Affairs, V(2). Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=5.2.2

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 2: Business questions

Business Interview Case Study

How would you work with a subordinate who is underperforming?

We experienced many new workers during my time at Chevron. I had to pick up their slack because I was in charge of training new employees. I would pull them aside after our shift and kindly talked about where they could improve. I made sure I was there to help them and we finally figured it out together.

You’re consulting with a large pharmacy with stores in multiple states. This company has improved sales but experienced a decrease in revenue. As a result, it is contemplating store closings. Explain how you’d advise this client?

You are working directly with a company’s management team. It is organizing a project designed to significantly increase revenue. If you were provided with data and asked to supervise the project, what steps would you take to ensure it’s successful?

First, I’d make the team friendly and make sure we all have the same goal. I would listen and respond appropriately to any questions or concerns they may have. I would ensure that everyone has a specific task, that deadlines are fulfilled and that control is maintained.

Question 4: History

Why is it not appropriate to deposit non-western artifacts in the natural collection of history?

Question 5: Biology

Nsg5003 advanced pathophysiology final exam answers south university

Question 6: Mathematics

Antonio would like to replace his gold clubs with a custom-measured set. A local sporting goods megastore is advertising custom clubs for $520, including a new bag. In-store financing is available at 3.93 percent, or he can choose not to renew his $300 certificate of deposit (CD), which just matured. The advertised CD renewal rate is 5.08 percent. Antonio knows the in-store financing costs would not affect his taxes, but he knows he’ll pay taxes (25 percent federal and 5.75 percent state) on the CD interest earnings.

The after-tax CD earnings rate is %

Question 7: Sociology

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
What is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

Question 8: Business

Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.

Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^®, Prezi, or Microsoft^® Sway^® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

Question 9: Business

answer survey questions only need 2 solution

SCREEING:

Have you ever done genetic testing like 23andme/Ancestry.com or plan to? (If yes, proceed with Interview)

If you have not done testing, are you familiar with these tests? (If yes, proceed with Interview. If no, move on to next person)

Age:

18-24
25-34
35-44
45-54
55-64
Over 65

Gender: Male Female

Children: If none, Do you want children?

Highest level of Education:

High School or Equivalent
Some college-no degree
Technical School
Associate’s Degree
Bachelor’s Degree
Graduate Degree

Household Income:

>$25K
$25K – $50K
$50K – $75K
$75K – $100K
$100K – $150K
$150K+

Social Media use:

Facebook
Instagram
Twitter
LinkedIn

ONLINE BEHAVIOR

Tell me about a time you purchased something directly from a social media link? Or Online?

HEALTH AND LIFESTYLE

What are the biggest issues you face with your lifestyle?

Do you have any concerns about your health?

GENETIC TESTING

Have you done genetic testing yet?
If not, why?
What would you hope to learn about yourself Medically?
What would you not want to learn about yourself?

iii. What features would you want from the process/product?

1. If yes, why did you get the testing?
2. Who did you use? Why did you decide to go with them?
3. What was the process for the purchase?

iii. What, if anything, would you have changed or wanted but didn’t get?

What have you done with your raw data?

Who do you know that is concerned about genetic privacy?

What kind of products would you be interested in receiving marketing for based on your genetic information?

Question 10: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

You have been assigned to work with a small company that manufactures a popular product. However, a competitor begins selling a very similar product which incorporates state of the art technology. What would you advise your client to do?
You have been assigned to advise a company with a large Western European market. Company management wants to open the Chinese market. What advice do you have for this company?

I would advise the company to conduct Chinese market research. Then, I’d ask how they think this market can be successful. Afterwards, I would assist in the development of a business plan setting goals, tasks, budget/contacts, and deadlines.

The firm has assigned you to consult a company intending to drop a product or expand into new markets in order to increase revenue. What steps would you take to help this company achieve its objective? 
You have been assigned to consult a shoe retailer with stores throughout the nation. Since its revenue is dropping, the company has proposed to sell food at its stores. How would you advise this client?

I’d start by asking what their plans are and how they can succeed. I’d give feedback to the new idea. Then I’d like to ask if they know why revenue is dropping. I would advise them to look into it if they don’t know, by contacting various departments in their stores. Once we’ve addressed that, we can discuss new ideas for sneakers that can increase revenue while we’re waiting results. 

Question 3: English

An English essay one topic of your choosing from the list: The importance of voting Protecting the environment Off-shore drilling Nuclear Proliferation Funding for the arts The Quaker tradition The Women’s Suffrage Movement The Women’s Suffrage movement William Lloyd Garrison John Brown

Instruction

Read through the instruction on the attachment and figure out how you would like to proceed from there. But, this must be an ESSAY.

Graded Assignment

The American Renaissance Unit Test, Part 2

Answer the questions fully, using examples from the reading selections to support your answers. You may refer to your Journeys anthology to answer these questions. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.

Total score: ____ of 55 points

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

(Score for Question 1: ___ of 15 points)

Both Walt Whitman and Emily Dickinson were influenced by the Romantics. Choose one of the two poets. Provide at least three ways that he or she reflects Romantic thinking in his or her writing. Then give an example from one of the works that you studied in this unit that illustrates that characteristic.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 15 points)

You learned a lot about Whitman and Dickinson’s writing styles during this unit. Although they both broke stylistic boundaries, their styles are different. Write a paragraph in which you explain one characteristic of either poet’s style. Name the characteristic, explain how it is used in the poetry, and then describe the effect that the characteristic produces. Support your answer with examples from the poems.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 25 points)

Now return to your book, and select a poem from Whitman or Dickinson that you did not study in the unit. Explain how the poem reveals Romantic thinking. Cite examples from the poem as your support.
Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 4: Biology.

500 words on importance of prenatal care

Question 5: Political Science

Political Science 260 INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE POLITICS Summer 2019 For this class you will write an 8-10-page (2,000 word minimum) research paper. This paper will make an argument about the nature of some aspect of politics based on an analysis of some aspect of a political system of your choice. Topics can include such things as institutional analysis (legislatures, executive branch, federalism, electoral systems), or broader issues of political behavior, such as revolutionary change, civil-military relations, gender politics, democratization, inter-ethnic relations, etc. In selecting a topic and country, keep in mind that you are going to have to research whatever it is that you select, and some topics and countries are much more easily researched than others. Under most circumstances you may not include a country that we cover in class in your paper, and should not include the United States

Question 6: Health Care

Health Information Systems Technology and Applications Due Date: Wed,6/5/19 by 11pm cst Deliverable Length: 6-8 slides

Instruction

As the manager of the CTU Health Care information systems department, you realize the need for seamless integration among all operating systems of the departments within the health care organization (HCO). Discuss the importance electronic health record (EHR) conceptual framework integration and achieving interoperability. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation for the stakeholders of the different departments that expresses the importance of the interoperability of all computing systems within the health care organization. In this presentation, you should address the ramifications of the lack of integration of the information systems among the departments.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question7: Other

3 page paper with NO REFERENCES

Instruction

I need a 3 page essay titled “Giving Back to My Community” – The essay should discuss how I give back and why giving back is important. Include these points: – Volunteer at local animal shelter – Starting own pet sitting business with low rates to accommodate pet owners on a low or fixed income – Member of the World Wildlife Fund – My future plans of expanding my business into a means of allowing other high school students to earn community service hours No References – Double spaced – Times New Roman – 12 font – Must use the points provided

Question 8: Psychology

Attached Files:

o PSY201 Case Study Assignment and Rubric.docx (14.47 KB)

Due: Midnight Sunday.

Analyze a case study from Children On Track – Case Scenarios. Adapted / Reprinted with permission by the Best Start Resource Center.

Choose ONE of the following cases:

o Case # 1 Eric

o Case #2 Giselle

o Case #6 Sammy and Willow

Answer all the questions asked at the end of your chosen case study thoroughly.
Include an analysis of each of the issues you identify and the solutions you provide.
Support your responses with information from scholarly readings.
Write your answers in a Word document.

Refer to the attached document for the grading rubric. Submit your work by clicking on the SafeAssign link below. Click on the link again to view the resulting SafeAssign report.

Unit 5 – Case Study

Assignments submitted through this link will be checked using SafeAssign by Blackboard. Your work will not be used for any purpose other than preventing plagiarism in the University. Ownership of the intellectual property contained in your written work will not be transferred to any third party. Please submit your paper as a Word Document. If you have the 2010 version of Word, please save your paper in a previous version (Word 97-2003 document) as Safe Assign may not accept the most recent version.

>> View/Complete

Resource: Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13; Staffing Metrics Evaluation Grading Guide

Staffing metrics can be short-term or long-term, and efficiency- or effectiveness-oriented. Short-term metrics can be used as leading indicators to gauge a company’s ability to place the right people in the right jobs at the right time. Long-term metrics are best for evaluating the effectiveness of a staffing system because they drive the financial impact of staffing for the organization.

Choose an organization with which you are familiar.

Evaluate in 700 to 1,050 words three metrics that are – or should be – used to determine how well the staffing process meets the needs of the organization.

Describe the metrics selected for discussion.

Assess how these help the organization determine effectiveness.

Use the information available in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13, and supplement it with your own research.

Cite any sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

Question 12: Education

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

Question 13: Health Care

In a 750-1000 word essay in APA format, critically evaluate the following scenario:

Mrs. J. is a 63-year-old married woman who has a history of hypertension, chronic heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite requiring 2L of oxygen/nasal cannula at home during activity, she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day and has done so for 40 years. Three days ago, she had sudden onset of flu-like symptoms including fever, productive cough, nausea, and malaise. Over the past 3 days, she has been unable to perform ADLs and has required assistance in walking short distances. She has not taken her antihypertensive medications or medications to control her heart failure for 3 days. Today, she has been admitted to the hospital ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and acute exacerbation of COPD.

Subjective Data

Is very anxious and asks whether she is going to die.
Denies pain but says she feels like she cannot get enough air.
Says her heart feels like it is “running away.”
Reports that she is exhausted and cannot eat or drink by herself.
Height 175 cm; Weight 95.5kg.
Vital signs: T 37.6C, HR 118 and irregular, RR 34, BP 90/58.
Cardiovascular: Distant S1, S2, S3 present; PMI at sixth ICS and faint: all peripheral pulses are 1+; bilateral jugular vein distention; initial cardiac monitoring indicates a ventricular rate of 132 and atrial fibrillation.
Respiratory: Pulmonary crackles; decreased breath sounds right lower lobe; coughing frothy blood-tinged sputum; SpO2 82%.
Gastrointestinal: BS present: hepatomegaly 4cm below costal margin.
IV furosemide (Lasix)
Enalapril (Vasotec)
Metoprolol (Lopressor)
IV morphine sulphate (Morphine)
Inhaled short-acting bronchodilator (ProAir HFA)
Inhaled corticosteroid (Flovent HFA)
Oxygen delivered at 2L/ NC
Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mrs. J.
Discuss whether the nursing interventions at the time of her admissions were appropriate for Mrs. J. and explain the rationale for each of the medications listed.
Describe four cardiovascular conditions that may lead to heart failure and what can be done in the form of medical/nursing interventions to prevent the development of heart failure in each condition.
Taking into consideration the fact that most mature adults take at least six prescription medications, discuss four nursing interventions that can help prevent problems caused by multiple drug interactions in older patients. Provide a rationale for each of the interventions you recommend.
Provide a health promotion and restoration teaching plan for Mrs. J., including multidisciplinary resources for rehabilitation and any modifications that may be needed. Explain how the rehabilitation resources and modifications will assist the patients’ transition to independence.
Describe a method for providing education for Mrs. J. regarding medications that need to be maintained to prevent future hospital admission. Provide rationale.
Outline COPD triggers that can increase exacerbation frequency, resulting in return visits. Considering Mrs. J.’s current and long-term tobacco use, discuss what options for smoking cessation should be offered.

Question 14: Religious Study

BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.

Selected Answer:

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.

Selected Answer:

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:

Selected Answer:

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Peter believers are identified as

Selected Answer:

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.

Selected Answer:

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed

Selected Answer:

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?

Selected Answer:

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christ is the

Selected Answer:

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves

Selected Answer:

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is

Selected Answer:

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples

Selected Answer:

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.

Selected Answer:

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

___________ was the persevering church

Selected Answer:

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

James warns believers about

Selected Answer:

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.

Selected Answer:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.

Selected Answer:

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.

Selected Answer:

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”

Selected Answer:

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.

Selected Answer:

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.

Selected Answer:

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.

Selected Answer:

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.

Selected Answer:

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.

Selected Answer:

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?

Selected Answer:

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.

Selected Answer:

True

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of

Selected Answer:

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?

Selected Answer:

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”

Selected Answer:

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it

Selected Answer:

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.

Selected Answer:

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:

Selected Answer:

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.

Selected Answer:

True

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

_____________ was the powerless church

Selected Answer:

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.

Selected Answer:

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.

Selected Answer:

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.

Selected Answer:

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.

Selected Answer:

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.

Selected Answer:

False

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the prosperous church

Selected Answer:

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of

Selected Answer:

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

fruitless trees

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than

Selected Answer:

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the persecuted church.

Selected Answer:

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.

Selected Answer:

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.

Selected Answer:

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.

Selected Answer:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself

Selected Answer:

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question9: History

I am looking for someone to do 2 assignments both assignment follow the same requirements but two different paper. I will provide more info below. please make sure the papers are plagiarism free and I will need APA citation (reference page) and in text citation please and thank you

Instruction

the assignment (outline) is to choose a country one assignment will be focus on china and the other on will be france. In addition we will need to choose four concepts which we both choose the same we decided to do ( age of exploration 1400-1800, age of imperialism 1800-1945, industrial revolution, age of decolonization) and do some research on it and answer the question in details and make sure you include a lot if dates and connect the events that goes with it. You can download the worksheet twice so you can answer the questions because their wont let me insert it twice Thank you in advanced

Name: Guirlene Hyppolite

The location I am researching is → This must be selected from the list provided by your instructor.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Mark the four concepts/themes that you plan to talk about in your presentation in the chart below. You should base your selections off what you have found in your research so far – this means that you should be able to identify an event or a time in your country’s history that is clearly connected to each theme you check off below:

Check off Selections	Concept/Theme	Lesson/Milestone Alignment
	The significance of features of “advanced” civilizations	Week 1, Milestone 1
	The significance of the Age of Exploration and Encounter (1400-1800)	Week 2, Week 6, Milestone 3
	The significance of the Age of Modern Imperialism (1800-1945)	Week 6, Milestone 3
	The significance of major religious traditions or religious conflicts	Milestone 1, touched on in multiple weeks
	The significance of The Age of Atlantic Revolutions (including Enlightenment Ideas)	Week 4, Milestone 2
	The significance of the Age of Decolonization (post-1945)	Week 8
	The significance of the Industrial Revolution or industrialization	Week 5
	The significance of Nationalism (including modern ethno-nationalism and fascism)	Week 7, Week 8
	The Impact of modern warfare (WWI or later)	Week 7, Week 8, Week 9
	The impact of Cold War ideological divisions	Week 8
	The Impact of Modern Globalization on today’s world	Week 9

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Next, complete the research info sections below. At least one source must be a primary source.

Concept/Theme Selection #1

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

Concept/Theme Selection #2

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Concept/Theme Selection #3

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

Concept/Theme Selection #4

Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

Question 10: English

Instruction

I need an essay written on the book Charlotte Temple by Susanna Rowson. This essay is likely to be 3-4 pages, although complete instructions by my teacher has not been revealed yet. An emphasis should be placed on the questions attached. The book is about the relationship between women and men in the 18th century. Bare in mind that I will need to know where you found your material, so it is important to cite were you found everything. Please show me that you have read or will read the book in preparation of this essay. Also attached is the picture of the book.

Question 11: General

Understanding Terrorism Wk 8

Instruction

Understanding Terrorism Paper Four Criteria – Due Week Eight You now have the following: Paper One: Description and History of your selected group/individual Paper Two: Themes from Chapters 1-9 Paper Three: Strategies, Security, Individual Liberties ======================================= For Paper Four, you are going to complete your research into your selected Group/Individual. For this, you will need the concepts discussed in Chapters 14-16 of the Nacos Text: Chapter 14: Terrorist Propaganda and the Media Chapter 15: Terror and Hate in Cyberspace Chapter 16: Counter terrorism in the News Select TWO final articles (media focused) on your selected group/individual and read them thoroughly. Use the Grantham Library and EBSCO to assist. Stick to Journals and avoid relying on the Washington Post and NY Times. In a well-written paper, describe how the media has reported on your selected organization/individual and evaluate the coverage using the concepts discussed in the Nacos text. In addition, describe how your selected organization/individual used media sources, propaganda, cyberspace, and advertisement to further their ideological, social, and/or political goals. Draw some conclusions: does the media, social networking, and cyberspace impede or facilitate counterterrorism efforts? If so, then how and why? What recommendations would you provide the U.S. Government regarding media, social media, and the internet to better combat terrorism? Your submission will be a minimum of 4 pages and not to exceed 6 pages, excluding the Title Page and Reference Page. You will use APA Standard Format (1″ Margins, Times New Roman, 12-point Font, and Double Spacing. No extra space between paragraphs). You should continue to use all references you have collected so far, and ADD TWO more that are related to the Media.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question12: Other

Week 12: Signature Assignment

Instruction

Instructions Throughout this course, you explored different methodologies, designs, and data collection strategies. Using those experiences and feedback, you will develop a final proposal for a hypothetical study. Specifically, for this assignment, you are asked to develop an expanded proposal that incorporates the feedback you have received as well as your own supported reflections on the readings. This is not meant to be a milestone document nor will it be approved as such, but the proposal should provide an opportunity to test out a possible idea and to get feedback that would be useful as you consider possible topics and research designs for your dissertation work. Remember to use APA formatting and check for grammatical errors. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. It is also vital that you ensure there is alignment between the components of your paper; you should use Krathwohl’s Chain of Reasoning to assist. The proposal needs to include: •A statement as to the problem the research study will address as well as justification and evidence to verify that the problem exists.. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or theoretical) •A purpose statement that outlines how you will address the problem. •A list of the research questions, including hypotheses if a quantitative or mixed study. A description of the research methodology you have chosen (i.e., quantitative, qualitative, or mixed) and a justification as to why this approach is best suited to address the problem and answer the specific research questions. •A discussion on the research design you have proposed (e.g., case study, quasi-experimental, etc.) and a justification as to why this design is the best choice and aligns with other aspects of the study. •A description of the data collection process, with justifications, to include a discussion of the following: ◦Overview of the population and sampling technique, ◦Instruments used (e.g., survey, interview protocol), and ◦Overview of process for collection and any challenges you envision. •A brief discussion of the proposed analysis techniques with justification on alignment of techniques with problem, purpose, and questions. •A brief discussion of how reliability and validity (or trustworthiness) will be maintained. •A brief discussion of the limitations and ethical considerations, including how limitations, biases, and ethical considerations will be addressed. Length: 12-15 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question13: Other

Week 11: Participant Perspective and the Mixed Methods Approach

Instruction

Instructions Researchers frequently employ standardized instruments to collect data associated with a variable of interest. In such cases, it is helpful to have served in the role of participant before making research decisions relating to measurement. If researchers are able to identify with and put themselves in the place of the participant while designing research methods, the participation can have a positive impact. For example, as the researcher, it might make sense to include a lot of instruments in the same packet for participants to complete so that you can get as much data as possible. However, if you have completed instruments yourself and can put yourself in the place of the participant, you might realize that participants can become tired and pay less attention to items or even stop responding when they have to complete too many instruments. In such cases, there might be missing or misleading data, which is not helpful to you as the researcher. To gain a greater understanding of the perspective of the participant, you will complete several quantitative instruments relating to your experience as a doctoral student at Northcentral University. Please answer each completely and honestly. As you learned in this course, phenomena can be investigated using quantitative, qualitative, or mixed methodologies based on the problem under investigation, the purpose, and the corresponding research questions. Therefore, you will also answer open-ended questions that tap into the same constructs as the questionnaires that you completed. This will offer you experience as a participant in collecting qualitative data as well as demonstrate how phenomena can be explored using varied methodologies. However, it is worth noting that collecting qualitative data electronically comes with a number of limitations that should always be strongly considered when determining whether to collect qualitative data in person or not. Based on your experiences in completing this assignment, address the following: •What did you think of the length of each survey instrument? Was there a point at which you began to feel tired or paid less attention to the items? •What did you think of the open-ended questions? Were they clear? Did they seem leading? Did they seem concise or too wordy? •Did you prefer completing the closed questions (or multiple-choice questions) or the open-ended questions? Why? •Which methodology do you believe is most useful in the examination of each variable/construct? Why? •How might this experience influence you when designing your own research? Finally, write a 1-2 page reflection regarding your views on what you see would be the strengths and challenges of using a mixed method design. Consider how the two mini proposals might be combined to form a mixed method study and what would be the benefits and / or loss if a mixed methods approach was utilized. Make sure to justify your statements and use the resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question14: Other

Week 10: Build a Quantitative Proposal

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal (6-7 pages) that includes the following: 1. Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). 2.Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using quantitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. 3.Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). 4.Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): ◦A specific quantitative design, ◦The population and sample, ◦Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, ◦Steps for the analysis of the data, and ◦Issues of reliability and validity within a quantitative framework. 5. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the quantitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, reliability, and validity. 6. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 15: Other

Week 9: Quantitative Design and Data Collection

Instruction

Instructions For the assignment this week, please consider the topic, problem, and purpose you might choose for your Signature Assignment. You can use and revise problems, purposes, and questions from past assignments in this course with the goal of continuing to improve and refine them. Please addresses the following: •Restatement of your problem, purpose, and research question(s). •Last week you examined multiple ways to collect data to answer your research questions. Based on your analysis and feedback, choose one quantitative data collection method, describe how it would be used in your hypothetical study, and justify why this method of data collection is the best choice. •Discussion and justification of your sample and population. •Potential limitations with the chosen data collection and/or sample to consider and steps that can be taken ahead of time to help avoid these limitations. •Analysis of any strengths and weaknesses you see with your design, data collection, and/or sample. •Discuss ethical issues to consider with quantitative data collection methods. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question16: Other

Week 8: Quantitative Research Design

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment last week to further explore how you might examine your research problem using a quantitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: •Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. This week, be sure to also include hypotheses for each of your research questions. •How might surveys be used to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using surveys to collect data? •How might you use an experiment or quasi-experiment to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using (quasi)experiments to collect your data? •It is also important to consider how you might analyze the potential data you collect and factors that could affect those analyses. Specifically, what are Type I and Type II errors? How might these impact your study? What is statistical power? How might this impact your study? What steps can you take ahead of time to help avoid issues related to Type I & II errors as well as power? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 5 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question17: Other

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Week 7: Summarize Numerical Data

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, think about a potential study you might want to conduct in which you would need to collect numerical data. You can use the research topic and problem you developed earlier, but make sure to modify your research questions to fit a quantitative method for this assignment. State the research problem and ensure it is supported by at least 3 to 5 scholarly resources within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Also keep in mind that your problem statement should reflect your degree (applied or PhD). Discuss whether you had to alter the problem statement to now reflect a quantitative design. How could you use quantitative methodology to address your research problem? State the purpose of the research effort. Make sure the purpose is aligned with the problem. Draft 2 to 3 research questions that would be appropriate for a quantitative study and addresses your research problem and are aligned with your purpose statement. You might choose to revise your previous qualitative research questions or develop new research questions. Either way, ensure alignment with the problem and purpose. Identify and discuss a design that is associated with quantitative methodology that you would consider to answer your research questions. You will find that some problems lend themselves to using one methodology over another. A goal of this assignment was to have you explore how a quantitative methodology might help you address your research questions. You will have an opportunity later in the course to explore mixed methodologies. Based on your analysis above, do you feel the use of a quantitative methodology and your chosen design is best suited to address your research problem and answer your questions. Why or why not? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question18: Other

Week 6: Build a Qualitative Proposal

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal that includes the following: Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using qualitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): A specific qualitative design, The population and sample, Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, Steps for the analysis of the data, and Issues of trustworthiness within a qualitative framework. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the qualitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, and trustworthiness. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Make sure to justify your steps and choices, using the course resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question19: Other

Week 5: Qualitative Data Collection

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment from last week and further explore how you might examine your research problem using a qualitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. How might fieldwork and observation be used to answer your research questions? What role would field notes play in this process? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using observation? How might interviewing be used to answer your research questions? Would you use face-to-face interviews or electronic interviews? Why or why not? Would you interview participants individually or in a group? Why or why not? What are the advantages and disadvantages to using interviews to collect your data? Discuss ethical issues to consider with these qualitative data collection methods. Reflect on how you might code the potential data you collect. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 6 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Question1: Finance

If you earn 5% per year on your bank account, how long will it take an account with $105 to double to $210? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Question 2: Engineering.

separate bus lane is proposed that will replace a single lane of a freeway with a capacity of 2,500 vehicles per hour per lane

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 3: Computer Science.

Your manager informs you that your company is going to have a new digital forensics lab built. It will have space for additional computers to perform password cracking. You’re asked to research hardware and software requirements for this task and write a one-page memo describing recommendations for a password-cracking computer running multiple GPUs in a cluster of other systems with multiple GPUs. State what OS is recommended for these clusters’ systems.

Question 4: Other

Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.

Must be in APA format and include in text citation ( ).

What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.

4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?

5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.

6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not

Question5:Finance

In 1880 five aboriginal trackers were each promised the equivalent of 50 Australian dollars for helping to capture the notorious outlaw Ned Kelley. In 1994 the granddaughters of two of the trackers claimed that this reward had not been paid. The prime minister stated that if this was true, the government would be happy to pay the $50. However, the granddaughters also claimed that they were entitled to compound interest.

How much was each granddaughter entitled to if the interest rate was 3%? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

How much was each entitled to if the interest rate was 6%?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 6: Business

Chaebol and family ownership in Korea

The word chaebol is a unique combination of the Korean words ‘chae (wealth)’ and ‘bol (clan or clique)’. South Korea’s chaebol are family-owned businesses that typically have subsidiaries across diverse industries. The top five chaebol, taken together, represent approximately half of the South Korean stock market’s value. Chaebol drive the majority of South Korea’s investment in research and development and employ people around the world. On average, the 3rd and 4th generations of the families of major shareholder in the top 30 Chaebolds become executive at the age of 31.5, only 3.5 years after they join the company (some start their career even as an executive). While some people argue that family leadership is the most suitable and efficient ownerships strategy to manage those huge business group (perspective 1), others argue that it is outdated and inefficient ownership strategy (Perspective 2).

I NEED ANSWER FOR PERSPECTIVE 1.

Question 7: Mathematics

Solve the equation for x(for a>0,aÎN)

Solve the equation a^x = x^a for x, for all positive values of a (natural numbers).

Question8: Accounting

QUESTION ONE

Kitchen Electrical Company is planning to introduce a food blender – Project A – to its line of small home appliances. Annual sales of the blender are estimated at 7,000 units at a price of $75 per unit. Variable manufacturing costs are estimated at $46 per unit, incremental fixed manufacturing costs (other than depreciation) at $35,000 annually, and incremental administration and selling expenses relating to the blenders at $37,000 annually.

To build the food blender the company must invest $250,000 in moulds, patterns and special equipment. Since the company expects to change the design of the blender every four years, this equipment will have a four-year service life with $10,000 salvage value. Depreciation will be calculated on a straight-line basis. (Note – Initial Investment is made at the start of the year when the project commences). Ignore taxation for the purposes of this question.

REQUIRED:

Provide a projected accrualincome statement calculating average per annum accounting profit for Kitchen Electrical based on the above information.
Produce a table showing projected cash inflows / outflows and net cash flows each year over the project life.
Calculate (show full workings to your answer) and interpret the meaning of:

accounting rate of return on the project
payback on the project
net present value assuming a 18% discount rate on the project.
internal rate of return on the project

The company is also considering an alternate superior blender – Project B – to manufacture and sell. The upfront capital cost to manufacture this blender is costlier at $500,000 initially. The projected life is again 4 years generating a NPV of $145,600 and an Internal Rate of Return of 32.36 percent based on a yearly year end cash inflow of $240,000.

Determine which alternative proposal the company should choosebased on increasing the net wealth of the business. (Full justify your answer – (limit 40 words))
Now assume the company has the opportunity of replicating each proposal several times (projects are no longer mutually exclusive) but also has an imposed capital constraint, limiting initial investment to $1,000,000. Does your recommendation change – Fully justifying your answer comparing total returns when utilising the $1 million in capital – (limit 80 words). (HINT: The company can do multiple projects – A and/or B up to an initial capital spend of 1,000,000)

Required:

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 9: Finance

Suppose Starbucks wishes to sign a 10-year contract to open a location within the Lundquist College of Business. This venture will cost $70,000, and is expected to bring in $10,000 per year.

Starbucks currently finances its operations with 50% equity and 50% debt. They face a 33% tax rate and the YTM on existing Starbucks bonds is 8%. The market expected return is 14%, the risk-free rate is 5% and Starbucks’ Beta is 0.9.

What is the NPV of this venture?

Question 10: Other

Write a self-reflection paper of approximately 250 words analyzing your own experience with teams, and your ability to lead and contribute effectively to teams.

You should use the following questions for organizing your paper, but you may wish to add additional information:

Describe your experience with workgroups and or teams in the workplace and at college
List your current strengths and weaknesses with regard to team building

Question 11: Finance

Question 12: Physics

Question 13: Psychology

Wk. 4 Team Assignment:Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project.

TOPIC Nipsey Hussle’s story

Resources: Center for Writing Excellence (CWE) Thesis Generator and Annotated Bibliography Sample.

In many cases, issues and dynamics reported in the news are also studied by researchers.

Choose one news story from the News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News assignment, due in Week Three, to use for the final team project due in Week Six.

Gain instructor approval for the selected news story.

Develop an annotated bibliography. Each team member must list a minimum of two sources from peer-reviewed journals that relate to the news story.

Write a clearly worded thesis statement of no more than 150words for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six.

Format your annotated bibliography and thesis statement according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Thesis Generator

Annotated Bibliography

Grading Criteria: Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project

Resources

Question 14: Accounting

Question 15: Mathematics

(b) A curve is drawn to pass through the points given by the following table: x 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 y 2 2.4 2.7 2.8 3 2.6 2.1 Estimate the area bounded by the curve, the X-axis and the lines x 1 and x 4, using Simpson’s jrd rule.

Question 16: Engineering

need help with these questions. They are also found on chegg if anyone has that. Just type in the first few words of the questions in the attachments. No need to explain. Just need solutions. will pay 2.50$ per question

Question 17: Psychology

Wk 4 Discussion

Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:

Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:

Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.

Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 18: Business

Db And assignment

Unit 2 DB

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner, one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors. Identify an organization that you have worked for or know about that has successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Alternatively, identify one that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Discuss how leaders in those businesses have or have not accomplished this initiative. Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used in APA style.

Unnit 2 assignment

Instructions

Establishing a culture of sound business ethics within an organization is challenging, to say the least. Companies that market products that are not considered to be “healthy” for consumers have additional challenges. Using the CSU online library, research a company that markets “unhealthy” products. Examples might include tobacco or alcohol companies but these examples are not all-inclusive. Respond to the following questions.

Briefly describe the company and its product and the ethical dilemma associated with the production and distribution of its products.
Describe how the perception of the product differs within cultures both within the United States and globally.
How has this company handled the ethical implications of its product with a focus on social responsibility, integrity and business ethics?
Explain how leadership within the organization can instill a culture of ethics within the marketing department as they strive to advertise a product that is not healthy for the customer.

Your response should be two double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages. You are required to use at least one peer-reviewed source. Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines.

Your essay should be formatted in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

Question 19: Business

Unit 1 Assignment

Instructions

Using the CSU Online Library, locate an article that discusses the topic of business ethics. Topic ideas might include the role of ethics in the workplace, breach of ethics, the effect of internal and external forces on ethical compliance, global ethical considerations within a business or ethics and employees.

Note these are ideas; please expand within the parameters of ethical topics as they relate to business ethics.

Respond to the following questions:

Summarize the article and align it with the author’s main point.
How does this article contribute to contemporary thinking about business ethics?
How can you apply information in this article to your field?
How did this article fit your ethical view?

Your response should be 2 pages double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages.

Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines. References should include at minimum 1) one of the required reading articles and 2) an additional scholarly reviewed article from the CSU Online Library.

You may find this presentation, “Right References,” a great resource for guidance in making references: https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/references2014

Format the article review in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

Question 20: Other

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

“Five Words that Best Describe You” exercise. In 250 words State the five words that best describe you and why they are so applicable. Then describe what information or knowledge you hope to gain from the course – what are your objectives? title of course (Strategic Management)

Continuation……

Question 21: Statistics

The following list gives the ages of 50 factory workers. Construct a Grouped Frequency Distribution using 7 classes.

50	63	42	28	30
37	29	61	43	43
27	50	28	28	50
62	34	53	21	32
19	41	60	57	22
35	46	32	30	25
36	52	57	29	35
42	57	35	61	46
21	49	26	40	19
18	25	23	47	28

Range:

Class Width:

Fill in the table after creating the frequency distribution on paper. rf and crf are rounded to two decimal places ( Example: .15 not 0.15). Do not worry about the sum of the column being 1.0.

Class Limits	Class Boundaries	Midpoint	f	cf	rf	crf
–	–
–	–
–	–
–	–
–	–

Question22: Germany

Name: 10. Klasse Deutsch : Woche 5

Complete the following tasks and upload this document to Managebac by the end of the second double.

Verbs and Tenses:

Give the German or English as indicated for the following phrases. Use the vocab about Düsseldorf from Zoom and Quizlet:

German	English
einen Spaziergang machen	to go for a walk
das Filmmuseum besuchen	Vist the Film Museum
	to do a city tour
den Rheinturm besichtigen
Einen Einkaufsbummel machen	to go on a shopping expedition
in den Südpark gehen	To vist the rhine tower
	to go to Spektakulum
eine Bratwurst auf dem Carlsplatz essen
eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen	to do a boat trip on the Rhine
zum Unterbacher See fahren
	to go to a disco in the old town
das Senfmuseum besuchen	To vist the city museum
	to drink a coffee on the banks of the Rhine
in die Königsallee gehen
In den Aquazoo gehen	to go to the ‘Aquazoo’

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Was kann man/können wir in Düsseldorf machen? What can you/we do in Düsseldorf?

Use the correct form of ‘können’ with the verb phrases above to create sentences. You can choose the phrases!

Man kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

Man kann in die Altstadt gehen.

Wir kann in den Aquazoo gehen.

Ich kann ins Cafe am Rheinufer gehen.

Wir kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

Man kann das Film Museusm besuchen

Present Tense – Choose 5 activities from the table to form sentences in the Present Tense.

das Senfmuseum besuchen – Ich besuche das Senfmuseum.
______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________

Rewrite the following in the Future Tense – werden + infinitive

Ich besuche das Filmmuseum Ich werde das Filmmuseum besuchen

Wir gehen in den Südpark Wir werden in den Sudpark gehen

Er besichtigt den Rheinturm Er werdet den Rheinturm besichtigen

Sie macht einen Einkaufsbummel Sie werdet einen Einkaufsbummel macht

Wir fahren morgen zum Unterbacher See Wir werden morgen zum Unterbacher See fahren.

Meine Freunde und ich trinken

einen Kaffee im Café. __________

Complete the following sentences in the Perfect Tense. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of haben/sein and the past participle. See the table which has been uploaded – Useful verbs in the Perfect Tense.

Am Sonntag __________wir in Düsseldorf___________. (ankommen)
Wir __________mit dem Zug __________. (fahren)
Zuerst __________wir zu Fuß zu unserer Jugendherberge __________. (gehen)
Dann __________wir zu Mittag __________. (essen)
Danach __________wir das Filmmuseum __________ (besuchen) und am Abend __________ wir Volleyball __________. (spielen)
Am nächsten Tag __________wir mit dem Bus zum Unterbacher See __________.(fahren)
Den ganzen Morgen __________wir (surfen) und __________. (segeln)
Am Nachmittag __________wir eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein __________ (machen)
Nach der Bootsfahrt __________ wir einen Kaffee in einem Café am Rheinufer __________ (trinken)
Am Abend __________wir zwei Stunden lang in einer Disco in der Altstadt __________. (tanzen)
Word order – SvTOMP/TvSOMP

Rewrite the following sentences in the correct order. Begin with the highlighted word or phrase.

Remember: the verb is the second idea in the sentence. If there are two verbs, the second verb

goes to the end of the sentence.

wohnen / in einem schὅnen Hotel/ meine Familie und ich / in Dὕsseldorf

Meine Familie und ich wohnen in einem schὅnen Hotel in Dὕsseldorf

heute / wollen / eine Bootsfahrt / wir / auf dem Rhein / machen

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

ich / machen / mὅchte / eine Stadtrundfahrt / am Montag
kann / besichtigen / man / die Sehenswὕrdigkeiten der Stadt
finde / sehr interessant / ich / das
am Dienstagabend / gehen / werden / in der Altstadt / meine Freundin und ich / in die Disco
in die Stadt / mein Bruder und ich / werden / gehen / am Mittwochvormittag
werden / ins Senfmuseum / zu Fuβ / zuerst / wir / gehen.
probieren / wir / kὅnnen / viele Senfspezialitἃten / dort
ins Spektakulum / danach / gehen / werden / wir
Konzerte und Theater / es / jedenTag / gibt / fὕr Kinder und Jugendliche
werden / Meine Familie und ich / zum Unterbacher See / fahren / am Wochenende / mit dem Zug

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Practise the Quizlet List ‚Adverbs of Time‘. (5 mins)

Give the following adverbs of time in the space below:

on the weekend
first
after that
on the weekend
then
in the evening
on Friday afternoon
today
tomorrow
yesterday
next week
this morning

Choose 4 time phrases from the list above and create sentences about Düsseldorf beginning

with the time phrase. Make sure that you choose the correct tense to use. (ie tomorrow I will visit the Rhine tower – future tense)

Morgen werde ich den Rheinturm besuchen.

________________________________________________________________________________

Practise the Quizlet list – Opinions (5 mins) Write down 5 opinions about any of the sights in Düsseldorf, and give reasons for your opinion. The conjunctions ‘weil’ (verb scarer) and ‘denn’ will be useful here:

Ich finde das Senfmuseum sehr interessant, weil ich Wurst mit Senf gern esse.

________________________________________________________________________________

Zoom Textbook. Pages 112 and 113. Read the texts through and answer the questions in the space below:

P 112 Lesen 4

P 113 Lesen 4

In the table below note down all the conjunctions (joining words) and time phrases used in the texts.

Conjunctions (with meanings)	Time Phrases

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Cases

CASES – Nominative, Accusative & Dative

Definite Article (the) & Indefinite Article (a)

Masculine

Feminine

Neuter

Plural

Nominative

der

ein

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Accusative

den

einen

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Dative

dem

einem

der

einer

dem

einem

den + n

keinen + n

* ‘kein’ is used here instead of ‘ein’ as you can’t use ‘ein’ in the plural.

* Other words can be substituted in this table instead of ‘ein’. The endings on these words will change in exactly the same way as ein & kein.

mein (my), sein (his), ihr (her), dein (your- informal), unser (our), ihr (their) euer (your- informal ) Ihr (your – formal)

Complete the following endings using the correct form of the accusative or dative case.

Note:

If there is no preposition ie ‘in’, then use the accusative case to show that the noun is the direct object. (receiving the action)

If the preposition ‘in’ is followed by a noun, then use the rule: in + acc (movement), in + dat (no movement). Where at – DAT Where to – ACCU

Wir können d____ Schlossturm (m) besichtigen.
Wir können d____ Altstadt (f) besuchen.
Man kann in____ Open – Air Kino (n) gehen.
Wir sind i____ Kino (n)
Wir können e____ Bootsfahrt (f) auf dem Rhein machen.
Können wir vielleicht in e____ Pizzeria (f) gehen?
Es war schön heute Abend in d____ Pizzeria.(f)
Ich möchte d____ Filmmuseum (n) und d____ Sϋdpark (m) bescuhen.
In Dϋsseldorf möchten wir in d____ Aquazoo (m) gehen und e____ Einkaufsbummel (m)

machen.

Man kann d____ Senfmuseum (n) und d____ Königsallee (f) besichtigen.
I____ Senfmuseum (n) kann man viele Senfspezialitäten probieren und in d____ Königsallee (f) gibt es zahlreiche Geschäfte.
Am Samstag können wir in____ Spektakulum (n) und danach in d____ Botanischen Garten (m) gehen.
Ich möchte besonders d____ Rheinturm (m) besuchen und in____ Café (n) am Rheinufer gehen.

When you have completed all the tasks, upload this booklet to ManageBac. This should be done by the end of the second double.

Any remaining time should be spent on Quizlet and on further writing practice. (ie Imagine you are writing a Blog from the perspective of a tourist in Duesseldorf and are talking about what you have done, are doing and will do. Use description and give your opinions)

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 23: Statistics

Compute the marginal distribution of marital status (for example, total “Never Married / Total Adult Women) for all adult women (use percent). Either draw by hand or use Excel to create a bar chart to display this distribution. Discuss the results.
Compare the conditional distributions of marital status for women aged 18 to 24 and women ages 40 to 64. Discuss the most important difference between the two age groups.

Your company is planning a magazine aimed at women who have never been married. Find the conditional distribution of age among never-married women and display it in a bar graph. Insert this graph into word. Discuss what age group or groups you would suggest to your magazine to target.

Question 24: Engineering

Solve

Question 25: Psychology

Wk 4 Individual: Multicultural Project Planning

Choose one of the following scenarios and watch the accompanying video.

You work for a refugee relief organization. You are given the job of setting up schools in Chechen refugee camps in Chechnya.
Video: “Chechen Refugee Camps”
You work for a humanitarian organization. You are asked to expand your organization into Iraq to aid in the country’s rebuilding effort.
Video: “Post War Conditions in Iraq”

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper about the challenges of planning the project.

Include the following in your paper:

At least three topics that you would like to better understand before beginning the project.
Describe ethnocentric challenges that may arise when planning the project.
Discuss the types of questions the researcher should ask.

Include peer-reviewed sources to support your points.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Video: Chechen Refugee Camps

Transcript: Chechen Refugee Camps

Video: Post War Conditions in Iraq

Transcript: Post War Conditions in Iraq

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 26: Psychology

Ethical Guidelines in Multicultural Research

Pick an ethical guideline unique to multicultural research. What is your perspective on the chosen guideline’s purpose for student and professional research?

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

Textbook sources:

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question 27: Psychology

Ethnocentrism, Psychological Theories, and Multicultural Research

In what ways does ethnocentrism impact psychological theories and multicultural research?

Textbook sources:

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question 28: Statistics

A firm uses a computer-based training module to prepare 20 machinists to use new numerically controlled lathes. The module contains a test at the end of the course; X is the number who perform satisfactorily on the test.

The list of potential product testers for a new product contains 100 persons chosen at random from the adult residents of a large city. Each person on the list is asked whether he or she would participate in the study if given the chance; X is the number who say “Yes”.

Either in a job you currently have or one that you would like to have, describe a data set you could collect that would be in the binomial setting.

Question 29: Chemistry

Complex metric Titration

A 10.00 mL of aliquot of a commercial grade algaecide containing an organ mercury compound was treated with concentrated HNO3 and diluted to 250.0 mL with water. A 50.00 mL of aliquot of this solution was treated with 20.00 mL of 0.04966 M EDTA and mixed thoroughly for 10 minutes. After adjusting to pH 10.00, the excess EDTA required 18.04 mL of 0.04711 M MgCl2 for the titration endpoint. Calculate the concentration of Hg in the original sample in units of mg Hg/mL

Question 30: Chemistry

Gravimetric Analysis

Will a precipitate form when 0.150L of 0.1000 M Pb(NO)3 and 0.100 L of 0.20 M NaCl are mixed? Ksp of PbCl2 = 1.2 x 10 ^ -5

Question 31: Computer Science

SYSC 2100 Algorithms and Data Structures Summer 2019

Assignment 3: Recursion and Stacks Due: May 31st, 2019

Name your classes and methods strictly as specified (case sensitive).

Design a class named LanguageRecognizerG to implement a language recognizer. The LanguageRecognizerG class must accept strings from the user, and determine recursively (method recursiveRecogG) whether the string is a word of the G language.

The G language has the following grammar:
<G> = empty string | <E> | <V> <E> | <E> <G> <V> <E> = & | #
<V> = W | A

The client program (exterior to your class) will read the word from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the G-language word to check:

Suppose that the user enters the word:

###

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered word and check with one simple call of a method. The client program should not implement any result printing at all. That is the responsibility of your class via its methods. A client program is provided on Page 4. Feel free to use it for your tests!

The output should appear as follows:

Recursion: Word “###” is NOT a word of the G language If the entered word is #A instead, the output would be:
Recursion: Word “#A” IS a word of the G language

CAUTION: If you take care of the printing inside recursiveRecogG you will run into a multiple printing problem. To eliminate this, have a second method recursivePrintG that takes care of the printing for recursion. That is the only method that the client program will call for the language check. It then becomes the job of recursivePrintG to make use of recursiveRecogG.

Bonus Question (no marks): Try solving the same problem as above non-recursively using the Java Collections Framework class Stack (method stackRecogG).

Implement your own ADT-list-based stack class named StackListBased. Use the ADT LinkedList of the Java Collections Framework. Your Stack implementation should be capable of performing the operations shown in the following UML diagram.

Design another class named InfixCalculator to implement an infix calculator using your previously implemented class StackListBased. The InfixCalculator class must accept infix expressions from the user and evaluate them with method evaluateInfix. This method will first convert the infix expression to postfix expression (method convertPostfix), and then evaluate the resulting postfix expression (method getPostfix). Use only the operators +, -, *, and /. You can assume that the infix expression is syntactically correct and that the unary operators are illegal. However, the infix expression should

allow for any type of spacing between operands, operators, and parentheses
allow for multi-digit integer operands

The client program (exterior to your class) will read the infix expression to evaluate from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the infix expression to evaluate:

Suppose that the user enters the expression:

(10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered expression and evaluate it the method evaluateInfix().

The output for some example infix operations should appear as follows:

infix: (10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

postfix: 10 3 4 * 6 / +

result: 12

infix: 12*3 – 4 + (18 / 6)

postfix: 12 3 * 4 – 18 6 / +

result: 35

infix: 35 – 42* 17 /2 + 10

postfix: 35 42 17 * 2 / – 10 +

result: -312

infix: 3 * (4 + 5)

postfix: 3 4 5 + *

result: 27

infix: 3 * ( 17 – (5+2))/(2+3)

postfix: 3 17 5 2 + – * 2 3 + /

result: 6

Submission Requirements: Submit your assignment (3 source LanguageRecognizerG.java, StackListBased.java, and InfixCalculator.java) using cuLearn. Your program should compile and run as is in the default lab environment, and the code should be well documented. Submit all the files individually without using any archive or compression.

Marks will be based on:

Completeness of your submission
Correct solution to the problem
Following good coding style
Sufficient and high-quality in-line comments
Adhering to the submission requirements (in particular the naming convention and the

submission of uncompressed source files only)

The due date is based on the time of the cuLearn server and will be strictly enforced. If you are concerned about missing the deadline, here is a tip: multiple submissions are allowed. So you can always submit a (partial) solution early, and resubmit an improved solution later. This way, you will reduce the risk of running late, for whatever reason (slow computers/networks, unsynchronized clocks, failure of the Internet connection at home, etc.).

In cuLearn, you can manage the submission until the deadline, taking it back, deleting/adding files, etc, and resubmitting it. The system also provides online feedback whether you submitted something for an assignment. It may take a while to learn the submission process, so I would encourage you to experiment with it early and contact the TA(s) in case you have problems, as only assignments properly and timely submitted using cuLearn will be marked and will earn you assignment credits.

files:

The Client Program:

Question 32: Business

Fourth ENT assignment.

– Go online and download the book titled CAPITALIST NIGGER by Chika Onyeani and:
1- Comment (Give 10 arguments) on why Africans do not succeed in business.
2- How can they apply the cobweb method used by Indians to succeed.

NB: Answer in at least 6 pages.

Question 33: Business

How to make $2000 from $20 in a year.

As an entrepreneur, explain in detail, a business proposal that can fetch you $2000 in one year, starting with $20. (Answer between 2-3 pages)

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 34: Mathematics

Probability

After his bargain with Dormammu, Dr. Strange is trying to get back to Earth from the Dark
Dimension. To this end, he manages to open three portals:
• Portal 1 can lead him directly back to Earth after 5 minutes.
• Portal 2

leads him through the Nine Realms and back to the Dark Dimension (where he
started) after 15 minutes.
• Portal 3 leads him through the perilous Quantum Realm and back to the Dark Dimension
after 25 minutes (assuming he survives the trip, of course).
Since Dr. Strange does not know which portal is the correct one to take and the portals change
positions every time he goes through one of them, he decides to pick one portal (out of three)
at random with equal probability.
What is the expected time for Dr. Strange to get back to Earth?

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 35: Mathematics

ROI NPV AND PLAY-BACK CALCULATION

Need ROI, Pay-Back and NPV calculation

Return on investment. Net present value

Question 36: Mathematics

Home Depot entered fiscal 2016 with a total capitalization of $27,219 million. In 2016, debt investors received interest income of $832 million. Net income to shareholders was $6,351 million. (Assume a tax rate of 35%.)

Calculate the economic value added assuming its cost of capital is 10%. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Question 37: Economics

How easy is it to start a business in India?

I would like to have a deep analysis on this topic within 500 words.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 38: Business

Discussion 4

William Ford Jr., Chairman of Ford Motor Co. said, “A good company delivers excellent products and services, and a great company does all that and strives to make the world a better place.” Supported by evidence from your textbook, the “Starbucks” case study, and other research, describe two forces that you believe shape the relationship between business and society. Provide two examples, one for each force you select. Be specific in your answer and discuss strengths and weaknesses via examples and applications. Be certain to cite in APA format all sources used.

Discussion 5

Visit at least two different companies’ website and read about how each company explicates the working environment and its expectations of employees. In your discussion post, reference the websites you analyzed. Examples of companies include, Kraft Foods, Apple, CVS Caremark, Johnson & Johnson, and Target. Identify what your selected companies do to establish a positive working environment and committed employees. Be specific in identifying behaviors, programs, or initiatives. (Note: If a company website does not provide enough information, select another company.)

Question 39: Mathematics

Solve for x the equation 2^x+x^2=3^x-x^3, with detailed illustration and explanation.

Question 40: Physics

A physics student is sitting in a parked car just off a busy roadway. She measures the traffic noise and finds that shutting the car windows reduces the intensity of traffic sound to 1.0 % of what it would be with the car windows open. What reduction in intensity level (IL) is achieved by shutting the windows? In your response include an explanation of the underlying physics concept and follow the posted structured approach to problem solving in presenting your response.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 41: Physics

Explain why warranty for many devices will be voided if the equipment is operated in a room with air temperature exceeding the limit specified by the equipment manufacturer. (2 marks)

Question 42: Statistics

Find the value of z such that 0.9722 0.9722 of the area lies between −z − z and z. Round your answer to two decimal places.

Question 43: Mathematics

A pump house is to be placed at some point X along a river. Two pipelines will then connect the
pumphouse to properties A and B. How far from M should X be in order to minimize the total length of
pipeline?

Question 47: Mathematics

Unit –Circle & line –segment intersection

Derive the formula to calculate the endpoint coordinates (x2,y2) on a unit-circle’s circumference, of a sloped line segment (slope = 1 or 2), whose origin coordinates (x1,y1) are anywhere inside of the unit-circle’s first octant. This is for a high school project.

Question 48: Psychology

Wk 3 Team Assigment:News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News

CHANGE TOPIC — Just need 2 slides

Research news stories for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six; each team member must select one news story. The stories must have occurred within the past 6 months and must illustrate the effects of multicultural conflict. The team will choose one story to complete the assignment on.

Create an 2-slide presentation that conveys a background on the news story, and how the news story is related to multicultural conflict. Additionally, provide a resolution approach to the topic.

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

TOPIC is: how the Nipsey Hussle Murder unified people of different cultures and unity

Describe how the news story illustrates the effects of multicultural conflict.

Format your document according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Question 49: History

Major influences on development of the Renaissance

Instructions

This assignment provides you with an opportunity to practice prioritizing known major influences on development of the Renaissance and using specific data to support your choice. What shaped developments in the period 1300–1550 more—the Black Death’s emphasis on the afterlife (the hereafter) or the Renaissance’s emphasis on human achievement (the here and now)?

Lead with your judgment about the most influential viewpoint from beginning to end of the period. This is your thesis. Then, support it with specific examples covering each of the following categories:

significant individuals (e.g., political or religious leaders, innovators, explorers);
characteristics of worldview (e.g., philosophy, religion);
social institutions (e.g., social mores, practices, hierarchies);
patronage (discuss the patrons, their motives, influence, and resulting products or artifacts);
the economies (e.g., changes, different economic systems, impact); and
politics (e.g., forms of governance, power distributions, contests).

You may use specific examples that touch on several of the above categories at once. When writing your essay, use examples to prove your point rather than simply listing the examples.

Your essay must be a minimum of 500 words. Be sure to include an introduction.

You must use two sources written by historians in history books or journals from Online Libraries. All content must follow APA guidelines, including all sources used, which must be cited and referenced according to APA standards.

Details

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . www.homeworknest.com is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. www.homeworknest.com Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your at Tutors at www.homeworknest.com Ts in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Question 50: Statistics

Simulation

The number of acres comprised by Cedar Bog Lake is being estimated. The lake
is shown in the accompanying sketch with the scale shown in feet. Use simulation
to estimate the size of the lake. (One-acre D 43,560 square feet).

x(from 0 to 1000)

y(from 0 to 500)

The best website for college math help, college business homework help, www.homeworknest.com college engineering homework help 2019, june assignments help for college students, Get homework Help Now! Ace Your College Grades this time !

Q1. Workforce Planning

Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.

Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.

Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:

specific job skills and competencies
employee qualifications
the breadth of training offered and available

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document

Q2. Week 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:

Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.

Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner

You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.

One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.

Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:

Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:

Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).

Cite a minimum of two references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech

Read the following scenario.

Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.

Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.

Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.

Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com

!!!Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time!!!

In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:

Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com !!!Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time!!!

ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage

Read the following scenario.

Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.

The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:

Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.

Cite a minimum of three references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods

Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.

You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com

!!!Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time!!!

Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:

Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.

Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.

Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q7. Case Study 1 Transforming the Organization

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com

!!!Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time!!!

Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:

How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.

Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS

Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)

Hide Folder Information

Turnitin®

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®.

Instructions

Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.

Write an Introduction describing your topic.
Write the Statement of the Problem section.
Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
Describe your method of sampling.
Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?

Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com

!!!Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time!!!

Q9. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes

Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.

Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.

Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com

!!!Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time!!!

Q11. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?

What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q12. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?

What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q13. Original Work Only

Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
Industry and Market Feasibility
Product or Service Feasibility
Financial Feasibility
Entrepreneurial Readiness
Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?

Q14. Discussion question

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each:

What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.

Q15. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions

For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:

No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:

o A title,

o Your name,

o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),

o Your instructor’s name, and

o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).

No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q16. Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse

Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.

Important Concepts from Chapter 3:

Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.

Assignment:

Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
References should be provided in initial thread and replies.

Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking. Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?

Q17. Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

Q18. The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem

Details:

The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.

Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.

Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.

Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.

The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).

Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.

Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.

Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:

Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.

To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

Q20. week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

Assess the organization’s current status:

o Leadership

o Board members

o Structure

o Number of employees

Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

Q21. role of sport in education

role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

Q22. Strategic Choice and Evaluation

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how? Why is this relationship important?
How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What might encourage diversification?
What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

Use examples to support your discussion.

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

Q24. Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation

Include the following in your outline:

Organizations(Apple Inc)
Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources

Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

Q26. MGT 279 Assignment 4

In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps

Resources: Microsoft Excel^®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
Using Excel^®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

Q28. New hire for job position

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

Q29. Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Hi,

I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization” So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process

Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

Q30. For Contemporary Decision Making.

Consider how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.

consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank. Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

Provide an example of empirical probability ?

BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;

Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.

ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions

When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)

Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.

Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.

Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.

The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,

Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.
…
I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take
…
And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end

Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
0 out of 1.6 points

According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
0 out of 1.6 points

Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points

“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
Selected Answer:
Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points

Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 10
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 11
0 out of 1.6 points

Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points

One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which is not one of the Three Unities?
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points

The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points

A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek play began with the parados.
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points

With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
Selected Answer:
The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
Selected Answer:
Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Dionysus was the god of dance.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
Selected Answer:
Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
Selected Answer:
Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
Selected Answer:
Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
Selected Answer:
Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
0 out of 1.6 points

Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
Selected Answer:

Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.

Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab

Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.

Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****

Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument

In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

Assignment

In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.

Proposal Argument Prompt

Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

As you compose your essay, be sure to:

• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.

IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1

Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics

Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Q7. Thinking Critically 1

For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.

Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.

Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE

ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument

In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.

Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)

Ethical Essay Prompt

Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

Instructions

After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”

When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.

Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.

Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.

Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.

Proofreading Checklist

Part 1

Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.

Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.

Part 2

When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself

Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.

Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.

Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)

Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.

HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.

Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)

RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1

• Question 1

This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2

When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3

Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4

When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5

Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7

Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8

When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9

The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10

According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11

Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12

In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13

Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14

A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15

According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16

Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17

One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18

According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19

When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20

According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.

Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5

According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.

1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?

2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?

3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?

4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?

5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?

6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?

7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?

8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was

Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.

Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as

Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.

Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.

Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.

Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with

Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?

Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?

1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.

1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.

1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?

1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was

2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find

3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:

4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.

5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.

6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because

7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture

8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.

9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.

10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?

11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?

Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University

1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by

2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because

3.
Hidalgos were

4.
Convertible husbandry

5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT

6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by

7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by

8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when

9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was

10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of

11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by

12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of

13.
Francisco Pizarro was

14.
The European traffic in African slaves

15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from

16.
Enclosure was the process by which

17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it

18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain

19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period

20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that

Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University

1.
With respect to religiosity and women

2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that

3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526

4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as

5.
Catherine de’ Medici

6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT

7.
The Council of Trent met to

8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT

9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a

10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli

11.
The millenarians believed that

12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by

13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that

14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because

15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to

16.
The Huguenots

17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation

18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists

19.
The Jesuits were a

20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by

Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were

2.
In the Late Middle Ages

3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when

4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)

5.
Unam Santa (1302)

6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua

7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when

8.
The Conciliar Movement

9.
The Lollards were

10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to

11.
Feudal traditions

12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because

13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?

14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT

15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France

16.
The Great Schism came to an end

17.
Wycliffe and Hus

18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason

19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that

20.
Which of the following events occurred last?

Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?

1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that

2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at

3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?

4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:

5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?

6. The Crusades were

7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except

8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire

9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the

GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.

•
• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.

Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.

Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.

Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices

Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.

Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.

Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points

This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm

Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.

Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.

Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.

Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?

Q8. Assignment 2 Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff

Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.

Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System

Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic

URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475

Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing

Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”

Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

ART

Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review

For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.

Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?

Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.

Our Case Study:

The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.

Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.

Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:

Classic Interpretations:

For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:

Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?

Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process

Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.

Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.

Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report

This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?

Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.

• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?

Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)

Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)

1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.

Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned

Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.

Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?

Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics

Objective
Back to Top
Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
Back to Top
• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
Back to Top
Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.

Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.

ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).

*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).

Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.

***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)

Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.

Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)

Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries

Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.

Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4

Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)

Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )

Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)

FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity

Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.

Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:

Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?

Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent Ã¢clocksÃ¢ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:

1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnÃ¢t this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:

• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:

• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?

Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics

Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.

Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.

Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.

Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers

Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?

Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.

citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal

Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,

Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?

Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust

Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50

Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA

Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?

How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?

LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 5

1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.

with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.

Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma

Warp

Ship

Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense

back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:

5
3

none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.

They are all velar

They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar

They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.

rounded
tense

high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:

voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.

voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.

none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.

True

False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.

True

False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?

Voiceless velar oral stop

Voiceless velar nasal stop

Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.

True

False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?

Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.

None of these are false.

There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.

In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.

True

False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?

none of these answers

China
Cute

Bamboo

Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:

An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.

A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.

None of these answers.

The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers

alveolar

approximant

lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.

The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.

None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.

The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.

True

False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.

True

False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?

None of these answers.
The nasal system.

The vocal tract system.

The respiratory system.

The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:

none of these answers.

/θ/
/ð/

/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.

An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.

An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.

how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.

the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:

the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.

none of these answers

fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.

True

False
Bottom of Form

Bottom of Form

Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.

If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at

Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…

PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE

, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.

Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals

Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity

Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed

Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo

The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.

Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s

Double Indmnity market scene
50:20

LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s

Kiss me deadly beach scene

Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies

Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.

PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.

Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.

Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about eﬀect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median

Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

ASSESSMENT BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

Pain before
treatment Pain after
treatment
9
5
6
4
3
10
9
9
7
5
2
5
8
3
6
7 8
6
4
3
3
8
6
7
8
4
4
4
5
5
3
8

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Region

Political
Party Urban Rural
Republican 16
32
29
18
18 19
28
29
37
26
Democrat 35
36
27
39
22 24
19
14
26
30
Libertarian 12
16
10
27
19 9
13
7
25
12
Independent 27
17
23
21
12 15
16
26
25
13

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine

10
5

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS

Less likely to support No change More likely to support

25
12
9

7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.

Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers

Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers

Result A+

Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3

Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers

Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.

ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account

Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.

Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.

Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.

a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))

Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity

b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI

Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.
•
• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.
•
• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.
•
• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.

Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?

Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do

Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?

Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.

Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.

Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.

EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact