Tips on how to write an Essay on Family

Question 181 A Blue Glass Face Inlay of King Akhenaten

This is a reading response assignment that requires 2 pages in the Chicago Manual Style. The paper should include a summary and critique. I am not trying to get an A on this assignment. I would like it to look like I wrote it so I’ll need someone to give it about 80% instead of 100%. Another person took the job and left me high and dry after informing them I needed the assignment (8 hours after purchase) ..

Question 182 Document Response

To what extent were Arthur Woodley’s and John Kerry’s experiences in Vietnam consistent with the goals of American policy as described by Kennedy and McNamara? Would Kennedy and McNamara have considered Woodley and Kerry model soldiers? Would Heinl have considered them model soldiers? Explain your answers. (Chapter 29, Reading the American Past)

Question 183 Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal.

Part I: Short Answer: Answer the following questions in two paragraphs per question. 1. Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal. 2. Why was the United States so reluctant to get involved in World War II? 3. What was the impact of World War II on American society? 4. Explain the motives and aims of the U.S. policy of “containment.” 5. Describe the “six-pronged” defensive strategy developed during the Truman era. 6. How did U.S. involvement in Guatemala, Cuba, and Iran (in the 1950’s) reflect Eisenhower’s “New Look” in American foreign policy? 7. What key factors contributed to the period of prosperity in the 1950’s? 8. Describe and explain the increase in religious participation in America in the 1950’s. 9. Describe and analyze the aims and key programs in Johnson’s “Great Society.” 10. Briefly explain why it was so difficult for three American presidents–Kennedy, Johnson, and Nixon–to withdraw from Vietnam, even though they all claimed to want to get out. 11. Explain America’s “move to the right” at the end of the 20th century. 12. Explain the Watergate scandal. What events led to it? Why did it lead to Nixon’s resignation? 13. What were the costs and benefits of globalization to the United States in the 1990’s and early 2000’s? 14. What impact did the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001 have on U.S. foreign and domestic policies? 15. What was Obama’s reform agenda, and what obstacles stood in the way of that agenda? Part II: Essay Answer each in an essay of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Write an essay in which you describe, analyze, and evaluate the struggle for civil rights since World War II. You should have a thesis that reflects your evaluation of the situation during this era, and should support that thesis with numerous details and examples from assigned readings. B. Write an essay in which you explain and analyze the significance of the Vietnam War in American life and history. In doing so, you should have a clear thesis and support that thesis with specific examples from the assigned readings. C. Write an essay in which you describe, how and why has America changed since 1865 in terms of equal rights, economic problems/issues, foreign policy, and/or culture?

Question 184 Civil Rights Matrix

Complete the Civil Rights Matrix by summarizing and stating the significance of each of the “snapshots” in the pursuit of Civil Rights in America. Be sure to use sources contained in the topic/course materials and/or from your instructor to complete the assignment. This assignment uses a scoring guide. Please review the scoring guide prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. While GCU style format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using GCU documentation guidelines, which can be found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.

Question 185 The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells

The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells This is a YouTube video that provides updated explanations of human development. This primary source documentary includes interactive timelines of the migration of early people that is well detailed and presents a great deal of information on human DNA. Students are to view this documentary in its entirety and answer the following question in Forum discussion. Discuss how does this documentary enhance your understanding of the debate between the ideas of creation and evolution. Provide examples from the documentary to help support your answer.

Question 186 Multicultural Curriculum Design

I need this assignment by 8 am May 1st Items need 2 page report Plus powerpoint including everything I should say in the video I already have selected a a topic and I have an outline! Look at the lesson plan to help you type the 2 page paper Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video explaining everything like how I made changes to the originally lesson plan! The powerpoint should tell me everything I need to say on the video. Like, how I demonstrated how I used the revised curriculum. and how I plan to teach the new curriculum to my class. Look below for teach instructions Curriculum Design You will take an existing curriculum unit or a professional development activity and create a new and improved unit or activity that embeds multicultural perspectives. The curriculum activity you choose should be already established and documented (online or via hard copy) because the original will be submitted along with the revised multicultural document. You should clearly identify within the report a minimum of 8-10 examples of Bank’s levels of multicultural curriculum reform. You will be asked to submit on video tape a portion of this unit that you have presented to a class (8-10 minutes) to demonstrate how you used the revised curriculum. All reports need to include an APPENDIX section that includes the following items: 1. Lesson plans 2. Resources 3. Visuals 4. Activities that you would use. Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video and the powerpoint just needs to tell me what to say and how I demonstrated how you used the revised curriculum…

Question 187 Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms

Instructions Complete a differentiation chart for your classroom. Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms. Using the course material and readings, show how you can apply the following strategies to your classroom to address the various learning needs within that classroom. (You will probably not have specifics on student interests or styles but you can generically incorporate activities that students can connect their interest and a variety of learning styles to the curricular content. Plan for students who are more visual learners, auditory learners, tactile, kinesthetic and those who require multimodal approaches.) The first column should have the type of differentiation. Then in column 2, state the subject you will use the specific strategy in. The third column, describe how you will use this strategy. In the last column, consider how you will group students for each strategy. Some strategies may be large group, small group, or even one-on-one. Compacting Tiered Assignments Independent Study Contracts Learning Centers Choice boards Adjusting questions (be sure and write comprehension questions according to Bloom’s taxonomy) Flexible Grouping Pre-teaching Re-teaching Response to Intervention Make sure to add a title page, reference page, and in-text citations.

Question 188 Early Childhood Education

Reflecting on the need to communicate the numerous critical and time sensitive issues in Early Childhood Education, what do you: Propose is the most timely and important Suggest is the best method(s) for informing and maintaining informational access to the public and policy makers (identify your audience) on the issue(s) Identify as your strengths to now engage in such work Perceive to still be weakness(es) that may hinder you work. How will you navigate and succeed regardless of said limitation(s). Respond in a professionally written 2-3 page paper

Question 189 What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor”

What changes or trends have you observed or reviewed in your readings that might confirm the growing diversity of young children who attend early childhood programs? How have individuals in you community responded to these changes? Identify the best methods for educating ELL students to high achievement levels. What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor”?

Question 190 Describe the affects of poverty on brain development

Describe the affects of poverty on brain development? What are the basic tenets in the promotion of resiliency? Why are the early years particularly important for all children in the areas of longterm learning and developmental outcomes?

Question 191 community engagement

The book review you write should be academic (likely with references to a few other sources – 3 is fine) and it should include some description of the book, an analysis of the content and an overall evaluation of how and why the book contributes to the field or participatory learning, research, theory, facilitation, and community engagement. You might also consider doing some of the required course reading in advance and then use some of that reading to compare the text with other topics that are related. For example, I suggest reading the first two chapters in Pedagogy of the Oppressed by Paulo Friere as they apply to all of the books considered as texts. Finally, what do you consider strengths and weaknesses in the book, key learnings, and what does the book say or not say about participation, popular education, dialogue or other key concepts in participatory realms of thinking and doing (or ideas linked to community engagement and adult learning). More generally, the book review is a critique of why you would or would not recommend this book based on the content, writing, theory and ideas presented. Reviews should explain and critique why the book is or is not significant in the given topic. The review will be evaluated based on the above criteria, clarity of writing style, proper formatting, grammar, use of APA style, and your critical analysis of the content. Proofread carefully. The review should be 1000-1250 words max. (12 pt font in times new roman with 1 inch margins). Use APA style (6th Ed). All instructions I received from my prof. Plz check carefully and I attached book too for your review. If your review will be good, I will offer you my others assignments too

Question 192 How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism

How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism? Identify examples of institutional racism. Discuss the implications of instructional racism on children’s development on family functioning and on society in general.

Question 193 Education

Specifically, discuss the emotional impact on the parent(s) when children develop proficiency that they themselves do not have. 2. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of parent’s limited English proficiency? (Remember not every ELL parent speaks Spanish. Therefore, a Spanish interpreter is not a solve all solution and is difficult to find interpreters in all languages) 3. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of a parent’s limited educational background? 4. Specifically, how will you minimize the mismatch between school culture and home culture? 5. Specifically, how will you work to minimize the logistical issue barriers (work hours, transportation, etc) to maximize parent involvement?

Question 194 High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components

High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components? 2. Describe the messages that media (television, movies, magazines, newspapers, Internet) convey about people living with limited incomes or within the poverty threshold. Identify at least five specific examples examples which demonstrate those messages. 3. What is the importance of resiliency? Give an example of how you have been resilient?

Question 195 Lesson Plan Analysis

【Actually this EDUCATION assignment is due July.4. It is a bit urgent. Take this order if you are confident to complete it on time in a satisfactory quality.】 ————————————————————————– This assignment has Part I and Part II. Part I is a 2-page lesson plan, using the provided template. Part II is an analytic paper that should be 1,000 words (+/-10%) not including references. 【Detailed Instructions for this assignment are in the attachment files, which I will provide you in our message box for convenience. 】 Read them carefully

Question 196 create a Newletter

Parent Newsletter: Based on the classroom you observed, develop a newsletter for that parent population. The newsletter should cover the current learning objectives and/or activities taking place in the class or camp, inform parents about how to help with the class or camp, reminders about what their child needs to do or bring, and upcoming events such as field trips or splash days. The newsletter must include information about how to contact the teacher with questions or in an emergency (phone, email, or text), increase family awareness of the daily routines and activities of the class, and how to request a parent-teacher conference, or if there is already a schedule for conferences established. Be creative and welcoming, design your newsletter in the way you think parents would be interested in reading it and that gives them suggestions for increasing their involvement/engagement with the class. Use the material from the readings about communicating with families as you develop the newsletter to make it relevant. The Parent Newsletter should be developed with correct spelling and format, using pictures or graphics to make it appealing, and most importantly,provide timely and relevant information for families who are the intended audience. After you have edited and spell checked your newsletter, save it as a PDF and submit to the Dropbox for this assignment.

Question 197 Family Involvement Plan

Family Involvement Plan: This portion of the project focuses on the generation of two reports. The first report will establish ways to assist the family in developing or maintaining a high and comfortable level of involvement in their current early childhood care/education setting. The second report will create a school/childcare plan that promotes additional involvement opportunities for all families involved in the setting. You will use your Family Interview report to assist you in developing these two plans. Each plan is to be three -five pages and provide detailed and descriptive information that specifies what the family should do and what the child care/education setting should do for all families. The purpose of both reports is to use the strategies learned in your course readings and from the interview to create an applied project that assists families and child care settings alike.

Question 199 What is Inclusive Teaching

What is Inclusive Teaching? 2. How do Personal Identity and Otherness work together? How do Personal Identify and Otherness work in isolation? 3. How do educator’s experiences affect inclusion? How will your personal biases affect your role as a teacher?

Question 200 Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals

Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals. According to Powell and Driver (2013), “teachers and school staff can talk with parents about the possibility of their child needing to undergo an evaluation for ADHD, but the official diagnosis must come from a medical professional or clinician (i.e., medical doctor, psychiatrist, or psychologist)” (Section 5.5). Reflect on what this statement means to you. How can you talk with parents about this subject without sounding as if you are diagnosing? What advice can you provide to parents who come to you with concerns about their child without implying that a disability is present? I need this assignment done by tomorrow

Question 201 Problems Students Face

Topic: Problems that students face Type: Documented persuasive essay Purpose: To convince the reader to believe as the author does using documented evidence Sources: 7 Quoted 5 non internet 3 different magazine or journal sources Length: 3 pages 1 Bibliography page

Question 202 What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences

Course Reflection Write a one- to two-page reflection that addresses the following: a.How has your own image of children with learning disabilities been affected during this class? b.What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences? c.How do you see this class affecting how you will plan and implement curricula for young children? d.What is one topic you might like to research and gain new information on based on your learning in class?

Question 203 children must develop strong self-regulation skills

Regardless of a child’s unique qualities, one thing remains the same; to improve learning and behavior, children must develop strong self-regulation skills. Read the article from the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC), “Developing Young Children’s Self-Regulation Through Everyday Experiences (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” The marshmallow experiment is a famous test conducted by Walter Mischel at Stanford University and discussed by Daniel Goleman in his popular work. In the 1960s, a group of four-year-olds were given a marshmallow and promised another only if they could wait 20 minutes before eating the first one. Some children could wait and others could not. The researchers then followed the progress of each child into adolescence, and demonstrated that those with the ability to wait were better adjusted and more dependable (determined via surveys of their parents and teachers), and scored an average of 210 points higher on the Scholastic Aptitude Test. Read the American Psychological Association (APA) article, “Delaying Gratification (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” Reflect on the information in the NAEYC article, the article, and your text and explain how toddlers with better self-regulation skills are less likely to demonstrate behavior problems in preschool. Explain why these self-regulation skills are so important and how you will promote the learning of self-regulation. How will you deliberately teach self-regulation as part of everyday experience? Share an example of your own self-regulation skills that you can model for others.

Question 204 Biopoem

Part1: http://www.readwritethink.org/files/resources/lesson_images/lesson398/biopoem.pdf you have a informed perspective on Jefferson’s beliefs about education. Using information from the textbook and/or your own additional research, complete this assignment. Part 2:

Question 205 Leadership Styles

* It’s not letting me change the date, but I would need this today. You will watch two video clips this week; (1) The leadership style of General Patton from the 1970 Academy Award winning film Patton and (2) The leadership style of Colonel Lawrence Chamberlain in Gettysburg as he begins his leadership for the Union Army just prior to the Battle of Gettysburg. Patton video: Please analyze some of the transactional leadership skills of this heroic World War II leader to our quest of enhancing student learning in today’s schools. Consider Patton’s leadership strengths that could prove helpful in causing positive change in classrooms today, as well as aspects of Patton’s leadership that would not be effective or recommended in leading students today. Chamberlain video: One of Chamberlain’s first roles as a leader is to transform 120 mutineers into a fighting army. In this segment from the famed film titled Gettysburg, you will observe a revered transformational leader in action who helped change the course of American history. In a 3-4-page paper, identify the leadership style depicted in each of the video clips you viewed this week and compare/contrast the efforts made by the video leaders to develop a shared vision, establish a working relationship, and enlist others in the effort before them. Make relevant applications of these strengths to your leadership today in the classroom. In addition, please describe your thoughts about the benefits and/or disadvantages of adopting a transformational leadership style versus a transactional one. Cite information you have gleaned from your text readings. Include an APA appropriate reference page (view your APA handbook or online resources for assistance). Paper must follow APA 6th edition writing style.

Question 206 expanding

use the details from my Circle of Viewpoints document to write a post from the perspective of Thomas Jefferson, as if I was an actor portraying him in the discussion board.

Question 207 Reading Assignment

Based on Attached file- 1. Provide an Abstract of the reading between 90-100 Words; 2. Two (2) issues for discussion of your choosing based on the reading; 3. Two (2) concepts that you did not know what they meant (or that were unclear to you) with your best definition/explanation of them. 4. The reading assignment should be two and half pages

Question 208 Analyze ‘Man on the Street’ Interview Responses

take you away from the computer and into the streets (not literally). Find six people in your circle of acquaintances, colleagues, or friends, and then ask them the following questions: What kind of change have you experienced in an organization? In what way did the leaders in your organization prepare you for the change? (please be as specific as possible) How was the change communicated to the organization (i.e., suddenly, carefully planned communication)? Was there buy-in from the organization’s employees? Explain how you felt during the change. Describe your feelings after the change. What one thing would you do differently if you were leading the change? Once you have gathered the responses, analyze the answers, and then summarize your findings in a table structured in a comprehensible way that will help you convey your findings to readers. Next, create a PowerPoint, 12 powerpoint slides. Five scholarly resources, APA format. Example format inculded

Question 209 BBC Documentary Questions Assignment

Please change wording of answers for questions 6 and beyond. Respond to questions that have not been answers using same format. To answer these questions, expert must watch this documentary: http://www.dailymotion.com/video/x40jndd Lastly, write a 3-paragraph with a reflection of the documentary. NOTE: ANSWERS MUST BE DESCRIPTIVE AND WRITTEN IN FULL SENTENCES. ALL ANSWERS AND REFLECTION MUST BE AT THE UNIVERSITY LEVEL, EXPRESS CLEARLY, AND HAVE CORRECT GRAMMAR.

Question 210 Resume and Cover Letter

Using the recommendations and models presented on the websites www.susanireland.com and www.best-interview-strategies.com, develop (or update) your resume so that it is ready for your school counseling position search process. In addition to your resume, prepare a form cover letter that will serve as the template for your job search. Keep in mind that this letter will need to be modified depending on the school districts and schools to which you are applying. This document should be 4 pages in length. Job post for a cover letter: https://www.glassdoor.com/job-listing/counselor-teacherjobs-JV_IC1131270_KO0,9_KE10,21.htm?jl=2212370944

100+ Research Paper Questions and Topics for History Class

Compare and contrast the reasons why the Western Roman Empire ended in 476 and the Eastern Roman Empire

Use twelve point type and double space. Have a cover page with the title of your review, the course number and section, your name, date submitted, your tutor’s name and the word count. Use Chicago style footnotes. Write an essay in formal academic English (800-1000 words) on ONE of these topics:

How did the environments of six Physiographic regions of Canada

Assignment Format: All assignment are to be in 12 point font with a cover page with an assignment title, your name, course code Hist 112 DE, assignment number, word count and tutor’s name (Prof. Howard Hisdal) on the bottom. Use Chicago style footnoting and include a bibliography even if the only book you used was the textbook. Send in assignments as Microsoft Word attachments.

Development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americans

Directions: 1. Listen to podcast/radio show on “The Invention of Race” at https://www.wnyc.org/story/invention-race/ A summary of the show is “Compiled by Award-winning producer John Biewen from the “Seeing White” series. The Invention of Race traces the development of racial and racist ideas from the ancient world – when there was no notion of race – up to the founding of the United States as, fundamentally, a nation of and for white people.” 2. Create a timeline of the development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americas (up to the founding of the United States). Your timeline should include the date, and a few words on each event/law/action/etc. you chose that played a role in constructing race. Your timeline should reflect the evolution of understanding or thinking about race over time.

Lois Banner’s Steel Engraving Lady

Questions: 1. How did society view women in the Romantic period? 2. What were beauty ideals of the Romantic era? How did the steel engraving lady play into the concept of Romantic beauty ideals? 3. How did the popular clothing and silhouette of this period support society’s views on attaining ideal Romantic era beauty? 4. What were some of the ways women in this period tried to achieve ideal Romantic beauty? 5. Pick a picture from current fashion magazine today, attach it to your assignment book. Can you find any similarities to Romantic beauty ideals as discussed in the reading “Steel Engraving Lady” in the current fashion image that you chose?

Historical letter writing paper

two pages of letter style paper. Analyze the primary source documents by Samuel Seabury and Thomas Paine. Imagine that somehow the two had read each other’s works and had the chance to write to each other about independence and government. You will write two letters: one from Seabury to Paine and another from Paine to Seabury. What would have been their perspectives on government? What would they have said to each other?

Digital Source Analysis

write a short (400-500 word) dialogue between Adam Smith and Karl Marx in which they analyze the opening scenes of the movie. In the dialogue that you write, you should have each theorist draw upon their own writings to answer the following questions: 1. How would each analyze the conditions in the factory and the labor that the Little Tramp performs? 2. How would each explain the interactions between the Little Tramp and his co-workers? 3. How would each explain the “feeding machine” scene? 4. Why does the main character (the Little Tramp) have a nervous breakdown? 5. What is the remedy? (or, What would bring about a better future for the Little Tramp?) Please note that the dialogue should be written as a dialogue (like in a play). For example Karl Marx: Statement Adam Smith: Response to statement

History of civilization II

To what extent did the age of European expansion impact the Chinese? Who benefited more from this seaborne interaction? Explain, with examples. 2. Compare and contrast the governmental systems of British and Spanish colonies in the Americas. Why were the British colonists of North America more inclined toward independence than their Spanish American counterparts? Explain, with examples.

Primary Source 2 assignment WWI

Read Article and do three paragraphs on it based on this link https://worldwar1letters.wordpress.com/2009/06/ no longer than 450 words, but no shorter than 300. P1- Should provide the title of the source, a very brief summary of the text and say what students hope to critique-argue in P2. Students need to provide an argument-thesis driven statement. A summary alone is neither desirable nor enough to thoroughly complete the assignment. P2- Should be an analytical paragraph that provides (at least) one example from the text to support the author’s claim…ie. The slave’s story provides insight into the cruelty of the system, “insert quotation from text here.” Using direct quotations provides clarity and helps to support the author’s claims. P3- Should summarize briefly what was covered in P1 and P2 and also say something about the significance of this document for the study of world history and how it shows global interconnectivity. (How is the world connected?) Do not throw this paragraph away, put as much effort into it as P1 and P2.

Iron Jawed Angels

What to do: In this discussion, I would like you to write a post that touches on some of the following topics relating to Iron Jawed Angels (below). Make sure to incorporate specific details from the film AND specific details from lecture and readings to help back up your ideas. Anacronism: Can you think of a few examples in the film where the filmmaker took license with history? For example, where did they put in modern details, attitudes, or sensibilities to make the film resonate with a 21st century audience? (Anacronism = something, a word, object or an event, that is mistakenly paced in a time where is does not belong). We are not looking for obscure inaccuracies, just major ones that might be important when critiquing the overall value of the film. The whole story? Do you think that someone watching this movie will get an accurate depiction of how the 19th Amendment was won? Explain to reason for your answer with specific details from readings and lecture to show your knowledge . How does “Iron Jawed Angels” compare to our textbook and lecture accounts of the road to suffrage (1848-1920)? The merit of the film? What do you think is the greatest merit of the film? Are the anachronisms and limited chosen narrative outweighed by the film’s overall value? Provide specific examples to explain your answer.

Film as history. Whether we historians like it or not, many Americans get most of their ‘history’ from Hollywood films (and TV shows). These films may be inaccurate, biased toward modern sensibilities, or politically motivated. Are there dangers or advantages of using popular films to learn history? Provide specific examples to explain your answer. Discussion Directions: NOTE: This post needs to be your own work. This means: Resist the temptation to google “Iron Jawed Angels + Anachronism.” If you write some obscure details about the inaccuracy of number of stars on the American flag or incorrect door handles being used or how the wrist watches were from the wrong time period, I will be pretty sure that you looked up that information online (or else you will need to prove to me how you came to be so knowledgeable in the subject of historic door handles…). Please only use our readings and lectures this week as the basis for your discussion. Do not go online looking for additional information. One of your goals is to demonstrate that you have completed this week’s assigned materials. Also you will have to watch this lecture and give evidences from it. This is the link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VBsAeAz0yBQ&feature=youtu.be

Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION

Watch the entire “BE UNREALISTIC” (Ft. Will Smith) video: Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill TWO PARAGRAPHS (more 350 words per paragraph) respond to the following questions (after watching the entire video). First, notice that Will Smith tells stories about his life, and what lesson he learned from that experience. Second, write a SUMMARY of some of the key points that Will Smith makes in the video. Then, select ONE STATEMENT he makes that is the most significant one. Why was it picked and explain. NO HEADER OR FOOTER, NO RESEARCH, IT IS JUST AN OPINION PAPER, A SINGLE SHEET.

How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries

What major political challenges faced the new nations of the Western Hemisphere in the nineteenth century, and how well did they deal with those problems?* How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries?*

How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact

500 word discussion I will provide links for the topic Discussion topic: Rome was a city. Roman History is the story of a city that encompassed the known world. A new world order came into being that lasted for a thousand years. Its main components were: Roman law, Roman ethics, Roman practicality, Roman finance, Roman rule, Roman military strength, Roman science. Seeing it in perspective, Rome as a city conquered other great city-cultures. Choose ONE of the following and respond to it in 500 words after opening a new thread in DiscussionRome came into contact, early in her History, with neighboring cultures such as the Etruscans and the Greeks of southern Italy. How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact? Roman writers believed that Rome became a world power out of necessity. Since early in her expansion, Rome came to be in a state of perpetual war. Are there modern parallels to be drawn from contemporary powers that dwell in a state of perpetual war? Who gained the most from Rome’s war based economy and war inspired politics? Who gains in today’s states from their war based economy and war inspired politics?

Two Letters from Slaves to Their Former Masters

ONE paragraph (350 words minimum) based on the information read. MUST start by giving the author, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What is the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from reading of this story/document? MSUT use ONE DIRECT QUOTE from the document. Post TITLE of document.

Reaction paper history 2

watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files

Analytical Writing Assignment

REQUIREMENTS: 12 Font, 350 words, single page, correctly identified the author, title and date of document, and information about the author, summary the document accurately, describing the main points that the author is making about the issue at hand, a direct quote from the document that will be provide is a MUST. Accurate details MUST describe the importance of the document relevant to the major issues of the time period..Again, will provide document to complete assignment.

Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain

Read EWC Document 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain,” and write a paragraph responding to the prompt at the end. (follow the link in the Canvas Module for Week 12 to access the document) Your response to the prompt should be about a paragraph in length but no longer than a page. It should begin with an introductory sentence that responds directly and completely to the prompt. This sentence establishes your main point (that is, your argument or thesis). In about four to six additional sentences, you should present evidence to support your thesis. Present at least two pieces of concrete evidence drawn from Document 29.7. You must cite any material paraphrased from the source document with a simple parenthetical citation. You must enclose any material taken word-for-word from the source document in quotation marks and cite it with a simple parenthetical citation. See the following examples: In this famous speech, British Prime Minister Winston Church warned that the Soviet Union controlled eastern European countries liberated from Nazi Germany after the end of World War II.

(EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) In this speech, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill famously warned that “an iron curtain has descended across” Europe, and that the Soviet Union exercised an “increasing measure of control” on the countries behind it. (EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) Be sure to analyze the evidence you present by explaining why it means what you think it means. Conclude your paragraph by restating your main point (that is, your argument/thesis/direct response to the prompt) and perhaps reflecting on the broader significance of the document you’ve read. Type your response in MS Word or any similar word processing software. Proofread your essay carefully to eliminate errors in grammar, punctuation, and usage. Save the file and then upload it to Canvas. Your work will be compared with the turnitin.com database to detect plagiarism by searching for similarities with internet sources and/or the work of other students around the world.

Analytical Assignment

12 Font, 350 words, single page, writing pertains to the document that will be provided, which will require author’s name, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What was the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from the document? MUST use a direct quote from the document. DRAFT needed 2 days prior to due date. No research or citations needed.

Reaction paper / HIS / movies

Reaction paper

James Davidson, Courtesans and Fishcakes.

Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?) .Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well.

Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of the book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 4-5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations.

Portfolio Reflection

In this module, we’ve learned a great deal about the value of history, how learning from the past may help provide definition to our present world perspective and how studying and learning from our ancient ancestors can potentially contribute in shaping our own future. Throughout this course, we have examined various civilizations and in each one we’ve learned about a myriad of aspects that helped influence our ancestors’ capacity to act responsibly and determine their roles or abilities to contribute to society. For this reflection, you will answer the question: “What can I, as an historian of the ancient world, learn and apply from the history of my ancient ancestors to my own role in contributing to and acting responsibly for the betterment of society?” In order to answer this question effectively for your reflection you must: Pick one common theme/criteria topic (from the list below) that you think significantly influenced an individual from the ancient world to act responsibly and contribute towards society. o Technology o Politics/Bureaucracy o Law/Ethics o Arts/Sciences o Economy/Business o Education o Military/Police o Religion/Morals & Traditions Explain how at least one specific example (one individual) from at least three different civilizations covered throughout this course supports your selected theme/criteria.

(So, your essay will talk about 3 different people – each from a different civilization that we discussed.) Support each of your examples with evidence from the articles in the M13 learning module about why we study history. In total, you must reference at least three of the articles in the learning activities, Support each of your examples with evidence from the module where we discussed their civilization (So, you will reference at least 3 learning modules in your paper.) Connect how understanding the history of your ancient ancestors in the context of your selected theme/ criteria has influenced your sense of responsibility and contributing role towards the betterment of society. In other words, what have you learned from their experiences that can help you act more responsibly today? Lastly, make sure you provide proper internal citations and a properly formatted bibliography This is going into your portfolio so be sure to make sure that you have fixed all grammatical and formatting issues before submission. For your bibliography, it does NOT have to be annotated. The only sources you’ll be using will be from your readings, so you MUST include internal citations and a full, properly MLA formatted bibliography with your paper, but you don’t need to annotated the sources in your bib. Your paper must be 2-3 pages in length (NOT including your bibliography) and follow MLA guidelines (double-spaced, 12pt. Times New Roman font, one-inch margins).

Applicant Cover Letter

To Apply: Applicants will need to submit a one-page cover letter (single-spaced) describing their motives and intent for applying for this position and interning at Pitt Community College (parent company for the newspaper). This letter should: 1) Indicate the applicant’s views concerning the value of studying history and the past. Does this internship (this course) have any value beyond fulfilling an educational requirement? Cover letters should also highlight any personal attributes, interests, and personal experiences that qualify the applicant for this position. 2) Demonstrate the applicant’s understanding of primary and secondary historical sources, the differences between these sources, and their ability to apply these sources critically to the past in order to create analytic interpretations of the past. 3) To show a final understanding of primary and secondary sources and your ability to perform as a historical journalist, conclude your cover letter by explaining the type of sources (primary/secondary) you will be creating for your readers when authoring news stories for AHL.

Is American History Learner a primary or secondary source? We will be looking specifically at the thoughtfulness to your answer of this question when evaluating applications. Be sure to review the syllabus and Internet Course Tutorial before forming your position on this question. You’ll need to have a good handle on what the course is trying to achieve to best answer this question. Submitting Application Applications should be uploaded through the Applicant Cover Letter link in the Summer Internship Module. Please make sure to submit applications by the due date indicated in Applicant Cover Letter link. Upon submission, intern applicants will be required to participate in a survey related to AHL as a source. (MANDATORY) Ensuring Success: Applicants’ cover letters will be assessed on three criteria. First, cover letters need to comprehensively fulfill cover letter requirements outlined above in the “To Apply” section. Second, submissions will be assessed based on the effective use of provided materials in preparing your application. The meat of your analysis should be based on the “What is History and How Do We Practice It?” lesson. (We’ll be looking to see who shows a strong understanding of the materials provided.) Third, cover letters must be composed and submitted in a standardized and professional cover letter format stipulated in the examples provided in the “Applicant Resources” section of the module.

Thomas Nast Obituary

Obituary Format and Objectives: Formatting: Obituaries need to be a minimum of one page, double-spaced and written in size 12 Times New Roman font. American History Learner is committed to journalistic integrity and accuracy. Journalists will need to note any sources that were used in completing this assignment. Objectives: Brief description of the individual’s age, location, and cause of death. Basic description of the individual’s major professional/personal achievements. What should this person be most remembered (legacy) for historically? Obituary needs to place this discussion of the individual in a historic context by describing some of the premier social, political, economic, or cultural events defining the period the individual lived. Integration of primary and secondary sources in your historical analysis. At American History Learner our focus is on historical and journalistic integrity. Obituaries need not glamorize or patronize individuals. Your obituary needs to be professional, unbiased, and note both accomplishments and offer valid criticisms when necessary. Provide an appropriate and creative title for this piece. Our research department has compiled some basic resources you may be interested in consulting when writing your first assignment.

See Module 2 Resources. Notes on Success: Management will be looking closely at your first piece for American History Learner. We will assess the effectiveness of your obituary based on some of the following criteria: historical accuracy, meeting of obituary goals, demonstration of understanding of historical significance and context of the individual, style and grammar, commitment/genuineness/inventiveness, and originality and journalistic integrity. While you have a series of provided readings on Nast that will serve as the research basis of your assignment, it is a good idea to first read the general historical concepts in your textbook that this assignment is built upon. The following portions of your textbook are all historically relevant to this study: Here’s a list of the readings that would be a helpful backdrop when considering the historical context of Thomas Nast. Reconstruction: Chapter 16 Introduction and parts 16.1, 16.3 Industrialization and Urbanization: Chapter 18 Introduction and 18.3 Chapter 19 Introduction and parts 19.1, 19.3, and 19.4 Needless to say, American History Learner is committed to academic and journalistic integrity. Any violation of our parent company, Pitt CC’s academic integrity and plagiarism policy, will result in automatic termination. See your employee handbook and Internet Course Tutorial for a more specific elaboration of AHL’s standards. Please provide an appropriate, creative title with your submission.

Critical Race Theory

Critical responses must identify the main objectives/points of the articles/videos. What do the authors commonly agree upon and/or state as their central focus? How are these articles and videos “speaking” to one another or, are divergent ideas presented? Additionally, students must analyze central points made by authors to develop their own thesis and construct their own claims.

How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century

How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century? Provide specific evidence from the textbook to support your response. The author podcast is also a good resource. http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/04/podcast.aspx (due 6/6/19) 5.Discuss the ways in which both supporters and opponents of independence used the concepts of ‘freedom’ and ‘slavery’ during the American Revolution. Be sure to consider the perspectives of both free and enslaved peoples. Chapter 5 Podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/05/podcast.aspx (due 6/7/19) 6.Read the documents located on pages 248 and 249. In one essay address the questions at the end of page 249. Chapter 6 author podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/06/podcast.aspx (due 6/10/19)

Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people

Do not use the internet or web resources to respond to this discussion board question(s). Use Yefru’s work and the readings on eLearn to participate in this discussion. Be sure that you review the discussion board requirements on your syllabus for full credit. Be original in your thinking as well. So, as you are composing your posts, be sure to write your post in your own words, your own voice, while placing quotations around a sentence or two that you may lift from the text to support your opinion. But remember that your opinion is taken from your clear and concise understanding of the critical ideas from the readings. #1. Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people. How are their ideas similar or different to one another? Be sure to know that Kant and Hume were white philosophers and Blyden and Crummell were African Americans who lived during the 1800s; evidence the sources from eLearn. However, all responses must be written in your OWN words. #2. Why is Dr. Yefru having this conversation about Hume, Kant. Blyden and Crummell in his introductory chapter? Sit with this question a bit. This is an introductory course to the discipline of Africana studies where we promote African-centered critical thinking (which we will discuss next week.) Why is this discussion important for Yefru? What does Yefru think about the ideas of Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell?

Miss education of the negro

NOTE: YOU HAVE TO USE THE Mis-education of the Negro AND THREE OUTSIDE READINGS OF YOUR CHOICE FROM THOSE ASSIGNED IN CLASS TO COMPOSE YOUR PRECISE. KEYS TO COMPOSING A HIGH QUALITY PRECIS (1) Please identify a common theme covered in the book and the articles (race, gender or class etc). (2) Upon identifying this theme which is present in the works, organize your information to address the questions associated with the assignment in paragraph form (see the syllabus). Your discussion will first start with the book and through the common theme incorporate the outside readings. (3) Proofread your essay and make sure it follows the formatting guidelines and cites the relevant materials in the proper way. PLEASE FIND THE CHICAGO STYLE GUIDE ATTACHED TO THIS MESSAGE WHICH SPECIFICALLY APPLIES TO YOUR BIBLIOGRAPHY AND FOOTNOTES. ***Also, an example paper is attached.***

What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction

Part I: Short Answer Answer EACH in a paragraph (or two) per question. 1. What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction? What problems made reconstruction so difficult? 2. What were the main forms of white resistance to the efforts of reconstructionists? What were the black codes? What effect did they have? 3. What were the various meanings of freedom that emerged after emancipation among freed blacks? How was this resisted by white southerners? 4. What was involved in the “redeeming” of the South? How and why did this occur? Why did white supremacy become the foundation of southern politics in the 1870’s? 5. What were the main ways Indians resisted attempts to annihilate them (and their culture)? 6. Explain “Social Darwinism” and “laissez-faire” economics (particularly as they related to the “Gilded Age”). 7. Identify the following and explain how each acquired his fortune (both in terms of industry and tactics): Jay Gould, Andrew Carnegie, and John D. Rockefeller. 8. What role did the federal government play in the growth and profitability of the railroads (including in response to strikes)? 9. What were the various positions people took on the currency (or “free silver”) debate(s) in the Gilded Age and why did they take these various positions? 10. Explain “bossism.” What were it’s advantages and disadvantages?

11. Explain the spoils system. How did it eventually end and why did its demise lead to the increase in the influence of business in politics? 12. Why was there an increase in lynchings at the end of the 19th century? 13. Explain the role of women in politics in the last decades of the nineteenth century. What causes did they endorse, what obstacles did they face, and what role did the “cult of domesticity” play in their tactics/power? 14. Compare the roles played in policy and public life by the Republican and Democratic parties during Reconstruction and during the Gilded Age. What causes did they support and what kinds of voters and support did each attract during each of these periods? 15. Explain the nature of migration and immigration during the last half of the 19th-century. 16. Explain the goals and programs of both the Farmers Alliance and the People’s Party (Populist Party). 17. What were the main issues motivating the labor unions during the Gilded Age, how did they try to achieve them, and why were they unsuccessful? 18. Identify each of the following and explain why they were important: Homestead lockout, Cripple Creek miners’ strike, Pullman boycott, and Coxey’s army. 19. Identify and explain each of the following: Monroe Doctrine, Open Door policy, and yellow journalism. 20. How did the U.S. come to control Cuba, the Philippines, Puerto Rico, and Guam?

21. Why, and in what ways, did the situation of Black Americans actually worsen during the Progressive Era? Explain the case of Plessy v. Ferguson. 22. Explain the contrasting views of Booker T. Washington and W.E.B. Dubois. 23. Explain the ideology of the Progressives, both in terms of the “social gospel” and in terms of their understanding of Darwinism. (Illustrate with examples of actions they undertook.) 24. Compare the following: anarchists, socialists, and progressives. 25. Explain Roosevelt’s “square deal” and describe his actions as both reformer and conservationist. 26. How did Wilsons’ progressivism differ from Roosevelt’s? How did Wilson’s progressive agenda change during his presidency? 27. Explain Wilson’s notion of “national determination” and explain why it was problematic. 28. Explain how and why dissent was suppressed during World War I and comment on its possible effects. 29. In what sense, and why, had American culture drastically changed after World War I? 30. Describe and explain the “Great Migrations” of Black Americans and Mexicans during the early 20th century.

31. What were the causes of the economic crisis (1928-1932) that led to the Great Depression? Part II: Essay Answer these in seperate essays of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle between labor and management/ownership in U.S. history from the Civil War to 1932. In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. B. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle for women’s rights during this period (1865-1932). In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. C. In what sense might we consider the United States an imperialist country during the post-Civil War era up to the end of Word War I? In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims.

The limits of power

This is a book review on The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism. Here is the instructions by my teacher: II. Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?). Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well. Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations Biographical Sketch: Andrew J. Bacevich, Sr. (born 1947 in Normal, Illinois) is a professor of international relations at Boston University and a retired career officer in the United States Army.

He is a former director of Boston University’s Center for International Relations (from 1998 to 2005), and author of several books, including American Empire: The Realities and Consequences of US Diplomacy (2002), The New American Militarism: How Americans are Seduced by War (2005) and The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism (2008). He has been “a persistent, vocal critic of the US occupation of Iraq, calling the conflict a catastrophic failure.”[1] In March 2007, he described George W. Bush’s endorsement of such “preventive wars” as “immoral, illicit, and imprudent.”[1][2] His son, also an Army officer, died fighting in the Iraq War in May 2007.[1]

The Impact of Globalization on Conflict

Think about the previous examination of China. For this project, your job is to write the content for a new page of this course titled India and Globalization. After reading your page, other students should be able to do the following: Identify positive effects of globalization on India Identify negative effects of globalization on India Compare modern U.S. relations with India to relations with China Your pages should include commentary with your thoughts on the following question: Why does the U.S. have a better chance of maintaining long-term strong relations with India than it does with China? Include a picture with a caption to go on your page. You may find images using the Google image search function with key words such as: India, Globalization, industry, economy, and trade Include a list of four more websites or articles that you read to support the information on your page. (You should not include the websites below.) Use the The CIA Country Factbook to review data about India’s people and its economy, and then use the rest of the links to examine globalization’s effects on India. BBC News: Is globalisation a force for good in India? Economy Watch: Globalization in India Effects of Globalization on Indian Industry Use a search engine to find more information about globalization’s effect on India by searching with the following key words: “globalization, India, trade, economy, media, effect”

RECENT ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS

Homeworknest.com – Get Solutions to Accounting homework

QUESTION 1

Jean Marsh Jean Marsh owns a small business making and selling children’s toys. The following trial balance was extracted from her books on 31 December 2020. DR$ CR $ 15,000 2,000 90,000 3,400 6,100 18,000 800 18,500 16,900 10,400 Capital Drawings Sales Inventory at 1 January 2020: Raw materials Finished goods Purchases of raw materials Carriage inwards Factory wages Office salaries J Marsh: salary and expenses General expenses: Factory Office Lighting Rent Insurance Advertising Bad debts Discount received Carriage outwards Plant and machinery, at cost less depreciation Car, at cost less depreciation Bank Cash in hand Accounts receivable and accounts payable 1,200 750 2,500 3,750 950 1,400 650 1,600 375 9,100 4,200 3,600 325 7,700 112,600 6,000 112,600 You are given the following additional information: 1. Inventory on 31 December 2020: Raw materials $2,900. Finished goods $8,200 there was no work in progress. 2. Depreciation for the year is to be charged as follows: Plant and machinery $1,500. Car $500. 3. On 31 December 2020 insurance paid in advance was $150 and office general expenses unpaid were $75. 4. Lighting and rent are to be apportioned: 4/5 factory; 1/5 office. Insurance is to be apportioned: 4 Factory; 4 offices. 5. Jean is a business salesperson and her salary and expenses are to be treated as selling expenses. She has sole use of the business car. Required: For the year ended 31 December 2020 prepare: (a) the manufacturing account showing prime cost and factory cost of production. (b) The trading account section of the Statement of Profit or Loss. (c) The profit or loss account section of the Statement of Profit or Loss distinguishes between administrative and selling costs. (d) A Statement of Financial Position as of 31 December 2020.

QUESTION 2

Mlangozi Limited sells plumbing fixtures on terms of 2/10 net 30. Its financial statements for the last three years are as follows: 2018 Sh.?000? 2019 Sh.?000? 2020 Sh.?000? Cash 30000 20000 5000 Accounts receivable 200000 260000 290000 Inventory 400000 480000 600000 Net fixed asset 800000 800000 800000 Accounts payable 230000 300000 380000 Accruals 200000 210000 225000 Bank loan, short term 100000 100000 140000 Long term debt 300000 300000 300000 Common stock 100000 100000 100000 Retained earnings 500000 550000 550000 Additional information: Sales 4000000 4300000 3800000 Cost of goods 3200000 3600000 3300000 sold Net profit 300000 200000 100000 Required:

a) For each of the three years, analyze the company’s trends in profitability, liquidity, and efficiency (12 Marks)
b) comment on the factors that may have caused the changes in profitability and liquidity from the above analysis (3 Marks)

QUESTION 3

Serra do Mar Corporation manufactures and distributes leisure clothing. Selected transactions completed by the Serra do Mar during the current fiscal year are as follows: 8. Split the common stock 3 for 1 and reduced the par from $18 to $6 per share. After the split, there were 600,000 common shares outstanding. Mar. 20. Declared semiannual dividends of $1 on 20,000 shares of preferred stock and $0.14 on the 600,000 shares of $10 par common stock to stockholders of record on March 31, payable on April 20. Jan. Apr. 20. Paid the cash dividends. May 8. Purchased 50,000 shares of the corporation’s own common stock at $48, recording the stock at cost. Actions: Organization, Capital Stock Transactions, and Dividends Aug. 2. Sold 30,000 shares of treasury stock at $56, receiving cash. Sept. 15. Declared semiannual dividends of $1 on the preferred stock and $0.07 on the common stock (before the stock dividend). In addition, a 1% common stock dividend was declared on the common stock outstanding, to be capitalized at the fair market value of the common stock, which is estimated at $52. Oct. 15. Paid the cash dividends and issued the certificates for the con on the stock dividend. Instructions T? Journalize the transactions.

QUESTION 4

Discuss the effect of the intercompany sale of the building Khap Corporation acquired an 80 percent interest in Khun Corporation in 2014. On January 1, 2016, Khap sold a building with a five-year remaining useful life to Khun for $150,000 cash. The building’s book value was $100,000. Khun still owns the building on December 31, 2016.

REQUIRED

How and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2016, and the balance of Khap’s Investment in the Khun account on December 31, 2016?
How will the consolidated financial statement of Khap Corporation and Subsidiary for 2016 be affected by the intercompany sale of the building?
How and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2017 and the balance of Khap’s Investment in Khun account on December 31, 2017, if Khun still owns the building in 2017?
If Khun sold the building back to Khap at the same price and date, how and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2016 and the balance of Khap’s Investment in Khun’s account at December 31, 2016?

QUESTION 5

The Glass Co. has a firm commitment dated April 1 to purchase cocoa with delivery on June 15. The commitment is for 1,000 metric tons of cocoa at P700 per ton. In order to hedge against decreases in the spot prices of cocoa, the company designated an option as a hedge against changes in the fair value of the commitment. The put option was acquired on April 1 for a premium of P1, 000 and has a strike price of P700 per ton. The option has a notional amount of 1,000 tons and an expiration date of June 15. Spot prices per ton and the value of the option at selected dates are as follows: April 1 April 30 May 31 June 15 Spot price per ton P701 P696 P697 P695 Fair value of option P1,000 P4,300 P3,500 P5,000 The change in the option’s time value will be excluded from an assessment of hedge effectiveness or split accounting is used. What is the gain or (loss) on firm commitment (hedged item) on May 31, gain or (loss) on option contract on May 31, gain or (loss) on firm commitment (hedged item) on June 15, and gain or loss on option contract on June 15, respectively?

QUESTION 6

2-38 Labor cost, overtime, and idle time. Jim Anderson works in the production department of Midwest Steelworks as a machine operator Jim, a long-time employee of Midwest, is paid on an hourly basis at a rate of $20 per hour. Jim works five-hour shifts per week Monday-Friday (40 hours). Any time Jim works over and above these 40 hours is considered overtime for which he is paid at a rate of time and a half 1830 per hour). If the overtime falls on weekends, Jim is paid at a rate of double time ($40 per hour), Jim is also paid an additional $20 per hour for any holidays worked, even if it is part of his regular 40 hours Jim is paid his regular wages even if the machines are down (not operating due to regular machine maintenance, slow order periods, or unexpected mechanical problems. These hours are considered “idle time.” During December Jim worked the following hours: Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Hours worked including machine downtime 44 3.5 43 6.4 48 5.8 46 2 60 CHAPTER 2 AN INTRODUCTION TO COST TERMS AND PURPOSES Included in the total hours worked are two company holidays Christmas Eve and Christmas Day during Week 4. All overtime worked by Jim was Monday-Friday, except for the hours worked in Week 3. All of the Week 3 overtime hours were worked on a Saturday Required 1. Calculate {n} direct manufacturing labor, (b) idle time, (c) overtime and holiday premium, and (d) total earnings for Jim in December 2 Is idle time and overtime premium a direct or indirect cost of the products that Jim worked on in December? Explain

QUESTION 7

Company XYZ is looking for a Finance/Accounting intern. The student filling this position will handle a wide range of important duties.

Responsibilities
*Assist with month-end financial reports
*Post journal entries
*Help with accounts receivable, payable, and bank statement reconciliation
*Assist with audits
*Balance sheet reconciliation
*Work with the finance team on yearly forecasting efforts*Manage the monthly tracking of our physical inventory
*Support the payment processing team
*Data entry
*Credit checks

Requirements
Applicants should be Business, Finance, Economics or Accounting majors, proficient in Microsoft Office applications. Attention to detail, the ability to multi-task and excellent communication skills are all essential to this position.

Majors
Business, Finance, Economics, Accounting

QUESTION 8

Which of the following basic elements of financial statements is more associated with the balance sheet than the income statement?

A) Equity.

B) Revenue.

C) Gains.

D) Expenses.

Online course help for Devry university

In this age of digital technology, online reviews have become an important force for attracting customers. Online reviews simply refer to evaluations that have been made by the customers and posted on diverse platforms about a product or service. And these reviews are very important, especially for tutors who offer online class help. Statistics show that around 92% of customers review or read online reviews before contacting a business. Also, 71% of customers will rely on the positive reviews of a business before taking any action. Further statistics indicate that 86% of buyers or potential buyers hesitate to purchase a product or a service that has negative reviews. Personally, before purchasing anything online including ordering a meal, I ensure that I check the customer reviews. In this case, my purchasing behavior is significantly determined by the reviews provided by previous customers. So for online class helpers reviews are very critical for building a positive reputation, credibility, and trust. They make it easier for potential customers to decide on whether to purchase the service or not. This is because they attest to the company’s reliability and quality. They also help give a snapshot of what worse or best could happen. So in this article, I will look at why people write online reviews, why these reviews are important and how to proliferate positive online reviews.

Why do people write online reviews?

To help other people or potential customers– There is an adage that goes ‘sharing is caring.’ This saying also applies in the case of online reviews. People write reviews to help other people make a decision or experience the same feeling as them. For instance, if a customer was satisfied by a service provided by an online tutor, he or she may want others to benefit from similar services from the tutor. In this case, the customer would want others to enjoy the same excellent service provided.
As a way of saying thank you– Some customers like leaving testimonials about a service received or a product they purchased. This mainly happens when they are happy with the service or product. And so to them, writing a positive review is a way of expressing their gratitude. The review is a materialized thank-you note. For online tutors, this is usually the main wish. Positive online class helper’s reviews are a goldmine.
To help companies improve their services and products– Some companies do ask their customers to provide a review after purchase of their product or service. Regardless of the nature of these reviews, they help a business improve on its provisions. For example, negative reviews might be a wake-up call for companies to improve on their products or services. For instance, if a company specializes in providing fast foods, obviously not every customer will be pleased with the food delivered or prepared. Some may provide a negative rating about the food. So, the business owner should consider these negative reviews to improve the food quality. Also, a business without negative reviews is very suspicious. No product or service is flawless.
To be heard- Some people also write opinions for them to be heard. These are often people who are seeking public attention or who are celebrities. Celebrities in particular command a lot of public attention. Others provide their opinions so that they can only be respected by the masses. These are people who are eager and willing to share their thoughts and experiences about the company. All they want is people who can embrace their comments and engage with them positively so that they can feel heard and appreciated. So some of the online class helpers reviews are opinions from people seeking public attention.

Why these online reviews are important

Reviews improve on customer engagement– Not only do reviews influence the consumer’s decisions but also allow companies to engage with them. These reviews provide companies with a platform to build their relationships with their customers. Studies have further shown that reviews are tools for companies to establish an emotional connection with their customers. And emotional connection according to statistics provides companies with 23% more revenue than companies that do not engage with their customers emotionally.
Reviews speak volumes about your brand’s trustworthiness- Moreover; studies have shown that a customer is more likely to leave a review after a bad or negative experience than a customer who has experienced a positive one. These bad reviews have a critical role to play when it comes to brand trust. This is because customers tend to trust online reviews than they trust their family and friend recommendations. So if a company has a mixture of bad and good reviews, it shows that that company is authentic. So when clients are looking at online class helpers reviews, they look at how bad and good reviews are fair. Too many good reviews depict that the service provider is flawless which might not be the case.
Reviews stimulate more reviews– when a company starts receiving reviews; it encourages other potential clients and visitors to provide their reviews too. The reviews have a domino effect when it comes to providing feedback. When a new client comes and sees the reviews provided by others, he or she will be motivated and gain the confidence to submit their review. So in the process, the business will have a lot of reviews to look into and evaluate. If used positively, these reviews can be used to attract more customers.

How to proliferate positive online reviews

Give customers incentives to provide reviews– As a business owner; you can decide to give your customers something small to prompt them to provide reviews about your business. For instance, you can give them vouchers, discounts, and coupons for submitting a review. It is important to note that you are not asking them to provide positive reviews. Communicate to them that you will reward them for providing feedback that is connected to their shopping experience. Also, communicate to them the significance of the gathered feedback.
Engage with customers more– You can also improve your engagement practices with your customers. Do not only thank them for shopping at your business or leveraging your services but also acknowledge their constructive feedback. Ask them for additional information using various social media platforms and tools. For example when a client provides negative feedback in an online class helpers reviews section, inquire from them what went wrong, what they think could be done next time, what they would like to see more and what actions you can take to restore their brand trust. By engaging directly with the client, a business owner or service provider can easily build brand loyalty.

Parting shot

Regardless of the business, you do or the service you provide, the reality is that online reviews directly impact your brand reputation and profits. To safeguard this brand reputation, business owners need to control what their clients see online about them or their products and services. If you require assistance in boosting positive online reviews as an online tutor please contact HomeworkNest.Com. Also if you are not sure how your reviews are impacting your business, you can contact them for help. They will do everything ethical to help you increase your positive online reviews.

Get Expert Solutions to Accounting Questions at Homeworknest.com in 2hours!

Accounting Questions – Get Expert Solutions at Homeworknest.com in 5 hours!

Quiz 1.

Analyzing the Airline Industry C 3. Divide into groups. Assume your group is analyzing the fate of the larger airlines, such as United and American. You have the following information: a. Between 1999 and now, the long-term debt, including lease obligations, of the largest airlines more than doubled. b. The price of fuel has increased by one-third. c. Passenger loads are only now getting back to pre-9/11 levels. d. Severe price competition from discount airlines exists. Identify the ratios that you consider most important to consider in assessing the future of the large airlines and discuss the effect of each of the above factors on the ratios. Be prepared to present all or part of your findings in class.

Quiz 2.

Using Investors’ Services C 2. Go to the website for Moody’s Investors Service. Click on “ratings,” which will show revisions of debt ratings issued by Moody’s in the past few days. Choose a rating that has been upgraded or downgraded and read the short press announcement related to it. What reasons does Moody’s give for the change in rating? What is Moody’s assessment of the future of the company or institution? What financial performance measures are mentioned in the article? Summarize your findings and be prepared to share them in class.

Quiz 3.

ffect of a One-Time Item on a Loan Decision C 5. Apple a Day, Inc., and Unforgettable Edibles, Inc. are food catering businesses that operate in the same metropolitan area. Their customers include Fortune 500 companies, regional firms, and individuals. The two firms reported similar profit margins for the current year, and both base bonuses for managers on the achievement of a target profit margin and return on equity. Each firm has submitted a loan request to you, a loan officer for City National Bank. They have provided you with the following information:

Quiz 4.

Comparison of International Companies’ Operating Cycles C 4. Ratio analysis enables one to compare the performance of companies whose financial statements are presented in different currencies. Selected data from 2006 for two large pharmaceutical companies—one American, Pfizer, Inc., and one Swiss, Roche—are presented next (in millions).15

For each company, calculate the receivable turnover, days’ sales uncollected, inventory turnover, days’ inventory on hand, payables turnover, and days’ payable. Then determine the operating cycle and days of financing required for each company. (Accounts receivable in 2005 were $9,103 for Pfizer and SF7,698 for Roche. Inventories in 2005 were $5,478 for Pfizer and SF5,041 for Roche. Accounts payable in 2005 were $2,073 for Pfizer and SF2,373 for Roche.) Prepare a memo containing your analysis of the operating cycles of these companies.

Quiz 5.

Do you think it is acceptable to change the bonus targets for executives during the year if the year turns out to be not as successful as planned? What if an unexpected, world-shaking event occurs and has a negative effect on business, such as 9/11 had on the airline industry? What are three standards of comparison? Which of these might justify changing the bonus targets during the year?

Quiz 6.

Executive Compensation C 1. Executive compensation is often based on meeting certain targets for revenue growth, earnings, earnings per share, return on assets, or other performance measures. But what if performance is not living up to expectations? Some companies are simply changing the targets. For instance, Sun Microsystems’ proxy as quoted in the Wall Street Journal states that “due to economic challenges experienced during the last fiscal year, our earnings per share and revenues are significantly below plan. As such, the Bonus Plan was amended to reduce the target bonus to 50% of the original plan and base the target bonus solely on the third and fourth quarters.”14 Sun Microsystems was not alone. Other companies, such as AT&T Wireless, Estee Lauder, and UST, also lowered targets for executive bonuses.

Quiz 7.

Comprehensive Ratio Analysis of Two Companies P 10. Caitlin Cleary is considering an investment in the common stock of a chain of souvenir stores. She has narrowed her choice to two companies, Dover Corporation and Calais Corporation, whose income statements and balance sheets are presented here. During the year, Dover Corporation paid a total of $50,000 in dividends. The market price per share of its stock is currently $60. In comparison, Calais Corporation paid a total of $114,000 in dividends, and the current market price of its stock is $76 per share. Dover Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $271,500 and net capital expenditures of $625,000. Calais Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $492,500 and net capital expenditures of $1,050,000. Information for prior years is not readily available. Assume that all notes payable are current liabilities and all bonds payable are long-term liabilities and that there is no change in inventory.

Quiz 8.

Compare the two companies by inserting the ratio calculations from 1 through 5 in a table with the following column headings: Ratio, Name, Dover, Calais, and Company with More Favorable Ratio. Indicate in the last column which company had the more favorable ratio in each case.

Quiz 9.

James Smith, 45 years old, is new to your practice. This is your first

meeting with him, and you would like to ask him some questions

regarding his medication/health history. During the course of your

conversation you learn that he has a history of coronary heart

disease and is currently taking a baby aspirin each day. He takes

acetaminophen for general aches and pains. He also likes to have a

glass of wine with dinner each night and does not mind a few beers

when he is watching football. During the course of his examination

you and the dentist find two cavities, which are filled that day. Mr.

Smith is experiencing some mild pain after the procedure.

What is the rationale for using acetaminophen instead of an

NSAID to treat Mr. Smith’s pain?

What dose and duration of therapy should be recommended

for Mr. Smith?

At what doses does hepatotoxicity occur with

acetaminophen?

How can Mr. Smith avoid acetaminophen toxicity?
Compare and contrast acetaminophen to aspirin in terms of

pharmacology, adverse effects, and therapeutic effects.

224

What is the role of aspirin in the prevention of heart attack

or stroke?

Are any dental concerns associated with low-dose aspirin

therapy?

Can Mr. Smith take a drug like ibuprofen?
What should be said to Mr. Smith during a counseling

session regarding acetaminophen?

Quiz 10.

Kellogg Company has its headquarters in Battle Creek, Michigan. The company manufactures and sells ready-to-eat breakfast cereals and convenience foods including cookies, toaster pastries, and cereal bars.

Selected data from Kellogg Company’s recent annual report follows (dollar amounts in millions).

		Current Year		Prior Year	2 Years Ago
Sales		$14,580		$14,792	$14,197
Gross profit %	34.73	41.26	38.28
Operating profit	1,024	2,837	1,562
Net cash flow less capital expenditures	1,211	1,170	1,225
Net earnings	633	1,808	961

In its annual reports, Kellogg Company has indicated that it plans to achieve sustainability of its operating results with operating principles that emphasize profit-rich, sustainable sales growth, as well as cash flow and return on invested capital. Kellogg believes its steady earnings growth, strong cash flow, and continued investment during a multi-year period demonstrates the strength and flexibility of its business model.

Instructions

Compute the percentage change in sales, operating profit, net cash flow less capital expenditures, and net earnings from year to year for the years presented.
Evaluate Kellogg’s performance. Which trend seems most favorable? Which trend seems least favorable? What are the implications of these trends for Kellogg’s sustainable performance objectives? Explain.

Quiz 11.

Presented below is income statement information of the Schefter Corporation for the year ended December 31, 2021.

Sales revenue $492,000 Cost of goods sold 284,000
Salaries expense 80,000 Insurance expense 12,000
Interest revenue 6,000 Interest expense 4,000
Advertising expense 10,000 Income tax expense 30,000
Gain on sale of investments 8,000 Depreciation expense 20,000

Prepare the necessary closing entries at December 31, 2021.

Quiz 12.

Choose the correct.Rouge Company’s $250,000 net income for the quarter ended September 30 included the following after-tax items:
∙ A $20,000 cumulative effect loss resulting from a change in inventory valuation method made
on September 1.
∙ $0 of the $60,000 annual property taxes paid on February 1.
For the quarter ended September 30, the amount of net income that Rouge should report is
a. $235,000
b. $250,000
c. $255,000
d. $270,000

Quiz 13.

Analyzing profitability

Sampler Company sells two products, Sigma and Zeta, with a sales mix of 70% and 30%, respectively, Sigma has a contribution margin per unit of $26, and Zeta has a contribution margin per unit of $21. The company sold 700 total units in September. Calculate the total amount each product contributed to the coverage of fixed costs and the total contribution margin for the company.

Quiz 14.

The following are a series of unrelated situations.

Halen Company’s unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2020, included the following accounts.

		Debit	Credit
Accounts receivable		$53,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts	4,000
Net sales		$1,200,000

Halen Company estimates its bad debt expense to be 7% of gross accounts receivable. Determine its bad debt expense for 2020.

An analysis and aging of Stuart Corp. accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, disclosed the following.

Amounts estimated to be uncollectible		$ 180,000
Accounts receivable	1,750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts (per books)	125,000

What is the net amount expected to be collected of Stuart’s receivables at December 31, 2020?

Shore Co. provides for doubtful accounts based on 4% of gross accounts receivable, The following data are available for 2020.

Credit sales during 2020		$4,400,000
Bad debt expense	57,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts 1/1/20	17,000
Collection of accounts written off in prior years (customer credit was reestablished)	8,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible during 2020	30,000

What is the balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts at December 31, 2020?

At the end of its first year of operations, December 31, 2020, Darden Inc. reported the following information.

Accounts receivable, net of allowance for doubtful accounts		$950,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible during 2020	24,000
Bad debt expense for 2020	84,000

What should be the balance in accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, before subtracting the allowance for doubtful accounts?

The following accounts were taken from Bullock Inc.’s trial balance at December 31, 2020.

		Debit	Credit
Net credit sales			$750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts	$ 14,000
Accounts receivable	310,000

If doubtful accounts are 3% of accounts receivable, determine the bad debt expense to be reported for 2020.

Instructions

Answer the questions relating to each of the five independent situations as requested.

Quiz 15.

Journalizing the alternative treatment of deferred revenues

On September 1, 2018, Salem Landscaping collected $24,000 in advance from customers for landscaping services. The service revenue will be earned monthly over the 12-month period ending August 31, 2019.

Requirements

Journalize the entry on September 1 by using the alternative treatment of deferred revenues.

Record the December 31, 2018 adjusting entry.

Quiz 16.

Included in Outkast Company’s December 31, 2020, trial balance are the following accounts: Prepaid Rent $5,200, Debt Investments (to be held to maturity until 2023) $56,000, Unearned Fees $17,000, Land (held for investment) $39,000, and Notes Receivable (long-term) $42,000. Prepare the long-term investments section of the balance sheet.

Quiz 17.

Product Cost Method of Product Pricing

La Femme Accessories Inc. produces women's handbags. The cost of producing 1,100 handbags is as follows:

Direct materials	$14,600
Direct labor	7,400
Factory overhead	6,400
Total manufacturing cost	$28,400

The selling and administrative expenses are $28,700. The management desires a profit equal to 14% of invested assets of $498,000.

If required, round your answers to nearest whole number.\

Determine the selling price of handbags. Round your answers to nearest whole value.

Cost	$per unit
Markup	$per unit
Selling price	$per unit

Quiz 18.

On August 3, Sonar Sales decides to establish a $275 petty cash fund to relieve the burden on Accounting.

(a)	Journalize the establishment of this fund.*
(b)	On August 11, the petty cash fund has receipts for mail and postage of $124.75, contributions and donations of $53.25, meals and entertainment of $63.85, and $32.75 in the ending cash balance. Journalize the replenishment of the fund.*
(c)	On August 12, Sonar Sales decides to increase petty cash to $400. Journalize this transaction.*
	*Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles.

Quiz 19.

The trend of PepsiCo’s stock price and price/earnings (P/E) ratio for the seven years shown.
PepsiCo’s prospects, including developments likely to affect the company’s future.
Trend Analysis E 7. Using 2006 as the base year, prepare a trend analysis of the following data, and tell whether the situation shown by the trends is favorable or unfavorable. (Round your answers to one decimal place.)

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Quiz 20.

On June 1, Guitar Magazine collected cash of $51,000 on future annual subscriptions starting on July 1.

Requirements

Journalize the transaction to record the collection of cash on June 1.
Journalize the transaction required at December 31, the magazine’s year-end, assuming no revenue earned has been recorded. (Round adjustment to the nearest whole dollar.)

Philosophy Psychology Homework Help US Canada and Australia

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CHSUG 1001 Introduction to Community & Human ServicesAssessment Two: Essay

Weighting: 40% of your overall grade for this course

Due date: Sunday 14^th June at 11:55pm

Word count: 2000 words (+/- 10%)

Submit: Submit your assignment in Word or PDF format through the Turnitin link on Moodle

Write an essay on the following topic:

Analyse the impact of neoliberalism on the community and human services in Australia. Focus your response on one field of practice.

You are required to write an academic essay on the topic listed above. Your essay should follow an essay structure and should flow in a clear and logical manner. You should write the essay in your own words and ensure that you acknowledge any direct quotations appropriately.

You need to support your response with appropriate evidence from academic sources (minimum of 8) and ensure that you reference these sources appropriately in APA format.

You should ensure that you meet the word length limit and proofread your work carefully. You should also ensure that you follow the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance to format and present your essay.

You will receive feedback from your LREP to assist you in completing your essay.

Note: Fields of practice could include mental health, child protection, disability services, refugee settlement services, aged care, etc. You are free to choose any field of practice within the community and human services. Check your course materials and reading from week 2 to assist you in choosing a field of practice.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough psychology and philosophy college assignments?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – https://www.homeworknest.com/. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

You will be marked following the marking guide below.

MARKING GUIDE – ESSAY

Criteria

Marks

Addressing the essay topic, 8 marks

This relates to your ability to address all aspects of the essay topic, the level of detail of your essay, and the clarity of your contention.

Addresses all parts of the essay topic clearly and comprehensively

6.5 – 8

Addresses all parts of the essay topic clearly and with a good level of detail

5.5 – 6

Addresses all parts of the essay topic but could have improved clarity and detail

4.5 – 5

Addresses most parts of the essay question but needs a clearer contention and/or greater detail

4.0

Does not satisfactorily address the essay question

0 – 3.5

Understanding of topic, 8 marks

This relates to how well you show your understanding of the course materials related to the essay topic and apply this to your chosen field of practice

Shows comprehensive knowledge of the topic and exemplary ability to apply this to the chosen field

6.5 – 8

Shows strong knowledge of the topic and very good ability to apply this to the chosen field

5.5 – 6

Shows good knowledge of the topic and uses some examples from the chosen field

4.5 – 5

Shows some knowledge of the topic but needs to improve level of detail and/or application to a field

4.0

Does not show satisfactory knowledge of the essay topic

0 – 3.5

Depth of analysis, 8 marks

This relates to the depth of your analysis, including your ability to consider multiple perspectives and make connections

Deeply analyses the topic by integrating multiple perspectives and forming connections between ideas

6.5 – 8

Shows a good level of depth in analysis by considering multiple perspectives

5.5 – 6

Shows a satisfactory level of depth in analysis – could include a broader range of perspectives

4.5 – 5

Describes/explains the topic without adequate analysis – needs to consider multiple perspectives

4.0

Does not show satisfactory depth

0 – 3.5

Strength of justification, 8 marks

This relates to your ability to justify your analysis, including your use of appropriate supporting evidence

Shows comprehensive justification and extensive use of high-quality academic evidence

6.5 – 8

Shows very good justification and uses high-quality academic supporting evidence

5.5 – 6

Shows good justification and makes use of academic evidence – but could improve quality/quantity

4.5 – 5

Shows satisfactory justification and limited use of academic evidence (6-8 sources)

4.0

Does not show satisfactory justification and does not use sufficient academic evidence (<6 sources)

0 – 3.5

Essay structure, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to structure your essay appropriately (including introduction, conclusion, clear flow of paragraphs & use of topic sentences)

Excellent essay structure and flow

1.75 – 2

Very good essay structure. Minor improvements needed to improve flow

1.5

Good essay structure including an intro, conclusion and paragraphs. Work on flow & topic sentences

1.25

Satisfactory essay structure. Introduction, conclusion and/or paragraphs need greater clarity and flow

1.0

Structure of essay was not satisfactory. Introduction, conclusion and/or clear paragraphs not included

0 – 0.75

Written expression, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to write in your own words (paraphrase) in academic language with excellent spelling and grammar.

Excellent academic written expression in students own words

1.75 – 2

Very good written expression in students own words. Minor spelling/grammatical errors

1.5

Good written expression. Mostly written in students own words. Some spelling/grammatical errors

1.25

Satisfactory written expression. Academic language, paraphrasing and spelling/grammar need work

1.0

Written expression is not satisfactory

0 – 0.75

Referencing, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to correctly use APA format for your in-text citations and reference list

Reference list and in-text citations are all correct for all sources

1.75 – 2

Reference list and in-text citations are all correct for most sources

1.5

Reference list and in-text citations are mostly correct for most sources

1.25

Reference list and in-text citations are included for all sources but contain many errors

1.0

Reference list and in-text citations are not included or are not correct

0 – 0.75

Presentation, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to correctly present your assignment through use of appropriate font, lay-out, spacing, and cover sheet – as outlined in the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance.

Excellent presentation of essay

1.75 – 2

Very good presentation of essay. Minor errors in use of font, spacing or lay-out

1.5

Good presentation. Make adjustments to font, spacing, and/or lay-out as per Fed Uni guide

1.25

Satisfactory presentation. Use appropriate and consistent font, spacing, and lay-out as per Fed Uni guide

1.0

Presentation of essay is not satisfactory. Presentation makes essay difficult to read and comprehend.

0 – 0.75

TOTAL MARKS

/40

What do you think of the dominance of the Roman Church in the Middle Ages? Any positive and/or negative impacts?
Some argued that in a modern society where science has been made popular and the vast of public are well educated, it is meaningless even ridiculous to hold any religious belief. What do you think about such view?
The Catholic criticised the Protestants that their protestation1,ruined a once uniform kingdom by creating thousands of scattered kingdoms,2,ruined a wholehearted belief of God among nations by tearing it into pieces ofdifferent versions of belief,3,ruined the single dominance of Popeship by establishing thousands of tyranniesby local monarchies, and4,was more intolerant to their own fellow protestants than what the Roman Popedid in the past centuries.What do you think of such criticism of Protestants?
Which aspect(s) of the Enlightenment movement impress you most? Why?

5.What do you think of the slogan of ‘universal human happiness as the highest goal’? What are its positive and negative impacts?

6.Do you think the core values upheld by the Enlightenment movement in conflict with the Christian belief?

It’s an exam with just 5 questions.1.How did the event at the Lotus Eaters’ Island relate to the average Greek’s life? (What was the meaning for the listener?)2. What does the episode of Calypso reveal about the life of Greek men during this time3.How did Penelope keep the suitors at bay for so long? 4. What was Penelope’s final trick to see if Odysseus was really her husband? Based on two articles from 2003 or later, select two contemporary change leadership models. Compare them. Explain why they would be appropriate for today and chaotic, fast-paced global environment. In 200- 250 words with 3 references.

Leadership What are three leadership styles? Compare and contrast the three. When would it be advisable to display democracy when working in small groups? When would it be necessary to be an autocratic leader? Name a situation and explain what can happen if someone in authority cannot be flexible should a need arise?

write the answer in an essay with 2 PAGES

MLA style

NO plargisim

5) How are your two philosophers coming along? Take time to finalize your search for the two and write your faculty member a paragraph in which you announce their names and the one area of political thought for comparison. In a sentence or two, explain what draws you to this focus.

********DO NOT TALK ABOUT Aristotle/Socriates********

**********DO NOT WRITE ABOUT Augustine.Arias*******

APA format, with intext citation

6) Please answer the following Critical Review Questions from Chapter Nine.

Chapter Nine –

A strong emotional attachment and loyalty to a charismatic leader can have both beneficial and detrimental effects on followers. Explain both types of effective followers.
Explain the importance of effective communications skills for charismatic and transformational leaders.
Servant leadership emphasizes being able to serve and lead. In your opinion, is this contradictory or doable. Explain!
Do you believe everyone has the same capability to become a servant leader, or are some people by their nature more inclined to be a servant leaders? Explain!
Describe a charismatic or transformational leader you have known.

Your submission should be a minimum of two full pages of analysis.

Please use this reference;

Lussier, R. & Achua, C. (2015). Leadership: Theory, Application, & Skill development. New York, NY: Cengage Learning.

7) In what ways do you think this treatment approach will affect terminations? Describe at least two other factors that influence a client's termination experience, and also two factors that influence a counselor's experience of a client's termination. Post should be at least 300 words.

8) Resource: Review “The Principle of Selection,” Ch. 7 of Oxford History of Art: Twentieth-Century American Art, and the Week Four Electronic Reserve Readings

Write a 200- to 350-word summary responding to the following:

What did both Warhol and Rauschenberg have in common in regards to their art work?
How were their subjects a reflection of the era in which they were created?
What list of found objects and imagery would you use if you were creating an art work about your daily experience?

9) 1. Briefly describe an organization you know well and discuss how the six types of knowledge provided below are expressed in that organization, Select two and discuss how you have experienced them in your own life. Embrained Embodied Encultured Embedded Encoded Commodified 2. Compare and contrast tacit, explicit, and codified knowledge. Share a situation in which you used each type or believe each was used on you. Describe the experience and how you think understanding was realized by you (how you learned what you learned). 3. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using formal IPR to commercialize an innovation. Determine any barriers a start-up entrepreneur is likely to experience.

10) Please write one page about the following with two comments which I will use to respond to other students: What might be holding you back from taking a giant step into leadership or management at a higher level in which you currently are serving? Are you afraid of stress or stressful situations? How do you deal with the day-to-day stressors of the corporate environment? Do you have empathy on your followers when deadlines are demanding and timelines are tight? What advice do you have for those who don’t have a good grip on the daily grind of work?

11) you must complete an essay (no more than 500 words) on the following: Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.

12) you must complete an essay (no more than 500 words) on the following: Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.

13) Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.(no more than 500 words)

14) The quality of an individual’s leadership is measured, in part, by his or her influence on followers. For this class discussion, you will use your personal experience and the information you read to discuss how leadership influences subordinate behavior and performance.

Please respond to all of the following prompts in the class discussion section of your online course:

Apply a leadership theory to a manager or supervisor you have, or had in the past, to explain his/her performance as a leader.Using Fiedler's leadership theory as a basis for your answer, explain whether most successful managers are relationship-oriented or task-oriented.As more companies become increasingly reliant on virtual teams and teleworkers, how must an individual’s leadership style change to accommodate those types of workers?

15) I want to answer theses 11 questions from this lecture that is uploaded in this website:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bRS152iNglE

Please, do not try to answer them from another sources. You will find all of the answers when listen to the licture that is about 36 minutes

Here are the questions:

Why did the Jews need their own country?

What role did American President Harry S. Truman play?

How did Zionists groups respond to the growing crisis for the Jews?

How did the British react to Zionist activities and President Truman’s pressures?

What was the United Nations?

How did the United Nations get involved in the crisis over Palestine?

What happened when the Jews in Palestine declared the creation of a State of Israel on 14 May 1948?

What patterns emerged after the Israeli War of Independence?

What is the legacy of older forms of antisemitism today?

What new forms of antisemitism exist today?

How does the legacy of the Hebrew religion and antisemitism remain integral to how we understand ourselves in the US, Europe and the Middle East?

16) Create and video a role-play activity that demonstrates two of the following leadership styles: 1. Trait; 2. Style; 3. Situational; 4. Transformational. The following scenario may provide you with some ideas for a role-play activity: A reading in the approved, state adopted 3rd grade language arts book is a poem which is a rhyming witches’ spell. A group of parents decide to picket the school. How will leaders (principal and superintendent) with different styles manage this situation?

17) 1. What”are”your”objectives”for”the”internship?””How”will”the”internship”meet”your”objectives?”

What”are”your”career”aims”and”objectives,”both”immediate”and”long”range?””How”will”this”

internship”support”these”objectives?” ”

18) Write an essay describing the four nonroutine cognitive skills as set out by Robert Reich. For each skill, describe a business situation in which the ability to perform that skill is essential. Be sure to explain how each skill is applied and why it is important in the situation.

19)

Share one or two specific examples of how you will use the concepts or strategies presented in this class to contribute to your academic and career success
Which activities or assignments did you find most valuable in helping you recognize or develop skills you will use in the future?
What are the skills you would like to learn more about or continue to develop

20) Read the case and then answer the following questions.

Surface tension
The tech giant’s decision to make its own tablet computer is a bold gamble

“WITHIN five years, I predict it will be the most popular form of PC sold in America.” When Bill Gates spoke at a trade show in 2002, the then chairman of Microsoft left nobody in doubt that what his firm called the “tablet PC” would one day take the world of personal computing by storm. His sense that an upheaval was coming was spot on, but his timing wasn’t. Only when Apple launched its wildly popular iPad in 2010 did computing tablets at last take off. Now Microsoft is scrambling to gain a foothold in one of the hottest markets in the IT industry.

On June 18th 2012, Microsoft unveiled Surface, a tablet that will bear Microsoft’s name and is supposed to be a showcase for its new Windows 8 operating system, due to be rolled out in the autumn. The new device will be available in two models: a basic version with a processor designed by ARM (which also powers the iPad) and a souped-up one with an Intel chip for business

users. Both models boast some innovative features, notably a built-in stand and a cover that doubles as a keyboard.

Microsoft’s decision to make its own tablet is another sign of how much the company is being buffeted by shifts that are transforming the world of IT. Just as momentous as the rise of social networking is the rapid growth of mobile computing (see Figure 1). This has softened sales of Windows-based PCs, the foundation of Microsoft’s fortunes. And it has boosted rivals such as Apple and Google, whose respective mobile operating systems, iOS and Android, power most smartphones and tablets.

A related threat to Microsoft’s business is the “consumerisation” of IT. Growing numbers of employees are now demanding to use their own phones and tablets at work. In many cases, companies are caving in. As a result, iPads and Android-based tablets are spreading rapidly through offices and factories – the heartland of Windows-based PCs.

Critics point out that Microsoft’s track record in hardware is mixed. Although it has produced hits such as the Xbox game console, it has also had some deeply embarrassing misses, including Zune, a portable music player that has failed to rival Apple’s iPod.

Microsoft entered into video games and game consoles in 2001. The launch of Xbox 360 in 2005 has proved extraordinary and also particularly interesting. The rationale behind its market entry into the video games industry comes with a good reason. It was designed primarily to keep their potential competitor, Sony, in check. Although Sony operated in a different industry, Microsoft recognized that Sony could emerge as its rival.

Microsoft’s Zune was launched in November 2006 and Microsoft believed that it could compete with the Apple iPod, which had been in the market since 2001 and dominated the multimedia player and music download business around the world. The Wall Street Journal reported that revenue from the Zune player was $85 million during the 2008 holiday season compared to $185 million in the same period in 2007. Apple’s iPod revenue during the last quarter of 2008 was $3.37 billion. Microsoft, which had access to as much hardware development expertise as any company in the world and the capital to support a massive marketing budget for new products, failed completely in its attempt to get a large part of the iPod market.

For the Surface, analysts worried that consumers may be confused by the two versions of the tablet, which will have very different price points. Microsoft has just indicated that the expensive model is likely to cost the same as thin laptops, which sells for around $1,000, whereas the cheaper version will be priced to compete with comparative ARM-based tablets, probably at around $500. Comparatively, the cheapest iPad with a high- resolution screen costs $499.

Another concern is that by making its own device, Microsoft risks alienating other firms that are working on Windows 8 tablets, such as Dell and HP. But the company’s main aim may be to show how its new operating system can best be used, thus setting a standard that other device makers will strive to exceed – and perhaps produce a Windows 8 iPad-killer.

If that is indeed the aim, Microsoft appears to have missed a key lesson from Apple. One reason why the iPad has been so successful is that it blends beautiful hardware with an amazing range of software. Microsoft has attractive assets, in particular Skype (an internet calling service), its alliance with Barnes & Noble (a big online bookseller) and its Xbox ecosystem. Yet other than the firm’s Office suite of productivity tools, none of these was shown at this week’s launch. “Microsoft has missed an opportunity to highlight things that can inspire people,” said Sarah Rotman Epps of Forrester, a research firm. Perhaps when its tablet hits the market later this year, the company will have found ways to bring more of these to the surface.

Microsoft has reaffirmed the strategy of having its own hardware devices recently. In September 2013, Microsoft agreed to acquire the handset business of Nokia for about US$ 7.2 billion. Thus, Microsoft will not only be making tablets but mobile phones as well. In a letter to all Microsoft employees, CEO Steve Ballmer, reiterated that “The form and delivery of our value will shift to devices and services versus packaged software.” In November, Microsoft launched the second generation of the tablets and an updated version of Windows. The device strategy is here to stay.

Unlike earlier ventures into devices, like the Zune music player and the game console Xbox, the motivation for getting into the hardware side of business in relation to mobile phones and tablets seems to be the strengthening of the Windows platform but the opening up of a new source of revenue is still in doubt.

Question A :

Explain the differences between diversification and vertical integration strategies in relation to the scope of business.

Question B :

Would you classify the following strategic moves of Microsoft as diversification or vertical integration strategy? Why?
A) Launching of the portable music player Zune
B) Launching of the Xbox game console
C) Launching of the Surface tablet.

Question C :

What are the major potential benefits and risks of Microsoft’s strategic shift from selling ‘packaged software’ (i.e. Windows operating system) to launching ‘devices and services’ (i.e. tablets and mobile phones)?

21) Why look at art?

How would you explain the importance of looking at art? What skills does it develop? When you have come in contact with various types of art?

22)

Evaluate the three parts of the message receiving process.
Compare two common approaches to getting feedback, and explain why they do not work.
In your opinion, can a leader maintain a personal friendship with some members of his/her work group or team without creating the perception of in-groups in his/her work unit? In your opinion, explain the impact of such a relationship to one of the stages of the dyadic theory.
What should a leader do to dispel any notion or misconception that there are in-groups and out-groups in his/her work unit? Explain. Evaluate the two types of relationships under the vertical dyadic linkage model.
What do you say to those who argue that tactics used by followers to get noticed by their leader (such as impression management, ingratiation, and self-promotion) are shameful and self-serving and should be avoided? Explain and offer your opinion of the link to developing high-quality LMX relationships.

Critical analysis of leadership theory and style maintains

**Select one or more:*
a. leadership should come from the ranks
b. leadership is most effective when there are contingent rewards and corrective coaching
c. leadership should be defined by the structure of the organization
d. leadership skills make a manager the most powerful entity

Positive psychologists refer to positivity and success as a measure of

**Select one or more:
a. identifying and fixing problems
b. languishing and exceeding potentials
c. counterproductive behaviors and preventing them in the workplace
d. higher managerial performance, both in terms of decision making and interpersonal tasks

Organizational change involves

**Select one or more:
a. behavior modification across the organization and leadership that scans for environmental resistance
b. learning capabilities across management teams and a survey of all stakeholders for support
c. behaviors that should be altered and aligned with current procedures
d. actions that are amended to provide shifts in the direction an organization to takes to implement improvement.

24) Explain the meaning of dualism and dual societies. Do you think that the concept of dualism adequately portrays the development picture in most developing countries? Explain your answer.

25) Australian Indigenous Contemporary Perspectives

Assessment Description/Focus: Community Case Study Report
Value:50 %
Length:1,500 words (the word limit does not include the report’s Contents Page)
Reference Style:CDU Harvard Reference Style. Provide at least 12-13 references in the reference list. For detailed information please visit

https://www.cdu.edu.au/sites/default/files/Harvard-Referencing_ALLSP1.pdf

http://libguides.cdu.edu.au/cdureferencing/harvard

Task:Community case study Report

You may choose one of the networks/institutions/organisations that you identified as sites for information in relation to Indigenous knowledges/perspectives provided below and explore its activities in relation to the protection, maintenance and promotion of Indigenous knowledges and perspectives.

Networks/Organisations/Institutions:

Local – Larrakia Nation Aboriginal Corporation (LNAC); Northern Land Council (NLC); Central Land

Council (CLC); Garma Festival of Traditional Cultures; Kimberley Land Council (KLC); Torres Strait

Regional Authority (TSRA)

National – National Congress of Australia’s First Nations Peoples; Lowitja Institute; National

Indigenous Research and Knowledges Networks (NIRAKN); Assembly of First Nations; Australian

Institute of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Studies (AIATSIS); Poche Indigenous Health Network

International – Indigenous Peoples’ Council on Biocolonialism (IPCB); Indigenous Work Group for

Indigenous Affairs (IWGIA); International Alliance of Indigenous and Tribal Peoples of the Tropic

Forests; Centre for World Indigenous Studies (CWIS); World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO)

This assessment will include:

an explanation of what the study is about.
a brief background of the network/institution/organisation in relation to the nature of how its active social engagement in policy and advocacy reflects broader Indigenous contemporary perspectives.
a highlight of ethics and protocols in accessing and utilising Indigenous knowledges – For example researching and working in Indigenous contexts.
how issues of Indigenous human, cultural and intellectual property rights are addressed – refer to and outline relevant guidelines, protocols and laws that protect human, cultural, and intellectual property and copyrights when working in Indigenous contexts.

Preparation:

For ideas to assist with this assessment, you may read a case study on an Indigenous organisation, Kimberley Land Council’s intellectual property and traditional policy by Forster & Janke (2015). Refer to the link below

https://learn-ap-southeast-2-prod-fleet01-xythos.s3.ap-southeast-2.amazonaws.com/5b2b431b0cadd/5551382?response-cache-control=private%2C%20max-age%3D21600&response-content-disposition=inline%3B%20filename%2A%3DUTF-8%27%27Forster%2520and%2520Janke%25202015%2520ILB2015V008N18_017.pdf&response-content-type=application%2Fpdf&X-Amz-Algorithm=AWS4-HMAC-SHA256&X-Amz-Date=20200520T090000Z&X-Amz-SignedHeaders=host&X-Amz-Expires=21600&X-Amz-Credential=AKIAIW5OVFIUOTV36DNA%2F20200520%2Fap-southeast-2%2Fs3%2Faws4_request&X-Amz-Signature=ce623865236c3afa9c0777897d862efc115aa5711308437907942b890312de5f

References:

Foster, P and Janke, T 2015, “Keeping cultural knowledge with Indigenous research protocols: A case study on the Kimberley land council’s intellectual property and traditional knowledge policy”, Indigenous Law Bulletin, vol. 8, no. 18, pp. 17-20.

In addition to this reading, you Must look at the following references in relation to ‘Practising ethical and cultural protocols in Indigenous contexts’ for your case study report:

Aguirre, BV & Tualima, H 2017, Protect and promote your culture; A practical guide to intellectual property for Indigenous people and local community,World Intellectual Property Organisation, https://www.wipo.int/edocs/pubdocs/en/wipo_pub_1048.pdf
Janke, T 2010, Who owns story,Australian Institute of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Studies,https://aiatsis.gov.au/sites/default/files/docs/asp/who-owns-story.pdf
Janke, T 2009, Writing up indigenous research,http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_a05f0ce9808346daa4601f975b652f0b.pdf
Janke, T 1998, Our culture: our future report on Australian Indigenous cultural and intellectual property rights,http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_2740d8cff7d24320b70f8a34015f9a53.pdf
World Intellectual Property Organisation n.d., What is intellectual property?, https://www.wipo.int/edocs/pubdocs/en/intproperty/450/wipo_pub_450.pdf

LINKS:

http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_a05f0ce9808346daa4601f975b652f0b.pdf

https://www.adcq.qld.gov.au/__data/assets/pdf_file/0003/2289/2011-Mabo-Oration-booklet-tagged.pdf

http://www.wipo.int/export/sites/www/tk/en/databases/creative_heritage/docs/terry_janke_icip.pdf

https://search.informit.com.au/fullText;dn=338099393895770;res=IELIND

Presentation:Give your study a title, and you must present it in a Formal Report format. Please read the file attached to it for detailed Requirement about this report.
Assessment Criteria

Correct presentation format – Report (5%)
Clearly and concisely construct an argument (15%)
Demonstrate critical engagement with the topic (15%)
Use of correct sentence structure, spelling, and grammar (10%)
Correct use of CDU Harvard Referencing Style – in-text and reference list (5%)

26) Q9: Provide an understanding of the complexities of case
management in the following areas:
a. Family structure
b. Dynamics
c. Communication
d. Decision making
MR FER
Q10: Identify at least two relevant Mental Health / AOD related information in each
of the following areas:
? Organisation and regulatory standards
? Policy and procedures
? Legislation and statutory mandates
MR FER
Q11: Please provide the requirements for making a referral process to another service
where needs have been identified.
MR FER
Q12. Explain the principles and practices for the following:
a. Planning complex service inputs
b. Working across multiple services
MR FER
Q13: How can we as Case Managers in the mental health or AOD sector,
a. Understand the impact of service duplication
b. Recognise the issues faced by clients, their families and carers accessing multiple
services?
MR FER
Q14. What are the requirements of evidence – based practices? MR FER
Q15. Describe how a Case Manager recognises at least two indicators of imminence of
self-harm or harm to other.

27) In approaching this case study, you are to take on the fictional position of one of the following: a) a defence activist, b) a prosecutorial activist, c) a police activist, d) a court activist, or e) a victim activist. Taking on this position, you are to analyse one of the following contemporary criminal justice cases from your chosen perspective: – The conviction of George Pell – The conviction of Borce Ristevski – The over-representation of people with acquired brain injury in the CJS – The over-representation of Indigenous Australians in the CJS In undertaking your case study, you are to provide an overview of your chosen case (who, what, when, where), and outline various criminal justice issues from your activist position. Provide recommendations as to how the issues you identify can be properly addressed. Use evidence and examples to support your claims.

Attachments:

28) . How many Brahma worlds (Form planes) are there? Name the Brahma world where the beings born there have no mind. Write down the name of the 2S Rupavacara Vipaka Citta. (2nd Fine material Resultant Consciousness) in English or Pali 6. Decline one of the following in all cases 1. Loka 2. Canda 3. Dhamma Or Give the Pali terms for the following:
1. Child 2. Town 3. Tree 4. Village 5. Doctrine 6. Sun 7. Moon 8. Boy 9. King 10. Farmer

Attachments:

29) You are required to write an academic essay on the topic listed above. Your essay should follow an essay structure and should flow in a clear and logical manner. You should write the essay in your own words and ensure that you acknowledge any direct quotations appropriately.
You need to support your response with appropriate evidence from academic sources (minimum of 8) and ensure that you reference these sources appropriately in APA format.
You should ensure that you meet the word length limit and proofread your work carefully. You should also ensure that you follow the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance to format and present your essay.

Attachments:

30) ASW3101 Assessment 2 – Professional Social Work Report (35% weighting of unit assessment)

Template

PART A – SOCIAL WORK ASSESSMENT PLAN, 1000 WORDS max.(70%)

Students are to write a response to Questions 1-5 below and then complete the Table.

*Please note that the first section of the table, called ‘Personal Information’ is already completed.

Briefly explain the purpose/s of completing an assessment in social work practice with reference to readings?
a) What are the primary issues of concern in this case study?b) Drawing on your understanding of human development, the effects of trauma and social work practice theory, explain why you think these are of primary concern?
Identify and explain each of the social work theories you would use to complete this assessment? (Linking your understanding of the theory with reference material and readings)
Identify the assessment and interpersonal skills you would choose to complete this assessment with the client in the case scenario, and provide at least two examples of how you would use them?
Identify one of your personal values or beliefs and discuss how this may be challenged while engaged with this scenario and propose how you would address this challenge, mindful of social work ethics

Assessment Report – Marina Heights Community Health Service

Personal Information
Name of client	Trudi Ying
Contact details	Mobile phone: 0400 123 678 Work 6231 1111 Address: 1 Banks Avenue, Green Valley, Victoria 4500.
Date of birth	1.6.1990
Source of referral	Marina Heights Home Care Service
Reason for referral	Has been diagnosed with ongoing social phobia following recovery form workplace accident
Presenting Issue	Concerns about Ms Ying’s capacity to.
Current financial situation	Ms Ying’s financial situation is now under strain.
Employment/education	Ms Ying is currently unemployed and not able to look for employment
Does the client identify as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander?	No
Background Information
Describe client’s relationships with family members or significant others

Current Situation
Physical health & wellbeing
Mental health & wellbeing
Traumatic events
Spirituality & religion
Strengths
Vulnerabilities/challenges
Client’s concerns about current situation
Client’s expressed wishes or goals
Conclusions & Summary (Assessment of situation)
Recommendations (Initial plan for intervention)

PART B – WRITING A CASENOTE

Students are to write a casenote using the template below and case study provided. It is expected that students will use the Casenote guide provided in class to complete this task. 400 words max. (30%)

Casenote – Marina Heights Community Health Service

Name of client:
Address & contact details of client
Presenting problem:
Referral source:	Self/ other: If other please name:
Reason for referral
Date of client interview:
Outline client’s key concerns
Outline other concerns, if any
What goals have been identified to address concerns?	Goal 1	Goal 2	Goal 3





What actions or strategies are proposed to achieve the identified goals?	Action/strategy	Action/strategy	Action/strategy




Agreed date and time of next appointment /contact with client
Date of casenote:	Worker name:

31) Purpose

Our course has explored of a wide variety of people and styles involved in sex, dance, entertainment and art. And there are so many other innovators/innovations we haven’t considered. Who, where or what style in these fields are are you interested in knowing more about?

For this assignment, select a person, place or style NOT covered in this course and explain/justify your choice in terms of history, sex, dance, entertainment and/or art. Make the case for your choice to possibly be included in this course in the future.

Task

Select and research your topic.
Explain how your topic connects to each of these areas: history, sex, dance, entertainment and/or art. Use at least one slide per above mentioned area. Use at least one video in your presentation. Creativity combined with visual impact will be part of the grade. Judicious use of images (photos, drawings, etc.) that clarify and/or illuminate is encouraged. The numbers of images used is not the point; be selective.
Compile your sources in a bibliography, using the citation style (Links to an external site.) of your choice, for the end of the presentation.
Create a presentation using your choice of software: PowerPoint (Links to an external site.), Prezi (Links to an external site.), Google Slides (Links to an external site.), or Keynote (Links to an external site.) or video editing software (iMovie (Links to an external site.) or Windows Movie Maker (Links to an external site.)). (Note that the links to the software lead to instructions on their use.) You are responsible for choosing and using the software without assistance from the instructor. Your submitted file must open easily on a basic, current computer connected to the Internet without any add-ons, extensions, conversions, updates, etc. The file type should be either .ppt or .pdf, or the URL of your video uploaded to YouTube.If you use the .pdf file type, know that transitions and videos will not run/display. Make sure any privacy settings allow easy and free access. If you have ANY questions about software, do not contact the instructor — contact the IT help desk at 702-895-0777 or ithelp@unlv.edu.
- Maximum: 10 slides or 1.5 minutes for videos
- The attached sample .ppt is solely for illustrative purposes. Do not use it if you make a PowerPoint!
- Check your presentation several times to ensure it functions correctly — you may want to email the file or link to yourself and open it on another computer — and does not have any watermark or any extraneous slides.

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Attachments:

33) Overview
The purpose of this assignment is to investigate a dataset that has been produced as a result of the survey you conducted on Climate Change. You now need to interrogate the dataset in order to answer questions posed by your client, the Australian Government. Ultimately, you will need to analyse the data, interpret the results, and then draw appropriate conclusions.
Scenario
The Australian Government has previously commissioned you, Ellyse Perry (Chief Analyst at Survey House), to develop a survey to help them gauge the views of the Australian public regarding “Climate Change”. Now, in order to implement possible Climate Change policy initiatives, the Government, through their representative Daisy Pearce (Manager, Public Relations in the Prime Minister’s Office), wants you to interpret the data gathered from your survey and then answer several questions.
Daisy does not have an analytics background, so it’s important that you utilise “plain, easy to understand language” in your answers. If you believe you need to include any technical terms, then you must explain these in a clear and succinct manner.

Attachments:

34) 1. Describe the concept of Aboriginal and/or Torres Strait Islander cultural safety (20-50 words). 2. Describe how cultural safety is related to cultural awareness (20-50 words) 3. Describe how cultural safety is related to cultural competence (20-50 words)

Attachments:

35) 1 Provide an outline of the cost-benefits analysis method.
2 Describe each of the following types of innovation:
? Incremental innovation
? Disruptive innovation
? Architectural innovation
? Radical innovation
3 Describe Schumpeter’s theory of innovation including the five types of innovations described in the theory.
4 List the basic elements of the concept of creativity
5 List the five organisational learning principles.
6 List three quality management and continuous improvement theories.

Attachments:

36) Imagine you are leading the introduction of a beginning teacher mentoring program at an educational institution. Your task is to lead the development of mentors, so they have the skills and knowledge to mentor beginning teacher effectively. As part of this task you are asked to DESIGN two resources:
1. An 8-10 slide PowerPoint (PPT) introducing mentoring of beginning teachers to the mentors and mentees. The PPT should include: a. A definition and the benefits of mentoring b. Key considerations for mentoring beginning teachers c. An example of an effective mentoring session (this may be an excerpt from a transcript, YouTube clip, recorded example) with a analysis of why it is effective d. Some useful professional readings for mentors and mentees e. Speaking notes on each slide which include key points that would be discussed when presenting the slide f. Reference list

37) Summarise the neurophysiological evidence for the right hemisphere differing from the left hemisphere in holistic processing, with special reference to facial recognition

Attachments:

38) Topic: Discuss and critically evaluate the role of anxiety in academic
procrastination.
Word Limit: 1500 words. There is no 10% leeway on this limit. In- text
references are included in the word count, but not the reference list.
The literature review must also have a separate title page (with author byline)
and abstract (preferably no longer than 100 words).

39) Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered using categorical analysis.

What is your research question?
What is the null hypothesis for your question?
What research design would align with this question?
What dependent variable was used and how is it measured?
What independent variable is used and how is it measured?
If you found significance, what is the strength of the effect?
Explain your results for a lay audience and further explain what the answer is to your research question.

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

41)

Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered using categorical analysis.

What is your research question?
What is the null hypothesis for your question?
What research design would align with this question?
What dependent variable was used and how is it measured?
What independent variable is used and how is it measured?
If you found significance, what is the strength of the effect?
Explain your results for a lay audience and further explain what the answer is to your research question.

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

42) 1. Create an abstract class DiscountPolicy. It should have a single abstract method computeDiscount that will return the discount for the purchase of a given number of a single item. The method has two parameters, count and itemCost. 2. Derive a class BulkDiscount from DiscountPolicy, as described in the previous exercise. It should have a constructor that has two parameters, minimum and percent. It should define the method computeDiscount so that if the quantity purchased of an item is more than minimum, the discount is percent percent. 3. Derive a class BuyNItemsGetOneFree from DiscountPolicy, as described in Exercise 1. The class should have a constructor that has a single parameter n. In addition, the class should define the method computeDiscount so that every nth item is free. For example, the following table gives the discount for the purchase of various counts of an item that costs $10, when n is 3: count 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Discount 0 0 10 10 10 20 204. Derive a class CombinedDiscount from DiscountPolicy, as described in Exercise 1. It should have a constructor that has two parameters of type DiscountPolicy. It should define the method computeDiscount to return the maximum value returned by computeDiscount for each of its two private discount policies. The two discount policies are described in Exercises 2 and 3. 5. Define DiscountPolicy as an interface instead of the abstract class described in Exercise 1.

43) Task Description

Write a research proposal for an original empirical study. The proposal is intended to build on the Research Proposal Part 1. Proposal Part 2 must:

be on a topic relevant to the program of study in which you are currently enrolled, and
involve data collected from or about human research subjects.

The proposal must contain:

introduction including brief review of literature
aim and research question
description and justification of research methods (including design, sampling, data collection, and analysis)
discussion of research ethics
timeline and budget, and
description and justification of limitations

You are permitted to make adjustments to the research question and literature review you submitted in Part 1. However, given time constraints, students are strongly discouraged from selecting an entirely new topic.

You may use this research proposal as a foundation for subsequent study (e.g. a dissertation or independent study). If you plan to do so, please consult with the relevant convenor or academic supervisor to ensure the proposal you develop is suitable for this purpose.

In preparing this assignment, students are strongly encouraged to consider:

Course content (especially Topic 7)
Marking criteria sheet
Feedback from the teaching team on their blog post and Proposal Part 1

Criteria & Marking:

Logical, specific, and answerable research question supported by literature review (15 marks)
Methods are described, justified, and answer the research question (35 marks)
Ethical issues are described and addressed (20 marks)
Resources and activities covered in budget and timeline. Limitations are described and justified. (15 marks)
Academic standards of writing and referencing (15 marks)

44) Assignment
For this assignment, you will research assessment options for the offender population that you are writing about in your Signature Assignment.

Find three peer-reviewed journal articles that address common conditions and assessment measurements used with this population. Prepare an annotation for each article.

After you have completed the annotations, prepare a 1-page summary that includes the following:

An overview of the population and the condition that is being assessed
A listing and brief description of assessment instruments or methods utilized with this population
A description of any validity reliability concerns with the instruments
Recommendations regarding the assessment practices and tools one might utilize when assessing this population

45) 1. Complex visual processing, such as visuospatial processing, happens in which part of the brain?

46) 1. Create an art work or digital timeline of Rizal’s first travels abroad 2. The timeline should cover the period starting from his departure from the Philippines on May 3, 1882 until the printing of his novel, Noli Me Tangere in 1887 3. Create an art work (e.g. drawing, sketch, etc.) or use MSWord, Powerpoint or any appropriate computer program for your work. 4. Design the timeline with the correct information and use the appropriate images and/or graphics.

47) An essential characteristic of a profession is the need for its members to abide by a code of
ethics.” ACS Code of Ethics – 2014.
ICT professions require standard ethical behaviours in working environments. Australian
Computer Society has outlined the Code of Ethics of certified ICT professions. This Code of
Professional Conduct (the Code) has six core ethical values and provides the associated
requirements for professional conduct in ICT job roles. ACS requires its members to abide by
these values, and act with responsibility and integrity in all of their professional dealings.
The learning outcomes covered by this task include:
• Describe the practices used in real-world research including legal, commercial and ethical frameworks.
• Make decisions based on social, cultural and ethical issues, and understand the values
expounded in professional practices in diverse contexts.
The Task
In this assessment, you are required to:
• Read the six core ‘ACS code of Ethics’ and its associated requirements
• Read the ‘ACS Code of Professional Conduct Case Studies’
• Search for a real life case scenario where there was a dilemma of ethical value in ICT
industry or profession.
• Provide the following information about the incident of interest:
o Description of the incident
o Must also include the references to the sources of information
o What was the ethical issue?
o What ICT profession or activity was involved?
o What ACS code of Ethics and their associated requirements can be applied to
the situation? Refer to the ACS code of Ethics document provided.

Attachments:

48) Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered by multiple regression.

Choose a categorical variable to dummy code as one of your predictor variables.

Estimate a multiple regression model that answers your research question. Post your response to the following:

What is your research question?
Interpret the coefficients for the model, specifically commenting on the dummy variable.
Run diagnostics for the regression model. Does the model meet all of the assumptions? Be sure and comment on what assumptions were not met and the possible implications. Is there any possible remedy for one the assumption violations?

Attachments:

49) Students are to select a character from a film / novel / TV show where the character has suffered
loss and grief (either they have lost someone significant to them or a significant part / aspect of
themselves).
Students are to simulate the first two sessions of this client coming to therapy. You do not need to
describe these sessions word for word, but please reflect upon what would the therapist aim to
achieve in these two sessions, and how might a client and therapist work through the first few
sessions.
In your response you need to include the following:
a) Describe the presenting issues for the client.
b) Describe how you would engage and connect to this client.
c) Explain your thoughts and ideas around contracting and case planning; what are your goals
and objectives for the client and the therapy process?
d) What theoretical ideas might inform and support your therapeutic process?
e) What interventions would you consider using (please provide rationales)?
f) What obstacles can you anticipate / might arise?
g) How would you potentially work to overcome these?
h) What strategies for self-care might you employ?
Analysis of this client’s grief and loss experience forms part of your written analysis.
In your written response you need to demonstrate your understanding of the theories studied this
term and the realistic process clients go through in this context. More important than demonstration
of skill and technique is your demonstrated ability to reflect, analyse and critique and provide your
rationale

50) Social Work Agency Assignment, student scholars will “view themselves as learners and engage those with whom they work as informants 2.1.4(4) Students will be scheduled to give an oral presentation about his/her agency. Students may use note cards, PowerPoint or other medians to support the presentations. This will essentially be a group oral presentation and will be evaluated as such. Any handouts that the student wishes to include will be distributed at the end of the presentation. The presentation should be only be (10) minutes (groups will be stopped if over the allotted time) long and must include but not be limited to the following. 1. A history of the agency and/or program 2. The purposes, functions, goals and types of services provided by the agency/program 3. A description of the clientele of the agency/program, areas of diversity/difference and strengths perspectives 4. The primary problems presented by the clients that the agency/program serves 5. How the agency/program is funded 6. Your impression and explanation of the Social Worker’s understanding of the scope of the services available to them through the specific agency/program setting 7. The interviewees’ knowledge and perception of the role of social work ethics within the agency/program

Attachments:

51) 6. Identify the main energy and raw material inputs needed to manufacture this product and the stage(s) in the production process where the majority of energy and materials inputs are consumed. (2 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts) 7. Identify the main causes of unsustainability over the product’s lifecycle (production, distribution, consumption and disposal stages). (3 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Understand concepts, Analyse and interpret information) 8. By applying the principle of the ‘waste=food model’ or the ‘waste management hierarchy’ provide one recommendation to reduce the volume of waste or pollutants discharged in the production, distribution or consumption of this product. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Creativity) 9. By applying the principle of the cradle to cradle design protocol, suggest one key improvement to the design of this product and explain how your idea will reduce the unsustainability of the product. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Creativity) 10. Identify this organisation’s key stakeholder groups and their specific expectations of the organisation. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts, Depth of research) 11. Describe one major corporate social responsibility (CSR) issue which confronts this organisation. (3 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts, Depth of research, Referencing)

Criminal Justice Theory
Why do girls break the law? How do their reasons for law-breaking differ from males? What changes are necessary in policy and practice to adequately prevent and respond to girls’ lawbreaking?
Shaw and McKay are known for their Social Disorganization Theory. It is a theory to explain differences in levels of offending across neighborhoods. Over the years, the theory has been expanded upon and further developed. Using the concepts of Social Disorganization Theory, explain how and why a particular neighborhood (Neighborhood A) may have a higher rate of juvenile delinquency than a second neighborhood (Neighborhood B).
How have biological explanations of delinquency been regarded in criminology? What is the state of the field today with regards to biology and crime?
Trace the evolution or development of anomie or strain theories from their origin to their modern variations. Be sure to name each theory and theorist(s) and discuss the similarities and differences between the theories.
All I need to know, including the behaviors that meet our society’s standard of conduct, I learned in Kindergarten. I have also come to understand that people can, later on in their life, learn to engage in criminal behavior in the same way they learn to play golf, drive a car, perform appendicitis surgery, or write a scholarly article. The acquisition, execution, and continued involvement in all types of behavior including those that are defined as a crime is learned. The learning process can be through observation, apprenticeship, and positive reinforcement. Discuss and assess the validity of the claims above. Identify and review the several theoretical versions that underpin these claims.
One of the most consistent and strongest relationships in the field of delinquency theory is that associating with delinquent peers is highly correlated with delinquency. Discuss the theoretical and empirical literature concerning delinquent peers and delinquency.

53) Select two contrasting theories used by social workers, as discussed in class. I would like to discuss • Pychodynamic theory • Cognitive-Behaviourist theory (i) Describe each theory (about 600 words total) (ii) Critically examine their cultural and epistemological assumptions (about 800 words) (iii) Discuss the implications of this for social work practice (about 600 words) In writing this assignment you may use the first person if you wish (e.g. ”I think . . .”, ”My experience of . . .) etc Marking Criteria: You will be assessed on how well you understand the theories you have selected (10 marks) How well you analyse them in terms of epistemological and cultural assumptions (20 marks) How well you can relate these to social work practice (20 marks).

54) Does Professor Gordon’s evaluation of de Tocqueville’s words coincide with your own? If there are differences in interpretation, examine those differences carefully. Examine how and why your interpretation might differ? What does this infer about your own instinctual reaction to the term “American exceptionalism”? Do you agree with your classmates’ interpretations? Hypothesize about the similarities and differences in your responses and why they are similar/different.

http://www.visionandvalues.org/2011/04/the-roots-of-tocqueville-s-american-exceptionalism/

55) Adult Development and Aging Life is characterized by transformations; every aspect of the human being changes along the whole lifespan during both development and aging. As people get older, major challenges impact on their ability to engage in everyday tasks. The assignment about

Later Life And Aging.

Please type papers. Your paper should be about 2 pages long.
Assignments should be submitted on the Moodle before the due date. Zero mark will be awarded to answers that are copied and submitted late.
Due Date: 30/04/2020.
No emailed assignmentswill be accepted.

56) choose one question below to answer. The research essay shall go beyond a mere recollection of knowledge, and shall show the reflection and critical evaluation of the chose topic. All sources from someone else’s work shall be precisely referenced in footnotes. A bibliography is required to be provided at the end of the essay.

What do you think of the dominance of the Roman Church in the Middle Ages? Any positive and/or negative impacts?
Some argued that in a modern society where science has been made popular and the vast of public are well educated, it is meaningless even ridiculous to hold any religious belief. What do you think about such view?
The Catholic criticised the Protestants that their protestation1,ruined a once uniform kingdom by creating thousands of scattered kingdoms,2,ruined a wholehearted belief of God among nations by tearing it into pieces ofdifferent versions of belief,3,ruined the single dominance of Popeship by establishing thousands of tyranniesby local monarchies, and4,was more intolerant to their own fellow protestants than what the Roman Popedid in the past centuries.What do you think of such criticism of Protestants?
Which aspect(s) of the Enlightenment movement impress you most? Why?

5.What do you think of the slogan of ‘universal human happiness as the highest goal’? What are its positive and negative impacts?

6.Do you think the core values upheld by the Enlightenment movement in conflict with the Christian belief?

Attachments:

57) For this assessment, source a journal article of your choice on recent research about a current social
issue. The study should have been conducted within the last 5 years. The assessment asks you to
critique the paper by discussing the component parts.
In answering this assessment, students should first briefly describe the paper, including:
1. the stated rationale and background for the study
2. the aims and objectives of the study
3. an overview of the research methods used, including the techniques for sampling, data
collection and data analysis.
Then, after the above description of the paper, conduct a critical assessment of the methods
used. This should include a critical discussion of the following areas:
1. the overall research design
2. the way key concepts were defined and measured
3. the sampling process
4. the data collection methods
5. the way the data was analysed
6. the approach to interpretation of results
7. ethical issues
In your assessment, discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the methodological approach
showing what could have been done differently and why. Issues of validity and reliability should
also be mentioned.

58) 1.What does it mean to say that an individual is an “information literate person”?

2.Cite examples from your experience, as to how the information literacy component of this course (i.e. UGRC 136) has positively affected your: (i) Academic endeavours(ii) Socio-political life.

59) Task overview: 1. Choose 1 problem solving theory, i.e. task centred practice OR crisis intervention 2. Choose 1 psychological theory, i.e. cognitive behavioural therapy OR attachment 3. Analyse the case study from the perspective of the 2 theories you have selected. You need to: 1. Describe the main arguments of each theory (approx. 250 words per theory) 2. Explain why you selected that specific theory; why it is helpful in understanding the case study? (approx. 150 words per theory) 3. Identify 2 key principles from each of the theories (4 in total) 4. Apply the 4 principles to aspects of the case study; how do they inform your understanding of the case study? How would they shape your practice? (approx. 250 words per principle) 4. Draw an eco-map and genogram that represent the case study (approx. 50 words) 5. Using the principle of stress, explain why systems theory is helpful in understanding the case study (approx. 350 words) Please use sub-headings and include a brief introduction and conclusion (i.e. 150 words each). The word limit is 2500 words. 10% variance is allowed. It is acceptable to write in first person and use personal pronouns such as “I” or “my” in this assessment. This assessment must be supported by at least 10 academic references. You will need to use topic materials and undertake wider research. APA referencing conventions must be used. Please see the Marking ruberic (in Topic central in FLO) for more information on the assessment criteria. Please submit via the Assessment link in Topic central in FLO.

60) Make recommendations for the design choice.
Explain whether you think that this is the appropriate correlation or bivariate regression to use for the research question. Why or why not?
As a lay reader, were you able to understand the results and their implications? Why or why not?

61) Once your group has chosen its PBL topic, each member of the group will contribute to and share the research. Then each individual will report on the group’s findings using the Report structure and template provided. 1. Read/watch the suggested resources that have been provided to you. As you read/watch, take notes. It is recommended that you use the Cornell notes structure. 2. Complete further research, as needed, to help you complement the resources that have been provided. 3. Begin to plan your report using the documents called PBL Report structure guidance for students and Report structure and template. (You will find these in the LMS). 4. As you complete your initial planning, take note of remaining gaps in your research. 5. Complete remaining research and start to plan your report. 6. Consult with your teacher, as needed, during the research and planning stages. 7. Write a first draft of your report; don’t forget to include citations and a reference list. 8. Proof-read and edit and get some peer feedback on the first draft of your report. 9. Submit your draft report to your teacher, via Turn It In, for feedback. 10. Use the feedback from your teacher, and peers, to review and edit your report. 11. Complete a final proof-read and edit of your report before the final submission. Reminders/Tips for the report process: • While the Report structure might be a new skill and text type that you are learning, you can still use the TEEL structure for your paragraphs. • It is advised that group members help one another with the peer drafting of the report. This will allow you to talk with each other about the research and help you to prepare for the group components of the Project (Part B).

Attachments:

“Summarisethe neurophysiological evidence for the right hemisphere differing from the left hemisphere in holistic processing, with special reference to facial recognition.”

Attachments:

• Evidence of understanding of the guiding principles and theories of case management and use of these.
• Clearly identify and justify your choice of approach utilising principles and theories of case management.
• Discuss the strengths and limitations of a case management approach within a multidisclinary setting.
• Discuss how case management principles and approaches might influence your practice as a social worker
• Correct grammar, punctuation and spelling
• Referencing using APA (6th edition) conventions

Attachments:

64) How do anthropologists define religion? Do you agree with anthropologists that there is a universality to religion?
2-3 paragraphs

65) Question 1 Outline the different ways in which crime can be defined. What do these different definitions tell us about the nature of crime(750 words) Question 2 Outline the role that discretion plays in the early stages of the criminal justice process (investigation, charge, pre-trial). Reflect on the ways in which earlier discretionary decisions impact upon later outcomes for accused people. (750 words) Reference List; Minimum of 5. This assessment is 1,500 words long, so your answer for each questions should be about 750 words in length (therefore totalling 1,500). The assessment is worth 40% in total, so each question will be worth 20%. Resources: To answer these questions, you should use the following material: 1) key readings, 2) lecture material, 3) workshop Key Reading: 1. Australia Criminal Justice by Findlay M, Odgers S, & Yeo S 5TH edn. Book Chapters: An Introduction to Australia criminal justice, Criminal Responsibility, Police investigation, Expanding Crimes investigation, Pre-trial and Trial. 2. The construction and deconstruction of crime by Muncie J, in key reading in sociology, by Newburn T, Cullompton: Willian, 2009 pp 11-16

Attachments:

69) To complete the task, students should follow these steps:
1. Identify the key components of the question you have chosen. What is it asking you to do? What are the key words or concepts and theories that it refers to?
2. Consider what information is needed to successfully answer the question. As a start, think about the online weekly modules or set readings that are most relevant and review those materials. Bear in mind you will need to go beyond these (and you need to focus on published materials in your essay, so the set readings should be given preference over lecture pods/online materials).
3. Begin researching your chosen topic. Use the library databases to identify other academic sources. If you are not sure how to do this seek some support from library staff.
4. Take notes on the readings you complete, being sure to distinguish between your summaries/paraphrasing and any direct quotes. (Be sure to review the guides to referencing in vUWS if you are not clear on this).
5. Having obtained relevant information to answer the question, draft an essay plan that considers how you might structure your essay. Resources on essay planning are available in vUWS.
6. Commence drafting your essay. Keep coming back to your essay plan to check that you are still on track as you do so.
7. Re-read and refine your essay. As you do so, ask yourself: ’does this answer the question’? ’Are the points I am making, and the significance of them clear’? ’Are the connections between points, particularly between paragraphs, clear’?
8. Check your essay for spelling and/or grammatical errors.
9 Minimum of 5 reference required.

Attachments:

70) Sociology 100: Social Structures
Spring 2020
Socio-ME-ology Guidelines (Unessay Project)
Throughout the term you will be asked to use your “sociological imagination” to
understand your own lived experiences through the lens of the socio-structural topics
discussed in class. You will use this knowledge to develop a socio-ME-ology (i.e., a
sociology of self), which is your end of term socio-ME-ology unessay project.
Using these guidelines to inform your approach, you will work on a multi-medium project
(e.g., photography, film, art, music, written word) that expresses your sociology of self,
and on the final day of class you will submit your project to the instructor, as well as
share your experiences and explain your Socio-ME-ology unessay project to the class
through a short presentation.

71) For this Module 2 Assessment, you will examine a scenario that includes an inter-group conflict. In this scenario, you are recognized as an authority in cross-cultural psychology and asked to serve as a consultant to help resolve the conflict. You will be asked to write up your recommendations in a 5–6 page paper not including your title and reference page.

Reference

Darley, J.M. & Latané, B. (1968). Bystander interview in emergencies: Diffusion of responsibility. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 8(4), 377-383.

To Prepare:

Review the following:

Scenario: Culture, Psychology, and Community

Imagine an international organization has approached you to help resolve an inter-group conflict. You are an authority in cross-cultural psychology and have been asked to serve as a consultant based on a recent violent conflict involving a refugee community in your town and a local community organization. In the days, weeks, and months leading up to the violent conflict, there were incidents of discrimination and debates regarding the different views and practices people held about work, family, schools, and religious practice. Among the controversies has been the role of women’s participation in political, educational, and community groups.

Assignment:(6 pages excluding title page and reference page):

Part 1: Developing an Understanding(2 pages)

Based on the scenario, explain how you can help integrate the two diverse communities so that there is increased understanding and appreciation of each group by the other group. (Note: Make sure to include in your explanation the different views and practices of cultural groups as well as the role of women.)
Based on your knowledge of culture and psychology, provide three possible suggestions/solutions that will help the community as a whole. In your suggestions make sure to include an explanation regarding group think and individualism vs. collectivism.

Part 2: Socio-Emotional, Cognitive, and Behavioral Aspects(2 pages)

Based on your explanations in Part 1, how do your suggestions/solutions impact the socio-emotional, cognitive, and behavior aspects of the scenario and why?

Part 3: Gender, Cultural Values and Dimensions, and Group Dynamics(2 pages)

Explain the impact of gender, cultural values and dimensions, and group dynamics in the scenario.
Further explain any implications that may arise from when working between and within groups.

Support your Assignment by citing all resources in APA style, including those in the Learning Resources.

72)

How has the birth control pill altered sexuality and feminine gender expectations?

A definition of population control and examples.
A description of how population control could help or harm a society (examples)
Your thoughts on the “One Child” policy. Would it work in the US?

73) Describe the experience in your memory in as much detail as you can. What happened? What things did you see? What sounds do you remember hearing? What do you remember touching, smelling, tasting? How did you feel physically? How did you feel, emotionally?
Paragraph 2: Describe the contribution of the hippocampus to your memory. What input did the hippocampus get from the senses, sight, sound, smell, touch, taste, movement? How was your body feeling at the time? What was the mood? How did the hippocampus make this memory? Tell about episodic memories that were made.
Paragraph 3: Describe the contribution of the amygdala to your memory. What feelings were input? Tell about the emotional memory that was made.

74) Write a 3- to 5-paragraph critique of the article. In your critique, include responses to the following:

Which is the research design used by the authors?
Why did the authors use this t test?
Do you think it’s the most appropriate choice? Why or why not?
Did the authors display the data?
Do the results stand alone? Why or why not?
Did the authors report effect size? If yes, is this meaningful?

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

75) The Vaccine War The Crisis Situation The crisis is the controversy arising from the partial recommendation of vaccines. Conventionally, vaccines are generally associated with the prevention of severe health conditions; however, when professionals inform the public the practice is not effective in controlling certain circumstances, a point of confusion arises. The choice of this crisis situation was essential to learn some of the exceptions regarding the application of vaccines. Summary The video presents the case of the outbreak of measles; therefore, it was a time when people expected guidance from the healthcare professionals to guide them on reactive and preventive measures. They recommended the application of vaccines for the children. They further reported that immunization might not be adequate for disorders such as autism (Frontline, 2010). This led to the aspects of war over vaccines to rage on. The situation prompted the need for scientific establishment against populist coalitions of celebrities, parents, and activists. The benefit of Anthropological Perspective to Examining the Crisis Situation Examining the crisis can be better undertaken using the anthropological perspective. The approach can be used to analyze and understand the criteria of human behaviors as a result of the case (Khasnabish, 2014)). This will further help determine the influence behind the activist interventions, which resulted as reactive measures.

76) Critical Response Assignment – Media View of Child Maltreatment – 50 Points

This assignment is to prompt reflection, thinking and class discussion. Bring in one media story that relates to any aspect of child abuse or neglect. Be prepared to discuss your media piece according to the following questions:

What impact does the article have on the reader/viewer/consumer?
What values are reflected in the language of the story, video clip, article or other media resource?
What is the reporter's view of the people involved? Does the reporter appeal to the reader to adopt a specific view? Does the reporter offer any solutions?
What impression of child maltreatment do the media portray in this type of story, video clip, article or other media reference?

Suggested length of the paper : 1- 2 pages.

78) 1. Briefly describe an organization you know well and discuss how the six types of knowledge provided below are expressed in that organization, Select two and discuss how you have experienced them in your own life. Embrained Embodied Encultured Embedded Encoded Commodified 2. Compare and contrast tacit, explicit, and codified knowledge. Share a situation in which you used each type or believe each was used on you. Describe the experience and how you think understanding was realized by you (how you learned what you learned). 3. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using formal IPR to commercialize an innovation. Determine any barriers a start-up entrepreneur is likely to experience.

79) Below are the instructions for the PP presentation:

Assignment Details: Computer Ethics PowerPoint

Review your initial post from this week’s discussion activity on computer ethics. Use Microsoft PowerPoint to create a presentation based on your initial computer ethics discussion and associated research. T

Your presentation Should:

Identify the key points you want to highlight.
Contain a minimum of three slides in the body of the presentation.
- Each slide in the body of the presentation should have no more than three bullet points.
- Each slide must include animation.
Include graphics, audio, video or embedded links as needed to support and enhance your topics.

In addition:

Create a title slide that that includes a Title of PowerPoint, Students Name, Course Number & Title, Instructor's Name, and Date, in that order.
Create a reference slide that identifies all sources used within the presentation (including graphics or other multimedia)
Format your references according to APA style as outline in the and use in-text citations where necessary throughout the body of your presentation.

Below is my initial post:

The article I chose was digital dilemmas: Values, ethics and information technology.

What is information technology (IT)? This is the study or use of systems (dealing with computers and telecommunications) for storing, retrieving, and sending information. These are the things we do everyday when we use the computer. Anything that we send or retrieve some how is always being stored even if its not being physically done by the person using this unique instrument. This article talks about the the ways this system is used and the different ares of life its used. One that I picked up on in my reading was SST which is self service technologies. This system allows us the opportunity to have personal freedom and become more self sufficient, this is good for doing online applications and applying for things via the internet. But some of the ethical issues with this is that you can't tell if information is true until you do a face to face meeting. This is an issue that isn't just personal but also happens in large companies well as the government.

Reference: Canadian Public Administration. Jan2014, vol.57 issue2,p295-317.23p, Kernaghan,Kenneth

79) Essay report of 500word on Healthcare

3 sources that will be use in the report

1 academic journal article and the 2 other frome acadimc websites or books

4pages

page 1 the titel

page 2 and 3 full pages of essay

page 4 reference

=4 on healthcare

80) In a five-slide Powerpoint describe modernist architecture in reference to history.

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Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and…

Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and operating income as
changes occur in the units sold, selling price, variable cost per unit, or fixed costs of a product.
3-2 Describe the assumptions underlying CVP analysis.
The assumptions underlying the CVP analysis outlined in Chapter 3 are
1. Changes in the level of revenues and costs arise only because of changes in the number of product (or
service) units sold.
2. Total costs can be separated into a fixed component that does not vary with the units sold and a variable
component that changes with the number of units sold.
3. When represented graphically, the behaviors of total revenues and total costs are linear (represented as a
straight line) in relation to number of units sold within a relevant range and time period.
4. The selling price, variable cost per unit, and fixed costs are known and constant

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy…

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy are married and have three children, Alice, Bryson, and Carl. They live at 500 Main Street, Phoenix, AZ 85021. Robert is a counselor working for a company called Healthy U. Amy works part-time as a pharmacy tech at Walgreens. Here are their social security numbers and birthdates:

View complete question »

Name	Social Security Number	Birthdate
Robert	123-56-3214	1/15/1988
Amy	564-52-6363	2/23/1990
Alice	558-99-3336	5/5/2013
Bryson	120-33-4566

Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6…

Task One
It is stated under AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’ that companies must value and record as an expense
any options granted to employees in exchange for their services. Previously Australian companies
recorded share-based payments in the notes to the financial statements, arguing that share-based
payments did not cost the company anything.
Required
a) Explain the reasoning that led to the development of AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’.
b) Discuss briefly the possible economic implications of AASB 2.
(10 marks)
Task Two
Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6 years
and a face value of $20 each. Annual interest of 5% is payable at the end of each year. The notes
were issued at their face value and each note can be converted into one ordinary share in Sampras
Ltd at any time over their lives. Organisations with a similar risk profile to Sampras Ltd have issued
debt with similar terms but without the option to convert at the rate of 7% per annum.

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair market…

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair
market value of 100% issued shares of the company as at 31 December 2018 (‘valuation
date’). The purpose of the valuation is to assist the company in its deliberation of the
prospective sale of the equity stakes to new strategic investor. The deliverable for this
valuation engagement will be in the form of a valuation report, documenting the entire
valuation process, to be issued to the company.

Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented…

Week 1 The fundamental qualitative characteristics that financial information must possess to be useful to the primary users of general purpose financial reports—identified in the Conceptual Framework are ‘relevance’ and ‘faithful representation’.
Required: a) Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) b) Provide one example where information is not relevant but is faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) c) Provide one example where information is relevant and faithfully represented. (4 marks, maximum 150 words)
Week 2 a) What is a social contract and how does it relate to organisational legitimacy? (6 marks, maximum 300 words) b) Explain two ways organisations can use corporate disclosure policy to maintain or regain organisational legitimacy? (4 marks, maximum 200 words)
Week 3 Diamond Ltd acquired an item of polishing equipment on 1 July 2015 for $440,000. The equipment is expected to have a useful life of 10 years and the straight-line method of depreciation is to be used. It has salvage value of $40,000. On 1 July 2017, the equipment is deemed to have a fair value of $424,000 and revaluation is undertaken in accordance with the Diamond Ltd policy of measuring property, plant and equipment at fair value. The asset is still usable for next 8 years but the salvage value is determined to be zero. The asset is sold for $356,000 on 1 July 2019.
Required: Provide the journal entries necessary at the following dates to account for the above transactions and events. (Ignore narrations). Show your working. (10 marks) • 01/07/2015 • 01/07/2017 • 01/07/2019
Week 4 Snowy Ltd acquires Pax Ltd on 1 July 2018 for $5,000,000 being the fair value of the consideration transferred. At that date, Pax Ltd’s net identifiable assets have a fair value of $4,400,000. Goodwill of $600,000 is therefore the difference between the aggregate of the consideration transferred and the net identifiable assets acquired.
The fair value of the net identifiable assets of Pax Limited are determined as follows: ($000) Patent rights 200 Machinery 1,000 Buildings 1,500 Land 2,300 5,000 Less: Bank loan 600 Net assets 4,400 At the end of the reporting period of 30 June 2019, the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,500,000. The carrying amount of the net identifiable assets of Pax Ltd, excluding goodwill, is unchanged and remains at $4,400,000.
Required: a) Prepare the journal entry to account for any impairment of goodwill. (6 marks) b) Assume instead that at the end of the reporting period the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,200,000. Determine the impairment of goodwill amount. (No journal entries required) (4 marks)
Week 5 On 1 July 2019, Fisher Ltd decides to lease a cargo ship from XFinance Ltd. The term of the lease is 20 years. The implicit interest rate in the lease is 10 per cent. The fair value of the cargo ship at the commencement of the lease is $2,215,560. The lease is non-cancellable, and requires a lease payment of $300,000 on inception of the lease (on 1 July 2019) and lease payments of $250,000 on 30 June each year (starting 30 June 2020). Included within the $250,000 lease payments is an amount of $25,000 representing payment to the lessor for the insurance and maintenance of the cargo ship. There is no residual payment required. Annuity factor, n=20; r = 10% is 8.5136.
Required: a) Prove that the interest rate implicit in the lease is 10 per cent. (2 marks) b) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of Fisher Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020. (4 marks) c) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of XFinance Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020.

James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL)….

James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL).
After purchasing 1,000 shares of SNL, James received a letter (via email) from the company
secretary advising him of a forthcoming annual general meeting (AGM). As a new
shareholder of SNL, James has plenty of questions to SNL’s company secretary.
James rings and asks SNL’s company secretary to explain to him what is meant by the terms
‘member’ and ‘shareholder’, and the different ways in which a person may become a member.
He also asks to explain who may be eligible to become a member, and how many members
a company is permitted to have. Finally, James asks: how does a person cease to be a
member of a company?
1. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his questions above. Use relevant sections of the Corporations Act
2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (5 marks)
At the company’s annual general meeting, James bumps into the company secretary. James
had observed that the notice he had received advising him of his company’s annual general
meeting had stated that it would commence ‘at 1 pm’. Yet, on the day, the annual general
meeting had not commenced until 1.10 pm because the chair had been delayed in traffic
while trying to reach the meeting’s venue. James surmised that this delay in starting the
meeting could constitute a procedural irregularity that could only be rectified by his company
conducting the whole annual general meeting again.
2. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his question on procedural irregularity. Use relevant sections of the
Corporations Act 2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (3 marks)

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company…

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company
produces various food products including meats and milks. You work as a management accountant in
this company.
Your manager has asked one of your colleagues in the management accounting department to
prepare a comparative profit or loss report for the current and previous month. The manager wants
the report to cover only meat production in Victoria’s branches. Your colleague suggests that since
the company has different branches and products, financial statements should cover all of the
company’s activities. He also suggested that the report should be prepared for a financial year in
accordance with accounting standards.
Using your knowledge of financial and managerial accounting, general and specific purpose financial
reports and various users of accounting information, advise your colleague as to the approach they
should adopt to meet the manager’s requirements and ensure the information correctly reflects the
department’s operations.
Your answer needs to be in your own words and correctly referenced to receive full marks.

Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources….

You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed
several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions
below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which…

Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which
apply to reporting by Australian companies and corporate groups, including Company Law,
International and Australian Accounting Standards, and Stock Exchange requirements;
2. Critically analyse and interpret the financial statements and other disclosures produced by
Australian companies and corporate groups;
3. Apply Australian Accounting Standards and Corporate Legislation to the financial reporting
processes of a range of corporate forms including companies and joint ventures;
4. Evaluate financial accounting problems and select appropriate accounting strategies for the
accounting entity;
5. Prepare accounting reports for companies and other corporate forms that meet the compliance
requirements of the professional and legal bodies in Australia;
6. Make judgments about appropriate use of accounting standards and accurately apply appropriate
treatments and communicate these outcomes to a diverse range of stakeholders.

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits…

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars….

Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars. Management predicts that ending finished goods inventory for the first quarter will be 71,400 units. The following unit sales of the transmissions are expected during the rest of the year: second quarter, 357,000 units; third quarter, 347,000 units; and fourth quarter, 260,500 units. Company policy calls for the ending finished goods inventory of a quarter to equal 20% of the next quarter’s budgeted sales.
Propare a production budget for both the second and third quarters that shows the number of transmissions to manufacture.

Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts… 1 answer below »

Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts in selecting the accounts to be debited and credited. (Do not insert theaccount numbers in the journal at this time.) 11 Cash 31 Emily Page, Capital 12 Accounts Receivable 32 Emily Page, Drawing 14 Supplies 41 Fees Earned 15 Prepaid Rent 51 Salary Expense 16 Prepaid Insurance 52 Rent Expense 18 Office Equipment 53 Supplies Expense 19 Accumulated Depreciation 54 Depreciation Expense 21 Accounts Payable 55 Insurance Expense 22 Salaries Payable 59 Miscellaneous Expense 23 Unearned Fees 2. Post the journal to a ledger of four-column accounts. 3. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance. 4. At the end of June, the following adjustment data were assembled. Analyze and use these data to complete parts (5) and (6). a. Insurance expired during June is $200. b. Supplies on hand on June 30 are $650. c. Depreciation of office equipment for June is $250. d. Accrued receptionist salary on June 30 is $220. e. Rent expired during June is $2,000. f. Unearned fees on June 30 are $1,875. 5. Enter the unadjusted trial balance on an end-of-period spreadsheet (work sheet) and complete the spreadsheet. 6. Journalize and post the adjusting entries. 7. Prepare an adjusted trial balance. 8. Prepare an income statement, a statement of owner’s equity, and a balance sheet. 9. Prepare and post the closing entries. (Income Summary is account #33 in the chart of accounts.) Indicate closed accounts by inserting a line in both the Balance columns opposite the closing entry. 10. Prepare a post-closing trial balance.

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of $12,500…

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of
$12,500 and negotiating a loan for the balance. The estimated life of the vehicle was
12 years and residual value $3,000. The vehicle was to be depreciated at the rate of
30% using the declining balance method.
Depreciation is recorded on 30th June each year.
On 30th September, 2017 and 30th September, 2018 all three vehicles were serviced
at a cost of $5,400.
On 31st March, 2019 Vehicle No 1 is sold to Extratta Traders because for $8,000.
You are required to:
a. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2017 to show the
Motor Vehicles account; 3 marks
b. Record all the journal entries that took place from 1st July 2017 to 30th June
2019 (ignore GST and show all calculations). 17 marks
c. If revenue for the financial year 2018 was $61,500, prepare an extract from the
Profit and Loss Statement at 30th June 2018 indicating associated
expenses for motor vehicles for the year. 3 marks
d. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2019 to show the
Motor Vehicles account. 3 marks
B. Why would Utensilite choose the two methods of depreciation it has? What is
the impact of each method on Profit figures over the life of the asset? Describe
two other depreciation methods that could have been used to depreciate the
motor vehicles. Which of the four methods do you believe is most appropriate
for motor vehicles and why?

Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance…

Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance sheet from the adjusted trial balance of Hanson Storage. Ms. Hanson’s capital account balance of $40,340 consists of a $30,340 beginning-year balance plus a $10,000 investment during the current year.

What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?…

QUESTIONS1. What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?2. What are the four basic purposes of internal control? Give an example of each one? B. EXERCISE1. The California State University (CSU) system is the largest four-year higher education system in the United States. In 2004, all twenty-three CSU campuses adopted People Soft, an enterprise resource planning system, for managing finances, personnel records and other important functions. The project was referred to as the Common Management System (CMS). Considering Brown’s taxonomy of risk, identify five risks the CSU and its management took by making the PeopleSoft decision.2. The following is a question in which one is expected to evaluate internal controls. The Art Appreciation Society operates a museum for the benefit and enjoyment of the community. During hours when the museum is open to the public, two clerks who are positioned at the entrance collect a $5 admission fee from each nonmember patron. Members of the Art Appreciation Society are permitted to enter free of charge upon presentation of their members hip cards. At the end of each day one of the clerks delivers the proceeds to the treasurer. The treasurer counts the cash in the presence of the clerk and places it in a safe. Each Friday afternoon the treasurer and one of the clerks deliver all cash held in the safe to the bank, and receive an authenticated deposit slip which provides the basis for the weekly entry in the cash receipts journal. The Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society has identified a need to improve their system of internal control over cash admission fees. The Board had determined that the cost of installing turnstiles, sales booths, or otherwise altering the physical layout of the museum will greatly exceed any benefits that may be derived. However, the Board has agreed that the sale of admission tickets must be an integral part of its improvement efforts. Smith has been asked by the Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society to review the internal control over cash admission fees and provide suggestions for improvement. Required Indicate weaknesses in the existing system of internal control over cash admission fees, which Smith should identify, and recommend one improvement for each of the weaknesses identified.

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. -State for each variable…

Task 1: Variable List 1. Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. 2. State for each variable whether it is qualitative or quantitative; if it is qualitative, state whether it is nominal or ordinal, and if it is quantitative, state whether it is discrete or continuous. Task 2: Histogram 3. Create a histogram showing the distribution of salaries. Find the 5-number summary of the distribution of salaries. Comment upon the shape of the distribution: is it symmetric? If it is not, is it positively or negatively skewed? Are there any outliers present? If so, are they of particular interest? State which central measure would be best to use to describe the centre of this distribution, and the reason(s) why.

Attachments:

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years….

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures 2015-2016,…

Part A (70 marks)
In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures
2015-2016, the Income Tax Rates Amendment (Working Holiday Maker Reform) Act 2017
(the ‘WHMR Act’) was passed. The WHMR Act proposed changes to tax rules for working
holiday makers on 417 and 462 visas (‘backpackers’) as a means of raising revenue. This,
with other proposed legislative amendments concerning working holiday makers, has been
referred to in the media as the ‘Backpacker Tax’.
Choose and read ONE of the following cases.
Clemens and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 124 (6 March 2015); or
Jaczenko and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 125 (6 March 2015);or
Koustrup and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 126 (6 March 2015)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What issues are being considered in your chosen case, and what decision
(conclusion) is reached? (20 marks)
2. Would the decision in your chosen case support the need for a change to the
residency rules for backpackers in Australia? Give reasons (20 marks)
3. How does the WHMR Act treat income earned by ‘backpackers’ in Australia? (10
marks)
4. Is this different to the way income earned by ‘backpackers’ was treated prior to the
introduction of the WHMR Act? If so, how? (20 marks)

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the…

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the core features of
international business strategy. They argue that: “(s)everal of these cases focus on company and country
scenarios related to China, Germany, Mexico, Myanmar, Russia, Venezuela, and prominent other markets.”
(p609) These cases cover a range of international companies including Apple, Dominos, Ford, General Motors,
Microsoft, Philips Siemens, Skype and Volkswagen. As well, these cases in general relates to several unit learning
outcomes including differing elements of international business – related theories, national differences, the
global trade and investment environment, the strategy and structure of international business, and international
business functions.
Required:
This Group Assignment is comprised of two parts.
Part A: Written Report on Two Cases (15%) [this part must be submitted via Turnitin by 5:00pm Friday 24
January 2020] – Expected length – Total 2000 words (i.e., 1000 words for each case)
First, you, as a group, are required to select two out of twenty cases as included at the end of the text by Hill
and Hult (2019 – pp608 – 634). The selection of these two cases will be determined by the coordinator of the
unit and will be allocated in Week 4 during Semester 3, 2019.
Second, you are required to:
a. Summarise and elaborate the respective case scenarios;
b. Answer and critically evaluate the set questions in each case; and
c. Demonstrate applicable theories and issues of international business relates to the selected case.
Third, as well, you are required to provide your reflections and conclusions using contemporary aspects of
international business relating to the case.
The expectation is that you are required to use academic and professional authentic references in analysing
the case and writing the report. Please go through unit outline for guidelines about Turnitin submission and
referencing style.
The Group Assignment develops students’ theoretical and technical skills in international business theory and
strategy as well as their written communication skills. You are required to form a group by Week 4 with no
more than THREE members of your class. Each member is fully responsible for the discussion, preparation,
composition and submission of the integrated case analysis in group. Failure by a student to attend,
contribute, and submit the assignment will result in the said student receiving a zero (0) mark weighting for
this assessment task. You must attach a completed, signed coversheet and a self and peer contribution
evaluation form with your written assignment.

Attachments:

Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing…

Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing swimming pools. During the year
ended 30 June 2019 Michael received $915,000 in cash for sales of equipment andmaterials and for pool services. Wages of
$275,000 were paid to his staff. This included an amount of $50,000 paid to his brother. The work of the brother could have been
done by an unrelated person for $10,000. On 1 June 2019, Michael paid $4,530 to his lawyer to complete the winding up of a
business he had operated at a loss in earlier years. One of Michael’s customers bought some pool materials for $600 on credit
on 21 June 2018 but could not pay the account which was issued on the same day because he went bankrupt in November 2018.
Michael wrote off the debt on 1 July 2019. During the year ended 30 June 2019 Michael paid rates and taxes of $5,270 on a
vacant block of land. Michael was thinking of putting a holiday house on the block of land.
Michael made an interest free loan of $500,000 on 1 January 2019 to one of his employees. The employee used the loan for two
purposes: 30% for the purchase of an investment property and 70% to pay off his home mortgage. On 1 March 2019 Michael
paid the life Insurance premium for one of his employees in the amount of $25,000.
Michael bought a rental property on 4 July 2018 for $1,000,000. He borrowed $750,000 of this money on the same day from
the bank to buy the property. The term of the loan was 4 years. The property was leased on 4 July 2018. He received rent in
cash from his tenants during the year ended 30 June 2019 in the amount of $95,000. On 1 July 2018 Michael paid the bank a loan
application fee of $1,570

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business…

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business and residential customers Students will nave the opportunity to establish payroll records and to complete a month of payroll information for Wayland. Wayland Custom Woodworking is located at 1716 Nichol Street. Logan. Utah. 84321. phone number 435-555-9877. The owner is Mark Wayland. Wayland’s EN is 91-7444533. and the Utah Employer Account Number Is 999.92904 Wayland has determined it will pay their employees on a semimonthly basis. Federal income tax should be computed using the percentage method.
For Pan 2 of this project, you will complete payroll for the last month (December) of the fourth Quarter (Q4) of 2018. which consists of the final two pay periods of the year. Then file the annual tax forms for Wayland as well as prepare each employee’s Form W-2 In Part 2.
The SUTA (Ur) rate for Wayland Custom Woodworking is 2.6 percent on the first $34,300. The state withholding rate is 4.95 percent for all Income levels and marital statuses.

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still…

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the…

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the
fifth largest in Australia.
The 2019 integrated annual report for the Company is provided on the subject Moodle shell.
Using the 2019 Report, compare the financial results of the Company between 2018 and
2019. You should use any financial information provided in the 2019 reports (including
ratios, and narratives) to conclude on the improvements or not in financial position and
profitability. You discussion should focus on reasons for this.
What other information would you need to make an assessment of Lendlease?
Word Limit 1100 words, Marks = 45
Question 2.
The 2019 integrated annual report is the fourth for Lendlease. Explain what is an
integrated report, and how Lendlease is Managing and Measuring Value.
What is your opinion of the Sustainability achievements of Lendlease?

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal…

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal
Court of Australia decision Addy v Commissioner of Taxation [2019] FCA 1768.
(Hint: you may either read the decision or read at least one of the several
commentaries available online)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What are the possible consequences of this decision for ‘backpackers’ who have
already paid tax in accordance with WHMR Act? Give reasons.(20 marks)
2. How has the Australian Tax Office (ATO) responded to the decision in Addy v
Commissioner of Taxation? (10 marks)

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the…

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the first month.

Transactions on May 1:

Don Humes invested $40,000 cash in the company, as its sole owner.
Hired two employees to work in the warehouse. They will each be paid a salary of $3,050 per month.
Signed a 2-year rental agreement on a warehouse; paid $24,000 cash in advance for the first year.
Purchased furniture and equipment costing $30,000. A cash payment of $10,000 was made immediately; the remainder will be paid in 6 months.
Paid $1,800 cash for a one-year insurance policy on the furniture and equipment.

Transactions during the remainder of the month:

Purchased basic office supplies for $500 cash.
Purchased more office supplies for $1,500 on account.
Total revenues earned were $20,000—$8,000 cash and $12,000 on account.
Paid $400 to suppliers for accounts payable due.
Received $3,000 from customers in payment of accounts receivable.
Received utility bills in the amount of $350, to be paid next month.
Paid the monthly salaries of the two employees, totalling $6,100.

Instructions

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is…

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is September 21, 1961, and Bruce’s is June 27, 1960. Bruce is the office manager for Ames Dental Clinic. Alice is the CPA at Lehman, York & Hunter CPA, LP. The Jones provide over half of the support of their two children, Cynthia (born January 25, 1994, Social Security number (017-44-9126) and John (born February 7, 1995, Social Security number (017-27-4148), who live with them. Both children are full-time students and live with the Jones except when they are away at college. Cynthia is in her third year of college, and earned $8,750 from a summer internship in 2019, and John is in his first year of college and he earned $6,500 from a part-time job in 2019. In 2019, the Jones’ paid $4,500 for Cynthia’s college tuition and $7,500 for John’s college tuition. The Jones also provided all the support for their 26-year-old son Ryan who recently graduated from law school but cannot find employment. Ryan lives in DC. According to Mr. Jones on July 01, 2019, he and his wife exchanged their two-family house in Westchester County (378 Pinebrook Blvd, New Rochelle, NY), which they rented entirely from January 01, 2005 to July 01, 2019, for a four family rental property located at 581 Atlantic Avenue, Brooklyn, NY. At the time of the exchange, the FMV of the two-family house was $900,000, and the adjusted basis was $275,000. The four-family house had an adjusted basis of $600,000 and a FMV of $800,000. The two-family home was subject to a $100,000 mortgage, which the buyer assumed. The Jones also owned and rented a two-unit commercial retail building located at 1560 Avenue A, New York NY, which they purchased on December 01, 2018 and placed in service on January 01, 2019. Information for all three of the rental properties is listed below. In March 2019, Bruce decided to start his own business; a retail bicycle shop to be located in NYC near Central Park called “Bruce’s Bikes.” On April 20, 2019, Bruce signed a 10-year lease at a monthly rental rate of $10,000, effective May 01, 2019, for retail space on 110th Street and CPW. The lease provided that Bruce was responsible for the costs of improving the retail space for its intended use. The terms of the lease also provided that the first three months were rent-free so that Bruce could complete the construction needed to operate a retail bike shop. When Bruce executed the lease he paid the landlord $30,000 as a security deposit. On May 01, 2019, Bruce paid a contractor $225,000 to provide all construction work relating to the build-out, which included electrical, plumbing, and carpentry. On June 01, 2019, Bruce purchased the following assets for the business:

Attachments:

Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers -Discuss how management…

Assignment In recent years, successful companies have begun to focus on managing cross-company processes with suppliers to reduce costs, increase speed, and improve quality. In tis print advertisement J.D. Edwards, a producer of ERP software systems notes that companies must ‘collaborate or die’. Required: a) Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers b) Discuss how management accounting information can play a role in different stages of collaboration Limit: 4-6 pages Instructions: Format: A4 paper, corner stapled; no folders accepted; typewritten in 1½ spacing; pages must be numbered. A completed assignment cover sheet must be attached to the front of your assignment. Style Guide: Assignments should be closely checked for errors of typing, spelling, grammar, etc. Where you use specific material from any source, you must provide reference to the specific quotation, and all sources consulted must be included in a bibliography at the end of your assignment. Penalties for late lodgement: A maximum penalty of 10 per cent of the mark allocated to this assignment will be deducted for each day that the assignment is late

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights…

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in…

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in harmonised international accounting practices across countries have been growing over the last ten years. Study based in emerging economies, such as China (He et al., 2012), Romania (Albu et al., 2014), India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh (Ali et al., 2006), South Pacific Island countries (Chand, 2005), United Arab Emeritus (Irvine, 2008), and Turkey (Misirlioglu et al., 2013), have consistently reported the challenge of effectively implementing IFRS in those countries due to country-specific contextual issues. Nobes (2015) also reported challenging issues in implanting IFRS in developed countries.
Assignment questions
1. Prepare a report critically arguing why having a single set of accounting standards (i.e. IFRS) for a world-wise use is inherently problematic.
2. Review literature explaining the contextual issues of implementing IFRS in emerging economies and in developed countries.
3. Critique whether adoption and use of IFRS will lead to improved financial reporting quality.

Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum…

Question 1 (2 marks) ‘Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum and face to face group learning, for all levels of students around the world, due to the Covid-19 pandemic. Online has asked you to research customer preferences and to recommend a pricing policy. There are limited price differences relating to the timing of classes in the Northern Hemisphere. However, for Southern Hemisphere classes running a class at or below 45 students (normal class size is 50) costs significantly more for Online to run the class. Required (200 words): a. In addition to customer preferences, what information would you like to gather before recommending a pricing policy? Explain why each item you list is relevant. b. Explain why it is important to understand customer preferences before investing in the infrastructure to run the system. c. Is the need to consider customer preferences different for this organisation than for another type of organisation? Why or why not? Question 2 (3 marks) Given you are constrained to your house due to Covid-19 you have decided to try and launch your own small business. Required (200 words): a. Design a small business and document 1 key product. Name your business and product. List a maximum of 10 costs that will be involved in selling your product and explain why they are either a variable or fixed cost. b. Estimate a reasonable selling price per unit for your product and estimate a value for each of the costs you listed in part a. c. Workout your Breakeven point, showing all calculations. d. Assume you require a profit of $25,000, calculate your new breakeven point, showing all calculations. e. Define and calculate the ‘Margin of Safety’, in both units and dollars, assuming you sell 75,000 units. Ensure you include all calculations.

Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:…

Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:
May June
Budgeted hours 6 000 8 000
One-hour visits (hrs x 0.2 x 1) 1 200 1 600
Half-hour visits (hrs x 0.8 x .5) 2 400 3 200
Total direct professional labour 3 600 4 800
Hourly wage rate for dentists $200 $200
Total direct professional labour cost $720 000 $960 000

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping precinct….

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping
precinct. The business, called the “Hunny Pots”, sells two types of pots, Large and
Small.
The Business has registered for GST and has an ABN 40 741 258 639. It pays GST
quarterly to the Australian Tax Office.
Accounting system
The company has financial year end 30 June and prepares adjusting entries at the
end of the each month. The firm uses the following journals to maintain its accounting
records
? Sales Journal: to record all credit sales of inventory
? Purchased Journal: to record credit purchases of inventory
? Cash Receipts Journal: to records all cash receipts
? Cash Payments Journal: to records all cash payment
? General Journal: to record all transactions other than the above
The company maintains a general ledger for each account. Subsidiary ledgers are
used to record separate details that Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable.
The company uses a perpetual inventory recording system.
Goods and services tax (GST)
The company is registered for GST and therefore is required to pay GST on its
purchases and collect GST on its sales. All prices include GST unless specifically
excluded
Unadjusted Trial Balance and Chart of Accounts
The unadjusted Trial Balance as at 29 February 2020 and a Chart of Accounts is
presented on the next page.
Accounting Procedures
The transactions are recorded by you, the accountant for Hunny Pots on a daily basis
in the appropriate journal. Transactions are posted daily from the General Journal.
Transactions are also posted daily to the Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable
subsidiary ledgers. Total of the Special Journals are posted to the appropriate
accounts at the end of the account period.

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues…

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues related to the materials covered in this course. In the contemporary discussion forum participation, students will be required to contribute informative responses during the specified period, demonstrating engagement and interaction with contemporary tax issues. In considering the development of your responses, you will need consider what each of the articles are concerned about and what the relevance to the tax system is. For example, is the topic about some event that has occurred to a particular taxpayer(s) or perhaps there is a particular kind of activity that needs considering? Determine what the relevant tax issues might be, in terms of the topics we have been covering in this course. There is no mandatory word limit, however a good guide is to consider a paragraph or two, per post.

Please note that weeks do not necessarily corelate perfectly with topics and therefore I do not generally reference/align content or assessments to particular weeks. Moreover, although we have provided a structure to scaffold learning by splitting the syllabus into topics, there are a lot over cross overs and interactions between topics. As such, I would ensure you are familiar with how things fit together.

For example, if you are a foreign resident (topic 2) who undertakes some kind of activities in Australia, then your tax rates will differ (topic 1) to tax residents. You will include only Australian sourced income (topic 2), and you will need to consider whether the activities are amount to assessable income (topic 3), or perhaps are captured by capital provisions (topic 4), or neither, and if so whether any expenditure may be deductible (topics 6,7), and so on.

We generally assign topics 1-9 to Assessment 1.

Marking Criteria	Short Description	Mark
1. Relevant Contribution.	Demonstrated ability to prepare and contribute relevant posts to the discussion forum topic(s).	2.5
2. Synthesis and Analysis.	Ability to synthesise material in order to raise issues or construct a persuasive and substantive response.	2.5
3. Interaction and Engagement.	Ability to engage in a reflective discourse. The extent of engagement with students, in terms of interaction, insight and direction offered.	2.5
4. Presentation and Referencing.	The extent of appropriate organisation and structure; legal terminology and writing skills.

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10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

Question 1: Mathematics

Math 111 – S2020 – Covering Week 14 – Weekly Assignment

Directions: Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work. Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so. All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering. Your final answer must be circled.

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem. Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between and its antiderivative. Give examples.

(5 points) Using the knowledge that , explain why the indefinite integral must have the “added at the end. Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

Two students are studying on campus. Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library. Zach texts John that he’s hungry. John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer. Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time. Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

Given Zach travels with the velocity and John travels with velocity where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach. In other words, and

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer? How long does it take John to get there?

( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by and the x-axis. Determine the area bound by by and the x-axis.

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

( 6 points)

Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
Evaluate the definite integral to find the area bound by and the x-axis.
Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

For on the interval using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval. Which will overestimate? Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values. You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

Question 2: Finance

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

(iii) Provide for auditors remuneration
(iv) Income tax expense
(v) Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
(vi) Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

(vii) Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
(viii) Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
(ix) On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
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Required:

(a) Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
(21 Marks)
(b) Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
(4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

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Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

Question 3: Mathematics

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

	A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
	A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
	A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
	A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
	A 95% confidence interval with

A.	2.262
B.	2.861
C.	1.671
D.	2.045
E.	2.571
F.	2.205
G.	1.665

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best). For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications. State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better. State the null and alternative hypotheses.

For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

	a.	Type I Error
	b.	Type II Error
	c.	We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
	d.	We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

	The critical value at 90% confidence is
	Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
	The value of 1-P should be set equal to
	The organization must select an SRS of at least

A.	1.645
B.	0.50
C.	0.50
D.	423
E.	1.96
F.	1.976
G.	.25
H.	.75
I.	466
J.	1692

Question 4: Chemistry

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

Temperature of Air (^oC) (x-axis)	Volume of Air (mL) (y-axis)
100	140
20	110
4	105

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________^oC

Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

Answer:

Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3^oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 ^oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

Answer:

Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

Answer:

Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

Answer:

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

1. Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

2. Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

3. Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t₁ vs. v₁, t₂ vs. v₂ and t₃ vs.v₃). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

	Temperature (°C)	Volume of Water (mL)	Volume of Air (mL) (Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)
Part 1 (t₁, v₁)
Part 2 (t₂, v₂)
Part 3 (t₃, v₃)	Temperature of Boiling water:		Total Volume of Flask:

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

Absolute Zero: _____________^oC

Question 5: Other

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
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Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted. While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
Major divisions are clear visually.
All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

No misspellings or typos are present.
Writer uses complete sentences.
Work is writer’s original text.
Grammar and punctuation are correct

Question 6: History

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

Question 7: Law

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus. You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

II.

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female. In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination. Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City. The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

III.

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram. Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

Question 8: Computer Science

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

Question 9: General

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

A B C

Adversity Beliefs About A Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events) (Our thoughts) (how we feel and behave)

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

Question 10: Other

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity. I am giving you quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons. Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image. Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core? (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms:

aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different. Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life? Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law. Take all this to the next step. Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

Part II

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

Question 11: Religious Studies

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

Question 12: Finance

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

	Year 1	Year 2	Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project:	€1,800,000	€2,900,000	€2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project:	€350,000	€390,000	€280,000

BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

Question 13: Business Finance

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

Question 14: Finance

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

Question 15: Engineering

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

Question 16: Mathematics

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

Question 17: Computer Science

Assignment 3 Question

Further Background

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

Complete the Following

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

Agile Methodologies

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

Plan and Monitor Project

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA	STANDARDS
CRITERIA	High Distinction	Distinction	Credit	Pass	Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why. 6 marks	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00)	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09)	Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49)	Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89)	Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)
Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project. Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration. Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration. 6 marks	Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (5.10-6.00)	Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (4.50-5.09)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. (3.90-4.49)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors. (3.00-3.89)	Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong. Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong. Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong. (0.00-2.99)
Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures) 2 Marks	Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49)	Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29)	Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation 1 Marks	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00)	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84)	Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74)	Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64)	Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

Question 18: Business

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

Question 19: General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

Question 20: General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

Question 21: General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

Question 22: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 23: Statistics

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor. The participants are divided by gender. Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

Question 24: Music

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

They taught themselves.

They learned in school.

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

None of the above

Machismo

It was difficult for them to learn the music

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

immigration

drug dealing

social diseases

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

Form

Texture

Pitch

Timbre

4.Rhythm

Volume and articulation of sounds

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

Frequency of the tone

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

Refers to the dancer him/herself

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

Body

Time

Space

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

. Idiophones

. Chordophones

1.Aerophones

Vibrations of air columns

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

Vibrations of strings

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

A piano solo

An opera

An open drum circle

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

the sung farewell in a corrido.

a statement of protest in popular song.

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

Diaspora

Essentialization

Stereotype

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

Triple meter

Compound meter

Huapango

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

Tecnobanda

Quebredita

Chicken scratch

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

Gloría Rios

Amparo Ochoa

Judith Reyes

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

Emilio Zapata

Jorge Negrete

Agustín Lara

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

Idiophone

Membranophone

Aerophone

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

Bajo sexto

Mandolin

Guitarrón

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

giving space to women composers.

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

Question 21 options:

Kunqu

Zarzuela

Opera

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

Zapateado

Ceili

Baile

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

May 5th.

April 15th.

September 16th.

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

Music, verse, and instrumentation

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

Music, verse, and choreography

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

Question 25 (1 point)

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

True

False

Question 26 (1 point)

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

True

False

Question 27 (1 point)

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

True

False

Question 28 (1 point)

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

True

False

Question 29 (1 point)

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

True

False

Question 30 (1 point)

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

True

False

Question 31 (1 point)

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

True

False

Question 32 (1 point)

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

True

False

Question 33 (1 point)

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

True

False

Question 34 (1 point)

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

True

False

Question 35 (1 point)

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

True

False

Question 36 (1 point)

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

True

False

Question 37 (1 point)

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

True

False

Question 38 (1 point)

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

True

False

Question 39 (1 point)

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

True

False

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Question 25: Business

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled. For example:

What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

Question 26: Business

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

Question 27: Business

For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Question 28: Economics

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

Question 10

0 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 1

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 3

10 out of 10 points

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

Question 29: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 30: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 31: Psychology

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

Grogginess

Blurred vision

Headaches

Dryness of the mouth

The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

transfer information into long-term memory.

remember significant events from the distant past.

perform basic mathematical calculations.

remember one’s own name.

One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

is generally reversible

is not reversible

involves a slow increase in symptoms

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

can result from short term use

can result from low doses

occurs in less than 2% of patients

may often be irreversible

Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

A familiar person is actually a double.

You are a famous or important person.

People are out to get you.

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

The rights of mentally ill individuals

The rights of society to be protected

both of these

neither of these

Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

NGRI

GBMI

both of these

neither of these

In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

schizotypal personality disorder

schizoaffective disorder

schizophreniform disorder

brief psychotic disorder

One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

both of these statements are correct

neither of these statements are correct

Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

children tend to outgrow ADHD

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

restricted behavior pattern

social impairment

ritualistic behavior

maintenance of sameness

Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

an anxiety disorder

a mood disorder

a split personality

obsessive-compulsive disorder

The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

careless mistakes

fidgeting

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

all of these

If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

head trauma

Parkinson’s disease

Huntington’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

Disorganized speech

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

psychological testing

mental status exam

autopsy

reported observations of the patient by family members

Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

hallucinations

delusions

both a and b

neither a nor b

Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

dementia

Alzheimer’s

delirium

amnesic disorder

In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

hallucinations.

delusions.

both of these

neither of these

One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

None of the above

Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

Which of the following statements is true?

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

None of these

The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

is based on well controlled studies

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

has no scientific evidence

Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

stimulant medication

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

over-involvement

criticism

emotional distance

Hostility

Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

have a genetic component

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

are unique to children

Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

at birth

by age one

by age three

by teen years

At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

jealous

erotomanic

somatic

persecutory

The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

variable home structure

unshared environment

environmental phenomenon

unique perceptive interpretation

Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

Question 32: Psychology

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

the development of primary sex characteristics

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

hypothalamus

pituitary gland

thyroid hormones

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

epiphyses.

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

estrogens

androgens

thyroid glands

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

infants.

toddlers.

elementary schoolchildren.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

greater in girls than boys.

about the same in both genders.

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

Lilly, someone who began dating early

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

body fat.

hormones.

diet and exercise.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

sex differences in body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

appearance of facial hair

growth of testes and scrotum

growth of penis

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

genetically inherited.

often determined culturally.

a major embarrassment for most boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

underarm hair.

menarche.

acne.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

androgens only; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; testes

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

regular ovulation

development of the nipples of the breasts

growth of pubic hair

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

nutritional deficiencies

excessive exercise

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

genetic factors.

environmental factors.

None of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

good nutrition

family conflict

peer pressure

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

her most stressful days of the month

days she feels most sexually aroused

her biological sister living in a different city

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

endocrine trend.

menarche trend.

secular trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

secular trend.

longitudinal trend.

physiologic trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

sanitation.

infectious diseases.

genetics.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

cross-sectional

cross-sequential

secular

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

cross-sectional study.

cross-sequential study.

correlational study.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
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Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

early maturation

stressful life events

the delayed phase preference

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
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Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

family relationships.

nutrition.

activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

longitudinal design.

adolescent growth spurt.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

mood fluctuations throughout the day

television, computers, and artificial light sources

early school starting times

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

school should be held year-round.

school should begin later in the morning.

school should begin earlier in the morning.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

less likely to be depressed.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

Alison, who is a late mature

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
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milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

when the girl reaches menarche early

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
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63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

do better in school.

be ostracized by their classmates.

get along with their parents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

greater popularity

a more positive self-concept

greater confidence in one’s self

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

experiment with drugs and alcohol

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

often expected to be more mature than they are.

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

more intellectual curiosity.

greater exploratory behavior.

higher levels of social initiative.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

less frequent temper tantrums

less depression

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
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69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

being less popular, especially with boys

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

have a more negative self-image.

succeed in school.

perceive themselves as attractive.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

the developmental readiness hypothesis

the maturational deviance hypothesis

genetic makeup

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
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Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

All of the above.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

early; late

late; late

early; early

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

delayed phase preference

secular trend

feedback loop

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

early-maturing Black girls

early-maturing White boys

early-maturing White girls

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

decreases from childhood to adolescence.

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

normal adolescent eating patterns.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

depression

alcohol and tobacco use

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder

obesity.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder.

deprivation syndrome.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

obesity nervosa.

purging.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

to be physically inactive.

suffer from chronic illness.

anorexia nervosa.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

chronic illness.

cardiovascular disease.

risky behaviors.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
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91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

suicide

homicide

cancer

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
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94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

Hispanic females

White females

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

whether biologic

Question 33: Education

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

Question 34: Health Care

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

Question 35: Health Care

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

Question 36: Health Care

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m² of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

Where Can I pay for College Algebra and Math Homework Help

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

Question 37: Other

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

· Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
· Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

· Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
· Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
· Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

· Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
· Custom Tab Stops
· Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

· Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
· Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

· Custom Margins
· WordArt
· Paragraph Shading
· Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
· Insert and format an image
· A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
· Columns

Submission:

· Print your document
· Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.

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Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score	Item	12	8	4	0
	Content	Content is well chosen and well written	Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content	Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written	Very little relevant content is included in the resume
	Overall Look	Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing	Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional	Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional	Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
	Header/Footer	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document.	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document	Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer	Content is not included in the header or footer
	Tab Stops	Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable	Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable	Custom tab stops make the content less readable	Custom tab stops are not applied
	Styles	Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing	Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Styles make the content less readable	Styles are not applied
	Font Choices	Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing	Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Font choices make the content less readable	Custom fonts and font styles are not included
	Paragraph and Line Spacing	Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing	Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable	Custom spacing makes the content less readable	Custom spacing is not included
	Other Features	Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism	Did not use any other features

Question 38: Biology

Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

________________________

In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

Which of the following statements are FALSE?
An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
BB X Bb
Bb x bb
BB X bb
Bb x Bb

Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
Because both parents passed on white alleles

In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
male with
male without
female with
female without

14 The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

What is the name of this graphic device?

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’. The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

Question 39: Biology

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

Why study primates?
What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
Why do primates have long growth and development?
What are the primate residence patterns?
What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
What is the importance of grooming?
How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
What is the basic primate social unit?
How do primates communicate?
What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
How do primates acquire food?
How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

- What is a hominin?
- Why did hominins emerge?
- Patchy Forest Hypothesis
- Provisioning Hypothesis
- What is bipedalism?
- What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?

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o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

What is honing and non-honing chewing?
What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

Homo hablis
o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

Homo naledi
Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

What are archaic Homo sapiens?
Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

Australopithecines (robust)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

Homo	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019


Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

Question 40: Finance

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

Question 41: Finance

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

Question 1: Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

Substance abuse

Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
Compensation
B. Denial
C. Suppression
D. Undoing
Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
Alcohol
B. Barbiturates
C. Heroin
D. Marijuana
Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
Aid in GABA inhibition.
B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
Diazepam
B. Carbamazepine
C. Clonidine
D. Methadone
Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
B. Recurrent flashback events
C. Psychological dependence after initial use
D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
C. Women working in careers outside the home
D. Women working in the home
Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
Depressant.
B. Hallucinogenic.
C. Stimulant.
D. Tranquilizing.
When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
Acetylcholine excess
B. Dopamine depletion
C. Serotonin inhibition
D. Norepinephrine rebound
Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
Caretaking.
B. Codependent.
C. Helpful.
D. Supportive.
During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
How long have you used substances?
B. How often do you use substances?
C. How do you get substances into your body?
D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
E. How much of each substance do you use?
F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
G. What substances do you use?

Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
Seizures
B. Shivering
C. Anxiety
D. Chest pain
Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
B. Control eating impulses
C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
D. Eat only three meals per day
A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
B. Succimer (Chemet)
C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Naloxone (Narcan)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
“I trust you not to purge.”
B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
“If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
C. The family is poor
D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
They tend to overprotect their children
B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
Remaining with the client and staying calm
B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
C. Discussing the future with the client
D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
B. Focus discussions on food and weight
C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
Carbonated beverages
B. Aftershave lotion
C. Toothpaste
D. Cheese
Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
B. Provide privacy during meals
C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
C. Use of drugs or alcohol
D. History of previous victimization
A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
Acetate accumulation
B. Thiamine deficiency
C. Triglyceride buildup.
D. A below-normal serum potassium level
A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
Client’s physical needs
B. Client’s safety needs
C. Client’s psychosocial needs
D. Client’s medical needs
The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
Accept responsibility for own behaviors
B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
A postoperative infection
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Acute sepsis.
D. Pneumonia.
Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Opiate withdrawal
D. Cocaine withdrawal
A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
D. Epinephrine.
A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
“I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
“Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
B. Depression and physical withdrawal
C. Silence and noncompliance
D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
“I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
Coronary artery spasm
B. Brady arrhythmias
C. Neurobehavioral deficits
D. Panic disorder
A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
Begin after seven (7) days
B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
Keeping the client restrained in bed
B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
D. One who talks about wanting to die
Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
Allergies
B. Cancer
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hepatitis A
Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
The student discusses conflicts over drug use
B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
Clozapine (Clozaril)
B. Thiothixene (Navane)
C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
Al-Anon
B. Make Today Count
C. Emotions Anonymous
D. Alcoholics Anonymous
A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
Antisocial personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D. Narcissistic personality disorder
Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
Has only moderate impulse control
B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
Manipulate her husband
B. Gain control of one part of her life
C. Commit suicide
D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
Psychotherapy
B. Total abstinence
C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
D. Aversion therap

Paranoid schizo, schizo

A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
an example of presenting reality.
B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
C. focusing on emotional content.
D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
“I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
D. go to their room until the voices go away.
A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
Assist the client with feeding.
B. Assist the client with showering.
C. Reassure the client about safety.
D. Encourage socialization with peers.
A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
has a more predictable onset of action.
B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
C. produces fewer drug interactions.
D. has a longer duration of action.
A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
“Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
Risk for violence toward self or others
B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
C. Ineffective family coping
D. Impaired verbal communication
The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
delusion.
B. looseness of association.
C. illusion.
D. hallucination.
Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C. haloperidol (Haldol)
D. midazolam (Versed)
A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
“I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
“This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
Tardive dyskinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Akathisia
What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B. haloperidol (Haldol)
C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
Aggressive behavior
B. Paranoid thoughts
C. Emotional affect
D. Independence needs
During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
“When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
a false belief about the functioning of the body.
B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
Agranulocytosis
B. Extrapyramidal effects
C. Anticholinergic effects
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
Helping the client to participate in social interactions
B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
Benztropine (Cogentin).
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
C. propranolol (Inderal).
D. haloperidol (Haldol).
A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

Question 2: Heath Care

A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

A) Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
B) Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
C) Encourage the client to go to bed early.
D) Keep the client busy during the day.

A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

A) Provide ample information.
B) Support the client when in delusion.
C) Reduce distracting stimuli.
D) Offer a large-muscle activity

Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

A) Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
B) Administer lithium before meals.
C) Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
D) Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

A) Reactive depression
B) Mania
C) Psychotic depression
D) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

A) Weight gain
B) Lack of energy
C) Memory loss
D) Increased sleep

What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Hyperalertness

Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

A) Euthymia
B) Dysthymia
C) Cyclothymia
D) Psychotic depression

Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

A) Psychosis
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Hypertensive crisis
D) Hallucinations

Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Acetylcholine

Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

A) Behavioral therapy
B) Supportive psychotherapy
C) Interpersonal psychotherapy
D) Cognitive therapy

The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

A) Major depression
B) Seasonal affective disorder
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Reactive depression

The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

A) The central nervous system
B) The autonomic nervous system
C) The limbic system
D) The peripheral nervous system

A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

A) Serotonin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dopamine
The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

A) Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

B) Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

C) Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

D) Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

A) “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
B) “How long have you been taking the medication?”
C) “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
D) “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

Page 6

A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
A) Fruit salad
B) Lobster
C) Pork medallions
D) Spinach and feta salad

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

A) Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
B) Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
C) Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
D) Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

A) Hypertension
B) Dizziness
C) Hallucinations
D) Sexual dysfunction

The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

A) “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
B) “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
C) “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
D) “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

A) Vagal nerve stimulation
B) Electroconvulsive therapy
C) Deep brain stimulation
D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Page 8

The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

A) Headache
B) Blurred vision
C) Hearing loss
D) Vertigo

Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

A) Do not leave any syringe unattended.
B) Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
C) View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

D) Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

A) “How are you currently feeling?”
B) “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
C) “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
D) “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

A) Hopelessness
B) Risk for Injury
C) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
D) Ineffective Coping

Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

A) Client appearance
B) Body language
C) Speech
D) Energy level
E) Work history

The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

A) Thyroid gland and thyroxin
B) Pineal gland and melatonin
C) Pancreas and insulin
D) Pituitary gland and oxytocin

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

A) September/October
B) February/March
C) April/May
D) December/January

When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

A) The disease remits as the client ages.
B) The disease increases as the client ages.
C) The depression increases as the client ages.
D) The manic phase increases as the client ages.

The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

A) A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
B) Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
C) Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
D) Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

A) Antidiabetics
B) Antihypertensives
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Antianginals

The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

A) Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

B) Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
C) Limit sodium intake daily.
D) Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
E) Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
F) Monitor intake and output

The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

A) Mania
B) Hypothyroidism
C) A pituitary deficiency
D) A cerebral vascular accident

When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

A) Cold and allergy medications
B) Antiulcer medications
C) Multivitamins
D) Laxatives

Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

A) Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
B) Install skylights.
C) Sleep in a darkened room.
D) Stay indoors during the winter time.

The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
A) Speaking in slow, brief sentences
B) Presenting the reality of the situation
C) Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
D) Being present without speaking

Question 3: Health Care

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

“I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
“I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
“I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
“I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

Bladder distention
Decreased blood pressure
Calf swelling
Diminished bowel sounds
Calf swelling

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
Remove the stockings at least once per shift
Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

Auscultate lung sounds
Measure urine output
Monitor blood pressure readings
Monitor serum electrolyte levels
Auscultate lung sounds

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

“I can concentrate best in the morning.”
“It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
“I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
“You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

Touch the face with a cotton ball
Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

Walking briskly
Riding a bicycle
Performing isometric exercises
Engaging in high-impact aerobics

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

Erythema on pressure points
Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
A bowel movement every other day

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Check the client for injuries
Move hazardous objects away from the client
Notify the provider
Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

“I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
“Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
“You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
“The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

“Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
“Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
“Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
“Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

Insert an implanted port
Close a laceration with sutures
Place an endotracheal tube
Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

Lacrimal apparatus
Pupil clarity
Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
Visual fields
Visual acuity

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

Airborne
Droplet
Contact
Protective environment

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
Draw up medications together in the same syringe
Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
Cleanse the wound from the center outward
Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

Purulent exudate
Warmth
Skin blanching
Bleeding

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

Critical pathway
Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
Transfer report
Medication administration record (MAR)

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

Protective environment
Airborne precautions
Droplet precaution
Contact precautions

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

Suction the client’s airway
Administer a bronchodilator
Increase the humidity in the client’s room
Assist the client to an upright position

A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

BUN 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

Bend at the waist
Keep his feet close together
Use his back muscles for lifting
Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

The medication
The route
The dose
The frequency

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

Tomato juice
Banana slices
Pancakes
Fried egg

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

“What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
“I blame medical science for not curing me.”
“Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
“Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask the client to consider a direct donation
Withhold the blood transfusion
Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

Role ambiguity
Sick role
Role overload
Role conflict

Role overload

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

“When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
“Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
“At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
“Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

Biofeedback
Aloe
Feverfew
Acupuncture

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

“I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
“I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
“I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
“I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

“We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
“This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
“After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
“We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Tell the client which food should eat first.
Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

“I’m having mild pain.”
“The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
“I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
“The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

“They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
“They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
“They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
“They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Neck vein distention
Urine specific gravity 1.010
Rapid heart rate
Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
Administer a pain medication to the client

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Place the client in a side-lying position
Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
Shave excess hair from the insertion site
Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

Side-lying
Supine
Semi-Fowler’s
Trendelenburg

Question 4: Health Care

1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Turn the patient every 2 hr
i) The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
b) Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
i) The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end of life
c) Hold oral care
i) The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
d) Increase the room’s temperature
i) Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

2) A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

a) Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
i) The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
b) Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
i) A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
c) Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
i) Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
d) Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
i) The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

3) A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Place the client in a side lying position
i) The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
b) Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
i) Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
c) Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
i) The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
d) Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
i) The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

4) A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

a) The client is receiving formula at room temperature
i) Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
b) The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
i) Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
c) The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
i) Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
d) The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
i) It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

5) A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

a) Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
i) A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
b) Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
i) And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
c) Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
i) The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
d) Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
i) The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

6) A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

a) Protective environment
i) Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
b) Airborne precautions
i) Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
c) Droplets precautions
i) Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
d) Contact precautions
i) Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

7) A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
i) The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
b) Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
i) Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
c) Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
i) In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
d) Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
i) Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

8) A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

a) Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
i) The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
b) Complete an incident report
i) The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
c) Consult the facility’s risk manager
i) The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
d) Notify the nursing manager
i) The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

9) A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

a) “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
i) As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
b) “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
i) Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
c) “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
i) Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
d) “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
i) Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

10) A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

a) “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
b) “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
c) “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
i) The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
d) “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
i) With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

11) A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

a) Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
i) The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
b) Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
i) Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
c) Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
i) Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
d) Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
i) An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

12) A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

a) “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
i) A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
b) “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
i) Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
c) “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
i) The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
d) “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
i) The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

13) A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
i) A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
b) Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
i) Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
c) Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
i) The nurse should not lock the remaining controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
d) Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
i) The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

14) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

a) “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
b) “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
i) This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
c) “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
d) “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
i) This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

15) A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

a) Insert the catheter at 45* angle
i) Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
b) Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
i) The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
c) Shave excess hair from the insertion site
i) The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
d) Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
i) The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

16) A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

a) Use a bed exit alarm system
i) The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
b) Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
i) Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
c) Apply one soft wrist restraint
i) Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
d) Dim the lights in the pt’s room
i) Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

17) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Assist the pt into a prone position
i) The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
b) Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
i) The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
c) Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
i) The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
d) Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
i) The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

18) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a) Numbness of the extremities
i) Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
b) Bradycardia
i) Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
c) Positive Chvostek’s sign
i) A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
d) Abdominal cramping
i) The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

19) A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

a) Crackles
i) Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
b) Rhonchi
i) Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
c) Friction rub
i) Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
d) Normal breath sounds
i) These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

20) A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a) “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
b) “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
c) “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
i) The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
d) “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

21) A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

a) Increase in hematocrit
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
b) Increase in respiratory rate
i) Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
c) Decrease in heart rate
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
d) Decrease in capillary refill time
i) Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

22) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

a) Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
i) The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
b) Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
i) The 1^staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
c) Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
i) If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
d) Administer a pain medication to the client
i) Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

23) A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

a) Role ambiguity
i) Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
b) Sick role
i) Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
c) Role overload
i) The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
d) Role conflict
i) Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

24) A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

a) Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
i) The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
b) Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
i) The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
c) Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
i) The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5^thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
d) Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
i) When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

25) A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

a) During the admission process
i) Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
b) As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
i) Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
c) During the initial team conference
i) Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
d) After consulting with the pt’s family
i) The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

26) A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a) “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
i) Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
b) “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
i) Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
c) “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
i) Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
d) “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
i) Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

27) A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

a) A lesion with uniform pigmentation
i) Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
b) New appearance of petechiae
i) Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
c) A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
i) An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
d) The presence of a papule
i) Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

28) A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Insert the needle at a 15* angle
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
b) Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
c) Administering the medication into the abdomen
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
d) Massage the site following the injection
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

29) A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

a) Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
i) The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
b) Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
i) Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO₂)
c) Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
i) The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
d) Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
i) Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

30) A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

a) Critical pathway
i) A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
b) Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
i) SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
c) Transfer report
i) The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
d) Medication administration record (MAR)
i) The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

31) A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
i) The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
b) Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
i) The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
c) Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
i) The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
d) Massage the injection site after administration
i) The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

32) A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

a) The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
i) The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
b) When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
i) To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
c) The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
i) The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
d) The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
i) The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

33) A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

a) “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
b) “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
i) Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
c) “Does the pain radiate?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
d) “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

34) A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

a) The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
i) The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
b) The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
i) The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
c) The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
i) The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
d) The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
i) The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

35) A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

a) Alginate
i) Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
b) Guaze
i) Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
c) Transparent
i) Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
d) Hydrocolloid
i) Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

36) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

a) Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
i) The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
b) Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
i) The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

Question 5: Health Care

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)   Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)   Tarsals
b)   Tibia
c)   Sphenoid
d)   Scapula
e)   Clavicle

3) Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5) Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

a
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

8) How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

10) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

12) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

a)   E
b)   F
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

14) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)   H
c)   I
d)   J
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

16) The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   G
e)   None of the selections are correct

18) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)   D
b)   E
c)   F
d)   I
e)   J

20) What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)   E
b)   B
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

22) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

24) Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

26) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

28) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

30) This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and C

34) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
a)   B
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

37) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

38)   Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

39) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)   Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

41) Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

a)   C
b)   D
c)   H
d)   I
e)   J

43) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   B
e)   F

45) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

47) This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

Question 6: Biology

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene. Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

Question 7: Chemistry

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

Question 8: Physics

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

Question 9: Psychology

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

What topic and research question did you pursue?
How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
What insights did you gather about your research question?
What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

Question 10: Statistics

Mid Semester Assignment

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

(20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a) What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b) All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c) The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

(14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

(20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

(a) Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b) What is the mean and variance of X?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d) If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e) The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

(37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

(a) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

(b) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

(c) Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

(d) Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

(e) Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

(i) If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

(9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

(a) What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

(b) What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

(c) If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

(d) When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

Question 11: Psychology

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

Question 12: Business

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

Question 13: Business

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

Question 14: Statistics

Assignment #4

A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

Assignment 3

1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
c. What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

3. Use the table below to answer the questions below:

Column A Z score	Column B Area Between the mean and Z	Column C Area beyond the Z score
.12	.0478	.4522
1.40	.4192	.0808
1.41	.4207	.0793
1.42	.4222	.0778
1.43	.4236	.0762
1.44	.4251	.0749
1.45	.4265	.0735
1.46	.4279	.0721
1.47	.4292	.0708
1.48	.4306	.0694
1.49	.4319	.0681

What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student	Year	Criminal Justice Major
1	Sophmore	Yes
2	Senior	No
3	Junior	Yes
4	Freshman	No
5	Freshman	Yes
6	Sophmore	Yes
7	Sophmore	Yes
8	Junior	No
9	Sophmore	Yes
10	Sophmore	No

What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
a sophomore?
a student majoring in sociology?
a freshman or a sophomore?
not a freshman?

What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

Question 15: Sociology

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

Question 16: History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17: General Question

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

Question 18: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 19: Mathematics

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

Question 20: Nursing

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

Question 21: Biology

Why Study Biology?
What is Life?
What About?
How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
Role of Experiments
Experimental Design
Experimental Problems
Higher Levels of Organization
Scientific Names
Categories of Biological Classification
Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
Fungi
Plants
Animals
Animal Cell Features
History of Microscopes & Cells
Cell Theory
Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
Components of Nucleus

Question 22: Accounting

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?

11d. Producer surplus is the

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?

17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:

27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?

29c. The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:

The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:

31c. Frictional unemployment is

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases

34a. Technological improvement causes

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

40d. An increase in the price level will

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?

Question 23: Accounting

1)   The financial system is primarily a means by which   1)
A)   funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)   the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)   business firms distribute their goods.
D)   money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)   Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?   2)
A)   Wells Fargo Bank   B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit   D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)   If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):   3)
A)   liability to both you and Intel.   B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.   D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?   4)
A)   corporate equities   B) life insurance
C) bank deposits   D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)   Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)   profitability   B) risk sharing   C) information   D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)   Economists define risk as
A)   the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)   the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)   the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Economists define liquidity as
A)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)   the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)   the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)   the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)   Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)   computer   B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine   D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)   reduces the difference between the return on three-‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)   relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)   guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)   eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13-‐14 Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)   Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)   bonds.   B) dividends.   C) stocks.   D) coupons.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)   Securitization is the process of   11)
A)   issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)   converting loans into securities.
C)   issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)   reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)   If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)   a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   Financial markets   13)
A)   act as go-‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)   channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)   channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)   generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is   14)
A)   a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)   a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)   an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)   Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)   Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)   George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)   Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)   Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)   Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)   primarily through government agencies.
B)   indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)   indirectly through financial markets.
D)   directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)   Bank of America
C)   NASDAQ
D)   Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   bank   B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund   D) insurance company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)   The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)   provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)   provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)   help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)   borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)   Financial intermediaries
A)   include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)   directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)   include banks and other depository institutions.
D)   are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)   A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)   in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)   for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)   in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)   for government securities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)   A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)   both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)   both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)   both involve the use of financial markets.
D)   both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.   B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.   D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)   Economists define money as 24)
A)   cash in circulation.
B)   bonds issued by large corporations.
C)   anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)   deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)   The Federal Reserve System   25)
A)   is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)   is the central bank of the United States.
C)   is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

D) is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)   Monetary policy refers to the government’s   26)
A)   plans for retiring the national debt.
B)   management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

C)   decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
D)   decisions on how much money to spend.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Diversification refers to the   27)
A)   difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)   difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)   difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)   splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)   The purpose of diversification is to
A)   increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)   reduce tax liability.
C)   reduce risk.
D)   reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)   The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)   savers to earn interest tax-‐free.
C)   savers to hold many assets.
D)   borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   Liquidity
A)   was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)   is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)   is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)   is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)   Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)   treasury bond   B) stock
C) money market mutual fund   D) house
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)   Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)   bonds issued by state governments   B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds   D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)   The financial system performs the role of communicating information by   33)
A)   incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)   constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)   providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)   constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)   The distinguishing feature of a well-‐functioning financial market is the
A)   continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)   increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)   continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)   incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)   In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)   the Federal Reserve System.
B)   Congress and the President acting together.
C)   the President.
D)   Congress.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

36)   In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)   Fannie Mae.
B)   Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)   the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)   the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)   A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)   large businesses.   B) federal government.
C) small businesses.   D) state governments.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)   What made the recession of 2007-‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)   it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)   the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)   the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)   the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)   All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)   there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)   large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)   the financial system was disrupted
D)   unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)   Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   the savings of relatives and friends
B)   their own savings
C)   global investors
D)   local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)   All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)   it involves small loans
B)   lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)   many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-‐income countries
D)   the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)   Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)   Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)   Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)   More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)   Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2   Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)   The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)   securitization   B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading   D) microlending
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)   Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)   securitization   B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting   D) lending to households
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)   All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)   coupon payments on bonds   B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks   D) fees on loans

46)   Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both   50)
A)   help regulate the banking system.
B)   reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)   sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)   directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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51)   All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   alt-‐A mortgages.
B)   mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)   adjustable-‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)   subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52) Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A) when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

C) when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)   All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   lenders loosened lending standards.
B)   borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)   mortgage-‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)   investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15-‐16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)   Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)   those with fixed-‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)   those with adjustable-‐rate mortgages
C)   subprime borrowers
D)   those with alt-‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)   The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed   55)
A)   the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)   the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

C) the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
D) the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)   Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?   56)
A)   J.P. Morgan   B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)   Alt-‐A borrowers were those who
A)   borrowed using “ʺinterest-‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)   did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)   chose adjustable-‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-‐rate mortgages.
D)   used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)   The financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)   American International Group (AIG)   B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)   At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)   declines in the value of mortgage-‐backed securities.
B)   holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)   defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)   not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

60)   Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:   60)
A)   alt A   B) securitized   C) adjustable   D) subprime
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)   The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to   61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)   allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)   increase the return to savers
D)   enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)   An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently   1) is
A)   they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)   they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)   the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)   they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)   By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)   goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)   individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)   individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)   individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)   The most important economic benefit from specialization is that it   3)
A)   eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)   makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)   makes barter possible.
D)   leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   When an economy relies on specialization,   4)
A)   each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)   the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)   each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)   Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must   5)
A)   have an extensive system of higher education.
B)   develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)   be heavily agricultural.
D)   be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)   Barter is   6)
A)   the basis for economic specialization.
B)   the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)   another name for money.
D)   an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Under a system of barter   7)

A)   currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)   goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)   each individual trades output directly with another.
D)   only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

8)   Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)   An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)   An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)   An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)   An individual deposits three twenty-‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   In a barter system individuals   9)
A)   will almost invariably specialize.
B)   find it impossible to specialize.
C)   find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)   must be entirely self-‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)   A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)   the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)   taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)   the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)   traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11) Under a barter system
A) each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

B) prices for goods are very stable.
D) each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12) How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)   poorly-‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)   the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)   the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)   the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card. Andy’ʹs problem illustrates the drawback to a barter system known as A) the specialization problem.
B)   the transactions problem.
C)   the many prices problem.
D)   the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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15)   Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)   Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)   The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)   Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)   Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)   Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)   government rationing
B)   barter
C)   money
D)   the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)   Marlboro cigarettes   B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins   D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)   Money eliminates the need for
A)   people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)   specialization.
C)   the market system.
D)   any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19)   Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that   19)
A)   the need for specialization is reduced.
B)   the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)   the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)   transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)   Commodity money can best be described as   20)
A)   standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)   a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21) Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A) the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)   The introduction of money to an economy results in:   22)
A)   a more efficient barter system   B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization   D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   Money can BEST be described as:   23)
A)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)   any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)   commodities that have intrinsic value
D)   paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24) Money is a medium of exchange in that 26)

A)   it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)   other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)   currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)   money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)   checks at commercial banks.
B)   currency.
C)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)   gold coins.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)   When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)   money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)   money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

29)   When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)   money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)   money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   An asset is
A)   the same thing as a liability.   B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

C) anything that never declines in value. D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)   The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money   31)
A)   may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)   serves as a medium of exchange.
C)   is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)   retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)   Wealth is
A)   equal to income.
B)   a flow variable.
C)   the sum of the value of assets.
D)   the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)   The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)   stock of all assets, money is an individual’s stock of currency and currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Question 24: Economics

Real wages in the United States in the long run:
A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
The long-run trend of real wages:
A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
C. has been upward.
D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
A. decreased by 2 percent.
B. increased by 2 percent.
C. increased by 3 percent.
D. increased by 8 percent.
Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
A. total output.
B. stock of capital.
C. output per worker.
D. international trade.
Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
A. the law of diminishing returns.
B. improvements in technology.
C. reductions in wage rates.
D. increases in the quantity of labor.

The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
D. the supply of labor has increased.
If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 3 percent.
C. fall by 3 percent.
D. rise by 11 percent.
If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 4 percent.
C. fall by 4 percent.
D. rise by 8 percent.
Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
Marginal resource cost refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
A. of diminishing returns.
B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
C. of declining MRC.
D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
A. perfectly inelastic.
B. perfectly elastic.
C. highly inelastic.
D. highly elastic.
A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
A. marginal revenue product is zero.
B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
C. marginal resource cost is zero.
D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
B. is a monopsonist.
C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
A. 2 units of labor.
B. 3 units of labor.
C. 4 units of labor.
D. 5 units of labor.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
A. $16.
B. $30.
C. $24.
D. $32.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $24.
D. $30.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
C. is a “wage taker.”
D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. has a principal-agent problem.
B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
A. $2.
B. $3.
C. $4.
D. $16.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $8.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
A. $8.
B. $52.
C. $2.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
A. pure monopolist.
B. discriminating monopolist.
C. monopolistic competitor.
D. pure competitor.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
A. 2 workers.
B. 3 workers.
C. 4 workers.
D. 5 workers.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
A. $16.
B. $24.
C. $32.
D. $48.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
A. $20.
B. $16.
C. $12.
D. $8.

Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
A. upsloping; horizontal
B. downsloping; vertical
C. vertical; upsloping
D. horizontal; upsloping

The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
A. monopsonist.
B. monopolist.
C. bilateral competitor.
D. bilateral monopolist.

In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
A. $9.
B. $10.
C. $15.
D. $21.

Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

In monopsony:
A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
B. the work force is highly mobile.
C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
A. worker’s wage rate.
B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

A monopsonistic employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
A. and employment will both be lower.
B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
D. and employment will both be higher.

“Player drafts” of professional athletes:
A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

Which of the following is not correct?
A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
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Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
A. $15.
B. $25.
C. $35.
D. $45.

Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
A. W4.
B. W3.
C. W2.
D. W1.

Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
C. industrial unions.
D. craft unions.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and E.
C. B and G.
D. B and F.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and F.
C. B and F.
D. A and F.
Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
A. D minus A
B. D
C. C
D. B

Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
A. D minus A
B. F
C. C
D. B

A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
A. inclusive unionism.
B. exclusive unionism.
C. bilateral monopoly.
D. monopsony.

Occupational licensing:
A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
A. wage rate will rise.
B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
B. employment may either increase or decrease.
C. employment will increase.
D. employment will decrease.

The electricians’ union is a good example of:
A. exclusive unionism.
B. an industrial union.
C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
D. inclusive unionism.

Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
A. increasing the supply of labor.
B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
C. decreasing the demand for labor.
D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
C. increase the demand for construction workers.
D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

Craft unions:
A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
A. be logically indeterminate.
B. be established at the level desired by the union.
C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
D. always be established at the competitive level.

If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
A. a cartel.
B. countervailing power.
C. a bilateral monopoly.
D. an internal labor market.

Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
D. not alter its level of employment.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
D. eight workers would be hired.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
A. below $7.
B. between $5 and $8.
C. above $5.
D. above $8.

Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
B. economy has high unemployment.
C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
B. reduces employment.
C. undermines incentives to work.
D. is deflationary.

Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
D. geographic immobilities.

Compensating differences in wages:
A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
A. differences in worker training and skills.
B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
C. geographic immobilities.
D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

The idea of compensating differences is used:
A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

Data on education and earnings reveal:
A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
B. no relationship between the two.
C. a positive relationship between the two.
D. a negative relationship between the two.

According to age-earnings data,
A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

Human capital is best defined as:
A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
D. the exchange of money for real assets.

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. discrimination

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographical immobility of workers
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. compensating wage differentials

Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographic immobility of workers
B. discrimination
C. noncompeting groups
D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
B. the neglecting or evading of work.
C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
A. equalizing differences.
B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
C. shirking.
D. the free-rider problem.

The idea of efficiency wages is that:
A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
D. increasing the supply of labor.

Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
A. royalties.
B. profit-sharing.
C. bonuses.
D. piece rates.

A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
D. reduce total compensation payments.

Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
C. offset monopsony.
D. address the principal-agent problem.

One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

Question25: Psychology

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes
c. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
d. the number of driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. cognitive perspective

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of a driving simulator
b. the use of nicotine
c. the driving skills of each driver
d. the number of collisions

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
b. educational knowledge
c. replication
d. publication

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Experimenters can justify the use of deception because ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is not that harmful
b. there is informed consent
c. it may be necessary for the experiment to work
d. research is more important than people

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
All of the following variables, except for __________ show a negative correlation.
Choose one answer.
a. school grades and IQ scores
b. men’s educational level and their income
c. height and weight
d. alcohol consumption and scores on a driving test

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
One of the reasons psychodynamic theories have persisted over the years is that they are ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. used by the majority of psychologists
b. difficult to scientifically test and, thus, difficult to disprove
c. based on facts
d. supported by significant scientific research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experiment
d. correlational studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
Choose one answer.
a. rare
b. common
c. expected
d. imperfect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. description
b. control
c. prediction
d. explanation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
b. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades
b. her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz
c. there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
d. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing behavior
b. controlling behavior
c. explaining behavior
d. predicting behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed but only when necessary.
b. There are rules that prevent the killing of animals.
c. There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals.
d. New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. volunteer bias
c. the principle of falsifiability
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
Freud stressed the importance of _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. adolescence
b. early adulthood
c. early childhood experiences
d. middle adulthood

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Question 33
Marks: 1
Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. emotion
b. keeping a closed mind
c. authority and expertise
d. reason and logical evaluation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient represents two things: ______________________ and ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a representative sample; strength
b. strength; direction of the relationship
c. the experimental group; control group
d. direction of the relationship; expectant functionality
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Dr. Mosher is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a ___________________ .
Choose one answer.
a. evolutionary psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist ect
c. cognitive psychologist
d. biopsychological psychologist
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the ______.
Choose one answer.
a. survey method
b. experimental method
c. naturalistic observation method
d. psychometric approach

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
The majority of psychologists work in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. colleges and universities
b. public school
c. government
d. private practice

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Sam described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. observer effect
b. restaurant effect
c. butterfly effect
d. parent effect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
________________ is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.
Choose one answer.
a. Statistics
b. The scientific method
c. The double-blind method
d. Checks and balances

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. a case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experimentation
d. participant observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly?
Choose one answer.
a. to comply with legal requirements
b. to allow researchers to replicate experiments
c. to identify all the extraneous variables
d. to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits
b. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness
c. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements
d. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
Choose one answer.
a. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
b. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid.
c. It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings.
d. It is basically the same process as objective introspection.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. educational knowledge
b. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
c. publication
d. replication

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1

All of the following are accurate statements regarding random assignment EXCEPT ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is a procedure in which each subject has the same possibility of being assigned to a given group
b. it is a procedure in which subjects are assigned to a positive correlation or a negative correlation condition
c. it is a procedure for assigning people to experimental and control groups
d. it is a procedure that allows individual characteristics to be roughly balanced between groups

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication.
b. A psychologist has no medical training.
c. A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school.
d. An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Rob was named to the first team all-American basketball team last year. However, he is academically ineligible to play this year due to failing several classes. As a result, he is ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. supporting the idea that negative stereotypes exist for collegiate student athletes that they are likely to perform poorly in academics compared to non-athletes
b. supporting the idea that professors are biased in grading assignments of collegiate student athletes
c. supporting the idea that athletes have higher GPAs than non-athletes
d. supporting the idea that collegiate student athletes are not as smart as non-athletes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is concerning critical thinking and astrology?
Choose one answer.
a. Research shows no connection between astrological signs and personality.
b. Astrology is based on stars and, therefore, it is scientific. ect
c. Astrology is used by a lot of people.
d. Although there are many skeptics, astrology has strong evidence suggesting it is a valid science.
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. confounding variable
b. independent variable
c. dependent variable
d. random variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Professor Holden gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question ly, her students need to remember that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated
b. given these variables, the correlation will be positive
c. given these variables, the correlation will be negative
d. a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. understanding
b. changing
c. describing
d. predicting

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
“There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Choose one answer.
a. Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested.
b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
c. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
d. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was developed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Sigmund Freud
d. William Tell

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities?
Choose one answer.
a. functionalist
b. behavioralist
c. psychodynamic
d. Gestaltist

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of collisions
b. the use of nicotine
c. the use of a driving simulator
d. the driving skills of each driver

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. biopsies of the brain of a cadaver
b. acute time of death in stroke patients
c. images of the living brain
d. select biopsied portions of a brain

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. cognitive perspective
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
The work of Freud was built around __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes
b. a method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior
c. a method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations
d. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing
b. understanding
c. predicting ect
d. changing
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. Gestalt
b. behavioral
c. humanistic
d. psychodynamic

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
The goals of psychology are to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. understand, compare, and analyze human behavior
b. explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind
c. describe, understand, predict, and control behavior
d. improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. logical and well thought out
b. focusing on opinion
c. giving it a lot of thought
d. seeing one side of an argument very clearly

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Wesleyan University researchers Jamison and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
b. a correlation between collegiate athletes exposure to the negative stereotypes, the better they performed on an intelligence test
c. collegiate student athletes performed better in the classroom if they were made aware of the impact of
negative stereotypes
d. professors often excuse absences by collegiate student athletes who miss class due to attending practices

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. replications
b. experimenter effects
c. volunteer biases
d. single-blind studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
b. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
A psychologist evaluated Tameka, an eight-year-old child who has experienced difficulty in school. The psychologist sent questionnaires to 100 teachers to determine if they had ever seen similar cases. Based on the teachers’ responses, the psychologist hypothesized that a particular diet might cause the learning problem. Following her tabulation of the responses, she designed a study that would tell her if diet were the actual cause. Which of the following lists, in order from first to last, the research methods this psychologist used?
Choose one answer.
a. experiment, case study, survey
b. correlation, case study, experiment
c. naturalistic observation, survey, experiment
d. case study, survey, experiment

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
An operational definition is ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships
b. a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested
c. the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation
d. the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
Choose one answer.
a. structuralism; observable behavior
b. psychoanalysis; unconscious conflict
c. Gestalt; whole
d. natural selection; functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the cigarette without nicotine is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the control group
b. the experimental group
c. the no-control group
d. the driving simulator

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. the principle of falsifiability
c. volunteer bias
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. explanation etc.
b. description
c. control
d. prediction
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. the science of behavior
b. the science of behavior and mental processes
c. the science of human behavior and mental processes
d. the science of mental processes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
Choose one answer.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. Gestalt

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. room crowding
c. eating McDonald’s food
d. observer effects

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning critical thinking is etc.?
Choose one answer.
a. There are few truths that need not be tested.
b. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
c. Some authorities should not be questioned.
d. All evidence is not equal in quality.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 26: Chemist

Homework 6

An ammonia water solution is added at a specified rate to a charge of a formaldehyde water solution. The reaction is instantaneous, that is, as soon as the ammonia and formaldehyde mix they react forming HMT and water; the reaction is also highly exothermic. A cooling jacket surrounds the reactor to cool the liquid.

Process Information:

Initial charge of formaldehyde water solution = 1000 kg

Mass fraction of formaldehyde in the original solution = 0.42

Initial temperature of formaldehyde water solution = 50 oC

Feed flow rate: ; Ammonia mass fraction in feed:

Feed temperature:

Heat capacity of reactants and products:

Heat of reaction (assumed constant):

Overall heat transfer coefficient:

By the way, the jacket volume (volume of liquid in the jacket) is 2 m3. Be careful with the units!

The feeding time is 130 minutes.

a) Assume that the cooling water flow rate is so high that its temperature due to heat transfer hardly increases that is, its exit temperature is also. Find the heat transfer area such that the reactor temperature just rises to by the end of the feeding time.
b) Assume now that the utility plant providing the cooling water is limited in its capacity, and we must remove the assumption of very high cooling flow and thus, constant cooling temperature. It is necessary to find out the water flow rate that experiences no more than increase in temperature, that is, the maximum exit water temperature cannot be over, and at the same time does not allow the reactor’s content to exceed by the end of the feeding time. Use the heat transfer area obtained in (a).

Question 27: Science

Midterm Exam

Return to Assessment List

Comment: Outstanding!

Part 1 of 1 –

100.0/ 100.0 Points

Question 1 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder is an example of a ____?

A.High explosive

B.Low explosive

C.Flammable liquid

D.Caustic explosive

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which explosive is considered to be the first composite explosive developed?

A.Gunpowder and/or Blackpowder

B.Poudre B

C.Greek Fire

D.Saltpeter

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An explosive is a substance capable of producing an explosion by its own ______.

A.Matter

B.Structure

C.Density

D.Energy

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Who introduced blackpowder to Europe?

A.Nobel

B.Munroe

C.Schwartz

D.Bacon

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder contains a __________ and a ___________ chemical mixture.

A.Fuel & oxidizer

B.Oxidizer & primer

C.Oxidizer & granulate

D.Fuel & nitrate compound

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

High explosives ____________ under the influence of shock.

A.Burn

B.Deflagrate

C.Fizzle

D.Detonate

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

According to Tenny Davis, this type of ordnance/munition contains 3 classes of explosives.

A.Dynamite

B.TNT

C.Blasting Cap

D.Complete round of ammunition

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This inventor discovered liquid nitroglycerine.

A.Ascanio Sobrero

B.Alfred Noble

C.Charles Munroe

D.Albert Schwartz

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This process greatly improved upon the quality and production efforts of Blackpowder.

A.Milling and/or corning

B.Sensitizing

C.Drying

D.Wetting

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

TNT is also known as _______?

A.Triluene

B.Trinitrotoluene

C.Tetracycaline

D.Tritium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

__________ was the 1st smokeless powder.

A.Ballistite

B.Poudre B

C.Gunpowder

D.Blackpowder

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which country developed the 1st explosive testing procedures to determine adequate safety handling precautions?

A.England

B.Sweden

C.Germany

D.China

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

___________ is a chemical reaction which takes place between a substance and oxygen.

A.Combustion

B.Equilibrium

C.Kinetics

D.Dissolution

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The combustion process of propellant and explosive substances can be defined as a _____________.

A.Self-sustaining reaction

B.Exothermic reaction

C.Rapid-oxidizing reaction

D.All of the above

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The propagation of any explosion reaction through a deflagration explosive is based on _____________.

A.Thermal reactions

B.Chemical kinetics

C.Thermo mechanics

D.Kinetic combustion

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosives can be classified by the ease with which they can be _______ and _________.

A.Composed and detonated

B.Composed and deflagrated

C.Detonated and dissolved

D.Ignited and subsequently exploded

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Incendiary compositions containing saltpeter, sulphur, and combustible materials over a century ago were used primarily for ______ and ______.

A.War and amusement

B.Amusement and theology

C.War and advanced space exploration

D.DNA testing and amusement

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Antimony is also known as ________.

A.Sb2S3 which is referred to as Antimony sulphide

B.Sb8h1

C.Saltpeter

D.Sulphur

Answer Key:

Question 19 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Permitted explosives are also known as ____________.

A.Primary explosives

B.Secondary explosives

C.Commercial explosives

D.Special explosives

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical explosive was the 1st compound to be globally accepted as a basic compound for military use.

A.Picric acid

B.Blasting gelatin

C.Blackpowder

D.Potassium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 21 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical code provides the makeup for TNT.

A.C7H5N3O6

B.C5H8N4O12

C.CH4N4O2

D.C3H6N6O6

Answer Key:

Question 22 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosions by type can be divided into which 3 groups?

A.Atomic, chemical, & kinetic

B.Kinetic, overpressure, & blastwave

C.Chemical, atomic, & mechamical

D.Atomic, chemical, & physical

Answer Key:

Question 23 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Atomic energy is approximately how many times greater than chemical energy?

A.A million to a billion

B.A hundred and to million

C.A hundred to a thousand

D.A thousand to a million

Answer Key:

Question 24 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An erupting volcano is an example of what type of explosion?

A.Physical

B.Chemical

C.Atomic

D.Kinetic

Answer Key:

Question 25 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Chemical explosions can be divided into how many groups?

A.2

B.1

C.3

D.4

Answer Key:

Question 28: Health Care

To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient’s elective surgery.

Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner’s initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient’s response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management. Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his follow-up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient’s recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient’s neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient’s parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can’t transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication’s side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient’s symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient’s spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient’s use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient’s chronological age.

An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient’s murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient’s family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

acknowledge the family’s anxiety.
arrange for a meeting with a social worker.
escort the family to a conference room.
gently direct the family to maintain composure.

An acute care nurse practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who is intubated for mechanical ventilation. The patient’s arterial blood gas results are: pH-7.35; PCO2-44 mm Hg; HCO3-22 mEq/L; and PO2-52 mm Hg. The current ventilator settings are: Assist control; Respiratory rate-14 breaths/min; Tidal volume (TV)-400 mL; Fraction of inspired O2-100%; and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP)-5 cm H2O. The nurse practitioner’s next action is to increase the:

peak pressure alarm to 40 mm Hg.
PEEP to 10 cm H2O.
respiratory rate to 18 breaths/min.
TV to 500 mL.
Question 29: Health Care

Care of Adults and Older Adults

The nursing unit manager on a medical teaching unit says that she would like a nurse to present a case study at interdisciplinary rounds on a patient who has compartment syndrome from a leg injury. This is the first patient you have cared for with this complication, and you have difficulty presenting your ideas in front of a group. What would you do?
Ask to attend the rounds to increase your understanding of the condition.
Research the condition and present what you have learned as well as your assessment findings and care measures.
Suggest that a more experienced nurse be selected to present this case study.
Approach the unit manager, explain your difficulty presenting in front of interdisciplinary team members, and ask to be excused from presenting.
Which of the following situations would indicate a professional boundary violation?
To empathize with a patient’s situation, sharing a personal experience with a patient that is very similar to the situation the patient is experiencing.
Reminding a patient who has dementia that certain sexual touch behaviours are not acceptable.
Being concerned about a patient’s welfare and seeking ways to protect the client’s best interests.
Having well-intentioned behaviours that detract from achievable health outcomes for patients.

An important component of professional practice is self-awareness. Why is self-awareness an important basis for nursing practice?
It may prevent biases and assumptions from affecting relationships.
It may allow the nurse to examine how biases and assumptions could interfere with therapeutic effectiveness.
It may enable the nurse to treat people from different cultural backgrounds according to the dominant beliefs of their culture.
It allows for mo re objectivity in facilitating the healing process.

Which of the following is a theoretical perspective that underlies group process and effectiveness?
The personality style theory acknowledges that the nature of individuals in a group helps us understand group dynamics and sources of conflict in the group.
When groups are formed to complete a task, the task functions need to be assigned to individuals to ensure effective group functioning.
Considering the roles and functions or groups would explain the developmental theory of groups.
For group effectiveness, a group needs to have homogeneity and common views and interests.

Which of the following group principles interfere with the effectiveness of a group?
Groups get to know each other while focusing on accomplishing tasks.
Groups set norms, cooperate, and monitor progress.
Groups encourage similarity of viewpoints and minimize differing opinions.
Groups deal with conflicts and allow members to express their differences.

Janna, age 27 years, a sing le mother, appreciates the help you have given her through the birth of her first child. When you conclude your last follow-up community visit, she expresses gratitude and suggests that you come back and visit her and the baby for regular outings. How would you respond?
Acknowledge your appreciation of this experience, explain that her nursing needs have been met, and tell her you have to leave to care for other new mot hers.
Thank her for the offer and tell her that you will have to give her a call to see whether you will be able to work in outings in your personal schedule.
Tell her this would be unprofessional.
Stale that you would really like to do this but you are too busy with your other commitments.

How would you respond to Mr. Carlson?
Remind him that he has signed the consent and that the surgery has been scheduled.
Discuss his fear s regarding the surgery and reassure him that many patients want to change their minds as the surgery draws near.
Explore reasons why he wishes to cancel the surgery, clarify his concerns, and reinforce that he can change his mind if he chooses.
Tell him not to make up his mind until the doctor comes to talk to him again.

Mr. Carlson makes the decision to sign himself out of the hospital. What actions would you take?
Ensure that he signs the release form and contact the doctor and the operating room staff.
Convince him 10 slay because heart surgery is very important.
Contact the nursing unit manager and document it in the chart.
Realistically explain the wail list for surgery and what could happen to him.

You are admitting Darlene, age 40 years, who has come in for regulation of her insulin dependent diabetes. When she is unpacking, you note that she has a bag with some of her used syringes with needles, which she places in the top drawer of her bedside table. What would you do?
Rein force that she should keep the syringes in her suitcase so there are no injuries to staff members.
Ask her why she is keeping the used syringes and ensure they are disposed of safely.
Ask her to glove and dispose of the contaminated syringes in the needle receptacle.
Report the incident to the diabetic care team so effective teaching can be done.

You are supervising a nursing student during a dressing change. When the student is removing the dressing from a leg ulcer, the patient begins to yell and swear at both of you. He threatens to throw the water pitcher if both of you don’t leave his room immediately. What should you do?
Leave the leg ulcer undressed and exit the room immediately.
Report the incident to the doctor and have him or her explain that this behaviour will not be tolerated.
Temporarily dress the wound, explain that verbal abuse is not tolerated, leave the room and return later to discuss alternate wound dressing strategies.
Firmly explain that that behaviour will not be tolerated, remove the water pitcher, and continue applying the dressing

You have completed your initial assessment and charting on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When you go back into the room 1 hour later, you note that his Status has changed: He has become confused end does not know where he is; is taking short, rapid breaths at 34 breaths/min; has to sit up to breathe; and has a bluish tinge around his lips. His oxygen saturation levels have gone from 94% to 84%. What would you document for the assessment?
Confused and disoriented X3, Dyspneic, Pallor of lips. Oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 84%.
Confused, Cheyne Stokes breathing at rate of 34/min. Positioned in Fowler’s position. Blue lips.
Disoriented, Tachypneic breathing at 34/min.Short of breath. Oxygen saturation at 84%.
Disoriented to place, tachypneic, shallow breathing at 34/min, orthopneic with circumoral cyanosis. Oxygen saturation at 84%.

Laurana, age 24 years, is being discharged today after the birth of her first baby. She is concerned about how she will manage at home and wonders how she can get her questions answered. What sources of information would you suggest?
Parents and friends.
A retired nurse in her neighborhood and web sites.
Community health clinics, telehealth, and hospital-based web site.
Pamphlets, library books, husband, parents, and in-laws.

What is the most important responsibility when inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
Accurate measurement and lubrication of the NG tube.
Asking the patient to breathe deeply when the tube is inserted past the nasopharynx.
Encouraging the patient to swallow sips of water to facilitate the insertion.
Checking the placement of the tube by aspiration and testing the pH of the contents.

Case Study: Mrs. April Hume, age 86 years, has been admitted with advanced liver metastasis after a mastectomy. She is very weak and is experiencing abdominal pain, has ascites, and is having difficulty breathing. She has requested that only supportive measures be given. Questions 14 and 15

Which would be priority nursing Interventions?
Addressing concerns she might have regarding death and dying, encouraging family support, and promoting her independence in meeting her needs.
Initiating oxygen therapy, Fowler’s positioning, pain control, and addressing her Questions and concerns.
Encouraging her to eat, mobilizing her every 2 hours, and having her perform deep breathing and coughing exercises every half hour.
Ensuring that she under stands that she is on a palliative care unit and explaining that only comfort measures she requests will be followed.

Mrs. Hume is anxious and concerned about her breathing difficulties. She states that she feels that breathing is taking so much energy that she is hardly able to eat. She is having difficulty mobilizing because of the pain and spends most of her time in bed. She says that her family is concerned about her lack of progress. What would you do?
Explore other ways to more effectively control her symptoms and advocate for her when approaching her family.
Rein force the meaning of supportive care to her family and restrict their visits so Mrs. Hume has more rest time.
Provide support for the family and encourage Mrs. Hume to become more actively involved in her care.
Determine where the patient is regarding the stages of dying and discuss the findings with her family.

If a mass casualty occurs near your acute care unit what would be included in a disaster preparedness plan?
An informal fan out to contact and inform all registered nurses about the disaster and elicit their help in assisting with the casualties.
A formal written plan of action for coordinating the response of the hospital staff and to designate how different areas will be used.
A designation of levels of casualty care and having nurses volunteer services at different levels.
A formal plan to ensure that medical supplies and medications are available for the great number of casualties.

Mrs. Jones recently had a cystectomy for bladder cancer. She has an ileal conduit (urostomy). What teaching would you include?
How to protect the skin, how to apply a dressing over the ostomy site, and the importance of reporting shreds of mucus in the urine as evidence of a urinary tract infection.
Stoma care and application of an ostomy pouch and drainage bag, increasing intake of fluids, observing amount and the colour of the urine.
Odour control, skin cleansing, and irrigation of the ostomy.
Signs of infections or skin breakdown, intermittent application of the appliance, and the importance of dietary restrictions.

Which of the following patients require increased sensory stimulation to prevent sensory deprivation?
A 24-year-old patient who has been admitted with an anxiety disorder and appears very agitated.
A 60-year-old patient, who is blind, reads books through use of Braille, listens to the radio, and regularly takes walks around the unit.
A 65-year-old patient, who has employment-induced presbycusis and advanced glaucoma.
An 84-year-old patient who has hemiparesis and ambulates with a walker.

Mrs. Starface, age 62 years, a First Nations patient, has been admitted with a chronic cough and progressive weight loss. She has a positive Mantoux test result, and is placed in isolation for suspected tuberculosis. What isolation precautions should the nurse take?
Have her wear a disposable mask when she is transported to the radiography department.
Wear a gown and gloves while in her isolation room.
Wear a disposable mask, gown, and gloves while giving care.
Discourage visitors from spending time with the patient to reduce transmission.

Mrs. Mames, age 27 years, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted in active labour. She states that her contractions are very intense and that she needs pain medication. What is the most important factor to assess before analgesic administration?
Her respiratory rate and fetal heart rate during contractions.
The frequency, duration, and intensity of her contractions.
The effectiveness of the coaching from her husband.
How well she manages through the next five contractions.

Mrs. Dravies, gravida 2, para 1, is admitted at 8 weeks gestation for a moderate amount of bleeding and abdominal cramps. A day later, the bleeding stops, and she is being discharged. What would you include in discharge teaching?
Ask her how badly she wants this baby and what she would be willing to do to ensure carrying the baby to term.
Ask her if she understands the reason for the cramping and bleeding and explain what precautions she could take to retain the pregnancy.
Explain that nurse aborts the fetus if it is abnormal and that bleeding and cramps may indicate an abnormality.
Ask her if she has been eating nutritious meals and restricting her activity during pregnancy.

Mr. Jones, age 64 years, had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday. How could you detect hypovolemic shock in this client?
Slow, irregular heart rate and pulse deficit.
Bounding pulse and hypotension.
Pallor, cold extremities, and tachycardia.
Dark red-tinged urine, shivering, and confusion.

Jennifer, age 16 years, is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery room after wiring of a fractured jaw. She is conscious. Her breathing has become noisy and shallow. Her oxygen saturation levels were at 98 and now are at 90. What actions would you take?
Position her in Sims position with her head to the side, give oxygen as ordered, and suction if needed.
Position her in Fowler’s position to assist her in breathing and give oxygen as ordered.
Insert an airway, suction her, and position her in the supine position.
Encourage her to breathe deeply, position her in the prone position, and give oxygen as ordered.

Daniel, age 16 years, had a cast applied after a fracture of the tibia. When teaching him before discharge about detecting signs of impaired circulation and nervous system functioning, which signs would indicate problems?
Pallor, coolness, and numbness of the toes.
Pain at the fracture site and a small amount of bleeding through the cast.
Inability to move the leg at the fracture site.
Slight edema of the foot and presence of pedal pulse.
Mr. Blair had a bowel resection 2 days ago and has had a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted. He is complaining of increased abdominal pain and nausea. What assessments or actions would be most appropriate?
Check the patency and amount of drainage from the NG tube.
Give him an analgesic and antiemetic as ordered.
Irrigate the NG tube with water and give an analgesic as ordered.
Explain that nausea is common because the NG tube irritates the gag reflex.
Mr. Evans has ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver. He is jaundiced and malnourished. Which of the following problems is not associated with cirrhosis of the liver?
Eupnea related to esophageal varices.
Potential for pressure ulcers related to malnourishment.
Concentrated, dark urine related to kidney excretion of bile byproducts.
Confusion and disorientation related to increase in circulating toxins.
Mrs. Chu had a cholecystectomy 2 days ago. Which signs would indicate a wound infection?
Serosanguineous drainage, temperature of 38-degree C, and abdominal pain.
Purulent drainage, pain in the mid incision, and temperature of 38.5-degree C.
Serous drainage, temperature of 38 degree C, and redness of the incision line.
Sanguinous drainage, temperature of 37.5 degree C, and bradycardia.

Dillon is 7 years old and weighs 30 kg. He has acute streptococcal pharyngitis. He is prescribed Keflex (cephalexin) 26.67 mg/kg q6h. How much would he receive in each dose?
150 mg.
200 mg.
400 mg.
None of the above.

Jane, age 18 years, has an asthma attack when in the hospital. She is in respiratory distress. What initial action would you take?
Position her in the supine position and administer oxygen and bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in the Sims position and gave bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and give bronchodilators as ordered.
Give bronchodilators and steroid medication as ordered.

Mrs. Jones, age 34 years, returns from the recovery room after bowel surgery. She is receiving morphine sulfate through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. When you assess her pain levels, her pain intensity is 8 of 10. When you ask her if she has been using the button to relieve her pain, she states, “I’m afraid that I’ll become addicted if I use too much morphine.” Which would be the best response to her concern?
“Morphine is not addicting in these circumstances.”
“You need to take the morphine to help you rest and recuperate from the surgery; you can deal with the addiction later.”
“When morphine is used to alleviate severe pain for 2 to 3 days, there is little likelihood of becoming addicted.”
“Have you had problems with drug addiction before?”

Mr. Keaton, age 65 years, has a plastic anemia and is going to receive a transfusion of packed blood cells. In addition to taking vital signs and verifying that packed blood cells are matched to the patient, what other assessments would you make?
Assess pain at the transfusion site and transfuse the packed blood cells over 5 hours to lessen reactions.
Check the patient regarding chills, low back pain, dyspnea, and skin itching during the transfusion.
Ask the patient about headaches, maintaining bed rest during the transfusion, and reducing intake of fluids to reduce the likelihood of fluid overload.
Transfuse the blood quickly for the first 15 minutes and then check for abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms.

Mrs. Kilts, age 84 years, has hypostatic pneumonia. When you complete your assessment, which of the following would indicate hypoxia?
Tachypnea, orthopnea, tachycardia, and circumoral cyanosis.
Hypotension, bradycardia, braypnea, and use of accessory muscles in the neck.
Eupnea, hypertension, bradycardia, and cyanosis of the nail beds.
Occasional productive cough, pursed-lip breathing, and nasal flaring.

When you enter the recreation room, you observe Sara Jones, age 20 years, pacing, speaking in a threatening manner, and appearing to defend herself. She has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. What approach would you take?
Approach her directly and tell her you are going to get her some medication to help her calm down.
Ignore her until she calms down and then approach her gently and ask what is wrong.
Ask her if she is hallucinating and whether she has taken her medication today,
Approach her calmly and find out what is causing her to be upset.

Mr. Pritchard, age 55 years, has been informed by his doctor that his pancreatic cancer is inoperable and that it has spread to his liver. When you enter the room, he states, “The doctor feels that things are hopeless. I hate this place. You’re all so useless. Just leave me alone.” What would be a therapeutic response?
“This is devastating news for you. I’ll let you have some time and will come back later.”
“You arc much too young to have inoperable cancer. How does your family fee l about this?”
“You’ll need to get over this. Your family needs you to get your affairs in order.”
“Why are you upset with us? You need some time to calm down.”

Mr. Corwin, age 74 years, has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) after a right hip fracture. What are important priorities on the first postoperative day?
Supporting the leg to maintain adduction, ensuring adequate pain control, and maintaining bed rest.
Assessing the neurovascular status in the right leg; providing pa in control; and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises, position changes, and early ambulation.
Assessing for skin integrity, enhancing his nutritional status, and restricting his movement and activity in bed.
Preventing confusion and disorientation, restricting analgesics, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing.

Mr. Balm, age 70 years, comes into the emergency department with acute onset of severe chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety. His respirations are 28 breaths/min, and he has circumoral cyanosis with an oxygen saturation of 84%.

What would your immediate actions be?

Gather information regarding the nature and intensity of the chest pain.
Place him in Fowler’s position, Initiate oxygen therapy, and gel an analgesic ordered.
Keep him in the supine position, encourage deep breathing, and request an ECG.
Get an order for an analgesic, position him in the side-lying position, and encourage pursed- lip breathing.

During a gymnastics practice, 18-year-old Tracey falls and fractures her right tibia. The doctor asks to be notified if anterior compartment syndrome presents in the right extremity. What signs and symptoms would indicate this syndrome?
Edema of the right foot, loss of sensation in the right leg, and hypotension.
Edema of the right foot, redness on the skin surface or the calf, and poor capillary refill in the toenails.
Severe pain aggravated by plantarflexion, tense and tender muscles in the lateral right calf, and paresthesia.
Painful contracture of the calf muscles, inability to extend the leg, and redness arid warmth in the calf region.

Mr. Harris, age 65 years, had a n abdominal perineal resection for cancer of the rectum. He is receiving morphine via a patient-control analgesia (PCA) pump. What would your priority assessment be regarding the analgesia?
The rate and depth of respiration.
The pulse rate and blood pres sure
The effectiveness of pain control
The accuracy of the programming on the pump.

You are caring for Shauna, an 18- year-old gymnast who has been admitted for investigation of seizures. She weighs 50 kg. For two meals, you observe that she eats a very small amount of salad and skim milk. What approach would you take?
Tell her you will have a dietician come to assess her eating habits.
Ask her about her usual eating patterns and reason for her low intake.
In form the doctor regarding her poor intake and suggest an appetite stimulant.
Inform her that it she isn’t eating foods, a nasogastric feeding tube will have to be inserted.

When you complete the initial postoperative assessment for Mr. Violini, age 55 years, you note that his IV is in fusing at 200 cc/hr. You check the order, which reads: “IV of 1000 cc D5S to infuse over 8 hours.” What actions would you lake?
Continue infusing the IV at 200 cc/hr and observe his hydration status.
Change the rate to 125 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Reduce the rate to 150 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Tell him that he should not adjust the flow clamp on the IV.

Dana Evans, age 19 years, has been admitted after an asthma attack. When you complete your assessment, you observe that she is anxious, has audible wheezing, and is using her neck muscles when breathing. What would you do?
Position her in orthopneic position, encourage coughing exercises, and ask her to calm down.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen, and give her the ordered pm lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg.
Encourage her to lie in a semi-prone position, perform diaphragmatic breathing, and give her the ordered pm beclomethasone dipropionate (Beclovent) inhaler.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen as ordered, and give her the ordered pm med salbutamol (ventolin) by inhaler.

Mr. Lexus, age 33 years, comes into the emergency department with severe back pain radiating to the left lower groin region. The doctor suspects renal calculi and orders meperidine HCI (Demerol) 100 mg 1M q3-4h pm. One hour after Mr. Lexus receives the medication, he states that the pain is still at 8 of 10. What actions would you take?
Explain that the medication takes longer than 1 hour to exert its effects.
Tell him he will have to wait for 2 more hours before he can get his next injection.
Contact the doctor, explain that the pain is still at 8 of 10, and request a higher dosage.
Ask Mr. Lexus if he has routinely taken pain killers or street drugs.

Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using critical thinking skills?
The nurse follows the routine of the unit and encourages others to do the same.
The nurse asks another nurse to outline the steps in performing a wound packing.
The nurse does not know the answer and checks to find the answer on the unit or in the library.
The nurse asks the patient about the symptoms she is experiencing an d lists them on the care plan.

Which is the most important step in the nursing process?
The assessment step because it involves collecting, organizing, and validating information that is used for the remaining steps.
The nursing diagnosis step because it involves identifying the problems.
The planning steps because it identifies ways to reduce, prevent and resolve problems.
The implementation step because it ensures that interventions are effective.

When identifying the nursing diagnosis or patient problems, which statement is most accurate?
The nursing diagnosis helps to clarify the medical diagnosis and the problems that result from this diagnosis.
Critical thinking skills are used to interpret, analyze, and duster the assessment data to determine the problems.
The nursing diagnosis focuses on ways to prevent, reduce, or resolve the identified problems.
The identification of patient problems provides the means of measuring the degree to which the goals are met.

When performing a psychosocial assessment, which areas should be assessed?
Breathing patterns, circulation patterns, and metabolic needs.
Health ha bits, family, and social and sexual pattern).
General survey, movement, eating habits, and activities of daily living.
Rest and sleep patterns, activity and exercise patterns, and coping and stress tolerance.

What is the primary purpose of conducting a health history?
Identify the risk factors and how to promote health for the client.
Obtain information to identify the level of health of the client and his or her past illnesses.
Examine the chief complaint of the client and related factors.
Provide for health teaching opportunities.
When completing the physical assessment of the abdomen, which is the first skill used in the assessment?

Which of the following statements heard during shift report identifies an important priority for action?
A patient is reluctant to ambulate on the evening of surgery.
A postoperative patient’s pulse has been increasing, and his blood pressure is decreasing.
A postoperative patient is drowsy and slow to respond when the analgesic is at its maximal effect.
A postoperative patient has not voided for 5 hours alter surgery.

Upon completion of teaching related to Lanoxin (digoxin), a client is able to explain the effects of the medication and when not take it and can also identify the radial pulse site. What would this indicate?
An accurate assessment of her teaching needs.
An evaluation of psychomotor and cognitive learning.
A high degree of motivation.
An independent learner.

When teaching a group of middle-aged women, what would you include when discussing primary prevention?
Prevention of anemia and type 1 diabetes.
Prevention of ulcers and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fall prevention and maintaining joint mobility.
Prevention of osteoporosis and the importance of regular breast self-examinations and regular Pap smears.

A community health nurse is planning to address the needs of elderly adults living in their homes. What primary area s should be included in this discussion?
Importance of exercise, balanced nutrition and hydration, and safety and fall prevention.
Prevention of joint deterioration and mobility problems.
Prevention of hearing and visual deficits.
Importance of frequent doctor visits and access to health care resources.

Which of the following legal definitions is true?
Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect victims in emergency situations.
Negligence is intentional failure to act responsibly or deliberate omission of a professional act.
Malpractice is failure to perform professional duties that result in patient injury.
Scope of practice involves general guidelines that define nursing.

A nurse has delegated the taking of vital signs for an unregulated health care provider. When a client’s blood pressure is reported as high, the registered nurse rechecks the blood, pressure and other vital signs for the patient. What would these actions be called?
Obligation to the patient.
Reversing of delegation.
Empowerment of the patient.
Accountability for care.

When suctioning a tracheotomy, which actions are correct?
Insert the suction catheter as far as patient can tolerate and suction for 25 seconds.
Oxygenate the patient and then suction for 10 to 15 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
Suction every 15minutes to prevent secretions, from accumulating.
Commence suctioning upon insertion of the catheter and continue for 5 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. He is sent to the hospital unit after emergency chest tube insertion. What would constitute an emergency situation with the chest tube?
Bubbling of air in the underwater seal chamber.
Improper suction setting on the wall suction.
Disconnection of the connecting tubing from the chest tube.
Drainage of bloody material into the drainage chamber.

A postoperative patient after bowel surgery has orders for DAT (diet as tolerated). What assessments would indicate return of peristalsis?
Distended abdomen and tympany on percussion.
Soft abdomen and absence of bowel sounds on auscultation.
Intermittent cramping, abdominal pain and bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
Nausea, vomiting, and pain on palpation.

A patient has a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine after a bowel resection. What are the nursing responsibilities after the client has self-administered a bolus of medication?
Have the client mobilize to reduce the harmful effects of morphine.
Ensure that the client understands that a bolus may take up to 15 minute to alleviate the pain.
Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to lessen respiratory depression.
Reduce the amount of IV pain medication being administered on a regular basis.

Your assigned patient has been requesting a stronger pain medication. In response, the doctor has ordered morphine combined with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. How would you explain the effectiveness of these two medications?
Combining these two drugs will increase pain relief without the increased side effects of increasing the morphine dose.
The two drugs are antagonistic, so they will relieve the pain but will counteract the side effects.
Combining the two drugs will lessen the incidence of addiction.
The NSAID will relieve muscle pain; the morphine will act centrally on the central nervous system to relieve pain.

In addition to the pain medication, what other measures help promote comfort and alleviate pain?
Encouraging ambulation and vigorous rubbing of the inflamed tissues.
Gentle massage of the area, warm and cold applications, guided imagery, and TENS.
Prolonged heat applications followed by prolonged cold application to the area
Encouraging tensing of muscles and performing distraction exercises.

Which of the following would be indicators of severe hypoxia?
Generalized pallor and eupnea.
Circumoral cyanosis and Pa02 of 70 mm Hg.
Low oxygen saturation levels of 95%.
Increased anxiety and drowsiness.
What nursing measures are important when a Foley retention catheter has been inserted?
The Foley catheter should be left unsecured to prevent urethral irritation.
Urine samples should be obtained by disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag.
The patient should limit fluid intake to keep the catheter patent.
Reflux of urine from the tubing to the bladder should be prevented.

You read through your assigned patient’s chart. The history states: “Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; reduced CSWM in left leg.” What do these medical history terms and abbreviations indicate.’?
The patient is experiencing intermittent shortness of breath, is unable to breathe unless in a supine position, and has impaired venous return in the left leg.
The patient is experiencing painful breathing and shortness of breath with exertion and has impaired arterial flow to the left leg.
The patient is experiencing periods of severe shortness of breath at night and impaired circulation and sensory and motor functioning in the left leg.
The patient has reduced breathing capacity, loss of breathing reserve, and impaired motor movement of the left leg.

Which sexuality alterations might emerge after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
The patient may be concerned that a heart attack may occur during orgasm.
Emotional concerns may interfere with the phase of resolution.
The arousal phase may he affected by personal concerns.
Sexual dysfunction may present because of reduced ventricular contractions.

Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate impaired arterial circulation in the lower extremities?
Capillary refill in the toenails with in 2 seconds.
Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse; coolness and decreased sensation in the feet.
Edema and coolness in the ankles and feet.
Redness, inflammation, and sharp pain with calf muscle con traction.

Which of the following isolation precautions would be relevant for the communicable illness identified?
Airborne precautions are indicated for varicella (chickenpox) and involve wearing a mask when in the room.
Gloves, a mask, and a gown are worn when changing a wound dressing infected with Staphylococcus
If a patient is infected with VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus), vital signs equipment is brought into the room every time it is needed.
Specimens obtained from a contaminated wound would be transferred directly to the laboratory without special precautions.

You are developing a care plan for a patient with tuberculosis. What isolation precautions would you take?
Use a special mask to prevent inhaling infected airborne droplets.
Wear a mask, gown, and gloves when providing care.
Wear c, gown and gloves when in contact with the patient.
Prevent visitors from visiting to reduce the possibility of transmission.

You arc assessing a patient who has been in a car accident. He complains about sore ribs and painful breathing on the left side of his chest cage. What assessment findings would alert you to a pneumothorax?
Pain on exhalation; fatigue.
Dyspnea; decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
Bradycardia and hypertension.
Tachypnea and hyperventilation.

A patient has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Suddenly, the patient develops chest pain and severe dyspnea. He looks anxious and is very apprehensive. What actions would you take?
Position him in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and call the physician.
Auscultate for abnormal breath sounds and encourage deep breathing.
Encourage pursed- lip breathing and coughing exercises.
Ambulate the patient, encourage deep breaths, and take the apical pulse.
Your patient has a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following neurologic deficits may present after a CVA?
Visual field deficits such as homonymous hemianopsia.
Emotional changes such as lack of emotional response and enhanced coping.
Motor deficits such as paresthesia with numbness and tingling.
Verbal deficits such as dysphagia and memory loss.

Which of the following assessment findings are associated with cholelithiasis?
Associated risk factors include being male and athletic.
Jaundice is seen if the calculus lodges in the common bile duct.
Biliary colic attacks occur when there is stone formation in the gallbladder.
Symptoms of pain include steady LUQ pain radiating to the left scapula.
Which of the following assessment findings are seen in patients with cancer of the head of the pancreas?
Early onset of pain.
Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
Early onset of jaundice and pruritus.
Presence of steatorrhea, melena stools, and dilute urine.

A client presents with cirrhosis of the liver secondary to alcohol abuse. What assessment findings would indicate portal hypertension?
Ascites and hematemesis.
Pulmonary edema.
Absence of jugular vein distension.
Cramps and watery diarrhea.

Alter a total hip arthroplasty, what are the most important precautions to prevent dislocation?
Limit movement s resulting in internal rotation and adduction of the affected hip.
Use a pillow under the knees to prevent hip flexion.
Reduce extension and hyperextension of the affected hip.
Use toile t seats to prevent circumduction of the hip joint.
Without hand washing between activities, a nurse makes an occupied bed and then assists another patient with meal preparation. Considering the chain of infection, which statement is true?
The new portal of entry of microorganisms could be through the mouth.
The mode of transmission is through direct contact.
Microorganisms from the bed making would be spread by direct contact.
An epidemic infect ion would occur if pathogens from the health care agency caused an illness.
What are characteristics of effective decision making strategies in a nurse?
Reviewing the chart and duplicating the actions of previous nurses.
Gathering assessment data and analyzing and identifying-priority problems.
Independently developing a plan of care based on the nurse’s workload.
Willingness to follow the doctor’s orders and directions without questioning his or her rationale.
What are important considerations when assessing and caring for a patient with pyrexia?
The patient usually experiences a decrease in vital signs.
The patient usually exhibits flushing of the skin and jaundice.
The patient may experience dehydration and convulsions from a high temperature.
The patient may experience increased urine output and dilute urine.
Which of the following statements is true regarding wound healing when an infection is present?
The infected portion of the wound will likely heal by primary intention.
The inflammatory phase of healing will be shortened.
The proliferative or regeneration phase will be delayed and prolonged.
There will be less for mat ion of granulation tissue because of the infection,

Which of the following assessment factors would indicate a need for oral pharyngeal suctioning?
Thin sputum and a weak cough.
Breathing rate of 36 breaths/min; noisy, gurgling respirations.
Auscultation of fluid (rales and rhonchi) in the lower lobes of the lungs.
Oxygen saturation levels of 95%; use of diaphragmatic breathing.

Which of the following is an important consideration when performing oral-pharyngeal suctioning?
Oxygen provided before suctioning limits the effectiveness of the suction.
The nurse should only suction when the patient agrees to the procedure.
Fluid intake should be limited to reduce the secretions produced.
The duration of each suctioning episode should be IO to 15 seconds.
What important postoperative care measures related to care of chest tubes should be done the day after a lobectomy?
Disconnect the tubing to empty and measure drainage at the end of each shift.
Frequently check the dressing and chest tube for drainage.
Ensure that all connections arc securely taped.
Position the patient in the prone or supine position to permit optimal drainage.

Nutrients are important for wound healing. Which of the following is true regarding the role of specific nutrients in healing?
Vitamin C is needed for building capillaries and fibroblasts in the inflammatory phase.
Essential amino acids art’ needed to ensure building blocks are present for building or proliferative phase.
Nonessential fatty acids to provide a good supply of glucose for energy.
Vitamin K is needed for the convalescent phase to help restore energy and nutrient needs.
Mr. John G. has a history of cramps and has been experiencing diarrhea for the past 2 days. His urine is concentrated. You would assess for:
Dehydration by checking tissue turgor and checking mucous membranes.
Impaction as a result of the surgery.
Signs of kidney suppression because of the concentrated urine.
Absence of bowel sounds in the abdomen.

What assessment findings would indicate circulatory overload from too rapid an IV in fusion?
Decreased pulse, decreased blood pressure, and jugular vein distension.
Increased pulse, increased respirations, and jugular vein distension.
Headache, paleness, and hypertension.
Increased temperature, peripheral edema, and decreased pulse rate.

Which is the priority system to assess when a patient has severe hypothyroidism?
Respiratory system.
Heart and circulation.
Neuro logic system.
Integumentary system.
A patient with diabetes is being tested for glvcosylated hemoglobin. How would you explain the reason for this diagnostic test?
It determines the fasting blood glucose level.
It determines the average blood glucose level in the previous; months.
It determines the ratio of glucose to hemoglobin.
It is used to identify a reduction in hemoglobin because of high glucose levels.

Case Study: Mr. Evan Jenkins, age 65 years, has had type 2 diabetes for 20 years and has been admitted to the hospital with chronic renal failure. Questions 87 to 90

When completing the initial assessment, which signs would indicate circulatory overload?
Increased blood pressure, apprehension, and shock.
Weigh t gain, coughing of frothy sputum, and jugular vein distension.
Cool, dry skin; gastric distension; and pleural edema.
Apprehension, poor tissue turgor, and bradycardia.
Which of the following statements is true regarding end-stage renal failure?
A common cause of renal failure is pyelonephritis.
It results in an increase in erythropoietin, leading to chronic fatigue.
It results in a decrease in creatinine and blood urea nitrogen.
It is characterized by fluid volume excess, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia.
What are important nursing care measures for a patient with chronic renal failure?
Prepare the client for temporary peritoneal dialysis or hemodialvsis.
Restrict sodium and potassium; restrict fluids as ordered.
Provide a diet high in protein; restrict fluids as ordered.
Monitor for hypotension and maintain accurate intake and output records.
Mr. Jenkins makes this comment just before his hemodialysis treatment: “What have I got to live for? I’d just like this to be over.” How would you interpret these comments?
This indicates feelings of depression associated with a long –term, incurable disease.
This response will be temporary, and he will feel much better after his hemodialysis is initiated.
His family is no t providing the support he needs at this time.
This is an unusual response and indicates that his cognitive abilities have become impaired by the disease.
A client has just been transferred to the postanesthesia recovery room. What are the most important initial assessments that need to be completed?
Skin color, warmth of extremities, and mental status assessment.

Question 30: Health Care

NSG 4029 WEEK 5 KNOWLEDGE CHECK
1. Technology competence is:

The goals of nursing informatics are effectiveness, efficiency and safety.
An informatics nurse violates a patient’s legal right to privacy and confidentiality by:
Which fields in nursing were affected by the information technology?

Question 31: Law

The purpose of this paper is to enable you to complete an original research project on a relevant topic in the administration of justice. Drawing on the extant literature and using your own unique research frame, you will develop and complete a research paper that answers your unique questions (your electives classes in AJ will help) about an issue in the administration of justice. While your own interests will guide your research, it is crucial to use the literature available to develop an informed and professional research paper.

Paper Requirements: After your topic is selected and approved. (1) Abstract: should include your research questions, the theory (AJ 100 or 105 will help) or theories that inform your research, the methods of data collection and analysis (see AJ 301/2) to be used, and what you believe you will find as a result of your study (see course objectives). (2) BODY: After you have identified a specific topic, you will then develop your own unique area of discussion and analysis: introduction, literature review, theory and methods, and possible finding (your previous courses in AJ will help such as AJ 100,105, 211,240, etc.). (3) Citations: You must use the APA guide for identifying authors cited in the text as well as the bibliography listing all sources used in alphabetical order. If you are not familiar with APA, there are reference guides in the library as well as on-line sources. (4) Placement of graphs, figures, or tables: If you use graphs, figures, or tables in your paper, I would prefer that you note their location in the text, [TABLE 1 HERE], and compile all tables at the end of the paper. This is easier for both the writer and the reader. (5) Format: Papers must be type, double spaced, with one-inch side, top, and bottom margins and use a 12-point font.. The minimum page requirement for the paper is 12 pages (NOTE: cover, reference, graphs, figures and, tables pages will not be counted as part of the 12 pages). While I do not specify a maximum length, I am anticipating that most people will submit papers 12 pages long.

Question 32: Business

Explain what happens to the 95 % confidence interval as the sample size increases. (2 marks)
Explain what happens to the width of the confidence interval for a 99% interval versus a 95%. (2 marks)

Q2. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we do not know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) or the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm and the sample standard deviation as 25cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval for the population mean (4 marks)
Compare your interval here and last week – which is larger and why? (2 marks)

To answer ii question, you need to answer the question below.

Tutorial covering Lecture Topic 6: Part 1 Confidence intervals. (answer this in different page)

Q3. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) is 25, but we do not know the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval around the sample mean. (3 marks)
In your answer to i) will the specific confidence interval you have derived contain the population mean? Explain carefully. (2 marks)

Question 33: Business

INDIVIDUAL LEARNING PROJECT INSTRUCTIONS The Individual Learning Project is an opportunity for you to evaluate yourself and your role within your organization by completing 10 self-assessment activities. You will begin the paper by completing a modified Abstract that details a past, present, or future job you will use as a basis for analyzing the self-assessment results. You will then write a full-page analysis of each assessment and combine all 10 together according to the provided format for submission at the end of the course. Each self-assessment must have at least 1 reference from your textbook to support your analysis and be cited according to current APA. You will find the Self-Assessment Activities in Connect. These are the activities you must complete. They are found at the end of the indicated chapter. CHAPTER SELF-ASSESSMENT ACTIVITY 2 Are You Introverted or Extraverted? 4 How Do You Cope With Stressful Situations? 5 How Strong Are Your Growth Needs? 7 What is your Preferred Decision-Making Style? 8 What Team Roles Do You Prefer? 9 Are You An Active Listener? 10 What’s Your Approach to Influencing Co-Workers? 11 What’s Your Preferred Conflict Handling Style? 12 Do Leaders Make a Difference? 13 What Organizational Structure Do You Prefer? After completing an assessment, analyze it by using the scoring key located in Connect and write an analysis with the following components: Title of the self-assessment (centered at the top of the page) 1. Purpose of assessment 2. Your actual score 3. The interpretation of your score, using the assessment feedback 4. How you can use the results of this self-assessment to improve your effectiveness and/or efficiency in an organization Page and Paper Format: • Components 1–3 above must not exceed 1/4 of the space on the page. • Component 4 above must occupy the remaining 3/4 of the space on the page. • All pages must be double-spaced with 1” margins (right, left, top, bottom) and left-justified. • Font must be Times New Roman and 12-pt size. • Titles for each assessment must be centered according to current APA format. • The first line of paragraphs must be indented 5 spaces. • For the submitted collection of analyses, attach a standard cover page like the sample document accompanying these instructions. Your submissions must also include a reference page. • Submit the collection as a Microsoft Word document. • Page headers must include short title and pagination (use Microsoft Word header function) with standard numbering according to APA requirements

Question 34: English

Notes on plagiarism:

According to the Arab Open University By-laws, “the following acts represent cases of cheating and plagiarism:

Verbatim copying of printed material and submitting them without proper academic acknowledgement and documentation.
Verbatim copying of material from the Internet, including tables and graphics.
Copying other students’ notes or answers.
Using paid or unpaid material prepared for the student by individuals or firms.

Penalties for plagiarism ranges from failure in the STMA to expulsion from the university.

Collaboration with anyone else (including fellow students) is strictly prohibited.

All quotations used must be referenced.

Declaration: I hereby declare that the submitted STMA is my own work and I have not copied any other person’s work or plagiarized in any other form as specified above.

Student Signature:

FACULTY OF LANGUAGE STUDIES

EL120: English Phonetics and Linguistics

Exam Instructions:

There are THREE parts to this examination paper as in the following table:

Part	Question No.	Marks per section
A		50
B	a	7.5
	b	5
	c	2.5
C		35
TOTAL		100

You are required to answer all THREE parts.

Follow carefully the instruction in each part.

Review your answers carefully paying attention to your grammar, spelling and punctuation as well as to relevant textual elements (e.g. paragraphing, cohesion & coherence) as part of the mark for each question will be given to language accuracy and text organization.

You are required to answer ALL questions

PART A

Answer the following questions in a paragraph form in not less than 150 words each. USE YOUR OWN WORDS (50marks)

Explain why there are more sounds than letters of the alphabet in English? Illustrate your answer with examples. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

What are the differences between a phoneme and an allophone? Refer to at least 2 features as examples of allophones and the effect of neighboring sounds. Use examples of your own to illustrate your answer. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

PART B

a) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following consonant descriptions and provide examples of this symbol in three positions (initial, medial, final)

(7.5 Marks)

i) Voiced dental fricative: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

ii) Voiceless velar plosive/stop: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

iii) Voiceless post alveolar affricate: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

b) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following descriptions of RP

vowels: Put each vowel in three examples of your own. (5 Marks)

A long, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

A short, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

c) Use the above two vowels in b) in two sets of minimal pairs to illustrate the difference between them. (2.5 marks)

________________ & ___________________
________________ & ___________________

PART C

Which of the following statements is true (T) and which is false (F)? Provide the correct answer in case of “FALSE” . Explain The Phonetic Rule Relevant To Each Of The 7 Statements. (35 Marks)

The pronunciation in connected speech of “good girl” as / good girl / is an example of aspiration.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The difference between the /f/ in the word fish and the /v/ sound in the word vase has to do with voicing.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The pronunciation of the underlined vowel sounds in the following words is identical (the same): four – founder – soup.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The alveolar ridge is the organ responsible for creating voiced and voiceless sounds.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The /t/ in till has the same pronunciation as the /t/ in still.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

/l/ in light – while – milk is the same allophone.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The place of the stress in the word ‘object’ is the same in the noun and the verb.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 35: History

Please write a 250-word essay about a NJ Historical figure (that you select) found within the chapters of the Maxine Lurie text. Tell why this person is important, what they did, how others reacted to their actions, how this person relates to the present, and your Personal Analysis of the individual’s actions.

Question 36: General

What would Mary T. Norton think of the women’s movement of the 1970’s? What would she think of today’s society? Since Norton envisioned a female Governor and a female President, do you think she should have run for those offices? Why? How has Mary T. Norton impacted your life?

Question 37: Human Resource

What do you believe would be the most important components of the selection process for the following jobs? a Telemarketer,

Restaurant manager
c. School teacher
d. A beginner football player

Question 38: Finance

Instructions:

1	This is an individual assignment.
2	Your assignment should be typed using font-size 12, Times New Roman, and 1.5 spacing.
3	Your report should not exceed 2000 words in length. This excludes quotes, references.
4	It should contain complete references by using the APA referencing method for all citations made in the paper (including internet citations). An essay without citations would be considered as plagiarism and would be awarded a failed grade.
5	A Turnitin originality report has to be attached to the assignment. You will have to register yourself at www.turnitin.com. The information required when submitting your assignment are : · Class ID: 24175513 · Enrollment Password: d2fin100
6	The assignment should submit online through LMS
7	You must submit your assignment by 30 April 2020. Failure to submit the assignment by the stipulated date would result in your assignment not being marked or marked as zero.

You will be given a selected public listed company that listed in Bursa Malaysia as your research target.

You are required to find all the necessary financial information from the companies’ Annual Reports, on the companies’ website, online searching etc., in order to perform the different tasks that required by this assignment as shown in the following sections.

You are required to write an analysis report on your selected company to present you findings. Your reports should start with an introduction to introduce the background of the company and perform industry and competitive analysis to understand the intense of competitiveness in the market.

Section A

In the first section of your report, you are required to examine the short-term financial activities of your selected company.

Using the following assumptions together with the information you collect from the company’s annual report to perform the required task:

Assumption:

Assuming a constant rate for purchases, production, and sales throughout the year.
Assuming all sales are on credit.
Assume a 365-day year.
Assuming the credit period that currently offer by the company to their customers are close to the company’s average collection period, and they did not offer any cash discount.
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Required:

Calculate the following ratios for your selected company (based on the latest annual report):
1. Average age of Inventory
2. Average collection period
3. Average payment period
what are your selected company’s operating cycle (OC), cash conversion cycle (CCC), and the resource needs to support its cash conversion cycle (based on the latest annual report)?
The company are contemplating to introduce a cash discount of 3 percent to those who pay the account within 10 days, while the others are still expect to pay according to the current credit period. The following assumption have been made:
The sales revenues are expected to increase by 3 percent.
40 percent of the customers are expected to take the 3 percent discount.

The average collection periods are expected to reduce by 30%

The bad debt expenses are expected to decrease from 1.5% of sales to 1% of sales.
The firm’s opportunity cost of tying up funds in account receivable is 12%
All the costs of sales are variable cost and 50 percent of the other operational costs are variable cost.

Other incomes remain unchanged.

You are required to calculate the following items:

Additional profit contribution from the increase in sales revenue
Cost/cost savings of marginal investment in account receivable
Cost/cost savings of marginal bad debts
Cost of cash discount
Net profit/loss from initiating of proposed cash discount
Use your findings from part (a) to part (e) to assess whether offering the cash discount can be justified financially.

Answer the following questions:
1. Why is working capital management one of the most important and time-consuming activities of the financial manager?
2. What is the relationship between the predictability of a firm’s cash inflows and its required level of net working capital? How are net working capital, liquidity, and risk of insolvency related?
3. What are the basic trade-offs in a tightening of credit standards?

Section B

In this second section, you are required to conduct an equity analysis on your selected company. Your report should include the following content:

You are required to perform the equity valuation on the selected company to find the intrinsic value by using an appropriate equity valuation model.
Explain your selected equity valuation model, and why you think your selected model is appropriate to use to value the selected company.
Explain how you estimate/obtain the inputs for your valuation model, and why you think the method you use to estimate the input is appropriate for your selected company.
You should use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to calculate the required return for the selected company. You may find the Beta of your selected company from investing.com.
For the market return, you should use the return on FBM KLCI index as a proxy for the market return. You should first find the average monthly changes for FBM KLCI over the past twenty years and then annualized it to find the annual capital gains. You should then add the average annual capital gains with the long-term average dividend yield of FBMKLCI to find the annual market return. The average dividend yield for FBMKLCI are assumed to be 3.5%.
You should use the yield of 10 years Malaysian Government Securities to represent the risk-free rate.
Based on this information, you can then calculate required rate of return for the common stock of your selected company.
Using all of this information from the previous steps, you are then required to find the intrinsic value for your selected company.
You will also need to find out what is the current price of your selected company.
Explain how the outbreak of the Covid-19 will affect your selected company.
Based on your analysis, would you recommend buying this stock at the current market price? Explain why you make that recommendation.

Assessment Criteria

For your guidance, your assignment report will be marked as follows:

	Question	Marks (%)
	Introduction, Company Background and industry analysis	10
Section A	Working Capital Management
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	25
	Theory and explanation	15
Section B	Equity Valuation and Cost of Capital
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	30
	Explanation, discussion and analysis	15
	Conclusion and recommendation	5
	Total	100

The marks will then convert into the final weightage of 50%.

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The Security Challenges that Cloud Computing is facing

7-10 pages case study describing security challenges facing cloud computing

Public health paper

Must be in proper APA format and cited.

Attached are two screen shots of the rubric that must be followed

The program is WeCan: https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health/educational/wecan/index.htm

Prompt: Submit a short paper with your recommendations for the public health program you have selected for the final project. Specifically, the following critical elements must be addressed:

ï‚· Be sure to specifically recommend improvements that should be made to the current program.

ï‚· Clearly outline and explain other social and behavioral theoretical approaches that may be used to engage the community.

ï‚· Substantiate your claims with evidence from the program and peer-reviewed literature. Would you suggest a new program or simply a new program

approach? If so, briefly explain what that program would look like and how it would be an improvement to the current program.

Guidelines for Submission: Submit assignment as a Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, and one-inch margins. The paper must be 2–3 pages in length. All sources

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Discussion middle and high school..

This is Career Development Class. I’m attaching pp info for this week just in case for use of things out of text.

Text book is: Career and College Readiness Counseling P-12 Schools.

Jennifer R. Curry and Amy Milsom Second Edition.

CHAPTER 10

Career and College Readiness for Grades 6 and 7:

Promoting Self-Awareness

Physical Development 211

 Development of primary and secondary sexual characteristics

 Growth spurts

 Physical coordination improves

 Hormonal and neurochemical changes

 Influences career and college readiness and self-concept

Cognitive Development—Piaget 212

Formal Abstract

‒ Characteristics include the ability to

Manipulate thoughts rather than just objects
Project into the future (e.g., understand long term

consequences for behavior)

Formally reason based on a hypothesis, propositional

operations (based on logic), reversibility by inversion, or

reciprocity (e.g., algebraic equations)

Synthesize information
Generate experimentally formulated hypotheses

Psychosocial Development—Erikson213

Transitioning to stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion

‒ Begin to develop a sense of awareness about one’s interests,

strengths, weaknesses, and beliefs

‒ May begin to differentiate from the views and beliefs of their family

‒ Begin to view themselves through a third-party perspective and

begin to evaluate their social status and capital

Psychosocial Development—Havighurst 215

 Expanded on Erikson’s theory

 Suggested that transitioning into Identity vs. Role Confusion is very

active time for youth and has specific challenges

 Positive identity formation is dependent on the following tasks:

‒ Achieving new and more mature relations with age-mates of both

sexes

‒ Achieving a masculine or feminine social role

‒ Accepting one’s physique and using the body effectively

‒ Achieving emotional independence from parents and other adults

‒ Preparing for intimate relationships and family life

‒ Preparing for an economic career

‒ Acquiring a set of values and an ethical system as a guide to

behavior—developing an ideology

‒ Desiring and achieving socially responsible behavior

Psychosocial Development—Marcia

 Proposed identity statuses to describe how individuals explore the

possibilities of their adult lives, including their future careers

 Two major tasks that compromise achievement of identity

 Actively exploring future options

 Committing to an identity

 Four identity statuses:

 Identity diffusion: Where adolescent neither have explored future

options nor committed to an identity

 Identity foreclosure: Adolescents have committed to an identity, but

did so without exploration

 Moratorium: Students are actively exploring options but have not

committed to a career; ideal status for sixth and seventh graders

 Identity achievement: Occurs after students have fully and

critically considered their future options and then committed

to an identity

 Gender and Culture

 Complexity of career growth and development is based on

social expectation and opportunity (Havighurst, 1972)

 Cultural and individual differences may cause students to

stand out and gain negative attention from peers

Gottfredson’s Theory of Circumscription and Compromise 215

 Stage 3: Orientation to Social Valuation

‒ Students in this stage begin to consider which careers are within or

outside of their tolerable level boundary (i.e., circumscribe careers

that they perceive as either socially beneath or socially above them)

‒ May have heightened preoccupation with status and status symbols

Holland’s Theory of Vocational Choice 216

 Six Holland types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and

conventional

 Holland’s assessments are ideal for middle school students because they

love learning about themselves

 In a study of middle school students using structural equation model

analysis, Turner, Conkel, Starkey, and Landgraf (2010) found that males

tended to have greater realistic interests and females had greater artistic

and social interests

Young’s Career Concepts 217

 Parents need to coconstruct career goals with their children through

meaningful dialogue that promotes shared interests, values, and emotions

 Emotions in career conversations are demonstrative of the level of

adolescent career motivation and cognitive appraisal of self

 Emotion in parent–adolescent career conversations promoted career action

School Counseling Curriculum 218

 Should be centered on helping students explore their personal fit with

careers and colleges by examining their interests, aptitudes, dispositions,

and values related to career and postsecondary options

 Should help build students’ career decision-making self-efficacy

 Use assessment (e.g., values card sort, career genograms) to help middle

school students discover the skills, aptitudes, interests, and values they

hold that may impact their fit with potential careers and colleges

Promoting STEM Careers in Middle School 221

 School counselors should work collaboratively with others to consider ways

to promote science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM)

beyond the classroom and academic curriculum

 Although school counselors cannot make every STEM opportunity available

to students, making an effort to add cocurricular or extracurricular activities

available is important

o For example, SeaPerch underwater robotics program

Engaging Stakeholders 225

 Teachers

 Help bridge the gap between academics and careers

 Create a college-going culture

 Parents

 Importance of career and college communication and emotions

between parents and their middle school children in developing

positive career and college action

CHAPTER 11

Career and College Readiness for Grade 8:

High School Transition Planning

Psychosocial Development 236

 Erikson—Identity vs. Role Confusion

 Adolescents struggle to identify who they want to be now and in the future

 Influence of family is still important but highly influenced by their peers and

want to fit in

 Begin to develop a more keen awareness of social cues and monitor

behavior accordingly

Cognitive Development—Piaget 237

 Entering stage of Formal Operations

‒ Most students in grade eight possess concrete thinking abilities

‒ Able to understand cause and effect and can follow sequences

‒ Many adolescents are still quite egocentric in their thinking

‒ Personal fable: May believe that they are immune to any negative

outcomes

‒ The emergence of formal operational thought supports the ability to

take another person’s perspective

Gottfredson’s Theory of Circumscription and Compromise 237

 Stage 3: Orientation to Social Valuation

‒ Individuals narrow career choices based on their perceived social

values of particular careers

‒ Students may begin to consider careers that will afford them the

status they desire

‒ Begin to consider perceived intellectual abilities in career choice

Holland’s Theory of Vocational Choice 238

 Use of assessments that target interests, abilities, and values

 Results of those assessments can serve as a starting point for identifying

careers that are consistent with a student’s personality type

Young’s Career Concepts 238

 Implicit and explicit career influences from school

 Explicit: Intentional implementation of individual group, classroom,

and school-wide career activities

 Implicit: Can come in the form of things such as what topics are or

are not addressed, what messages counselors, teachers, and other

school personnel send to students regarding their future, and what

opportunities are afforded all students to engage in career and self-

exploration

 Importance of examining mesosystem influences

Career and College Readiness Interventions 239

 Should be intentional, comprehensive, include a variety of activities and

delivery methods, and involve a variety of stakeholders

 Primary goal of activities is to focus on self-awareness, career awareness,

and long-term career and college decision-making

 Secondary goal is to address relevant career and college readiness skills

 Use of self-assessments to determine individual interventions

 Classroom curriculum integration to expose students to occupations

related to the subject areas

Partnering with Parents and the Community 247

 Important to involve parents/guardians in the high school curriculum

decision-making process

 Parents need to understand process and requirements

 Give parents information more than once and in a variety of formats

 Workshops, newsletters, breakfast at work, home visit, etc.

 Mindful of first generation college students

 Importance of explaining different types of courses available and how

weighted grades are viewed by postsecondary schools

Facilitating the Eighth to Ninth Grade Transition 249

 Students need to be prepared for the greater autonomy, self-regulation

demands, and responsibilities of ninth grade

 Work with eighth grade teachers to cover topics including stress

management, time management, academic organization, extracurricular

involvement, goal setting, and so on

 Partnering with the high school

o High school visits for students and parents

o Freshmen student Q&A panel

o Teacher meet and greet

 Review graduation and in-state scholarship requirements

Paper 1…

Reading number 2 “HAWK”

MLA FORMAT 5 Full pages…ending on top of 6th page..

I will attach the readings to this document the are small readings..

Paper One invites you to consider what one or two essays suggest or argue about a larger societal issue such as relationships, gender roles, identity politics, integration, marginalization, animal/nature/human conflict – to name only a few. Choose one or two non – fiction pieces that we have read in class, and write an essay offering an original thesis and analysis of the issue you select. (or three for extra points) As a reminder this is a formal literary essay to be written in third person, using supporting quotes from the reading(s) as evidence. There should be no personal narrative in this type of essay.

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Questions1: Mathematics

An investor is considering purchasing a bond with a 7.89 percent coupon interest rate, a par value of $1,000, and a market price of $1019.06. the bond will mature in nine years. Based on this information, answer the following questions:

What is the bond’s current yield?
What is the bond’s approximate yield to maturity?
What is the bond’s yield to maturity using a financial calculator?

Question2: Business

Search the internet for financial statements of publicly traded companies. Students are required to utilize different financial statements from the Week 2 Individual Assignment.

Analyze the financial ratios of the identified publicly traded company in a minimum 1,400 words including the following:

Review week 2 graded assignment feedback and restate/revise the uses for each of the three classifications of ratios: liquidity, solvency, and profitability.
Calculate the current ratio, profit margin, and after tax ROE, of an additional (different company from week 2) publicly traded company—then compare this second company ratios with the ratios you computed for the company from week 2 “Revenue Forecast” assignment). Include both verbiage and a chart to compare the company’s ratios from week 2assignment with the ratios from the company for this week’s assignment.
Display your calculations.

Question 1: Statistics

Though 70% of women with children younger than 18 years participate in the labor force, society still upholds the stay at home mother as the traditional model. Some believe that employment distracts mothers from their parenting role, affecting the well-being of children.

Question 1: In the GSS 2024, respondents were asked to indicate their level of agreement to the statement, “A working mother hurts children”. Of the 435 male respondents who answered the question, 18% strongly agreed that a working mother does not hurt children. Construct a 90% confidence interval for this statistic.

Question 2: of the 566 female respondents who answered the question, 40% strongly agreed that a working mother does not hurt children. Construct a 90% confidence interval for this statistic.

P.S. these questions are on chegg

Question 3: Business

1What are some ways that social media has changed your daily life? What can marketers take advantage of for their promotional purposes?

Choose a local business that is utilizing social media effectively. Analyze what they are doing by conducting your own social media monitoring. What tools can you use? What are the company’s objectives? What are they doing right?

1.3 Provide some examples of brands that have garnered success with social media. Provide some examples of some brands that have not been successful with social media. Based on this comparison, what are the key ingredients to getting customers to engage with a brand?

1.4 Assume you are starting a new yogurt store on campus. Develop a profile of your likely target market. What social media tools do you think will be most effective at reaching that audience? Why?

Question 4: Business

Topic: Is it ever moral to break a promise? A rational analysis and conclusion.

Thread: The Reading & Study materials this module/week discuss the complex issue of poverty, and the moral imperative of promise-keeping is mentioned several times. After reviewing the Reading & Study materials, compose a 500-600 word argument that is objective, carefully-constructed, and free of emotion (and hence it should not contain any exclamation points) in support of your opinion on each of the following questions.

Why is promise-keeping morally important?
Is it ever morally permissible to break a promise?
If you answer “yes” to #2, then what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally acceptable?
If you answer “no” to #2, then explain why you believe it is never permissible. How would you handle difficult scenarios wherein someone has made a promise the keeping of which would have significant undesirable consequences?
Is it ever morally obligatory to break a promise?
If you answer “yes” to #5, what are the conditions that render promise-breaking morally obligatory?

Be sure to carefully define your terms. You are encouraged to support your position with rational arguments, fitting examples, and expert sources. Any quotes or information used from sources other than yourself must be cited using footnotes in current Turabian format and will not count towards the total word count.

You will be penalized for falling short or exceeding the word count. This is a university-level writing assignment and therefore it must be carefully proofread, free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Do not use slang, emoticons, or abbreviations (as if you are texting or sending an email to a friend).

Reply: After reading your classmates’ threads, choose one to which you will respond, then write a reply that interacts with your classmate’s thread and presents a well-reasoned alternative to his or her approach to the issue. You do not have to defend a position that is diametrically opposed to your classmate’s position, but you do need to either defend a position that is significantly different from his/hers or defend the same position in a very different way. If possible, you must reply to a classmate to whom no one else has yet replied. Treat your classmate’s opinion with sensitivity and respect.

This is a university-level writing assignment. Therefore it must be carefully proofread, free of grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Do not use slang, emoticons, or abbreviations (as if you are texting or sending an email to a friend).

Your reply must be 500–600 words. You will be penalized for falling short or exceeding the word count. Any quotes or information used from sources other than yourself (including your classmate’s thread) must be cited using footnotes in current Turabian format and will not count towards the total word count.

Question 5: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Explain how training can be an organizational competitive strategy.

Question 6: Business

Imagine that your training plans are not yielding the expected results in learning according to the data that you’ve analyzed. There has been discussion with the leadership team about issues with employees not being motivated to learn, and employee surveys have confirmed that employees are not sufficiently motivated. Your team has been asked by the HR Director to investigate what may be causing the lack of motivation. Your investigation should consider barriers to learning, motivational theories, and alternatives for enhancing employee motivation.

Create a report of no more than 700 words that summarizes various motivational theories.

Write a report that includes the following components:

A comparison of motivational theories
Alternatives that should be considered to enhance learner motivation
The impact on self-efficacy on learning
Recommendations for improving motivation for learning
Data that you will collect to determine whether or not your recommendations are having a positive effect upon employee motivation
Strategies for enhancing the retention of learning
Post-implementation surveys and analysis to determine the effectiveness of training on motivation

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

Question 7: Business

As people become increasingly comfortable posting their lives online via social networks like Facebook or through microblogs like Twitter, some companies have begun to build Web dossiers of consumers. They do this by mining the social Web on Facebook, Twitter, blogs, and online forums. Then they sell it to other companies. And here is the deal . . . most consumers have no idea that this is being done.

While the use of customer data has been around for a few years (especially through companies like Amazon who use algorithms based on customer searches and purchases to make product recommendations), there are some privacy advocates who feel that mining and using data from the social Web crosses ethical lines. For their part, the companies that aggregate this information say that they are using this information to detect behavioral patterns in order for companies to provide better products and customer service.

SOURCE: “How Companies Are Using Your Social Media Data,” http://mashable.com/2010/03/02/data-mining-social-media.

Instructions:

Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment. Answer the following three question!

Questions

Do think that this practice violates privacy, or is it acceptable since it uses information that a person has posted voluntarily?
What are some promising ways that companies can use this data?
What are some questionable ways that companies can use this data?

Question 8: History

According to Khrushchev’s address to the 20th Congress of the Communist Party in February 1956, what were Stalin’s major crimes? To what degree were these problems resolved under later Soviet leaders? How would Russia’s current leaders react to this speech? Follow these guidelines: Write an essay of 500 words (or more) responding to the prompt Use complete and accurate sentences, avoid showing bias or using “I/me” statements, and avoid text-message writing Your paragraphs need to be at least four to six sentences long Include at least one APA-style citation (Author, year, p. #) with each paragraph, placing it immediately after a sentence with evidence

Question 9: Language

Differences between Urdu and Modern Standard Arabic

Topic: consonants :

Form: essay form

Compare and contrast consonants inventory in â€‹two languagesâ€‹ by following these criteria: (Write the paper using essay form)

(introduction)

Start the essay with a paragraph of the â€‹historyâ€‹ of the two languages. Do they have a common origin?

(body)

The â€‹numberâ€‹ of consonants these languages have.
consonants inventory in terms of: Phonetic description â€“ consonants quantity â€“ consonants quality
Include a consonants quadrilateral â€œgraphâ€
Are there any special features associated with â€œlanguage1â€ which are not present in â€œlanguage

?â€2

(conclusion)

End the essay by relating the first paragraph with the rest of the paragraphs by stating how these two languagesâ€™ origins resulted in similar or different consonants inventory, â€‹highlighting the biggest similarities or differences.
Citation using â€‹APA style.
Maximum 3 pages. â€‹Minimum: cover the criteria assigned in 3 paragraphsâ€‹.

*note: use consonants IPA symbols for consonants

Questions 10: History

Choose one of the following topics and answer the questions based on what you learned from the readings and resources for this week: 1) What were the global forces that influenced the civil rights movement within the United States? 2) What reasons have been advanced to explain why the Soviet system collapsed in 1991? Which do you think are the most persuasive? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation Respond to at least two of your classmates. Each response should: Be at least 50 words in length and include more than one’s agreement or disagreement with another student’s post React to the classmate’s post and demonstrate higher-order thinking (challenge, connect, suggest, question, or expand) Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation

Question 11: Business

It’s a 2 part assignment. First part is to write a profile of a wine consumer, like who is the type of person that consumes wine, age, loyalty to a particular brand? Is there a preference to certain types of wine? any difference between a younger wine consumer vs an older consumer. something general like that.

2nd part is what is the image of wine from Chile, locally and internationally

Question 12: Political Science

how has the war on drugs affected living in Latin America and in the US”.

Question 13: Psychology

Answer in complete sentences. Chapter 11 A. What neurotransmitters are active during any emotional output? B. How do appraisals impact our emotional experiences? Chapter 12 D. In what way can intrinsic motivation be more powerful than extrinsic motivation for achieving something? E. Explain the attachment theory as it pertains to the romantic relationship.

Question 14: History

HIEU 201 LECTURE QUIZ 1

Question 1

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?

Question 2

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?

Question 3

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?

Question 4

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

Question 5

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?

Question 6

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?

Question 7

According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?

Question 8

According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?

Question 9

True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.

Question 10

According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?

Question 15: Mathematics

How much will a $7,500 EE savings bond cost when you initially purchase it? Assuming the bond earns 4.13 percent annually, approximately how long will it take for the bond to reach its stated face value?

When you initially purchase it, the EE saving bond will cost $ 3750

Assuming the bond earns 4.13 percent annually, the length of time it will take for the bond to reach its stated face value is ___ years.

Question 16: Biology

NUR 602 Midterm Study GUIDE – Chanberlain College of Nursing

Question 17: Psychology

A criticism of the use of anesthesia during childbirth is that it

A baby is defined as post mature if it

Question 18: Education

Which of the following are traits that effective teachers demonstrate in their dealings with peers, administrators, and parents?

According to Gary Borich, which of the following is a characteristic behavior of effective teachers?

Question 19: Health Care

Nutritional Principles in Nursing: Evaluating Diets Module 11

NURSING: NUR1172 N Garcia NUT Mod11 Diets

Question 20: Health Care

Bparker Module 01 PowerPoint Carbohydrates Proteins Lipids Vitamins Minerals Water

Question 21: Health Care

Walden NURS6660 Final Exam ( 2019)

Question 22: Health Care

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Rashidah is a 55-year-old female who is experiencing acute chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as “pressure and squeezing.” When she becomes nauseous and light-headed, her son insists that he take her to the emergency room.

Health History: She started smoking when she was 18, attempted to quit several times in her 40s, and had her last cigarette on her 50th birthday. She has been overweight for most of her adult life, but has gained 20 pounds in the last few years, which increased her BMI to 34. The last time she had a physical exam was when she turned 50. Her vital signs and blood test results from that exam are listed below.

BP: 178/90

HDL: 62 mg/dl

LDL: 190 mg/dl

Triglycerides: 174 mg/dl

Total cholesterol: 252 mg/dl

Fasting blood glucose: 128 mg/dl

Which of these statements is most likely correct?

Selected Answer:

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

In the emergency room, multiple tests are performed. Which of these results would confirm myocardial damage?

Selected Answer:

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Which of Rashidah’s physical exam lab test results was within normal limits for her age and sex?

Selected Answer:

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

Given her last physical exam results, Rashidah’s physician believes she has likely had undiagnosed atherosclerosis for years. Briefly describe the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis.

Selected Answer: Atherosclerosis is the narrowing of arteries from plaque build up on the arterie walls. When there is a build up of plaque it makes it harder for the body to get oxygen rich blood through out the body. If there is too much build up in the ateries it can cause a blockage which can make it more likely to have blood clots

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Rashidah’s most recent Body Mass Index indicates that she is:

Selected Answer:

Obese

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements is true?

Selected Answer:

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A coronary angiography is performed and shows a complete blockage of the LAD. Briefly describe what this means.

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following treatments would help correct Rashidah’s condition?

Selected Answer:

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

Rashidah quit smoking 5 years ago, but still suffered a myocardial infarction. She is tempted to start smoking again since quitting “obviously didn’t make me healthier.” What does research tell us about her future health risks if she resumes smoking?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Before Rashidah is discharged from the hospital, her care team informs her that she may experience stable angina, a form of chest pain, in the future. Briefly explain how angina is different from the pain associated with a myocardial infarction.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Roberto is a 78-year-old male who has recently been diagnosed with Class III Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). His physician told him that his left ventricle has become stiff and cannot relax. Although there is no current treatment that can “fix” Roberto’s condition, he is prescribed two medications- an ACE inhibitor and beta blockers.

There are multiple types of CHF. Which of these types does Roberto have?

Selected Answer:

Question 12

0 out of 1 points

Which of these statements is most likely true of Roberto’s current symptoms?

Selected Answer:

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

Because of the dysfunction of Roberto’s left ventricle, which of these findings is most likely?

Selected Answer:

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Briefly describe how beta-blockers will influence Roberto’s heart function, specifically the physiology of the ventricles.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Briefly describe how ACE-inhibitors will influence Roberto’s heart function.

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Roberto’s doctor orders several tests of his heart function, including “ejection fraction.” Briefly explain what an ejection fraction measures. (Include what a normal measurement would be.)

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following conditions may have led to Roberto’s CHF?

Selected Answer:

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following choices is NOT a risk factor for developing CHF?

Selected Answer:

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

Which heart valve opens to allow blood to leave the left ventricle?

Aortic valve

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

Further testing reveals that Roberto has hypertrophy of the left ventricle. How does this finding relate to his diagnosis?

Question 23: Health Care

BSC 2347 Module 1 Case Study / BSC2347 AP 2 Module 1 Human Anatomy and Physiology II Case Study

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Correct Jasper is a 7-year-old boy who has had flu-like symptoms for several weeks. It was mild at first, but his parents notice that he has been getting worse. They took him to his pediatrician last week, but he was sent home with suggestions to use OTC medication to treat his symptoms while his body recovered from what appeared to be a mild infection. Jasper appears weak, has lost 3-4 pounds in the last month, and has been complaining of headaches. Jasper’s parents have now brought him back to the clinic and another physician orders a CBC.

What is a CBC? In your own words, briefly describe why it is useful.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Correct The physician suspects that Jasper may have leukemia. Which of the lab results most likely lead the physician to this conclusion?

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Correct Jasper exhibits many symptoms that could relate to a diagnosis of leukemia. List and briefly explain 2 other symptoms of leukemia that are NOT mentioned in this case study.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

Correct Because of Jasper’s age, which type of leukemia is the most likely?

Selected Answer:

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Correct

If Jasper has ALL, which of the following lab results is most likely?

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Correct What is the most common type of childhood leukemia? In your own words, briefly describe the pathophysiology of the disease.

Selected Answer:

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Correct Which of these tests would NOT be helpful in diagnosing leukemia?

Selected Answer:

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Correct In your own words, briefly describe the difference between myelogenous and lymphocytic leukemia.

Selected Answer:

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

Correct Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for ALL?

Selected Answer:

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Correct Assuming that Jasper has the most common type of childhood leukemia, what is his prognosis?

Selected Answer:

Question 11

0 out of 1 points

Incorrect Elsa is an 11-month-old girl. Her parents have brought her to her pediatrician because they have noticed she seems lethargic and pale. Both parents have noticed that she appears bloated, doesn’t want to eat as much as she has before, and is tired and “cranky all the time.” They suspected she might be suffering from anemia, since she was being fed a low-iron formula, so they had switched to a high-iron formula. The change made no difference in her symptoms. The pediatrician notes that Elsa’s belly appears swollen. Her vital signs show that her temperature is normal and her heart rate is on the low end of the normal range for her age. She has dropped from the 50th percentile in height and weight (at her last check-up) to the 10th percentile in both height and weight.

Blood test results:

Hemoglobin: 5 g/dl

RBC: 4.6×106 cells/ml

MCV: 65

WBC 15,000 cells/ml

Platelet count: 250,000

Which of Elsa’s symptoms is NOT typical of anemia in infants?

Selected Answer:

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Correct In your own words, briefly describe why Elsa’s parents changed her formula to the high-iron baby formula.

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Correct Which of her blood test results is within normal range?

Selected Answer:

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Correct Elsa’s blood sampled was analyzed under a microscope and it was determined that her red blood cells were “hypochromatic” and “microcytic.” Explain, in your own words, what these terms mean.

Selected Answer:

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Correct Elsa’s pediatrician suspects that she has thalassemia. Which of the following statements is true of thalassemia?

Selected Answer:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Correct In your own words, explain why hemoglobin is important in hematology.

Selected Answer:

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Correct It is determined that Elsa is experiencing beta-thalassemia major. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding this diagnosis?

Selected Answer:

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Correct Because Elsa has received a confirmed diagnosis of beta-thalassemia major, which of the following statements is true about her parents?

Selected Answer:

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Correct As Elsa gets older, which of the following choices is NOT a likely complication of her disorder?

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

Correct In your own words, briefly describe how thalassemia is related to Elsa’s failure to thrive.

Selected Answer:

Question 2: Psychology

Introduction Guided Response#1 This is what i wrote i have to response back to students and the Teacher

Hello everyone. It is my sincere congratulations to you for making it this far and for being part of this class. I am again looking for a fun and exciting time together and with our instructor. My name is Tishawn Thomas I am 42 years old and reside in Easton, Pennsylvania. I come from Brooklyn, New York. I have a Bachelor of Arts in Social Science and Master of Arts in Special Education from Ashford University. I am kind of old school because I love jazz and classical rock. Currently, I have joined this class to take a master’s program in psychology to enable me become a licensed counselling psychologist.

When navigating the left I found this course very interesting. I have reviewed the major theoretical approaches, research methods, and assessment instruments that will be covered in the course and I must say that this course will be interesting. I am looking forward to learning how the theoretical approaches and research methods can be combined with the assessment instruments to assist personality analysis.

The model of personality that I am more interested in researching further is the five-factor model (FFM) of personality. The FFM is a set of five personality trait dimensions, often called the Big Five: Extraversion, Agreeableness, Conscientiousness, Neuroticism, and Openness to Experience. The initial model was advanced by Raymond Christal and Ernest Types in 1961. In 1990, J.M. Digman advanced the five-factor personality model, which was later extended by Lewis Goldberg, making Goldberg the father of FFM. This model is important in my current and future careers because it provides me with a basis of judgement and personality analysis. As an educator, the five-factor model provides an opportunity for understanding students and engaging them appropriately.

References

Choca, J. P. (1999). Evolution of million’s personality prototypes. Journal of Personality Assessment, 72(3), 353-364

Jung, C. G. (1933). Psychological Types. New York: Harcourt, Brace.

Carl Jung. Jung Journal, 6(2), 86-102. doi: http://dx.doi.org/10.1525/jung.2012.6.2.86

Guided Response#1

Glad to be in class with you. I too enjoy the Big Five as it tends to show up in the entertainment industry. One simply has to look to Harry Potter to see the how the Big Five and in extension psychology affects people without them knowing. People subscribe and find out their ‘houses’ on a daily basis by taking a personality test that places them in one of the five houses of Harry Potter. It’s simply amazes me how much we use psychology daily. There are many ways the Big Five may be used even when assisting persons with PTSD. Each personality handles stressors differently and would need to be assisted in a different way. I’m glad to be in class with you.

Guided Response#2

Welcome to the course and I am excited to about you. As a Marriage and Family Therapist here in California I can attest to the very rewarding and challenging nature of the job and how important self care is. My favorite part of the work is finding a way to engage the client to access their own resources to solve their problems. I am curious how you will balance all you do?

Question 3: Biology

ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab

PURPOSE:

Soil Sampling

To introduce students to:

Bucket auger sampling
Head space analysis
Sieve soil sizing procedure and plotting
Soil moisture by difference method
The soil texture by feel procedure

INTRODUCTION

For this lab you will be taking samples using a bucket auger which you will then analyze using head space analysis, soil moisture by difference and by moisture probe, and perform soil texture by feel protocol. In addition, you will analyze a pre-dried soil sample using sieve analysis.

Headspace analyses done in the field typically use a photoionization detector (PID). The PID uses ultraviolet light to irradiate the sample, thus ionizing it. The analysis chamber is composed of two plates between which an electric field is established by application of a difference in potential on each plate. Since the plates are not in contact, electricity can only flow through the circuit by bridging the electric field. When a sample is introduced, UV light ionizes gaseous molecules present, and the ions travel to the charged plates. When the ions reach the charged plates, an electric current is produced. The magnitude of the current is proportional to the concentration of ions preset (and, by extension, the concentration of molecules present). Although the exact response of the detector depends on the lamp ionization energy and the ionization potential of the molecules present, the PID responds to almost all VOCs – though not equally. Consequently, both false positives and under reporting of VOC concentrations are relatively common.

Refer to the accompanying slides for instructions on sieve analysis and workup.

ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab

METHODS Equipment List:

Bucket auger
Sample container
Temperature probe
Soil moisture probe
4×8’ sheet of plastic (optional)
Mason jar with foil lid
Weigh boats or pieces of aluminum foil
PID air sampler
Sieve stack and shaker
Small shovel for backfill

Procedure:
Sample Collection
Using a decontaminated bucket auger, you will collect a soil sample from a depth of at least 3” below ground surface (bgs).

Use the decontaminated bucket auger to remove the top 3” of soil
One individual from each table, measure the temperature of the soil and the soil

moisture using the soil moisture probe (both at 3” bgs)

Collect soil sample with bucket auger

o Place in clean container and seal immediately, place on ice o Be sure to collect enough for:

Head space analysis
§Texture by feel protocol
§Moisture analysis (at least 3 samples)

Headspace Sampling

Weigh a small portion of your soil sample and place in a clean mason jar:

Should be enough to completely cover the bottom of the jar to a depth of at

least 1 inch

Place a square of aluminum foil over the opening of the jar (shiny side up)

and screw the retaining ring down to seal

Allow sample to rest in jar at room temp for at least 5 minutes, and take a

reading of the headspace in the jar (using PID)

o Pierce the foil with the sampling probe, being careful not to tear too

large of a hole
o Insert the probe approximately 4 cm (1.5 in) and sample until the

reading has stabilized
·Place tape over the opening you created with the sampling probe and allow

sample to rest another 10 minutes, then sample headspace again

ESOH 315 Soil Sampling Lab

In addition to the sample you collected, there will be 2 additional soil samples provided upon which you should perform headspace analysis. You are only required to measure each of the additional samples once.

Moisture Determination

Each table will perform a moisture determination

Place at least 3 samples of your soil into either weigh boats or pieces of foil
Weigh samples (and container)
Place in oven for 24 hours (record start time)
After 24 hours remove samples and weigh again (record end time)
Determine % water content (by mass)

Sieve Sizing

Follow directions and analysis instructions found in the accompanying slides

REPORT

Include all of the normal sections, be sure to include:

Analyses

Be sure to complete and include in your report (I expect all to be professionally formatted):

All analyses included in the sieve slides (size distribution plot, sizing, coefficients of uniformity and gradation, etc.)
Soil moisture analysis
Headspace analysis

Discussion Questions:

What kind of soil did you have by the ‘Soil Texture by Feel’ test? What color was the soil? What does that tell you?
Compare the soil moisture by difference value to that obtained from the soil probe – provide a quantitative analysis.
How did the headspace analysis of your sample compare to those of the provided samples?
What are the Coefficients of Uniformity and Gradation for your soil sample? What does that mean about the variability in grain size for your sample? What about the soil’s ability to drain effectively?
Compare the results of the Soil Texture by Feel test and Coefficients of Gradation and Uniformity – are they contradictory?
What percent of your soil sample was lost during the sieve procedure? Is any explanation required?

What two reagents are used in preparation of the chloride complex

Question 2: Psychology

University of Phoenix Material

Week Four Homework Exercise 1

PSYCH/610 Version 2

Answer the following questions, covering material from Ch 8–10 of Methods in Behavioral Research:

What is a confounding variable and why do researchers try to eliminate confounding variables? Provide two examples of confounding variables.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of posttest only design and pretest-posttest design?
What is meant by sensitivity of a dependent variable?
What are the differences between an independent groups design and a repeated measures design?
How does an experimenter’s expectations and participant expectations affect outcomes?
Provide an example of a factorial design. What are the key features of a factorial design? What are the advantages of a factorial design?
Describe at least four different dependent variables.
What are some ways researchers can manipulate independent variables?
What is the difference between main effects and interactions?
How do moderator variables impact results? Provide an example.
A researcher is interested in studying the effects of story endings on preference ratings. He randomly assigns participants into two groups: predictable ending or surprise ending. He instructs them to read the story and provide preference ratings. The experimenter’s variation of story endings is a __________ (straightforward or staged) manipulation.
A researcher was interested in investigating the vocabulary skills of 6th graders in a program for gifted students. She gave a group of participants a test of vocabulary that was aimed at the 7th-grade level. She quickly discovered that there was limited variability in the scores because nearly all the students answered 90% or more of the questions correctly. This outcome is called a _______ effect.

Question 3: Chemistry

The fuel for your car is a mixture of octane and several other hydrocarbons. What mass of CO₂ will be produced when 219 g of C₈H₁₈ react completely in the following equation?

2 C₈H₁₈ + 25 O₂ → 16 CO₂ + 18 H₂O

Question 4: Computer Science

Using C, write a simple program to exhaustively list (generate) all binary strings of length N. Your program should read N > 5

Question 5: Computer Science

THE UNIVERSITY OF THE WEST INDIES

ASSIGNMENT 1
SEMESTER I, 2019/2020
Code and Name of Course: COMP2201 – Discrete Mathematics

Assignment 1 – Individual Assignment
AREA	DESCRIPTION
Objectives	To have a student apply the knowledge garnered during the first few weeks of the course
Title	Assignment 1 – Individual Assignment
Deliverable	The answers for the questions which follow the given case
Instructions	1. 2. 3. Review Lectures of the first three weeks of the course, the COMP2201 Text and any other related Discrete Mathematics material Read the Assignment 1 Sheet thoroughly Submit the gradable solution by using the COMP2201 Assignment 1 – Individual located within the ASSIGNMENTS Section of the OURVLE COMP2201 Course Environment. This may also be accessed by choosing the Assignments section below “Activities”
Format	The solution for this assignment must be submitted as a Microsoft Word document. Your ID number should form part of the Microsoft Word file name. The file name should take the format “COMP2201 Assignment 1 Semester 1 2019- 2020 XXXXXXXX” where XXXXXXXX represents the student ID number.
Upload Constraint	The solution for this assignment should be uploaded in the relevant space provided in OURVLE (See “Instructions” section above). A message indicating “File uploaded successfully” will acknowledge that the file has been sent successfully. Do NOT assume your project has been received if you do not get this acknowledgement.
Scoring Rubric	Your electronic submission will be evaluated on: Your attempt of the compulsory questions 1, 4 and 7 The response submitted for each question (See detail individual marks below) – Maximum 50 marks The actual grade of 50 marks will be displayed. The actual grade allocated is the percentage of the maximum marks (5 points)
Late Assignments	Late assignments are accepted. These are however graded then 25% deducted for each day of late submission.
Expectation	It is expected that students will discuss means to a solution. The actual work written is expected to reflect each student’s uniqueness. Where replication of work is identified, each paper will be graded. The allocated grade to each student’s piece of work for where this anomaly is identified will be the grade divided by the number of replications discovered.
Due Date	Sunday, October 6, 2019

Question 1 [10 marks] – COMPULSORY

[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 2 and 3.]
Given a sequence with n objects where there are n1 indistinguishable objects of type 1, n2 indistinguishable objects of type 2, …, nt indistinguishable objects of type t

(a) Where the number of repetitions of each object is known as in the string

PNOUMONOULPRAMICROSCOPICSILICOVOLCANOCUMARSIS

show why the formula for the number of unordered k-selections of t types is 𝑘+𝑡−1𝐶 𝑜𝑟 𝑘+𝑡−1𝐶 [3]

𝑘 𝑡−1

(b) Using the word from question (a) as an example, show that the reason given for question (a) holds. [2]
(c) Hence, determine the number of unordered 3-selection of the said string PNOUMONOULPRAMICROSCOPICSILICOVOLCANOCUMARSIS [2]
(d) Using your formula in (b), state a simplified formula for the number of unique codewords, assuming a codeword such as

PNU276(*#*$!dqjb

is made up of the letters of the word in (a) , 3 distinct digits where order is not important, 6 special characters (allowing repeats with order not being important), and 4 lowercase letters of the English alphabet where order is important, all in the same order. For ease of reference, it is accepted that there are 32 special characters. [3]

Question 2 [2 marks]

By applying Pascal’s Identity, determine the row of Pascal’s triangle containing the following binomial coefficients (8) , 0 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 8 [2]

𝑘

Question 3 [6 marks]

Solve the following question using Tree Diagrams.
A seven-person committee composed of Tian, Uber, Vera, Weir, Xylo, Yani and
Zoey is to select a president, treasurer and liaison officer. How many selections are
there in which either Tian is treasurer and Zoey is not an officer, or Weir is president
or Vera is treasurer? [6]

Question 4 [5 marks] – COMPULSORY
[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 5 and 6.]

(a) Why is the study of modular arithmetic important? [2]
(b) Construct the Addition and Multiplication Tables in Z10. [3]

Question 5 [3 marks]
Expand the following expression using the binomial theorem: ( –2p2 + 3q – 4r2 )4 [3]

Question 6 [5 marks]

(a) If any nine letters (of the 23-letter Latin alphabet) could be used to form a ten-letter words, how many words would have at least one repeated
letter? [3]
(b) A computer access password consists of from four to nine letters chosen from
the 26 in the alphabet with repetitions not allowed. How many different passwords are possible? [2]

Question 7 [10 marks] – COMPULSORY
[The fraction of the marks attained for this question determines the fraction of the attained marks to be allocated for questions 8 and 9.]

(a) Use modular arithmetic to explain why a date that falls on Saturday this year

will fall on Tuesday eight years from now. [2]

(b) The Greek Mathematician Euclid developed an algorithm to determine the

Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) also known as the Highest Common Factor (HCF). Develop an algorithm to determine the Least Common Multiple
(LCM). [3]

(c) Using the algorithm provided for section (b) of this question, illustrate how
your algorithm would find the Least Common Multiple of 55692 and 119340. [3]
(d) Using the Euclidean Algorithm, illustrate how the Highest Common Factor of 55692 and 119340. [2]

Question 8 [5 marks]

The function This_Is_Not_A_Fib_Chkr takes a list of integers, int_list and returns
True if they are NOT consecutive numbers within the Fibonacci sequence; False is returned otherwise. Using any programming language taught in your first year at the university, write the function This_Is_Not_A_Fib_Chkr . [5]

Question 9 [4 marks + Bonus 5 marks (to an assignment maximum of 50 marks)]

Let f(n) be defined by

𝑓(1) = 2

𝑓(𝑛) = 32𝑓 (𝑛) + 3𝑛5 2

if n > 1 and n = 2m, where m is a positive integer.

(a) By using the principles of Recurrence Relation, find a general formula

for f(n)

(b) Hence show that f(n) = Θ (n5 log 2 n).

[4] [Bonus – 5]

Question 6: General Question

Question 4: Engineering

High resolution digital TV broadcasting (HDTV) uses a form of SSB-AM for signal transmission. 2. Regular sinusoidal AM is often called double-sideband AM (DSB-AM). WHY??? 3. When AM and FM are used? 4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of FM and AM?

Question 5: Business

ACCT. 510 – Accounting for Business Decisions

TEAM PROJECT

FALL 2019

The basic financial statements of a company include the balance sheet, income statement and cash flow statement. Each statement contains specific information about the company. When viewed together, much can be learned about how the company operates and the impact of decisions made during the period.

Obtain the 2017 and 2018 annual reports for Starbucks. Use the information in the financial statements to respond to the following questions:

Write out the basic accounting (balance sheet) equation and provide the values reported by Starbucks at September 30, 2018.
Did total assets increase or decrease in 2018 over the previous year?
How much inventory did the company have at September 30, 2018?
What are the major operating revenue accounts? What percentage is each to total revenues?
What are the major operating expense accounts? What percentage is each to total operating expenses?
Describe the company’s revenue recognition policy, if reported. (See significant accounting policies).
What is Starbuck’s gross margin in 2018? Was this an increase or decrease from 2017?
What type of costs do you think is included in Starbuck’s ‘Cost of Sales?’
How do ‘cost of sales’ differ from ‘operating expenses’
What inventory valuation method does the company use?
What were cash flows from operating activities?
What were cash flows from investing activities?
What were cash flows from financing activities?
What was the increase/decrease in cash in 2018 from 2017?
Ratio Analysis: Compute the following ratios for 2017 and 2018 for Starbucks?
1. Current Ratio
2. Quick Ratio
3. Accounts Receivable Turnover Ratio
4. Inventory Turnover Ratio
5. Debt-to-Equity Ratio
6. Return on Equity
7. Return on Assets
8. Quality of Net Income (Cash Flows from Operating Activities/Net Income)
9. Profit Margin
What does each ratio measure and what does your results suggest about the company?
If available, find the industry ratios for the most recent year, compare to your results, and discuss why you believe your company differs or is similar to the industry.
Were there any economy, industry or company-specific factors that impact Starbuck’s future income and growth? If so, briefly discuss.

Question 6: Other

Hotel Rwanda

How does this film illustrate the concepts of “forward-looking” and “backward-looking” justice? How is the problem of personhood discussed in this film?

Question 7: Other

Unit V Case Study

Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.

Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.

Option 1: Procter & Gamble (pp. 332–333)

Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for P&G? How does this relate to the company’s brand management strategies?
Who are the top three competitors of P&G, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies?
P&G’s impressive portfolio includes some of the strongest brand names in the world. What are some of the challenges associated with being the market leader in so many different categories?
With social media becoming increasingly important and with fewer people watching traditional commercials on television, what does P&G need to do to maintain its strong brand images?
What risks will P&G face in the future?

Option 2: Caterpillar (pp. 394–395)

Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for Caterpillar? How does this relate to their brand management strategies?
Who are the top three competitors of Caterpillar, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies?
What were some of the key steps that made Caterpillar the industry leader in earth-moving machinery? Explain how Caterpillar’s products differ from competitors.
Discuss Caterpillar’s future. What should it do next with its product line? Where is the future growth for this company?

Option 3: The Ritz-Carlton (pp. 424–425)

Using segmentation strategies, what are the target market(s) for The Ritz-Carlton? How does this relate to their brand management strategies?
Who are the top three competitors of The Ritz-Carlton, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their competitive product/service strategies.
How does The Ritz-Carlton match up to competing hotels? What are its key differences?
Discuss the importance of the “wow stories” in maintaining top quality customer service for a luxury hotel like The Ritz-Carlton.

In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

Unit 5 DB AM

Consider the many means of differentiating products and services. Which technology brand does the best at impacting consumer buying decisions? Why? In an attempt to maintain diversity in this discussion forum, please bring a different brand example into this discussion than your fellow classmates.

Question 8: Finance

A project requires an initial investment of $700,000 depreciated straight-line to $0 in 10 years. The investment is expected to generate annual sales of $400,000 with annual costs of $120,000 for 10 years. Assume a tax rate of 30% and a discount rate of 15%. What is the NPV of the project?

Question 9: Psychology

So, imagine you are a researcher trying to find a new medication to treat depression.

What would be a type 1 errors?

What would be a type 2 error?

You don’t have to tell us the research and null hypotheses, just tell us what happened, (ex: what you thought you found, and what you really did find).

Question 10: Finance

A Bank has $100 million in capital, and $900 million of checkable deposit. The bank currently maintains a total reserve of $100 million dollars, $200 million in T-bills, and rest in loans. A new corporate customer opens a checkable deposit account, and deposit $100 million.

1a. Please show the T-Account of the bank after the deposit?

1b. If the required reserve ratio is 10%, what is likely to happen?

1c. If the required rate for reserves increase to 11%, what should the bank do? How much can the bank lend out after the adjustment? Assume the bank want to maximize return.

1d. What is the equity multiplier?

1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)

1f. Suppose there is a reserve outflow of $ 20 million, and the reserve ratio is 11% for the bank. Assume the bank decides to borrow from the Fed to meet reserve requirement. How much they will borrow? Please also show the new the T-account.

1g. Suppose the bank is reconsidering to generate more profit. They want to restructure their assets. After the restructuring, they want have 10% second reserve, 40% residential mortgage, 30% corporate loans or securities, and 20% inter-bank loan to OECD banks. In addition, there is $600 million of off-balance activities for the bank. What is the risk-weighted capital ratio?

1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?

1i. Suppose the T-bill yield 1.44%, the Libor is 1.83%, average residential mortgage rate is 5.5%, and average corporate loan is 7%. What is the new ROE? Assume the new structure yield a profit margin of 13%.

1j. Recently, 20% of checkable deposit is still in checking accounts. 40% of them becomes saving account, and 40% of them becomes CDs. If interest will increase by 2%, what is the financial result for the bank?

1k. If there is a terrible news hits the mortgage markets, and mortgage rate jump by 6%, which cause the value of the residential mortgage drop by 25%. What does the bank’s balance sheet look like? What will happen for this bank?

Discuss an experiment that you would like to perform. State 1. the population that you wish to study and 2. what the factor (or factors) would be. 3. How would you sample your subjects from that population? 4. How would you set up the experiment (Block design? Matched pairs? Double-blind?) How you would ensure 5. control, 6. randomization, and 7. replication? 8. What sort of conclusion could be drawn from the results

Question 7: Finance

Answer the following question regarding the price of a five percent coupon bond with the face value of $1000, which matures in three years from today. Coupon is paid annually at the end of the year. Your investment plan is to purchase the coupon bond today and hold it to the maturity.

a) Assuming the market price of bond is $1000, what would be the yield to maturity?
b) Suppose that you can reinvest your coupon at the annual rate of return of 3%. What is your effective

annual rate of return on the bond investment. Why is your effective rate of return different from the yield to maturity, if it is different? Under what circumstance, effective rate of return is equal to yield to maturity?

c) Now suppose the market price of bond drops to $900 right after the purchase. Would you expect higher or lower effective rate of return on the bond investment than the yield to maturity you compute in a? Explain why.

Question 11: Finance

1d. What is the equity multiplier?

1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)

1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?

Question 12: Mathematics

Describe using pseudocode as described in class an algorithm that takes a list of n integers a1, a2, …, an, and returns a count

Question 13: Engineering

The University has recently leased a building for new campus. The building will
house some Administrative offices, classrooms, library, and computer labs.
There will be four computer labs that will be used for instruction. Each of these
labs will have 32 computers (30 student computers and 1 instructor computer). Each
of these labs will also have a server in the closet located inside the lab.
In addition to the six regular labs, there will also be a Additional Computer Lab
that will provide computer access to students to do their assignment. There will be
63 computers in this lab and a server in the closet.
The library will also have some computers to allow students access to the library
resources. There will be 64 computers for students to read digital resources.
In this project you are required to design a network for a typical academic
institution that requires its computers to communicate with each other and on the
internet. It aims to provide student labs, provide computers for its education and
administrative staff and also set up a web server. The institution has just purchased
one T1 connection providing 1.5Mbps for upload and download. It has also
purchased the network address 12.22.32.0/24 from its ISP.
Additionally, make sure that all sub-networks are split up allowing them the
fastest access possible depending on their requirements. Also keep the design as
simple as possible allowing efficient troubleshooting while guaranteeing the least
downtime in the system.
As a Network Administrator, Design and Draw the network including
topology and Subnet for this institution with proper explanation/justification and
wherever the data necessary proceed with your assumption.

Question 14: Economics

Explain how the following changes in aggregate demand or short-run aggregate supply, will affect the level of total output and the price level in the short run.
An increase in aggregate demand
A decrease in aggregate demand
An increase in short-run aggregate supply
A reduction in short-run aggregate supply
In the Keynesian framework, which of the following events might cause a recession? Which might cause inflation? Sketch AD/AS diagrams to illustrate your answers.
An increase in government purchases
An increase in nominal wages
A major improvement in technology
A reduction in net exports

Question 15: Psychology

The relationship between social media use and narcissistic personality trait

Question 16: Economics

Your submission should include the screenshots of the STATA outputs (graphs, summary tables, regression tables) along with your answers to the questions.

Stata file Growth.dta contains contains data on average growth rates over 1960-1995 for 65 countries, along with variables that are potentially related to growth. These data were provided by Professor Ross Levine of Brown University and were used in his paper with, Thorsten Beck and Norman Loayza “Finance and the Sources of Growth” Journal of Financial Economics, 2000, Vol. 58, pp. 261- 300.

Using this dataset, we would like to study determinants of GDP growth rate.

Variable	Definition
Country name	Name of country
growth	Average annual percentage growth of real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)* from 1960 to 1995.
rgdp60	The value of GDP* per capita in 1960, converted to 1960 US dollars
Years school	Average number of years of schooling of adult residents in that country in 1960

1) Report a summary table where you have the mean, median, standard deviation, etc. of the outcome variable (growth) and the explanatory variables listed above (rgdp60 and years school). Interpret these results.
2) Construct a scatterplot of average annual growth rate of real GDP on the variable rgdp60. Does there appear to be a relationship between the variables?

4) Construct a scatterplot of average annual growth rate of real GDP on the variable years school. Does there appear to be a relationship between the variables?

3) Run a regression of growth on rgdp60.

a) Comment on the sign, magnitude and the significance of the slope coefficient.
b) Does the intercept coefficient have a meaningful interpretation?
c) Provide an economic interpretation to this regression model.

5) Run a regression of growth on years school.

a) Comment on the sign, magnitude and the significance of the slope coefficient. b) Does the intercept coefficient have a meaningful interpretation.
c) Provide an economic interpretation to this regression model.

Question 17: Psychology

University of Phoenix Material

Correlation

A researcher is interested in investigating the relationship between viewing time (in seconds) and ratings of aesthetic appreciation. Participants are asked to view a painting for as long as they like. Time (in seconds) is measured. After the viewing time, the researcher asks the participants to provide a ‘preference rating’ for the painting on a scale ranging from 1-10. Create a scatter plot depicting the following data:

Viewing Time in Seconds	Preference Rating
10	3
12	4
24	7
5	3
16	6
3	4
11	4
5	2
21	8
23	9
9	5
3	3
17	5
14	6

What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference? Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of greater preference for paintings? Explain. Submit your scatter plot and your answers to the questions to your instructor.

Last assignment!! Please use the word document to get data from scatter plot. Whoever chooses part 1 needs to create plot for everyone to be able to answer the other 3 questions. Please be mindful of that before selecting part one. It would need to be in before everyone else completes their part.

Part 1 – create scatter plot–Dawn

Part 2 – What does the scatter plot suggest about the relationship between viewing time and aesthetic preference?

Part 3 – Is it accurate to state that longer viewing times are the result of greater preference for paintings?

Part 4 – Please explain why or why not?

Part 5 – Separate parts for assignment – Put completed parts together – edit – submit – Tanya

Correlation

Viewing Time in Seconds	Preference Rating
10	3
12	4
24	7
5	3
16	6
3	4
11	4
5	2
21	8
23	9
9	5
3	3
17	5
14	6

Question 18: Business

Exercise A

Barney Company makes and sells stuffed animals. One product, Michael Bears, sells for $28 per bear. Michael Bears have fixed costs of $100,000 per month and a variable cost of $12 per bear. Howe many Michael Bears must be produced and sold each month to break even?

Exercise B

What is meant by the term break-even point? What are two ways in which the break-even point can be expressed? What is the relevant range?

Question 19: Chemistry

Using equations 1 and 2 and their respective equilibrium constants, K, determine the equilibrium constant for the third equation:

A –> B K1=0.10
3A + C –> D K2=0.020
D –> C +3B K=?

Question 20: Psychology

University of Phoenix Material

Week Eight Homework Exercise

Answer the following questions covering material from Ch. 14 of Methods in Behavioral Research:

What is replication, and what role does it play in increasing the external validity or generalizability of a study? In what way is the IRB involved in using participants in a research study?

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using college students as participants in research studies?

What potential problems can arise from generalization of results to different cultures or ethnic groups?

What is meta-analysis, and how is it useful to practitioners and scholars?

True or false: In many cases, meta analyses involves calculating an average effect size for a relationship between variables.

True or false: Many constructs, such as physical attractiveness and self-esteem, appear constant across cultures; thus, external validity is less of a concern when conducting research on such constructs. Provide a brief explanation of your answer.

Summarize the main points of the course, emphasizing the importance of research to the psychology profession.

Question 21: Psychology

University of Phoenix Material

Week Seven Homework Exercise

Answer the following questions, covering material from Ch. 13 of Methods in Behavioral Research:

Define inferential statistics and how researchers use inferential statistics to draw conclusions from sample data.

Define probability and discuss how it relates to the concept of statistical significance.

A researcher is studying the effects of yoga on depression. Participants are randomly assigned to one of two groups: yoga and medication (experimental group); or support group and medication (control group). What is the null hypothesis? What is the research hypothesis?

In the scenario described in the previous question, the researcher implements two programs simultaneously: a 6-week yoga program coupled with medication management and a 6-week support group program coupled with medication management. At the end of the 6 weeks, participants complete a questionnaire measuring depression. The researcher compares the mean score of the experimental group with the mean score of the control group. What statistical test would be most appropriate for this purpose and why? What is the role of probability in this statistical test?

In the scenario described in the previous questions, the researcher predicted that participants in the experimental group—yoga plus medication—would score significantly lower on measures of depression than would participants in the control group—support group plus medication. True or false: A two-tailed test of significance is most appropriate in this case. Explain your response.

Explain the relationship between the alpha level (or significance level) and Type I error. What is a Type II error? How are Type I and Type II errors different?

A researcher is studying the effects of sex—male and female—and dietary sugar on energy level. Male and female participants agree to follow either a high sugar or low sugar diet for eight weeks. The researcher asks the participants to complete a number of questionnaires, including one assessing energy level, before and after the program. The researcher is interested in determining whether a high or low sugar diet affects reported energy levels differently for men and women. At the end of the program, the researcher examines scores on the energy level scale for the following groups: Men – low sugar diet; Men – high sugar diet; Women – low sugar diet; Women – high sugar diet. What statistic could the researcher use to assess the data? What criteria did you use to determine the appropriate statistical test?

Question 22: Chemistry

Consider the following calculation:

x=(b−c)/a

The following experimental values and their errors are obtained:

a = 22.1, Δa = 1.4

b = 29.6, Δb = 1.2

c = 25.7, Δc = 1.2

What is the absolute error in x (Δx)?

Note we are not asking for the value of x itself, only its error. Report your answer to 2 significant figures.

Question 23: English

Last week I went to visit Atlantic College, an excellent private college in Wales. Unusually, it gives people much needed experience of life outside the classroom, as well as the opportunity to study for their exams. The students, who are aged between 16 and 18 and come from all over the word, spend the morning studying. In the afternoon they go out and do a really useful activity, such
as helping on the farm, looking after people with learning difficulties, or checking for pollution in rivers.
One of the great things about Atlantic College students is that they come from many different social backgrounds and countries. As few can afford the fees of £20,000 over two years, grants are available. A quarter of students are British, and many of those can only attend because they receive government help. “I really admire the college for trying to encourage international understanding among young people”, as Barbara Molenkamp, a student from the Netherlands, said. ”You learn to live with people and respect them, even the ones you don’t like. During the summer holidays my mother couldn’t believe how much less I argued with my sister.”
To sum up, Atlantic College gives its students an excellent education, using methods which really seem to work.

What is the writer trying to do in the text?

give an opinion about a particular student
give an opinion about his own experience of education
describe the activities the student
s do in their free time
describe his own experience of education

Question 24: Economics

1a. Please show the T-Account of the bank after the deposit?

1b. If the required reserve ratio is 10%, what is likely to happen?

1c. If the required rate for reserves increase to 11%, what should the bank do? How much can the bank lend out after the adjustment? Assume the bank want to maximize return.

1d. What is the equity multiplier?

1e. If the bank collects an average interest of 7.8% on their loan, and T-bill yield 1.44% return. What is the Return on Equity (ROE)? (Assume the profit margin is 8%)

1h. Can this bank be classified as well capitalized bank?

Question 25: Computer Science

Define an array of 100 ints, and write a loop (including the body) to initialize every element in the array to 0. You can name the array whatever you’d like.

Question 26: Physics

Design a digital circuit that receives a 4 bits BCD-coded(*) number X = abcd and returns a signal M7=1 if X ≥ 7, and M7=0 otherwise. The algorithm below shows the functional description of the circuit (“dc” means a “don’t care” combination).

Inputs and outputs of the circuit must be named as: a, b, c, d, and M7. Respect the upper and lowercases.

(*): BCD code (Binary Coded Decimal) encodes any base-10 number from 0 to 9 in base-2, using 4 bits. That is, 0 is coded by 0000, 1 by 0001, 2 by 0010 and so on until 9, which is encoded by 1001. Base-10 numbers higher than 9 require at least 2 digits and, consequently, they will never enter to the circuit.

if X > 1001 then M7<=dc; else if X > 0110 then M7<=1; else M7<=0; end if; end if;

Question 27: Other

Power-flow programs are used to analyze large transmission grids and the complex interaction between transmission grids and the power markets. Historically, these transmission grids were designed primarily by local utilities to meet the needs of their own customers. But increasingly there is a need for coordinated transmission system planning to create coordinated, continent-spanning grids. Describe in detail some of the issues associated with such large-scale system planning

Question 28: Physics

a) What is an island in an interconnected power system?	[3]
(b)Why is a micro grid designed to be able to operate in both grid-connected and
standalone modes?	[4]
(c) When operating in the stand-alone mode, what control features should be
associated with a micro grid?

Question 29: Other

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Analyze how standardizing procedures and documenting steps can improve outcomes when performing a complex procedure. Review the peer-reviewed journal article, The Next Wave of Hospital Innovation to Make Patients Safer. Articulate your position as the top administrator concerned about the importance of professional conduct and negligence in SCIP quality guidelines.
High Reliability Organizing emphasizes the varying actions that can affect patient safety given that standardized systems ignore the fact that each patient is different. Ascertain the major ramifications when the health care team “fails to rescue” the patient. Identify what hospital policies should be in place and identify previous case laws.
Analyze the four (4) elements required of a plaintiff to prove medical negligence.
Discuss the overarching duties of the health care governing board in mitigating the effects of medical non-compliance as they apply to the rules of practice set forth in the We Care Hospital governing board’s manifesto.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not quality as academic resources.

Question 30: Mathematics

Let T:R^3->R^3 be the transformation that reflects each vector x=(x_1, x_2,x_3) through the plane x_3=0 onto T(x)=(x_1,x_2,-x_3). Prove that T is a linear transformation

Question 31: Geology

Name the five factors that involve in soil formations. With regard to each of these factors of soil formation compare a forested rocky mountain slope to the semi-arid grassland plains.

Question 32: General

GUIDELINES FOR WRITING A RESEARCH ESSAY

The Objective

The overall objective of a research paper is to present a thesis (a coherent and substantiated/evidence-supported argument) about a topic. The ideas that inform the paper are often those of the researcher and other people. It is the student’s responsibility to faithfully and meticulously acknowledge other people’s ideas by citing the sources. Quotation marks must be used for direct quotes.

The Requirements
The research paper should be a maximum of 8-10 double-spaced typed pages/2000- 2500 words (of text). Font size should be 12 points. Margins should be a minimum of 1 inch. Papers that significantly depart from these requirements will be given a lower grade. Students may discuss the assignment, but the essay must be the student’s own work. Plagiarism and any other form of academic dishonesty will be heavily penalized.

The Assignment

Regions across the world are deeply entwined in economic, political, cultural, and environmental processes and activities. The term globalization is used to describe these transcontinental and interregional flows, processes and activities that bind the world’s regions. What are the impacts of globalization in our world of stark regional and social inequalities? “Globalization invites a fundamental questioning of the prospects for developing economies and the world’s poorest people in an era marked by powerful forces of world-wide economic, political and cultural interconnectedness, over which they have little direct political control”, according to McGrew (2000: 346) (McGrew, A., 2000. Sustainable globalization? The global politics of development and exclusion in the new world order. In Allen, T. and Thomas, A. (eds.), Poverty and Development into the 21st Century. Oxford: Oxford University Press). China is a key driver of globalization. There is a narrative that “China is quietly reshaping the world.” For example, China has, since 2013, spent US$300 billion, and plans to spend another US$1 trillion on an infrastructure project called the “Belt and Road” project (the largest ever infrastructure project) connecting countries across the globe from East Asia, to Southeast Asia, South Asia, Central Asia, Russia, Southwest Asia, Northeast Africa, and Europe. The regions in which this project occur comprise 65% of the world’s population and one-third of the world’s economic activities. The project is expected to increase interregional trade and economic cooperation. Beyond this massive infrastructure plan, China’s political, cultural and economic relations with other regions of the world have escalated at an astounding speed since the 1980s. Ninety-two countries in the various world regions have China as their largest international trade partner. Africa is a region which is experiencing rapid and deepening regional ties with China. McGrew (2000) invites us to fundamentally question which region and its people are (or are not) the primary beneficiaries of the increasing and deepening ties between China and Africa, and why. Write an explanatory research essay on: China-Africa Relations: Who Benefits, Who Loses, and Why.

Note: This assignment will be the subject of one of the questions posed in the final exam

The essay must be informed by the research of scholars and specialists, which is typically published in peer-reviewed academic journals and books. There are multiple academic journals and book resources in the University of Regina library, including electronic databases, which report the findings of research. Do subject and key word searches for the topic, for example, China and Africa economic relations, in order to identify the relevant journals and other sources of information. Seek the assistance of the librarians if you need help!

To help you with this assignment and to provide a solid context for a comprehensive explanation of China-Africa relations, please proceed as follows:

Read:
a) The journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled

“Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76, as an example of “a middle-of-the-road/win-win” discussion of China-Africa relations. Note that there are other perspectives that question the balanced/win-win approach and instead emphasize the skewed benefits of this relationship for China, and the heavy costs for African countries.

b) The short article by Manuel, Anja (2017) entitled “China is quietly reshaping the world” https://www.theatlantic.com/international/archive/2017/10/china- belt-and-road/542667/ that describes the emerging scale of China’s ties with the rest of the world and some of the implications.

Do further library research to gather the key research-based material that would substantiate and support your arguments and discussion relating to the topic;

Prepare a one-page research proposal/plan that outlines:
a) The title of the essay;
b) The thesis statement (central idea/overall argument) of the essay. The thesis

statement is the overall (overarching) assertion/point regarding the topic, and

the rationale for making that assertion/point;
c) The objectives/goals that would be met by the essay in order to

comprehensively address the topic and its related thesis statement;
d) The argument/discussion you intend to make under each objective/goal and

the sources you intend to use in support of each argument/discussion.

An excellent exercise would be to identify the thesis statement (and rationale), and the objectives of the journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled “Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76;

Append a reference list to the plan. Note that a minimum of 5 reputable academic sources, e.g. academic journal articles, is required;

Submit the proposal to your professor for comments, no later than Tuesday October 29; and

Finally, after careful consideration of the proposal and the Professor’s comments, start preparing the essay.

A sample of a research proposal is posted in URCOURSES

Writing Tips

Your final essay must reflect a thesis—an organized, well-structured, and coherent argument focused on the topic. The common rule is to have an introduction, main body, and a conclusion.

Introduction: provide a context for the topic, and a statement of the thesis and objectives of the paper.

Main body: present, in full, the analysis of evidence to support/substantiate arguments and systematically organize the discussion in paragraphs. Section headings are useful for improving the coherency of arguments (see example of journal articles, such as the journal article by Rich, T.S. and Recker, S. (2013) entitled “Understanding Sino-African Relations: Neocolonialism or a New Era?” in Journal of International and Area Studies, Vol.20. No.1,pp. 61-76).

Conclusions: summarize the thesis and highlight any related issues.

Grading

First class papers (A- to A+; 80% and above) will score very high on each of the criteria below. Lower grades will be inadequate in one or more of these criteria.

Research
a) Has the student provided relevant references, and a cited references list

and a bibliography that follow carefully the citation rules*?

b) Are there enough sources and are these sources actually used in a

substantive manner in the paper?

c) Are most of the sources academic refereed sources?
d) Are the references relatively recent or dated?

*Reference citations should conform to the APA (American Psychological Association) style. See PDF of summaries and samples of APA citation style in URCOURSES.

Argument: organization, logic, and coherence

a) Is a thesis (central idea/claim/assertion) clearly expressed and is it set in an

appropriate larger context?

b) Is the topic effectively limited in its scope?
c) Are the aims and objectives of the essay outlined clearly?
d) Is an analytical, easy to follow, and convincing argument sustained

throughout the essay?

e) Are ideas well developed and logical?
f) Does the essay have a clear structure with smooth transitions of sentences

and paragraphs?

g) Does the essay have a strong introduction and conclusion?
h) Does the conclusion follow from the evidence?

Argument: depth and breadth of evidence

a) Is sufficient evidence (specific empirical examples from specific research

in specific locations) provided to support the thesis and arguments?

b) Is the evidence factually correct, substantive, and precise?
c) Is the evidence provided relevant to the thesis?
d) Are there relevant facts and alternative arguments that are ignored?

Writing: style and mechanics
a) Are sentences clear, well-structured, focused, and meaningful?
b) Are grammar, spelling, and punctuation of excellent quality?
c) Does the paper demonstrate careful proof-reading and superior editing?

ANY CHALLENGE TO THE ASSIGNED GRADE MUST BE IN WRITING, AND MUST CLEARLY INDICATE THE SPECIFIC REASONS FOR DISSATISFACTION, AND MUST PROVIDE EVIDENCE TO SUPPORT THE REQUEST FOR CHANGE.

Question 33: History

Instruction

How did the societies discussed in this chapter deal with the political, economic, and social challenges that they faced after World War I? How did these challenges differ from one region to another? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation

Question 34: History

Instruction

Review the telegrams under “Opposing Viewpoints” titled “Communications Between Berlin and Saint Petersburg on the Eve of World War II.” Based on these documents, what was the chief issue that led to the outbreak of war? Was Emperor William II correct when he told Tsar Nicholas II that the latter would “have to bear the responsibility for war or peace”? What do these telegrams suggest about why wars happen? Follow these guidelines: Write an essay of 500 words (or more) responding to the prompt Use complete and accurate sentences, avoid showing bias or using “I/me” statements, and avoid text-message writing Your paragraphs need to be at least four to six sentences long Include at least one APA-style citation (Author, year, p. #) with each paragraph, placing it immediately after a sentence with evidence

Question 35: History

Instruction

Choose one of the following topics and answer the questions based on what you learned from the readings and resources for this week: 1) How have historians answered the question of whether the United States or the Soviet Union bears the primary responsibility for the Cold War, and what evidence can be presented on each side of the issue? 2) How did the Cold War impact the nations of Southeast Asia? Your response to the discussion question should: Be at least 150 words in length Be thoughtful and substantive Respond to the discussion prompt and demonstrate critical thinking Follow APA formatting and documentation guidelines when referring to course readings and other materials Use proper spelling, grammar, and punctuation

Question 8: Other

Unit II Essay

Marketing Plan: Part I

Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed below. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the three parts of the marketing plan that you will compose in Units II (Part I), IV (Part II), and VII (Part III). The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).

Scenarios for your start-up company are explained below. (Note that these descriptions are basic, and you will need to be creative and develop the business idea/model for your selected scenario.)

Scenario #1

Travel Supreme is a start-up travel organization with the mission of assisting customers with travel planning. While today’s customers enjoy developing their vacations themselves, Travel Supreme believes there are travel services that are still in demand. Initial research needs to develop what types of travel services are in demand by this target market.

Scenario #2

IT to Seniors is a start-up company interested in ensuring a positive experience for seniors (65 and older) with respect to the use of technological gadgets, software, the Internet, and/or any additional aspects of technology. Initial research will provide an idea of the business model that would be in most demand for this target market.

Scenario #3

Galaxy Restaurant is a start-up restaurant developed with the idea of providing the customer with a unique dining experience. This could extend from the product offering, service offering, atmosphere, or a host of other unique experiences. Initial research will provide an idea of what this unique dining experience would look like.

Scenario #4

Women on the Go is a startup company targeted at women who need assistance with the selection and purchasing of their clothing/accessories. This service is aimed at the more affluent customer who simply does not have the time and/or knowledge to dress to the business or social setting that they are expected to fulfill. Initial research will provide insight into the types of services that this particular target market would be interested in.

Remember to choose one of the aforementioned scenarios to use for the entire course. Submissions will be completed in Units II, IV, and VII and, together, will comprise a full marketing plan. While this is a cumulative marketing plan, submit only the designated unit’s work.

This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.

Include an introduction/overview of the company.
- This section of the marketing plan should introduce the company and business model along with a brief description of the products/services.
Discuss market research strategies.
- This section of the marketing plan should discuss the research strategies that will be used by your company to understand the target market(s), industry, competition, and/or any other aspects of the company that will provide valuable insight into profitable operations.
Describe the macro environment through a political, economic, social, and technological (PEST) analysis.
- In this section, you will compile a PEST analysis of your company. You will analyze how the changes in the macro environment as described in the PEST will impact the company and, specifically, the marketing decisions.

Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).

Select an existing company, and think about applying the political, economic, social, and technological (PEST) analysis to this company. Discuss with your fellow students how using the PEST tool best assists marketers in analyzing the external environment in which they are operating. Review the Unit II Lesson in order to better understand the PEST analysis tool. Please bring forward a company that fellow students have not previously discussed.

Question 9: Economics

(a) The specific-factors model holds that an increase in the relative price of a good lead to real gains for the specific factor used in that sector, losses for the other specific factor, and an ambiguous change in the real wage for labour, whereas the Heckscher Ohlin model predicts unambiguous real gains for one factor and losses for the other. In other words, the industry of employment should not matter in Heckscher Ohlin model but it does in the alternative model. Discuss the underlying causes of these different predictions.

(b) Think about an extension of the specific-factors model, in which, in addition to their wage, labour also earns some part of the rental on specific factor in their industry, i.e., farmers who own their own land and manufacturing workers who salary includes a profit based bonus. Discuss how this extension affects the conclusion of the model.

*Found two sources on course hero

Question 10: Health Care

Promotional Plan Assignment
In this assignment, you will complete another key section of your marketing plan: Write a 2-3 page recommendation for the integrated promotional plan necessary to successfully market your health care product or service. Describe the audience you hope to reach with the promotion efforts, the primary message to be delivered across all media, and the rationale for your media choices. Take into consideration the geographic reach of your target market, and adapt your media choices accordingly. Also, be realistic in cost considerations – do not plan a $2 million ad campaign for a product that will only create $1 million in revenue. The U.S. Small Business Administration suggests spending 7-8% of sales revenue on marketing and advertising each year. So, a new product expected to produce $10 million in sales annually might have a $700,000–$800,000 ad budget for the first year. You will need to research the costs of local media and other communications such as public relations or special events to create an estimated budget for your total promotional plan. Much of this information can be found on the websites of local media outlets (search “ad rates”). For purposes of this assignment, estimated costs are acceptable. Within this section draft, please demonstrate your grasp of the marketing terminology and concepts related to promotion and advertising. Be sure to include the use of traditional media and interactive/social media that you feel are the best choices to reach your target consumers. Explain why you have chosen these media, using the concepts of market segmentation and consumer buying behavior.

Question 11: Finance

Westlake Corporation has the following information (obtained) from its balance sheet, income statement and statement of retained earnings.

Increase in current assets	$50
Operating income	$75
Interest expense	$25
Increase in accounts payable	$35
dividends	$15
Increase in common stock	$20
Increase in net fixed assets	$23
Depreciation expense	$12
Income taxes	$17

Calculate the free cash flow from operations. (Answer found on chegg)

Question 12: Business

Provide a description of the company at which you work. The Company will be a government agency and primary product is travel arrangements. The system is called Defense travel system. (DTS)
Describe an “agency problem” (not just any problem) within the firm and discuss what you think is causing the problem and how the problem might be better controlled.
Describe the job dimensions of the firm and discuss whether or not you believe the current design is appropriate for the firm. Discuss any suggestions you might have for improving the job design.
Describe the compensation package for executives/employees within the firm and discuss whether or not you believe that the compensation package is effective. Discuss any suggestions that you might have for improving the compensation package.
Describe the individual performance measures for executives/employees within the firm and discuss whether or notyou believe that the performance measures are effective. Discuss any suggestions that you might have for improving the performance measures.

Question 13: Psychology

Survey discussion (please engage in the discussion the professor will be looking at this discussion thread. Please respond to this thread with your comments.

Team, why is it important to write good survey questions? and who is it important to?

Question 14: Other

Option 1: Nike (pp. 30–31)

How has the industry in which Nike resides been doing over the last 5 years?
What are the pros, cons, and risks associated with Nike’s core marketing strategy? How have they managed to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
Who are the top three competitors of Nike, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
Looking at the competitors you discussed in question #3, what would you recommend as being the next steps for these competitors and, subsequently, the next steps for Nike to combat these competitors?

Option 2: Cisco (pp. 58–59)

How is building a brand in a business-to-business (B2B) context different than that of a business-to-consumer (B2C) market? How has Cisco managed to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
How has the industry in which Cisco resides been doing over the last 5 years?
Who are the top three competitors of Cisco, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
Is Cisco’s plan to reach out to consumers a viable one? Why, or why not? As a marketing manager for Cisco, what would you recommend to be the next steps?

Option 3: Intel (pp. 59–60)

Discuss how Intel changed ingredient-marketing history. What did it do so well in those initial marketing campaigns? How did Intel manage to develop a strong customer relationship with their target market?
How has the industry in which Intel resides been doing over the last 5 years?
Who are the top three competitors of Intel, and what are their advantages/disadvantages with respect to their product/service development?
Evaluate Intel’s greatest risks and strengths as the industry moves out of the personal computer (PC) era. Identify the next steps that Intel needs to employ in order to maintain its competitive advantage.

Discuss an example of an organization that you believe does either a good job or a not-so-good job of marketing. Explain your rationale. For the sake of diversity within the class discussion, please do not duplicate organizations that have already been discussed by your fellow classmates.

Question 15: History

SLO #2 The 2020 Elections in Texas

Research the current candidates running for state offices in 2020.

Create a table listing candidates and party affiliations for the following offices being elected in November 2020:

Only list candidates for YOUR district. Don’t list all candidates for every office, just ones you could vote for.

Find your representatives here: https://wrm.capitol.texas.gov/home

You may not be able to find all challengers (it’s early) but at least list the incumbent.

S. Senator
S. House of Representatives
Texas State Senator
Texas State Representative
Some School Board Members
Texas Railroad Commissioner
Texas Supreme Court
Texas Court of Criminal Appeals
Pick ONE of the offices above. Analyze and evaluate the candidate’s platforms. What goals or positions do they share? Where do they differ? In your opinion, which candidate is more aligned with Texas’ changing demographics? In your opinion, which candidate do you think will win the election? In your opinion, will the “best” candidate win?
If you can’t find a challenger, at least evaluate the incumbent’s background and platform and determine if he/she should face a challenger.

Resources:

You should be able to find most, if not all, of the information you need here:

https://www.sos.texas.gov/elections/candidates/guide/2020/offices2020.shtml

https://ballotpedia.org/Texas_elections,_2020

By following links on the site above, you should be able to learn more about the candidates, including following links to candidates’ websites, Facebook profiles and Twitter pages.

My area: location for representatives is:

4900 Valley Ridge Drive

Irving, Texas 75062

Question 16: Economics

Based on your findings in the readings, place yourself in the role of a person determining the U.S. currency rate. Recently, you found that the U.S. dollar appreciated against the New Zealand dollar and depreciated against the Chinese yuan. If your goal was to promote U.S. exports, what would be your strategies? Address the concepts below within your essay submission.

Discuss the operation of the foreign exchange market.
Explain how traders benefit from the forward exchange market.
Describe how exchange rates are determined in a free market.

In addition to addressing the bullets listed above, your essay should be comprised of the sections listed below.

Introduction: Include an engaging paragraph or two on the important concepts that the reader will learn about while reading your essay assignment.
Discussion: Provide a brief summary of one article by comparing and contrasting the advantages and disadvantages of promoting U.S. exports. Then, briefly state your position in light of the article. The online databases listed below are recommended in order to find articles for the essay assignment.
- Business Source Complete
- ABI/INFORM Collection
Conclusion: Summarize the main results, and provide policy recommendations to promote U.S. exports.

Your APA-style essay should be a minimum of 500 words in length, not counting the title and reference pages. You are required to use a minimum of two sources; at least one source must come from the CSU Online Library (one source may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

Question 17: Engineering

We have a piece of cardboard that is 50cm by 20 cm and we are going to cut out the corners and fold up the sides to form a box. Determine the height of the box that will give the maximum volume.

Question 18: Mathematics

Find two positive number whose product is 750 and and for which the sum of one and ten times the other is a minimum

Question 19: English

Write an exemplification essay in which you argue the internet and social media (facebook,instagram,twitter,etc.) helps people feel good about themselves through sharing images, comments,stories,confessions,etc., or bad about themselves, for instance because it as an invasion of privacy. Some topics you could include are online bullying, the many internet challenges ( tide pod challenge, the Kylie Jenner Challenge, the cinnamon challenge,etc.) or on the other side how the internet and social media helps people stay connected.

If you use any quotes from an outside source cite it both in the, for example (Jones 56) and on the last page as a works cited listing.

Question 20: Economics

A monopolist is operating at an output level where |ε| = 3. The govern- ment imposes a quantity tax of $6 per unit of output. If the demand curve facing the monopolist is linear, how much does the price rise?

Question 21: History

Compare and contrast the steamboats of the antebellum years with technologies today. In your estimation, what modern technology compares to steamboats in its transformative power?

This answer is on Chegg

Question 22: English

One paragraph that explains why the industrial revolution is described as the “antithesis to romantic literature.”

Question 23: Business

Instruction

CASE STUDY Nissan Company Nissan Motor Company, Ltd, shortened to Nissan, is a Japanese multinational automaker. Head quartered in Japan, founded 1932. It formerly marketed vehicles under the “Datsun” brand name and is one of the largest car manufacturers –revenue appx $90 billion USD (2007) and Employees 190,000 (2008). Nissan continues its quest to optimize product development and deliver highly innovative technology. Today, in various countries and regions around the world they enjoy a reputation for creating truly innovative vehicles and service programs. With facilities around the world, the Qashqai, Micra, Micra C+C and Note are produced by Nissan Motor Manufacturing (UK) Ltd in Sunderland, Tyne & Wear. • Answer the following questions on the above case, you should review about this company through secondary available information and use APA style references 1) Describe the nature of operations management in the organization. In doing this, first describe the operation process of the production system. Second, identify operations decisions and responsibilities. Finally, write a short paper on some of the challenges facing operations management.? (Marks 2) (word count maximum:500) 2) Evaluate Nissan Motor Company in terms of its emphasis on the operations strategy objectives? What are the order winners and the order qualifiers? (Marks 1) (word count maximum:300) 3) What is the proper role of the operations function in product design? (Marks .05) (word count maximum:100) 4) How to manage production and operation issues in the context of demand uncertainty and fluctuation? (Marks 1) (word count maximum:300) 5) Suppose that Nissan Motor Company has considering moving from a batch process to an assembly-line process to better meet evolving market needs. What concerns might the following functions have about this proposed process change: marketing, finance, human resources, accounting, and information systems? (Marks 0.5) (word count maximum:150).

Question 24: Other

Instruction

Conduct research on behavior skills assessments. Then, complete a self-evaluation using information you gained or realized through this week’s Books and Resources. Prepare a written appraisal of your own specific skills and behaviors, and then examine how these can be beneficial to guide organizational change as a leader/coach. Determine how these findings would affect your personal relations and those of others within an organization. Then, provide real world examples of the application to support your assessment. Support your assessment with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your assessment should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

Question 25: Mathematics

With only a part-time job and the need for a professional wardrobe, Rachel quickly maxed out her credit card the summer after graduation. With her first full-time paycheck in August, she vowed to pay $210 each month toward paying down her $7,424 outstanding balance and not to use the card. The card has an annual interest rate of 24 percent. How long will it take Rachel to pay for her wardrove? Should she shop for a new card? Why or why not?

If Rachel continues to pay $210 per month, it will take her 62 months to pay for her wardrobe. Answer is 62 how did we get 62?

Question 26: Business

Refer Attachment for questions. Pls refer the YouTube links.

Requirements Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)

Case: Discussion on Australian Auto Industry

Some videos related to the event covered in the case:

Toyoda Announcing the closure:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2xTioEnSuSM

Speech to the Parliament about Tony Abbott’s inaction on Toyota (Note he mentioned the loss of jobs in US between 2007-2009)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qbrEOPkerD0

Workers reacting to closure:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LFh4q-S7tGI

Discuss in detail:

1) What caused the decline of auto industry in Australia? Does it make sense to have an auto industry in Australia in the first place?

2) Should the government adopt more protective trade policies to save the auto industry in Australia? What kind of policies would work?

3) What do you think of the on-going trade conflicts between US and China?

Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)

Case : Global Capital Market and Foreign Exchange Risks

The risks and rewards of global capital market

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VEq04xjxfyY

this topic, we will focus more on the flow of capital globally. Obviously, the global capital market provides opportunities as well as risks for investors & companies looking for financing. However, a major development over the past 2 decades — a rather worrisome one in my mind — has been the dominance of financial institutions (the ultimate handlers of capital) in the world economy. Financial industry emerged to serve the “real” industries. For instance, the creation of install payments allowed the exponential sales growth for Singer sewing machines. The innovative mortgage products allow us to enjoy the ownership of a house before we save up enough to buy one. But now, the servant has become the master — CEOs of companies now listen to Wall Street and try to meet the earnings estimate of some analysts who may have never set foot on the floor of any factory. Private equity fund managers buy and sell companies, often destroying the core competencies and the culture of a company while dressing up the balance sheet and then they exit with 100% to 300% returns in 1 to 3 years. A newly college-minted investment banker can make $200k plus while a senior engineer makes half of that. Smart graduates from MIT go to Wall Street to do financial engineering rather than real engineering. With their ingenious engineering, we now have all kinds of financial products. While the real-world economy is about $70 trillion, outstanding derivative contracts are estimated to be more than 10 times that, some of which we don’t know what they are and how they work or how risky they are and whether they will lead to another financial crisis like 2008 again. With my rather “biased” negative view of Wall Street out in the open (Mind you, I have an MBA in finance),

I would like that you think about the following:

1) In what ways can a company be exposed to foreign exchange risks? What are some of the ways to hedge? Should companies try to make money from such hedging activities?

2) What are the causes of the global financial crisis of 2008? What caused the crisis in Greece a few years back? Have we (governments, financial institutions, investors etc.) made enough changes (or any changes at all) to prevent future crises?

Note: Answer each question briefly and include the references. (12 pt. 1.5 spacing)

Question 27: Religious Studies

Please imagine, that you are the architect of a new society. It is up to you to determine the social order, the culture, the norms and values of this totally new world. You are indeed creating a religion, but you are not limited to theological tenets. Your goal is to influence the way that your community interacts with one another. Therefore, it is important to think about what you want people to believe. How should individuals interact with one another, and what boundaries and rules will govern those interactions? Is there a sacred space that encourages community in this new society like a church, synagogue, or the Kaaba in Muhammad’s day? What holidays are important if there are any? Does your religion believe in a spiritual realm, or how does it deal with death, life, and the afterlife if at all?

Please think about all of the religious teachers that we have discussed such as the Buddha, Confucius, Lao Tzu, Moses, Jesus, and Muhammad, to name a few and their stories. Think about what they taught and the challenges they faced in influencing others to believe and behave in a certain manner. Like them, …others will be dissecting your “Religion” centuries from now, and they will determine if what you’ve organized and constructed is a good and logical system to follow. Nevertheless, your goal is to achieve the common ends of promoting social cohesion, or helping people to achieve an eternal reality, or simply the best “good” within the individuals that encounter your religion. This is your world, and the fate of it will lie in your system of beliefs.

Below are a few elements to include and/or consider for your new society. Just remember…its success depends on the health of your socio-religious ideas that you put forward.

Name of Religion:

Founder:

The story of the Founder:

Circumstances of Birth, Childhood, Adult Life (Ex: Story of Buddha in the Palace & the Four Passing sights; Jesus’ virgin birth narrative)
Country and the realities of their day, etc. (Confucius and the Warring States of China; Buddha and the caste system)

Religious Creed: a written formal statement of beliefs that highlight central tenets of your religion.

Nicene Creed (Catholicism)
Shahadah (Islam)

Major Tenets of Belief: Primary characteristics, practices, or beliefs that define a follower of your religion. You can include your Ten Commandments extra credit for this.

Ten Commandments (Judaism)
Eight Noble Truths (Buddhism)
5 Pillars (Islam)

Denominations: Give at least 2-3 variations of your initial belief system and how they differ from original, or orthodox belief. What happened? What caused the split?

Theravada, Mahayana, Vajrayana (Buddhism)
Catholicism, Eastern Orthodox, Protestantism (Christianity)
Sunni, Shia, Sufi (Islam)

Religious Symbols: Think of a symbol that already exists, or that you can create, that represents your religion and belief system.

Re-visit your Iconography assignment from Lesson 9

Other Things to Consider:

What is your religion’s view of God?
What is your religion’s view of the afterlife?
How can someone be initiated into your religion?
Is this religion the only way to truth?
Does your religion address any social realities like politics, social order, and behavior? Is there a Caste system, or other social programs? Think Confucius’ deliberate tradition
Is there a day of the week that your religion congregates? What does this look like?
What holidays are important, and how are they relevant to your religion? (Feel free to create a holiday)

Question 28: Education

Research a health care organization or network that spans several states with in the United States (United Healthcare, Vanguard, Banner Health, etc.). Assess the readiness of the health care organization or network you chose in regard to meeting the health care needs of citizens in the next decade.

Prepare a 1,000 word paper in APA format that presents your assessment and proposes a strategic plan to ensure readiness. Include the following:

Describe the health care organization or network.
Describe the organization’s overall readiness based on your findings.
Prepare a strategic plan to address issues pertaining to network growth, nurse staffing, resource management, and patient satisfaction.
Identify any current or potential issues within the organizational culture and discuss how these issues may affect aspects of the strategic plan.
Propose a theory or model that could be used to support implementation of the strategic plan for this organization. Explain why this theory or model is best.

Question 29: English

One paragraph that explains why the industrial revolution is described as the “antithesis to romantic literature.”

Question 30: Chemistry

An ice freezer behind a restaurant has a Freon leak, releasing 42.39 g of C2H2F3Cl into the air every week. If the leak is not fixed, how many kilograms of fluorine will be released into the air over 6 months? Assume there are 4 weeks in a month.

Question 31: Chemistry

The compound known as butylated hydroxytoluene, abbreviated as BHT, contains carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. A 3.876 g sample of BHT was combusted in an oxygen rich environment to produce 11.61 g of CO2(g) and 3.803 g of H2O(g).

Question 1: Engineering

Research Paper

Solid fuel and component recovery from tetra-pak
waste using hydrothermal treatment

Question 2: Computer Science

Java Tutor-A*

COSC 520/CPMA 580: Artificial Intelligence

Assignment #2: 19-Puzzle

Points: 100

Consider a variant of the 8-puzzle where there are 19 tiles plus a blank, arranged in the shape of a cross. An example would be:

+———+
| 2| 1| +———+
| 6| | +—————————–+ | 4| 5| 7| 3| 8| 9| +—————————–+ | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | +—————————–+ | 16 | 17 |

+———+

| 18 | 19 |

+———+

The rules of the puzzle are the same as that of the 8-puzzle. A tile may be moved to the blank space in each move (or you can think of it as moving the blank). The goal is to get all the tiles in the following order using the fewest number of moves:

+———+
| | 1| +———+
| 2| 3| +—————————–+ | 4| 5| 6| 7| 8| 9| +—————————–+ | 10 | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | +—————————–+ | 16 | 17 |

+———+

| 18 | 19 |

+———+

Write an program using the A* algorithm to solve this puzzle.

The program should use a consistent heuristic measure for h. One possible function is the Manhattan distance: For any non-blank tile, find the difference in the x-direction from where the tile is to where it should be in the solution and add that to the difference in the y-direction from where the tile is to where it should be. Sum up these numbers for all the non-blank tiles to calculate h.

The program should read in the starting state from standard input and print out the states that lead to the goal to standard output. The input and output will consist of just the numbers, not the lines as shown above. The number 0 will indicate the blank in the input and the output.

Allowable Code

You may use any code from the book or from class. You may use the APIs for a PriorityQueue, HashMap or HashTable, and ArrayList, or similar code for these data structures (and accredit the code.) You must write your own A* algorithm code or use the book’s code.

Sample Run

java Puzzle

Start State:

63
4 11 5 7 0 8

10 12 13 14 15 9

16 17

18 19

63
4 11 5 7 8 0

10 12 13 14 15 9

16 17

18 19

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12 13 14 15 0

16 17

18 19

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12 13 14 0 15

16 17

18 19

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12 13 0 14 15

16 17

18 19

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 12 0 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

63
4 11 5 7 8 9

10 0 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

63 405789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19

63 450789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

03 456789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

23 456789

10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17

18 19

Question 3: Engineering

suppose first and second ball drawn from urn are red and black what is the probability you have presented with urn c2

Question 4: Engineering

Acetone is typically produced in commercial quantities as a by-product during the formation of phenol. Benzene is alkylated to cumene, which is further oxidised to cumene hydro peroxide and finally cleaved to yield phenol and acetone. However, acetone manufactured thus generally contains small amounts of the reactant benzene and the desired product phenol. In the past, these impurities were deemed to be within allowable limits. However, recent downward revisions of these limits, particularly in the pharmaceutical industry, has made alternative processes (which do not involve benzene) more attractive. You are required to design one such alternative process, using isopropyl alcohol as the reactant and appropriate catalyst(s) that will achieve minimal effluent discharge. Assume an operating period of 8000 hrs on stream and 95% purity of the final product.

Question 5: Computer Science

COMP 2412
Fall 2019
Assignment 1#
Total Marks: 30

Notes:

For each assignment question submit program files (C/C++).
Make a document file and write pseudocodes for all three

program.

Each question has 10 marks (5 for pseudocode and 5 for the

implementation)

Your program should have well documented too. If your code is

not well documented (commented), you will recive 20% (1 mark) penalties on each question.

Final Deliverables:

Three program files for three tasks and one document file which will have pseudocodes. And finally compressed all files in one assignment1.zip file.

Write the C/C++ program that uses a recursive function to print the elements of a list in reverse order.
Write a C/C++ program for the recursive algorithm that removes all occurrences of a specific character from a string.
Write down a program which will create a list (simple linear linked list) of nodes. Each node consists of two fields. The first field is a

pointer to a structure that contains a student id (integer) and a grade- point average (float). The second field is a link. The data are to be read from a text file. Your program should read a file of 10 students (with student id and grade point average) and test the function you wrote (by printing student’s information on screen).

Question 6: Engineering

6-13. As a junior field engineer, you have been asked to assist the contractor on your job in resolving the following problem. A 4.9 kW motor and gear drive rated at 175 rpm has been shipped with the four impellers described below. The baffled rapid mix tank into which it is to be installed is 3.0 m3 in volume (1.56 m diameter by 1.56 m deep). Which impeller should be used? Assume a water temperature of 10°C, a G = 1,000 s–1, a water density of 1,000 kg/m3, and that the motor power to water power efficiency is 80%. Show the calculations to justify your decision.

Impellers

Propeller, pitch of 2, 3 blades, diameter = 0.48 m, Np = 1.0
Propeller, pitch of 2, 3 blades, diameter = 0.61 m, Np = 1.0
Turbine, 6 flat blades, vaned disc, diameter = 0.48 m, Np = 6.3
Turbine, 6 flat blades, vaned disc, diameter = 0.61 m, Np = 6.3

Question 7: English

having read rachel harveys essay my serenity. Write a paragraph describing your serenity. Like the author,you should convey an impression not just of the feeling itself or of the setting that produces it ,but both

Question 8: Mathematics

Suppose that, historically, April has experienced rain and a temperature between 35 and 50 degrees on 20 days. Also, historically, the month of April has had a temperature between 35 and 50 degrees on 25 days. You have scheduled a golf tournament for April 12. If the temperature is between 35 and 50 degrees on that day, what will be the probability that the players will get wet?

estion 9: Accounting

Laurie Manufacturing Pty Ltd., manufactures grass collection attachments for Lawn Mowers that are sold in the market. The income statement for 2018 indicated an operating loss of $420,000 details of which are given below: Laurie Manufacturing Pty Ltd. Sales (30,000 attachments @$500 each) 15,000,000 Fixed Costs 5,670,000 Variable Costs 9,750,000 Operating income (420,000) Mr Samuel (cost accountant) and Mr Martin, his assistant, have been asked by the owners of Laurie Manufacturing to see if there are ways to reduce costs. After some thinking and some analysis, Martin proposes to Samuel the following two options: 1.Option 1 – To reduce the variable costs by 70%, by procuring cheaper direct raw materials. 2.Option 2 – To reduce the company’s variable costs by 60%, by reducing the costs it currently incurs for safe disposal of wasted plastic resulting from the manufacture of the grass collection attachments. Samuel is concerned that this would expose Laurie Manufacturing to potential 3 environmental liabilities. He requests Martin to factor into his analysis an estimation of potential environmental liabilities. Samuel responds by saying: “We are not violating any laws. There is some possibility that we may have to incur environmental costs in the future, but if we bring it up now, this proposal will not go through because the owners will always assume that these costs could be larger than they turn out to be. We may be in danger of the company closing down and costing our jobs. The only reason our competitors are making money is because they are doing exactly what I am proposing.” REQUIRED: 1. Show calculations for break even revenues for 2018. 2. Show calculations to determine the break even revenues for 2018, if variable costs are at 70% and 60% of revenues as per options 1 and 2. 3. Show calculations to determine the operating income for 2018, if variable costs were at 70% and 60% of revenues as per options 1 and 2. 4. Evaluate Martin’s comments in line with the ethical standards as advanced by the Institute of Management Accountants. 5. How would the non-inclusion of environmental costs impact Laurie Manufacturing in the future.

Question 10: Business

Excel has the capability to convert/summarize numbers into visual representation through various charts. Share with the class why charts are important. Are there particular types of charts for specific purposes? For instance, when is the right time to use a pie chart instead of a line chart or a bar chart?

Question 11: Other

You are a manager in charge of a marketing research project. Your goal is to determine what effects different levels of advertising have on consumption behavior. Based on the results of the project you will recommend the amount of money to be budgeted for advertising different products next year. Your supervisor will require strong justification for your recommendations, so your research design has to be as sound as possible. However, your resources (time, money, and labor) are limited. Develop a research project to address this problem. Focus on the kind of research designs you would use, why you would use them, and how you would conduct the research.

Question 12: Computer Science

Let us consider the following Elliptic Curve Equation y 2 = x 3 + x + 6 mod 11 over the
Prime field of 𝑍ଵଵ
∗ and solve the following questions
a. Find the list of points lies on the elliptic curve
b. Assume that 𝑃 = (5,2), Calculate 5. 𝑃 = (𝑥, 𝑦) and find (𝑥, 𝑦)

Question 13: Statistics

Name: _____________________________________________________

Directions: (1) For each set of variables provided, please form a research question, (2) next, create a Research and Null hypotheses, (3) identify which variable is the independent variable and which variable is the dependent variable, (4) provide a conceptual definition for each variable, (5) lastly, create five indicators for each of your conceptual definitions (if needed).

I have done the first one for you as an example.

Cash Incentives and Test Performance

RQ: Will cash incentives increase test performance?

H_A: Cash incentives will increase test performance.

H_O: There is no relationship between cash incentives and test performance.

IV: Cash incentives

DV: Test performance

Conceptualization 1: For the purposes of this research cash incentives will be defined as a cash award for grades received on an examination.

Indicators for conceptualization 1: $50 for an A, $40 for a B, $20 for a C, $0 for D or F.

Conceptualization 2: For the purposes of this research, test performance is defined as grade received on an exam.

Indicators for conceptualization 2: None needed. The conceptualization does not require operationalization as it already specifies exactly how the concept will be measured.

Attractiveness of Person and Perceived Credibility

RQ:

H_A:

H_O:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

Academic Stress and Prescription Amphetamine Abuse

RQ:

H_A:

H_O:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

Intelligence and Assertiveness

RQ:

H_A:

H_O:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

Number of Hours of Daylight and Suicide

RQ:

H_A:

H_O:

IV:

DV:

Conceptualization 1:

Indicators for conceptualization 1:

Conceptualization 2:

Indicators for conceptualization 2:

Question 14: Business

Select one element of the Marketing mix and discuss how marketing research could help that area. Be specific in your recommendations.

Your original response is due, and then reply to another student’s post . The required length for your original posting is 350 words, and your reply should be a minimum of 250 words.

Question 15: Communications

This week you will have the opportunity to write a letter to the editor as a way to explore your research topic. If you have never read any letters to the editor, you might find reading a few as a way to see what it is you will be writing. The source you choose to read them from will not matter since the content and guidelines for letters to the editor are quite similar. As I wrote in the syllabus, the letters are short (usually about 200 words so one typed page double spaced) and are to the point with a specific focus. This means you will want to write about an aspect of your research topic.

Question 16: Psychology

I just need an introduction paragraph for the paragraph below… 100 words

A well-known researcher at a major university has two graduate student assistants. He conducts three studies in his laboratory, all of which involve very labor-intensive procedures. The graduate research assistants complete all of the data collection. They also assist in writing the Discussion section of the final article, adding their thoughts and suggestions to the various drafts. The article is accepted into a leading journal for publication. The primary researcher lists only himself as author of the article, claiming that he wrote at least 75% of the final paper.

Describe the ethical consideration(s) involved with the scenario.
Has the primary researcher committed an ethical violation?

Question 17: Physics

In a cycling road race consisting of a flat section and an uphill section, a particular cyclist pedals with an average power of 324 Watts for 5.50 hrs on the flat section of the course, and an average power of 418 Watts for 30.0 mins while climbing the uphill section, which has an average grade of 6%. Potentially useful information: power=energy/time; 1 watt= 1 joule/sec; 1kcal= 4186 J; 1kcal = 1 food Calorie.

(A) calculate the average mechanical power output of the cyclist over the whole race.

(B) given that the human body has an efficiency of 25.0% at converting foo energy into mechanical output, how many kcal of food energy must the cyclist consume to replace the mechanical energy expended during the race?

Question 18: Mathematics

Find The Limit As X Approaches 0 Of (5x-tan(5x))/x^3 Using L’Hospital’s Rule.

Question 19: Health Care

Objectives & Target Market Assignment

In this writing assignment, you will complete the following steps:

Write at least two marketing objectives to be accomplished by this marketing plan. Be sure that your objectives are stated in a way to meet the criteria for “S.M.A.R.T.” goals, which means they are:

Specific — answer the who, what, when, where, why questions

Measurable – include a numeric objective (“increase sales to $10 million”)

Attainable – within your reach, even if optimistic (you are willing to commit)

Realistic – have a reasonable likelihood of being met (you are able to commit)

Timely – have a deadline or time period attached

Based on your analysis of the market data, and a comprehensive understanding of the customer and the buying processes, write a 2-3 page description of the major segments of the market and the specific target market segment you have chosen to serve. Be sure to include a discussion of demographic and psychographic factors if you are targeting a consumer segment, or for business targets, a discussion of whether you are serving a producer, reseller, institution or government unit. Include your reasons for concluding that this is the target market segment that is most likely to be served profitably by your firm.

Please combine all sections of this draft (Marketing Objectives and Target Market Strategy) into a single document, along with citation of sources.

Question 20: Economics

On September 6, Sam Goldfarb reported for the Wall Street Journal that the “average yield on double-B bonds, the highest-rated type of speculative-grade debt, has fallen to 4.07% from 4.69% at the start of May, according to Bloomberg Barclays data. The average yield on a tiple-C bond, close to the lowest-rated type of speculative-grade debt, has increased to 10.89% from 9.64%”. Explain why the average yield on double-B bonds has decreased, while the average yield on triple-C bonds rose?

Question 21: Economics

Visit WSJ.com Bond Benchmark page, and calculate the risk premium on the latest Baa corporate bond relative to AA corporate bonds.

Question 22: Accounting

Need to completely answer three accounting case questions. Please take a look at the attached document and answer the case study questions completely and accurately.

Accounting discussion Questions

Case A Revenue Recognition

Smooth Blend, Inc., a calendar year company, produces several blends of whiskey. Maturing whiskey is stored for 3 years in a large, dark aromatic warehouse owned by Smooth Blend. Smooth Blend sells the whiskey to Distributor Company at the beginning of the aging process (January 1, 2011). Distributor Company will pick up the whiskey at the end of the aging process (December 31, 2013) and take it to its facilities for bottling. Distributor Company pays the full purchase price to Smooth Blend on January 1, 2011 to protect itself against price increases.

When should Smooth Blend recognize revenue? Why?

Would your answer change

If the quality control manager of Distributor Company had the right to taste the whiskey on December 31, 2013 and receive a full refund if not satisfied with the quality of the liquor?

If there was no right of return but Smooth Blend promised to help Distributor Company attract customers?

If Smooth Blend acquired a fixed price option from Distributor Company to repurchase the whiskey in 6 months?

How would your answer change if Smooth Blend sold the whiskey to Friendly Bank, agrees to oversee the aging process on the bank’s behalf, and acquires a fixed price forward from Friendly Bank to repurchase the whiskey in 6 months?

Case B: Revenue Recognition: Timing

Accountants from Construction Company, Boat Builder Company and BMW are discussing revenue recognition. All are calendar year companies. A description of the production process of each company follows.

Construction Company builds homes on lots it owns. It currently is building a home for Billy Bob (BB). The terms of the contract required BB to pay the entire $200,000 price of the home on the date the construction contract was signed (October 1, 2012). The advance payment protects BB from a forecasted increase in home prices. The contract promises BB that he can move into the house no later than 9 months from when he signs the contract (June 30, 2013). The total expected cost of completing the house is $150,000. If the house is not completed by June 30, 2013 Construction Company must pay BB a $1,500 penalty each week until he can move into the house. Construction Company spends

$20,000 to lay the foundation for the house in 2012. It completes the house for $2,000 under budget on July 1.

Boat Builder Company currently is completing work on a boat that a customer contracted for on September 30, 2012 and expects to take delivery of on August 1, 2013. The $200,000 fixed price contract does not obligate the customer to pay Boat Builder until the boat is delivered and the title transfers to the customer. The boat is a basic design offered by Boat Builder. Customers individualize the basic boat by selecting custom trim, accessories and other finish details. Boat Builder typically fulfills specific customer orders rather than holding boats in inventory. If the customer cancels the contract prior to delivery, Boat Builder must be paid for any work completed up to that date. Boat Builder incurs initial design and selling costs of $10,000. Boat Builder’s actual and expected building costs are

$150,000, which consists of raw materials of $50,000 and labor costs of $100,000. The raw materials are purchased on October 1, 2012. Raw materials are consumed and direct labor costs are incurred evenly over the construction period.

BMW agrees to sell Joe Customer a new BMW 650i for $85,000 on December 4, 2012 through one of its company-owned dealerships. The cost to BMW to produce the car is $60,000. Because of the highly specified nature of the options requested by this customer, BMW must build the car from scratch, a process that will take 8 weeks. BMW anticipates delivering the vehicle on February 1, 2013.

Under current GAAP, how much revenue should Construction Company, Boat Builder and BMW recognize in 2012 and 2013? Please answer in a minimum of 200 words

Case C: Cellular Telephone Contract

XTel runs a promotion in which new customers who sign a two-year contract receive a free phone. There is a one-time activation fee of $50 and a monthly fee of $40 for the ongoing service. The same monthly fee is charged by XTel regardless of whether the free phone is provided. Each phone costs XTel $100.

XTel frequently sells the phone separately for $120. XTel is not required to refund any portion of the fee paid for any reason. XTel is a sufficiently capitalized, experienced and profitable business. There is no reason to believe the two years of service will not be provided.

How should XTel account for this transaction? Please answer completely with a minimum of 150 words.

Question 23: Mathematics

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/wildlife-management-wildlife-manager-crocodile-lengths-worki-chapter-1.6-problem-24e-soluti

Question 24: Business

Friedman identifies 10 ‘Flatteners” in part 2 of TWIF that he believes have accelerated the pace of Globalization. For this discussion assignment, you should rank what you believe to be the top 3 of these 10 flatteners in order of their impact. In other words, identify your first, second and third most important Flattener based on TWIF or other observations or information you may have. Give a brief explanation for why these particular flatteners are so important and a rationale for your ranking as part of your contribution. Feel free to comment on the responses of your peers.

Question 25: Business

Current position of the organisation: Provide an outline of goals and the philosophy of the
organisation. Present the current target market and performance of the organisation. (10 Marks)
2. Analysis of the business environment: Effectively assess the Micro-Environment, Market /
Task environment and Macro-Environment of your organisation. (20 Marks)
3. Roles and skills of managers: To discuss the overlapping roles of managers and the skills
required of them in order to take the organisation. The management style of the management
team and its relevance to the achievement of the organisational goals. (15 Marks)
4. Human Resources: An assessment of the organisations human resources in terms of skills,
motivation and retention. (15 Marks)
3
5. Change Management: Ways in which management can react to the changing business
environment. Discuss the inter-related approaches which the organisation can adopt in reacting
to the environment. (10 Marks)
6. Organisation Design: The fundamental principles underlying organisation design should be
discussed. Evaluate the organisational structure of the organisation and its suitability for the
growth and expansion of the organisation. (15Marks)
7. Recommendations: Present possible recommendations and critical success factors that the
organisation should implement to achieve the desired goals.

Question 26: History

Instruction

In one paragraph, identify which 3 colonies you feel were the best examples of what would become the United States. Then explain why for each in 1-2 sentences. Total length of paragraph should be 5-8 sentences. Consider values important to us today as Americans, which colonies really influenced these core values the most?

Question 27: Health Care

(Title of the paper): Identify the prevalence of tick-borne diseases from existing data and the risk of co-infection in the United States for the last two decades then provide public health recommendations to increase awareness regarding the tick-borne diseases

Nature & scope of proposed paper:

Tick-borne diseases have been a significant public health problem in the last two decades. Climate change and global warming are two crucial factors affecting the growth of tick-borne pathogens that should be controlled to maintain humans and domestic animals’ health (Sutherst, 2004). According to the CDC report (CDC, 2016) listed that top five tick-borne diseases in the United States: anaplasmosis, babesiosis, Lyme disease, spotted fever rickettsiosis, and ehrlichiosis. Regarding to the geographical distribution to TBD, the CDC demonstrated in the 2016 report that cases have been found of Babesiosis in the east coast states, west coast states, southern states, northern states; additionally, anaplasmosis cases have been found in Colorado, Idaho, New Mexico, Alaska, and Hawaii in (2016, CDC). The US Department of Health and Human Services has released in ‘Tick-borne Disease Working Group 2018 report’ (HHS,2018) to the Secretary and the Congress that Lyme disease has raised by 300% in the northeastern states and 250% in the north-central states.

There are three significant tick-borne diseases in the northeast states, including, Lyme disease, babesiosis, and anaplasmosis according to the (CDC, 2018). The Lyme disease profile contains the disease agents: Borrelia burgdorferi and B. mayonii; as well as the mode of transmission: a lone star tick bite; also, the disease has two stages localized stage and disseminated stage; additionally, the incubation period: 3 days to a month (CDC, 2018). The second TB disease is babesiosis including the agents: Babesia microti and other Babesia species; also, the disease could be transmitted by the vector Ixodes scapularis ticks and the signs of the disease are mostly asymptomatic, however, sometimes it could be lethal; lastly, the incubation period is one to more than nine weeks (CDC, 2018). The third tick-borne disease profile is anaplasmosis. The anaplasmosis’ agent is Anaplasma phagocytophilum also the diseases could transfer by a bite from an infected tick and a contaminated blood transfusion (CDC, 2018). In addition to the epidemiological profile of the tick-borne disease, the risks of co-infection consider a significant health problem that concerns the public health community. In a retrospective cohort study conducted by (Fida, 2019) stated that 37% of patients with babesiosis developed non-fatal co-infection of Lyme diseases and anaplasmosis.

In conclusion, this project aims to identify the magnitude of tick-borne disease in the US, create a geographical map of at least four of tick-borne diseases in the US, compose an epidemiological profile of 4 TB diseases, finally develop public health recommendation of the prevention and public education of tick-borne diseases.

TBD- Tick-borne disease TB- Tick-borne

Objectives (please list a minimum of three):

By 9/12/19, conduct literature reviews with a minimum of 15 evidence-based article of the top 5 tick-borne diseases in the US.
By 9/19/19, identify the prevalence of a minimum 4 of tick-borne diseases in the United States specifically the northern states of the US from existing data.
By 9/25/19, distinguish prevalence of co-infection and the risk of tick-borne diseases co-infections from existing data.
By 10/10/19, create geographical map of the top 5 tick-borne diseases in the northern states or in the US by using existing maps
By 10/20/19, arrange epidemiological profile of 5 tick-borne diseases in the north east states.
By 11/1/19, develop minimum of 4 public health recommendations focusing on prevention and public education of tick-borne diseases in the US.
By 11/15/19, finalize and submit the report, portfolio, and the poster.

Strategies to be used:

Review of the literature (primary studies, case studies) and public health sites including the CDC, MMWR, https://www.cdc.gov/ticks/diseases/index.html to identify tick borne diseases in the US, prevalence, and epidemiological profiles.

Site resources to be used (if special permission is needed to gain access to data, records, etc. how it will be arranged):

Identify which competencies you will be developing during the course of your APE (please identify a minimum of five competencies, of which three must be foundational competencies):

FC1: Apply epidemiological methods to the breadth of settings and situations in public health practice
FC2: Select quantitative and qualitative data collection methods appropriate for a given public health context
FC3: Analyze quantitative and qualitative data using biostatistics, informatics, computer-based programming and software, as appropriate.
FC4: Interpret results of data analysis for public health research, policy or practice
FC7: Assess population needs, assets, and capacities that affect communities’ health
EPIC1: Identify key sources of data for epidemiologic purposes.
EPIC2: Describe a public health problem in terms of magnitude, person, time and place.
EPIC3: Apply the basic terminology and definitions of epidemiology.
EPIC4: Draw appropriate inferences from epidemiologic data.

References: (AMA or APA formatting)

Fida, M., Challener, D., Hamdi, A., O’horo, J., & Abu Saleh, O. (2019, June). Babesiosis: A Retrospective Review of 38 Cases in the Upper Midwest. In Open forum infectious diseases (Vol. 6, No. 7, p. ofz311). US: Oxford University Press.

Hersh, M. H., Ostfeld, R. S., McHenry, D. J., Tibbetts, M., Brunner, J. L., Killilea, M. E., … & Keesing, F. (2014). Co-infection of blacklegged ticks with Babesia microti and Borrelia burgdorferi is higher than expected and acquired from small mammal hosts. PloS one, 9(6), e99348.

Sutherst, R. W. (2004). Global change and human vulnerability to vector-borne diseases. Clinical microbiology reviews, 17(1), 136-173.

Tick-borne disease of the United States a reference manual for healthcare providers Fifth Edition, 2018. Retrieved from https://www.cdc.gov/ticks/tickbornediseases/TickborneDiseases-P.pdf

Tick-borne disease working group 2018 report to congress. Retrieved from https://www.hhs.gov/sites/default/files/tbdwg-report-to-congress-2018.pdf

Practice-based products that demonstrate MPH competency achievement
Specific products in portfolio that demonstrate application or practice	List competency name and number as defined in the APE Guidelines (see Appendix A, Appendix B)
Epidemiological profile of the top 3 Tick-borne diseases in the northern east states	EPIC2, EPIC3, FC1,FC2,FC3,FC4
Create geographical map of 4 tick-borne diseases	EPIC2, FC1, FC2, FC4, EPIC4
Provide 3 public health recommendations on prevention and public education	FC1, FC7
Practicum Report	FC1, FC2, FC3, FC4, FC7, EPIC1, EPIC2, EPIC3, EPIC4
Practicum Poster	FC1, FC2, FC3, FC4, FC7, EPIC1, EPIC2, EPIC3, EPIC4

Final products (Each student must include two products. Students must match their identified competencies to their products. A specific deliverable can cover more than one competency

Question 28: Sociology

Instruction

Based on your reading of Ghetto, and other materials we have covered in this course, your essay will outline forces that influence the lives of those residing in ghettos and how the activities of people affect life in the ghetto. You will accomplish this by answering the following questions: 1. What political, economic, and cultural forces influence life in ghettos? In answering this question, you will want to outline the economic and political forces that influenced people’s pursuit of livelihood opportunities in the economy (both formal and informal). More specifically, you will want to discuss the economic, cultural and political factors that contributed to overall condition and the day to day lives of the residents. 2. How do race, class, and gender differences play a role living in the ghetto? In answering this question, you will relate specific examples from the book on how differences in race, class, and gender influence interactions between different types of people. Are these differences causes of tension or sources of unfairness? You will also describe how ideas about race and class influence outsider’s perceptions and, in turn, how those perceptions influence institutional ‘solutions’ to the perceived problems. Are the tactics used to address the (perceived) problems effective (or not)? 3. How does space affect the life of the residents and the city? In answering this question, you will use evidence from the book to argue whether the people and their activities are positive or negative influences on the life of the city as a whole. In other words, you will use specific evidence from the book to evaluate whether outsiders’ negative perceptions of street people are accurate (or not). FORMAT : Your essay should be 4 pages long, not including your bibliography (a cover sheet is not necessary). It should be in 12-point font, double-spaced, and with 1 inch margins. Writing much less than 4 pages will hurt your grade. You must use the APA system for references.

Question 29: Education

Instruction

Using Leverage Leadership 2.0: A Practical Guide to Building Exceptional Schools 2nd Edition as a tool to complete the paper. (this book is mandatory in writing this paper) The paper should be on building school culture and a vision that would be beneficial to the entire school. (Staff, students and parents) Research project or research paper: Topics for the research project/paper may come from any listed in the course training materials, review of literature, the textbook, or a topic of interest to the individual consistent with the content of this course. The research paper should be eight to ten pages in length and utilize the American Psychological Association (APA) documentation and include at least 8 sources. Projects may be done in PowerPoint, Publisher or other 21st-century software appropriate for the task, but should contain internal citations and end with a reference list that is matched to the sources cited in the project.

Project Grading Rubric

SCALE	1	2	3	4	Total Points
Organization (Focus and rationale)	No focus/no rationale	Information somewhat relates to the topic and rationale	Information tied to topic and supports rationale	Information presented in logical and engaging sequence, closely tied to topic/supports rationale
Content knowledge	No research evident (e.g. power point slides only with no elaboration)	Some research evident (e.g. power point slides with limited elaboration)	Research evident (e.g. power point slides with some elaboration)	Extensive research evident (e.g. explanation and elaboration in notes of power point)
Introduction	Introduction does not convey the topic.	Introduction provides a general thesis.	Introduction delineates subtopics and general thesis.	Introduction clearly delineates subtopics, intended audience, key questions(s), terms, and specific thesis.
Closure	Conclusion is not evident.	Review of key elements with some connection to thesis/purpose of project.	Review of Key elements with a strong connection to thesis/purpose of project.	Strong review of key elements, insightful integration with thesis/purpose of project.
Grammar & Mechanics	Grammar and mechanics substantially detract from the project.	Grammar and mechanics interfere with the project.	Grammar and mechanics are minimal and do not detract from the project.	The project is free from grammar and mechanical errors.
APA Style	Does not follow APA style.	Errors in APA style are noticeable.	Minimal errors in APA style.	No errors in APA style.
Requirements 8-9 pages (research paper) 15-19 slides (project)	No sources 3-4 pages (research paper) No sources 8-10 slides (project)	2-3 sources 5-6 pages (research paper) 1-3 sources, 11-12 slides (Project)	5-6 sources 7 pages (research paper) 4-5 sources 13-14 slides (Project)	8+ sources, 8-10 pages (research paper) 6+ sources 15-19 slides (Project)

Question 30: Education

Write a narrative (3,750-4,000 words) that summarizes the important information about the 10 articles you selected and describes how the studies form the research gap that your dissertation will fill. Your narrative should include the following: A summary of the key points of each article (purpose, research method, research design, sample, data collection instrument, results). A description of how these studies individually lead to the research gap that your dissertation study will fill.

Instruction

With the construction of the 10 Strategic Points for your dissertation study, you began to draft the literature review (Point 2) of the study to illuminate an identified gap in the literature to be filled by your dissertation study. While the literature review ultimately requires more than simply summarizing studies in some logical order, summarizing and paraphrasing are the beginning points of a solid literature review. In this assignment, you will summarize several studies from Point 2 (Literature Review) of your 10 Strategic Points document and the references to studies related to your dissertation topic that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. From those summaries, you will describe how the studies form the gap that your dissertation will fill. Remember, to illuminate a gap in the research, the articles surveyed must have been published within the last 5 years General Requirements: Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment: Refer to the draft of the 10 Strategic Points that you developed for your dissertation study in Topic 5 of RES-850. You may also use a more recent version of this document if one is available. Refer to the list of 10 references to studies related to your dissertation topic that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment. Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center. You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. Directions: Locate the draft of the 10 Strategic Points from Topic 5 of RES-850 (or a more recent version if one is available) and the 10 references to studies that you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final topic of RES-850. Choose five articles from your draft of the 10 Strategic Points and 5 articles from those you added to the Literature Review Resources assignment in the final week of RES-850. The articles you choose must have been published within the last 5 years. I have all the articles and reference

Question 1: General Question

Chamberlain NR283 Test Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final Exam) graded A

Question 2: History

Background to the assignment: Who “owns” the past? Who has the right to define what the past means for us today? This assignment asks you to reflect on these questions. In the course of this assignment, you will discover that ancient history can sometimes be very contemporary, reminding us that the past is always present with us. Many of the conflicts in our world today have ancient roots, which is one of the reasons studying the past is important.

Description of the assignment: Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to Safe Assign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due.

Question 3: Business

What is your favorite brand of sandwich cookie? If you’re like most Americans, chances are its Oreo. In fact, Oreos are so popular that many people think Oreo was the original sandwich cookie. But they’re wrong. Sunshine first marketed its Hydrox sandwich cookie in 1908. Hydrox thrived until 1912, when Nabisco (now part of Kraft) launched Oreo. With Nabisco’s superior distribution and advertising, Hydrox was soon outmatched. By 1998, Hydrox sales totaled $16 million, while Oreo’s revenues were at $374 million. Hydrox has been purchased by Keebler (subsequently purchased by Kellogg), whose elves are trying to give the cookie a major facelift. You are part of the Keebler team deciding what to do with the Hydrox brand.

Purpose: To show students how important branding can be to product success. Students try to relaunch the Hydrox cookie brand (the original chocolate sandwich cookie) by investigating branding issues, including brand name and brand mark, determining the role of packaging, and assessing the feasibility of brand extensions

Instructions:

Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.

Activities and questions to answer:

Can you re-create Hydrox through a name change? What kind of brand name could go head-to-head with Oreo? (Most people unfamiliar with Hydrox think it is a cleaning product.) Make a list of five possibilities to be submitted with this assignment.
Next, how can you package your renewed sandwich cookie to make it more attractive on the shelf than Oreo? What about package size? Draft a brief packaging plan for the new Hydrox (or whatever name you chose).
Can you modify the original formula to make something new and more competitive? Will a brand extension work here? Why or why not?

Question 4: Business

Firm/Product Selection: Introduce the company and the product or service for which you wish to propose to engage in an international activity.

Proposed Company: https://www.shinola.com (Made in Detroit USA)

Brief about the history of the company through to current situation.
What needs does this product/service satisfy?(e.g., Harley Davidson motorcycle is often not a means of transportation, but satisfies a buyer’s desire for freedom/power/ escape from mundane rule-bound life)
How does the firm provide this product/service and satisfy needs?(e.g., Harley Davidson builds this American icon with often retro-style and powerful engine product, effective branding)

Minimum 2 pages’ word report (12pt).

Question 5: Business

Complete the Internal Versus External Candidates worksheet

University of Phoenix Material

Internal vs. External Candidates Worksheet

Compare in a total of 525 to 700 words the strategies used to evaluate internal versus external candidates.

Strategy	Pros	Cons

Assess in 175 words the factors that should be considered when deciding whether to hire from within to seek external candidates.

Select a position with which you are familiar.

Determine in 175 words whether you would hire using an internal or external process.

Defend your recommendation.

References

APA-formatted citation

Question 6: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss non-traditional applicant pools. To what extent is this population hired at your current or previous organization?

Question 7: Business

Read the opening vignette, “Sourcing Top Talent at McAfee” on page 143 in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 6.

Assess the following in 150 words: Introduction

Just an introduction is need
Determine three metrics that McAfee should use to evaluate the effectiveness of its talent community in sourcing top talent.
Explain your rationale for selecting these three metrics.
Propose other ways in which McAfee can keep its talent pipeline full of high-quality potential job applicants.

Question 8: Business

Watch the below two videos and Read Netflix in India.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=s0YjL9rZyR0 (Eric Li)

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jsZDlBU36n0 Why nations fail?

Discuss:

1) What are the key differences between USA and China, both formal (political economical and legal systems etc. ) and informal (culture, social norms etc.) institutions? What do you have to say to Eric Li?

2) Identify the major macro-environment factors in India that impact Netflix’s operation in India. What do you recommend to Netflix to achieve better performance in India?

Question 9: Business

How tightly do you fit into a particular market segment? Do you think you can be neatly classified? If you think your purchasing habits make you an enigma to marketers, you may need to think again.

Instructions: Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment.

Purpose: This exercise quickly shows students the limitations of using only demographics to describe their customers, and really clarifies the process of segmentation and positioning for them.

Activities

Visit the following website located in this folder named: Segments

Click on the link above and then type in your zip code. The database will generate many cluster descriptions based on your ZIP code. Depending on the functionality of the Web site at the time you access the database, you may need to reenter your ZIP code multiple times if you want to read all the cluster descriptions.
Now review the demographic and psychographic data for the segments. Please provide insights on their life stage, lifestyle, and others things that they like such as automobiles, music, health, books, magazines, beauty products, and income. Then think about which products in that category would appeal to each of the clusters generated by your ZIP code search. Please name 3 to 4 of the groups identified and provide feedback on similarities between the groups. For example, a car that appeals to a cluster titled “Young Bohemians” may not be the car of choice for the cluster “Pools and Patios.” If your search generated only one cluster type, you may wish to enter other ZIP codes for your area of town or for your region.
Write a short statement that describes what you have learned about the most common segments for your zip code.

https://claritas360.claritas.com/mybestsegments/#zipLookup

Question 10: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Considering the internal labor market at your organization ( Marshalls), what competency or skill gap needs to be closed? What’s the approach to doing so?

Question 11: Business

Use a position that you would like to obtain (CEO) to create job duties and at least three KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics).

Answer the following questions in 350 words for each KSAO:

Is the KSAO necessary prior to hiring, or can it be trained?
What is the importance of each characteristic relative to the others?
What is the approximate time the employee will spend on each duty?

Question 12: Economics

Matching Definitions

( ) Shows the amounts households plan to spend for consumer goods at different levels of disposable income.
() The share of the additional dollar a person decides to save.
() Percent of disposable income that household spend on consumer goods.
() Tendency for people to increase or decrease consumption spending when the value of their financial assets changes.
() Shows the amounts households plan to save at different levels of disposable income.
() The share of the additional dollar a person decides to devote to consumption expenditures.
() Percent of disposable income that household save
() Increased savings may be both good and bad for the economy.
() The ratio of a change in equilibrium GDP to the change in investment.
() The line along which the value of output is equal to the value of aggregate expenditures.

Consumption schedule
Marginal propensity to save (MPS)
Average propensity to consume (APC)
Wealth effect
Savings schedule
Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
Average propensity to save (APS)
Paradox of thrift
Multiplier
45 degree line

Question 13: Economics

Matching Definitions

( ) the percentage of adults who are in the labor force and thus seeking jobs,

but who do not have jobs

( ) unemployment that occurs because individuals lack skills valued by

employers, or the job is no longer there.

( ) those who have stopped looking for employment due to the lack of suitable

positions available.

( ) the unemployment rate that would exist if cyclical unemployment were 0%.

( ) a contractual provision that wage increases will keep up with inflation.

( ) “Take this job and shove it!” results in this.

( ) When demand rises faster than supply, causing price to rise.

( ) the adults in an economy who are either employed or who are unemployed

and looking for a job

( ) unemployment closely tied to the business cycle, like higher unemployment

during a recession.

( ) Rising production costs cause the supply of goods and services to decline and prices to rise..

Unemployment rate
labor force
Discouraged workers
frictional unemployment
COLAs
cyclical unemployment
structural unemployment
Natural rate of unemployment
Demand-pull inflation
Cost-push inflation

Question 14: Economics

Matching Definitions

value of a country’s output found by adding up C + Ig + G + Xn

value of a country’s output found by adding the costs incurred and income (including profits) generated by production of goods and services during the period

a measure of inflation

value of a country’s output expressed in the current year’s dollars.

output provided to other businesses at an intermediate stage of production, not for final users.

output used directly for consumption, investment, government, and trade purposes.

Increase in worth of a good or service provided at each stage of production

=100

value of a country’s output expressed in the base year’s dollars.

the value of the output of all goods and services produced within a country in a year

GDP

Intermediate goods

Final goods

Value added

Expenditure approach

Income approach

Nominal GDP

Real GDP

Price index

Base year

Question 15: Psychology

Read the Research Paper Instructions and Research Paper Rubric. Decide which specific DSM disorder you plan to research for the Research Paper assignment. Go to the LU Online Library and begin researching for your paper, locating one journal article to share with the class. Share your chosen topic with the class and your reasoning behind your interest in the selected topic. Within your post, provide a 150-word summary of one journal article that you are interested in using for your research paper. Provide the journal (full text) as an attachment. Include at least one direct quote from the journal article (not more than 25 words). (Note that the entire post should be 200-250 words. For this assignment, the direct quote is included in the required word count). All citations should be in APA format. As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application and an outside source cited in APA format.

Research a specific mental disorder within the realm of Abnormal Psychology. The topic must be one which is discussed in the course textbook and described in the current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM). The length of the body of the paper must be at least 7 pages, and must not exceed 10 pages of summarized research findings in current APA format. All sources used must be scholarly journals. In addition to this, include a current APA-style title page, abstract, and references; these do not count toward the minimum number of pages required. The paper must be organized with sub-headings reflecting the required sections (I–IX).

The research paper will address the following aspects, organized in this order:

* Title Page: APA-style

* Abstract: APA-style

Introduction: Introduce and describe the topic. Discuss the DSM classification for the disorder, including a discussion of the specific criteria as described in the DSM (1/2 page).
Historical: Describe the disorder in a historical context (how the view of disorder has changed over time, how cause/treatment options have changed, etc). (1 page).

III. Cause of the Illness: Current research as to the cause of the illness (1 page).

Treatment: Various treatment approaches for this disorder, including the benefits of the treatment (1 page).
Prevention: Research as to the prevention of the illness (1 page).
Cross Cultural: Cross-cultural issues pertaining to the topic (1 page).

VII. Biblical Worldview: Discuss the topic from a Christian worldview perspective, including disorder’s cause, treatment, and prevention. Utilize the Bible and a journal source written from a biblical/theological perspective on the topic (1 page).

VIII. Conclusion: Include a closing summary of the research, including ideas for future research on the topic (1/2 page).

References: APA-style. See also References Grading Rubric and instructions.

* Organize the paper according to directions. Include current APA-style Level 1 sub-titles. Do not use Roman numerals.

* The use of 3^rd person point of view is expected for this type of scholarly research assignment.

* Correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation is expected in writing at this level.

* Include not more than ½ page of directly quoted material. Directly quoted material in excess of ½ page would not count towards length/content requirements of the paper.

* Current APA formatting is required.

* Course textbook is not permitted as a source.

* All sources must be journal articles dated within the past 10 years.

Research Paper Grading Rubric

Criteria

Levels of Achievement

Content 70%

140 points

Advanced 90-100% (A)

Proficient 70-89% (B-C)

Developing 1-69% (< D)

Not present

Content (20 points each)

126 to 140 points

The paper exceeds content requirements:

Introduction/Conclusion

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

Historical: detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Cause: detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

98 to 125 points

The paper meets content requirements:

Introduction/Conclusion

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Treatment: detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

1 to 97 points

The paper meets some of the content requirements:

Introduction/Conclusion

Intro: Detailed DSM information for the disorder and a full 1/2 page. Conclusion: thoughtful content and ideas for future research. Content is a full 1/2 page.

Historical: Detailed Historical content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Cause: Detailed Causal content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Treatment: Detailed Treatment content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Prevention: Detailed Prevention content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Cross-Cultural: Detailed Cross-Cultural content based on one or more scholarly sources and is a full page.

Biblical Worldview

Detailed Biblical content and is a full page. Contains content based on 1 or more Bible type sources and also includes a Bible verse and application to the topic.

0 points

Not present.

Structure 30%

60 points

Advanced 90-100% (A)

Proficient 70-89% (B-C)

Developing 1-69% (< D)

Not present

Organizational Elements

9 to 10 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

7 to 8 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

1 to 6 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Organizational Elements as outlined in instructions were followed, including APA style Level 1 sub-titles

0 points

Not present.

General APA

18 to 20 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Content displays correct APA format in all required paper sections (Historical, Cause, Treatment, Prevention, Cross-Cultural, Biblical Worldview) with citations throughout matching the References page.

14 to 17 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

1 to 13 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

0 points

Not present.

Title page, abstract, reference page formatting

27 to 30 points

The paper exceeds structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

References page is free of APA errors, contains 5 or more scholarly sources in correct APA format (books or journals only). Textbook is not used as a source as per directions. Sources contain Bible type book/journal source.

21 to 26 points

The paper meets structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

1 to 20 points

The paper meets most of the structure requirements:

Title page is in proper APA format.

Abstract is in proper APA format, contains 150-250 words, and includes keywords.

0 points

Not present.

Question 16: Education

SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%

SEJPME Pre Test and Post Test (Study Guide) / SEJPME Final Exam (Study Guide)

SEJPME I POST TEST

1) In the name of strategic mobility, the Marine Corps adopted prepositioning for which of the following purposes? [objective81]

speed and dispersion

provide materiel needed to sustain a brigade for 30 days in a potential combat zone

amphibious assault

——————————————————————————–

2) The most well-known Coast Guard mascot during World War II, who provided a morale boost to his crew, was named? [objective88]

Skipper

Aladdin

Sinbad

Smoky

——————————————————————————–

3) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____. [objective92]

none of the answers are correct

the Army Reserve

both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

the Army National Guard

——————————————————————————–

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63]

Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National Intelligence

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense

Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

——————————————————————————–

5) Between 1777 and 1778, Baron Friedrich Willhelm von Steuben taught the Continental Army what aspects of war? (Select all that apply.) [objective79]

rifle cartridges loading

drill formations

proper care of equipment

bayonet usage

——————————————————————————–

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]

to train forces

to retain forces

to equip forces

to organize forces

——————————————————————————–

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58]

gather multiple perspectives on the problem

report the problem to the commanding officer

define the problem

draft an action plan

——————————————————————————–

8) Derived from the integration of Service cultures and competencies and requires teamwork amongst all Services and Military Departments to accomplish objectives in the best interest of national security unfettered by parochialism. _____ best describes this concept. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed: N]

Integration

Interdependence

Diversity

Jointness

——————————————————————————–

9) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what point in the planning process? [objective90]

after all of the planning is completed

early in the planning process

somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included

late in the planning process

——————————————————————————–

10) One of the three approaches within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program includes preventative strategies which include addressing and eliminating the stigma and other factors that prevent Service members (and their families) from seeking help early and focus on achieving increased performance. [objective105]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

11) Who are the caretakers of naval customs, traditions, honors, and ceremonies? [objective85]

commanders

chief petty officers

admirals

——————————————————————————–

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]

maritime stewardship

maritime safety

maritime security

——————————————————————————–

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]

compromise

communication

coordination

consensus

——————————————————————————–

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]

Adaptability

Transformation

Predictability

Training

——————————————————————————–

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste, and abuse (FWA). [objective102]

True

False

——————————————————————————–

17) In a traditional cake-cutting ceremony the first piece of cake is given to the youngest Marine present, and the second piece of cake is given to the oldest Marine present. [objective86] [Remediation Accessed :N]

True

False

——————————————————————————–

18) While its missions might include forcible entry operations and peace enforcement, humanitarian assistance is not within the Marine Corps’ purview. [objective75] [Remediation Accessed :N]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

19) Service members contribute to force readiness by being focused, alert, and prepared for new tasks, behaving responsibly and ethically, and _____. [objective103]

limiting the number of times they take vacations

remaining single

maintaining dental health and hygiene

being able to engage in critical thinking

——————————————————————————–

20) Each geographic combatant command has a _____ to plan and control special operations and other Special Operations Forces activities. [objective95]

Regional Special Warfare Command (RSWC)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

Joint Special Operations Command (JSOC)

Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)

——————————————————————————–

21) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [objective60]

President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State

President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury

——————————————————————————–

22) Taking steps and precautions to reduce the likelihood of something negative or hazardous happening, or reducing the extent of the exposure to a risk, is called risk modification. [objective100]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

23) What are the fundamental roles of the U.S. Navy, Marine Corps, and Coast Guard in the implementation of the National Naval Strategy (NNS)? (Select all that apply.) [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]

establish favorable security conditions

secure strategic access and retain global freedom of action

strengthen existing and emerging alliances and partnerships

secure the United States from direct attack

——————————————————————————–

24) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences – both positive and negative. [objective101]

seek out professional assistance

acknowledge our own prejudice

know all of the facts

critically think about

——————————————————————————–

25) _____ warfare is a violent struggle among state and non-state actors for legitimacy and influence over the relevant population(s). It favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capacities, in order to erode an adversary’s power, influence, and will. [objective59]

Irregular

Asymmetric

Joint

Traditional

——————————————————————————–

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]

civil affairs

foreign area officers

special forces

political advisors

——————————————————————————–

27) What Services were established as precursors to the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [objective83]

Lighthouse and Revenue Cutter Service

Bureau of Navigation

Steamboat Inspection Service

Transportation Security Administration

Life Saving Service

——————————————————————————–

28) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of the U.S. Navy? [objective78]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.) [objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]

timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence

signals intelligence

solutions, products, and services

information systems security

——————————————————————————–

30) Joint _____ is the component of joint force development that entails collecting observations, analyzing them, and taking the necessary steps to turn them into changes in behavior that improve the mission ready capabilities of the joint force. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N]

lessons learned

concepts

education

doctrine

——————————————————————————–

31) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl? [objective87]

as a reward for attendance

recognition for a job well done

as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

——————————————————————————–

32) The major challenge in working toward unity of effort often comes from _____. [objective62]

disjunctions in the three levels of interagency coordination

the news media reporting on governmental and military actions

a lack of sufficient resources applied to the problem

bipartisan politics and infighting in Congress

——————————————————————————–

33) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI) representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]

JIACG

HAST

CMOC

POLAD

——————————————————————————–

34) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required.

subordinate unified command

combatant command

joint task force

Service component command

——————————————————————————–

35) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

36) What are the Army’s primary missions? (Select all that apply.) [objective73] [Remediation Accessed :N]

shaping the international environment

responding to crises

preparing now for an uncertain future

secure the United States from direct attack

——————————————————————————–

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), “. . .requires leaders at every echelon to be _____.” [objective98] [Remediation Accessed :N]

impartial

adaptable

decisive

strict adherents to doctrine

——————————————————————————–

38) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]

Liaison network, coordination centers

Rationalization, training

Interoperability, liaison network

Training, interoperability

——————————————————————————–

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89]

50 percent

60 percent

30 percent

40 percent

——————————————————————————–

40) After the attacks of 9/11, U.S. Special Operations Command assumed an operational role in synchronizing the DoD effort in _____. [objective93]

combating weapons of mass destruction

cyberspace operations

support of the U.S. government response to pandemic influenza

global operations against terrorist networks

——————————————————————————–

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65]

not equipped and organized

usually willing, but hesitant

not educated and trained

not eager

——————————————————————————–

42) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]

enforcement

nation assistance

economy of force

show of force

——————————————————————————–

43) The post-Vietnam Maritime Strategy called for the positioning of strong Naval forces along the seaward flanks of the Soviet Union in what locations? (Select all that apply.) [objective80] [Remediation Accessed :N]

the Far East

the Black Sea

the Mediterranean Sea

northern Europe

——————————————————————————–

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]

delegation of authority

experience

maturity

rank

——————————————————————————–

45) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]

rotation

transition

situational awareness

influence

——————————————————————————–

46) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff provides a channel of communication between the President/SECDEF and the combatant commanders. [objective56]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces. [objective104]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

48) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place? (Select all that apply.) [objective82]

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

——————————————————————————–

49) To promote their mutual national interests and ensure mutual security against real and perceived threats, nations that form partnerships must understand the impacts of _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]

techniques, tactics, and procedures (TTPs)

culture and economics

non-governmental agencies

internally displaced personnel (IDPs)

——————————————————————————–

50) The principle of joint operations designed to limit collateral damage and prevent the unnecessary use of force is _____. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]

proportionality

perseverance

restraint

legitimacy

——————————————————————————–

ADDITIONAL POST TEST QUESTIONS

1) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and defensive air operation. [objective72]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

2) The U.S. employs the military instrument of national power at home and abroad in support of its national security goals. The ultimate purpose of the U.S. Armed Forces is to _____. [objective96]

deter aggressors from attacking the U.S.

support and defend U.S. allies and partners

defend the homeland

fight and win the Nation’s wars

——————————————————————————–

3) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [objective77]

maritime security

maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories

maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

——————————————————————————–

4) During the conduct of military operations, multinational personnel must be able to _____. [objective70]

develop guidance for detainee operations in a joint environment according to their respective laws

enforce local rules of engagement (ROE) without regard to approved coalition ROE

properly control, maintain, protect and account for all detainees according to applicable domestic law, international law, and policy

target only a small percentage of individuals who fall into different categories under the law of war

——————————————————————————–

5) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning, Sir,” in the case of an officer. [objective86]

True

False

——————————————————————————–

6) Which of the following are primary functions of the Marine Corps according to DoD Directive 5100.01? [objective75]

conduct prompt and sustained combat operations at sea, including sea-based and land-based aviation

all of the answers are correct

organize, equip, and provide Marine Corps forces to conduct joint amphibious operations and train all forces assigned to joint amphibious operations

provide detachments and organizations to serve on armed vessels of the Navy and provide security detachments for naval stations and bases

——————————————————————————–

7) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74]

True

False

——————————————————————————–

8) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security? [objective57]

Navy

Army

Coast Guard

Air Force

Marines

None of the branches

——————————————————————————–

9) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation Accessed :N]

force development

force planning

force training

doctrine

——————————————————————————–

10) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]

Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

——————————————————————————–

11) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), with the advent and increase of command and control (C2) capabilities, networked-enabled leaders are cautioned against the lure to _____. [objective98]

micromanage

delegate authority

second-guess

provide guidance

——————————————————————————–

12) In 1798, the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps were created. [objective80]

False

True

——————————————————————————–

13) A(n) _____ is a relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives, while _____ is an ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action, usually for a single occasion. [objective69]

partnership, coalition

alliance, partnership

coalition, alliance

alliance, coalition

——————————————————————————–

14) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]

offensive

mass

objective

maneuver

Question 17: Health Care

NR 222 Unit 3 EXAM 1 Practice

Chapter 01: Nursing Today

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

Chapter 01: Nursing Today

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Which nurse most likely kept records on sanitation techniques and the effects on health?
The nurse prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcome. Which standard of nursing practice is the nurse following?
An experienced medical-surgical nurse chooses to work in obstetrics. Which level of proficiency is the nurse upon initial transition to the obstetrical floor?
A nurse assesses a patient’s fluid status and decides that the patient needs to drink more fluids. The nurse then encourages the patient to drink more fluids. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating?
A nurse prepares the budget and policies for an intensive care unit. Which role is the nurse implementing?
The nurse has been working in the clinical setting for several years as an advanced practice nurse. However, the nurse has a strong desire to pursue research and theory development. To fulfill this desire, which program should the nurse attend?
A nurse attends a workshop on current nursing issues provided by the American Nurses Association. Which type of education did the nurse receive?
A nurse identifies gaps between local and best practices. Which Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) competency is the nurse demonstrating?
A nurse has compassion fatigue. What is the nurse experiencing?
A patient is scheduled for surgery. When getting ready to obtain the informed consent, the patient tells the nurse, “I have no idea what is going to happen. I couldn’t ask any questions.” The nurse does not allow the patient to sign the permit and notifies the health care provider of the situation. Which role is the nurse displaying?
The patient requires routine gynecological services after giving birth to her son, and while seeing the nurse-midwife, the patient asks for a referral to a pediatrician for the newborn. Which action should the nurse-midwife take initially?
The nurse has a goal of becoming a certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA). Which activity is appropriate for a CRNA?
A nurse teaches a group of nursing students about nurse practice acts. Which information is most important to include in the teaching session about nurse practice acts?
A bill has been submitted to the State House of Representatives that is designed to reduce the cost of health care by increasing the patient-to-nurse ratio from a maximum of 2:1 in intensive care units to 3:1. What should the nurse realize?
A nurse is using a guide that provides principles of right and wrong to provide care to patients. Which guide is the nurse using?
A graduate of a baccalaureate degree program is ready to start working as an RN in the emergency department. Which action must the nurse take first?
While providing care to a patient, the nurse is responsible, both professionally and legally. Which concept does this describe?
A nurse is teaching the staff about Benner’s levels of proficiency. In which order should the nurse place the levels from beginning level to ending level?

Chapter 06: Health and Wellness

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

A nurse is teaching about the goals ofHealthy People 2020. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A nurse is following the goals ofHealthy People 2020 to provide care. Which action should the nurse take?
A nurse is using the World Health Organization definition of health to provide care. Which area will the nurse focus on while providing care?
The nurse is preparing a smoking cessation class for family members of patients with lung cancer. The nurse believes that the class will convert many smokers to nonsmokers once they realize the benefits of not smoking. Which health care model is the nurse following?
A nurse is using Maslow’s hierarchy to prioritize care for an anxious patient that is not eating and will not see family members. Which area should the nurse address first?
The patient is reporting moderate incisional pain that was not relieved by the last dose of pain medication. The patient is not due for another dose of medication for another 2 1/2 hours. The nurse repositions the patient, asks what type of music the patient likes, and sets the television to the channel playing that type of music. Which health care model is the nurse using?
A nurse is assessing internal variables that are affecting the patient’s health status. Which area should the nurse assess?
The nurse is admitting a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. It is the fourth time the patient is being admitted in the last 6 months for high blood sugars. During the admission process, the nurse asks the patient about employment status and displays a nonjudgmental attitude. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
The nurse is working on a committee to evaluate the need for increasing the levels of fluoride in the drinking water of the community. Which concept is the nurse fostering?
The nurse is working in a clinic that is designed to provide health education and immunizations. Which type of preventive care is the nurse providing?
The patient is admitted to the emergency department of the local hospital from home with reports of chest discomfort and shortness of breath. The patient is placed on oxygen, has labs and blood gases drawn, and is given an electrocardiogram and breathing treatments. Which level of preventive care is this patient receiving?
A patient is admitted to a rehabilitation facility following a stroke. The patient has right-sided paralysis and is unable to speak. The patient will be receiving physical therapy and speech therapy. Which level of preventive care is the patient receiving?
Upon completing a history, the nurse finds that a patient has risk factors for lung disease. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been trying to quit smoking. The patient has been smoke free for 2 weeks but had two cigarettes last night and at least two this morning. What should the nurse anticipate?
The nurse is working in a drug rehabilitation clinic and is in the process of admitting a patient for “detox.” What should the nurse do next?
A female patient has been overweight for most of her life. She has tried dieting in the past and has lost weight, only to regain it when she stopped dieting. The patient is visiting the weight loss clinic/health club because she has decided to do it. She states that she will join right after the holidays, in 3 months. Which stage is the patient displaying?
Upon completion of the assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has quit drinking and has been alcohol free for the past 2 years. Which stagebestdescribes the nurse’s assessment finding?
The patient had a colostomy placed 1 week ago. When approached by the nurse, the patient and spouse refuse to talk about it and refuse to be taught about how to care for it. How will the nurse evaluate this couple’s stage of adjustment?
A patient has had emphysema (lung disease) for many years. When approached by the nurse, the patient states “I would be better off dead.” The patient supports the family, and now because of oxygen dependency the patient must quit work. The patient’s spouse will have to go to work. Which action should the nurse take?
A nurse is teaching about the transtheoretical model of change. In which order will the nurse place the progression of the stages from beginning to end?

Chapter 16: Nursing Assessment

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
A nurse is using the problem-oriented approach to data collection. Which action will the nurse takefirst?
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make?
The nurse is gathering data on a patient. Which data will the nurse report as objective data?
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Which method of data collection will the nurse use to establish a patient’s database?
A nurse is gathering information about a patient’s habits and lifestyle patterns. Which method of data collection will the nurse use that willbest obtain this information?
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse donext?
The nurse is attempting to prompt the patient to elaborate on the reports of daytime fatigue. Which question should the nurse ask?
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
While the patient’s lower extremity, which is in a cast, is assessed, the patient tells the nurse about an inability to rest at night. The nurse disregards this information, thinking that no correlation has been noted between having a leg cast and developing restless sleep. Which action would have beenbest for the nurse to take?
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguinous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Which statement by a nurse indicates a good understanding about the differences between data validation and data interpretation?
Which scenariobest illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient?
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse takefirst?
A patient verbalizes a low pain level of 2 out of 10 but exhibits extreme facial grimacing while moving around in bed. What is the nurse’sinitial action in response to these observations?
The nurse is interviewing a patient with a hearing deficit. Which area should the nurse use to conduct this interview?
A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?

Chapter 22: Ethics and Values

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Four patients in labor all request epidural analgesia to manage their pain at the same time. Which ethical principle is mostcompromised when only one nurse anesthetist is on call?
The patient reports to the nurse of being afraid to speak up regarding a desire to end care for fear of upsetting spouse and children. Which principle in the nursing code of ethics ensures that the nurse will promote the patient’s cause?
The patient’s son requests to view documentation in the medical record. What is the nurse’sbest response to this request?
When professionals work together to solve ethical dilemmas, nurses must examine their own values. What is the bestrationale for this step?
A nurse is experiencing an ethical dilemma with a patient. Which information indicates the nurse has a correct understanding of the primary cause of ethical dilemmas?
The nurse questions a health care provider’s decision to not tell the patient about a cancer diagnosis. Which ethical principle is the nurse trying to uphold for the patient?
The nurse finds it difficult to care for a patient whose advance directive states that no extraordinary resuscitation measures should be taken. Which step may help the nurse to find resolution in this assignment?
The nurse values autonomy above all other principles. Which patient assignment will the nurse findmost difficult to accept?
A nurse must make an ethical decision concerning vulnerable patient populations. Which philosophy of health care ethics would be particularly useful for this nurse?
A nurse agrees with regulations for mandatory immunizations of children. The nurse believes that immunizations prevent diseases as well as prevent spread of the disease to others. Which ethical framework is the nurse using?
The nurse has become aware of missing narcotics in the patient care area. Which ethical principle obligates the nurse to report the missing medications?
A young woman who is pregnant with a fetus exposed to multiple teratogens consents to have her fetus undergo serial PUBS (percutaneous umbilical blood sampling) to examine how exposure affects the fetus over time. Although these tests will not improve the fetus’s outcomes and will expose it to some risks, the information gathered may help infants in the future. Which ethical principle is atgreatest risk?
A nurse is discussing quality of life issues with another colleague. Which topic will the nurse acknowledge for increased attention paid to quality of life concerns?
Which action by the nurse indicates a safe and efficient use of social networks?

The nurse is caring for a dying patient. Which intervention is considered futile?
During a severe respiratory epidemic, the local health care organizations decide to give health care workers priority access to ventilators over other members of the community who also need that resource. Which philosophy would give the strongest support for this decision?
A nurse is teaching a patient and family about quality of life. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session about quality of life?
The nurse is caring for a patient supported with a ventilator who has been unresponsive since arrival via ambulance 8 days ago. The patient has not been identified, and no family members have been found. The nurse is concerned about the plan of care regarding maintenance or withdrawal of life support measures. Place the steps the nurse will use to resolve this ethical dilemma in the correct order.

09: Cultural Awareness

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

A nurse is working at a health fair screening people for liver cancer. Which population group should the nurse monitormost closely for liver cancer?
A nurse is caring for an immigrant with low income. Which information should the nurse consider when planning care for this patient?
A nurse is assessing the health care disparities among population groups. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
A nurse is providing care to a patient from a different culture. Which action by the nurse indicates cultural competence?
The nurse learns about cultural issues involved in the patient’s health care belief system and enables patients and families to achieve meaningful and supportive care. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating?
A nurse is beginning to use patient-centered care and cultural competence to improve nursing care. Which step should the nurse takefirst?
A nurse is performing a cultural assessment using the ETHNIC mnemonic for communication. Which area will the nurse assess for the “H”?

The nurse is caring for a patient of Hispanic descent who speaks no English. The nurse is working with an interpreter. Which action should the nurse take?
Which action indicates the nurse is meeting a primary goal of cultural competent care for patients?
The nurse is caring for a Chinese patient using the Teach-Back technique. Which action by the nurse indicates successful implementation of this technique?
A nurse is using core measures to reduce health disparities. Which group should the nurse focus on to cause the mostimprovement in core measures?
A nurse is designing a form for lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender (LGBT) patients. Which design should the nurse use?
A nurse is assessing population groups for the risk of suicide requiring medical attention. Which group should the nurse monitormost closely?
A nurse is assessing a patient’s ethno history. Which question should the nurse ask?
A nurse is teaching patients about health care information. Which patient will the nurse assess closely for health literacy?
A nurse works at a hospital that uses equity-focused quality improvement. Which strategy is the hospital using?
A nurse is providing care to a culturally diverse population. Which action indicates the nurse is successful in the role of providing culturally congruent care?
A nurse is assessing the patient’s meaning of illness. Which area of focus by the nurse ispriority?

MATCHING

A nurse is using Campinha-Bacote’s model of cultural competency to improve cultural care. Which actions describe the components the nurse is using?

Chapter 10: Caring for Families

Potter et al.: Fundamentals of Nursing, 9th Edition

MULTIPLE CHOICE

A nurse is assessing the family unit to determine the family’s ability to adapt to the change of a

member having surgery. Which area is the nurse monitoring?
A nurse reviews the current trends affecting the family. Which trend will the nurse find?
A spouse brings the children in to visit their mother in the hospital. The nurse asks how the family is doing. The husband states, “None of her jobs are getting done, and I don’t do those jobs, so the house and the kids are falling apart.” How will the nurse interpret this finding?
A nurse cares for the family’s as well as the patient’s needs using available resources. Which approach is the nurse using?
A nurse is caring for a patient who needs constant care in the home setting and for whom most of the care is provided by the patient’s family. Which action should the nurse take to help relieve stress?
A nurse is working with a patient. When the nurse asks about family members, the patient states that it includes my spouse, children, and aunt and uncle. How will the nurse describe this type of family?
A nurse is assessing a child that lives in a car with family members who presents to the emergency department. Which area should the nurse assess closely?
The nurse is interviewing a patient who is being admitted to the hospital. The patient’s family went home before the nurse’s interview. The nurse asks the patient, “Who decides when to come to the hospital?” What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?
A nurse is caring for a patient from a motor vehicle accident. Which action by the unlicensed assistive personnel will cause the nurse to intervene?
A nurse is using the family as context approach to provide care to a patient. What should the nurse do next?
The nurse is caring for a patient in hospice. The nurse notes that the patient is getting adequate care, but the spouse is not sleeping well. The nurse also assesses the need for better family nutrition and meals assistance. The nurse discusses these needs with the patient and family and develops a plan of care with them using community resources. Which approach is the nurse using?
The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has no apparent family. When questioned about family and the definition of family, the patient states, “I have no family. They’re all gone.” When asked, “Who prepares your meals?” the patient states, “I do, or I go out.” Which approach should the nurse use for this patient?
The nurse is caring for an older adult patient at home who requires teaching for dressing changes. The spouse and adult child are also involved in changing the dressing. Which statement by the nurse willmost likely elicit a positive response from the patient and family?
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for an older-adult patient who will need tube feedings at home. The spouse is the only source of care and states “I will not be able to perform the feedings due to arthritis.” Which action should the nurse take?

Question 18: Health Care

DB 1
Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice (graded, 25 points)

The American Nurses Association’s Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice (3rd ed.) discusses integrating the art and science of nursing. Describe how science and art are synthesized in the practice of nursing.

Question 19: Health Care

Nurse’s Touch: Wellness Health Promotion and Disease Prevention

Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies primary prevention?
Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies secondary prevention?
Which of the following aspects of the care of this client and his family exemplifies tertiary prevention?
Which of the following clinical manifestations is a common systemic side effect of receiving an influenza immunization?
When the nurse responds to the client’s report about his son contributing to the family’s support with the statement, “ It is not easy to handle that on your own,” she illustrates the therapeutic communication technique of:

TEST

A nurse has made a commitment to change his eating habits to optimize his health and wellness. He researches various dietary plans and narrows his choices to those that minimizes the effect of lifestyle barriers like eating quickly at work. Which stage of the Transtheorectical Model is he in?
A nurse is giving a series of workshops about health and wellness to a group of older adults at a community center. Which of the following statements from the attendees demonstrate that they understood what the nurse explained about the concept of Health? (select all that apply)
A nurse is caring for a client who has a long history of abuse of alcohol and opioid analgesics. When counseling this client about the adverse effects of substance abuse the nurse should explain that these patterns reduce the oxygenation of as tissues and organs because they cause….
A nurse is giving a presentation about health promotion and disease prevention to a group of young adults at a community college which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A nurse is caring for a client who is immobile. Which of the following actions should she perform when repositioning the client to avoid injuring her own musculoskeletal system?
A nurse can communicate well, manage time effectively, weigh options and consequences, and learn from mistakes. The nurse is demonstrating Wellness in which of the following dimensions of Health?
A nurse is caring for a client in an ambulatory Clinic who attended a blood pressure screening event and the Stress Management lecture at a community Fair. His blood pressure was 150 /94 mm Hg at the event, so he saw provider at the clinic and begin therapy with a beta blocker. Soon after, the client had a mild myocardial infarction, after discharge from the hospital, enrolled in a program of cardiac Rehabilitation. Which of the following activities of this client is an example of primary prevention?
The World Health Organization’s (WHO) definition of health promotion focuses on the concept of
A nurse is counseling a client who says that she attends a book club in her neighborhood regularly. She says it troubles her that no one engages in the discussion with her. Applying Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to this client this client needs falls into which of the following levels?
A nurse is giving a presentation to a group of nursing students about distinguishing health promotion and disease prevention activities. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a specific disease prevention activity? (select all that apply)

Question 20: Health Care

NR 222 UNIT 1 NOTES

Question 21: Health Care

1.You are preparing a presentation for your classmates regarding the clinical care coordination conference for a patient with terminal cancer. As part of the preparation you have your classmates read the Nursing Code of Ethics for Professional Registered Nurses. Your instructor asks the class why this document is important. Which of the following statements best describes this code?

Improves self–health care

Protects the patient’s confidentiality

Ensures identical care to all patients

Defines the principles of right and wrong to provide patient care

An 18-year-old woman is in the emergency department with fever and cough. The nurse obtains her vital signs, listens to her lung and heart sounds, determines her level of comfort, and collects blood and sputum samples for analysis. Which standard of practice is performed?

Diagnosis

Evaluation

Assessment

Implementation

A patient in the emergency department has developed wheezing and shortness of breath. The nurse gives the ordered medicated nebulizer treatment now and in 4 hours. Which standard of practice is performed?

Planning

Evaluation

Assessment

Implementation

A nurse is caring for a patient with end-stage lung disease. The patient wants to go home on oxygen and be comfortable. The family wants the patient to have a new surgical procedure. The nurse explains the risk and benefits of the surgery to the family and discusses the patient’s wishes with them. The nurse is acting as the patient’s:

Educator.

Advocate.

Caregiver.

Case manager.

The nurse spends time with the patient and family reviewing the dressing change procedure for the patient’s wound. The patient’s spouse demonstrates how to change the dressing. The nurse is acting in which professional role?

Educator

Advocate

Caregiver

Case manager

The examination for registered nurse (RN) licensure is exactly the same in every state in the United States. This examination:

Guarantees safe nursing care for all patients.

Ensures standard nursing care for all patients.

Ensures that honest and ethical care is provided.

Provides a minimal standard of knowledge for an RN in practice.

Contemporary nursing requires that the nurse has knowledge and skills for a variety of professional roles and responsibilities. Which of the following are examples? (Select all that apply.)

Caregiver

Autonomy and accountability

Patient advocate

Health promotion

Lobbyist

Match the advanced practice nurse specialty with the statement about the role.

Clinical nurse specialist-b. Expert clinician in a specialized area of practice such as adult diabetes care

Nurse anesthetist-d. Provides care and services under the supervision of an anesthesiologist

Nurse practitioner-c. Provides comprehensive care, usually in a primary care setting, directly managing the medical care of patients who are healthy or have chronic conditions

Nurse-midwife-a. Provides independent care, including pregnancy and gynecological services

Health care reform will bring changes in the emphasis of care. Which of the following models is expected from health care reform?

Moving from an acute illness to a health promotion, illness prevention model

Moving from an illness prevention to a health promotion model

Moving from an acute illness to a disease management model

Moving from a chronic care to an illness prevention model

A nurse meets with the registered dietitian and physical therapist to develop a plan of care that focuses on improving nutrition and mobility for a patient. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?

Patient-centered care

Safety

Teamwork and collaboration

Informatics

A critical care nurse is using a computerized decision support system to correctly position her ventilated patients to reduce pneumonia caused by accumulated respiratory secretions. This is an example of which Quality and Safety in the Education of Nurses (QSEN) competency?

Patient-centered care

Safety

Teamwork and collaboration

Informatics

The nurses on an acute care medical floor notice an increase in pressure ulcer formation in their patients. A nurse consultant decides to compare two types of treatment. The first is the procedure currently used to assess for pressure ulcer risk. The second uses a new assessment instrument to identify at-risk patients. Given this information, the nurse consultant exemplifies which career?

Clinical nurse specialist

Nurse administrator

Nurse educator

Nurse researcher

Nurses in an acute care hospital are attending a unit-based education program to learn how to use a new pressure-relieving device for patients at risk for pressure ulcers. This is which type of education?

Continuing education

Graduate education

In-service education

Professional Registered Nurse Education

Which of the following Internet resources can help consumers compare quality care measures? (Select all that apply.)

WebMD

Hospital Compare

Magnet Recognition Program

Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare

The American Hospital Association’s webpage.

The components of the nursing metaparadigm include:

Person, health, environment, and theory

Health, theory, concepts, and environment

Nurses, physicians, health, and patient needs

Person, health, environment, and nursing

Theory is essential to nursing practice because it: (Select all that apply.)

Contributes to nursing knowledge.

Predicts patient behaviors in situations.

Provides a means of assessing patient vital signs.

Guides nursing practice.

Formulates health care legislation.

Explains relationships between concepts.

A nurse ensures that each patient’s room is clean; well ventilated; and free from clutter, excessive noise, and extremes in temperature. Which theorist’s work is the nurse practicing in this example?

Henderson

Orem

King

Nightingale

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with the diagnosis of a stroke and right-sided weakness. The nurse assumes responsibility for bathing and feeding the patient until the patient is able to begin performing these activities. The nurse in this situation is applying the theory developed by:

Neuman.

Orem.

Roy.

Peplau.

Match the following types of theory with the appropriate description.

Middle-range theory-d. Addresses a specific phenomenon and reflects practice

Shared theory-c. Applies theory from other disciplines to nursing practice

Grand theory-a. Very abstract; attempts to describe nursing in a global context

Practice theory-b. Specific to a particular situation; brings theory to the bedside

Match the following descriptions to the appropriate grand theorist.

King-d. Based on the belief that nurses should work with patients to develop goals for care

Henderson-c. Based on 14 activities, the belief that the nurse should assist patients with meeting needs until they are able to do so independently

Orem-b. Based on the belief that people who participate in self-care activities are more likely to improve their health outcomes

Neuman-a. Based on the theory that focuses on wellness and prevention of disease

Match the following description to the appropriate middle-range theory.

Benner’s Skill Acquisition-b. The nurse progresses through five stages of expertise.

AACN’s Synergy Model-d. Matching nurse competencies to patient needs can improve patient outcomes

Mishel’s Uncertainty in Illness-c. The nurse helps the patient to process and find meaning related to his or her illness.

Kolcaba’s Theory of Comfort- a. The nurse strives to relieve patients’ distress.

Which of the following statements related to theory-based nursing practice are correct? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing theory differentiates nursing from other disciplines.

Nursing theories are standardized and do not change over time.

Integrating theory into practice promotes coordinated care delivery.

Nursing knowledge is generated by theory.

The theory of nursing process is used in planning patient care.

Evidence-based practice results from theory-testing research.

A nurse is caring for a patient who recently lost a leg in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse best assists the patient to cope with this situation by applying which of the following theories?

Levine

Watson

Johnson

Using Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, identify the priority for a patient who is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing.

Self-actualization

Air, water, and nutrition

Safety

Esteem and self-esteem needs

Which of the following categories of shared theories would be most appropriate for a patient who is grieving the loss of a spouse?

Biomedical

Leadership

Psychosocial

Developmental

While working in a rehabilitation facility, it is important to obtain nursing histories and develop a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship. List in correct order the phases of Peplau’s theory as applied in this setting. The nurse:

3) Ensures that the patient has access to appropriate community resources for long-term care.

2)Collaborates with the patient to identify specific patient needs.

4)Collects essential information from the patient’s health record.

1)Works with the patient to develop a plan for resolving patient issues.

Nurses have developed theories in response to: (Select all that apply.)

Changes in health care.

Prior nursing theories.

Changes in nursing practice.

Research findings.

Government regulations.

Theories from other disciplines.

Physician opinions.

Which of the following types of theory influence the “evidence” in current “evidence-based practice (EBP)”?

Grand theory

Middle-range theory

Practice theory

Shared theory

A nurse is preparing to begin intravenous fluid therapy for a patient. Which category of theory would be most helpful to the nurse at this time?

Grand theory

Middle-range theory

Practice theory

Shared theory

A nurse is presenting a program to workers in a factory covering safety topics, including the wearing of hearing protectors when workers are in the factory. Which level of prevention is the nurse practicing?

Primary prevention

Secondary prevention

Tertiary prevention

Quaternary prevention

A patient had surgery for a total knee replacement a week ago and is currently participating in daily physical rehabilitation sessions at the surgeon’s office. In what level of prevention is the patient participating?

Primary prevention

Secondary prevention

Tertiary prevention

Quaternary prevention

Based on the transtheoretical model of change, what is the most appropriate response to a patient who states: “Me, stop smoking? I’ve been smoking since I was 16!”

“That’s fine. Some people who smoke live a long life.”

“OK. I want you to decrease the number of cigarettes you smoke by one each day, and I’ll see you in 1 month.”

“I understand. Can you think of the greatest reason why stopping smoking would be challenging for you?”

“I’d like you to attend a smoking cessation class this week and use nicotine replacement patches as directed.”

A patient comes to the local health clinic and states: “I’ve noticed how many people are out walking in my neighborhood. Is walking good for you?” What is the best response to help the patient through the stages of change for exercise?

“Walking is OK. I really think running is better.”

“Yes, walking is great exercise. Do you think you could go for a 5-minute walk next week?”

“Yes, I want you to begin walking. Walk for 30 minutes every day and start to eat more fruits and vegetables.”

“They probably aren’t walking fast enough or far enough. You need to spend at least 45 minutes if you are going to do any good.”

A male patient has been laid off from his construction job and has many unpaid bills. He is going through a divorce from his marriage of 15 years and has been seeing his pastor to help him through this difficult time. He does not have a primary health care provider because he has never really been sick and his parents never took him to a physician when he was a child. Which external variables influence the patient’s health practices? (Select all that apply.)

Difficulty paying his bills

Seeing his pastor as a means of support

Age of patient (46 years)

Stress from the divorce and the loss of a job

Family practice of not routinely seeing a health care provider

A nurse is conducting a home visit with an older-adult couple. While in the home the nurse weighs each individual and reviews the 3-day food diary with them. She also checks their blood pressure and encourages them to increase their fluids and activity levels to help with their voiced concern about constipation. The nurse is addressing which level of need according to Maslow?

Physiological

Safety and security

Love and belonging

Self-actualization

When taking care of patients, a nurse routinely asks if they take any vitamins or herbal medications, encourages family members to bring in music that the patient likes to help the patient relax, and frequently prays with her patients if that is important to them. The nurse is practicing which model?

Holistic

Health belief

Trans theoretical

Health promotion

Using the Trans theoretical Model of Change, order the steps that a patient goes through to make a lifestyle change related to physical activity.

2: The individual recognizes that he is out of shape when his daughter asks him to walk with her after school.

5: Eight months after beginning walking, the individual participates with his wife in a local 5K race.

1: The individual becomes angry when the physician tells him that he needs to increase his activity to lose 30 lbs.

4: The individual walks 2 to 3 miles, 5 nights a week, with his wife.

3: The individual visits the local running store to purchase walking shoes and obtain advice on a walking plan.

Which statement made by a nurse shows that the nurse is engaging in an activity to help cope with secondary traumatic stress and burnout?

“I don’t need time for lunch since I am not very hungry.”

“I am enjoying my quilting group that meets each week at my church.”

“I am going to drop my gym membership because I don’t have time to go.”

“I don’t know any of the other nurses who met today to discuss hospital-wide problems with nurse satisfaction.”

Which of the following are symptoms of secondary traumatic stress and burnout that commonly affect nurses? (Select all that apply.)

Regular participation in a book club

Lack of interest in exercise

Difficulty falling asleep

Lack of desire to go to work

Anxiety while working

After a class on Pender’s health promotion model, students make the following statements. Which statement does the faculty member need to clarify?

“The desired outcome of the model is health-promoting behavior.”

“Perceived self-efficacy is not related to the model.”

“The individual has unique characteristics and experiences that affect his or her actions.”

“Patients need to commit to a plan of action before they adopt a health-promoting behavior.”

A patient registered at the local fitness center and purchased a pair of exercise shoes. The patient is in what stage of behavioral change?

Precontemplation

Contemplation

Preparation

Action

As part of a faith community nursing program in her church, a nurse is developing a health promotion program on breast self-examination for the women’s group. Which statement made by one of the participants is related to the individual’s perception of susceptibility to an illness?

“I have a door hanging tag in my bathroom to remind me to do my breast self-examination monthly.”

“Since my mother had breast cancer, I know that I am at increased risk for developing breast cancer.”

“Since I am only 25 years of age, the risk of breast cancer for me is very low.”

“I participate every year in our local walk/run to raise money for breast cancer research.”

The nurse assesses the following risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD) in a female patient. Which factors are classified as genetic and physiological? (Select all that apply.)

Sedentary lifestyle

Mother died from CAD at age 48

History of hypertension

Eats diet high in sodium

Elevated cholesterol level

Which activity shows a nurse engaged in primary prevention?

A home health care nurse visits a patient’s home to change a wound dressing.

A nurse is assessing risk factors of a patient in the emergency department admitted with chest pain.

A school health nurse provides a program to the first-year students on healthy eating.

A nurse schedules a patient who had a myocardial infarction for cardiac rehabilitation sessions weekly.

Question 22: English

Read the passage from “The Monkey’s Paw.” The Whites are being offered compensation for Herbert’s death. In what way does the stranger’s answer increase the tension of the rising action?

From “The Monkey’s Paw”

The [visitor] coughed, and rising, walked slowly to the window. “The firm wished me to convey their sincere sympathy with you in your great loss,” he said, without looking round. “I beg that you will understand I am only their servant and merely obeying orders.”

There was no reply; the old woman’s face was white, her eyes staring, and her breath inaudible; on the husband’s face was a look such as his friend the sergeant might have carried into his first action.

“I was to say that Maw and Meggins disclaim all responsibility,” continued the other. “They admit no liability at all, but in consideration of your son’s services, they wish to present you with a certain sum as compensation.”

Mr. White dropped his wife’s hand, and rising to his feet, gazed with a look of horror at his visitor. His dry lips shaped the words, “How much?”

“Two hundred pounds,” was the answer.

Unconscious of his wife’s shriek, the old man smiled faintly, put out his hands like a sightless man, and dropped, a senseless heap, to the floor.

The answer causes Mr. White to faint.
The answer satisfies the first wish, and there are still two wishes left.
The answer causes the wife to shriek.
The answer indicates that Herbert has doubts about the wish.

Question 23: Accounting

In April of the current year, Freeman Steel Company transferred Herb Porter from its factory in Nebraska to its plant in Michigan. The company’s SUTA tax rates based on its experience ratings are 3.2% in Nebraska and 3.8% in Michigan. Both states base the tax on the first $9,000 of each employee’s earnings. This year, Freeman Steel Company paid Herb Porter wages of $20,900; $2,800 were paid in Nebraska and the remainder in Michigan. Compute:

Question 24: Biology

Describe approaches you would use to identify appropriately-silenced fungal transformants

Question 25: Business

Research Report

Question
Context: Recently you have joined the firm X – one of the leading export firms in country Z (home country – Malaysia or Australia). Your company is an exporter of goods or services (e.g., food and beverages, telecommunications, energy, or services such as education, entertainment, finance, tourism and health services). You have been assigned to the task of developing a strategic plan to expand the company’s exports to country Y (target country). Country Y could be an existing market or new market.
Relating to the key aspects of the strategic international trade operations topics covered in the course
, provide recommendation on trade expansion strategy to the firm
. In the report, an explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic plan must be included. Note
: You are required to visit the foreign trade web sites of the home and target countries (for example, explore Austrade website www.austrade.com.au if you have chosen Australia as the exporting/home country, or Malaysia External Trade Development Corporation Matrade www.matrade.gov.my/en/ if you have chosen Malaysia as the exporting/home country) to obtain information on export issues.

The report should include but not limited by the following:
(1). Context analysis (5 marks) – Provide a detailed account of the firm’s historical and current trading operations, export capacities, range of products and services, its market strength, and financial performances. Most of this information could be extracted from the company’s web site and internet (do not contact the company)

(2). Market analysis (5 marks) – Evaluate the export market (e.g. total market volume of the goods or services, market share of the exporting country and the firm etc.). Comment on consumer preferences and potential demand for the product at the targetcity/region/country.

(3). Country analysis (5 marks) – Provide a brief description about economic, political, legal, environmental and other relevant factor
s in the target country including potential risks. Also highlight export support structures present in home and target countries (if any).
(4). Facility location (5 marks) – Analyse the firm’s location issue
s in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(5). Trade expansion strategy (5 marks) – Outline and evaluate the firm’s strategy in expanding ope
rations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(6). Firm’s strategic core value (5 marks) – An explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic core value must be included. Analyse and evaluate the continued actions taken to maintain the firm’s core value in the process of trade expansion

Details

VICTORIA UNIVERISTY BUSINESS SCHOOOL
BEO3432 STRATEGIC INTERNATIONAL TRADE OPERATIONS

SEMESTER 2: 2019 Sunway University, Kuala Lumpur

Assignment (30%)

This assignment is to be undertaken as group work of 3 – 5 students. Assignment should be printed on one-sided A4 paper, with the signed College of Business Student Assessment Declaration form as the first sheet of the paper and the originality report following it. Make sure that you keep a copy of your submitted assignment. The assignment accounts for 30 percent of the total assessment of this unit.

Submission: Students need to submit the assignment to Turnitin in the Assignment Dropbox on the unit VU Collaborate to obtain an originality report, and the hard copy in class of Week 10.

Research Plan due in Week 4: You are required to submit the research plan including a Gant Chart during the tutorial class of Week 4.

Develop a research plan (maximum of two pages) and divide the work equitably amongst the group. The research plan shall provide the followings:

(a) A concise and informative title reflecting the task undertaking, and a brief explanation of the aims/objectives of the project and important features/characteristics of the chosen firm/company.
(b) A Gant Chart listing and diagram of activities and estimated time in days to complete the group assignment. The key activities include but are not limited to: Firm analysis, Market analysis, Country analysis, Strategic core value and plan, and the tasks assigned to each group member.

Presentation: Present the assignment professionally. Refer to the Group Assignment Assessment criteria.

Word limit: Maximum of 4000 words. Upload the final research report onto Turnitin on VU Collaborate. Make sure you hand in a hard copy of the report to your tutor.

Research Report Question

Context: Recently you have joined the firm X – one of the leading export firms in country Z (home country – Malaysia or Australia). Your company is an exporter of goods or services (e.g., food and beverages, telecommunications, energy, or services such as education, entertainment, finance, tourism and health services). You have been assigned to the task of developing a strategic plan to expand the company’s exports to country Y (target country). Country Y could be an existing market or new market.

Relating to the key aspects of the strategic international trade operations topics covered in the course, provide recommendation on trade expansion strategy to the firm. In the report, an explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic plan must be included.

Note: You are required to visit the foreign trade web sites of the home and target countries (for example, explore Austrade website www.austrade.com.au if you have chosen Australia as the exporting/home country, or Malaysia External Trade Development Corporation Matrade www.matrade.gov.my/en/ if you have chosen Malaysia as the exporting/home country) to obtain information on export issues.

The report should include but not limited by the following:

(1). Context analysis (5 marks) – Provide a detailed account of the firm’s historical and current trading operations, export capacities, range of products and services, its market strength, and financial performances. Most of this information could be extracted from the company’s web site and internet (do not contact the company).
(2). Market analysis (5 marks) – Evaluate the export market (e.g. total market volume of the goods or services, market share of the exporting country and the firm etc.). Comment on consumer preferences and potential demand for the product at the target city/region/country.
(3). Country analysis (5 marks) – Provide a brief description about economic, political, legal, environmental and other relevant factors in the target country including potential risks. Also highlight export support structures present in home and target countries (if any).
(4). Facility location (5 marks) – Analyse the firm’s location issues in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(5). Trade expansion strategy (5 marks) – Outline and evaluate the firm’s strategy in expanding operations to the chosen target city/region/country.
(6). Firm’s strategic core value (5 marks) – An explicit statement and evaluation of the firm’s strategic core value must be included. Analyse and evaluate the continued actions taken to maintain the firm’s core value in the process of trade expansion.

Formatting requirement:

Use Times New Roman or Arial, size 12 and 1.15 or 1.5 spacing for text. Number the pages.

(a) Have a Cover Page including:

Subject code and title
Name of assignment
Tutorial group
Tutor name
Assignment group member names and student ID numbers Due date

(b) ThesignedStudentAssessmentDeclarationFormisthefirstsheetofthepaper.
(c) Most importantly, the document should be professionally presented. Staple the

assignment, please do not submit the assignment in plastic covers.

Skills development objective over the semester include but are not limited to:

Complex problem solving
Critical thinking
Communication interpersonal and intercultural
Confident and creative life-long learner

Group member contribution:

On a separate page in the assignment document (after Cover Page), nominate the contributions made by group members for the assignment. In no more than 20 words give reasons why you think the percentage (%) you have nominated is appropriate.

Note that:

The research report will be assessed based on the following criteria. • Coherence of argument
• Originality
• Presentation

Referencing
For further information, please refer to the rubric for assessment criteria

Assessment Rubric

The overall mark will depend on the content, presentation and originality of the report. If evidence of plagiarized work is found, the report will be marked as fail.
The following rubric provides a general reference on marking, please consult your lecturer/tutor to clarify the requirements of specific topic.

Content 50%

High Distinction 80 – 100%

Distinction 70 – 79%

Credit 60 – 69%

Pass 50 – 59%

Fail
0 – 49%

Demonstrate good understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions with justifications of consistent explanations.

Demonstrate satisfactory understanding of the requirement of the task and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions, and attempts some justification with explanations.

Analysis

Demonstrate thorough understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Demonstrated application and conclusions with appropriate justifications, with clear and concise explanations

Demonstrate limited understanding of the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Can identify decision but no attempt at justifying decision.

Substantial work is required to meet the requirement of the tasks and relevant concepts. Writing is overall of insufficient understanding.

20%

Information is mostly accurate and integrated with some analysis.

Presentation 20%

Information is partially accurate and integrated with minimal analysis.

Information is incorrect, with no effort of analysis.

Information is accurate and integrated with excellent analysis.

Information is accurate and integrated with good analysis.

Formatted and edited to very good standard, with minimal grammatical and spelling errors Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Formatted and edited to good standard, with some grammatical and spelling errors Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Formatted and edited to satisfactory standard, with grammatical and spelling errors. Some details are included: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Referencing 10%

Formatted and edited to excellent standard, with no grammatical and spelling errors. Attention to details: cover page, headings and page numbers.

Submission contains differing formatting and font from different contributors.
No effort of editing is made, with consistent grammatical and spelling errors.

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with minimal errors.

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with some errors.

Total score

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with no errors.

Information is accurately referenced using Harvard System where applicable with many errors.

Incorrect references with substantial errors and with no evidence of consulting the recommended Harvard System.

Question 26: English

Do you think these two girls Morgan and Anissa should be tried as adult 60 years prisons possibly or 10 years Juveniles? GIVE 3 REASONS and 5 PARAGRAPH

YOU HAVE TO READ THE ARTICLE DOWN BELOW IN THE LINK OR YOU CAN WATCH THE VIDEO THAT I ATTACHED.

Link Full article : https://www.cambridge-news.co.uk/news/uk-world-news/slender-man-stabbing-morgan-anissa-16820541

Link to the video of the article : https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TXjMEMFvZFI

Question 27: Chemistry

What is the de Broglie wavelength (in meters) of a small car with a mass of 1150 kg travelling at a speed of 55.0 mi/h?

Question 28: Psychology

Qualitative vs. Quantitative Research

Use the table below to answer the following:

Define and distinguish between qualitative and quantitative research.
Provide examples of qualitative and quantitative research.
Imagine that you are a researcher interested in identifying the components of ‘giftedness’ in pre-teen children. What quantitative methods might you use to help you better understand the experience of giftedness? What qualitative methods might you use?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of each approach?

Definition

Examples

Examples of methods to study ‘giftedness’

Advantages

Disadvantages

Quantitative

Research

Qualitative

Research

Question 29: Psychology

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Reactivity

When conducting observations, it is important that your data are accurate. One issue that often impacts observational studies is reactivity.

Reactivity occurs when individuals alter their behavior due to the awareness that they are being observed. Reactivity also refers to situations where individuals alter their behavior to conform to the expectations of the observer.

So, when conducting an observational study, what can you do to reduce reactivity? You have many, many options….

Question 30: Other

The DellaVecchia Garden Center purchases and sells Christmas trees during the holiday season. It purchases the trees for $10 each and sells them for $20 each. Any trees not sold by Christmas day are sold for $2 each to a company that makes wood chips. The garden center estimates that four levels of demand are possible: 100, 200, 500, and 1,000 trees.

Compute the payoffs for purchasing 100, 200, 500, or

1,000 trees for each of the four levels of demand.

Construct a payoff table, indicating the events and alternative courses of action.
Construct a decision tree.
Construct an opportunity loss table. Use the Optimistic (maximax) to choose the best choice.
Use the Pessimistic (maximin) to choose the best choice.
Use the Criterion of realism (Hurwicz) to choose the best choice. α = 0.6
Use the Equally likely (Laplace) to choose the best choice.
Use the Minimax regret to choose the best choice.
Use the expected monetary value to make a choice. ( Probability for the four level demand are :

100 = 0.30

200 = 0.35

500 = 0.20

1000 = 0.15

Question 1: Religious Studies

BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)

Question 2: Health Care

NURS 6660 Midterm Exam II -Walden University – Question and Answers – Latest(2019) – Already Graded A

Question 3: Health Care

NURS 6630 Final Exam / NURS6630 Final Exam (2019): Walden University (Already graded A)

Question 4: Psychology

After reading one of the provided articles, discuss the topic of stress from a Biblical perspective. What insights about stress can be gleaned from the article? What insights about stress can be gained from the Bible? Provide at least one specific example from the Bible of a traumatic event or stressful situation and how the stress was handled. Cite the journal article (one required), the Bible (verse and application required), along with any other sources used in APA format (optional additional sources). As per assignment directions and rubric, include a Bible verse and application. Cite one of the provided articles in APA format (this will count as your required outside source, as per assignment directions rubric).

Files attached

ORIGINAL PAPER

Reading the Bible, Stressful Life Events, and Hope:

Assessing an Overlooked Coping Resource

Neal Krause1

Kenneth I. Pargament2

_ Springer Science+Business Media, LLC, part of Springer Nature 2018

Abstract Many people rely on religion to deal with the stressors in their lives. The

purpose of this study is to examine a religious coping resource that has received relatively

little attention—reading the Bible. We evaluated three hypotheses: (1) reading the Bible

moderates the relationship between stress and hope; (2) people who read the Bible more

often are more likely to rely on benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses; and (3)

individuals who rely on benevolent religious reappraisals will be more hopeful about the

future. Support was found for all three hypotheses in our analyses.

Keywords Bible _ Stressful events _ Hope

It seems that virtually every survey on religion contains a question on how often study

participants read the Bible or other sacred literature. However, these data have not been

exploited fully. Instead, questions on reading sacred literature are, more often than not,

relegated to the status of a control variable or they are combined with other religious

behaviors to form more comprehensive indices of private religious practices (Ciarrocchi

et al. 2008; Davis and Epkins 2009; Marquine et al. 2015). Handling Bible reading in this

manner makes it easy to overlook important functions that may be performed by this

particular type of religious behavior.

As Hood et al. (2009) maintain, religion performs a number of important functions. One

function involves helping people cope with adversity. The purpose of the current study is to

see whether reading the Bible or other sacred literature serves as a potentially important

& Neal Krause

nkrause@umich.edu

1 Department of Health Behavior and Health Education, School of Public Health, University of

Michigan, 1415 Washington Heights, Ann Arbor, MI 48109-2029, USA

2 Bowling Green State University, Bowling Green, OH, USA

123

J Relig Health

https://doi.org/10.1007/s10943-018-0610-6

coping resource. We have been able to identify only two quantitative studies that focus

specifically on turning to religious literature in the face of adversity. The first study was

conducted by Johnson et al. (2016). These investigators studied 101 women who were

diagnosed with PTSD. They report that women with PTSD were more likely to read the

Bible on a regular basis when they were exposed to a traumatic life event. The second

study was conducted by Tepper et al. (2001). These researchers studied 406 individuals

who were diagnosed with persistent mental illness. They found that 30% of their study

participants turned to reading scriptures in an effort to cope with symptoms of mental

illness. Since both of these studies were conducted with special populations, it is difficult to

determine whether the findings can be generalized to a wider population.

Further support for the notion that religious literature is a potentially important coping

resource is provided by a small cluster of qualitative studies. Based on a series of in-depth

interviews, Arcury et al. (2000) found that reading the Bible was a common response to the

challenges that are associated with disease self-management. Similarly, Gerdner et al.

(2007) found that one of the primary ways in which family members helped women who

were dealing with caregiving stressors involved reading Bible passages to them on a

regular basis. Another qualitative study by Hamilton et al. (2013) suggests that the Bible is

often used as a mental-health-promoting resource during stressful times. Further support

for the notion that people turn to sacred literature in order to cope with adversity is found in

the research program of Krause (2002). He conducted a series of qualitative studies in an

effort to develop closed-ended survey items on religiousness. One closed-ended item in his

resulting measure of spiritual support asked study participants to report how often, ‘‘…

someone in your congregation helps you find solutions to your problems in the Bible?’’

(Krause 2008, p. 38).

The findings from the studies that have been reviewed so far suggest that some people

turn to the Bible for help in dealing with stressors they encounter in their lives. However,

this research does not directly test whether people reap specific benefits from doing so. In

order to address this issue, researchers must assess whether reading the Bible moderates the

relationship between stress- and health-related outcomes. We are unaware of any studies

that empirically evaluate this statistical interaction with data from members of the general

population. The first goal of the current study is to address this gap in the literature.

Two questions must be addressed at this juncture in order to flesh out the theoretical

underpinnings of our study. First, it is important to reflect more deeply on what people may

actually get (or hope to receive) when they turn to sacred literature during difficult times.

As we will discuss below, addressing this issue provides a way of thinking about religious

coping that has not received sufficient attention in the literature. Second, it is important to

identify an outcome measure that is well suited for capturing the potential benefits of

turning to the Bible for help in overcoming adversity.

What Reading Religious Literature May Provide

Wuthnow’s (1994) widely cited work on support groups in American society provides a

useful source of information on what people hope to get when they turn to sacred literature

for assistance. This work is relevant because Wuthnow (1994) devotes considerable

attention to Bible study groups, which are formal groups in religious institutions that are

designed to help people learn about their faith by discussing scriptures and other religiously

oriented literature. Wuthnow (1994) reports that an important function of Bible

study groups is to help people deal with personal crises. This is accomplished by helping

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people deepen their faith and develop more realistic and mature ways of thinking about the

nature of God. A more mature view of God includes trusting in Him and believing that

what has happened is part of His plan for helping those who are in need. This function

corresponds closely to Pargament’s notion of a benevolent religious reappraisal coping

response (Pargament et al. 2000). As Pargament and his colleagues argue, benevolent

religious reappraisals do not deny the reality of the seriousness of an event (Pargament

et al. 2000). Instead, this type of coping response helps a person reframe the meaning of a

stressful situation by placing it in a larger more positive and hopeful religious context.

Based on these insights, the second goal of the current study is to see whether turning to

sacred literature is associated with greater use of benevolent religious coping responses.

Pursuing this second goal is important because it highlights an understudied dimension

of religious coping and represents a shift in thinking about reading the Bible. Instead of

being a form of instructional religious practice or discipline, reading the Bible in this

context becomes a way of coming to terms with one’s own life problems. Based on the

discussion that has been provided up to this point, we view reading religious literature as a

religious coping resource in its own right. Similarly, benevolent religious reappraisals are

also construed as a religious coping resource. By linking the two empirically, we aim to

show that one religious coping resource (i.e., reading the Bible) serves as a gateway for a

second religious coping resource (i.e., adopting benevolent religious reappraisals). The two

differ in that one (Bible reading) is a more distal factor, while the other (benevolent

appraisals) is a more proximal factor in the coping process. However, they are similar

because when they are taken together, they provide a richer conceptual view of the way in

which people may use their faith to deal with adversity: they rely on multiple religious

coping resources, not just one and they may activate these resources in a sequential

manner.

We were unable to find any studies in the literature that examine the association

between reading the Bible and benevolent religious coping responses. However, research

by Vishkin and his colleagues provides some support for examining this relationship

(Vishkin et al. 2006). These investigators report that individual who are more religious are

more likely to use general cognitive reappraisal coping responses. Our work attempts to

bring this relationship into sharper focus by examining one specific dimension of religion

that may be involved in this relationship (i.e., Bible reading) and coping responses that are

more explicitly religious in nature (i.e., benevolent religious reappraisals).

How the Benefits of Reading Religious Literature May be Manifest

Hope is the primary outcome variable in the analyses that are provided below. The reason

for choosing this outcome measures can be traced to two findings in the literature. First,

research reviewed by Folkman (2010) suggests that stress may erode a person’s sense of

hope. Second, the benevolent reappraisals coping strategy that was discussed above may

help replenish a threatened sense of hope. This coping response includes the belief that

even though one is faced with adversity, God has a plan. Moreover, this plan will

strengthen a focal person, thereby allowing them to ultimately hand the stressful situation

successfully. Implied in this perspective is the notion that although the precise nature of the

plan may not have been grasped fully, some people have faith and hope that the plan will

ultimately lead to the best outcome. There are both biblical as well as social psychological

reasons why hope makes a good outcome in the research on religion and stress.

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With respect to a biblical basis, the apostle Paul succinctly captured the role of hope in

the process of relying on religion to deal with adversity: ‘‘We also glorify in our sufferings

because we know that suffering produces perseverance, perseverance produces character,

and character hope.’’ (Romans 5:3–5, New International Version). It follows from this that

if a person turns to the Bible for solace and guidance during difficult times, they may

eventually become more hopeful about the future.

Snyder and his colleagues provide a clear social psychological framework for linking

involvement in religion with hope (Snyder et al. 2002). According to these investigators,

hope is viewed as a goal-directed cognitive process that includes both planning and the

motivation to reach goals. These researchers go on to point out that religion provides a

prepackaged configuration of goals, pathways for accomplishing these goals, and the

necessary cognitions for successfully pursuing the pathways. Perhaps this is one reason

why Capps (1996) argues that pastors are fundamentally providers of hope: ‘‘Pastors, I

suggest, are agents of hope by definition (or calling) and often that is all they are’’ (p. 325,

emphasis in the original).

Findings from a number of empirical studies are consistent with this logic. More

specifically, research by Krause and his colleagues (Krause 2014; Krause and Hayward

2012; Krause et al. 2015) as well as studies by Jankowski and Sandage (2011) indicates

that greater involvement in various aspects of religious life is associated with a greater

sense of hope.

Taken as a whole, the discussion that is provided above leads to the following study

hypotheses:

H1 The magnitude of the relationship between stress and hope will be lower for people

who read the Bible more frequently.

H2 People who read the Bible more frequently will be more likely to adopt a benevolent

religious reappraisal coping strategy.

H3 Individuals who adopt a benevolent religious reappraisal coping strategy will be more

hopeful about the future.

Methods

Sample

The data for this study come from a nationwide, face-to-face, random probability survey of

people aged 18 and older who live in the coterminous USA. The interviews, which were

completed in 2014, were conducted by the National Opinion Research Center (NORC).

The response rate for this study was 50%. A total of 3010 interviews were completed

successfully. The sample was stratified into the following age groups: age 18–40

(N = 1000), age 41–64 (N = 1002), and age 65 and older (N = 1008).

After using listwise deletion to deal with item nonresponse, data were available for

between 2873 and 2159 study participants. The reason for different sample sizes is the way

information on benevolent religious reappraisals was obtained. Study participants were

given a checklist of 12 life events they may have encountered in the past 18 months. The

respondents were asked to identify the one life event that was most stressful for them.

Following this, study participants were told to keep this event in mind as they answer the

questions on benevolent religious reappraisals. A total of 707 study participants were

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excluded from the current study because they did not encounter a major stressor in the

previous 18 months.

A series of preliminary analyses were performed in order to develop a demographic

profile of the participants in this study. These analyses suggest that the average age of the

participants in the current study was 46.4 years (SD 17.7 years), 43.8% are men, 44.7%

were married at the time of the interview, and the average level of educational attainment

was 13.4 years (SD 3.1 years). These descriptive data as well as the findings that are

presented below are based on data that have been weighted.

Measures

Table 1 contains the measures of the core constructs that are evaluated in this study. The

procedures that were used to code these indicators are given in the footnotes of this table.

Hope

Three indicators were taken from the work of Scheier and Carver (1985) to measure hope.

A high score denotes greater hope (M = 11.0; SD 2.1; range 3–15). The internal consistency

reliability estimate (i.e., Cronbach’s a) for the composite measure of hope is .707.1

Bible Reading

A single indicator that assesses how often study participants read the Bible when they are

alone was taken from the work of the Fetzer Institute/National Institute on Aging Working

Group (1999). A high score on this item represents study participants who read the Bible

more often (M = 3.1; SD 2.4; range 1–8).

Stressful Life Events

Exposure to stressful life events was assessed with a 12-item checklist that was developed

by Moos et al. (1984). A simple count of the number of events that respondents had

encountered in the 18-month period prior to the survey was computed. The average number

of events was 2.7 (SD 2.1; range 0–12).

Benevolent Religious Reappraisals

This coping response measure was developed by Pargament and his colleagues (Pargament

et al. 2000). A high score stands for respondents who relied on this coping strategy more

1 Scheier and Carver (1985) claim that the items in their scale assess optimism, but we refer to them as

indicators of hope. Following the seminal work of Peterson and Seligman (2004), we believe the terms

‘‘hope’’ and ‘‘optimism’’ are virtually synonymous. Moreover, these investigators note, the correlation

between the two is ‘‘considerable’’ (Peterson and Seligman 2004, p. 570) and despite differences in the way

they are operationalized, the correlates of these constructs are ‘‘strikingly similar’’ (Peterson and Seligman

2004, p. 570). The reader might also wonder whether the items we use to assess hope capture a state-like or

trait-like phenomenon. Generally speaking, state-like phenomenon are less stable than trait-like phenomenon.

However, as we will show below, stressful life events tend to be negatively associated with hope,

suggesting that the construct we measure changes over time. Clearly, longitudinal data are needed to address

this issue.

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often (M = 7.5; SD 2.9; range 3–12). The reliability estimate for this brief composite is

.855.

Religion Control Variables

Two additional measures of religion were included in the analyses provided below to help

insure that the effects were due to bible reading per se and not some other dimension of

Table 1 Core study measures

Hopea
I always look at the bright side of things
I’m optimistic about my future
In uncertain times, I usually expect the best
Bible readingb

When you are at home, how often do you read the Bible?

Stressful life eventsc
Moved to a new residence
Death of a close friend
Separation or divorce
Trouble with family members
Trouble with friends or neighbors
Your own serious illness or injury
Serious illness or injury of a family member
Death of a spouse
Death of an immediate family member (other than spouse)
Unemployed for more than a month
Income decreased substantially (20% or more)
Assaulted or robbed
Benevolent religious reappraisalsd
Saw my situation as part of God’s plan
Tried to find a lesson from God in the event
Tried to see how God might be trying to strengthen me in this situation
Church attendancee

How often do you attend religious services?

Private prayerb

How often do you pray by yourself?

aThese items were scored in the following manner (coding in parentheses): strongly disagree (1), disagree

(2), uncertain (3), agree (4), strongly agree (5)

bThis item was scored in the following manner: never (1), less than once a month (2), once a month (3), a

few times a month (4), once a week (5), a few times a week (6), once a day (7), several times a day (8)

cA simple count was taken of the number of events that were experienced

dThese items were scored in the following manner: not at all (1), a little bit (2), quite a lot (3), a great deal

(4)

eThis item was scored in the following manner: never (1), less than once a year (2), about once or twice a

year (3), several times a year (4), about once a month (5), 2 to 3 times a month (6), nearly every week (7),

every week (8), several times a week (9)

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religion that is associated with it. These religion control variables assess the frequency of

church attendance and the frequency of private prayer. These items were taken from

research by the Fetzer Institute/National Institute on Aging Working Group (1999). A high

score on these items reflects more frequent church attendance (M = 4.7; SD 2.8; range 1–9)

and more frequent private prayer (M = 5.9; SD 2.5; range 1–8), respectively.

Demographic Control Variables

The relationships among the measures in Table 1 were estimated after the effects of age,

sex, education, and marital status were controlled statistically. Age and education were

scored continuously in years, whereas sex (1 = men; 0 = women) and marital status

(1 = married; 0 = otherwise) were coded in a binary format.

Data Analysis Strategy

The first hypothesis that was developed for this study specifies that the relationship

between stressful life events and hope will be weaker for study participants who read the

Bible more often. This means we expect to find a statistical interaction effect between

stress and Bible reading on hope. Following the procedures that are recommended by

Aiken and West (1991), tests for this interaction were performed with ordinary least

squares multiple regression analyses. All of the independent variables were centered on

their means. Following this, a multiplicative term was created by multiplying the centered

vales of the stress by the centered values of Bible reading. Then, a test for the proposed

interaction effect was conducted in two steps. First, the additive relationships between the

independent variables and hope were estimated in Model 1. Second, the cross-product term

was entered into the model in the second step (Model 2).

If the regression coefficient associated with the multiplicative term is statistically significant,

then it is important to perform some additional calculations to see whether the

proposed interaction effect is in the hypothesized direction. These additional computations

are performed with a formula that is provided by Aiken and West (1991, see p. 12).

Support for the first hypothesis would be found if the relationship between stress and hope

becomes progressively weaker at successively higher levels of Bible reading. Although any

value of Bible reading can be used in these additional computations, we selected four

equally spaced scores that capture the full distribution of bible reading values: 2, 4, 6, 8. It

is important to show that there are a sufficient number of cases at each of the selected data

points because too few cases can result in statistical estimation problems with data

sparseness (see Cohen et al. 2003, for a discussion of data sparseness). The following

number of cases was observed at each of the selected bible reading scores: 2 (N = 423), 4

(N = 188), 6 (N = 296), and 8 (N = 106). As these data reveal, we did not encounter

problems with data sparseness at these selected values of Bible reading. Once estimates

have been derived at the selected data points, Aiken and West (1991) provide an additional

formula that reveals whether these coefficients are statistically significant.

The tests for Hypothesis 2 and Hypothesis 3 were more straightforward. OLS was used

in both cases. Hypothesis 2 was evaluated by regressing benevolent religious reappraisal

coping scores on the religion control variables, the demographic control variables, and the

frequency of Bible reading. The stress measure was not included in these analyses because,

as we discussed above, questions on benevolent religious reappraisals refer specifically to

the single most stressful event. Hypothesis 3 was assessed by regressing hope on the

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frequency of Bible reading, stressful life events, the interaction between reading the Bible

and stress, benevolent religious coping responses, and the control variables.

Results

Table 2 contains the results of the test of Hypothesis 1. Findings from the first step of the

data analysis procedures that were discussed above are provided by Model 1, whereas

Model 2 contains the results that were obtained after the multiplicative term was added to

the regression equation.

Two noteworthy results emerge from the estimates that were derived from Model 1.

First, the data suggest that greater exposure to stressful life events is associated with a

diminished sense of hope (b = – .134; p\.001). But in contrast, reading the Bible more

often does not appear to be associated with hope (b = .034; ns.).2

The estimates that were derived with Model 2 are of greater interest because they

contain the test for the proposed interaction between stress and Bible reading on hope.

These data indicate that a significant interaction between stress and Bible reading is present

in the data (b = .029; p\.001; unstandardized regression coefficients are discussed when

presenting the results of tests for interaction effects because standardized effects are

meaningless in this context).

2 Preliminary analyses suggest that the level of exposure to stressful life events is not significantly associated

with the frequency of Bible reading (r = – .024; ns.).

Table 2 Assessing the relationships

among bible reading, stress,

and hope (N = 2873)

aStandardized regression

coefficient

bMetric (unstandardized)

regression coefficient

*p\.05; **p\.01;

***p\.001

Model 1 Model 2

Independent variables

Age – .059**a – .062***

(- .007) (- .007)

Sex – .022 – .022

(- .093) (- .091)

Education – .044* – .044*

(- .029) (- .030)

Marital status .027 .028

(.112) (.117)

Church attendance .069** .071**

(.052) (.053)

Private prayer .105*** .108***

(.089) (.090)

Stressful events – .134*** – .132***

(- .136) (- .133)

Bible reading .034 .035

(.029) (.031)

(Bible Reading X Stressful Events) – –

(.029)***

Multiple R2 .053 .058

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Following the data analyses strategy that was presented earlier, additional computations

were performed at four equally spaced Bible reading scores to see whether the interaction

effect is in the hypothesized direction. The results from these additional calculations are

not shown in Table 2. A value of 2 represents people who read the Bible less than once a

month. The additional calculations reveal that greater exposure to stressful life events

among people at this level of Bible reading is associated with lower hope scores

(b = – .164; b = – .166; p\.001). A score of 4 stands for people who read the Bible a

few times a month. At this level of Bible reading, stress is still associated with lower hope

scores (b = – .106; b = – .108; p\.001). However, the standardized estimate is about

35.4% smaller than the estimate for study participants at the previous level (i.e., those who

read the Bible less than once a month). Study participants with a score of 6 say they read

the Bible a few times a week. At this level, stress is not significantly associated with hope

(b = – .049; b = – .050; ns.). The same is true for study participants who read the Bible

several times a day (i.e., those with a score of 8) (b = .008; b = .008; ns.). Looking across

the full range of scores, the data suggest that reading the Bible more often tends to fully

moderate (i.e., offset) the negative relationship between stress and hope. These data

therefore provide support for Hypothesis 1.

Hypothesis 2 was designed to examine one way in which the potentially beneficial effects

of reading the Bible might arise. This issue was addressed by estimating the relationship

between reading the Bible and relying on benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses

when the most significant life event in the previous 18 months was encountered. As discussed

above, this relationship was evaluated by regressing benevolent reappraisal coping scores on

the frequency of Bible reading as well as age, sex, education, marital status, church attendance,

and prayer. These additional analyses (not shown here) indicate that people who read

the Bible more often are more likely to rely on benevolent religious reappraisal coping

responses when the most stressful event was encountered (b = .130; b = .158; p\.001).

Hypothesis 3 was designed to bring the analyses full circle by assessing whether greater

use of benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses is associated with greater hope.

Recall that this hypothesis was evaluated by regressing hope on benevolent religious

reappraisals, the frequency of reading the Bible, stress, the interaction between reading the

Bible and stress, and the control variables. The findings (not shown here) suggest that

people who use benevolent reappraisals to deal with the greatest stressor tend to be more

hopeful (b = .215; b = .148; p\.001). Support is therefore found for Hypothesis 3. These

analyses further reveal that the interaction between reading the Bible and stress is still

statistically significant (b = .024; p\.01), but it is approximately 17.2% smaller than the

estimate that is provided when the measure of benevolent reappraisals is not in the model

(see Table 2) ((.029- .024/.029) = .172).

Discussion

Sacred texts are, arguably, the backbone of a faith tradition.3 They typically contain

information on the history of a faith tradition, but, more importantly, they also contain

precepts which presumably lead to a better life. Even though sacred texts are a vitally

3 Our study was conducted in the U.S. and as a result, the study participants were overwhelmingly

Christian. The statement that religious texts are the backbone of a faith tradition is appropriate for those with

a Judeo-Christian background. It should be emphasized, however, that religious texts may play a less central

role in other faith traditions, such as Buddhism.

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important part of a faith tradition, it is surprising to find that empirical research on them has

lagged behind research in other substantive areas (e.g., religious coping) in the religion and

health literature. The purpose of the current study was to redress this imbalance in the

literature by assessing whether reading sacred texts contributes to the quality of life by

providing access to potentially important coping resources. Toward this end, three

hypotheses were evaluated. The first specified that the relationship between stress and hope

would be weaker among people who read the Bible more often. It was proposed in the

second hypothesis that people who read the Bible more often will be more likely to adopt

benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses to deal with the single most troublesome

life event they encountered in the previous 18 months. According to the third hypothesis,

individuals who adopt benevolent religious reappraisal coping responses will be more

hopeful about the future. The data from the current study provide support for each of these

hypotheses.

There are three reasons why the findings from this study are noteworthy. First, to the

best of our knowledge, this is the first study that assesses the potential stress-buffering

function of reading sacred scriptures in the general population. Second, an effort was made

to move beyond this important issue by clearly identifying one way in which reading the

Bible may confer stress-related benefits: adopting benevolent religious reappraisal coping

responses. Third, we examined these issues with data from a large nationally representative

survey of adults.

Even though our research may have contributed to the literature, a substantial amount of

work remains to be done on reading sacred scriptures. Perhaps the greatest need has to do

with the measurement of this core construct. As in the current study, researchers often

assess reading sacred scriptures with a single indicator (e.g., Fetzer Institute/National

Institute on Aging Working Group 1999). Yet even a moments reflect reveals that reading

sacred scriptures is a complex phenomenon in its own right. Briefly reflecting on research

on prayer helps illustrate this point. Many researchers initially assessed prayer with a single

indicator. But as this literature began to evolve, it quickly became evident that there are

different types of prayer (Poloma and Gallup 1991) and different functions of prayer

(Spilka and Ladd 2013). Perhaps researchers can develop a counterpart to this literature in

their work on reading sacred scriptures. For example, it might be useful to devise a

topology of reasons for reading the Bible. Some people might read the Bible for help in

dealing with stress, but others might read sacred scriptures simply to deepen their faith,

while yet other individuals may read the Bible in order to feel closer to their chosen faith,

thereby deriving comfort in knowing they are part of an ongoing tradition. These (and

other) reasons for reading scriptures could be measured directly and then examined in

larger models to see which one(s) are associated with health-related outcomes.

Following closely on the point that was raised above, it would be helpful to identify the

specific Biblical passages that people turn to when they encounter stressful events. This in

turn may help flesh out our understanding about how Bible reading shapes religious coping

responses. Unfortunately, our study does not contain data on the specific Biblical passages

that people consult during difficult times. Gathering this type of information should be a

high priority in the future.

As the data in our study reveal, Bible reading, stress, and religious coping responses do

not explain all of the variance in the hope outcome measure. This suggests that hope is

likely to be influenced by other aspects of religious life, as well. Research by Krause and

his colleagues suggests that social relationships in the church may play an important role in

this respect. More specifically Krause and Hayward (2012) report that more frequent

informal support from pastors is associated with increases in hope over time. Similarly,

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research by Krause, Ellison, Shaw, Marcum and Boardman (2001) indicates that more

frequent informal support from fellow church members is associated with greater use of

religious coping responses.

It would also be important to gather more information on the context in which Bible

reading takes place. We assess Bible reading in private, but people also attend Bible study

groups. It would be helpful to see whether reading the Bible in groups conveys a similar or

even greater benefit than reading the Bible privately.

In order to advance research on reading the Bible, investigators should also address the

limitations in the work we have presented. At least two shortcomings are in need of

attention. First, the data for our study are cross-sectional. Consequently, the causal

ordering among the constructs in our models was based on theoretical considerations alone.

For example, we assumed that people who rely on benevolent religious reappraisals are

subsequently more likely to feel hopeful about the future. But one might just as easily

argue that people who are initially more hopeful are subsequently more likely to adopt this

type of coping response. Longitudinal data are needed to address this, as well as other

causal assumptions in our work. Second, only one specific coping response was examined

in our study. However, as Pargament et al. (2000) show, individuals may adopt a wide

range of coping responses when they are confronted by an unwanted stressor. Some of

these coping responses may be especially useful in research on reading sacred scriptures

(e.g., collaborative religious coping, seeking spiritual support). Clearly, examining the

relationship between reading the Bible and a full spectrum of coping responses will likely

yield much greater insight into the potential benefits of this core religious behavior.

In recent years, the theories and measures that are used in the study of religion have

become increasingly sophisticated. We applaud these efforts as long as more fundamental

aspects of religious life are not overlooked. If our study accomplishes anything, we hope it

calls attention to one of the most basic elements of involvement in virtually any faith

tradition—reading sacred scriptures.

Funding This study was funded by the John Templeton Foundation (Grant 40077).

Compliance with Ethnical Standards

Conflict of interest Neal Krause and Kenneth I. Pargament declare that they have no conflict of interest.

Ethical Approval All procedures performed in studies involving human participants were in accordance

with the ethical standards of the institutional and/or national research committees and with the 1964 Helsinki

Declaration and its later amendments or comparable ethical standards.

Informed Consent Informed consent was obtained from all individual participants included in the study.

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Pargament, K. I., Koenig, H. G., & Perez, L. M. (2000). The many methods of religious coping: Development

and initial validation of the RCOPE. Journal of Clinical Psychology, 56, 519–543.

Peterson, C., & Seligman, M. E. P. (2004). Character strengths and virtues: A handbook and classification.

New York: Oxford University Press.

Poloma, M. M., & Gallup, G. H. (1991). Varieties of prayer: A survey report. Philadelphia: Trinity Press

International.

Scheier, M. F., & Carver, C. S. (1985). Optimism, coping, and health: Assessment and Implications of

generalized outcome expectancies. Health Psychology, 4, 219–247.

Snyder, C. R., Sigmon, D. R., & Feldman, D. B. (2002). Hope for the sacred and vice versa: Positive goaldirected

thinking and religion. Psychological Inquiry, 13, 234–238.

Spilka, B., & Ladd, K. L. (2013). The psychology of prayer: A scientific approach. New York: Guilford.

Tepper, L., Rogers, S. A., Coleman, E. M., & Malony, H. N. (2001). The prevalence of religious coping

among persons with persistent mental illness. Psychiatric Services, 52, 660–665.

Vishkin, A., Bigman, Y. E., Porat, R., Solak, N., Halperin, E., & Tamir, M. (2006). God rest our hearts:

Religiosity and cognitive reappraisal. Emotion, 16, 252–262.

Wuthnow, R. (1994). Sharing the journey: Support groups and America’s new quest for community. New

York: Free Press.

Question 5: Economics

Chapter 12 matching vocabulary

Aggregate demand
Real-balances effect
Foreign-purchases effect
Interest-rate effect
Aggregate supply
Productivity
Short-run aggregate supply curve
Menu costs
Long-run aggregate supply curve
Equilibrium price level

( ) The amount of total spending on domestic goods and services in an

economy.

( ) Where there is neither a shortage nor a surplus and no tendency for

the price to rise or fall.

( ) As the price level declines, the purchasing power of money increases.

( ) Shows the total quantity of output that firms will produce and sell

where input prices are fully responsive to changes in the price level.

( ) A lower price level will make domestically produced goods less

expensive relative to foreign goods.

( ) The costs of changing prices, like the costs of changing prices at

Publix.

( ) A lower price level will reduce the demand for money and lower the

real interest rate, which will stimulate additional purchases.

( ) Shows the total quantity of output that firms will produce where input

prices do not change in response to changes in the price level.

( ) The total quantity of output (i.e. real GDP) firms will produce and sell.

( ) The average output per worker during a specific time period.

Question 6: Economics

chapter 11 matching vocabulary

Money that enters the spending stream through an increase in business or government spending.

The difference between exports and imports in an economy.

Where spending equal output in an economy.

The level of consumer and business spending at each possible income or output level.

Insufficient total spending to achieve full-employment GDP

A tax where everyone pays the same amount.

Total spending exceeds level to achieve full-employment GDP

Money, like savings, that is no in the spending stream.

The business spending plan at each level of GDP

Spending choices of business independent of current real output.

Planned investment

Investment schedule

Aggregate expenditures schedule

Equilibrium GDP

Leakage

Injection

Net Exports

Lump-sum tax

Recessionary expenditure gap

Inflationary expenditure gap

Question 7: Economics

Chapter 10 matching definitions

( ) Shows the amounts households plan to spend for consumer goods at different levels of disposable income.
( ) The share of the additional dollar a person decides to save.
( ) Percent of disposable income that household spend on consumer goods.
( ) Tendency for people to increase or decrease consumption spending when the value of their financial assets changes.
( ) Shows the amounts households plan to save at different levels of disposable income.
( ) The share of the additional dollar a person decides to devote to consumption expenditures.
( ) Percent of disposable income that household save
( ) Increased savings may be both good and bad for the economy.
( ) The ratio of a change in equilibrium GDP to the change in investment.
( ) The line along which the value of output is equal to the value of aggregate expenditures.

Consumption schedule
Marginal propensity to save (MPS)
Average propensity to consume (APC)
Wealth effect
Savings schedule
Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
Average propensity to save (APS)
Paradox of thrift
Multiplier
45 degree line

Question 8: Business

Resources: Strategic Staffing, Ch. 11; Top Performers Case Study Grading Guide

Read the opening vignette in Ch. 11, “Hiring Top Performers at MarineMax” on page 304 in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 11.

Answer the following in 150 to 200 words:

What can MarineMax do to increase the likelihood that the top sales candidates it recruits will accept its job offers?

Question 9: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Discuss the multiple hurdles approach. Do you think this is a viable method for choosing candidates? Or does an alternative approach work best for your current or previous organization?

Question 10: Business

BUSI 300 PowerPoint Instructions

For this assignment, you will create a professional looking PowerPoint presentation on a topic of professional communication. To help put this in perspective, the scenario is that your supervisor has assigned you the task of presenting a 45 to 60-minute training session on some aspect of professional communication. You need to research your topic and prepare an engaging PowerPoint that would be used to guide your presentation.

Topic Ideas

The course textbook will be a great resource when looking for a topic that relates to some aspect of professional communication. Some examples of topics include (but are not limited to):

How to be an Effective Verbal and Nonverbal Communicator;
How to Give an Effective Presentation;
Effective Communication Within Teams;
Overcoming Communication Barriers

It is recommended that you pick a topic of interest and then do some research to make sure you can find five credible sources – more about credible sources below. Once you are certain you can locate five credible sources, begin creating your PowerPoint presentation.

PowerPoint Requirements:

Title Slide

This will be the first slide of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a contentslide).
This slide will include the following: title of your presentation; your full name; class name and section number; & your institution (Liberty University).

Content Slides

A minimum of 15content slides must be included.
All content slides must contain speaker notes.

o Speaker notes are a presenter’s “cheat sheet”, if you will. In other words, speaker notes are hidden from your audience, but you are able to view them while presenting.

o Speaker notes are NOT a copy of the information on your slide. Instead, speaker notes expand upon and/or offer further clarification regarding points on each slide.

o To add speaker notes, go to the Notes pane under the slide where you will see, “Click to add notes”. For more help, view the information at: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/add-speaker-notes-to-your-slides-26985155-35f5-45ba-812b-e1bd3c48928e

A minimum of fourrelevant, professional images/graphics must be included in your PPT.

o All images/graphics used must be of high quality and professional, with the main purpose of helping an audience better grasp a complex concept and/or remember information presented.

o Re-read section 12-3 in your course textbook, as there are some important guidelines regarding the use of images/graphics in a presentation.

III. Reference Slide

This slide will be the last slide(s) of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a contentslide).
This slide (or slides) will contain all sources used in your PowerPoint presentation.
Sources must be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines.
In addition to current APA formatting guidelines, the inclusion of thecomplete URL (sometimes called a permalink) is required for all full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database. Note that this is not the same as the doi #. The URL must take your reader directly to the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database. If you’re unsure about the specific URL/link, you can copy the entire web address from the top of the browser’s address bar once you are viewing the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database.

Sources

A minimum of five credible sourcesmust be used within your presentation. Required, credible sources include:

o four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.

o two of the above four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles must be within the last 7 years.

o the course textbook (as listed on the course syllabus).

You are able to include additional sources, other than the five credible sources listed above; however, they must be full-text articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
Sources NOT acceptable for this assignment:

o No textbooks (including e-books), other than the course textbook/ebook (as listed on the course syllabus)

o No general Internet searching is acceptable. Therefore, no blogs, education sites, commercial sites, Wikipedia, About.com, editorials, abstracts, online books, book reviews, etc.

Avoiding Plagiarism

Create an original PowerPoint presentation; previously submitted work from this or another course is considered self-plagiarism and is prohibited.
Provide citations for any:
- statement, idea, & thought (whether paraphrased or directly quoted) used from an outside source;
- table, data, image, etc. used from an outside source.
All citations should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines and should directly follow the information used from an outside source.
All sources used should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines on your reference slide(s).

Other Requirements and Reminders:

Must be created in Microsoft PowerPoint and uploaded through the assignment link as a .ppt or .pptx file.
Individual slides and the overall design of your presentation must be professional and engaging.
A running header or page #s are not required.
An abstract is not required.

PowerPoint Project Grading Rubric_BUSI 300

Based on 150-point maximum

Criteria	Levels of Achievement
Content 70%	Advanced 90-100%	Proficient 70-89%	Developing 1-69%	Not present
Content	94.5 to 105 points Topic meets assignment requirements. Content is accurate, and the presentation has a logical sequence of ideas. All slides outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point. Four relevant, professional images/graphics are included. All image/graphics illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue. Speaker notes are included on all content slides and expand upon and/or offer further clarification of points.	73.5 to 93.5 points Topic meets assignment requirements. Content is mostly accurate, and the presentation has a good flow. Most slides outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point. Presentation contains only 1-3 images/graphics. Some, but not all, images/graphics illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue. Speaker notes are missing on 1-5 content slides. Speaker notes help clarify some, but not all points.	1 to 72.5 points Topic does not meet assignment requirements. Content is not completely accurate, and/or the presentation is unorganized and difficult to follow. Slides do not outline or supplement a major point or detail a previous point. Graphics do not illustrate the topic of the slide and/or explain a complex issue. Speaker notes are missing on 6 or more content slides. Speaker notes do not clarify points on the slides.	0 points Not present
Structure 30%	Advanced 90-100%	Proficient 70-89%	Developing 1-69%	Not present
Grammar, Spelling, and Sentence Structure	4.6 to 5 points No spelling or grammar errors are present.	3.6 to 4.5 points Presentation contains some spelling and/or grammar errors.	1 to 3.5 points Presentation contains multiple spelling and/or grammar errors.	0 points Not present
Formatting and Number of Slides	36 to 40 points 5 credible sources are used, and correct APA formatting has been applied throughout. The title slide is included and contains all required items. Transitions and animations are smooth and enhance the presentation very well. A professional theme is used. All text is clearly visible with the appropriate amount of content per slide. All required slides are present.	28 to 35.6 points 4 credible sources are used. The presentation contains some APA formatting errors. The title slide is included, but is missing one required item. Transitions and animations are adequately used. A professional theme is used. All text is visible and most slides contain the appropriate amount of content per slide. Two required slides are missing.	1 to 27.6 points 1-3 credible sources are used. The presentation contains multiple APA formatting errors. The title slide is included, but is missing 2+ required items. Transitions and animations are not used and/or distract from the presentation. A professional theme is missing. Text is unclear, and there is either too much or not enough content per slide. Three or more required slides are missing.	0 points Not present

BUSI 300 PowerPoint Instructions

Topic Ideas

The course textbook will be a great resource when looking for a topic that relates to some aspect of professional communication. Some examples of topics include (but are not limited to):

How to be an Effective Verbal and Nonverbal Communicator;
How to Give an Effective Presentation;
Effective Communication Within Teams;
Overcoming Communication Barriers

PowerPoint Requirements:

Title Slide

This will be the first slide of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a content slide).
This slide will include the following: title of your presentation; your full name; class name and section number; & your institution (Liberty University).

Content Slides

A minimum of 15 content slides must be included.
All content slides must contain speaker notes.

Speaker notes are a presenter’s “cheat sheet”, if you will. In other words, speaker notes are hidden from your audience, but you are able to view them while presenting.
Speaker notes are NOT a copy of the information on your slide. Instead, speaker notes expand upon and/or offer further clarification regarding points on each slide.
To add speaker notes, go to the Notes pane under the slide where you will see, “Click to add notes”. For more help, view the information at: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/add-speaker-notes-to-your-slides-26985155-35f5-45ba-812b-e1bd3c48928e

A minimum of four relevant, professional images/graphics must be included in your PPT.

All images/graphics used must be of high quality and professional, with the main purpose of helping an audience better grasp a complex concept and/or remember information presented.
Re-read section 12-3 in your course textbook, as there are some important guidelines regarding the use of images/graphics in a presentation.

III. Reference Slide

This slide will be the last slide(s) of your PowerPoint (and is NOT considered a content slide).

This slide (or slides) will contain all sources used in your PowerPoint presentation.

Sources must be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines.
In addition to current APA formatting guidelines, the inclusion of the complete URL (sometimes called a permalink) is required for all full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database. Note that this is not the same as the doi #. The URL must take your reader directly to the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database. If you’re unsure about the specific URL/link, you can copy the entire web address from the top of the browser’s address bar once you are viewing the full text article within Liberty’s online library journal database.

Sources

A minimum of five credible sources must be used within your presentation. Required, credible sources include:

four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
two of the above four full-text, peer-reviewed/scholarly articles must be within the last 7 years.
the course textbook (as listed on the course syllabus).

You are able to include additional sources, other than the five credible sources listed above; however, they must be full-text articles retrieved from Liberty’s online library journal database.
Sources NOT acceptable for this assignment:

No textbooks (including e-books), other than the course textbook/ebook (as listed on the course syllabus)
No general Internet searching is acceptable. Therefore, no blogs, education sites, commercial sites, Wikipedia, About.com, editorials, abstracts, online books, book reviews, etc.

Avoiding Plagiarism

Create an original PowerPoint presentation; previously submitted work from this or another course is considered self-plagiarism and is prohibited.
Provide citations for any:
- statement, idea, & thought (whether paraphrased or directly quoted) used from an outside source;
- table, data, image, etc. used from an outside source.
All citations should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines and should directly follow the information used from an outside source.
All sources used should be formatted according to current APA formatting guidelines on your reference slide(s).

Other Requirements and Reminders:

Must be created in Microsoft PowerPoint and uploaded through the assignment link as a .ppt or .pptx file.

Individual slides and the overall design of your presentation must be professional and engaging.

A running header or page #s are not required.
An abstract is not required.

Question 11: Mathematics

Calculate the percentage return on a 1-year Treasury bill with a face value of $10,000 if you pay $9,777.46 to purchase it and receive its full face value at maturity.

The percentage return is % Round to decimal place

Question 12: History

From the readings in you textbook, you have learned about Plato, Aristotle and other philosophers within the Greek culture. Some people say, “We should not study and learn about the secular philosophies taught by the Greeks because they are not Christian based.” Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give specific reasons why you have come to your conclusions.

TEXTBOOK chs. 7–8:

A Narrative of Western Culture First Edition Dennis E. Rawls, MALS

ISBN-13: 978-1-260-51106-2 ISBN-10: 1-260-51106-5

Module/Week 3

Review Study Guide

This module/week we are looking at the philosophy and humanist legacy that the Greeks added to Western Culture. Philosophy many times is a big word that people avoid using but it is literally the love of wisdom. It generally does take a position on what is the nature of reality. Men like the Sophists (a professional philosopher-teacher) would debate philosophy in the Greek marketplace called an agora. On occasion we are critical of the Greek philosophy but many of these men were brilliant and modern Christianity could learn some things from them. We should not be afraid to understand the world in which we live a little better. They were not afraid to have a systematic speculation of the universe from their vantage point. There are a number of men who are listed as philosophers in the Greek culture, so let’s get some of the key individuals in the correct time frame.

The correct order:

Pythagoras—Died 495 BC
Socrates—399 BC
Plato—348 BC
Aristotle—322 BC
Alexander the Great—323 BC (not really thought of as a philosopher, but was a student of Aristotle and was heroic figure in the late classical period of Greek history).

Let’s now try to cover a little of what each is known for.

Pythagoras was the early Greek philosopher who taught that “number” was the essence of all things. Not to be confused with Protagoras who is also credited with saying that “man is the measure of all things”. Socrates is next and it is interesting that there are no written works of him, and we only know what he taught because of what Plato wrote about him. Socrates was known for his method of teaching by asking questions. He is best recognized for inventing the teaching practice of pedagogy, wherein a teacher questions a student in a manner that draws out the correct response. He was not necessarily a student of Pythagoras but probably learned some things from him. It is interesting that Socrates’ favorite student, Plato, developed a philosophy diverse from that of his teacher. Socrates was later brought to trial by his enemies on capital charges of atheism and corruption of the young.

Let’s look at Plato, who was associated with a principle used in the art of debate called the dialectic. Reality for Plato consisted of (Ideas) of all basic things. Forms that exist beyond the grasp of the senses, or even the mind, which is not what Socrates or Aristotle would teach. Aristotle had a great influence in the field of logic, particularly with his invention of the syllogism as a tool for deductive reasoning. In logic, Plato was more inclined to use inductive reasoning, whereas Aristotle used deductive reasoning. The syllogism, a basic unit of logic (if A = B, and B = C, then A = C), was developed by Aristotle. Plato would write the Republic as well as the Allegory of the Cave.

Both Aristotle and Plato believed thoughts were superior to the senses and are considered to be the most influential philosophers in the history of Western Culture. However, whereas Plato believed the senses could fool a person, Aristotle stated that the senses were needed in order to properly determine reality. Aristotle would have some excellent views on logos, which when used in the philosophical sense takes on the meaning of the rational principles that govern and develop the universe as well as his greatest field of logic.

An example of this difference is the Allegory of the Cave, created by Plato (who would create the Academy of Athens). To him, the world was like a cave, and a person would only see shadows cast from the outside light, so the only reality would be thoughts. To the Aristotelian method, the obvious solution is to walk out of the cave and experience what is casting light and shadows directly, rather than relying solely on indirect or internal experiences.

Next, let’s look at some of the philosophical terms that were used and have been used to describe various beliefs and values.

Ideology is basically the doctrines, opinions, or way of thinking of an individual or group.

Hedonism develops within cultures that begin to focus on themselves and not others, because this belief says that pleasure is the principal god and should be the highest aim of the individual and society.

Naturalism in many cases leads to Hedonism and Humanism. Naturalism is the view that the universe requires no supernatural cause or government, that it is self-existent, self-explanatory, self-operating, and self-directing, and that it is purposeless, deterministic, and only accidently productive of humanity.

Syncretism is a view we have seem before and is the joining together of ideals, beliefs and values. Syncretism is basically a combination, reconciliation, or coalescence of varying, often mutually opposed beliefs, principles, or practices, esp. those of various religions, into a new conglomerate whole typically marked by internal inconsistencies.

We have previously studied how the Greeks were individualistic in their view of their society. This concept was unusual in the history and cultures of this and previous time periods. We may look down upon a prideful person and Scripture certainly does, but the Greeks considered pride a virtue. We had mentioned it earlier but the Greeks were good at illustrating their cultural perspective by their use of the Comedy and Tragedy (the first one was in 534 BC) plays. The typical Greek tragedy depicts how the hero becomes alienated from society, which is a tragedy.

Greek Theatre was not the only form of art for the Greeks. We have famous sculptures such as The Discus Thrower by Myron, The Kritios Boy done in 481 BC, and Poseidon, one of the finest original Greek bronzes (the Greeks favorite sculpture forms). Many of these art works depicted people not as they were but as they should be. Just a note here: there are not as many bronze sculptures as were actually produced because many were melted down for weapons. Many of the bronzes statues we have today have been recovered from the sea, where they were able to lay safely to be recovered by future generations. We cannot forget the art that the Greeks felt was the most important, which was Music.

Just because there were many views of reality with the Greek culture, this did not mean that the people did not believe in gods and build temples (without priests). Most expensive temples were built on the mainland of Greece, not on the islands such as Sicily; one of them being the Parthenon (built in Athens), which was a temple dedicated to the goddess Athena. The ancient Greeks saw the human form even in their temple styles. The Corinthian columns were associated with the Greek Classical time period and were used in the Greek temple architecture because of their elegance and refinement. The Corinthian columns can be seen in many of the buildings in downtown Washington D.C.

Not to say that the Greeks all got along with each other. Towns would fight towns and basically have an all-out war, and many of them were based on pride. As we mentioned earlier, the Peloponnesian War between Sparta and Athens was just such a war. We know much about this war because of the accurate historical accounts by Thucydides. Thucydides believed that history should provide an accurate record of past events. It would have very negative effects of both areas of Greece, but Athens would continue to provide the majority of cultural influence for Greece until the Romans arrived on the scene.

The Greeks thought education was very important and like many of the Classical schools in America today, thought music was important in this educational process. How could we describe the Greeks? In two words: Individualistic and competitive. Thus the Olympics?

Question 13: General Question

ACCT 212 Learn smart Assignment 11 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

A capital investment evaluation method that measures the expected time for the present value of the net cash flows to equal the initial cost of the investment is the:

A company is considering several investment opportunities. The investments have been evaluated using payback period and break-even time. Only one project will be chosen and time value of money is important. The company should choose the project which the:

The capital investment evaluation method compares the present value of the net cash flows to the initial amount invested is the:

A company is considering a capital investment of $45,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase cash flows by $15,000 per year for 6 years. The company has a hurdle rate of 10%. The break-even time is approximately:

When using accounting rate of return to evaluate capital investment decisions, choose the project with the (1) risk, (2) payback period, and (3) return for the (4) time period.

A company needs to choose between two investment opportunities. Project 1 has a cost of $500,000 and expected NPV of cash flows of $450,000. Project 2 has a cost of $800,000 and expected NPV of cash flows of $750,000. Using profitability index as the evaluation method, the company should choose:

A company is considering a capital investment of $45,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase flows by $15,000 per year for 6 years. The payback period is ____ years.

When comparing investment opportunities with approximately the same cost and risk level, choose the investment with the:

A company is considering a capital investment of $16,000 in new equipment which will improve production and increase cash flow for next five years at the following amounts: Year 1: $8,000; Year 2: $6,000; Year 3: $5,000; Year 4: $5,000. The payback period is __ years.

A company is considering two similar investment projects. One has an initial cost of $50,000 and the other an initial cost of $450,000. Which evaluation method would be most appropriate?

Assume straight-line depreciation and even cash flow. A company plans to purchase equipment for $25,000. The equipment will have $0 salvage value and increase after-tax income by $7,500 annually during it 5-year life. The accounting rate of return is ___%

Which of the following is the approximate internal rate of return for an investment that costs $45,880 and has net cash flow of $4,000 for 20 years?

Consider the following projects: Project A cost = $30,000, NPV of cash flows = $10,000; Project B: Cost = $45,000, NPV of cash flows = $10,000 Project C: Cost = $30,000, NPV of cash flows = $20,000; Project D: Cost = $40,000, NPV of cash flows = $5,000. Using profitability index as the evaluation method, rank the projects in order of preference with the best choice on top.

A company has evaluated several projects using net present value. All projects are similar in amount invested and risk. Rank the projects in the order they should be accepted.

A company is considering an investment opportunity with a cost of $5,000 that will provide future cash flows of $8,000. The flows for the investment for the next 4 years are: $1,000, $1,000, $2,000, and $4,000. Assume a required rate of return of 10%. The NPV is $ _____

Question 14: General Question

ECON 213 How to use InQuizitive Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Points, Grades, and Levels

Drag the labels below to fill in the blanks.

(Hint: You saw most of this information on the introductory screen when you first started the activity. To view that screen again, click the gear icon in the top right-hand corner and select “Instructor Activity Introduction” from the drop-down menu.)

Drag word(s) below to fill in the blank(s) in the passage.

You score points in InQuizitive by answering .
You determine how many points you can gain or lose on each question using the Question slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users).
You must answer a number of questions to get a grade on the activity.
To get a perfect grade (100%) on the activity, you must reach a designated Score.

Confidence Levels

Find the Question Confidence slider (to the right if you’re on a computer, or at the bottom for smartphone users). Try sliding the ball to adjust your confidence level.

Using the keys below or your keyboard, type out the name of the lowest confidence level.

Confidence Levels

Go back to the Question Confidence slider. What’s the highestconfidence level?

Using the keys on the screen or your keyboard, enter it below.

Confidence Levels

As you’ve seen, you can adjust your confidence level on each question using the Question Confidence slider. What happens when you increase the confidence level for a question?

When you answer the question correctly on the first try, it the number of points you’ll earn.

When you answer incorrectly while attempting the question, it the number of points you’ll lose

Other InQuizitive Policies and Features

Which devices can you use to work on InQuizitive activities?

(Note that to complete this question you must drag every answer option into either the “Correct Answer(s)” area or the “Incorrect Answer(s)” area.)

Confidence Levels

If you guess incorrectly on a question, you immediately lose the points you “wagered” when setting your confidence level. If you answer the question correctly after that initial incorrect guess, however, you can earn back half of those points in most cases.

So, here’s a math question for you: Suppose you set your confidence level at “I think I know it,” which means that you’re initially risking 80 points. You guess wrong on the first attempt. How many “second-chance” points will you be able to earn back?

Other InQuizitive Policies and Features

Find Quizmo, the InQuizitive alien, in the upper left-hand corner of the screen. Quizmo is thinking of an African animal’s common name. Guess the animal.

(This is an impossible question that we’re slipping in here, to make sure you get at least one question wrong and see what happens when you guess incorrectly. Just keep typing until you fill in the answer. You will not encounter impossible questions like this in later InQuizitive activities in your course!)

If you answer the minimum number of questions for an activity before you reach the Target Score, your initial grade will be calculated this way:

If you’ve just reached the minimum number of questions and have scored 750 points, your initial grade is .

However, if you keep answering questions and eventually reach 1,500 points, your grade will improve to , no matter how many questions it takes you to get there.

Question 15: General Questions

ECON 213 InQuizitive ch. 13 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Chapter 13: Oligopoly and Strategic Behavior

Apply the correct label to each network externality or externality-related effect.

What generally causes U.S. companies in oligopoly to have similar prices?

How is oligopoly different from monopolistic competition?

The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 was successful enough in reducing the power of cartels and monopolies that no further legislation to curb monopoly power has ever been needed.

What must be demonstrated to prove that a company engaged in predatory pricing?

Joey and Sarah own competing cell phone companies. Using tit-for-tat strategy, describe what Joey should do if Sarah decides to change her advertising practices. Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Two cable companies serve a city. The companies are of comparable size and are charging the profit-maximizing price. Then Company A raises its prices.

According to the kinked demand curve theory, what will Company B do?

How could network externalities encourage monopolistic behavior? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Why might it be difficult for the firms in a duopoly to form a cartel? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Why would two rival airlines choose not to follow a tit-for-tat strategy to reduce or eliminate advertising?

The output in chairs per month for four firms is:

200 for firm A
300 for firm B
275 for firm C
320 for firm D

The total output of the chair industry is 2,000 chairs per month. If firms A, B, C, and D are the four largest firms in the industry, calculate the four-firm concentration ratio for the chair industry by finding out what percentage of the total output the four firms are responsible for. Round your answer to the nearest whole percent.

Three separate oligopolists in the same industry serve a city. Company A is the dominant firm in the industry and produces a large share of the total output in the industry. Companies B and C are rival firms, but they are much smaller than Company A. Company A sets its price at a level that maximizes its own profits.

According to the theory of price leadership, what will Companies B and C likely do?

When are prices higher? Order the following market scenarios from lowest price to highest price based on their descriptions.

Why might network externalities cause a new cable provider to be unsuccessful when it tries to enter the market?

Lukas owns a phone company in a city with three other phone companies. He wants to attract more customers and is considering lowering his prices to do so. According to the kinked demand curve theory, will this strategy work? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Sometimes duopolists try to cooperate with one another. Match the economic phenomenon to the description that most accurately describes it.

Maddie and Gavin own competing bakeries in a small town. Maddie lowers her bakery’s prices to a point at which Gavin cannot compete, and he must go out of business. Gavin believes Maddie deliberately lowered her bakery’s prices with the intent of driving his bakery out of business. Gavin wants to file suit against Maddie. Does Gavin have a case? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

Match the strategy to the scenario it describes.

Match the company to the outcome of its antitrust suit.

Question 16: General Questions

ECON 213 InQuizitive ch. 12 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Chapter 12: Monopolistic Competition and Advertising

In the short run, low barriers to entry and exit allow new entrants into a monopolistically competitive market.

What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition?

Which shift in the demand curve is most likely to describe a company in a monopolistically competitive market that begins to spend more on advertising?

Which of the following are reasons a firm might choose to advertise?

For each industry, drag the label into the column of the table that describes what type of market it is.

What might be the consequences of government intervention in the bottled water industry?

Which graph likely represents a popular designer sunglasses company located in a busy, downtown shopping mall?

How does advertising affect industries in competitive markets? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

In monopolistically competitive markets, government regulation is always desirable because it improves efficiency.

What does a shift from point 1 to point 3 illustrate about the result of advertising in monopolistically competitive markets?

How does advertising affect consumers? Fill in the blanks to complete the passage.

In which market type(s) are individual firms likely to advertise regularly?

When are firms more efficient? Order the following firms from least efficient to most efficient.

How do the actions of the Federal Trade Commission influence advertising?

A pizza company that charges five dollars more for its pizzas than a competitor’s pizza will find it impossible to survive in a monopolistically competitive market.

Drag the industries to the graph that would best represent them.

Drag the following products to the graph that most likely illustrates their price and output.

Katy owns a monopolistically competitive firm that has many competitors that advertise. What can Katy realistically hope to achieve if she decides to advertise as well?

Match the description of the industry to the type of market in which it belongs.

What are some of the differences between a monopolistically competitive firm and a competitive firm?

Ananya is the owner of a toy store and is considering whether or not to purchase advertising for her company. The graph here illustrates the firm’s long-run average total cost curve in three different scenarios. Drag each situation to the appropriate point on the graph.

Order the industries based on increasing market power and ability to set prices, starting with the highest.

Advertising expenses occupy approximately what percentage of global economic activity?

Match each type of market to a possible incentive or disincentive for advertising in it.

Mrunal opened the first flower shop in her town. For a while, she was the only provider of flowers, until people noticed how profitable her business had been. Now several new flower shops have opened. What might happen to Mrunal’s business in the long run?

Identify each situation as either a competitive market or a monopolistically competitive market.

Fill in the blanks to describe the characteristics of monopolistic competition.

Question 17: Computer Science

There are 3 sections to this assignment- each section is a page long for total of 3 pages Please label each section APA Format for reference

Instruction

Section 1- needs to be 1 page What is change control and why does it need to be managed? Give two examples of the impact of mismanagement. Why does a network require constant monitoring to determine the percentage of its capacity being used? Explain the potential results of not monitoring capacity usage. Define bandwidth. Why does a company need standards regarding who can expand the network or add applications that require heavy bandwidth to operate? Complete the assignment in a 1- to 2-page Microsoft Word document. Cite all sources using the correct APA style. Save the document as. Section 2- needs to be 1 page Find An article advocating centralized management of the IT function and find an article on advocating user-dominated management of IT Discuss your findings in each article and present your analysis of which aspects of each method seem most beneficial to the companies mentioned overall. Section 3- needs to be 1 page Read a case a scholarly source such as Google Scholar dealing with a company’s IT strategy, the implementation of that strategy, and the way the strategy benefited the company as a whole. Analyze the case and describe how the company mentioned was able to develop a successful IT strategy. How did the company plan and implement the strategy? How is the company supported by the IT strategy? You should identify at least three scholarly and independent sources utilizing services such as (but not limited to) Google or Google Scholar over the Internet. The sources you identify should support the case you selected for the purpose of this assignment.

Question 18: Business

Instruction

complete 3 assignments. Only have to show work or graphing if asked

T/F the longer the maturity, the lower the bond duration, which measures interest rate risk.

What is the value of a 5 year semi-annual pay 9% coupon bond if rates are 9%
1000
923
928
965

You are looking to value some common stock using various valuation models and are answering the following questions:

T/F A company with a high growth rate will cause most valuation models to yield a higher stock price.

T/F the higher the required return should cause an investor to pay more for a stock.

If a firm pays a dividend this year of $3, has a growth rate of 5%, a required return on equity of 10%, what is the price of the stock

T/F A firm has EPS of $2 and the industry PE multiple is 18, so I should pay $36 for the stock.

You need to analyze some projects for a company you work for. You meet with the CFO to discuss some options.

T/F If the IRR<WACC then project should be accepted

A truck costs 100k and is projected to bring in cash flows of 20k per year for the first 4 years with a cash flow of 10k in year 5 with a salvage value of 15k in that same year. If the WACC is 7.5% then you should

Reject as the NPV is a negative 21k
Reject as the NPV is a negative 16k
Accept as the NPV is a positive 11k
Neither accept or reject

You are going to receive monthly payments of 1,000 for the next 5 years. You need a lump sum however and you go to a firm that will pay you a lump sum but they need to earn 9%. How much will you receive

T/F The 3 main financial statements are the income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flow and the balance sheet list assets and liabilities of the firm.

The new firm wants to minimize fixed costs. What does this mean?
This will keep operating leverage down which in turn will lower business risk
This will lower financial risk which in turn lowers the risk of the firm.
Higher fixed costs will leverage up returns and lower business risk
Higher operating leverage is directly associated with higher financial risk.

T/F The goal of a firm is to maximize the value of its stock and that occurs at the point where the WACC is the lowest. Debt should have a lower cost of capital component versus equity as interest payments are tax deductible.

T/F Capital structure refers to the % of equity and the % of debt affirm has with the goal of minimizing that cost or finding the highest WACC.

T/F Essentially, the whole idea of valuing stocks and bonds and deciding whether or not to accept or reject capital investments (machines, a truck fleet, etc.) is to compute the present value of the cash flows.

T/F A firm should pay out a dividend if they can earn a better rate of return than the stockholder

What is the yield to maturity of a 6% semiannual coupon bond that matures in 8 years if he pays 930?
6%
58%
16%
Cannot be determined

An MRI machine has the following cash flows:

Cost: 1 million

Cash flows are 500k for 3 years

The WACC is 15%

The IRR on this MRI machine is:
0%
4%
6%
26%

T/F Based on the IRR decision criteria we should accept this project

. T/F the payback under the original MRI assumptions is 3 years

T/F You are taking a take home final exam.

You want to retire in 30 years and a financial planner tells you that you need 1.5 million then to live comfortably. If you have 50k to invest now and can earn 7%, how much would you have to invest annually to reach your goal?
11,850
19,908
31,250
Cannot be determined

What is the Present value (PV) of 10,000 to be received in 5 years if your required return is 6%

a.7,473

10,000
8,250
0

T/F The lower the interest rate the lower the FV

T/F The higher the required return the lower the PV

T/F Companies raise capital by issuing stocks and bonds, which is why the equation

assets = liabilities +equity holds true

T/F General obligation muni bonds are backed by the full faith and credit of the issuing state
T/F U.S. treasury securities have credit risk
T/F A corporate bond will have some degree of risk premium or credit spread over U.S Treasury bonds to compensate for risk.
The PV of a semi-annual 6% bond that matures in 5 years if market interest rates are now 5% is:
$1,000
$1,050.32
$1,43.76
Cannot be determined

The YTM of a bonds purchased at $950 with a semi-annual coupon of 7% and a $1,000 par that matures in 4 years is:
$1,000

b.6.25%

4.25%
8.5%

You are looking at some stocks to value using different valuation models and come across the following questions:

11.T/F the higher the growth rate and the lower the discount rate, the higher the price using the dividend discount model or PV of FCF model

A stock with next year’s dividend of $2 and a growth rate of 4% and a cost of equity of 9% has an intrinsic value of:
42
40
23
50

T/F If a firm has cash flows of 500 million and the growth rate of the cash flow is 5% with a required return of 10%, the value of operations is a little over 10 billion

14.T/F A stock that has a PE multiple of 15 and earnings of 2 per shares should trade at 7.5.

15.T/F A company with a high PE multiple may not be overvalued if they have a high growth rate.

T/F The goal of the firm is not to maximize its stock price.

17 . T/F The common stockholders are the owners of the firm and they elect the company board of directors who in turn appoint the officers of the firm

Question 1 (Chapter 14: EVM)

At a certain point in your project, you did a performance measurement and found the following results:

PV = $500,000	EV = $350,000
AC = $550,000	BAC = $1,200,000

Calculate the schedule variance (SV)
Calculate cost variance (CV)
Calculate schedule performance index (SPI)
Calculate cost performance index (CPI)
Calculate estimate at completion (EAC)
What do those numbers tell you? What do you think you should do?

Question 2

Given the following information for a one-year project, answer the following questions. Recall that PV is the planned value, EV is the earned value, AC is the actual cost, and BAC is the budget at completion.

PV = $23,000
EV = $20,000
AC = $25,000
BAC = $120,000

What is the cost variance, schedule variance, cost performance index (CPI), and schedule performance index (SPI) for the project?
How is the project doing? Is it ahead of schedule or behind schedule? Is it under budget or over budget?

III. Use the CPI to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC) for this project. Is the project performing better or worse than planned?

Use the SPI to estimate how long it will take to finish this project.

Question 19: Other

Crisis Counselling

Assignment #2: The Connection between Trauma and Crisis or Crisis Prevention

Format: essay (8-10 pages) Value: 20% Due: see outline

Students will prepare a research paper on their choice of two questions:

Either 1) what is the connection between trauma and crisis? Or 2) Crisis Prevention with a target population or issue.

Choice #1: What is the connection between trauma and crisis? Here students will use the Herman text from their Trauma theory and practice course as well as course material from this course, and put them in conversation with one another to answer this question. No external sources are required for this paper – just the Herman text and CMH 481 course materials.

Choice #2: Students are to use a combination of and minimum of four scholarly and grey sources to prepare a research paper focusing on crisis prevention with a particular population or issue of their choice, for example, crisis prevention regarding suicidal thoughts or behaviour, or crisis prevention on a community level.

Evaluation Rubric:

Criteria	Points/percentage of overall
Quality of understanding of course materials and themes related to question (choice 1) OR of the scholarly research sources (choice 2)	6
Direct integration of course materials & Herman text (choice 1) OR scholarly sources (choice 2)	6
Analysis/creativity in responding to questions/topic of assignment	4
Professional presentation requirements	4

Question 20: General

You will be assigned a forensic psychology case to analyze. In order to complete it successfully, you must follow the attach outline precisely. Keep in mind that your Forensic Case Study is written in an outline format, the narrative and reference sheet must adhere to APA style. Also, notice that you will need to include legal AND social science research articles in you paper. It is just as important to describe the behavioral science research behind the psychological issues in the case as it is to explain the legal aspects of it. CASE: Spruce v. Sargent failure to protect inmate liability

Writing the Forensic Case Study

Start with the case as the title of your report:

Case Citation Example: Myers v. United States, 272 U.S. 52, 135 (1926)

Followed by your name.

The body of the report should be written in outline structure: 1., 2., 3., etc. in which each number provides a specific set of information as detailed below. Most report outlines will not be more than 5 pages long, not counting the reference page.

Facts of the Case: Pinpoint the determinative facts of a case, ie., those that make a difference in the outcome. You goal here is to be able to briefly tell the story of the case without missing any pertinent information but also not including too many extraneous facts either. Above all, make sure you have clearly identified the main players. State the parties’ names and positions in the case (Plaintiff/Defendant or Appellee/Appellant, and victims or agencies involved).

Forensic Psychology or Scientific Issue Presented: Formulate the main legal issues and forensic psychology questions embedded in the case. Write them in the form of questions. For example, “What is the level of competence needed to stand trial when the defendant is mentally retarded?” Later you will need to explain how are these issues are argued in the case, so clearly stating the question(s) will make writing that section easier.

Review of Literature: What does the scientific research say about these issues? Like any other research paper, conduct a brief review of literature to see what professional journals say the issue at the heart of the legal question. What does behavioral science know about this issue? For example, when the legal question is the competence of a mentally retarded defendant, you would need to find three or four research articles describing the cognitive capacities or limitations of individuals with intellectual deficiencies. Are there a lot of differing opinions or conflicting research results? Is this an issue with little scientific information about it? If there is a clear consensus of professional opinion, what is it?

Court Decision: What was the judgment in this case? Who did the judge or jury decide was right? If the opinion says, “We hold…” that’s the majority opinion. Just state the decision in a sentence or two.

Rule of Law: What was the legal standard that comes out of this case? In some cases this will be clearer than others, but basically you want to identify the principle of law on which the judge or jury is basing the resolution of the case. This rule of law will be used in future cases to make judgments. For example, the Rule of Law in Miranda v. Arizona is that ‘evidence obtained by police in a custodial interrogation of a suspect is not admissible in court to prove guilt unless the suspect was given warnings about his constitutional rights. Those rights included….’

In other words, state why this case is important.

Reasoning: What were the judges’ reasons for deciding the case the way they did? How were the issues argued? There may be dissenting opinions as well, which is important to state why some judges disagreed. Did the majority opinion consider the scientific research or expert opinions in reaching their decision? If not, why did they disregard with the experts or best practice evidence? Remember, legal facts are different from scientific facts. What were the facts that persuaded the court to make their decision?

Reference Sheet: APA style

Depending on the case, your paper will be anywhere from 5-6 pages. Make sure you use APA format in the body of the paper as well as in the Reference pages. Please review the rubric for the best outcome.

Question 21: Computer Science

Instruction

Read the assignment. show all the calculations

ASSIGNMENT – 2

NOTE: Please Show all the calculations Deadline: OCTOBER, 21, 2019
1) [9 points] Find the eight bit 2’s complementary representation for the following

decimal numbers:
a) 121 b) -121 c) 54

2) [3 points] Is there a relationship between EBCDIC character representation of the decimal digits from 0 to 9 and their BCD representation? Explain.

3) [5 points] Consider a hypothetical computer system. A 12-bit memory space is used for a sign-and-magnitude representation of integers with BCD and the sign is stored in MSB. What is the range of signed integers in base 10 that can be represented? Explain.

4) [18 points] Consider the two following decimal numbers: 15,675 and -8,741
a) Convert these numbers to 9’s complement five-digit representation and show

all the steps

b) Find the sum of the two numbers in 9’s complement arithmetic showing all the steps and convert the sum back to decimal
c) Was there a carry or overflow condition in your calculation? Explain
d) Convert the initial two numbers to 10’s complement representation and show all the steps
e) Find the sum of the two numbers in 10’s complement arithmetic showing all the steps and convert the sum back to decimal
f) Compare the two procedures and explain the difference of addition in 9’s and 10’s complement. Which one is easier to implement?

5) [6 points] Provide the Packed Decimal representation of the following decimal numbers:

a) -76 b) 4389 c) -5005

6) [6 points] What number is represented in 9’s complement by:
a) 4987 (four-digit 9′ complement representation) b)

836 (three-digit 9′ complement representation)

7) [6 points] Perform the calculation 95.675 + 0.95675 using the decimal floating point representation SEEMMMMM, where S is the sign (0 for “plus”, 1 for “minus”), EE is the decimal exponent in excess-50 notation and MMMMM is the five-digit mantissa. Show all steps and explain the result.

8) [18 points] Convert the following binary numbers to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754 format.

Convert your answer to hexadecimal format.
a) 11001.0101 b) -101.111101 c) -0.0101001

9) [21 points] Convert the following hexadecimal numbers to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754

format. Convert your answer to hexadecimal format.
a) 251D b) -B26.9 c) -0.00A5

10) [7 points] Convert the following decimal number to floating-point format using single-precision IEEE 754

format. Express your answer in hexadecimal format. Do the conversions with 8 bits of precision in the

mantissa. -23.103

11) [21 points] The following numbers are in IEEE 754 single-precision floating- point format. What decimal numbers

do they represent?
a) C4C2E00016 b) 483C540016 c) BEF8000016

12) [3 points] Define or explain briefly: normalization of a floating point number.

13) [2 points] True or False: Double precision floating point format can store all real numbers in the range 2-126 to 2127.

14) [1 point] True or False: In one’s binary complement, negative numbers are represented by themselves.

15) [2 points] In the IEEE 754 format, the exponents 0 and 255 are used to represent special values.

16) [2 points] A number of magnitude too large to be stored in a computer is an example of what condition?

Question 22: Education

Final Essay Instructions

Congratulations on reaching the capstone assignment for EDUC 200. The goal of this essay is to combine the major learning objectives of this course into a single reflection document that is personalized for each student. By now you should be able to determine some of the rewards and challenges the education profession presents. Imagine that you are interviewing for a job. How would you professionally describe the rewards and challenges you may encounter? Use first person, “I”, as you write your essay to respond to the principal in the interview.

Note the following requirements:

You will write a 800 word essay in response to the given prompt
The essay must be written in current APA format and include a title page, main body, and reference page.
It must also include a minimum of 3 in-text citations from the textbook in current APA format. See APA Basics in the Instructions section for specific guidelines.
The main body must include an introductory paragraph, body paragraphs and a conclusion paragraph.
- The introductory paragraph should have strong hook or attention grabbing statement to draw the reader into the paper. A position or thesis statement should name the chosen rewards and challenges.
- The body paragraphs should describe the 3 potential rewards and 3 potential challenges with two or more details to support each reward or challenge.
- The conclusion should summarize the paper and restate the position or thesis statement from the introduction.
The essay must be submitted through Blackboard. Please consult a copy of the assignment rubric in Blackboard for a detailed description of expectations and grading criteria.

Final Essay Question:

You have decided to apply for your first teaching position. The principal seated across from you asks this question: “What are 3 rewards and 3 challenges that you will face as a teacher?”

Question 23: General

philosophical/theoretical basis of the Abeka curriculum. i need one page that has to include three theorist such as JOHN DEWEY, vYGOTSKY, PIAGET OR HOWARD GARDENER

History 1301 signature assignment

HISTORY Signature Writing Assignment

Step 1: View the Power Point Lesson for the “Overview for Primary Source Documents” provided by the Library of Congress which describes primary and secondary sources. This step is VITAL!

Step 2: After viewing the lesson, pick out a primary source that you find interesting. For the purpose of this course, students are required to pick out a letter, speech, or diary entry. Use one (1)
single artifact rather than a collection of artifacts. The primary source must be something that is covered in this course. For HIST 1301, this can be anything from Christopher Columbus to the Civil War/Reconstruction. For HIST 1302, this can be anything after the Civil War up to the last chapter that is covered in the book.

In addition, students must use a secondary source that backs up or provides information to clarify information in the primary source. An example of this would be if a student chooses a letter written by Thomas Jefferson to James Madison, a secondary source that gives information about who James Madison was and a little bit of background information about him would meet the requirements. One secondary source is required, but students can use more than one. Please see the information after the Power Point about Primary and Secondary sources to find out more information about finding a Primary Source. Primary sources can be found using the sources provided on the following page.

Step 3: After a primary source and secondary source(s) is chosen, students can begin to write the paper by answering the 10 questions below. The finished product should be a formal paper that is 3 pages MINIMUM (750 words) written in essay style, NOT in a numbered list (minimal work will get a minimal grade). Reviews are to be doubled-spaced in Microsoft Word format utilizing MLA format and must include in-page citations. Reviews should be composed in Times New Roman 12 point font.

Taking into consideration the information presented in the Overview of Primary Source Documents lesson: Address the following points in your review:

Who wrote the document? Until you know this you know little about the document. Sometimes you can figure this out from the document itself. Was the author a political or private individual? Was he educated or not?
Who was the intended audience/who was the letter or speech written to? This will tell you about the author’s use of language and the knowledge that he assumed on the part of the reader.
What is the story line? What is going on in the document?
Why was the document written? Everything is written for a reason. Is it just a random note, or a

scholarly thesis?

What type of document is this, or what is its purpose? A newspaper article is different than a diary.

Thus, one can expect to extract different kinds of information from different kinds of documents. A

private letter to a friend is very different from a political letter written to discuss governmental matters.

What are the basic assumptions made by the author? For example, did the author assume that the

reader could understand certain foreign or engineering terms?

Can you believe this document? Is it reliable? Is it likely? This should be more than a yes or no answer.

What makes it believable or not?

What can you learn about the society that produced this document? All documents reveal information

about the people who produced them. It is embedded in the language and assumptions of the
text. Your task is to learn how to “read,” or analyze, a document to extract information about a society. You might wish to analyze each document in terms of various aspects of a society (economic, political, religion, social structure, culture, etc.).

What is the importance of this document to history? Everything can be considered important even if it is not important for political or governmental purposes. Does it shed light on what life was like during the time period it was written? Does it demonstrate views of the world from a time long ago? Etc.
Finally, What does this document mean to you? If you answer nothing, you will lose a whole letter grade. You are the one picking out the sources, so pick something that you find interesting that means something to you. Tell me why it means something to you and why you picked it.

Step 4: Submit the assignment through Canvas. Do not send the assignment via email. Submit your Signature Assignment paper in MICROSOFT WORD format. Please understand that all papers WILL be

Signature Assignment paper in MICROSOFT WORD format. Please understand that all papers WILL be checked for plagiarism before grading.

Question 25: Law

International Justice System- Generally, as we have learned earlier in the semester, substantive law refers to how crime and punishment are defined, and that each of the four legal traditions do share some characteristics of substantive law. Similarly, each of the four legal traditions differ from each other with respect to substantive law. As such, 1) Briefly summarize how each of the four legal traditions are similar in defining criminal responsibility, and 2) Briefly summarize how each of the four legal traditions differ in defining criminal responsibility

Question 26: General

A paper on the Congress. (Theses Question) – If you were serving in Congress, would you tend to follow the instructed delegate model of representation or the trustee model? Why? What might be the likely outcome of your choice? has to be in apa format 5 pages double~ spaced, cover page, twelve font.

Question 27: Education

Create a lesson plan on the book :Whistle for Willie By Ezra Jack Keats. It’s a very short book maybe you can check it out from the library like I did. Its a childrens multicultural book, or maybe there is a way you can read it online. follow the format of the example I attached for you below

Instruction

AUTHOR STUDY LESSON PLANS AND FOCUS UNIT (Critical Assignment)As a reflective decision-maker, the student is capable of researching an author of children’s literature and make informed decisions concerning appropriate lessons and content connections involving the author’s work. Objectives: 1) research and collect information about a children’s literature author; 2) create activities for a balanced literacy classroom; and 3) link learning activities to the Common Core State Standards for a selected grade level.Corresponding FL-FAU READING Performance Indicator(s) for the Reading Endorsement: 1.A.5: Identify cognitive targets (e.g. 8locate/recall, integrate/interpret, critique/evaluate) and the role of cognitive development in the construction of meaning of literary and informational texts; 1.A.7: Understand the reading demands posed by domain specific texts; 1.A.8: Understand that effective comprehension processes rely on well developed language, strong inference making, background knowledge, comprehension monitoring and self-correcting

FAU MODIFIED LESSON PLAN FORMAT

LAE 4353 Professor Oetinger – Kenski

Fall 2019

Teacher:______________________________________ Date: _________________________

Book Title: ___________________________ ____ Grade Level: ____________________

Author:____________________________Illustrator: __________________________________

Publisher and Copyright Date: ____________________________________________________

Culture(s) Represented: ________________________________________________ _________

Instructional Objective(s)/Outcomes: Indicate what is to be learned.

Please include 1-2 “I Can” Statements and 1 Essential Question.

Standards/Objective:

Choose two Florida Language Arts Standards (LAFS) in one of the categories listed below. Use the following website: http://www.fldoe.org/pdf/lafs.pdf. These standards are based on the national Common Core State Standards: www.corestandards.org.

You may choose from the following categories:

Reading: Literature Reading: Informational Text

Reading: Foundational Skills Writing

Speaking and Listening Language

Instructional Procedures: Indicate how you intend to sequence the activities in the lesson from initiation to closure (based on the LAFS reading standards) and what prior knowledge students have to have in order to be successful. Estimate the time necessary to complete each major component of the lesson.

Please include the necessary components of a Balanced Literacy Block, within Sections A – C.

Initiating activities: Time = __________________

Core Activities: Time = _____________________

Closure Activities: Time = ____________________

Adaptations for ESOL and ESE:

Classroom management plan:

Materials and Equipment: List all books, materials, and equipment to be used by both the teacher and the learner.

Assessment/Evaluation: Identify the techniques used in determining to what extent the students have attained the instructional objectives. For your Author Study lesson plan, you will need to create a rubric. You may use the rubistar4teachers.com website. Attach the rubric to your lesson plan. Your assessment must match at least one of the reading standards you selected for your before, during and after language arts activities.

Follow-up Activities or Extensions: Plan three activities across the curriculum. You should include one activity for integrating literacy with the arts (visual arts, dance or movement, drama, or music) and one activity that includes writing. The third activity should be connected to reading in the content areas: social studies or geography, science, or math. These activities should be different from the ones used previously in the lesson.

References

APA format

Summary of Feedback from Peers

Revisions to Lesson Based on Peer Suggestions

Question 28: General

Co-op Letter of Intent Requirements The letter of intent is meant to demonstrate your suitability for the Co-operative Education Program. It is a very important factor in your admission decision. The strength of your letter is based on a number of factors including basic writing skills, spelling, grammar, format, and interest in Co-op. Maximum 1-page single spaced: Professional business letter format Your letter must confirm you understand the Co-op program Please discuss why you are interested in joining the Co-op program, and what you hope to gain from your involvement with the program Spelling and grammar reflect your attention to detail Poor written communication skills could result in your application not being considered

Question 29: Computer Science

Instruction

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words: 1) Explain the benefits a recursive algorithm can provide. and 2) Provide an example from a process in your organization or with which you are familiar. #Demonstrate how to apply recursion concepts as they relate to an organization’s data system.

Question 30: Finance

Assignment Questions Q1. From the information given below: (10 Marks) a. Prepare a balance sheet b. Net working capital Q2 From the information given above, prepare (a) the income statement, and (b) the common-sized income statement. Q3. Prepare a statement of cash flows from the following list of items. Q4. Calculate the following ratios from the Balance Sheet and the Income Statement of Saudi Manufacturing Corporation given below: (5 Marks) a. Current Ratio b. Debt Ratio c. Fixed asset turnover d. Total asset turnover e. Operating profit margin

Assignment No. 1

Course: Principles of Finance (FIN101)	Student name:
Academic Year:1440-1441 H	Student ID:
Semester: 1st	Student grade: / 30
CRN:	Level of the marks:

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Assignment Questions

Q1. From the information given below: (10 Marks)

Prepare a balance sheet
Net working capital

Cash		100,000
Account receivables		72,000
Accounts payable		48,000
Short-term notes payable		35,000
Inventories		70,000
Gross fixed assets		1,750,000
Common stock		680,000
Other current assets		10,000
Accumulated depreciation		524,000
Long-term debt		350,000
Other assets		25,000
Retained earnings		?

Q2. (10 Marks)

Sales		$525,000
Cost of goods sold		$200,000
General and administrative expenses		$62,000
Depreciation expenses		8,000
Interest expense		12,000
Income taxes		97,200
From the information given above, prepare (a) the income statement, and
(b) the common-sized income statement.

Q3. Prepare a statement of cash flows from the following list of items. (5 Marks)

Increase in inventories		22,000
Operating income		625,000
Dividends		55,000
Increase in accounts payables		92,500
Interest expense		118,000
Increase in common stock		22,000
Depreciation expense		48,000
Increase in accounts receivable		210,000
Increase in long-term debt		145,000
Increase in short-term notes payable		36,500
Increase in gross fixed assets		144,000
Increase in paid in capital		60,000
Income taxes		202,000
Beginning cash		700,000

Q4. Calculate the following ratios from the Balance Sheet and the Income Statement of Saudi Manufacturing Corporation given below: (5 Marks)

Current Ratio
Debt Ratio
Fixed asset turnover
Total asset turnover
Operating profit margin


Balance Sheet:
Cash		30,000
Acct/Rec		72,500
Inventories		50,000
Current assets		152,500
Net fixed assets		240,000
Total assets		392,500

Accts/Pay		44,500
Accrued expenses		31,000
Short-term N/P		9,500
Current liabilities		85,000
Long-term debt		110,000
Owner’s equity		197,500
Total liabilities and owners equity		392,500

Income Statement:
Net sales		450,000
COGS		220,000
Gross profit		230,000
Operating expenses		128,000
Net operating income		102,000
Interest expense		18,500
EBT		83,500
Income taxes		33,000
Net income		50,500

Question 31: Business

Essay must be on Coca-Cola Company. Your essay should be two to three pages in length, double-spaced,the title and reference pages do not count towards the minimum page length.

Instruction

For this essay, you will conduct research on corporate strategies and the affect they have on the decision process. Use the same company you chose in Unit II. As you explore the decision process, consider how corporate strategies influence these decisions. In your essay, address the following questions: What is a functional strategy? What are stability strategies in business? What are the pros and cons of these strategies? What are competitive and cooperative strategies? What are the tradeoffs (pros and cons) between an internal and an external growth strategy? Which approach is best as an international strategy? Why? What about retrenchment? Your essay should be two to three pages in length, double-spaced, and in 12 pt. Times New Roman font. The title and reference pages do not count towards the minimum page length. To complete this assignment, a minimum of two reputable sources must be used, cited, and referenced. At least one reference must come from the CSU Online Library. Use APA style guidelines.

Question 32: Psychology

Write a 500-750-word paper discussing process addictions. Include the following in your paper:

Instruction

A definition of process addiction A description of criteria similarities for substance use disorders and process addiction A description of the differences between process addictions and substance use disorders Include a minimum of two scholarly references in addition to the textbook in your paper. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

Question 33: Business

Your task is to research a company that is using digital technologies to transform the workplace and critically examine how it has changed employment and occupations.

Instruction

You should provide enough evidence to answer the question: do you think this company has shown leadership in the way it has implemented technology driven change? Answering this question should include consideration of things like: an overview of the company and its transformation process; how this transformation process has changed employment in the company; any information that the company has made available about the rationale for its business model transformation using new technologies; and coverage in the media about the experience of the change process, such as by workers or interviews with company leaders. Word count: 3,000 words (+/- 10%) 8 References minimum (including 2 academic sources – consult the topic Readings) Harvard Weighting: 50% of final grade Graduate Qualities being assessed in this assignment: •GQ1: Are knowledgeable •GQ2: Can apply their knowledge •GQ3: Communicate effectively •GQ4: Can work independently •GQ6: Value ethical behaviour

Question 1: General Question

NSG 6001 Midterm Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

Question 2: General Question

BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 3 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Which of the following is a value driver that Mont Blanc’s managers are NOT likely to focus on in pursuing the company’s strategy?

When a company like Bic releases a new product to its core consumer group, it must be sure to satisfy which aspect?

Companies that focus on a product’s functional demands drives are likely to pursue a(n) ______ strategy, while those that focus on customers’ social and emotional needs in addition to the product’s functional aspect use a(n) ______ strategy.

As discussed in the case, how many different models of the Mini are now available?

Which of the following was NOT a way that BMW was able to create the premium compact car niche?

Who is Mini’s top competitor?

What was Mini’s growth between 2011 and 2012?

The economic crisis sent the European market for full-featured automobiles ________.

What is the most likely reason that Renault’s strategy might fail to result in a sustainable competitive advantage?

Renault’s low-priced, no-frills cars can be seen as a form of ________.

Which of Michael Porter’s generic strategies did Renault primarily pursue after the economic crisis?

The traditional approach to strategic control is sequential. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the sequence?

For businesses facing complex and turbulent business environments, which of the following is true?

Contemporary approaches to strategic control rely primarily on

Informational control systems are concerned with which of the following questions?

As firms simultaneously downsize and face the need for increased coordination across organizational boundaries, a control system based primarily on ______________ is dysfunctional.

The primary participants in corporate governance do not include the

In order to minimize the temptation for managers to act in their own self-interest, governance mechanisms exist for implementation consideration. Which of the following is not a primary means for monitoring managerial behavior?

Sales quotas, operating budgets, and production schedules are examples of traditional controls.

Once a strong and healthy organizational culture has been established, it becomes self-sustaining.

Question 3: General Question

BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 2 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Complete Chapter 3 Summary Review Questions: 1, 6, & 7 found on page 97.

SWOT analysis is a technique to analyze the internal and external environments of a firm. What are its advantages and disadvantages?

What are the advantages and disadvantages of conducting a financial ratio analysis of a firm?

Summarize the concept of the balanced scorecard. What are its main advantages?

Complete Chapter 3 Application Questions & Exercises: #2 found on page 98. Use Exhibit 3.8 found on page 91 to complete the 19 financial ratios for Campbell Soup (Case #15 – p. C91-C101). Use the financial information located on C98-C100 to calculate each ratio.
Complete Chapter 4 Experiential Exercise found on page 132. *Pfizer Table
Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.

Question 4: General Question

BUSI 400 Individual Assignment 1 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Complete Chapter 1 Summary Review Questions: 1 & 2 on textbook page 30.

How is “strategic management” defined in the text, and what are its four key attributes? See pp. 6-8 in your textbook.

Briefly discuss the three key activities in the strategic management process. Why is it important for managers to recognize the interdependent nature of these activities? See pp. 9-13 in your textbook.

Complete Chapter 2 Summary Review Questions: 1, 3, & 5 on textbook page 65.

Why must managers be aware of a firm’s external environment?

Discuss and describe the six elements of the external environment.

Describe how the five forces can be used to determine the average expected profitability in an industry.

Complete Application Question & Exercise: 4 on textbook page 66.

Go to the Internet and look up www.kroger.com. What are some of the five forces driving industry competition that are affecting the profitability of this firm?

Place the results of the exercise(s) in a single document and submit it via the link provided. Include your name, class, section number, and the number of the exercise(s) on the attachment. Restate each question prior to answering it. Be sure that the assignment is in a business-professional format; include current APA citing and referencing.

Question 5: Physics

3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate

(a)        the value of magnetic field     strength           H         in         the       core
(b)        the       required           coil      mmf.
(c)        the       coil      current
(d)       the       coil      flux
(e)        the       coil      flux      linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage

Question 6: Physics

Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
What is grounded theory?
The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful

Question 7: Sociology

What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?

Question 8: Sociology

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system

Question 9: Architecture

INF3703 ASSIGNMENT (2)2019 SEM 1-PROJECT

INF3703 ASSIGNMENT 2 Semester 1 Updated 2019

Question 10: English

Week Four Discussion Board Thread Instructions

$12 Summaries

With each word being worth 10 cents, write four $12 summaries of the reading from any four of the following chapters in Everyday Bible Study:

Observe: How to Make Accurate Observations
How to Use Multiple Translations of the Bible
How to Ask Key Questions
Interpret: How to Find the Meaning of the Bible
Correlate: How to Connect Scripture to Other Scriptures
Correlate: How to See Jesus in the Bible
Apply: How to Live Out What You Learn
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 1: Law
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 2: Narrative
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 3: Wisdom and Poetry
How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 4: Prophetic Literature

This means that in this assignment you are developing four summaries of 120 words each (one for each of the four chapters you selected). You should aim to create four summaries where each summary is between 100-120 words. Each of your summaries should not exceed the 120-word or $12 limit. For an example of this type of thread, please see the provided example in the Course Content folder.

Week Five Discussion Board Response Post Instructions

Once you have completed the necessary textbook reading in Everyday Bible Study, select two threads you wish to reply to and address your classmates’ thoughts and ideas. The goal of these two posts is to build on the material provided by your classmates. Thus, responses that simply affirm the thread material are not sufficient. The content of each reply must reflect an excellent knowledge of the textbook reading and interact with both the thread and relevant chapter material. You must support your thoughts and ideas by implementing at least one significant quote from Everyday Bible Study. Each response post should be at least 200 words in length.

Question 11: Business

Wk 5 :Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Think about your current or previous organization. What are some of the retention strategies that worked? What did not work so well?

Question 12: Business

Case study week 5

Resources: Strategic Staffing, Appendix Strategic Staffing at Chern’s: A Case Study and Strategic Staffing, Ch. 12; Downsizing Strategy Grading Guide
Read the Strategic Staffing at Chern’s: A Case Study on page 383 in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.
Develop a 350-word downsizing strategy to reduce the number of sales associates by 15%.

Question 13: Education

INF 1511 Semester 1, Assignment 4 2019 / INF1511 Semester 1, Assignment 4 2019

Question 14: Education

INF3703 ASSIGNMENT 3 Semester 1 2019 / ASSIGNMENT 03 COMPULSORY

Question 15: General Question

BUSI 400 Learnsmart Chapter 12 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Which of the following questions would help assess the effectiveness of a corporation’s venturing initiatives?

Which of the following are some guidelines for successfully competing in dynamic markets with high technology uncertainty?

Which of the following statements regarding the application of real options analysis to strategic decision making are true?

Which of the following are the two stages new venture concepts must pass in order to get off the ground?

Which of the following statements about managers being able to develop innovative products and services are correct?

Which of the following affect whether a typical company will pursue entrepreneurial projects?

Which of the following statements regarding the building capabilities versus collaborating challenges to innovation are true?

Which of the following statements regarding the internal versus external staffing challenges to innovation are correct?

Which of the following refers to a firm-specific view of innovation that defines how a firm can create new knowledge and learn from an innovation initiative even if the project fails?

Biases, blind spots, and other human frailties that lead to poor managerial decisions fall under the concept of ___.

In companies with many innovative ideas, deciding which ideas to cultivate and which to cast aside is known as .

Which of the following are examples of staffing practices for innovation that are counterproductive?

Which of the following are functions or services that business incubators provide start-up companies?

Which of the following statements regarding the incremental versus preemptive launch challenges to innovation are correct?

____ are groups of individuals or a division within a corporation that identifies, evaluates, and cultivates venture opportunities.

Corporate entrepreneurship in which a dedication to the principles and policies of entrepreneurship is spread throughout the organization is known as the ___ to corporate entrepreneurship.

A sustaining innovation is a type of disruptive innovation.

Which of the following regarding the challenges to innovation of experience versus initiative are correct?

Disruptive innovations appeal to less demanding customers who want more convenient and less expensive solutions.

Which of the following is the approach to corporate venturing in which corporate entrepreneurship activities are isolated from a firm’s existing operations and worked on by independent work units?

Which of the following refers to a willingness to introduce novelty through experimentation and creative processes aimed at developing new products and services as well as new processes?

Which of the following statements about the seeds versus weeds challenge to innovation are correct?

Companies are often reluctant to invest time and other resources into activities with an unknown future.

Which of the following refers to the strategy-making practices that businesses use in identifying and launching new ventures consisting of autonomy, innovativeness, proactiveness, competitive aggressiveness, and risk taking?

Which of the following refers to a willingness to act independently in order to carry forward an entrepreneurial vision or opportunity?

Question 16: General Question