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ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS

 

Q1

John has applied and been approved a licence to operate a casino in Melbourne, which later on he
named it The Casino East. John has received 10-year licence from Victorian Government to operate
the casino. He also received approval for Casino’s building for a long period of time (90 years).
John was instructed by the relevant Government agency to pay $180 million for the approved
casino’s licence and $80 million as prepaid rent covering the first 10 years of casino’s rental. John
has negotiated to pay $400,000 rental per year for the remaining 80 years of the lease.
With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether casinos prepaid rent is
considered a revenue expense or a capital expense.

Q2

  1. Gain an understanding of the nature of the entity and its industry and then identify
    key business risks. After this is completed, assess where the risks of material misstatements could be in the financial report. Consider the factors affecting both
    Inherent Risk and Control Risk. Finally, apply the Audit Risk Model [AR = f (IR,
    CR, DR)] to the selected company. Which risk rating would you apply (Low, Medium
    or High) to the company’s inherent risk assessment and control risk assessment?
    How does this affect your assessment of Detection Risk and Audit Risk?
    Perform analytical procedures of the Statement of Financial Position and of Financial
    Performance over the last three years using appropriate ratios and/or metrics. Select
    four key ratios and provide a brief explanation in the report. This should be
    presented in a table format.
    3. Discuss with your group members which account balances are considered “material”.
    Explain how you calculated materiality for planning purposes and provide appropriate
    justification for your decision-making.

 

Q3

  1. Gain an understanding of the nature of the entity and its industry and then identify
    key business risks. After this is completed, assess where the risks of material misstatements could be in the financial report. Consider the factors affecting both
    Inherent Risk and Control Risk. Finally, apply the Audit Risk Model [AR = f (IR,
    CR, DR)] to the selected company. Which risk rating would you apply (Low, Medium
    or High) to the company’s inherent risk assessment and control risk assessment?
    How does this affect your assessment of Detection Risk and Audit Risk?
    2. Perform analytical procedures of the Statement of Financial Position and of Financial
    Performance over the last three years using appropriate ratios and/or metrics. Select
    four key ratios and provide a brief explanation in the report. This should be
    presented in a table format.
    3. Discuss with your group members which account balances are considered “material”.
    Explain how you calculated materiality for planning purposes and provide appropriate
    justification for your decision-making.

 

Q4

The purpose of the Group Assignment is to provide students with an opportunity
to work in a collaborative environment in solving two case problems by citing the
relevant legal rules and cases and applying these to the facts of the case.
In this Group Assignment, students are required to:
4. Demonstrate the legal principles for managing a company in particular the
company’s relationship with others.
5. Critically analyse the concept of corporate internal rules and management.
6. Analyse the role and responsibility of directors and members in the
management of the company.
7. Analyse the interaction between members’ rights, directors’ duties and
corporate governance

Q5

Purpose
This assignment aims at developing your group’s understanding of latest cyber security issues and
their impacts on business operations. Your group is required to critically evaluate three recent cyber
security case studies and their lessons to business organisations.
Required
Your group is required to conduct a literature search and select three (3) cyber security case studies
that are published between 2014 – 2019. Based on the selected case studies, your group is required
to prepare a written report to cover the following points:
? Description of case company in each case
o General information of the company
o Key business processes of the company
? Cyber security issues covered in each case
o Key cyber security issues identified in each case
o Risks associated with the issues
o Impacts of the issues on case company
? Lessons learnt from each case
o Actions reported in each case to address the identified issues
o Outcomes of the reported actions
o Proposed actions other than the reported ones that could be taken to address the
issues
o Suggestions for preventing the issues in future

 

Q6

Rick advises you that he sold the following assets during the 2019 income year: (a) As previously indicated, Rick owns a number of Australian shares. On 17 September 2018, he purchased 100,000 Cardinal Resources Ltd shares under a contract of purchase for $4,200. Brokerage costs separately incurred on the same date came to $40. Later on 9 June 2019, Rick sold 60,000 of these shares for $3,240. Rick also paid brokerage fees of $20 in relation to the sale on this date. These shares were a non-active asset. Rick did not receive any dividends from these shares during the period of ownership.

Q7

Topic:
Workplaces today are undergoing dramatic changes and the future presents many challenges and
opportunities for both HRM and employees.
Technological change, particularly the development of artificial intelligence (AI) and new generation
robotics, are said to represent a “third wave” of economic development that will displace current jobs and
current employment patterns and will fundamentally impact upon the very fabric of society itself.
Task:
1. Broadly discuss these trends and also discuss their impact at the societal level in 40 to 50 years’ time. Will
society be better or worse overall for most people?

 

Q8

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

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Q9

Comparison of four key financial institutions: commercial banks, insurance companies,
investment banks and investment funds in Australia from the perspective of a potential
investor who would like to invest into the institutions
Criteria for comparison include: (1) classification (the group of financial institutions it belongs
to); (2) market sector of operation; (3) key business activities; and (4) main source of income.
Organize your group’s comparison in a relevant table. Your group’s research should be
supported by a fact finding of real life examples of a commercial bank, insurance company,
and investment bank and investment fund in Australia. Your group’s discussion on each
example should reflect the above mentioned criteria and the following information: (i) what
is the code of stock listed, (ii) when was the company’s stock was first listed, (iii) what is the
current market capitalization of that stock, (iv) the current total share outstanding, (v) who is
the chairman and who is the CEO of that company, (vi) a graph of five year dividend payment
for each company and (vii) next dividend date. Using ASX and ASIC websites for the fact
finding. Your group is not allowed to choose the cases I have used as examples in this
assignment instruction.

Q10

Week 2

Financial data for Safety Hire as of 30 June 2019 are:

Required:
Prepare an income statement for the month of June and a balance sheet in account format for Safety Hire as at 30 June 2019. (10 marks)

Week 3

On 1 July 2018 Nicole Andreou opened a beauty parlour. The following transactions occurred during the first month of operations (ignore GST).

Use the following account titles and numbers: Cash at Bank, 100; Accounts Receivable, 101; Supplies, 102; Equipment, 103; Loan Payable, 200; Nicole Andreou, Capital, 300; Nicole Andreou, Drawings, 301; Revenue, 400; Rent Expense, 500; Advertising Expense, 501; Insurance Expense, 502; Telephone Expense, 503.

Required:

  1. a) Prepare the general journal entries to record the above transactions. (6.25 marks)
  2. b) Post the entries from the general journal to the general ledger accounts (running balance

format) and enter the posting references in the general journal. (2.75 marks)

  1. c) Prepare a trial balance as at 31 July 2018. (1 mark)

Week 4

The financial year for Drip Dry Cleaning Services ends on 30 June. Using the following information, make the necessary adjusting entries at year-end. Ignore GST. Ignore Narration.

  1. On 15 February, Danielle Drip’s business borrowed $16 000 from Northern Bank at8% interest. The principal and interest are payable on 15 August.
  2. Drip Dry Cleaning Services purchased a 1-year insurance policy on 1 March of the current year for $660. A 3-year policy was purchased on 1 November of the previous year for $2700. Both purchases were recorded by debiting Prepaid Insurance.
  3. The business has two part-time employees who each earn $220 a day. They both worked the last 3 days in June for which they have not yet been paid.
  4. On 1 June, the Highup Hotel paid the business $2100 in advance for doing their dry cleaning for the next 3 months. This was recorded by a credit to Unearned Dry Cleaning Revenue.
  5. The supplies account had a $280 debit balance on 1 July. Supplies of $1560 were purchased during the year and $190 of supplies are on hand as at 30 June.

Required:
Prepare the necessary adjusting entries at 30 June. (10 marks)

Date Accounts Ref Debit Credit

Week 5

The adjusted trial balance columns in the worksheet of Elliot Painting Services are as follows.

Adjusted trial balance Income statement Balance sheet
Debit Credit Debit Credit Debit Credit

Account Cash at Bank

Accounts Receivable Prepaid Rent
Office Supplies Equipment

Accum. Depr. Equip’tAccounts Payable Salaries Payable Unearned Revenue F. Elliot, Capital

  1. Elliot, Drawings Painting Revenue Salaries Expense
    Rent Expense Depreciation Expense Telephone Expense Office Supplies Used Sundry Expenses

Profit for the period

1 230 75 600 1 800 8 320 160 000

22 000

106 000 6 050 8 040 4 020 10 080 9 200 $412 340

ELLIOT PAINTING SERVICES

Worksheet (Partial)
for the year ended 30 June 2019

25 000 54 000 8 760 3 430 101 500

219 650

$412 340

Required:

  1. a) Complete the worksheet. (6 marks)
  2. b) Prepare the closing entries necessary at 30 June 2019, assuming that this date is the end of the

entity’s accounting period.(4 marks)

 

Q11

Week 2

Financial data for Safety Hire as of 30 June 2019 are:

Required:
Prepare an income statement for the month of June and a balance sheet in account format for Safety Hire as at 30 June 2019. (10 marks)

Week 3

On 1 July 2018 Nicole Andreou opened a beauty parlour. The following transactions occurred during the first month of operations (ignore GST).

Use the following account titles and numbers: Cash at Bank, 100; Accounts Receivable, 101; Supplies, 102; Equipment, 103; Loan Payable, 200; Nicole Andreou, Capital, 300; Nicole Andreou, Drawings, 301; Revenue, 400; Rent Expense, 500; Advertising Expense, 501; Insurance Expense, 502; Telephone Expense, 503.

Required:

  1. a) Prepare the general journal entries to record the above transactions. (6.25 marks)
  2. b) Post the entries from the general journal to the general ledger accounts (running balance

format) and enter the posting references in the general journal. (2.75 marks)

  1. c) Prepare a trial balance as at 31 July 2018. (1 mark)

Week 4

The financial year for Drip Dry Cleaning Services ends on 30 June. Using the following information, make the necessary adjusting entries at year-end. Ignore GST. Ignore Narration.

  1. On 15 February, Danielle Drip’s business borrowed $16 000 from Northern Bank at8% interest. The principal and interest are payable on 15 August.
  2. Drip Dry Cleaning Services purchased a 1-year insurance policy on 1 March of the current year for $660. A 3-year policy was purchased on 1 November of the previous year for $2700. Both purchases were recorded by debiting Prepaid Insurance.
  3. The business has two part-time employees who each earn $220 a day. They both worked the last 3 days in June for which they have not yet been paid.
  4. On 1 June, the Highup Hotel paid the business $2100 in advance for doing their dry cleaning for the next 3 months. This was recorded by a credit to Unearned Dry Cleaning Revenue.
  5. The supplies account had a $280 debit balance on 1 July. Supplies of $1560 were purchased during the year and $190 of supplies are on hand as at 30 June.

Required:
Prepare the necessary adjusting entries at 30 June. (10 marks)

Date Accounts Ref Debit Credit

Week 5

The adjusted trial balance columns in the worksheet of Elliot Painting Services are as follows.

Adjusted trial balance Income statement Balance sheet
Debit Credit Debit Credit Debit Credit

Account Cash at Bank

Accounts Receivable Prepaid Rent
Office Supplies Equipment

Accum. Depr. Equip’tAccounts Payable Salaries Payable Unearned Revenue F. Elliot, Capital

  1. Elliot, Drawings Painting Revenue Salaries Expense
    Rent Expense Depreciation Expense Telephone Expense Office Supplies Used Sundry Expenses

 

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!Profit for the period

1 230 75 600 1 800 8 320 160 000

22 000

106 000 6 050 8 040 4 020 10 080 9 200 $412 340

ELLIOT PAINTING SERVICES

Worksheet (Partial)
for the year ended 30 June 2019

25 000 54 000 8 760 3 430 101 500

219 650

$412 340

Required:

  1. a) Complete the worksheet. (6 marks)
  2. b) Prepare the closing entries necessary at 30 June 2019, assuming that this date is the end of the

entity’s accounting period.(4 marks)

 

Q12

You have been asked by the CEO of a major Australian Bank to advise them on their strategy
formulation for International expansion.
The Bank has developed a reputable brand in the Australian and New Zealand markets and is now
looking for suitable acquisitions and strategic partnerships in foreign markets in order to grow their
business.
The three markets that they are currently assessing for entry are; France, Brazil and South Korea
(ROK). You are required to assess the attractiveness of each of the three markets and put forward
recommendation(s) for future action based on a co-operative discussion in your groups.
By working in co-operative groups, select a well-known Financial Services (FS) multi-national entity
or consult with your tutor and ensure that it has not been selected by another group. Analyse the
selected and approved FS multi-national entity and consider the following factors:
• The differences in the structure of each market identified for entry
• The estimated size and profitability of each market identified for entry
• The potential problems in selling to and supporting the MNE in each market identified for
entry
• The likely future developments in each market identified for entry
• The potential foreign exchange and trade implications
In this report,
• Use sub-headings
• Use appropriate paragraphing
• Reference the sources used with correct in-text citation conventions
• Provide a full list of references at the end using correct referencing conventions
• Check the safe-assign report and modify the submission if it is Medium or High risk.
Your final submission is due Friday of Week 10 at Midnight. Late submissions will attract penalties
at the rate of -5 % per day.

 

Q13

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

Q14

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

Q15

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

Q16

Your Task
• You are required to prepare a business letter to answer all of the following questions.
• You are also required to prepare a short video presentation (3 to 5 mins) summarising the
key issues you have addressed in your letter.
Assessment Description
Assume that you are a team of graduate accountants working for Pitcher Group Ltd, a public
accounting firm Situated at 346 Gregory Avenue, Melbourne, VIC 3000. The Manager of your
firm, Ms. Michelle Pitcher has asked you to draft a letter in response to an email received from a
client – Mr. Andrew Dixon, the Managing Director of Dixon Ltd, raising several accounting issues
– see the copy of the email on the next page.
The maximum length for the body of the letter is 1,000 words. You should address all the
technical issues/discussion in the letter, followed by a Reference List.
• Part A: Technical component 10% – This mark covers the technical content of your advice
and the explanation on each of the issues, the calculations, and the sources used.
• Part B: Communication Skills – Letter Writing 5% – This mark covers the generic skills of
Letter writing; layout, clear meaning, structure and organisation, appropriate tone and
grammar, spelling, and punctuation, etc. throughout the whole assignment.
• Part C: Communication Skills – Video Presentation 5% – You have to prepare a 3-5 minute
video presentation that will keep the audience engaged; the presentation should be wellrehearsed and supplementary material, such as slides and visual aids must be of a
professional standard.

Q17

Questions: 1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’ budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Q18

JIM is considering implementing a 401K program for its employees. The program plan will include the company matching at 50% of the employee’s contribution up to 6% contribution. The Human Resources manager proposing this plan feels it will reduce turnover, improve morale, and provide a competitive edge when recruiting new employees. The HR manager has estimated JIM’s annual contribution to be $300,000 and the savings to be $70,000 in employee turnover costs and improved performance. Management is concerned about this additional cost.

  • Explain the 401 K limits and special treatment for highly-compensated
  • Document how, as a tax analyst, you see this program.
  • Document what, if any, will be the tax implications of this program.

 

Q19

Background
You were recently employed as a management accountant in a listed firm on the ASX. The Managing
Director of your company has formed a small taskforce to explore the possibility of implementing a
Balanced Score Card (BSC) system in the company. You are assigned to work with others in the
taskforce due to your management accounting background.
Required
Your group is required to prepare a report to provide advice on the suitability of the BSC for an ASXlisted company, which is selected by your group. The company selected must be “unique” and it is
NOT allowed to be the same as another group.
NOTE – You must check your selected ASX listed company on shared excel sheet. If the company has
already been selected, then you must go back and select another ASX listed company.

Q20

Case 1: (15 marks) a) Explain the nature of business combination? (5 marks) b) Explain, with examples, the accounting for business combination through direct or indirect acquisitions? (5 marks) c) Please explain the difference between New vs old lease accounting standard (AASB 117 Leases, AASB 16 Leases)? (5 marks) Case 2: (15 marks) On 1 July 2017, Chancellor Ltd purchased 90% of the issued shares of Park Ltd for $800,000. At this date, the fair value of the NCI in Park Ltd was $88,500. The following balances appeared in the records of Park Ltd at this date: Share capital $400,000 General reserve 40,000 Retained earnings 200,000 At 1 July 2017, all the identifiable assets and liabilities of Park Ltd were recorded at fair value except for the following: Carrying amount Fair value Equipment (cost $720,000) Inventories $600,000 320,000 $800,000 400,000 Land 360,000 400,000 The equipment had a remaining useful life of 4 years beyond 1 July 2017, with benefits to be received on a straight-line basis over the period. By 30 June 2018, all the inventories were sold externally. Any adjustments for differences at acquisition date between carrying amounts and fair values are made in the consolidation worksheet. For the year ended 30 June 2019, the following information is available: (a) During the year, Park Ltd sold inventory to Chancellor Ltd for $800,000. The original cost of the inventory was $640,000. At 30 June 2019, Chancellor Ltd had 20% of the inventory on hand. (b) On 1 January 2019, Park Ltd sold an item of equipment to Chancellor Ltd for $20,000 at a before-tax profit of $4,000. Chancellor Ltd treated the asset as part of its inventory and it was still on hand at 30 June 2019. (c) On 1 July 2018, Chancellor Ltd sold some equipment to Park Ltd for $40,000. The carrying amount of the equipment at this date was $24,000. Park Ltd treated the asset as a non-current asset and depreciated it using the straight-line method over 5 years.

Q21

You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed
several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions
below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected
journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better
spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary
organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Q22

  1. Reflections on any one topic covered in the unit that interests you the most from this unit. Why was
    it interesting and what had you learnt from it?
    Reflections on your experience as a group member in the group assignment. What went well, what
    did not go to plan and what had you learnt from it?
    3. Reflections on what you had learned from the group assignment. What insights had you gained and
    what had you learned from this experience?

Q23

Mr Dominic Supreme owns a pizza restaurant. However, for public health reasons he has now closed the
restaurant side of the business and is currently operating on a takeaway basis only. He has several employees
working in the kitchen and delivering pizzas. He also owns various assets, including a rental property.
Enzo is Dominic’s head chef and he is provided with the use of a Toyota RAV4 motor car as well as his salary of
$100,000 per year. The car was purchased by Dominic on 1 April 2018 for $55,000. Dominic has not made the
election under section 10 of the Fringe Benefits Tax Assessment Act. Enzo travelled 10,000 km in the car during
the FBT year ended 31 March 2019 and, of this, 4,000 km were for business purposes. Enzo paid for the petrol
for the car and this amounted to $900 for the FBT year ended 31 March 2019. Enzo was not reimbursed for the
petrol.
Maria is Dominic’s store manager and she was given an interest free loan of $500,000 by Dominic on 1 January
2019. Maria used the loan for two purposes: 60% for the purchase of an investment property and 40% to pay
off her home mortgage.
Because of the current health crisis, Dominic pays the private health insurance premiums of all his staff and
these premiums were $55,000 for the year ended 31 March 2019.
Dominic purchased a rental property on 1 July 2018 for $1,200,000. To finance this purchase, he borrowed $1
million from Megabank at an interest rate of 5%. To arrange for the loan Dominic paid a total of $4,000 for a
loan application fee, a valuation fee and legal fees on 1 July 2018. He also paid stamp duty of $52,000 and
$3,200 in legal fees in connection with the purchase of the property.
In August 2018 Dominic fixed the door to the rental property which was broken at the time of his purchase for a
cost of $900. He also purchased new refrigerator for the rental property of $3,000 on 1 November 2018. The
useful life of the refrigerator is 10 years. Dominic replaced the entire roof of the rental property in October
2018 at a cost of $35,000 after it was severely damaged in a hailstorm in September 2018. He used substantially
the same type of material that was there before.
On 10 June 2019 he sold the rental property for $1,500,000. The costs he incurred on the sale were $30,000 for
real estate agent’s commission and $2,000 for advertising. He also sold the refrigerator on 10 June 2019 for
$2,000. With the proceeds of the property sale, Dominic repaid his loan from Megabank on the date of sale.
Dominic purchased some BHP Billiton Limited shares in May 1990 for $50,000 and then sold them in May 2019
for $100,000. He purchased an antique clock for $600 in June 2000 and sold it in June 2019 for $4,000. Dominic
also sold his Mercedes sports car in April 2019 for $60,000 which he purchased in April 2001 for $20,000.
Dominic wants to maximise his deductions at all times. Assume that Dominic can claim GST input tax credits for
the provision of all fringe benefits he provides apart from the loan.
Required:
Part 1 (10 marks)
What fringe benefits tax (FBT) must Dominic pay for the year ended 31 March 2019?
Part 2 (10 marks)
What is Dominic’s net capital gain or net capital loss for the year ended 30 June 2019?
Part 3 (10 marks)
What income tax deductions can Dominic claim for the year ended 30 June 2019?
Please note: Students must give reasons for their answer. This discussion must include an analysis of the
pertinent sections of the relevant legislation, rulings and the relevant case law. If relevant, students must show
calculations.

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Q24

  • “Revaluation of non-current asset doesn’t impact the recognition of future tax associated with that asset”. Evaluate this statement. (4 marks)
    2) Discuss whether revaluation of non-current asset will lead to a deferred tax asset or a tax liability. (2 marks)
    3) In your opinion, comment whether the deferred tax asset and deferred tax liability meet the definition and recognition for an asset and a liability according to the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting. (4 marks)
    Part B (7 marks)
    4) Provide and comment on an example (other than revaluation of non-current assets) that leads to a deferred tax asset in the chosen company. Evaluate its impact on financial position from the perspective of investors. (3 marks)
    5) Provide and comment on an example (other than revaluation of non-current assets) that leads to a deferred tax liability in the chosen company. Evaluate its impact on financial position from the perspective of investors. (3 marks)
    6) In your opinion, are there any deferred tax asset or deferred tax liability that are not recognised in the annual report of the chosen company? (2 marks)
    2 marks will be awarded to effective communication and presentation of this report.

Q25

  1. Prepare the general journal entries to record the above transactions. (6.25 marks)
    b) Post the entries from the general journal to the general ledger accounts (running balance format) and enter the posting references in the general journal. (2.75 marks)
    c) Prepare a trial balance as at 31 July 2018. (1 mark)

Q26

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in harmonised international accounting practices across countries have been growing over the last ten years. Study based in emerging economies, such as China (He et al., 2012), Romania (Albu et al., 2014), India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh (Ali et al., 2006), South Pacific Island countries (Chand, 2005), United Arab Emeritus (Irvine, 2008), and Turkey (Misirlioglu et al., 2013), have consistently reported the challenge of effectively implementing IFRS in those countries due to country-specific contextual issues. Nobes (2015) also reported challenging issues in implanting IFRS in developed countries. Assignment questions 1. Prepare a report critically arguing why having a single set of accounting standards (i.e. IFRS) for a world-wise use is inherently problematic. 2. Review literature explaining the contextual issues of implementing IFRS in emerging economies and in developed countries. 3. Critique whether adoption and use of IFRS will lead to improved financial reporting quality.

Q28

The unadjusted trial balance of Inaknot Insurance Corp. includes the following account balances at December 31, 2020, its fiscal year-end. Assume all accounts have normal debit or credit balances. Prepaid insurance Truck Unearned commissions revenue Rent earned Advertising expense Salaries expense Supplies expense $ 1,800 18,000 9,000 -0- 5,000 25,000 900 The following information is available: a. A physical count indicates that $200 of supplies have not been used at December 31. b. The prepaid insurance consists of a one-year policy, effective October 1. c. The truck was purchased on July 1; it is expected to have a useful life of 6 years. No depreciation has been recorded during the year. d. The unearned commission revenue at December 31 is $7,500. e. Two days of salary amounting to $200 remain unpaid and unrecorded at December 31; the amounts will be included with the next Friday’s payment, which will be in January. f. Rental revenue of $300 has not yet been received for a sublet of part of a warehouse for 2 weeks during December. g. A $300 bill for December advertising has not yet been recorded. Required: Prepare all necessary adjusting entries at December 31, 2020. General ledger account numbers and descriptions are not necessary.

 

Q29

Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected
journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better
spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary
organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

Q30

  • Provide a brief background in your own words to the role of a conceptual framework in
    accounting, including benefits of having one, together with problems and criticisms of the
    current (2010) framework. (3 Marks)
    Page 2 Kaplan Business School Assessment Outline
    2) In your own words and in your opinion, what should be the objective of general purpose
    financial reporting? (3 Marks)
    3) In your own words, explain what you understand by the term ‘prudence’. How can an
    ‘asymmetrically prudent’ accounting treatment lead to the understatement of income in
    one period but an overstatement in future periods? (3 Marks)
    4) a) In your own words, explain what is meant by the concept of substance over form.
    You can use examples from within and/or outside accounting to help answer this
    (3 Marks)
    b) Do you agree with the board’s decision to state explicitly that a faithful
    representation represents the substance of an economic phenomenon instead of
    merely representing its legal form? Justify your answer. (3 Marks)

 

Q31

  1. Discuss and provide an analysis of items in the statement of cash flow and identify item(s) which
    relate to the balance sheet.
    Explain the company’s performance based on Earnings per Share (EPS) and provide EPS
    calculations for the last two consecutive periods.
    3. Discuss whether EPS is a useful performance indicator for the company.
    4. Explain how the material movements in the statement of changes in equity is reflected and
    reported in the statement of cash flows.
    5. Discuss the items recorded as Non-Current Liabilities, including the related notes and provide an
    explanation of the material movements of each item.
    6. Based on the capital structure of the company selected, discuss the potential advantages and
    disadvantages of each source of capital.

Q32

The aim of this assignment is to produce a requirements document that captures the
functional requirements for an information system that supports the current needs of
the Holmes Hair management system as defined later in the Case Study Description.
This is a business report and should be written accordingly i.e. directed to the
customer who is “Holmes Hair”. It should reflect your understanding of the tasks
required.
Students will be able to:
2) Evaluate system implementation and post implementation systems
requirements.
3) Identify, critically analyse and investigate the process of exploring problem
areas in a given context
4) Apply analysis and modelling techniques in the context of practical problems,
discuss alternative models and solutions
5) Apply problem solving and object oriented design skills to build a simple
systems prototype
6) Understand the ICT profession in systems analysis and design
8) Review and describe the major legal and ethical issues with respect to
systems analysis and design

 

Q33

A council health inspector threatens to close down a restaurant by issuing a fake health violation
notice if the owner does not make a financial payment to him. If the restaurant owner does not
cooperate, the restaurant cannot be opened for business and the negative publicity will drive
customers away. Faced with the potential economic loss, the owner makes the payment.
Required:
a) What type of fraud is this? (4 marks, maximum 150 words)
b) What controls can be implemented to prevent or detect the fraud? (6 marks, maximum 200
words)
Week 3
How is a credit check in the advanced technology system fundamentally different from a credit check
in the basic technology system? (10 marks, maximum 300 words)

Q34

  1. What are the December 31, 2018, Investment Income and Investment in Clay account balances assuming Adams uses the: ? Equity method. ? Initial value method. 2. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for expenses in its December 31, 2018, consolidated income statement? 3. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for equipment in its December 31, 2018, consolidated balance sheet? 4. What is Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance assuming Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the: ? Equity value method. ? Initial value method. 5. What worksheet adjustment to Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance is required if Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the initial value method? 6. Prepare the worksheet entry to eliminate Clay’s stockholders’ equity. 7. What is consolidated net income for 2018?

 

Q35

  1. What are the December 31, 2018, Investment Income and Investment in Clay account balances assuming Adams uses the: ? Equity method. ? Initial value method. 2. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for expenses in its December 31, 2018, consolidated income statement? 3. How does the parent’s internal investment accounting method choice affect the amount reported for equipment in its December 31, 2018, consolidated balance sheet? 4. What is Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance assuming Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the: ? Equity value method. ? Initial value method. 5. What worksheet adjustment to Adams’s January 1, 2018, Retained Earnings account balance is required if Adams accounts for its investment in Clay using the initial value method? 6. Prepare the worksheet entry to eliminate Clay’s stockholders’ equity. 7. What is consolidated net income for 2018?

 

Q36

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

Q37

Luxurious firm performs its expenditure cycle activities using its integrated ERP system as follows: • Employees in any department can enter purchase requests for items they note as being either out of stock or in small quantity. • Occasionally, special items are ordered that are not regularly kept as part of inventory, from a specialty supplier who will not be used for any regular purchases. In these cases, an accounts payable clerk creates a one-time supplier record. • Each day, employees in the purchasing department process all purchase requests from the prior day. To the extent possible, requests for items available from the same supplier are combined into one larger purchase order in order to obtain volume discounts. Purchasing agents use the Internet to compare prices in order to select suppliers. If an Internet search discovers a potential new supplier, the purchasing agent enters the relevant information in the system, thereby adding the supplier to the approved supplier list. Purchase orders above $10,000 must be approved by the purchasing department manager. Electronic Data Interchange is used to transmit purchase orders to most suppliers, but paper purchase orders are printed and mailed to suppliers who are not Electronic Data Interchange capable. • Receiving department employees have read-only access to outstanding purchase orders. Usually, they check the system to verify existence of a purchase order prior to accepting delivery, but sometimes during rush periods they unload trucks and place the items in a corner of the warehouse where they sit until there is time to use the system to retrieve the relevant purchase order. In such cases, if no purchase order is found, the receiving employee contacts the supplier to arrange for the goods to be returned. • Receiving department employees compare the quantity delivered to the quantity indicated on the purchase order. Whenever a discrepancy is greater than 5%, the receiving employee sends an email to the purchasing department manager. The receiving employee uses an online terminal to enter the quantity received before moving the material to the inventory stores department. Required: Identify weaknesses in Luxurious firm existing expenditure cycle procedures, explain the resulting problems, and suggest as solution.

 

Q38

Question 1
Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance sheet from the adjusted trial balance of Hanson Storage. Ms. Hanson’s capital account balance of $40,340 consists of a $30,340 beginning-year balance plus a $10,000 investment during the current year.

 

Q39

  1. What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?2. What are the four basic purposes of internal control? Give an example of each one?B. EXERCISE1. The California State University (CSU) system is the largest four-year higher educationsystem in the United States. In 2004, all twenty-three CSU campuses adopted PeopleSoft,an enterprise resource planning system, for managing finances, personnel records andother important functions. The project was referred to as the Common ManagementSystem (CMS). Considering Brown’s taxonomy of risk, identify five risks the CSU and itsmanagement took by making the PeopleSoft decision.2. The following is a question in which one is expected to evaluate internal controls.The Art Appreciation Society operates a museum for the benefit and enjoyment of the community.During hours when the museum is open to the public, two clerks who are positioned at theentrance collect a $5 admission fee from each nonmember patron. Members of the ArtAppreciation Society are permitted to enter free of charge upon presentation of their membershipcards.At the end of each day one of the clerks delivers the proceeds to the treasurer. The treasurercounts the cash in the presence of the clerk and places it in a safe. Each Friday afternoon thetreasurer and one of the clerks deliver all cash held in the safe to the bank, and receive anauthenticated deposit slip which provides the basis for the weekly entry in the cash receipts journal.The Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society has identified a need to improve their systemof internal control over cash admission fees.The Board had determined that the cost of installing turnstiles, sales booths, or otherwise alteringthe physical layout of the museum will greatly exceed any benefits that may be derived. However,the Board has agreed that the sale of admission tickets must be an integral part of its improvementefforts.Smith has been asked by the Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society to review theinternal control over cash admission fees and provide suggestions for improvement.RequiredIndicate weaknesses in the existing system of internal control over cash admission fees, which Smithshould identify, and recommend one improvement for each of the weaknesses identified.

Q40

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

Q41

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

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Q42

Task 1: Variable List 1. Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. 2. State for each variable whether it is qualitative or quantitative; if it is qualitative, state whether it is nominal or ordinal, and if it is quantitative, state whether it is discrete or continuous. Task 2: Histogram 3. Create a histogram showing the distribution of salaries. Find the 5-number summary of the distribution of salaries. Comment upon the shape of the distribution: is it symmetric? If it is not, is it positively or negatively skewed? Are there any outliers present? If so, are they of particular interest? State which central measure would be best to use to describe the centre of this distribution, and the reason(s) why.

Q43

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

Q44

art A (70 marks)
In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures
2015-2016, the Income Tax Rates Amendment (Working Holiday Maker Reform) Act 2017
(the ‘WHMR Act’) was passed. The WHMR Act proposed changes to tax rules for working
holiday makers on 417 and 462 visas (‘backpackers’) as a means of raising revenue. This,
with other proposed legislative amendments concerning working holiday makers, has been
referred to in the media as the ‘Backpacker Tax’.
Choose and read ONE of the following cases.
Clemens and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 124 (6 March 2015); or
Jaczenko and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 125 (6 March 2015);or
Koustrup and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 126 (6 March 2015)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What issues are being considered in your chosen case, and what decision
(conclusion) is reached? (20 marks)
2. Would the decision in your chosen case support the need for a change to the
residency rules for backpackers in Australia? Give reasons (20 marks)
3. How does the WHMR Act treat income earned by ‘backpackers’ in Australia? (10
marks)
4. Is this different to the way income earned by ‘backpackers’ was treated prior to the
introduction of the WHMR Act? If so, how? (20 marks)

Q45

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the core features of
international business strategy. They argue that: “(s)everal of these cases focus on company and country
scenarios related to China, Germany, Mexico, Myanmar, Russia, Venezuela, and prominent other markets.”
(p609) These cases cover a range of international companies including Apple, Dominos, Ford, General Motors,
Microsoft, Philips Siemens, Skype and Volkswagen. As well, these cases in general relates to several unit learning
outcomes including differing elements of international business – related theories, national differences, the
global trade and investment environment, the strategy and structure of international business, and international
business functions.
Required:
This Group Assignment is comprised of two parts.
Part A: Written Report on Two Cases (15%) [this part must be submitted via Turnitin by 5:00pm Friday 24
January 2020] – Expected length – Total 2000 words (i.e., 1000 words for each case)
First, you, as a group, are required to select two out of twenty cases as included at the end of the text by Hill
and Hult (2019 – pp608 – 634). The selection of these two cases will be determined by the coordinator of the
unit and will be allocated in Week 4 during Semester 3, 2019.
Second, you are required to:
a. Summarise and elaborate the respective case scenarios;
b. Answer and critically evaluate the set questions in each case; and
c. Demonstrate applicable theories and issues of international business relates to the selected case.
Third, as well, you are required to provide your reflections and conclusions using contemporary aspects of
international business relating to the case.
The expectation is that you are required to use academic and professional authentic references in analysing
the case and writing the report. Please go through unit outline for guidelines about Turnitin submission and
referencing style.
The Group Assignment develops students’ theoretical and technical skills in international business theory and
strategy as well as their written communication skills. You are required to form a group by Week 4 with no
more than THREE members of your class. Each member is fully responsible for the discussion, preparation,
composition and submission of the integrated case analysis in group. Failure by a student to attend,
contribute, and submit the assignment will result in the said student receiving a zero (0) mark weighting for
this assessment task. You must attach a completed, signed coversheet and a self and peer contribution
evaluation form with your written assignment.

Q46

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Demonstrate a thorough understanding of the reporting requirements of auditing
standards relating to auditors’reports.
2. Explain how the audit planning process directs the auditor to obtain adequate evidence to
support auditfindings and addressthe importanceofmateriality in an audit.
3. Explaintheprocessofauditplanningtodetermineriskassessmentsandanoverallauditstrategy.
4. Explain the auditors’ obligations with regards to understanding the client’s business and
internal controls and assessing businessrisks.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single docu

Q47

  • Prepare a current worksheet to calculate taxable income and the current tax liability as at 30 June 2011, and prepare any necessary journal entry; 2) Prepare a deferred tax worksheet (use the below format in your answer) to determine the deferred tax balances as at 30 June 2011, and prepare any necessary journal entries.
    NB:
    a) Only include accounts that will incur temporary differences between carrying amounts and tax bases, use asset net values to calculate the temporary differences. b) It will be necessary to reconstruct some accounts in order to determine either accounting or tax items.

Q48

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business and residential customers Students will nave the opportunity to establish payroll records and to complete a month of payroll information for Wayland. Wayland Custom Woodworking is located at 1716 Nichol Street. Logan. Utah. 84321. phone number 435-555-9877. The owner is Mark Wayland. Wayland’s EN is 91-7444533. and the Utah Employer Account Number Is 999.92904 Wayland has determined it will pay their employees on a semimonthly basis. Federal income tax should be computed using the percentage method.
For Pan 2 of this project, you will complete payroll for the last month (December) of the fourth Quarter (Q4) of 2018. which consists of the final two pay periods of the year. Then file the annual tax forms for Wayland as well as prepare each employee’s Form W-2 In Part 2.
The SUTA (Ur) rate for Wayland Custom Woodworking is 2.6 percent on the first $34,300. The state withholding rate is 4.95 percent for all Income levels and marital statuses.

Q49

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

Q50

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the
fifth largest in Australia.
The 2019 integrated annual report for the Company is provided on the subject Moodle shell.
Using the 2019 Report, compare the financial results of the Company between 2018 and
2019. You should use any financial information provided in the 2019 reports (including
ratios, and narratives) to conclude on the improvements or not in financial position and
profitability. You discussion should focus on reasons for this.
What other information would you need to make an assessment of Lendlease?
Word Limit 1100 words, Marks = 45
Question 2.
The 2019 integrated annual report is the fourth for Lendlease. Explain what is an
integrated report, and how Lendlease is Managing and Measuring Value.
What is your opinion of the Sustainability achievements of Lendlease?

Q52

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal
Court of Australia decision Addy v Commissioner of Taxation [2019] FCA 1768.
(Hint: you may either read the decision or read at least one of the several
commentaries available online)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What are the possible consequences of this decision for ‘backpackers’ who have
already paid tax in accordance with WHMR Act? Give reasons.(20 marks)
2. How has the Australian Tax Office (ATO) responded to the decision in Addy v
Commissioner of Taxation? (10 marks)

Q53

Assessment 2 Assessment Type: Case study report – theory and calculations – individual assessment

Purpose: To allow students to apply the technical knowledge of relevant accounting standards to financial reporting settings. This assessment relates to learning outcomes c, d. Value: 30%

Due Date: Week 9 – 8:00 pm Wednesday of Week 9

Submission: Submission must be made to the Moodle Assignment Link on the KOI Moodle Subject Home Page by 8.00 pm Wednesday of Week 9. A printed copy must be submitted to the Lecturer at the Week 9 Lecture to assist with marking. All assignments must have a signed KOI Assignment Coversheet included with the submission.

Topic: Research Individual Assignment

Task Details: Mags Ltd is an Australian mail-order company. Although the sector in Australia is growing slowly, Mags Ltd has reported significant increases in sales and net income in recent years. While sales increased from $50 million in 2009 to $120 million in 2018, profit increased from $3 million to $12 million over the same period. The stock market and analysts believe that the company’s future is very promising. In early 2019, the company was valued at $350 million, which was three times 2018 sales and 26 times estimated 2019 profit.

Company management and many investors attribute the company’s success to its marketing flair and expertise. Instead of competing on price, Mags Ltd prefers to focus on service and innovation, including: •

free delivery • a free gift with orders over $200.

As a result of such innovations, customers accept prices that are 60% above those of competitors, and Mags maintains a gross profit margin of around 40%.

Nevertheless, some investors have doubts about the company as they are uneasy about certain accounting policies the company has adopted. For example, Mags Ltd capitalises the costs of its direct mailings to prospective customers ($4.2 million at 30 June 2018) and amortises them on a straight-line basis over 3 years. This practice is considered to be questionable as there is no guarantee that customers will be obtained and retained from direct mailings.

In addition to the mailing lists developed by in-house marketing staff, Mags Ltd purchased a customer list from a competitor for $800 000 on 4 July 2019. This list is also recognised as a non-current asset. Mags Ltd estimates that this list will generate sales for at least another 2 years, more likely another 3 years. The company also plans to add names, obtained from a phone survey conducted in August 2019, to the list. These extra names are expected to extend the list’s useful life by another year.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

Mags Ltd.’s 2018 statement of financial position also reported $7.5 million of marketing costs as noncurrent assets. If the company had expensed marketing costs as incurred, 2018 net income would have been $10 million instead of the reported $12 million. The concerned investors are uneasy about this capitalisation of marketing costs, as they believe that Mags Ltd.’s marketing practices are relatively easy to replicate. However, Mags Ltd argues that its accounting is appropriate. Marketing costs are amortised at an accelerated rate (55% in year 1, 29% in year 2, and 16% in year 3), based on 25 years’ knowledge and experience of customer purchasing behaviour.

Required: Discuss the requirements under AASB138 / IAS 38 Intangible Assets how Mag Ltd should account for the costs. Provide reasons for your answer in reference to relevant paragraphs of AASB138 / IAS 38.

Research requirements: Students need to support their analysis with reference to relevant material from the text and a minimum of eight (8) suitable, reliable, current and academically acceptable sources – this should include at least 2 peer-reviewed academic journal articles.

Presentation: 2000 + 10% word short report format. Title page, executive summary, table of contents, appropriate headings and sub-headings, recommendations/findings/conclusions, in-text referencing and reference list (Harvard – Anglia style), attachments if relevant. Single spaced, font Times New Roman 12pt, Calibri 11 pt or Arial 10 pt.

Marking Guide:

Interpretation and representation 20%

Calculations 20%

Analysis20%

Assumptions20%

Communication 20%

Total mark will be scaled to a mark out of 30 subject marks.

 

Q54

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small
proprietary company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was
agreed at $5 million, on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local.
As Local is a small proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or
undergone an audit since its incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your
firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy
Champion, has requested that your firm provide assurance on the following three items:
? The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017
? All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement
date, to ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations
? The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018
In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of
assurance that they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at
acquisition date is very important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced,
but that she is willing to have less work done on the previous year’s management accounts.
Required:
Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks
and the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections. (10 marks)

 

Q55

QUESTION ONE: Absorption and Variable Costing: Prepare and Reconcile Variable costing Statements
Audiophonics Limited manufactures and sells high-quality and durable ear buds for use with personal electronics that are custom moulded to each customer’s ear. Cost data for the product follows

Q56

  1. Identify each item in the accounting records as either an asset, a liability, or ownership interest
    or Equity (identifying separately the expenses and revenues which contribute to the change in
    the ownership interest).
    b) Prepare a statement of financial position (balance sheet) at 30 June Year 2.
    c) Prepare an income statement (profit and loss statement) for the year ended 30 June Year 2.

Q57

You are required to develop a report to the CEO and Board of the company, identifying the internal control procedures required within the organisation.
You will be required to submit the report following organisational formatting procedures and recommendations to address the internal control requirements for the company.
Your answers are required to be grammatically correct and where there is a report to present it should be completed as a business report.

Q58

Aves Treats, Inc. produces bird seeds. All direct materials used in the production process are added at the beginning of the manufacturing process. Labor and overhead are added evenly thereafter, as each unit is mixed and packaged. Aves Treats uses process costing and had the following unit production information available for the months of June and July: The units remaining in work in process at the end of June were 30% complete. During the month of July, all of the beginning work in process units was completed and the units remaining in work in process at the end of the month were 60% complete. a) Refer to the information above. For the month of June, the number of equivalent units of direct materials produced was: b) Refer to the information above. For the month of June, the number of equivalent units of labor and overhead produced was: c) Refer to the information above. For the month of July, the number of equivalent units of direct materials produced was: d) Refer to the information above. For the month of July, the number of equivalent units of labor and overhead produced was:

Q59

Examine the CAFR. Utilizing the CAFR obtained for Exercise/Problem 1-15, examine the financial statements included in the financial section and answer the following questions. If the CAFR you have obtained does not conform to GAAP, it is recommended that you obtain one that does. a. Government-wide Statements. What are the titles of the two government-wide statements? Are total assets larger for governmental activities or business-type activities? Which function or program has the highest net cost? What kinds of general revenues are available to cover the net cost of governmental activities? Were business-type activities “profitable”? That is, is the excess of revenues over expenses positive? b. Governmental Funds. Does the report state the basis of accounting used for the General Fund? What types of assets and liabilities are included on the governmental funds balance sheet? Is this reporting consistent with the basis of accounting being followed? c. Identify which of the major funds, if applicable, are special revenue funds, debt service funds, capital projects funds, and permanent funds. Are you able to determine which funds are considered nonmajor? (Hint: look for supplementary information.) What fund balance categories are being used? d. Proprietary Funds. List the names of the proprietary fund types included in the financial statements. Do the financial statements provide evidence that all proprietary funds use accrual accounting? e. Fiduciary Funds. List the names of the fiduciary funds included in the fund financial statements. Identify whether each of these is an agency fund, investment trust fund, pension (and other employee benefit) trust fund, or private-purpose trust fund. Do the financial statements provide evidence as to what basis of accounting these funds use? f. Notes to the Financial Statements. Read the notes to the financial statements, so that you can refer to them as needed in subsequent chapters. What significant accounting policies are discussed in the first note? With regard to revenue recognition, how do the notes define the term available for paying current period obligations?

Q60

You have recently joined as a Trainee Accountant at Accountants in Action in the
Huon Valley, with two other Trainee Accountants who are currently studying
accounting at the University of Tasmania. As a part of the training, your manager has
given your team a task of recording the transactions that occurred in a local
producer’s business Green Hills Produce for January 2020.
Your manager informed your team that this business was opened by Mr Johnno Linn,
on the 1st of January 2020 and he is the sole owner of this proprietorship. Green
Hills Produce sells local fresh produce and condiments to local customers. The
manager has supplied you with the following information and the tasks allotted to
your team are provided below.

 

Q61

You have recently joined as a Trainee Accountant at Accountants in Action in the
Huon Valley, with two other Trainee Accountants who are currently studying
accounting at the University of Tasmania. As a part of the training, your manager has
given your team a task of recording the transactions that occurred in a local
producer’s business Green Hills Produce for January 2020.
Your manager informed your team that this business was opened by Mr Johnno Linn,
on the 1st of January 2020 and he is the sole owner of this proprietorship. Green
Hills Produce sells local fresh produce and condiments to local customers. The
manager has supplied you with the following information and the tasks allotted to
your team are provided below.

Q62

  1. Use the high-low method to estimate the cost behaviour for the complex’s electricity costs,
    assuming that the variable costs vary in proportion to the hours of operation. Express the total
    cost behaviour in formula form (Y = a + bx). What is the variable electricity cost per hour of
    operation? (5 marks)
    b) During July, the complex will open for 570 hours. Predict the complex’s total electricity costs for
    July using the cost estimation method employed in above requirement a). (3marks)
    c) What is the main drawback of the high-low method of cost estimation? (2 marks, maximum 150
    words)

Q63

Required
Prepare a report to the managing director of Paradise Industries to evaluate the processes, risks
and internal controls for Paradise Industries’ expenditure and conversion cycle. In your report, you
need to include the following items:
? System flow chart of expenditure cycle
? System flow chart of conversion cycle
? Analysis of physical internal control weaknesses in the expenditure cycle
? Analysis of the risks exist in the conversion cycle and the changes needed to reduce the risks
Assignment Structure
The report should include the following components:
? Assignment cover page clearly stating your name and student number
? A brief introduction of what the report is about
? Body of the report with appropriate section headings
? Conclusion
? List of references

Q64

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Demonstrate a thorough understanding of the reporting requirements of auditing
standards relating to auditors’reports.
2. Explain how the audit planning process directs the auditor to obtain adequate evidence to
support auditfindings and addressthe importanceofmateriality in an audit.
3. Explaintheprocessofauditplanningtodetermineriskassessmentsandanoverallauditstrategy.
4. Explain the auditors’ obligations with regards to understanding the client’s business and
internal controls and assessing businessrisks.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document

Q65

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Explain what a computer program written in Python does and translate a given algorithm into
Python code.
2. Identify and fix the various types of coding errors i.e. syntax, logical, and run-time.
3. Apply standard algorithms and libraries and import built-in modules to solve a given problem.
4. Understand and explain the basic programming constructs.
5. Understand the ICT profession and professional expectations of computer programming.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions for
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document.

Q66

Assessment Task – Tutorial Questions Assignment 1Unit Code: HA3021Unit Name: Corporations LawAssignment: Tutorial Questions Assignment 1Due: 11:30pm 15thMay 2020Weighting: 25%Total Assignment Marks: 50 MarksPurpose: This assignment is designed to assess your level of knowledge of the key topics covered in this unitUnit Learning Outcomes Assessed:1. Discuss the foundations of Australian Corporations Law and constitutional aspects and administration.2. Apply legal principles to real case situations in the context of different types of business organizations and the legal issues that arise in day to day business.3. Analyse the incorporation process and characteristics of corporate legal personality.4. Demonstrate the legal principles for managing a company in particular the company’srelationship with others.5. Critically analyse the concept of corporate internal rules and management.6. Analyse the role and responsibility of directors and members in the management of thecompany.7. Analyse the interaction between members’ rights, directors’ duties and corporategovernance.8. Analyse the procedures regarding external administration and winding up.9. Identify and analyse legal issues arising from the administration of a company.Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard. The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document.1
The questions to be answered are:Week 1 Question (10 marks)Differentiate between a sole trader, company and a partnership. Support your answer to this byciting the advantages and disadvantages of using each business structure. (10 marks) Week 2 Question (10 marks)Teresa and Alison operate a partnership making and selling jam. A reduced supply of fruit has resulted in a fall in sales. Alison purchased a large supply of glass jars that must be paid for within 30 days. The funds are not available to meet this expense. Teresa was not consulted when Alison bought the jars and insists that Alison pay for them out of her personal savings.What do you think will be the legal consequences here resulting from Teresa’s decision not to consult Alison? (10 marks)Week 3 Question (10 marks)Provide a case summary of the case “Salomon v Salomon & Co Ltd [1897]” using the IRAC method. What was the significance of this case law in relation to the legal concept of separate legal entity? (10 marks)Week 4 Question (10 marks)When can the corporate veil be lifted under the Corporations Act to make directors liable forcorporate debts? (10 marks)Week 5 Question (10 marks)Provide a case summary of the case “Lee v Lee’s Air Farming Ltd [1960] UKPC 33” using the IRAC method. What legal principle came out of this case in relation to why the court lifted the corporate veil in this case? (10 marks)Submission Directions:The assignment has to be submitted via Blackboard. Each student will be permitted one submissionto Blackboard only. Each student needs to ensure that the document submitted is the correct one.2
Academic IntegrityAcademic honesty is highly valued at Holmes Institute. Students must always submit work that represents their original words or ideas. If any words or ideas used in a class posting or assignment submission do not represent the student’s original words or ideas, the student must cite all relevant sources and make clear the extent to which such sources were used. Written assignments that include material similar to course reading materials or other sources should include a citation including source, author, and page number.In addition, written assignments that are similar or identical to those of another student in the class is also a violation of the Holmes Institute’s Academic Conduct and Integrity Policy. The consequence for a violation of this policy can incur a range of penalties varying from a 50% penalty through to suspension of enrolment. The penalty would be dependent on the extent of academic misconduct and the student’s history of academic misconduct issues. All assessments will be automatically submitted to Safe-Assign to assess their originality.Further Information:For further information and additional learning resources, students should refer to their Discussion Board for the unit.3

Q68

BAO3306 : AUDITING – “Document to Assist the Audit Manager in Planning an Audit.” – Auditing Assignment – Victoria University

On successful completion of this unit, students should be able to:

– Develop an appreciation of the reasons for the existence of a societal demand for audit and assurance services, and an understanding of the current environment in which auditors operate, including legal, ethical and professional aspects.
– Demonstrate an understanding of the key auditing principles, concepts and practices used by auditors to gather evidence and make judgments in order to form an audit opinion on the fair presentation of financial reports
– Develop an insight into the audit of specific transactions and account balances
– Be aware of the auditor’s responsibility in completing an audit
– Obtain basis understanding of other types of assurance engagement

 

Q69

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small proprietary company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was agreed at $5 million, on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local. As Local is a small proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or undergone an audit since its incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy Champion, has requested that your firm provide assurance on the following three items: • The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017 • All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement date, to ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations • The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018 In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of assurance that they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at acquisition date is very important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced, but that she is willing to have less work done on the previous year’s management accounts. Required: Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks and the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections.(220 words)

Q70

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small proprietary
company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was agreed at $5 million,
on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local. As Local is a small
proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or undergone an audit since its
incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to
access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy Champion, has requested that your firm
provide assurance on the following three items:
• The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017
• All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement date, to
ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations
• The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018
In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of assurance that
they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at acquisition date is very
important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced, but that she is willing to have less
work done on the previous year’s management accounts.
Required:
Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks and
the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections. (10 marks)

Q71

You are required to develop a report to the CEO and Board of the company, identifying the internal control procedures required within the organisation.
You will be required to submit the report following organisational formatting procedures and recommendations to address the internal control requirements for the company.
Your answers are required to be grammatically correct and where there is a report to present it should be completed as a business report.

Q72

  1. On August 20,2013, Bella Andres, CPA and partner, was offered and accepted the engagement to audit the annual financial statements of Japee Corporation for the fiscal and calendar years ended December 31, 2018. The audit began on September 15,2018, and ended on March 7, 2019. Japee Corporation is regulated by the SEC. Bella served as controller of Japee Corporation from November 5, 20014 until January 10, 2018, at which time she terminated her employment with Japee. Bella owned a material amount of Japee Corporation’s common stock from November 5, 2004 until August 15, 2018, at which time she sold the stock. Violation of Codes of Ethics? Why? 2. Tan and Canada, a firm of certified public accountants, audited the accounts of Sterling Skins, Inc., a corporation that imports and deals in fine furs. Upon completion of the examination, the auditors supplied Sterling Skins with twenty copies of the certified statement of financial statement. The firm knew in a general way that Sterling wanted that number of copies of the auditor’s report to furnish to banks and other potential lenders. The statement of financial position I question was in error by approximately P800,000. Instead of having a P600,000 net worth, the corporation was insolvent. The management of Sterling Skins had doctored the books to avoid bankruptcy. The assets had been overstated by P500,000 of fictitious and nonexisting accounts receivable and P300,000 of nonexisting skins listed as inventory when in fact Sterling Skins had only empty boxes. The audit failed to detect these fraudulent entries. JC, relying on the certified statement of financial position loaned Sterling Skins P200,000. They seek to recover their loss from Tan and Canada. Required: State whether each of the following is true or false and give your reasons: a. If JC alleges and proves negligence on the part of Tan and Canada he will be able to recover his loss. b. If JC alleges and proves constructive fraud (that is, gross negligence on the part of Tan and Canada) he will be able to recover his loss. c. JC does not have a contract with Tan and Canada. d. Unless actual fraud on the part of Tan and Canada could be shown, JC could not recover. e. JC is a third-party beneficiary of the contract Tan and Canada made with Sterling Skins.

Q73

Unit Learning Outcomes Assessed:
1. Demonstrate a thorough understanding of the reporting requirements of auditing
standards relating to auditors’reports.
2. Explain how the audit planning process directs the auditor to obtain adequate evidence to
support auditfindings and addressthe importanceofmateriality in an audit.
3. Explaintheprocessofauditplanningtodetermineriskassessmentsandanoverallauditstrategy.
4. Explain the auditors’ obligations with regards to understanding the client’s business and
internal controls and assessing businessrisks.
Description: Each week students were provided with three tutorial questions of varying degrees of
difficulty. These tutorial questions are available in the Tutorial Folder for each week on Blackboard.
The Interactive Tutorials are designed to assist students with the process, skills and knowledge to
answer the provided tutorial questions. Your task is to answer a selection of tutorial questions from
weeks 1 to 5 inclusive and submit these answers in a single document.

 

Q74

You are the audit manager of Overseas Explorer Ltd (OEL), which acquired the small proprietary company Local Pty Ltd (Local) on 30 June 2018. The price of the acquisition was agreed at $5 million, on the condition that OEL is satisfied with the financial records of Local. As Local is a small proprietary company, it has not prepared statutory financial reports or undergone an audit since its incorporation in 2016. However, Local has agreed to allow your firm, which is the auditor of OEL, to access its books and records. The CEO of OEL, Wendy Champion, has requested that your firm provide assurance on the following three items: • The management accounts for the year ended 30 June 2017 • All transactions occurring from the date negotiations commenced until the settlement date, to ensure that all transactions were within the normal course of operations • The financial report prepared at the acquisition date of 30 June 2018 In order to clarify your responsibilities, you requested that OEL indicate the level of assurance that they require for each item. Wendy replied that the financial report as at acquisition date is very important, as are the transactions since negotiations commenced, but that she is willing to have less work done on the previous year’s management accounts. Required: Indicate the type of engagement that will most likely be undertaken for each of the three tasks and the level of assurance to be provided. Explain your selections.(220 words)

Q75

Using the information provided about Noyers Ltd and appropriate research regarding the
industry and other economic factors:
a. Assess the key business risks of Noyers Ltd from the information available to you (at
least six (6) need to be identified);
b. Explain the implications of each risk identified on the financial statements;
c. Identify the related financial statement accounts at risk.
d. Identify the related management assertion (refer to ASA 315) most at risk for each
financial statement account identified as being at risk.
e. Justify your identification of the management assertion at risk.
Use the spreadsheet template tab Task 1 in order to complete this task.
Task 2
Materiality assessment requires an auditor to make judgements about the size of
misstatements that would be considered ‘material’ to the users of the financial statements.
The auditor will design procedures in order to identify and correct errors or irregularities that
would have a material effect on the financial report and affect the decision making of the
users of the financial report. Materiality is used in determining audit procedures, sample
selections, and evaluating differences from client records to audit results. It is the maximum
amount of misstatement, individually or in aggregate, that can be accepted in the financial
report.
In selecting the base figure to be used to calculate materiality, an auditor should consider the
key drivers of the business. They should ask, ‘What are the end users (i.e. shareholders, banks
etc.) of the accounts going to be looking at?’ For example, will shareholders be interested in
profit figures that can be used to pay dividends and increase share price?
S & A Partners’ audit methodology dictates that one planning materiality (PM) amount is to
be used for the financial report as a whole (that is, rather than separate PMs for the income
statement and the balance sheet). The basis selected is the one determined to be the key
driver of the business.

 

Q76

Learning Objective Understand and perform a purchasing process cycle
Scenario In order to process a complete purchasing process you will take on different roles within the GBI company, e.g. purchasing agent, warehouse worker, accounting clerk. Overall, you will be working in the Materials Management (MM) and the Financial Accounting (FI) departments.

 

Q77

  1. On August 20,2013, Bella Andres, CPA and partner, was offered and accepted the engagement to audit the annual financial statements of Japee Corporation for the fiscal and calendar years ended December 31, 2018. The audit began on September 15,2018, and ended on March 7, 2019. Japee Corporation is regulated by the SEC. Bella served as controller of Japee Corporation from November 5, 20014 until January 10, 2018, at which time she terminated her employment with Japee. Bella owned a material amount of Japee Corporation’s common stock from November 5, 2004 until August 15, 2018, at which time she sold the stock. Violation of Codes of Ethics? Why? 2. Tan and Canada, a firm of certified public accountants, audited the accounts of Sterling Skins, Inc., a corporation that imports and deals in fine furs. Upon completion of the examination, the auditors supplied Sterling Skins with twenty copies of the certified statement of financial statement. The firm knew in a general way that Sterling wanted that number of copies of the auditor’s report to furnish to banks and other potential lenders. The statement of financial position I question was in error by approximately P800,000. Instead of having a P600,000 net worth, the corporation was insolvent. The management of Sterling Skins had doctored the books to avoid bankruptcy. The assets had been overstated by P500,000 of fictitious and nonexisting accounts receivable and P300,000 of nonexisting skins listed as inventory when in fact Sterling Skins had only empty boxes. The audit failed to detect these fraudulent entries. JC, relying on the certified statement of financial position loaned Sterling Skins P200,000. They seek to recover their loss from Tan and Canada. Required: State whether each of the following is true or false and give your reasons: a. If JC alleges and proves negligence on the part of Tan and Canada he will be able to recover his loss. b. If JC alleges and proves constructive fraud (that is, gross negligence on the part of Tan and Canada) he will be able to recover his loss. c. JC does not have a contract with Tan and Canada. d. Unless actual fraud on the part of Tan and Canada could be shown, JC could not recover. e. JC is a third-party beneficiary of the contract Tan and Canada made with Sterling Skins.

 

Q78

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

 

 

 

 

Economics assignment help UK, US, Canada

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Econ 3057, 4438, 8038: Industrial

Organisation

Assignment 6 solution

Semester I 2020

Due: Friday May 29th at 5 pm

  1. [30 points] Freezeme is the unique supplier of refrigerators in a market with two types

of consumers. Each consumer is interested in buying at most one unit. Refrigerators

might come in di¤erent qualities. From any given quality level S, a consumer of type

1 derives a utility of

U1 = S 􀀀 p;

and a consumer of type 2 gets utility

U2 = S 􀀀 p;

where p is the price, and  > 1 is a constant. If a consumer does not buy, his/her

utility is 0. Freezeme found out that there are 100 consumers of type 1 and 70 of type

2.

Freezeme has a marginal cost of production of 10 (regardless of quality) and the

(quantity-independent) cost of developing a product of quality S is S2

2 .

(a) Suppose Freezeme develop two refrigerators, one of quality S1, the other one of

quality S2, with S2 > S1. Freezeme.s product manager I.S. Cold claims that

their products can be considered as being vertically di¤erentiated. Is she right?

Explain your answer. [4 points]

(b) Suppose that Freezeme could distinguish between consumers of type 1 and con-

sumers of type 2. Freezeme wants to develop two di¤erent fridges to serve the two

di¤erent types of consumers. What would Freezeme.s optimal price and quality

for each group of consumers be? [For each given quality, the .rm uses uniform

1

pricing. That is, the .rm charges pi for product with quality Si, i = 1; 2.] Assume

that the .rm can prevent arbitrage. [8 points]

(c) Under which condition is the quality produced for type 2 consumers greater than

the quality for type 1 consumers? Explain why the .rm would ever want to o¤er

a product of lower quality to the higher valuation type consumers. [4 points]

Assume for the remainder of this problem that Freezeme is unable to distinguish

between consumers of type 1 and consumers of type 2. Also assume that the

condition you identi.ed in part (c) holds.

(d) Freezeme wants to serve the two types of consumers with two di¤erent qualities,

S1 and S2. The .rm wants to .nd the optimal pairs (S1; p1) and (S2; p2) that

maximize their pro.t. [(Si; pi) for type i of consumers.] In order to do so, they

need to separate the two types of consumers. Given a menu f(S1; p1); (S2; p2)g,

write down the two constraints such that both types of consumers purchase the

products. Write down the two constraints such that both types of consumers

prefer to purchase the quality price pair intended for them rather than the one

intended for the other type. [These constraints will be in terms (S1; p1) and

(S2; p2).] [4 points]

(e) Find the optimal pairs (S1; p1) and (S2; p2) that maximize Freezemen.s pro.t

assuming that the .rm wants to o¤er two di¤erent qualities S2 > S1. [Hint: Two

out of the four inequalities constraints will be binding.] [10 points]

2

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Start a new post with the following information and give it an appropriate subject, like “Patton
Ch 1”:
a) From the appropriate chapter, select a question from the Questions for
Review from the end of the appropriate chapter in the e-book, (copy) the question in your
initial post (1 point).
b) Using your own words, correctly answer the selected question (2 points).
c) Read and reply to another classmate’s post (1 point).
d) Provide a thoughtful and correct reply (1 point).

 

 

 

  1. Use the data in HAPPINESS.RAW for this question. See also Computer Exercise C15 in Chapter 13.
    1. (i) Estimate a probit probability model relatingvhappytooccattendandregattend, and include a full set of year dummies. Find the average partial effects foroccat- tendandregattend. How do these compare with those from estimating a linear probability model?
    2. (ii) Define a variable,highinc, equal to one if family income is above $25,000. Includehighinc,unem10,educ, andteensto the probit estimation in part (ii). Is the APE ofregattendaffected much? What about its statistical significance?
    3. (iii) Discuss the APEs and statistical significance of the four new variables in part (ii). Do the estimates make sense?
    4. (iv) Controlling for the factors in part (ii), do there appear to be differences in happi- ness by gender or race? Justify your answer.

Attachments:

  1. How does the DD schedule shift if there is a decline in investment demand? 2. Suppose there is a permanent fall in private aggregate demand for a country’s output (a downward shift of the entire aggregate demand schedule). What is the effect on output? What government policy response would you recommend? 3. A new government is elected and announces that once it is inaugurated, it will increase the money supply. Use the DD-AA model to study the economy’s response to this announcement.

During the current COVID-19 pandemic many countries have imposed quarantine on their
populations in order to limit/ stop the spread of the disease and avoid overload on the health
system. While these measures are justified from the health perspective, they have major economic
consequences. In this assignment you are asked to analyse different economic aspects related to the
COVID-19 pandemic.
Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.

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manager of a nightclub realizes that demand for drinks is more elastic among students and is trying to determine the optimal pricing schedule. Specifically, he estimates the following average demand for his customer types: Under 25: q^r=18-5p Over 25: q=10-2p The two age groups visit the nightclub in equal numbers on average. Assume that drinks cost the club $2 to make. If the manager cannot identify to which group his customers belong, what is the uniform monopoly price? If the manager can identify to which group his customers belong, what price will he charge each group. Assume the manager can only charge a single price to each group. If the manager can charge a separate entry fee and a price per drink for each group, what two-part price will the manager set for reach group. Now suppose that once again it is impossible to identify which group the customers belong. Suppose the manager lowers the price of drinks to equal to marginal cost and still wanted to attract both customers, what entry fee would the manager set?

 

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A student has to decide whether to go to a party on the night before an exam. If they go to the
party, then they have the probability ? of writing a good exam and the probability 1 ? of writing
a bad exam. If they do not go to the party, then they have the probability > ? of writing a good
exam.
The student has the utility u = x1/2 + H if they go to the party and get the mark x on the exam.
But, if they do not go to the party they have the utility u = x1/2. The professor gets to choose xb
(the mark she gives to bad exams) and xg the mark she gives to good exams. Students also have
the option of going to the party and then quitting the course. This gives them the utility U + H
where U > 0.
(a) What is the student’s expected utility from going to the party and her expected utility from
not going to the party?
(b) Assuming students do not quit the course, what marks (xg, xb) can the professor set to stop
students partying? Draw a picture of this set of marks with yg = pxg on one axis and
yb = pxb on the other. Explain how this set changes as H and ? change.
(c) What marks can the professor set so the students prefer partying and taking the exam to
quitting the course? What marks can the professor set so the students prefer not partying and
taking the exam to quitting the course? Show these sets on a new picture.
(d) Suppose that the professor wants to promote equity and thus aims to make the di?erence
xg xb as small as possible while still stopping students from going to the party, but she
ignores the possibility that students will quit the course. What marks (xg, xb) should she set
to achieve her objective? Will this result in the outcome she planned?
(e) Suppose now the professor wants to minimise xg xb while still getting students to not party
and attend the course. Plot the contours of her objective function on your (yg, yb) picture.
What marks (xg, xb) should she set to achieve her objective now?
(f) The professor has other variables that she can control: she can make the exam harder, which
decreases and ?, and she can make the party fail by calling the campus authorities, which
decreases H. How does each of these variables a?ect her ability to achieve the objectives
described above?

 

 

 

Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.
Demand components: Consumption
b) What factors usually determine individual consumption? In light of these factors analyse
how the situation with the COVID-19 pandemic is likely to affect aggregate consumption.
Use the theory studied in the course in your answer. You may want to provide some
examples for your chosen country.
Part 3 (20 marks)
Demand components: Investment and net exports
Analyse the effects of the COVID-19 pandemic on investment and trade (exports and imports, in
particular). Refer to the theories studied in the course. Provide some examples from your chosen
country. Do you think investment and trade will also be affected after the pandemic is over?
Explain.

 

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The tabulation of the incremental cash ?ows between alternatives A and B is shown on the next page. Alternative A has a 3-year life and alternative B a 6-year life. If neither alternative has a salvage value, what is ( a ) the ?rst cost of alternative A and ( b ) the ? rst cost of alternative B? Year Incremental Cash Flow (B – A), $ 0 –20,000 1 5,000 2 5,000 3 12,000 4 5,000 5 5,000 6 5,000

 

 

Based on consulting economist’s report, th total and marginal cost functions for Advanced Electronics, Inc. are

TC = 200 + 5Q – 0.04Q2 + 0.001Q3

MC = 5 – 0.08Q + 0.003Q2

The president of the company determines that knowing only these equations is inadequate for decision making. You have been directed to do the following:

  1. Determine the level of fixed cost (if any) and equations for average total cost.
  2. Determine the rate of output that results in minimum average variable cost

If fixed costs increase to $500, what output rate will result in minimum average variable cost

 

You are given the following model:

appr = b 0 + b1 loanprc + b 2atotinc +b 3 atotinc.^2sq. + b4obrat + b5pubrec + u,

4 5 2 b 0 b1 b 2 b 3 b b ,

in which:

– approve: =1 if loan is approved, and 0 if not.

– obrat: other obligations, % of total income

– pubrec: = 1 if filed for bankruptcy

– atotinc: Total monthly income

– loanprc: loan amount /purchase price

– atotinc.^2sq. = atotinc* atotinc

  1. What sign would you expect from each partial slope coefficient in the model above? Justify your answers.

From the estimation of model above, one can obtain the following:

appr = 1.2-0.189loanprc +1.7e^-06atotinc-4.3e^-11atotinc^2-0.0054obrat-0.28 pubrec

(0.04) (0.038) (2.7e^ -06 ) (5.6e^ -11 ) (0.00088) (0.0358)

R^2= 0.1087 n =1989

  1. Interpret the coefficients of pubrec, and of loanprc.
  2. How do you explain the signs of atotinc and atotinc^2 ?

 

 

Assuming that global international trade sharply declines because of the “trade war” (in the forms
of increases in tariff and other trade barriers such as import quota and export subsidies on both
sides) between the U.S. and China, the U.S. and the European Union, and the U.S. and Japan.
Everything being equal, explain in 700-800 words the likely impact on the following:
• Global productivity, economic growth and inflation
• Australian consumers who buy goods imported from China, Japan and the United States.
• Australian producers who need to source from both China and the United States.
• Australian exporters such as a mining company who exports iron ore and coal to China and
Japan.

 

 

 

An economy produces three goods: houses, guns, and apples. The price of each is $1. For the purposes of this problem, assume that all exchange involving houses involves newly constructed houses.
(a) Households buy 10 houses and 90 apples, eating them. The government buys 10 guns. There is no other economic activity. What are the values of the different components of GDP (consumption, investment, government spending, exports/imports)?
(b) The next year, households buy 10 houses and 90 apples. The government buys 10 guns. Farmers take the seeds from 10 more apples and plant them. Households then sell 10 apples to France for $1 each and buy 10 bananas from Canada for $2 each, eating them too. What are the values of the components of GDP?
(c) Return to the economy in part 1a. The government notices that the two richest households consume 40 apples each, while the ten poorest consume one each. It levies a tax of 30 apples on each of the rich households, and gives 6 apples each to the 10 poorest households. All other purchases by households and the government are the same as in
(a). Calculate the components of GDP.

 

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A company must purchase one reactor to be used in an overall operation. Four reactors have been designed, all of which are equally capable of giving the required service. The following data apply to the four designs:

 

 

Q1: Cost-saving proposals 600 words (max. 200 words per proposal)Recognising these cost elements of this business, or a typical business like this, propose ways it can cleverly save costs (be more cost-efficient) by: (i) reducing fixed cost (ii) reducing variable cost (iii) cost-shifting (passing on/sharing part of the costs onto customers, workers, the government, the public in general etc.) (iv) aiming to achieve better economies of scale ?Propose three cost-saving ideas using any of (i) to (iv). E.g.: two of (i) and one of (ii). ? Discuss them: why you proposed it, why it is a good idea, what challenges might there be to implement them (if any).
Q2: Competitive strategy proposals 600 words (max. 200 word per proposal) What competitive strategy can your chosen business use to gain an advantage in sales over its rivals? ? (i) the five generic competitive strategies (ii) the 4Cs (contrast, combination, constraint, context) (iii) the 4Qs (questions: 1. Is your business relevant? Can you make it more relevant/offer real or essential or higher consumer needs? 2. Are customers dependent on you or not? How to make them more dependent? 3. Do customers prefer us to our competitors? How to make them prefer us? 4. Are we excellent at something? How do we become excellent compared to rivals?)(iv) six ways to differentiate yourself (product, service, channel, relationship etc.) ?Propose three ideas using any of (i) to (iv). E.g.: (ii), (ii) again, and (iv). ? Discuss them: why you proposed it, why it is a good idea, what challenges might there be to implement them (if any)

 

 

In what follows, ignore the negative impact that social distancing has on household income. Assume that individuals’ income remains unchanged. The government would now like you to help them understand “hoarding” behaviour and its effect on the market. We will define

 

 

  1. hoarding behaviour as the tendency to buy excessive amounts of a good, though individuals are not expected to usemore of the good. For example, the government sees that individuals are hoarding toilet paper—they are buying excessive amounts, though they are using a normal amount. (6 marks) a. You decide to describe individual hoarding behaviour using game theory. You model the behaviour using a simultaneous game between two players. Assume the actions that each player can choose are to “hoard” or “not hoard”. You are seeing that nearly everyone people in society is engaging in various types of hoarding behaviours, even though everyone would be better off without any hoarding. What type of game can best describe the decision to “hoard” versus “not hoard”? (1 marks)
  2. Given your answer to part (a), assign a set of real payoffs to each action, drawthe normal form game and defineand describethe Nash Equilibrium. (3 marks)
  3. Is the Nash Equilibrium socially efficient? If not, what types of policy might you recommend to encourage individuals to achieve an outcome that is efficient? (2 marks)

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Find a real world example from 2019-2020 of a change in market conditions, for example an observed change in prices or the quantity of a good or service. Using theories of economics, such as the demand and supply model, explain the impact of changing market conditions on the price and quantity of goods or services traded. The real world example:

  • will be sourced from newspapers or other media.
  • be for a specific city, country or global and over some time period.
  • The assignment must, as a minimum, include:
    • an introduction;
    • a description of the relevant market, including the product or service, location and degree of competitiveness;
    • an analysis (including appropriate diagrams) of how changing market conditions are influencing or have influenced or may influence prices/quantities, and
    • a conclusion.

 

 

 

  1. In what follows, ignore the negative impact that social distancing has on individuals’ income. Assume that individuals’ income remains unchanged with and without social distancing. Now that people are “social distancing” and are on home quarantine they are spending significantly more time at home and have more free time since they do not need to commute to work. In part (a), (b) and (c), you need to discuss how the market moves (what happens to supply and demand) and thus what happens to the equilibrium price and quantity. (5 marks) a. Ceteris paribus, describe with graph and words what happens in the market for online moving streaming, e.g. Netflix. Assume there is only oneonline moving streaming service. You do not need to consider the market for other goods. (2 marks)
  2. Given you answer to part 2a above, now consider the impact on the market for books, which is a perfectly competitive market (consider both digital and print books as a single category). Your answer should consider two key “facts” of the case: (1) people have more time at home and (2) people are watching more movies. (2 marks)
  3. Given your answer to part 2a above, now consider the impact on the market for popcorn. You should assume that even in the time of the pandemic, people enjoy eating popcorn while watching a movie. (1 mark)

 

 

 

Using the principles of economics covered in learning materials from week 1 to week 10 inclusive,
students should apply their understanding to analyse the macroeconomic issues and the policy
responses. Students are expected to conduct some basic research and to reference journal articles,
professional websites and other sources in the process.
Required:
The due date for this group assignment is Week 10.
Total marks: 80
Based on the article above, you are required to complete the following questions:
1. Using a diagram, illustrate and describe Australia’s rate of inflation since 2000. (10 marks)
2. Describe the measures undertaken by the Reserve Bank of Australia in combating inflation while
maintaining low unemployment. Discuss whether they have been successful. (20 marks)
3. Discuss the impacts (both positive and negative) of inflation which have influenced the
macroeconomic variables of the real Gross Domestic Product and total employment of Australia.
(20 marks)
4. Describe the type(s) of unemployment Australia is currently facing? Analyse how these types of
unemployment affect the Australian economy. (20 marks)
5. Using examples from the article, explain the following microeconomic concepts. (10 marks)
i. Diseconomies of scale
ii. Negative externalities
6. i. Overall presentation/formatting of the group report. (5 marks)
ii. Referencing (formatting and accuracy). (5 marks)

 

 

Using the principles of economics covered in learning materials from week 1 to week 10 inclusive,
students should apply their understanding to analyse the macroeconomic issues and the policy
responses. Students are expected to conduct some basic research and to reference journal articles,
professional websites and other sources in the process.
Required:
The due date for this group assignment is Week 10.
Total marks: 80
Based on the article above, you are required to complete the following questions:
1. Using a diagram, illustrate and describe Australia’s rate of inflation since 2000. (10 marks)
2. Describe the measures undertaken by the Reserve Bank of Australia in combating inflation while
maintaining low unemployment. Discuss whether they have been successful. (20 marks)
3. Discuss the impacts (both positive and negative) of inflation which have influenced the
macroeconomic variables of the real Gross Domestic Product and total employment of Australia.
(20 marks)
4. Describe the type(s) of unemployment Australia is currently facing? Analyse how these types of
unemployment affect the Australian economy. (20 marks)
5. Using examples from the article, explain the following microeconomic concepts. (10 marks)
i. Diseconomies of scale
ii. Negative externalities
6. i. Overall presentation/formatting of the group report. (5 marks)
ii. Referencing (formatting and accuracy). (5 marks)

 

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Explain the difference between monopoly and monopoly power. In reality, do monopolists always have more monopoly power than firms in oligopolistic sectors? Why or why not? With the aid of an example,

 

 

Question1

In 2017, Nepal’s production of rice and machinery was published by the Nepal Bureau of Statistics(NBS)as indicated by the table below:

Production in Nepal

Position P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Rice (1000 tons) 0 10 26 37 45 50 55 59 66 77 80
Machinery (units) 90 89 85 80 75 70 65 60 50 30 0

Based on the table above, a production possibility frontier(PPF)for Nepal can be plotted as below:

Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions:

A.Name positions B, V and D. Also,as indicated in thetable, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice??????????(3marks)

B.Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:

B1:Suppose Nepal begins to manufacture fertilizers.Explain the impact of the discovery of fertilizerson Nepal’s economy usingone of thePPF above.

(2marks)

B2:Also,supposing there is a discovery of steel in Nepal, explain the impact of steelon the economy of Nepal usingone of the PPF above. (2 marks)

B3:Finally, theMinister of Finance in Nepal advicesthe World Bank that in order to increase rice production and machinery, each sector requires USD 50 billion, or a total of 100 billion.This 100 billion is made available by the World Bank.Explain the impact ofthese 100 billion budgetary allocationsto the economy of Nepal. Use one of the PPF above.??(3 marks)

Assessment Question Week 3:

Markets in Action: Demand and Supply

Question 2

Suppose the graph below represents the demand and supply forriceat various prices, answer the questions that follow.

Thegraph above is represented in the table below. Please complete the tablebelowidentifying the shortage or surplus.

Price (10kg bag) Demand

(10 kg bags)

Supply (SS)

(10 kg bags)

Surplus (+)

Shortage (-)

10 89 29
20 70 40
30 55 55
40 39 67
50 25 80
60 11 95

A.Based on your findings in the table above, what is the market equilibrium price and quantity forrice? ???????(3 marks)

B.Also, please examine the factors thatcanmotivate the government to reduce the price of rice at $20 per 10 kg bag and theeffectsofthatgovernmentlegislation on the rice market.????? (7marks)

Assessment Question Week4:

Price Elasticity of demand and supply

Question 3

The price for cigarettessold by Big Tobacco Co Ltdwas6.00 per packet in March 2018. During the month of March, the consumption of cigarettes was1000 packets.However, the Board of Directors of Big Tobacco Co Ltddecided to increase the price by 25% during the monthofApril. As a manager you noted that price elasticity of demand was 0.8.As a manager Big Tobacco Co Ltd:

A.Advise yourmanagement ofthe strategy that could be adoptedby your firm to maintainsales.?(5 Marks)

B.Also,advise your government on recommendedinterventions in the cigarette market.?????????(5Marks)

Assessment Question Week5:

Production costs

Question 4

John was a high school teacher earning $ 80,000 per year. He quit his job to start his own business in pizza catering.In order to learn how to run the pizza catering business, John enrolled in a TAFE to acquire catering skills.John’s course was for 3 months. John had to pay $2,000 as tuition for the 3 months.

After the training, John withdrew $110,000 from his savings account. He had been earning 5 percent interest per year for this account. He also borrowed $50,000.00 from his friend whom he pays 6 percent interest per year. Further,to start the businessJohn used hisownpremises. He wasreceiving$12,000from rentper year. Finally, to start the business John uses $50,000 he had been given by his father to go on holiday to USA.

John’s first year of business can be summarised as follows:

Item Amount $
Revenue- Pizza Section 400,000
Revenue- Beverages Section 190,000
2 Cashiers(wages per worker) 55,000
Pizza ingredients 50,000
Manager 75,000
3 Pizza bakers (wages per baker) 60,000
Equipment 10,000

??

Based on your calculated accounting profit and economic profit, would you advise John to return to his teaching job? Show your work???(10 marks)

Assessment Question Week6:

Market Structure: Perfect Competition and Monopoly

Question 5

The above diagram illustrates the short run cost curves for Sarah Mat, a rice farmer in Queensland.Calculate the profit or loss for Sarah Mat and, examine the key characteristics for perfect competition firm with reference to Sarah’s farm.(10 Marks)

Students select a real-world case study based on their own industry or workplace context, and submit a 2500-word report on an appropriate aspect of business economics. The assessment task is intended to simulate the composition of a formal report to senior management concerning a strategic initiative.

Following the problem solving and decision making approach discussed in Chapter 1 to solve the following issues relevant to the selected workplace industry and incorporate the following:

  1. Does the company make decisions based on depreciation or overhead? If so, does this lead to bad decisions? What can be done to fix the problem? What was the profit consequences of the change [Refer to Chapter 3 of the prescribed textbook especially on Sunk Cost of Depreciation or Fixed Cost of Overhead].
  2. Describe an extant decision made by the company. Discuss the marginal cost and marginal benefit of the decision. Was the right decision reached? If not, what should be done differently? What was the profit consequences of the change?[Chapter 3: Benefits, Costs, and Decisions].

c.Describe an investment decision the company has made. Discuss the opportunity costs and benefits of the decision. Did your company make the right decision? If not, what would you do differently? What was the NPV of the investment? [Refer to Chapter 5 of the prescribed textbook: Investment Decisions: Look Ahead and Reason Back].

Students are expected to demonstrate a sound theoretical and practical understanding of managerial economics in their analysis and discussions, as well as an awareness of the moral, ethical, and cultural aspects economics decision-making.

The composition of the formal report is staged across the first four weeks of the course, whereby students prepare a component of the report and share their research to receive informal peer feedback:

  • Week 2: Select Your Case Study and Describe

 

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(a) Explain how GDP is measured in your country. Provide real life examples. (4 marks)
While your textbook is your first point of reference, you should consult other references in order to receive full marks. Use real life examples (with references) to support your discussion.
(b) Explain the macroeconomic effects of COVID-19 pandemic on your country using economic theory, real life data and illustrate them on appropriate diagrams. (10 marks)
This is your case study that you need to describe in details, provide relevant information, use table, diagrams where appropriate. You should use real data as much as possible. Refer to the textbook for the theoretical framework.
(b) Using your home country as a case study outline two main economic measures government applied to the national economy due to COVID-19 pandemic. Analyse the effect of such measures on inflation, output and employment using economic theory. What measures would you suggest and why? Explain using theory and real data. (12 marks)

 

 

During the current COVID-19 pandemic many countries have imposed quarantine on their
populations in order to limit/ stop the spread of the disease and avoid overload on the health
system. While these measures are justified from the health perspective, they have major economic
consequences. In this assignment you are asked to analyse different economic aspects related to the
COVID-19 pandemic.
Part 1 (20 marks)
GDP and unemployment
a) Analyse the effects of quarantine on GDP, employment and the unemployment rate. Which
industries are likely to be most affected and which industries are likely to be least affected
by quarantine measures?
b) Choose any country that introduced quarantine as an example. What was its GDP growth
rate in 2018, 2019? (Indicate the source of information.) Is this country likely to be in
recession this year? Refer to two definitions of recession.
c) Are your answers consistent with (general) Okun’s law?
Part 2 (20 marks)
Inflation
a) What do you think would happen to inflation in your chosen country in the coming year?
Explain.
Demand components: Consumption
b) What factors usually determine individual consumption? In light of these factors analyse
how the situation with the COVID-19 pandemic is likely to affect aggregate consumption.
Use the theory studied in the course in your answer. You may want to provide some
examples for your chosen country.

 

 

Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions: A. Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks) B. Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow: Economics Homework Help at HomeworkNest.com Point B is inside the PPF curve. It shows efficient utilization of resources, and the production can be increased by using the resources efficiently. Point V is on the PPF, which shows the full utilization of resources. Point D is outside the PPF curve, which shows production at this point is beyond the potential of Nepal due to limited resources. Thus, this would be the unattainable level of production given the available resources (Galles, Graves & Sexton, 2019). If Nepal produces 10,000 more rice, the point moves to V from T. Thus, the rice would increase by 10,000, and machinery production would reduce by ten units. Hence, the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 units of rice is ten units of rice. B) 1. Production of fertilizers means that rice

 

 

ATT&T and Time Warner (Spectrum) has been viewed a great deal since it may have great benefits for customers. But the critics of such merger claim that this deal will hurt customers. Should the Government approve this merger? Provide your arguments or against the deal.

 

Let the fixed price of good is Birr 72. If the cost function of perfect competitive market is given by C= Q3-12Q2+10Q+100, then find profit maximizing level of output

 

 

Question 1
Using a production possibilities frontier (PPF) diagram, determine how does the PPF change
in response to the following events:
a) Reducing skilled migration into the country
b) Imposing import taxes (tariffs) on intermediate inputs
c) Increasing the expenditure on research and development
d) An increase in the retirement age
e) The effects of natural disaster
Question 2
Identify what sort of effect the following events have:
a) A decrease in oil prices as a consequence of a price dispute in the world oil markets
b) The onset and prevalence of a pandemic
c) The implementation of subsidies to manufacturing of cars in Australia
d) The implementation of a Carbon tax in the economy. A Carbon tax is charged
according to the level of emissions of greenhouse gases in an economy.
e) The implementation of a new loan program to university students in the education
sector
You are required to explain whether the event acts on the demand or supply side, and whether
the event leads to a quantity or price change, or leads to a shift in demand and/or supply.
Make sure to explain what sort of assumptions you are making on the elasticities of demand
and supply.
Question 3
Compare the impact of a recession that reduces consumer income by 10 percent on the
consumption of technology goods and house rentals. Suppose that the income elasticity of
demand for technology goods is 3 and the income elasticity of demand for house rentals is
0.3. Based on your response, make a policy argument to support through government
funding either businesses or house rentals.

 

 

  1. In 1984 and 1985, the small Latin American country of Bolivia experienced hyperinflation. Below are some key macroeconomic data from those years: Macroeconomic Data for Bolivia, April 1984 – October 1985

 

Are rapid economic growth and equal distribution of personal income necessarily conflicting objectives?

 

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Analyse and evaluate the market structure of the airline industry. In your analysis, determine
whether the current market is concentrated or not. In your discussion, use economic tools or models
to make this decision. You should also consider who owns Jetstar when making these calculations.
2. With the events of COVID-19, there is a possibility that Virgin Australia may fold. Assuming this
market share will be taken up by QANTAS, calculate the new HHI for the industry. What do you think
will happen to air ticket prices? Explain and justify with relevant economic concepts
3. A couple of States, including NSW, are expected to help bail out Virgin Australia. Do you think this
will be good for the industry? Do you think it will be good for Qantas?

 

 

Tutorial Submission Question 1

Assessment Question Week 2:

Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)

Question 1

In 2017, Nepal’s production of rice and machinery was published by the Nepal Bureau of Statistics (NBS) as indicated by the table below:

Production in Nepal

Position P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Rice (1000 tons) 0 10 26 37 45 50 55 59 66 77 80
Machinery (units) 90 89 85 80 75 70 65 60 50 30 0

Based on the table above, a production possibility frontier (PPF) for Nepal can be plotted as below:

Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions:

  1. Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks)
  2. Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:

B1: Suppose Nepal begins to manufacture fertilizers. Explain the impact of the discovery of fertilizers on Nepal’s economy using one of the PPF above.

(2 marks)

B2: Also, supposing there is a discovery of steel in Nepal, explain the impact of steel on the economy of Nepal using one of the PPF above. (2 marks)

B3: Finally, the Minister of Finance in Nepal advices the World Bank that in order to increase rice production and machinery, each sector requires USD 50 billion, or a total of 100 billion. This 100 billion is made available by the World Bank. Explain the impact of these 100 billion budgetary allocations to the economy of Nepal. Use one of the PPF above. (3 marks)

Assessment Question Week 3:

Markets in Action: Demand and Supply

Question 2

Suppose the graph below represents the demand and supply for rice at various prices, answer the questions that follow.

The graph above is represented in the table below. Please complete the table below identifying the shortage or surplus.

Price (10kg bag) Demand

(10 kg bags)

Supply (SS)

(10 kg bags)

Surplus (+)

Shortage (-)

10 89 29
20 70 40
30 55 55
40 39 67
50 25 80
60 11 95
  1. Based on your findings in the table above, what is the market equilibrium price and quantity for rice? (3 marks)
  2. Also, please examine the factors that can motivate the government to reduce the price of rice at $20 per 10 kg bag and the effects of that government legislation on the rice market. (7marks)

Assessment Question Week4:

Price Elasticity of demand and supply

Question 3

The price for cigarettes sold by Big Tobacco Co Ltd was 6.00 per packet in March 2018. During the month of March, the consumption of cigarettes was 1000 packets. However, the Board of Directors of Big Tobacco Co Ltd decided to increase the price by 25% during the month of April. As a manager you noted that price elasticity of demand was 0.8. As a manager Big Tobacco Co Ltd:

  1. Advise your management of the strategy that could be adopted by your firm to maintain sales. (5 Marks)
  2. Also, advise your government on recommended interventions in the cigarette market. (5 Marks)

Assessment Question Week 5:

Production costs

Question 4

John was a high school teacher earning $ 80,000 per year. He quit his job to start his own business in pizza catering. In order to learn how to run the pizza catering business, John enrolled in a TAFE to acquire catering skills. John’s course was for 3 months. John had to pay $2,000 as tuition for the 3 months.

After the training, John withdrew $110,000 from his savings account. He had been earning 5 percent interest per year for this account. He also borrowed $50,000.00 from his friend whom he pays 6 percent interest per year. Further, to start the business John used his own premises. He was receiving $12,000 from rent per year. Finally, to start the business John uses $50,000 he had been given by his father to go on holiday to USA.

John’s first year of business can be summarised as follows:

Item Amount $
Revenue- Pizza Section 400,000
Revenue- Beverages Section 190,000
2 Cashiers (wages per worker) 55,000
Pizza ingredients 50,000
Manager 75,000
3 Pizza bakers (wages per baker) 60,000
Equipment 10,000

Based on your calculated accounting profit and economic profit, would you advise John to return to his teaching job? Show your work (10 marks)

Assessment Question Week6:

Market Structure: Perfect Competition and Monopoly

Question 5

The above diagram illustrates the short run cost curves for Sarah Mat, a rice farmer in Queensland. Calculate the profit or loss for Sarah Mat and, examine the key characteristics for perfect competition firm with reference to Sarah’s farm.(10 Marks)

Attachments:

 

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Your goal: to advise them on how to be cost-efficient, be more competitive in the market, grow the business, and design their pricing and non-pricing strategies.
In essence: you will develop ideas to make that business more successful, and more resilient and long-lasting, even in fierce competitive situations or in very difficult economic conditions. You will present it in a report (see sample report in the ‘Questions: research report’ document.
(i) published data you find about the business on the Internet— their website, possibly with photographs of their premise, location, how many staff they employ (you can just judge this yourself, if that information is not available), online information about their products or services. See the ‘questions: research report’ document again, instruction no. 3.
You may not be able to get all of these but get as much information as you reasonably can. Use your judgement for the rest or rely on past visits to the shop or store (or what people told you about visits to the store). You do not need to be very precise.
(ii) the business should be a business in Sydney or Manly.

 

 

Instruction:

1) The answers of the assignment must be printed.

2) Make sure that the content of your answers is clear and understandable.

Question 1)

The Oslo Accords (including the Protocol on Economic Relations) signed in 1994 had set the stage for the National Palestinian Authority (NPA) to assume political and economic sovereignty in major WBG cities. Although, the skewed integration withOccupation state )Israel( economy (the dependence on) Israeli( economy) did not structurally change. The Palestinian Central Bureau of Statistics (PCBS) have published data for national accounts for this period:

http://www.pcbs.gov.ps/site/lang__ar/507/default.aspx

Use the data posted in this web-link to answer the following questions:

1) Use graph to describe changes in real GDP between 2004 and 2014.

2) Use pie graph to describe the share of GDP components in 2014.

Question 2)

The relative recovery of the Palestinian economy prevailed in the 90s was cut short by the breakout of the Second Intifada in September 2000. Following this date, Palestinians endured devastating measures including, relentless Israeli internal and external closures, loss of land and other natural resource, an astronomical rise in unemployment, mainly due to the termination of labor inflow to Israel, and the purposely destruction of physical infrastructure by Israel.

Based on the data posted on:

http://www.pcbs.gov.ps/site/lang__ar/507/default.aspx

  1. a) Use graph to describe changes in real GDP between 2000 and 2008.
  2. b) What is the GDP component that cause the change in read GDP between 2000 and 2008.

Question 3)

In short, talk about the most important provisions of Paris economic agreement ( Paris Protocol) signed in 1994, explain its effects on the Palestinian economy.

 

Analyze the baseline model of Schumpeterian growth in Section 14.1 assuming that (14.5) is not satisfied.

(a) Show that monopolists set a limit price.

(b) Characterize the BGP equilibrium growth rate.

(c) Characterize the Pareto optimal allocation, and compare it to the equilibrium.

(d) Now consider a hypothetical economy in which the previous highest quality producer disappears, so that the monopolist can charge a markup of 1/(1- ß) instead of the limit price. Show that the BGP growth rate in this hypothetical economy is strictly greater than the growth rate characterized in part b. Explain this result.

 

 

Students who successfully complete this subject will be able to:
1. demonstrate an advanced level of understanding of theories that propose exogenous drivers of economic
growth to explain economic growth differences;
2. demonstrate integrated knowledge of theories that propose endogenous drivers of economic growth to
explain economic growth differences and recognise that social and environmental issues are inextricably
linked to economic growth;
3. contrast real economic data on theory-informed drivers of economic growth in a rich and a poor country
to design advanced-level and integrated economic growth policy recommendations for the poor country.
These outcomes will contribute to your overall achievement of course learning outcomes. Your course learning
outcomes can be located in the entry for your course in the electronic JCU Course and Subject Handbook 2020 (click
on ‘Course Information’ bar/ select ‘Undergraduate Courses’ or ‘Postgraduate Courses’/ select relevant course/
scroll down to ‘Academic Requirements for Course Completion’, ‘Course learning outcomes’).

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Case Study 1. Describe the destination with reference to location, size, demographics, governance and a brief history of tourism development. (20 marks) 2. Discuss the major impacts of Covid 19 on tourism for the destination, including social, cultural, political, economic and environmental. In this discussion, provide various examples & compare different states for each impact and the measures in place to minimise the negative and maximise any positive aspects of these impacts. (40 marks) 3. Analysis the communication between; global tourism networks, national and local tourism organisations, private business and the community, and its importance, for a destination, during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks) 4. Examine the role governmental leadership, in the destination, has taken in supporting the tourism industry during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks)

 

Consider the US quarterly real gross national product from the first quar-
ter of 1947 to the third quarter of 2011. The data are in the file q-GNPC96 txt,
seasonally adjusted, and in billions of chained 2005 dollars. Let xt be the
growth rate series of the real GDP.
The ar command identifies an AR(4) model for xt via the AIC cri-
terion. Fit the model. Is the model adequate? Why?
The sample PACF of xt specifies an AR(3) model. Fit the model. Is
it adequate? Why?
What is the model for xt if one uses in-sample model comparison?
Why?
Divide the data into estimation and forecasting subsamples using
the fourth quarter of 2000 as the initial forecast origin and apply the
backtesting procedure with MSFE as the criterion. Select a model
for xt. Justify the choice.
To answer questions in Problems 3, (a) use 5% significance level in
tests, and (b) use 10 lags of serial correlations for return series.

 

 

Pick one question to answer only.
1. How can states respond effectively to cyber-attacks originating beyond their own borders?
Compare and evaluate responses of two or three different governments.
2. How have the Internet and cyber-weapons
impacted on-going conflicts, and how will they
impact conflicts in the future? Respond using
multiple recent, ongoing, or potential future
conflict scenarios.

 

Write a MATLAB code (.m file) to compare the bit error rate of (15,11) Hamming code and ¼-convolutional code in addition to the performance of uncoded system. The simulation parameters are shown below:

 

  1. Daily foreign exchange rates (spot rates) can be obtained from the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. The data are the noon buying rates in New York City certified by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York. Consider the exchange rates between the U.S. dollar and the British pound and Japanese yen from January 2, 2007 to November 30, 2011.

(i) Compute the daily log return of each exchange rate.

(ii) Compute the sample mean, standard deviation, skewness, excess kurtosis, minimum, and maximum of the log returns of each exchange rate.

(iii) Obtain a density plot of the daily log returns of Dollar-Yen exchange rate.

(iv) Test H0 : = 0 versus Ha : 6= 0, where denotes the mean of the daily log return of Dollar-Yen exchange rate. Use the 5% significance level to draw the conclusion. If not specifically specified, use 5% significance level to draw conclusions in the exercises.

  1. Consider the US quarterly real gross national product from the first quarter of 1947 to the third quarter of 2011. The data are in the file q-GNPC96.txt, seasonally adjusted, and in billions of chained 2005 dollars. Let xt be the growth rate series of the real GDP.

(a) The ar command identifies an AR(4) model for xt via the AIC criterion. Fit the model. Is the model adequate? Why?

(b) The sample PACF of xt species an AR(3) model. Fit the model. Is it adequate? Why?

(c) What is the model for xt if one uses in-sample model comparison? Why?

(d) Divide the data into estimation and forecasting subsamples using the fourth quarter of 2000 as the initial forecast origin and apply the backtesting procedure with MSFE as the criterion. Select a model for xt. Justify the choice.

To answer questions in Problems 3, (a) use 5% significance level in tests, and (b) use 10 lags of serial correlations for return series.

  1. Consider the daily stock returns of Procter & Gamble from September 1, 2001, to September 30, 2011. The simple returns are available from CRSP and in the le d-pg-0111.txt. Transform the simple returns to log returns.

(a) Is there any serial correlation in the log returns?

(b) Fit an MA model, where the maximum order is Q = 20, to the log returns to remove serial correlations. Write down the fitted model. Is the model adequate?

(c) Let rt be the residuals of the MA model and xt = 100*rt. Is there ARCH effect in xt?

(d) Fit an EGARCH model to xt. Perform model checking and write down the fitted model.

 

 

Case Study 1. Describe the destination with reference to location, size, demographics, governance and a brief history of tourism development. (20 marks) 2. Discuss the major impacts of Covid 19 on tourism for the destination, including social, cultural, political, economic and environmental. In this discussion, provide examples of each impact and the measures in place to minimise the negative and maximise any positive aspects of these impacts. (40 marks) 3. Analysis the communication between; global tourism networks, national and local tourism organisations, private business and the community, and its importance, for a destination, during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks) 4. Examine the role governmental leadership, in the destination, has taken in supporting the tourism industry during the Covid 19 crisis. (20 marks)

 

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

What does the name of the IS curve stand for? Note the following identity might give you some hint:
My to break the left-hand side of the above equation into three kinds of savings. We have discussed under the consumption model the idea of precautionary savings. Does the idea of precautionary saving apply to the government level and/or the country level? Be creative and please give some concrete examples.

  • Brazil’s Economic Structure’s Critical Overview.
  • America’s Economic Structure’s Critical Overview.
  • Evaluation of China’s Trade Policies and Economy.

Who wrote this article, when, how did they gather this information? Did they provide Apple with this information and ask them to comment on their data?

 

Profile Apple:

How many products and what kind does it produce

What year did Apple move to global supply chains and why? What do they claim about foreign workers and factories

 

What is Apple’s strategy for production? Which other industries follow this model?

 

What is the rationale for this? How does Apple relate this to innovation?

 

How many workers are employed by foreign contractors in producing Apple products?

 

How many workers are employed in US by Apple? Overseas?

 

What is Apple’s profit per employee?

 

At the time of this article, what is the current value of the stock? What has been the increase in value since 2005? Before the impact of the Coronavirus?

 

What is an example of a manager’s salary package? What is Tim Cook’s package?

 

Use the NBS production table and production possibility frontier to answer the following questions: A. Name positions B, V and D. Also, as indicated in the table, supposing Nepal is operating at level T, what is the opportunity cost of producing 10,000 more tons of rice? (3 marks) B. Use the graph below to answer the questions that follow:

  • Analytical Study of the supply and demand
  • Economics as a science.
  • Consumerism Impact and Evolution.
  • Interest rate as a political factor in an organization.
  • Impact of Unemployment in today’s economy.
  • Illegal Immigration affecting a country’s Economy.
  • Impact of Supply and Demand on Pricing.

(a) Is there a difference between the price of oil in the market for oil and the price of reserves in the market for reserves? Explain. (b) What is the Hotelling Rule? (c) Does it assume profit maximization by owners of oil deposits? (d) What does it imply about the price at which oil is sold over time? (e) How would you expect non-renewable resource by a monopolist to differ from extraction by a price-taking firm? (f) With a pollution externality, Pigou demonstrated that the presence of a harmful real externality leads private decision making by a profit-maximizing firm to generate an outcome that is not socially optimal. Is that also the case with the inter-temporal externality associated with extraction of this non-renewable resource – is the profit maximizing extraction also not socially optimal? Explain. (g) Is socially optimal extraction of a non-renewable resource sustainable? Lecture: Non-Renewable Resources – Economics of oil 2 (a) A non-renewable resource firms owns two deposits of copper, where the potential amount of copper in the deposits are the same but one is located at a shallower depth and has a lower cost of extraction. How should it exploit those two resources? Should it extract some copper from each deposit every year, or should it do something different? Describe the extraction strategy it should employ, and the underlying economic rationale. (b) Has the world price of oil risen, from 2000 to now, approximately at the interest rate, as a simple version of the Hotelling rule would suggest? (e) If not, why not? What factors could explain this?

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Select two pieces of literature from a culture that you have already met.

In an essay (500-750 words), show how the worldview is communicated through the use of various literary devices. Use at least two scholarly sources, outside of the course readings, to support your view

 

Please write one page about the following with two comments which I will use to respond to other students:  What might be holding you back from taking a giant step into leadership or management at a higher level in which you currently are serving? Are you afraid of stress or stressful situations? How do you deal with the day-to-day stressors of the corporate environment? Do you have empathy on your followers when deadlines are demanding and timelines are tight? What advice do you have for those who don’t have a good grip on the daily grind of work?

 

You must complete an essay (no more than 500 words) on the following: Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.

 

Consider these questions and write a 1 and a half paragraph self-report about your participation and preparation for this course. 

-How are you doing on participation and preparation?

-What is one thing you are doing well?

-Were there any problems during this reporting period that may have affected your participation and preparation?

-How are you progressing with the course goal you set for Online Discussion 1?

-What do you get out of lecture and discussion section?

 

-Any other questions, concerns, or comments?

 

This is is my introduction to class.

My name is …, I am an international student here. Im from Kuwait. I have been here for 3 years and I like it very much. I have many interests, but my main interest is soccer. I like to play soccer with friends when I am free and I also like to watch soccer games. I also like swimming and I swim alot here in California. As I am from Kuwait and that I am an international student, I dont know much about the Anerican History, so my goal for this semester is to learn about the History of the country I live in now. I think that my greatest challenge is that I did not student American Histroy In school, but I will work hard to overcome my challenge.

 

Minimum words:   1500).   You will write an argumentative, documented research paper on a current, controversial topic   using the classical   pattern of argument and MLA format.   You must have at least five sources for your paper, MLA heading and page numbers, and in text citations. Two of your sources must come from the Cannon Memorial Library.

 

Here is the works cited

 

Works Cited

 

Douthit, Sandra Faye. “Assistant Principal Details Tactics for Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. The Western News, 14 Mar. 2012. Web. 4 Dec. 2015.

“EDITORIAL: Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. Baker City Herald, 8 Feb. 2012. Web. 3 Dec. 2015.

Gill, Peter Edward, and Max Allan Stenlund. “Dealing with a Schoolyard Bully: A Case Study.” Journal of School Violence 4.4 (2005): 47-62. Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. Web. 4 Dec. 2015.

Weston, Alonzo. “Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. St. Joseph News-Press, 18 Nov. 2012. Web. 4 Dec. 2015.

Womer, Sarah. “Middle School Has Plans for Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. The Sun, 28 Oct. 2013. Web. 4 Dec. 2015.

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The Course Project

In this week, you will continue to complete tasks of the project topic selected in Week 1.

Topic 1: Disease Process

  • Choose a payer type that is different from your original choice in Week 3.
  • Compare the costs of covering healthcare services provided by these two insurances in your area.
  • What insurance type is best suited for healthcare coverage of your hypothetical patient’s disease type?

Topic 2: Healthcare Profession

  • Estimate the cost of education and training for the healthcare professional you selected.
  • Research the earnings of such a professional at entry-level, at mid career, and at the top of the career.
  • How is this professional paid, for example, fee for service, salary, health insurance payment, etc.?

Submit your answers in a 2- to 3-page Microsoft Word document. Support your answers with appropriate examples and research.

Cite all references in APA format.

Submission Details

Name your document SU_HCM2005_W4_A2_LastName_FirstInitial.doc.

Submit your document to the W4 Assignment 2 Dropbox

Assignment 2 Grading Criteria Maximum Points
Met the listed criteria for the selected disease process or healthcare profession. 45
Used correct spelling, grammar, and professional vocabulary. Cited all sources using APA format. 5
Total: 50

 

 

Pretend that you are participating in a public safety awareness forum and that you have been selected to deliver a presentation on the health risks of one of the toxic substance categories that we have covered in this unit. Create  ten-slide PowerPoint Presentation discussing the major toxicological concerns, including possible sources of exposure, symptoms of toxicity, and health risks to humans. Be sure to cite references on your last slide in proper APA format.  Utilize the speakers’ notes feature to type the script of what you would say if you were to present the PowerPoint or record your voice speaking within the PowerPoint Presentation.

 

 

Topic to discuss in power point:

Toxicology of the Nervous System

 Reproductive and Cardiovascular Systems

Toxicology of the Endocrine System

 

 

89) 8 page essay comparing and contrasting two specific characteristics of two different modern religious faiths. Must include excerpts from two personal interviews

 

90) urgument essay about the Death Panalty 6-7 pages

 

sources should be prereviewd

3 from proqust .

2 from newyork time or cq researcher

 

the essay should be MLA style cited

high school level

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

 

91) Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.(no more than 500 words)

 

 

92) In 250 words discuss why play is important for children in preschool and kindergarten. Explain how you will incorporate at least 3 types of play into your daily schedule.

 

Need a to have at least one citation

 

 

94) Create a timeline that displays the development of abnormal psychology. Include at least five to seven main milestones.

Will be using a plagiarism checker. Must be to me by tonight 10PM PST (CA Time)

 

 

95) “Adjustment According to the Ecological Theory” Please respond to the following:

  • From the e-Activity, describe one (1) situation in your life from the past several years that required adjustment according to the Ecological theory. Discuss one to two (1-2) examples from your situation that apply to each of Bronfenbrenner’s five (5) environmental systems: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

 

 

97) Information storage and retrieval is an important part of intelligence. Computer technology and neuroscience have played a large role in information processing.

Draw your own information processing model showing how you would use self-regulation and motivation to teach a concept. Explain your model. In addition, use your research on cognitive load theory to help support your model.

 

 

98) “Labeling and Mental Disorders” Please respond to the following:

  • From the e-Activity, identify the major advantages and disadvantages of labeling a person with a mental disorder. Next, describe how culture can influence our perceptions of mental disorders. Justify your response.

 

 

99) The quality of an individual’s leadership is measured, in part, by his or her influence on followers. For this class discussion, you will use your personal experience and the information you read to discuss how leadership influences subordinate behavior and performance.

 

Please respond to all of the following prompts in the class discussion section of your online course:

 

Apply a leadership theory to a manager or supervisor you have, or had in the past, to explain his/her performance as a leader.Using Fiedler's leadership theory as a basis for your answer, explain whether most successful managers are relationship-oriented or task-oriented.As more companies become increasingly reliant on virtual teams and teleworkers, how must an individual’s leadership style change to accommodate those types of workers?

 

 

100) We all have a culture that we learn about through the lifelong process of socialization. Enculturation is the process of acquiring the characteristics of a certain culture. Socialization is the process through which we learn social norms of the culture. Through these processes we internalize social and cultural norms, so that they become a part of our self. The sources of socialization are clear – the family, the church, the school, peers, the media, etc. As a part of a cultural group, we share customs, language, dialects, ideas, faith, and beliefs about our own culture, as well as beliefs about other cultures. Our own culture is a lens through which we view the world. This is only natural, but we must be careful that we do not use our culture as the standard by which we measure up and judge the value of other cultures.
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Sometimes, culture is so intertwined with our feelings that there is a fine line between subjectivity and objectivity. As a teacher, you must be aware of your cultural lens – your learned attitudes as well as learned feelings – about the microcultures to which some of your students may belong.

Your cultural lens is made up of attitudes and opinions and feelings. Your attitudes and opinions are essentially judgments that you may pass from your cultural perspective about the rightness or wrongness of things. Attitudes and opinions are explainable. You can intellectually reason and rationally explain why you believe something is right or wrong, moral or immoral, good or bad. Attitudes and opinions are learned in the socialization process, and may even be so strong that are perceived as feelings. Feelings, however, are different. Your feelings emerge quickly and may be harder for you to explain or understand than your attitudes. There may be some attitudes, opinions and feelings you want to change, or you may be completely comfortable as you are. Either way, in a multicultural teaching environment, you must be keenly aware of your culture, and the cultural lens through which you consciously and/or unconsciously view your students.

In this assignment, reflect on your own cultural lens and think critically about your attitudes and feelings about certain microcultures. Your cultural lens is how you view the rest of the world from the vantage point of your own culture. It is your learned and socially shared set of attitudes, opinions and feelings about other microcultures. You will also assess the Educational Impact (positive or negative) of your feelings and attitudes.

Instructions:

Using the list of microcultures below, respond to the following questions for five (5) microcultures that are listed:

  1. Indicate your personal feelings. Remember that feelings cannot be right or wrong – they are only feelings. List the first three “feeling words” (not adjectives to describe the microculture) that come to mind. How does it make you feel when you think about that microculture? Do not describe how you think members of that microculture feels or should feel. If you are not sure if a word is a “feeling word,” try it in the sentence, “I feel ______.” For example, you may feel sad or frustrated or angry or empathetic when you think about poor people because…….
  2. Indicate your attitudes and opinions about the microculture. Remember, attitudes and opinions are reasoned, intellectual positions. If asked, you could rationally explain and defend (though others may disagree) your position without describing your feelings. If you are not sure if a word is a “thinking word,” try it in the sentence, “I think ________.” For example, you may think that rich people are snobby or shallow or high achievers or intelligent because…….
  3. Reflect on where your feelings, attitudes and opinions come from. What are the sources of your cultural lens? What socialization forces in your life contribute to your cultural lens? Church, media, friends, family, personal experiences, personal observations?
  4. Reflect on how you think your cultural lens could impact your students. How could your feelings and attitudes about this microculture impact your classroom positively or negatively?
  5. Finally, reflect on your comfort level with you own cultural lens, and how it views other microcultures. Do you think that you need to change some aspect of your cultural lens to be an effective teacher? If you think you need to change, indicate the first three things (be specific) that you could do to begin the process of effecting change.

Microculture List – Choose 5 groups of which you are not a member.

  • Rich people
  • Poor people
  • White people
  • Native American people
  • Asians
  • Persons who participate in the New Age movement (Wicca, Paganism, Earth-based spirituality)
  • Homosexual women
  • Illegal Immigrants
  • Legal immigrants
  • Persons residing in the U.S. who do not speak English
  • Jews
  • Catholics

This assignment should be a minimum of 3-5 double-spaced pages in length, with no more than a one-inch margin, and 10 or 12 pt. font.

 

 

101) Choose two questions to respond to thoroughly and then respond to two of your classmates.

  1. How did the oil crises of the 1970's contribute to changes in LAtin America's economic strategies?
  2. Why were Latin American development programs so often linked to dictatorial regimes?
  3. What was the significance of liberation theology and changes within the Catholic Church?
  4. What were the new social movements, and what impact did they have on new democracies?

I will send the password of ebook by message.

 

102) Choose two questions to respond to thoroughly and then respond to two of your classmates.

  1. How did the oil crises of the 1970's contribute to changes in LAtin America's economic strategies?
  2. Why were Latin American development programs so often linked to dictatorial regimes?
  3. What was the significance of liberation theology and changes within the Catholic Church?
  4. What were the new social movements, and what impact did they have on new democracies?

I will send the password of ebook by message.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

103) Personal Crimes Analysis For this assignment, you will create an analysis regarding personal crimes using one of the three assignment options. Option 1: Personal Crimes Analysis Presentation Submit your personal crimes analysis using Microsoft® PowerPoint® or another pre-approved presentation tool.Create a 10- to 15-slide presentation that includes a reference slide with at least four references cited throughout the presentation. Include the following:  Differentiate between assault, battery, and mayhem.Identify and explain kidnapping and false imprisonment.Compare and contrast between rape and statutory rape.Choose two states and compare the definitions and punishment for these crimes.  Include appropriate photos, short videos, or headlines, as needed, to represent your analysis.Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.

 

104) I want to answer theses 11 questions from this lecture that is uploaded in this website:

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bRS152iNglE

 

Please, do not try to answer them from another sources. You will find all of the answers when listen to the licture that is about 36 minutes

 

 

 

Here are the questions:

 

  1. Why did the Jews need their own country?

 

  1. What role did American President Harry S. Truman play?

 

  1. How did Zionists groups respond to the growing crisis for the Jews?

 

  1. How did the British react to Zionist activities and President Truman’s pressures?

 

  1. What was the United Nations?

 

  1. How did the United Nations get involved in the crisis over Palestine?

 

  1. What happened when the Jews in Palestine declared the creation of a State of Israel on 14 May 1948?

 

  1. What patterns emerged after the Israeli War of Independence?

 

  1. What is the legacy of older forms of antisemitism today?

 

  1. What new forms of antisemitism exist today?

 

  1. How does the legacy of the Hebrew religion and antisemitism remain integral to how we understand ourselves in the US, Europe and the Middle East?

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106) Create and video a role-play activity that demonstrates two of the following leadership styles: 1. Trait; 2. Style; 3. Situational; 4. Transformational. The following scenario may provide you with some ideas for a role-play activity: A reading in the approved, state adopted 3rd grade language arts book is a poem which is a rhyming witches’ spell. A group of parents decide to picket the school. How will leaders (principal and superintendent) with different styles manage this situation?

 

107) “Community Efforts and Managing Public Relations” Please respond to the following: businessess enhance their reputation and build trust when they address community needs in a positive way. Give an example of your favorite company that addresses community needs, and specify the main reasons the company’s actions and CSR programs are important to you. Determine the primary manner in which the company’s image affects your buying decision as a consumer.

108) You will present a powerpoint presentation utilizing 7 to 8 slides and taking at least 7 to 10 minutes, describing your Cold War topic to the class. Your powerpoint will define what the event was, key people and dates involved, and how it affected the Cold War.Resources: Moving On, MySearchLab

Complete the Cold War 1945-1990 presentation using Microsoft® PowerPoint® software or another multimedia tool, such as Prezi. The main presentation must include 7 to 8 slides that do the following:

  • Provide an overview of the event/s assigned.
  • Summarize how  your event was a key aspect of the the Cold War.
  • Include all key events, persons and concepts germane to your topic.

Incorporate maps, images, and video from MySearchLab and from outside sources.

Use two sources other than your textbook and include speaker notes with the presentation slides.

Create a title page, an introduction slide, references slide, and a visual template to use on each slide throughout the presentation. The title, introduction, and references slides do not count towards the 4 to 5 slide requirement.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

 

109) You will present a powerpoint presentation utilizing 7 to 8 slides and taking at least 7 to 10 minutes, describing your Cold War topic to the class. Your powerpoint will define what the event was, key people and dates involved, and how it affected the Cold War.Resources: Moving On, MySearchLab

Complete the Cold War 1945-1990 presentation using Microsoft® PowerPoint® software or another multimedia tool, such as Prezi. The main presentation must include 7 to 8 slides that do the following:

  • Provide an overview of the event/s assigned.
  • Summarize how  your event was a key aspect of the the Cold War.
  • Include all key events, persons and concepts germane to your topic.

Incorporate maps, images, and video from MySearchLab and from outside sources.

Use two sources other than your textbook and include speaker notes with the presentation slides.

Create a title page, an introduction slide, references slide, and a visual template to use on each slide throughout the presentation. The title, introduction, and references slides do not count towards the 4 to 5 slide requirement.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

 

110) Consider security planning policies, procedures, and models to include multilevel and cryptographic processes.

Create an 8- to 10-slide presentation of how policies are used to implement a security plan.

APA format with in-text citation.

No references or resources from 2013 or below ( lastest resources)

Speaker notes must be included so that the actual slides not overpowered by words and pictures would be nice.

Details must be specific and not vague… this very important

Include the following:

  • Description of security planning policies.
  • Description of how human resources security is included in security planning.
  • Description of risk assessment and mitigation strategies related to security controls and safeguards
  • Description of how cryptographic tools may be included in security planning.
  • Application of security planning policies to manage security.

 

 

111) Choose an individual in your life you are familiar with; for example, a parent, a sibling, a friend or classmate, a member of your extended family (cousin, uncle, etc.). Compare and/or contrast your development with the individual you have chosen using ONE of the theories discussed in class (e.g. Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, Kohlberg’s or Gilligan’s theory of moral development, Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs, Bandura, Cooley or Bronfenbrenner.). Using the theory you have chosen, describe the similarities and differences between yourself and the individual you have chosen. Conclude with your understanding of how your chosen theory explains the similarities or differences you have just described.

** Please have a PowerPoint or Keynote presentation with 5-10 slides. Your presentation should be between 3-5 minutes long in length. Use APA style. need formal outline”

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112) a 2- to 4-page paper in which you review the approach taken by the social worker in Brandon’s case. Identify how the social worker might have used the ecological model to understand Brandon’s situation based on a person-in-environment perspective. Explain the use of the ecological model in this case on micro, mezzo, and macro levels. Describe strengths the social worker may have missed in assessing Brandon and his mother. Review the challenges that the social worker identifies and explain the impact the abuse could have had on Brandon had his strengths not been identified and addressed. Please use the Learning Resources to support your answer.

Physical, emotional, and sexual abuse can have a devastating impact on a child and his or her family members. Social workers need to understand how to recognize and respond to cases of abuse expertly and efficiently. With an empathetic and helpful social worker, victims/survivors of abuse can take their first step onto the long road toward healing. For this Assignment, read the case study Working With Survivors of Sexual Abuse and Trauma: The Case of Brandon and then consider what you would do if you were a social worker and had to report a parent of suspected child abuse.

 

 

113) 5 Pages Approx 1500 Words.

MLA Format

 

Analysis of character, a scene, a theme. A similar them or opposite theme in August Wilson Drama fence and John Updike A & P story

Or

 

Compare the character of Mary Anne Bell in Tim O'Briens ” The sweetheart of the song Tra Bong” and a character in Wilson's drama ,fence.

 

 

114) What is an important challenge facing the financial management of organizations today regarding Risk management, and how would you go about addressing it? Explain.

 

Must be 300 words, and include Reference page

 

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115) The CFO will be giving the presentation introducing the new budget and the Latin America expansion. While she speaks, the stockholders will refer to the handouts of her presentation. Therefore, the presentation should be in logical sequence flowing from the previous year to the new year. It should indicate profits from last year and projected profits as well as the cost of expansion.

  1. Create a Power Point presentation of at least 7 slides with an appropriate background.
  2. The opening slide should have the PEI logo (you created for the newsletter), title of the event, the CFO’s name, and the date of the presentation.
  3. The presentation should include charts and tables as well as bullet points explaining the profits from last year and expectations for new fiscal year.
  4. Number the slides.
  5. Use appropriate artwork as an emphasis.
  6. Name the file – CFO Presentation

 

 

116) Choose a case study from the Associate Program Material: Final Project Case Studies. Develop an 8- to 12-slide Microsoft PowerPoint presentation, in which you: Include an introduction and conclusion Identify the case study you have chosen. Define the elements of good interpersonal communication. Explain what happened in the case study and why it is an example of poor interpersonal communication. Include the following: Perceptions of the participants The conflict type and conflict management styles Listening barriers Supportive and defensive climates and relationships Verbal and nonverbal communication Explain what could have been done differently in your case study. This must align to the elements of effective interpersonal communication. List major points in the slides. Include detailed explanations that correlate to each point in the speaker notes section. Include videos, audio, photos, diagrams, or graphs as appropriate. Include at least two references. At least one reference MUST be from your text. Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines. Submit the Microsoft PowerPoint presentation assignment. These are the case studies. Associate Level MaterialFinal Project Case Studies

Case Study One Pat and Chris are medical billing specialists who have been in the same department for 2 years. They are both well qualified and do a good job. They have always been competitive, each believing that they are the biggest contributors to team success. There is also an ongoing problem between them based on political views. During a team meeting 2 weeks ago, they had an argument after the state’s new gun control law was mentioned. Pat leaned back in his chair, crossed his arms, and loudly stated, “The government should keep its hands off my rights,” and, “Anyone who thinks that gun control is a good idea is ignorant.” Chris immediately leaned forward, pointing his finger at Pat and sternly told him that he did not know what he was talking about: guns cause hundreds of unnecessary injuries and deaths every year because the public has access to them. Their manager calmed things down and finished the meeting, but now Pat and Chris are avoiding each other whenever possible and not sharing important work-related information with each other. When the two are forced to interact, they find ways to subtly make verbal attacks at one another. The tension between them has spread, the entire team feels stressed because of the situation, and production has slowed.
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Case Study Two

Agnes is a new medical assistant in a large primary care practice. At the end of the day, she was in the waiting room straightening up when the office manager, Jaime, entered the room and seemed to be checking up on Agnes’s work. Jaime picked up a stack of a local health newsletters and frowned. “What are these doing here, Agnes?” Agnes took a step back and quietly said, “I’m not sure,” keeping her eyes toward the floor. Jaime stepped toward Agnes, shaking the newsletters as he said, “Look Agnes, you don’t get to decide what the patients get to see. That’s Dr. Ruiz’s job.” At this point, Dr. Ruiz walked through the waiting room, smiled, and said, “Oh sorry, I put them out there as a resource for patients. Have a good evening!” Dr. Ruiz then walked out. Under his breath, Jaime muttered, “Who does he think he is?” and tossed the newsletters back on the table. Agnes looked at Jaime and an irritated voice said, “I guess you can leave them out then,” and shrugged as he walked out of the room. Agnes took a deep breath and straightened the newsletters.

Case Study Three
Darnell and Janine work for a large lab company in an appointment office. They have worked in the same office for 2 years. Darnell needed a patient file to prepare materials for a blood draw, and the file was not in the back. He walked up to the front desk, irritated that once again he had to track down a file that Janine was supposed to have filed. When Darnell arrived at the front desk, he saw a woman waiting to be checked in for lab work and Janine talking on her cell phone with her back to the waiting room. As soon as the woman saw Darnell, she waved at him and said, “Excuse me, sir, I’ve been waiting here for a couple of minutes, and I’m not feeling well. Could you check me in?” Darnell smiled and checked her in, asking her to have a seat in the waiting room and telling her that he would make sure she was not waiting any longer than necessary. During this patient encounter, Janine turned and gestured that she would be just another minute. Another person stepped up to the counter, holding lab orders and an insurance card. Darnell started checking this person in, too. While photocopying the insurance card, Darnell whispered, “Janine, get off of the phone. I have my own job to do.” Janine frowned, put her hand over the phone, and said, “I’m on the phone with my kids!

 

 

117) Select a family whose members are experiencing difficulty due to loss, life stressors and/or change. Write a paper that examined the case situation from a family developmental-system perspective. What changes are needed in the family and why? Why are these changes so difficult? What role(s) do family myths, rituals, and rites of passage (or lack thereof) play in the family situation? How are maturational tasks, both fulfilled and unfilled, related to family member problems in coping? How does the family's life stage, life style and cultural context impact family members’ coping and adaptation, and attempts to move on? What theoretical frameworks guide your approach to this case? How does it guide your approach to the case? Use the helping process to present your case and develop a contract between you and the family on the goals to be met. Include a genogram and ecomap for this family. Discuss the six core social work values and ethical principles of NASW Code of Ethics. Include in your summary how the five content areas of your MSW degree contributes to your knowledge and skills for providing services to this family.

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The following criteria will be used in evaluating your written assignments.
1. Adherence to instructions and originality
2. Commitment to social work values and ethics.
3. Completeness, comprehensiveness, detail, clarity and readability.
4. Organization and style.
5. Adequate documentation.
6. Technical requirement (length, typed, APA guidelines (be careful no plagiarism).
7. Integration of course work (reading assignments), self- reflection, and critical
thinking.

10. No fewer than ten references within the last five years.

these resources will help you

use a family theory and here some recources to help you also i need around 150 word as a summry but do it later after professor see the papers

Session II: January 28, 2015
Review of Generalist Practice and application of the Generalist Intervention Model (GIM) Review of Generalist Practice working at Micro, Mezzo and Macro levels of Practice; motivational interviewing; Discussion of social work values; resolution of ethical dilemmas.
Required Readings: Kirst-Ashman & Hull Chapters 1, 2 & 11 Walsh Chapter 11
Engagement and assessment in generalist practice; culturally competent social work practice; diversity in the United States; barriers to culturally competent social work; integrating cultural competence in the generalist intervention model (GIM); strategies for cultural competence; general intervention principles; gender sensitive social work practice; discussion of field issues.
Kirst-Ashman & Hull Chapters 5, 12 & 13
Session IV: February 11, 2015
Practice skills working with groups; discussion about theory and social work perspective on clinical theory and practice; discussion of field issues.
Required Readings: Kirst-Ashman & Hull Chapter 3 Walsh Chapters 1 & 2
Session V: February 18, 2015
Social work with group topics continued; ethical and professional guidelines for group leaders;
types of groups and stages of development ; group dynamics; group facilitator skills; discussion of field issues
Required Readings: Kirst-Ashman & Hull chapters 3 Walsh Chapters 3 & 4
Students are to select two articles within the last five years that specifically address interventions using groups (non therapeutic).
Session VI: February 25, 2015
Implementation and applications of the (GIM Model) with groups; engage in planning in mezzo practice; complexity of setting objectives in mezzo practice; planning for mezzo practice and working with group discussion of field issues.
: Kirst-Ashman & Hull Chapter 6 Walsh Chapter 6
Students are to select two articles using group work for specific conditions/issues (treatment oriented-therapeutic); discussion of field issues


Session VII: March 3, 2015, Day of Service
March 10, Spring Break!
Session VIII: March 18, 2015
Introduction to social work with families; using the Generalist Intervention Model (GIM) with families strategizing for family intervention; assessing and emphasize family strength; families communication patterns; cultural competency in working with families; macro practice and the integration of policy and practice; discussion of field issues.
Required Readings: Kirst-Ashman & Hull Chapters 9 & 10 Walsh Chapter 5
Session IX: March 25, 2015
Treatment approaches for working with families; structural family theory; structural family interventions social learning family intervention; discussion of field issues.
Required Readings: Walsh chapter 9
Aponte J. H (2009) Structural Family Interventions (pp. 117-127) & Horne M.A.
& Sayger V.T. (2009) Social Learning Family Interventions (pp.129-143) In Kilpatrick C. Allie & Holland P. Thomas .Working with Families: An Integrative Model by Level of Need. 5th edition. Boston: Pearson Education, Inc.
Assignment: Group proposal due 3/25/2015
Session X: April 1, 2015
Treatment approaches for working with families; psychodynamic theories II: object relation theory/ object relations family interventions; solution focused theory; solution focused family interventions; discussion of field issues.
Required Readings: Walsh Chapters 4 & 10
Koob,J.J. (2009) Solution-Focused Family Interventions (pp.147-169) &
Kilpatrick C., Trawick O.E., Object Relations Family Interventions (pp. 224- 245). In Kilpatrick C. Allie & Holland P. Thomas .Working with Families: An Integrative Model by Level of Need. 5th edition Boston: Pearson Education, Inc.
Session XI: April 8, 2015
Treatment approaches for working with families; narrative theory; narrative family interventions; discussion of field
Required Readings: Walsh chapter 12
Williams R. N. (2009) Narrative Family Interventions (pp. 199-223). In
Kilpatrick C. Allie & Holland P. Thomas .Working with Families: An Integrative Model by Level of Need. 5th edition Boston: Pearson Education, Inc.
Page 7 of 13

Macro Practice Skills Working with Organizations and Communities; discussion of field
: Kirst- Ashman & Hull Chapter 4
Session XIII: April 22, 2015
Evaluation, Termination and follow-up in generalist practice Presentations
: Kirst- Ashman & Hull Chapter 8

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118) This is an informal essay that is written in casual language. Expand upon it based on your own critical thinking skills, life experiences, personal opinions, and the class readings.

 

 

  1. Write a 2page essay On the seven intelligences described by Howard Gardner in “The Theory of Multiple Intelligences.” Format in MLA include at least one reference.

 

  1. Write a 2page essay: Plato’s “The Allegory of the Cave.” Format in MLA include at least one reference.

 

 

119) Using the Ashford University Library as a resource, find two articles that discuss financial ratio analysis. Identify two advantages and two disadvantages to using ratios in financial analysis. Be sure to cite your sources using APA format as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Guided Response:
Review at least two of your classmate’s posts. Respond to at least two classmates by commenting on how the articles they found were similar or dissimilar from your own.  What can you add in regard their advantages and disadvantages?

Applying Ratios to a Business


Review the following Evaluating Business Performance: Small Business Case Studies video:

The video focuses on profitability, liquidity, efficiency, and stability of business. Given what you have learned about ratio analysis, choose one of the businesses from the video (Rose Chong Costumes, Anro’s Floor Maintenance, or John Osborne’s Gym and Squash Center) and identify two ratios that would be helpful for the owner of the business to monitor. Be sure to explain what the ratio would tell the owner, and how it can be improved for the business.

Guided Response:  Review several of your classmates’ posts.  Respond to at least two classmates who have chosen a different business owner and explain whether you would have identified the same ratios as your classmate. What other ratios may be helpful? Do you agree or disagree with their use of the ratio? Explain.

 

 

120) Yezierska, Anzia. Bread Givers. (New York: Persea Books, 1925). ISBN: 0-89255-014-7.

 

  1. Analyze two different and general hardships the Smolinsky family encountered as immigrants.
    (Explain why Smolinsky’s troubles were problems arising from their immigrant experiences rather than family experiences. Use your textbook to understand how white, working-class American experiences and immigrant experiences differ. For example, state a general hardship the Smolinsky family experienced, provide a couple examples relevant to that particular hardship, and explain how a typical working-class, white American would experience it in a different way. I do not want a list of family hardships. Be clear and specific in your explanations. Do some analysis!
  2. Explain two different and general obstacles that Sara encountered in her struggle for personal independence and self-fulfillment. Explain how she overcame them.
    (I do not want a list of Sara's experiences. For example, state your general idea and provide a couple examples relevant to your idea. If you just provide examples without stating your point, I will not be able to understand what point you are trying to make. Be clear and specific in your explanations. Do some analysis!

 

121) Create a power point

Topic: Sumatran Elephant -Endangered Animals

 

Create 5 Slides

Explain how human activities may have affected the species.

List a minimum of four references on the last slide according to the guidelines APA format.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

122) Part 1 – Overview of Organization/Problem

In a 2 page paper:

a. Provide an overview of your chosen organization and the problem/issue that challenges that organization.
b. Detail how the problem/issue affects (or can affect) the future viability of the organization.
c. Finally, discuss the principle role of human resources in an organization and how human resources can provide critical advice and counsel to the organization in addressing this challenge.

 

123) Appreciation Gallery: Gallery Piece Descriptions For Unit III of the Art Appreciation Gallery presentation, you will be adding a description of the time period of your theme to your PowerPoint presentation. Begin with the PowerPoint presentation that you started in Unit II. Be sure to review your Unit II feedback and make any necessary revisions. Next, research the background and details of the theme using your textbook, the course content, and/or the Internet. For this segment, use the slides in the presentation template labeled “Background.” A minimum of three PowerPoint slides are required; however, you are welcome to add as many as you feel you need. You may include more than one idea on each slide, but please do not overload the slides with information. Be sure to address the following:

Describe the time period of your selected theme.·

Include facts that relate back to your selected art pieces from Unit II. For example, if you choose an artwork depicting a war, it may be helpful to give information about that war.·

Use APA style for citations and references.·

 

Please submit your full presentation thus far, which should include the previous updated segment and the segment for this unit.·

 

 

124) Write an annotated bibliography for five sources related to a theme of your choice in the novel The Alchemist. Consider a theme that you can identify with, find a range of 5 sources (book, article, document, etc) that fit with your chosen theme, and write according to the APA template

 

125) Guided Response: Review several of your classmates’ posts and respond to at least two of them. Provide feedback in terms of the strategies that they identified and why they thought they were effective. Share any other suggestions that you have for how Mrs. Whitcomb can scaffold Carmella’s learning.

 

  • What aspects of this lesson did Mrs. Whitcomb think would be more difficult for Carmella than for her English proficient classmates and why?

Mrs. Whitcomb felt that that reading would be where Carmella would have the most difficulty with.

  • How did Mrs. Whitcomb provide differentiated instruction for Carmella? What strategies did she use to make the language of the lesson more comprehensible for Carmella?

She was able to use visual strategies to teach Carmella what certain words meant as well as classroom participation.

  • Do you think that the strategies that Mrs. Whitcomb used would be effective for scaffolding Carmella’s language development and understanding of the content? Why or why not?

I believe this will help her in developing and understanding content a lot easier instead of just reading words in a book, with no real understanding. At least with the visuals used on the board she will be able to understand what is being taught and read to her. As well as what she is reading she will be able to identify certain words with the visuals she has learned.

  • What suggestions do you have for Mrs. Whitcomb about other strategies that she might use in this lesson?

As of right now I’d tell her to continue with the great work in ensuring all her ELL students and non-ELL students learn at the same pace, and that her strategy is working to keep pushing forward with it.

 

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online ?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – Homework Nest. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions Business Case Studies and Report Writing Assignments Online at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

 

126) Assignment 1: Paper on Paradigm Shift: Religion, Spirituality, Science, and CAM (2–3 pages) Religion and/or culture clearly affect one’s perception of health and/or healthcare. Give three specific examples to show how religion or culture influences one’s healthcare choices. Explain each one and identify ways to address these issues.

 

I reside in Orlando Florida
Assignment 2: Research: Examples of CAM  What are examples of CAM, and which ones are available in your community? In your report, discuss how you obtained the information. If you used a website, what is the link? If you spoke with someone, what is the person’s name and agency affiliation?

 

Please Provide References for EACH tHANK U

 

129) The Importance of Multiculturalism

1.Use this Discussion to practice for the Assignment.

Why is understanding the ethnicity, customs, way of life, traditions, and mores of a specific society (multiculturalism) important to today’s health and wellness professional?  Initial Discussion responses should be around 150 words.

 

 

I am located in Orlando Florida

2.Patient Information and Community Resources

It is important to keep a list of community referral resources in your medical office. Research and list three community referral resources in your area (resources such as support groups, education, interpreter services, therapy, community health and social services, financial resources, etc.). Provide as much information as you can find (name, address, phone, website, contact, hours of service, etc.). Choose one and discuss the value that this service provides to your patients.

Discussion responses should be on topic, original, and contribute to the quality of the discussion by making frequent informed references to lesson materials and seminars. Initial Discussion responses should be around 100 words.

 

 

130) Minimum words:   1500).   You will write an argumentative, documented research paper on a current, controversial topic   using the classical   pattern of argument and MLA format.   You must have at least five sources for your paper, MLA heading and page numbers, and in text citations. Two of your sources must come from the Cannon Memorial Library.

 

Here is the works cited

 

Works Cite

 

Douthit, Sandra Faye. “Assistant Principal Details Tactics for Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. The Western News, 14 Mar. 2012. Web. 4 Dec. 2015.

“EDITORIAL: Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. Baker City Herald, 8 Feb. 2012. Web. 3 Dec. 2015.

Gill, Peter Edward, and Max Allan Stenlund. “Dealing with a Schoolyard Bully: A Case Study.” Journal of School Violence 4.4 (2005): 47-62. Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. Web. 4 Dec. 2015.

Weston, Alonzo. “Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. St. Joseph News-Press, 18 Nov. 2012. Web. 4 Dec. 2015.

Womer, Sarah. “Middle School Has Plans for Dealing with Bullies.” Newspaper Source Plus [EBSCO]. The Sun, 28 Oct. 2013.

 

 

131) A 5 minute presentation on a topic of your choice. Must have a powerpoint visual aid of 1 title slide, 12 body slides, 1 sources slide.  TOPIC IS PEARL HARBOR

 

132) Guided Response: Review several of your classmates’ posts. Respond to two of your classmates, one who chose to pick three points that were different than the ones you chose and another classmate who shares similarities (one or more) in selection of the three ideas. Compare and contrast your thoughts behind you responses to those of your classmates. For instance if you had similarities but for different reason, talk about that. If you had differences because you didn’t even consider what your classmate considered, challenge your thinking by finding out the premise behind their reasoning. Finally, offer suggestions for improving cross-cultural communication skills.

 

The three points I choose to discuss are different communication styles, different approaches to knowing and different attitude towards Disclosure.

Different communication styles are used in different cultures. People have and speak different languages. Every language have a different meaning. Some people communicate using verbal and nonverbal communication. In my classroom with my ELL student I pay attention to their body language. If I look closely I could tell if they are bored or confused. In some cases my ELL student nod their head nod look at me and smile. In my culture I would considered that being rude. Based on their evaluation not being able to communicate properly it will be fine with me.

I am glad to know that they used their verbal communication to bring out their points but at times it sounds like they are shouting. I have come to realize that at times they speaking loud assist them in knowing their vocabulary. In social settings, I have gotten them to calm down by using signs or speaking to them in a soft tone. In some cases I would us shorter sentences that they will have no problem repeating. Also I will ensure my body expression is positive and not negative to them thus causing confusion and them getting the wrong ideas.

Different approaches to knowing:

Different cultures embraced the way they know things. ELL students are eager to know things but some are still bent in their culture. As a teacher I find myself doing and researching information to know things. For example, I am researching governments I used all the resources library, internet or other technology. At the same time I still venture out to find a government official that can give me more vital information. Ell students can be taught different things by exposing them to the resources available to help them. In my class I have find using pictures, TV and videos have helped them to identify and have a better understanding of things in lessons like science and social –studies.

In a social settings I would introduced them to knowing tings by getting them to identify and become familiar with their environment. On field trips they will see and observed things and begin to ask questions. They should be able to generate ideas and come to their own conclusion by just knowing and using their brain.

Different attitude to Disclosure

I have find that most of my ELL students were afraid to speak to me when they were first in my class. One day during introduction time some of them were shy and those who knew English spoke a little. One student said to me my mum said do not say too much. At first it was challenging but I manage to get over the situation. I spoke to the parent they were at first reluctant to share information. Once I engage in conversation they open up more and believe it assisted me in dealing with the child more. Most ELL student feel a sense of fear or they will be laugh at if they disclose certain information.

In my classroom I welcome the idea of speaking and not being ridicule by any student. This helps them and as a teacher disclosure of information leads you to create lessons that will help the child. I never jump to conclusions but sit and analyze the information and create resources that makes it better. In social settings I try to emphasis do not speak to anyone but someone that can relate to you. If a conflict arises find people that will guide you through the conflict.

If we adhere and study these different approaches we will enhance our Ell student learning capabilities and they will reach their potentials.

 

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133) Provide 3 examples of how you would measure growth in the sports marketing industry. What evidence do you have that the number of people participating in sports is growing? Use the Internet to find census data for how this might change 10 years from now. Respond to at least two of your classmates’ postings.

 

136) Provide 3 examples of how you would measure growth in the sports marketing industry. What evidence do you have that the number of people participating in sports is growing? Use the Internet to find census data for how this might change 10 years from now. Respond to at least two of your classmates’ postings.

 

137) The following paper needs to be 1,100 words.

Discuss the functionalist, conflict, and symbolic interactionist perspectives on urbanization and the growth of cities.

Some Notes

Perspectives on Urbanization and the Growth of Cities

Urban sociology follows in the tradition of early European sociological perspectives that compared social life with biological organisms or ecological processes. For example, Auguste Comte pointed out that cities are the “real organs” that make a society function. Emile Durkheim applied natural ecology to his analysis of mechanical solidarity, characterized by a simple division of labor and shared religious beliefs such as are found in small, agrarian societies, andorganic solidarity, characterized by interdependence based on the elaborate division of labor found in large, urban societies. These early analyses became the foundation for ecological models/functionalist perspectives in urban sociology.

Functionalistsexamine the interrelations among the parts that make up the whole; therefore, in studying the growth of cities, they emphasize the life cycle of urban growth. Like the social philosophers and sociologists before him, the University of Chicago sociologist Robert Park (1915) based his analysis of the city onhuman ecology—the study of the relationship between people and their physical environment. According to Park (1936), economic competition produces certain regularities in land-use patterns and population distributions. Applying Park’s idea to the study of urban land-use patterns, the sociologist Ernest W. Burgess (1925) developed the concentric zone model, an ideal construct that attempts to explain why some cities expand radially from a central business core.

Conflict theorists argue that cities do not grow or decline by chance. Rather, they are the product of specific decisions made by members of the capitalist class and political elites. These far-reaching decisions regarding land use and urban development benefit the members of some groups at the expense of others (see Castells, 1977/1972). Karl Marx suggested that cities are the arenas in which the intertwined processes of class conflict and capital accumulation take place; class consciousness and worker revolt are more likely to develop when workers are concentrated in urban areas.

Symbolic interactionists examine the experience of urban life. How does city life affect the people who live in a city? Some analysts answer this question positively; others are cynical about the effects of urban living on the individual.

 

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138) Identify the main points that will comprise your argument and start arranging these ideas into a coherent narrative. These should include what your offence is, a bit of context about its prevalence in Australia, what theory you will be discussing, and how it relates to your chosen offence. All of these points should be relevant to the thesis statement. Step 5: Create topic sentences Use your main points to write a series of 6–8 topic sentences. Topic sentences are statements of the main ideas that you intend to explain in your essay. They are the claims that support your argument, and usually are used as the opening sentence in each paragraph. The purpose of the remainder of the paragraph is to back up and elaborate on the topic sentence. Here are some example topic sentences: • ‘Car theft results in significant costs to the Australian public’. • ‘Certain communities are more vulnerable to car theft than others’. • ‘Explaining car theft requires an understanding of structural theories of crime’. • ‘Unemployment has a strong influence on rates of car theft’. • ‘Strain theory is better than other theories for a variety of reasons’.

 

139) -What are the characteristics of phone interactions. How do they differ from normal interactions?-How does occur turn-taking, (overlapping, gaps), according to Hutcby, Schegloff and Sacks in phone conversation?
-What are the main causes of misunderstandings in phone calls?

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140) Analysis Assignment: Putting Things Together

The principles of unity and variety apply to all music, regardless of compositional style or historical period.

Now that you are familiar with the concepts in the first section of the course (Basic Musical Concepts), and you have seen how they work on different pieces of music, try your hand, mouse, and ears at how they operate in a music selection that you may not have heard yet.

To do this, I will ask you to look at the piece below.

DO NOT SUBMIT A LIST (Nobody likes to read lists). Instead, take the time to write an engaging, well-written response that covers the points listed below.

Assignment #3 Audio

Your analysis should include:

  • The number of different musical ideas in the piece (for example, can we say that there are two ideas A and B? Or is there only one?)
    • For major sections, are there any significant subdivisions?
  • The timings (start and stop times) of the different sections of the piece. (Hint: Listen for changes in musical ideas and timbre, for example, points when different instruments come in or give way to others.)
  • The question of unity is particularly important in this piece. There is a great variety of melody presented here, raising the question: what holds the piece together?
  • How unity and variety are exemplified in those sections through the use of:
    • Dynamics
    • Timbre
    • Pitch
  • Although there are sections that feature one instrument over others, whether you think this is a piece for a solo performer or for an ensemble.
  • Is there any improvisation in this piece? Or is it entirely improvised? In either case, how can you tell? And how does this determination affect your identification of the style?
  • A list of the characteristics of the musical style closest to the one this piece exemplifies. (Hint: Look at the last lecture in the first section of the course)
    • Define any characteristics that you list and, most importantly, identify specific instances of the use of these characteristics in the piece itself, including timings and details.
  • Whether you think this piece serves (or could serve) a specific purpose.
  • Whether or not it has any specific connotation(s) for you.

The Assignment audio is”Ma Ha De Carnival”

link to audio
Assignment is For Music Appreciation

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141)

Imagine you were conducting this case study (collecting baseline data as part of a behavioural assessment) as part of your professional practice of applied behaviour analysis. Describe three things that you would do as part of the assessment and intervention process to ensure that you were in compliance with the BACBs Professional and Ethical Conduct Code for Behavior Analysts. Think about issues related to behavior assessment, interdisciplinary collaboration, informed consent, explaining results, treatment efficacy, documenting work, maintaining confidentiality, individualizing behaviour change programs, approving behaviour change programs, least restrictive procedures, avoiding harmful reinforcers, etc. (~500 words).

 

142) Please provide an 800-1000 word analysis if the pdf. Must set forth the pdf thesis, mode of argumentation, ethical theories applied, and provide a critique, applying your technical knowledge if any, and theories and perspectives from the coursework. Format: Standard essay, with coherent paragraphs. No need for APA format. Set out the most important points of the reading. Provide a critique: what do you agree with, disagree with, think is important or unimportant? Explain why: do not just give opinions. Support at least one point with an example from your personal life, academic knowledge, or the news

 

144) a phenomenon that one acclaimed historian has called “The Contagion of Liberty.” What do you think this means? What do these readings tell us about it? Do you think this general “Contagion” has spread since 1776 and is still spreading today?

 

145) The following paper needs to be 1,100 words.
Analyze the legitimacy of Kingsley Davis and Wilbert Moore’s functionalist perspective on social inequality in the United States and its impact on the American Dream.

 

146) The principles of unity and variety apply to all music, regardless of compositional style or historical period.

Now that you are familiar with the concepts in the first section of the course (Basic Musical Concepts), and you have seen how they work on different pieces of music, try your hand, mouse, and ears at how they operate in a music selection that you may not have heard yet.

To do this, I will ask you to look at the piece below.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BGLTWP0BruQMA HA DE CARNAVAL

Your analysis should include:

  • The number of different musical ideas in the piece (for example, can we say that there are two ideas A and B? Or is there only one?)
    • For major sections, are there any significant subdivisions?
  • The timings (start and stop times) of the different sections of the piece. (Hint: Listen for changes in musical ideas and timbre, for example, points when different instruments come in or give way to others.)
  • The question of unity is particularly important in this piece. There is a great variety of melody presented here, raising the question: what holds the piece together?
  • How unity and variety are exemplified in those sections through the use of:
    • Dynamics
    • Timbre
    • Pitch
  • Although there are sections that feature one instrument over others, whether you think this is a piece for a solo performer or for an ensemble.
  • Is there any improvisation in this piece? Or is it entirely improvised? In either case, how can you tell? And how does this determination affect your identification of the style?
  • A list of the characteristics of the musical style closest to the one this piece exemplifies. (Hint: Look at the last lecture in the first section of the course)
    • Define any characteristics that you list and, most importantly, identify specific instances of the use of these characteristics in the piece itself, including timings and details.
  • Whether you think this piece serves (or could serve) a specific purpose.
  • Whether or not it has any specific connotation(s) for you.

 

147) An essay on ethical theories of drugs legalization.
What are the most common positions and what is the compromise that can be achieved to reduce crime rates and fear of arrest who believe that they have every right to decide for themselves what to do with their body.
2 pages for a second year university student

 

148) Support activities in the value chain that involve innovative product design and programs to attract highly talented engineers and scientists characterize what generic strategy? A. Stuck-in-the middle B. Overall cost leadership C. Focused differentiation D. Differentiation

 

149) ASR100 Essay 1: Topics and Readings
Below you will find the topics for your essay for ASR100 World Religions. You will also find a suggested list of readings for each topic.
Choose one topic, and write a 1,500 word essay on this topic and upload it in the CloudDeakin Essay 1 assignment dropbox by Monday 6 January 2020 (11.59pm).
It is important to submit your work on time as late essays will be penalized and under University regulations we cannot accept work after 5 days past the due date.
Please note the suggested readings listed under each topic – it is a good idea to consult these readings as they will help you to frame your approach and give you support for your arguments. There are a few of these readings that are essential or prescribed. These are marked so please make sure you consult them.
All the readings listed below are available for download from the links in the reading list below this document.
Topic 1
Describe the Hindu doctrine of karma and discuss whether or not you think it offers a plausible or rationally defensible explanation and/or justification for human suffering.
Readings
John Hick, Death and Eternal Life (Glasgow: Collins, 1976), ch. 16.
John Hick, Philosophy of Religion 4th ed. (Englewood Cliffs: Prentice-Hall, 1990), chs 11, 16 and 18.
Whitley Kaufman, “Karma, Rebirth, and the Problem of Evil”, Philosophy East and West 55 (2005): 15-32.(ESSENTIAL/PRESCRIBED)
Nick Trakakis and Monima Chadha, “Karma and the Problem of Evil: A Response to Kaufman”, Philosophy East & West 57 (2007): 533-56.(ESSENTIAL/PRESCRIBED)
Whitley Kaufman, “Karma, Rebirth, and the Problem of Evil: A Reply to Critics,” Philosophy East & West 57 (2007): 556-60.(ESSENTIAL/ PRESCRIBED)
Gary E. Kessler, Studying Religion: An Introduction Through Cases, 3rd edition (Boston: McGraw-Hill, 2008), ch. 8.
Michael Peterson, William Hasker, Bruce Reichenbach, and David Basinger, Reason and Religious Belief: An Introduction to the Philosophy of Religion, 4th edition (New York: Oxford University Press, 2009), ch. 8.
James C. Livingston, Anatomy of the Sacred: An Introduction to Religion 2nd edition (Englewood Cliffs, NJ: Prentice Hall, 1993), ch. 10.
Roy Perrett, “Karma and the Problem of Suffering”, Sophia 24 (1985): 4-10. (ESSENTIAL/PRESCRIBED)
Topic 2
Critically compare the ultimate goal of yoga practice according to Patanjali and the ultimate goal in Buddhist practice. How do the steps of yoga practice in terms of the concepts of prakriti and purusha compare to the practice of the Eightfold Noble Path?
Readings
Georg Feuerstein, The Philosophy of Classical Yoga (Vermont: Inner Traditions, 1996), chapter IV: The Concept of Emancipation [in Yoga]. (ESSENTIAL/PRESCRIBED)
Ian Kesarcodi-Watson, Approaches to Personhood in Indian Thought (Delhi: Sri Satguru Publications, 1994), chapter 4: Patanjali – The heart of his approach.
Ian Whicher, The Integrity of the Yoga Darsana: A Reconsideration of Classical Yoga (Albany: SUNY, 1998), chapter 6: “Aloneness – Implications for an embodied freedom”. (ESSENTIAL/PRESCRIBED)

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Business Case Study Homework Help Canada

Write an essay describing the four nonroutine cognitive skills as set out by Robert Reich. For each skill, describe a business situation in which the ability to perform that skill is essential. Be sure to explain how each skill is applied and why it is important in the situation.

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If you worked in facebook. How specifically would you motivate your employees? Specify at least one management theory that you would use (from Chapter 8) and give at least two examples of how you would use this theory in managing the employees at this company.

 

Are some theories easier to use than others when constructing research questions?

 

153) Tata motors case analysis

Managing the whole company operations will need a very powerful package software. You are appointed as an operations manager and you are supposed to make recommendations on the best package software to be used by Tata motors. From the case study which system would you recommend and why. Support your answer with references.

 

  • 154) Share one or two specific examples of how you will use the concepts or strategies presented in this class to contribute to your academic and career success.
  • Which activities or assignments did you find most valuable in helping you recognize or develop skills you will use in the future?
  • What are the skills you would like to learn more about or continue to develop

 

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157) Reflect on the preschool environment. What items would you add to a 3 or 4 year old classroom to help make it culturally appropriate? What adaptations you might make in a preschool environment (indoors and outside) for a child in a wheelchair and a child who is blind. Reflect on what being “inclusive” means.

 

158) Read the case here: http://bi.galegroup.com/essentials/article/GALE%7CA487605779/3a0f34685a224203e1a4ada2308bd33a?u=tlearn_trl

This article discusses the results of the Guardian Life Insurance Company of America’s 2017 Absence Management Activity Index and Study. Please read the article, download the 2017 Guardian Absence Management Activity Index and Study (https://www.guardiananytime.com/gafd/wps/portal/fdhome/insights-perspectives/emerging-trends/absence-management-study-2017), and answer the following questions:

According to the 2017 Guardian Absence Management Activity Index and Study, if an organization decides to create an absence management program, what are the 5 Best Practices they should adopt? According to the report (See page 9), absence management practices vary by industry, such that companies in the finance, insurance, and education industries have more advanced absence management programs than those in retail, wholesale, and manufacturing. What is/are the reason(s) for this disparity?

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159) Read the case and then answer the following questions.

Surface tension
The tech giant
s decision to make its own tablet computer is a bold gamble

“WITHIN five years, I predict it will be the most popular form of PC sold in America.” When Bill Gates spoke at a trade show in 2002, the then chairman of Microsoft left nobody in doubt that what his firm called the “tablet PC” would one day take the world of personal computing by storm. His sense that an upheaval was coming was spot on, but his timing wasn’t. Only when Apple launched its wildly popular iPad in 2010 did computing tablets at last take off. Now Microsoft is scrambling to gain a foothold in one of the hottest markets in the IT industry.

On June 18th 2012, Microsoft unveiled Surface, a tablet that will bear Microsoft’s name and is supposed to be a showcase for its new Windows 8 operating system, due to be rolled out in the autumn. The new device will be available in two models: a basic version with a processor designed by ARM (which also powers the iPad) and a souped-up one with an Intel chip for business

users. Both models boast some innovative features, notably a built-in stand and a cover that doubles as a keyboard.

Microsoft’s decision to make its own tablet is another sign of how much the company is being buffeted by shifts that are transforming the world of IT. Just as momentous as the rise of social networking is the rapid growth of mobile computing (see Figure 1). This has softened sales of Windows-based PCs, the foundation of Microsoft’s fortunes. And it has boosted rivals such as Apple and Google, whose respective mobile operating systems, iOS and Android, power most smartphones and tablets.

A related threat to Microsoft’s business is the “consumerisation” of IT. Growing numbers of employees are now demanding to use their own phones and tablets at work. In many cases, companies are caving in. As a result, iPads and Android-based tablets are spreading rapidly through offices and factories – the heartland of Windows-based PCs.

Critics point out that Microsoft’s track record in hardware is mixed. Although it has produced hits such as the Xbox game console, it has also had some deeply embarrassing misses, including Zune, a portable music player that has failed to rival Apple’s iPod.

Microsoft entered into video games and game consoles in 2001. The launch of Xbox 360 in 2005 has proved extraordinary and also particularly interesting. The rationale behind its market entry into the video games industry comes with a good reason. It was designed primarily to keep their potential competitor, Sony, in check. Although Sony operated in a different industry, Microsoft recognized that Sony could emerge as its rival.

Microsoft’s Zune was launched in November 2006 and Microsoft believed that it could compete with the Apple iPod, which had been in the market since 2001 and dominated the multimedia player and music download business around the world. The Wall Street Journal reported that revenue from the Zune player was $85 million during the 2008 holiday season compared to $185 million in the same period in 2007. Apple’s iPod revenue during the last quarter of 2008 was $3.37 billion. Microsoft, which had access to as much hardware development expertise as any company in the world and the capital to support a massive marketing budget for new products, failed completely in its attempt to get a large part of the iPod market.

For the Surface, analysts worried that consumers may be confused by the two versions of the tablet, which will have very different price points. Microsoft has just indicated that the expensive model is likely to cost the same as thin laptops, which sells for around $1,000, whereas the cheaper version will be priced to compete with comparative ARM-based tablets, probably at around $500. Comparatively, the cheapest iPad with a high- resolution screen costs $499.

Another concern is that by making its own device, Microsoft risks alienating other firms that are working on Windows 8 tablets, such as Dell and HP. But the company’s main aim may be to show how its new operating system can best be used, thus setting a standard that other device makers will strive to exceed – and perhaps produce a Windows 8 iPad-killer.

If that is indeed the aim, Microsoft appears to have missed a key lesson from Apple. One reason why the iPad has been so successful is that it blends beautiful hardware with an amazing range of software. Microsoft has attractive assets, in particular Skype (an internet calling service), its alliance with Barnes & Noble (a big online bookseller) and its Xbox ecosystem. Yet other than the firm’s Office suite of productivity tools, none of these was shown at this week’s launch. “Microsoft has missed an opportunity to highlight things that can inspire people,” said Sarah Rotman Epps of Forrester, a research firm. Perhaps when its tablet hits the market later this year, the company will have found ways to bring more of these to the surface.

Microsoft has reaffirmed the strategy of having its own hardware devices recently. In September 2013, Microsoft agreed to acquire the handset business of Nokia for about US$ 7.2 billion. Thus, Microsoft will not only be making tablets but mobile phones as well. In a letter to all Microsoft employees, CEO Steve Ballmer, reiterated that “The form and delivery of our value will shift to devices and services versus packaged software.” In November, Microsoft launched the second generation of the tablets and an updated version of Windows. The device strategy is here to stay.

Unlike earlier ventures into devices, like the Zune music player and the game console Xbox, the motivation for getting into the hardware side of business in relation to mobile phones and tablets seems to be the strengthening of the Windows platform but the opening up of a new source of revenue is still in doubt.

 

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Question A :

Explain the differences between diversification and vertical integration strategies in relation to the scope of business.

Question B :

Would you classify the following strategic moves of Microsoft as diversification or vertical integration strategy? Why?
A) Launching of the portable music player Zune
B) Launching of the Xbox game console
C) Launching of the Surface tablet.

Question C :

What are the major potential benefits and risks of Microsoft’s strategic shift from selling ‘packaged software’ (i.e. Windows operating system) to launching ‘devices and services’ (i.e. tablets and mobile phones)?

 

 

160) Why look at art?

How would you explain the importance of looking at art? What skills does it develop? When you have come in contact with various types of art?

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161) Explain the theory of Scientific Management proposed by Frederick W. Taylor?Explain further the criticisms that were levied against this theory?

 

162)

  1. Evaluate the three parts of the message receiving process.
  2. Compare two common approaches to getting feedback, and explain why they do not work.
  3. In your opinion, can a leader maintain a personal friendship with some members of his/her work group or team without creating the perception of in-groups in his/her work unit? In your opinion, explain the impact of such a relationship to one of the stages of the dyadic theory.
  4. What should a leader do to dispel any notion or misconception that there are in-groups and out-groups in his/her work unit? Explain. Evaluate the two types of relationships under the vertical dyadic linkage model.
  5. What do you say to those who argue that tactics used by followers to get noticed by their leader (such as impression management, ingratiation, and self-promotion) are shameful and self-serving and should be avoided? Explain and offer your opinion of the link to developing high-quality LMX relationships.

 

163) Describe your reflection, after you watching the TED that is Who controls the world? by JAMES B. GLATTFELDER

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164)

When calculating the cheapest way to ship product to a central location from different capacity-limited locations elswhere, which calculation must you perform FIRST ?

D. Stepping Stones

Posting a numbered menu that offers only a limited selection of available foods is an example of productivity improvement by

Focus
Modularization
Self-service
Scheduling

One reason why it is important to make quantitative measurements and predictive forecasts:

Increase desampling, encryption, and transmission speeds
Reduce waste from the mis-use of scarce resources
Enforce implicit deny
Make it easier to subvert established means of data manipulation

A manager only has time to address the most important issues. Which of the following charts would prove most helpful to this manager ?

Pareto chart
Scatter diagram
Histogram
Exclusion chart

Which of the following interview techniques seeks to focus and then establish a consensus of the opinions of experts ?

Likert scale questionnaires
Delphi exchanges
Neural network modeling
Actor-Network Theory

The implementation of controls and documentation of management actions …

must not rely on third party frameworks, expert opinions, or externally validated best practices
must not be circumscribed by any legal authority
has to be auditable after-the-fact, with built-in traceability and non-repudiation
requires strict enforcement of mandatory access control

 

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165) What are some best practices for enhancing teamwork and workplace communication?

 

166) 1. Critical analysis of leadership theory and style maintains

**Select one or more:*
a. leadership should come from the ranks
b. leadership is most effective when there are contingent rewards and corrective coaching
c. leadership should be defined by the structure of the organization
d. leadership skills make a manager the most powerful entity

  1. Positive psychologists refer to positivity and success as a measure of

**Select one or more:
a. identifying and fixing problems
b. languishing and exceeding potentials
c. counterproductive behaviors and preventing them in the workplace
d. higher managerial performance, both in terms of decision making and interpersonal tasks

  1. Organizational change involves

**Select one or more:
a. behavior modification across the organization and leadership that scans for environmental resistance
b. learning capabilities across management teams and a survey of all stakeholders for support
c. behaviors that should be altered and aligned with current procedures
d. actions that are amended to provide shifts in the direction an organization to takes to implement improvement

 

 

169) Charlie operates a flower shop. He agrees to sell his business to his sister Ali for $45,000. They both use their own solicitors to negotiate the terms of a formal written agreement. The agreement contains a restriction that Charlie cannot,in thefollowing two years, open another flower shop within 2 kilometres of the onehe has just sold to Ali.

Aftersix months, however, Charlie opens another flower shopjustone kilometre away. Ali wants to sue Charlie forabreach of contract but fears the agreement was not intended to be legally binding because they are siblings.

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170) Explain the meaning of dualism and dual societies. Do you think that the concept of dualism adequately portrays the development picture in most developing countries? Explain your answer.

171) How far does the Dependency model relevant in explaining the current north-south development gap and it’s relations?

 

172) We all share common experiences that can be generally classified within the major themes of art. Examples of these themes include love, mortality, identity, truth, and beauty. The representation of these themes through various media reveals central beliefs shared by a common people. The comparison of objects from the humanities with similar themes helps to uncover not only the uniqueness of each respective cultural artifact but also a shared human consciousness that transcends time and place. Your project for this course has two parts.
In Project Part One, you will complete an exploration document examining two cultural artifacts that you select, identifying a theme common to both of them and developing a thesis statement related to the theme and artifacts. You will also identify an audience who would be interested in your artifacts, theme, and thesis statement.
in Project Part Two, you will develop a presentation for your audience. In your presentation, you will discuss the impact of the cultural artifacts, theme, and thesis statement on both individuals and society, supporting your claims with evidence. You will also explain how study of the humanities has impacted you both personally and professionally.
In Project Part Two, you will demonstrate your mastery of the following course outcomes: ? Illustrate the impact of the humanities on personal and professional experiences? Communicate effectively to specific audiences in examining fundamental aspects of human culture? Utilize evidence from subjective and objective cultural analysis in drawing conclusions about the impact of cultural artifacts on individuals and society Prompt Your presentation assignment should answer the following prompt: Based on your exploration document, create a presentation that explains how the humanities have impacted you both personally and professionally and discusses the impact of your theme on your audience. Specifically, the following critical elements must be addressed: I. Provide a brief overview of your artifacts, theme, and thesis statement. How are they situated within the domain of the humanities? II. Explain how the theme, as it is expressed in the cultural artifacts, and thesis statement impact the audience. In other words, how is the theme relevant to members of the audience? Why should the audience care about your thesis statement? Support your response with specific examples from your exploration document. III. Describe the evidence from subjective and objective cultural analyses that you have to support your conclusions about the impact of the theme and cultural artifacts on you personally and on your audience. Support your response with specific examples from your exploration document. IV. Explain why the theme and cultural artifacts are important to you personally. In other words, why did you select these artifacts to study? Why did you select your theme, especially if there are other themes that could apply? V. Explain how studying the humanities can give you both a personal and professional advantage. In other words, what is the benefit of studying the humanities? VI. Explain why the humanities are important to society. In other words, what do the humanities tell us about our own culture and experiences? How do the humanities impact us? Support your response with specific examples from your exploration document and your own personal and professional experiences. VII. Communicate your message in a way that is tailored to your specific audience. For instance, you could consider your vocabulary, your audience’s potential current humanities knowledge or lack thereof, and what is specifically important to the audience.

THIS IS A POWERPOINT PRESENTATION. PLEASE PRESENT IN A POWERPOINT FORMAT.

 

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173) A mountain range 4 km high is in Airy isostatic equilibrium. During a period of erosion, a 2 km thickness of material is removed from the mountains. When the new isostatic equilibrium is achieved, how high are the mountains?
How much material must be eroded to bring the mountains eventually down to the sea level? Use the crust and mantle densities of 2800 kg/m^3 and 3300 km/m^3, respectively.

 

174) Can you please write a one page memo from the information below as if you were writing to the CEO?

 

Memo

 

Root Causes of the Disaster Involving Leadership

          Much of the poor decision making and hiccups leading up to the disaster were a product of poor leadership. We’ve identified three root causes that could have contributed to the development of this massive failure. First, when you became CEO of BP, you stated that you wanted to “focus like a laser on safety issues,” yet your actions and decisions said otherwise. Second, your performance targets and compensation based pay created a hostile situation for all employees involved. Lastly, since the project was highly matrixed with so many players involved, communication and mutual trust were major failures.

To change the culture of the company, you must actively demonstrate that you believe in and operate by the values that you are portraying. When you joined BP, your goal was to halt growth and production targets and focus heavily on safety. Despite stating this, you spoke publicly about your desire to transform the culture of BP to be less risk averse. These statements display clear contradiction. To have strong organizational safety principles means to actively pursue the least hazardous process of completing a task or project. Reducing risk aversion could mean allowing for more volatile processes, perhaps because they come at a lower cost. If you were serious about creating and sustaining a culture revolving around safety, you would have encouraged employees to document the company’s best practice processes and continuously try to improve safety and efficiency of these processes. Also, BP’s “Group Values” clearly lacked emphasis on safety, given that only one of 18 of these values encompassed health and safety. Further, your “Brand Values” had no mention of safety. New employees who are reading these documents to get an idea of the culture and values of the company are not going to feel an emphasis on working safely.

To continue, paying on-site employees commission based on performance seems counterintuitive at such a high-risk job. Commission based employees have little incentive to share best practices on risk management because they want to retain their high value and mitigate their risk of being replaced. In turn, safety suffers because employees are not sharing insight, there is no organizational knowledge gained, and best practices are not documented or improved upon. Also, since compensation was tied to overall performance of the site, managers had incentive to try to reduce cost, likely settling for higher risk options (for instance in the case of the centralizers). Again, paying these employees based on performance clearly contradicts your statement of focusing on safety. Employees won’t be encouraged to focus on safety if they don’t see it directly impacting the project’s bottom line.

Lastly, given the highly matrixed environment due to the amount of companies and employees involved, effective communication and mutual trust were essential. These were two failures that could have contributed to the Deepwater Horizon disaster. For instance, the decision to stick with six centralizers was a clear breakdown of communication. Halliburton’s model testing revealed that 21 centralizers would significantly lower the risk of failure. BP’s confirmation bias lead them to conclude that the test was inherently flawed, and hesitated purchasing any more centralizers due to the cost and schedule impact. After finally being convinced to purchase more centralizers to reduce risk, BP purchased lower cost, high risk “slip-on” centralizers, which were not used anyway. If there was clear communication and a mutual trust in the partnership between BP and Halliburton, BP would have took the precaution based on the model testing, and potentially averted the crisis. The cancellation of the cement bond log is another example of the lack of trust. Despite Gagliano’s warnings of potential channeling, BP went on without the cement bond log (a test that was even more necessary given that you chose to only employ 6 centralizers). BP chose to ignore the advice of a key player in the project to save a few thousand dollars.

To summarize, three potential root causes of the failure involving leadership include failure to align goals of safety with actions and decisions, paying employees based on performance, and breakdown of communication and trust between key players. Rather than focusing on cutting costs and improving the bottom line, BP should have been getting clear on these three failures.

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BP’s Liability for the Disaster

According to the facts presented in the case, if we were judges, we would say BP is 75% liable for the Deepwater Horizon Disaster. There were three major decisions, all made by BP, that contributed to the tragedy. The first decision was determining what well casing to use to secure the well hole safely. The second choice made by BP was only to use six centralizers rather than the 21 centralizers that was recommended by the OptiCem model. The third decision made by the BP managers was not to run the test called “cement bond log.” All three of these significant decisions made by BP can be traced back to one single theme, trying to reduce capital expenditures and earn profits in any way possible, even if it increases risk and jeopardizes safety.

The first decision was to choose between a steel tube called a “liner” or a “long string casing” to secure the well hole. The liner is a steel tube that hangs from a liner hanger on the bottom of the casing already in the well, and then the workers insert another steel liner tube called a “tieback” on top of the liner hanger. The “liner” provides four barriers of protection but takes longer to install. The “long string casing” involves running a single string of steel casing from the seafloor all the way to the bottom of the well. This choice only provides two barriers of protection and is quicker to install. By choosing the “long string casing,” it saved BP time and money (over $7 million). However, BP knew about the possible risks using the string casing but decided it was the best economical choice for the company. The decision was influenced by BP trying to reduce capital expenses in any way possible.

The second decision made by BP was to use only six centralizers rather than 21. Centralizers help keep the pipe centered and assists with the proper gas flow. The OptiCem model was used to help determine how many centralizers were recommended to use to reduce gas flow. BP planned to use only six, but the model concluded that the risk for gas flow problems was quite significant and 21 centralizers should be used. However, BP’s engineer department ignored the possible dangers of just using six centralizers. They felt it would be a waste of time to acquire more centralizers and decided only to use six. BP once again neglected safety and risks to reduce capital expenses.

The most neglectful decision made by BP was not to run a test called “cement bond log.” The “cement bond log” checks the integrity of the cement after it is pumped into the well. “A 2007 study by the MMS found that cementing was the single most significant factor in 18 of 39 well blowouts in the Gulf of Mexico over a 14-year period.” BP had workers from a company called Schlumberger on the rig ready to perform the test. If BP decided to run the test, it would have cost them around $181,000, but BP chose not to run the test even with warnings of potential channeling. By not running the test, it saved BP about $117,000 and about six to 12 hours of labor. BP’s decision focused on cost-saving rather than the possible risks of not running the test.

All three of these critical decisions that were made by BP had one thing in common, ignoring possible risks to reduce costs. BP deliberately ignored multiple warnings and cautions that were given to them throughout the process of closing down the well. The inexperienced decision makers were making the wrong decisions. Five out of the 12 supervisors in charge of the operations and engineering had a total of approximately ten months experience between them. The inexperience leads to inaccurate forecasting and bad planning. BP estimated that the well would only take 51 days and cost roughly $96 million. On the day of the disaster, it was on day number 80 and $55 million over the planned budget. The outcome of incorrect forecasting and failed planning resulted in BP reducing their capital expenses by being negligent and careless of the risks and safety of their employees and other companies on the rig.

The other 25% liability of the disaster would fall under Transocean and Halliburton. Both of these companies were on the rig and were involved in some of the decisions that were made. Transocean owned the oil rig, and their employees performed most of the work. They could have stopped working on the rig and made sure that BP was following all proper procedures and recommendations. Halliburton was a cementing contractor that was hired to run model simulations and cement lab tests. Halliburton was the company that insisted BP on using 21 centralizers. However, Halliburton knew that BP decided only to use six and no one tried to postpone or put a stop work order on the cement job.

Bad Leadership

An example of bad leadership in the case of the Deepwater Horizon oil rig was that of the drilling engineers. The simulation model OptiCem concluded that by only using six centralizers as planned, the risk for gas flow problems would be quite significant. The model concluded that at least 21 centralizers would be needed to significantly lower this risk. One engineer, Brian Morel, replied to these concerns with the following email:

“We have six centralizers, we can run them in a row, spread out, or any combinations of

the two. It’s a vertical hole so hopefully the pipe stays centralized due to gravity. As far as changes, it’s too late to get any more product to the rig, our only options is to rearrange placement of these centralizers.”

A glaring concern within this email is “it’s a vertical hole so hopefully the pipe stays centralized due to gravity.” Not only does Morel believe that additional centralizers are unnecessary, he also believes that the pipe will be able to stabilize itself, despite contradicting reports from the OptiCem model. The other drilling engineer, Brett Cocales, further reiterated his lack of concern by emailing him back:

“Even if the hole is perfectly straight, a straight piece of pipe even in tension will not

seek perfect center of the hole unless it has something to centralize it.

But, who cares, it’s done, end of story, will probably be fine and we’ll get a good cement job. I would rather have to squeeze than get stuck above the WH.”

Both of these men had the knowledge and experience to know that they should have trusted the model and the results it produced. Cocales even knew that the pipe would not be able to straighten itself alone with gravity and would need something to centralize it. With the combined expertise of these drilling engineers, all 21 centralizers should have been in place to help reduce the severe risk of gas flow problems. Instead, they chose to save time and money rather than improve upon the safety of the rig and all the employees working on it.

The origin and development of this type of gross negligence is simple: a long history of cost cutting measures within British Petroleum. As a newly private company in the late 80s and early 90s, BP was nearing bankruptcy. As a result, the company took dramatic measures to cut costs. These techniques proved to be successful, and BP started to improve. The CEO who took control of BP in May 2007, Tony Hayward, further cut costs by reducing headcount in both managerial and lower staff positions. Furthermore, four levels of management were cut. Hayward also desired to transform the culture of BP to one that was less risk averse. “He believed that too many people were making too many decisions leading to extreme cautiousness. ‘Assurance is killing us,’ he told U.S. staff in September of 2007.” Cost cutting measures had proven to be successful in the past, and the new CEO of BP was set on taking it even further than the company had before.

The Deepwater Horizon rig was estimated to require more than 3,600 hours of maintenance and cost BP $500,000 per day to lease from Transocean. Contractor fees were roughly the same amount. It would take approximately 51 days to drill the Macondo well at a cost of about $96 million. By its 80th day on site, the rig had far exceeded the original budget. The rig also faced numerous software issues that would need to be fixed, further straining the budget. Following the decades-long tradition of slashing costs, BP management on the rig used shortcuts to complete jobs. For instance, the task of circulating mud through the well should have taken them around 6-12 hours and was completed in under 30 minutes. Tasks were done quickly and improperly in order to avoid the mounting costs of labor and material. If given options, the one that would require less time would be chosen over the safest option. Thus, leadership and leaders followed the company’s history of cost cutting tactics.

A huge shift in culture would need to take place in order to actually correct the problems at BP, which run through and thrive in each level of management within the company. If I was an employee at BP during the Macondo well and Deepwater Horizon project, I would continuously raise my concerns for the shortcuts and harmful safety tactics that were occuring. As noted in the article, experts who brought forth their options and raised concerns for pipe stability and safety were overruled or told that their models were likely inaccurate. If I would continuously ignored by management, I would no longer be able to work for a company that valued cost-reduction and expediency over caution and the safety of their employees. I would likely report BP to the Bureau of Ocean Energy Management, Regulation, and Enforcement, and bring forth data and evidence that would substantiate my claims against BP. Hopefully by bringing attention to the shortcuts performed by BP, action would be taken by government agencies, which would forcefully bring these practices to an end.

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177) This is a personal reflection exercise to apply learning from class materials and learn more about transformational leaders in your life. Utilize critical thinking to answer the following questions. Your responses should be double-spaced and approximately 1-2 pages long.

  1. Why did you decide to enter a health care profession? Write down the three most significant reasons that prompted your decision. Of the leadership styles examined in this lesson, which one do you most identify with?
  2. Has there been a person or people in your life who was a mentor and inspired you to reach above and beyond your perceived potential? Have you served as such a mentor in the life of another?
  3. What are the core values that you maintain regarding the treatment of others? What values do you hold with regard to work and professionalism?
  4. What (besides money) would motivate you to do your best possible work? What personal values and aspirations do you have that a transformative leader might be able to help you achieve?
  5. What de-motivates you? What actions or behaviors on the part of leaders might lessen your commitment to your goals and your values of sense of value or self-esteem?
  6. You have decided to apply for a position as a leader for a local healthcare clinic. You wish to market yourself as a Transformational Leader who can lead the facility into the healthcare arena of the future. What items or issues should you highlight and discuss in the personal interview?

 

178) PART A – Reflective Analysis please make sure to address the following: – At the beginning of the module you have identified ONE personal skill (chosen skill is negotiation skills since i work as a manager in sales department and interact with supliers and workmates) that you aimed to develop and improve throughout the module. Your Reflective Analysis will detail WHAT YOU DID to improve that skill and HOW EFFECTIVE your efforts have been. Therefore: Ø Create a titled Introduction that outlines the importance of the selected skill. In the introduction you are also advised to describe the general nature of the skill with certain theoretical justification i.e. text-citations/references as well as provide proofs for the necessity of the skill’ improvement (maybe by adding additional information from your work environment which may have influenced your skill’ selection and need for improvement). Finally, your introduction may be concluded/ end with the purpose of the Part A i.e. ‘Finally, this paper seeks to provide information from a reflective nature of the skill….. etc.’. The introduction may be approximately 400 words limit. Ø The main body of your Part A – Reflective Analysis (approximately 2300 words limit) could be divided into sub-chapters while exploring the role of the skill into different fields of study i.e. ‘The importance of time management skill towards productivity’. Make sure that you will manage to establish a clear evidence of the importance of the skill’ improvement in relation to the areas where you are most affected by the use of that skill. Finally, and MOST important while discussing the skill which affects certain fields (i.e. productivity) please REMEMBER to include THE METHODS that you have used to improve that skill and discuss HOW EFFECTIVE your efforts have been. It is important to support your ASSERTIONS with appropriate theoretical information especially while linking the skill in certain areas or influences. I highlight the importance to use the link: http://vle-usw.unicaf.org/mod/url/view.php?id=30196 which includes a variety of material (i.e. video, reading documents etc ) suitable for improving skills (in your analysis you will be clearly state the you have used or gone through the videos and how these have influenced the improvement of your skills. Ø Conclude your PART A – Reflective Analysis with a conclusion of approximately 300 words. Ø In a separate page after your conclusion please include the reference list of ALL the resources used and text-cited in the PART A

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179) Discuss what would you say to or do if a team member were Gets upset when his/her recommendations are not followed.

Present the specific actions you would take. Identify the challenges this type of behavior would represent for you. Explain how you would manage your frustration with the situation.

 

 

180) Q60 Answer the following questions:

  1. a) Your manager has a natural style of leadership. State and discuss the problems that could arise when your manager is not prepared to change his natural leadership style. [2 Marks]
  2. b) Your manager is concerned about the high accident rate in your workshop as a result of unsafe acts of the workers. Name the types of unsafe acts you would look for in your department. [2 Marks]

NO PLAGIARISM IN THE ANSWER.

DO NOT WRITE THE ANSWERS – USE WORD FORMAT.

 

Define power, influence and authorities and explain their importance in organisational life. [1 Mark]

DO NOT WRITE THE ANSWER – USE WORD FORMAT.

NO PLAGIARISM

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182) An employee gives notice due to ill health. Six months later you hear they are working at the local hardware store, part-time, as a sales assistant. Would you include them in your staff turnover figure? Explain reasons where you would and would not include them.

183) An employee gives notice due to ill health. Six months later you hear they are working at the local hardware store, part-time, as a sales assistant. Would you include them in your staff turnover figure? Explain reasons where you would and would not include them.

 

184) Define and discuss corporate social responsibility. Consider Milton Friedman's approach to this theory

 

185) Identify one ancient Christian community living or serving in an Islamic majority context, such as Coptic, Marionite, Chaldean, Armenian, etc. Compare and contrast how this ancient community practices similar rituals as the Five Pillars of Islam.

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187) Which one is direct or indirect speech -Does Tom like Italian food? andDo you know if Tom likes Italian food?

188) Which one is direct or indirect speech -Does Tom like Italian food? andDo you know if Tom likes Italian food?

 

189) Can you think of a specific situation in which you have selected a supplier, whether as a consumer or a buyer for an organization in a professional situation? What was the specific situation? What method did you use?

 

190) Identify a motivational theory. What is the theory founded upon? How does it conjure motivation? Does the theory suggest that motivation leads to performance of some sort? In the context as a corporate employer, would the theory suggest that motivation will lead to performance if incentive pay is aligned accordingly with effort/output?

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191) 1. Select an OM technique that you have never used before to improve the performance a current operation which is job-related. Explain why this OM method is of particular interest to you. you must present the current situation, the future situation after the improvement is made, and projected benefit(s) (monetary or non-monetary).

  1. Develop a plan to implement the OM technique you select in (2). Your plan should include a time phase Gantt chart showing tasks to be performed and a time line for each task. Describe the tasks in detail to see if each task can be feasibly executed within time frame given.

 

192) Post a summary of your thoughts regarding your experience with a failed change effort in an organization. Include a description of the circumstances surrounding the change, an analysis of what, if anything, could have been done to sustain the change. Explain how at least one thing you learned this week can be effectively implemented and will help to sustain a change in an organization in this type of situation in the future.

193) One of your staff members has been asked to give two speeches. Details
are as follows:
? first speech – large target audience; objective: to inform them of
company progress over the past year; and
? second speech – small group of staff in the marketing department;
objective: persuasion.
Write a memorandum in correct format to your staff member and give him
detailed advice on the best audio-visual aids to use for each speech in
order to enhance his presentation. Explain the reasons for your choice and
also how he should use these aids to the best advantage.
Note: Do not write the speeches.(20)

  1. 194) Explain what was the role that in the 1980s music (reggae) played in the creation of an alternative black identity for the second generation of black immigrants who migrated to the UK in the 1940s and 1950s when their countries were still colonies of the UK? (watch video The Reggae Map)
  2. What is the role of class positions in the participation of children in business activities? Varela points out class matters to explain why immigrants from a working-class background and immigrants from a middle-class background who are business owners see the participation of their children in their business differently. Choose either the middle-class or the working-class perspective and explain how immigrants understand children’ involvement in their businesses.
  3. Why does Gonzales define being undocumented as a master status for the 1.5 generation of young Mexicans?
  4. Why does Gonzales point out that being undocumented is a form of legal liminality?
  5. Explain why Golash-Boza and Hondagneu-Sotelo point out that deportation policies in the US must be understood as a gendered and racial removal program. Choose one factor and explain it.
  6. Les Back says: “working class people are not ennobled by class inequalities but they are often damaged by them.” (page 83) Explain it.
  7. According to Les Back, how does the body become a medium and a fleshy canvas through and on which belonging, and structures of feeling are expressed?
  8. According to Les Back, what is the relation between body, love, language, and memory expressed by working class people in the form of tattoos?
  9. According to Zukin, what is the relation between the corporate city as example of modern urbanism and the global, neoliberal city?
  10. According to Zukim, what is the relation between the small village as example of modern urbanism and gentrification processes that value authenticity?
  11. According to Jackson, why does the Bowling Alley is an example of conviviality in multicultural societies?

Attachments:

 

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195) Why is it important to me as a tertiary learner to use credible sources in my academic research and writing? (250 words)

 

196) What would you say to a young person who asked your opinion of taking drugs? What negative impact has on the brain?
150 – 200 words

197) 1.Choose a specific historical event or example and reflect on the “long range” effect of it on your own life.Choose another historical 2.event and reflect on the “long range” impact on the modern workplace—perhaps on the profession you have chosen..

 

198) read the article and write a 350-500 words long summary of it. You can find the reference for the assigned work should be added to your References section(Coleman, J. (1988). Social Capital in the Creation of Human Capital.American Journal of Sociology,94, S95-S120.)

, but do not forget that if you’ll be getting quotes from this work, you should also cite this in your summary with the proper in text citation format.(Coleman, 1988, p. XX); in these “p.” refers to a single page, if you want to refer to more than one page, then you should change it to “pp.” and give a page number range (e.g. “pp. 444-48).

 

Business Essay Writing Help Canada 

199) 2> Is faith, in the religious sense, a matter of opinion or oftrust? Please cite any sources . . .

 

200) 1. If Peter Singer and J. Baird Calicutt debated environmental ethics, what would each thinker’s core principles be? [Describe] How would you compare and contrast their theories? [Analyze/Compare] Present and explain one similarity and one difference. [Explain]
2. When Southan says that animal suffering is an enigma, what does he mean? [Explain] Why is animal suffering unclear and what ethical implication does that way of framing the issue have? [Analyze]
3. What is the “principle of purity,” as outlined in Fischer and McWilliams? [Describe] How does that moral approach differ from Aristotle’s “Golden Mean”? [Describe/Analyze/Compare]
4. What is one argument for and one argument against euthanasia? [Describe] What kind of philosophical reasoning is utilized in each argument? [Apply/Analyze/Explain]
5. If Gutting and Debrabander debated gun control and gun rights, what would each thinker’s core argument be? [Describe] How would you compare and contrast their theories? [Analyze/Compare] Present and explain one similarity and one difference. [Explain]
6. Both Nozick and Gutting discuss “self-interest;” what similarities and differences are present in each thinker’s views of the nature and importance of self-interest and any possible limits to it. [Describe/Explain/Compare]
7. How would Srinvasan criticize Nozick’s approach to distributive justice? Explain two arguments she would make of specific principles Nozick outlines. [Describe/Explain/Analyze]
8. To what extent would two of the following – Lebron, Yancy or Gutting – agree that Rawls’s “veil of ignorance” is a good way to remedy and prevent racism? [Analyze/Evaluate/Apply]
9. In Mill’s “On Liberty,” how does he use the harm principle and the idea of the tyranny of the majority to discuss political and social freedom? [Describe/Analyze/Explain]
10. In the article by Kaag and Kreps on drones, the authors use the Ring of Gyges from Greek philosopher Plato, what is their intention in using that analogy and how might Aristotle’s virtue ethics help respond to the moral dangers the “ring” analogy raises? [Describe/Analyze/Apply]
11. Why does Srinvasan believe that the poor are not the only ones dependent on the state? What are the ethical implications of this argument? [Describe/Explain/Analyze]
12. What are the parameters of Spinoza’s view of freedom, including freedom of thought and freedom of speech, according to Nadler? (Parameter = scope and limit, so, what does his vision include and exclude) How acceptable are those limits to you and why? [Describe/Analyze/Evaluate]
13. What is your core ethical argument in your argumentative essay? What counter-argument would one of our authors likely make to your position? How would you respond to that counter-argument?

 

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Philosophy Psychology Homework Help US Canada and Australia

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CHSUG 1001 Introduction to Community & Human ServicesAssessment Two: Essay

Weighting: 40% of your overall grade for this course

Due date: Sunday 14th June at 11:55pm

Word count: 2000 words (+/- 10%)

Submit: Submit your assignment in Word or PDF format through the Turnitin link on Moodle

Write an essay on the following topic:

Analyse the impact of neoliberalism on the community and human services in Australia.  Focus your response on one field of practice.

You are required to write an academic essay on the topic listed above.  Your essay should follow an essay structure and should flow in a clear and logical manner.  You should write the essay in your own words and ensure that you acknowledge any direct quotations appropriately.

You need to support your response with appropriate evidence from academic sources (minimum of 8) and ensure that you reference these sources appropriately in APA format.

You should ensure that you meet the word length limit and proofread your work carefully.  You should also ensure that you follow the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance to format and present your essay.

You will receive feedback from your LREP to assist you in completing your essay.

Note: Fields of practice could include mental health, child protection, disability services, refugee settlement services, aged care, etc.  You are free to choose any field of practice within the community and human services.  Check your course materials and reading from week 2 to assist you in choosing a field of practice.

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You will be marked following the marking guide below.

MARKING GUIDE – ESSAY

Criteria Marks
Addressing the essay topic, 8 marks

This relates to your ability to address all aspects of the essay topic, the level of detail of your essay, and the clarity of your contention.

 

Addresses all parts of the essay topic clearly and comprehensively

 

6.5 – 8
Addresses all parts of the essay topic clearly and with a good level of detail

 

5.5 – 6
Addresses all parts of the essay topic but could have improved clarity and detail

 

4.5 – 5
Addresses most parts of the essay question but needs a clearer contention and/or greater detail

 

4.0
Does not satisfactorily address the essay question

 

0  – 3.5
Understanding of topic, 8 marks

This relates to how well you show your understanding of the course materials related to the essay topic and apply this to your chosen field of practice

 

Shows comprehensive knowledge of the topic and exemplary ability to apply this to the chosen field

 

6.5 – 8
Shows strong knowledge of the topic and very good ability to apply this to the chosen field

 

5.5 – 6
Shows good knowledge of the topic and uses some examples from the chosen field

 

4.5 – 5
Shows some knowledge of the topic but needs to improve level of detail and/or application to a field

 

4.0
Does not show satisfactory knowledge of the essay topic

 

0  – 3.5
Depth of analysis, 8 marks

This relates to the depth of your analysis, including your ability to consider multiple perspectives and make connections

 

Deeply analyses the topic by integrating multiple perspectives and forming connections between ideas

 

6.5 – 8
Shows a good level of depth in analysis by considering multiple perspectives

 

5.5 – 6
Shows a satisfactory level of depth in analysis – could include a broader range of perspectives

 

4.5 – 5
Describes/explains the topic without adequate analysis – needs to consider multiple perspectives

 

4.0
Does not show satisfactory depth

 

0  – 3.5
Strength of justification, 8 marks

This relates to your ability to justify your analysis, including your use of appropriate supporting evidence

 

Shows comprehensive justification and extensive use of high-quality academic evidence

 

6.5 – 8
Shows very good justification and uses high-quality academic supporting evidence

 

5.5 – 6
Shows good justification and makes use of academic evidence – but could improve quality/quantity

 

4.5 – 5
Shows satisfactory justification and limited use of academic evidence (6-8 sources)

 

4.0
Does not show satisfactory justification and does not use sufficient academic evidence (<6 sources)

 

0  – 3.5
Essay structure, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to structure your essay appropriately (including introduction, conclusion, clear flow of paragraphs & use of topic sentences)

 

Excellent essay structure and flow

 

1.75 – 2
Very good essay structure.  Minor improvements needed to improve flow

 

1.5
Good essay structure including an intro, conclusion and paragraphs.  Work on flow & topic sentences 1.25
Satisfactory essay structure.  Introduction, conclusion and/or paragraphs need greater clarity and flow

 

1.0
Structure of essay was not satisfactory.  Introduction, conclusion and/or clear paragraphs not included

 

0 – 0.75
Written expression, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to write in your own words (paraphrase) in academic language with excellent spelling and grammar.

 

Excellent academic written expression in students own words

 

1.75 – 2
Very good written expression in students own words.  Minor spelling/grammatical errors

 

1.5
Good written expression.  Mostly written in students own words. Some spelling/grammatical errors

 

1.25
Satisfactory written expression.  Academic language, paraphrasing and spelling/grammar need work

 

1.0
Written expression is not satisfactory

 

0 – 0.75
Referencing, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to correctly use APA format for your in-text citations and reference list

 

Reference list and in-text citations are all correct for all sources

 

1.75 – 2
Reference list and in-text citations are all correct for most sources

 

1.5
Reference list and in-text citations are mostly correct for most sources

 

1.25
Reference list and in-text citations are included for all sources but contain many errors

 

1.0
Reference list and in-text citations are not included or are not correct

 

0 – 0.75
Presentation, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to correctly present your assignment through use of appropriate font, lay-out, spacing, and cover sheet – as outlined in the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance.

 

Excellent presentation of essay

 

1.75 – 2
Very good presentation of essay.  Minor errors in use of font, spacing or lay-out

 

1.5
Good presentation.  Make adjustments to font, spacing, and/or lay-out as per Fed Uni guide

 

1.25
Satisfactory presentation.  Use appropriate and consistent font, spacing, and lay-out as per Fed Uni guide

 

1.0
Presentation of essay is not satisfactory.  Presentation makes essay difficult to read and comprehend.

 

0 – 0.75
TOTAL MARKS /40

 

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  1. What do you think of the dominance of the Roman Church in the Middle Ages? Any positive and/or negative impacts?
  2. Some argued that in a modern society where science has been made popular and the vast of public are well educated, it is meaningless even ridiculous to hold any religious belief. What do you think about such view?
  3. The Catholic criticised the Protestants that their protestation1,ruined a once uniform kingdom by creating thousands of scattered kingdoms,2,ruined a wholehearted belief of God among nations by tearing it into pieces ofdifferent versions of belief,3,ruined the single dominance of Popeship by establishing thousands of tyranniesby local monarchies, and4,was more intolerant to their own fellow protestants than what the Roman Popedid in the past centuries.What do you think of such criticism of Protestants?
  4. Which aspect(s) of the Enlightenment movement impress you most? Why?

5.What do you think of the slogan of ‘universal human happiness as the highest goal’? What are its positive and negative impacts?

6.Do you think the core values upheld by the Enlightenment movement in conflict with the Christian belief?

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  • It’s an exam with just 5 questions.1.How did the event at the Lotus Eaters’ Island relate to the average Greek’s life? (What was the meaning for the listener?)2. What does the episode of Calypso reveal about the life of Greek men during this time3.How did Penelope keep the suitors at bay for so long? 4. What was Penelope’s final trick to see if Odysseus was really her husband? Based on two articles from 2003 or later, select two contemporary change leadership models. Compare them. Explain why they would be appropriate for today and chaotic, fast-paced global environment. In 200- 250 words with 3 references.

 

 

Leadership What are three leadership styles? Compare and contrast the three. When would it be advisable to display democracy when working in small groups? When would it be necessary to be an autocratic leader? Name a situation and explain what can happen if someone in authority cannot be flexible should a need arise?

write the answer in an essay with 2 PAGES

MLA style

NO plargisim

 

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5) How are your two philosophers coming along? Take time to finalize your search for the two and write your faculty member a paragraph in which you announce their names and the one area of political thought for comparison. In a sentence or two, explain what draws you to this focus.

 

********DO NOT TALK ABOUT Aristotle/Socriates********

**********DO NOT WRITE ABOUT Augustine.Arias*******

 

APA format, with intext citation

 

 

6) Please answer the following Critical Review Questions from Chapter Nine.

Chapter Nine –

  1. A strong emotional attachment and loyalty to a charismatic leader can have both beneficial and detrimental effects on followers. Explain both types of effective followers.
  2. Explain the importance of effective communications skills for charismatic and transformational leaders.
  3. Servant leadership emphasizes being able to serve and lead. In your opinion, is this contradictory or doable. Explain!
  4. Do you believe everyone has the same capability to become a servant leader, or are some people by their nature more inclined to be a servant leaders? Explain!
  5. Describe a charismatic or transformational leader you have known.

Your submission should be a minimum of two full pages of analysis.

Please use this reference;

 

 

Lussier, R. & Achua, C. (2015). Leadership: Theory, Application, & Skill development.      New York, NY: Cengage Learning.

 

7) In what ways do you think this treatment approach will affect terminations? Describe at least two other factors that influence a client&#39;s termination experience, and also two factors that influence a counselor&#39;s experience of a client&#39;s termination. Post should be at least 300 words.

 

8) Resource: Review “The Principle of Selection,” Ch. 7 of Oxford History of Art: Twentieth-Century American Art, and the Week Four Electronic Reserve Readings

Write a 200- to 350-word summary responding to the following:

  • What did both Warhol and Rauschenberg have in common in regards to their art work?
  • How were their subjects a reflection of the era in which they were created?
  • What list of found objects and imagery would you use if you were creating an art work about your daily experience?

 

 

9) 1. Briefly describe an organization you know well and discuss how the six types of knowledge provided below are expressed in that organization, Select two and discuss how you have experienced them in your own life. Embrained Embodied Encultured Embedded Encoded Commodified 2. Compare and contrast tacit, explicit, and codified knowledge. Share a situation in which you used each type or believe each was used on you. Describe the experience and how you think understanding was realized by you (how you learned what you learned). 3. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using formal IPR to commercialize an innovation. Determine any barriers a start-up entrepreneur is likely to experience.

 

10) Please write one page about the following with two comments which I will use to respond to other students:  What might be holding you back from taking a giant step into leadership or management at a higher level in which you currently are serving? Are you afraid of stress or stressful situations? How do you deal with the day-to-day stressors of the corporate environment? Do you have empathy on your followers when deadlines are demanding and timelines are tight? What advice do you have for those who don’t have a good grip on the daily grind of work?

 

11)  you must complete an essay (no more than 500 words) on the following: Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.

 

12)  you must complete an essay (no more than 500 words) on the following: Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.

 

13) Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.(no more than 500 words)

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14) The quality of an individual’s leadership is measured, in part, by his or her influence on followers. For this class discussion, you will use your personal experience and the information you read to discuss how leadership influences subordinate behavior and performance.

 

Please respond to all of the following prompts in the class discussion section of your online course:

 

Apply a leadership theory to a manager or supervisor you have, or had in the past, to explain his/her performance as a leader.Using Fiedler&#39;s leadership theory as a basis for your answer, explain whether most successful managers are relationship-oriented or task-oriented.As more companies become increasingly reliant on virtual teams and teleworkers, how must an individual’s leadership style change to accommodate those types of workers?

 

15) I want to answer theses 11 questions from this lecture that is uploaded in this website:

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bRS152iNglE

 

Please, do not try to answer them from another sources. You will find all of the answers when listen to the licture that is about 36 minutes

 

 

 

Here are the questions:

 

  1. Why did the Jews need their own country?

 

  1. What role did American President Harry S. Truman play?

 

  1. How did Zionists groups respond to the growing crisis for the Jews?

 

  1. How did the British react to Zionist activities and President Truman’s pressures?

 

  1. What was the United Nations?

 

  1. How did the United Nations get involved in the crisis over Palestine?

 

  1. What happened when the Jews in Palestine declared the creation of a State of Israel on 14 May 1948?

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  1. What patterns emerged after the Israeli War of Independence?

 

  1. What is the legacy of older forms of antisemitism today?

 

  1. What new forms of antisemitism exist today?

 

  1. How does the legacy of the Hebrew religion and antisemitism remain integral to how we understand ourselves in the US, Europe and the Middle East?

 

16) Create and video a role-play activity that demonstrates two of the following leadership styles: 1. Trait; 2. Style; 3. Situational; 4. Transformational. The following scenario may provide you with some ideas for a role-play activity: A reading in the approved, state adopted 3rd grade language arts book is a poem which is a rhyming witches’ spell. A group of parents decide to picket the school. How will leaders (principal and superintendent) with different styles manage this situation?

17) 1. What”are”your”objectives”for”the”internship?””How”will”the”internship”meet”your”objectives?”

 

  1. What”are”your”career”aims”and”objectives,”both”immediate”and”long”range?””How”will”this”

internship”support”these”objectives?” ”

 

18) Write an essay describing the four nonroutine cognitive skills as set out by Robert Reich. For each skill, describe a business situation in which the ability to perform that skill is essential. Be sure to explain how each skill is applied and why it is important in the situation.

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19)

  • Share one or two specific examples of how you will use the concepts or strategies presented in this class to contribute to your academic and career success
  • Which activities or assignments did you find most valuable in helping you recognize or develop skills you will use in the future?
  • What are the skills you would like to learn more about or continue to develop

 

 

20) Read the case and then answer the following questions.

Surface tension
The tech giant
s decision to make its own tablet computer is a bold gamble

“WITHIN five years, I predict it will be the most popular form of PC sold in America.” When Bill Gates spoke at a trade show in 2002, the then chairman of Microsoft left nobody in doubt that what his firm called the “tablet PC” would one day take the world of personal computing by storm. His sense that an upheaval was coming was spot on, but his timing wasn’t. Only when Apple launched its wildly popular iPad in 2010 did computing tablets at last take off. Now Microsoft is scrambling to gain a foothold in one of the hottest markets in the IT industry.

On June 18th 2012, Microsoft unveiled Surface, a tablet that will bear Microsoft’s name and is supposed to be a showcase for its new Windows 8 operating system, due to be rolled out in the autumn. The new device will be available in two models: a basic version with a processor designed by ARM (which also powers the iPad) and a souped-up one with an Intel chip for business

users. Both models boast some innovative features, notably a built-in stand and a cover that doubles as a keyboard.

Microsoft’s decision to make its own tablet is another sign of how much the company is being buffeted by shifts that are transforming the world of IT. Just as momentous as the rise of social networking is the rapid growth of mobile computing (see Figure 1). This has softened sales of Windows-based PCs, the foundation of Microsoft’s fortunes. And it has boosted rivals such as Apple and Google, whose respective mobile operating systems, iOS and Android, power most smartphones and tablets.

A related threat to Microsoft’s business is the “consumerisation” of IT. Growing numbers of employees are now demanding to use their own phones and tablets at work. In many cases, companies are caving in. As a result, iPads and Android-based tablets are spreading rapidly through offices and factories – the heartland of Windows-based PCs.

Critics point out that Microsoft’s track record in hardware is mixed. Although it has produced hits such as the Xbox game console, it has also had some deeply embarrassing misses, including Zune, a portable music player that has failed to rival Apple’s iPod.

Microsoft entered into video games and game consoles in 2001. The launch of Xbox 360 in 2005 has proved extraordinary and also particularly interesting. The rationale behind its market entry into the video games industry comes with a good reason. It was designed primarily to keep their potential competitor, Sony, in check. Although Sony operated in a different industry, Microsoft recognized that Sony could emerge as its rival.

Microsoft’s Zune was launched in November 2006 and Microsoft believed that it could compete with the Apple iPod, which had been in the market since 2001 and dominated the multimedia player and music download business around the world. The Wall Street Journal reported that revenue from the Zune player was $85 million during the 2008 holiday season compared to $185 million in the same period in 2007. Apple’s iPod revenue during the last quarter of 2008 was $3.37 billion. Microsoft, which had access to as much hardware development expertise as any company in the world and the capital to support a massive marketing budget for new products, failed completely in its attempt to get a large part of the iPod market.

For the Surface, analysts worried that consumers may be confused by the two versions of the tablet, which will have very different price points. Microsoft has just indicated that the expensive model is likely to cost the same as thin laptops, which sells for around $1,000, whereas the cheaper version will be priced to compete with comparative ARM-based tablets, probably at around $500. Comparatively, the cheapest iPad with a high- resolution screen costs $499.

Another concern is that by making its own device, Microsoft risks alienating other firms that are working on Windows 8 tablets, such as Dell and HP. But the company’s main aim may be to show how its new operating system can best be used, thus setting a standard that other device makers will strive to exceed – and perhaps produce a Windows 8 iPad-killer.

If that is indeed the aim, Microsoft appears to have missed a key lesson from Apple. One reason why the iPad has been so successful is that it blends beautiful hardware with an amazing range of software. Microsoft has attractive assets, in particular Skype (an internet calling service), its alliance with Barnes & Noble (a big online bookseller) and its Xbox ecosystem. Yet other than the firm’s Office suite of productivity tools, none of these was shown at this week’s launch. “Microsoft has missed an opportunity to highlight things that can inspire people,” said Sarah Rotman Epps of Forrester, a research firm. Perhaps when its tablet hits the market later this year, the company will have found ways to bring more of these to the surface.

Microsoft has reaffirmed the strategy of having its own hardware devices recently. In September 2013, Microsoft agreed to acquire the handset business of Nokia for about US$ 7.2 billion. Thus, Microsoft will not only be making tablets but mobile phones as well. In a letter to all Microsoft employees, CEO Steve Ballmer, reiterated that “The form and delivery of our value will shift to devices and services versus packaged software.” In November, Microsoft launched the second generation of the tablets and an updated version of Windows. The device strategy is here to stay.

Unlike earlier ventures into devices, like the Zune music player and the game console Xbox, the motivation for getting into the hardware side of business in relation to mobile phones and tablets seems to be the strengthening of the Windows platform but the opening up of a new source of revenue is still in doubt.

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Question A :

Explain the differences between diversification and vertical integration strategies in relation to the scope of business.

Question B :

Would you classify the following strategic moves of Microsoft as diversification or vertical integration strategy? Why?
A) Launching of the portable music player Zune
B) Launching of the Xbox game console
C) Launching of the Surface tablet.

Question C :

What are the major potential benefits and risks of Microsoft’s strategic shift from selling ‘packaged software’ (i.e. Windows operating system) to launching ‘devices and services’ (i.e. tablets and mobile phones)?

 

21) Why look at art?

How would you explain the importance of looking at art? What skills does it develop? When you have come in contact with various types of art?

 

22)

  1. Evaluate the three parts of the message receiving process.
  2. Compare two common approaches to getting feedback, and explain why they do not work.
  3. In your opinion, can a leader maintain a personal friendship with some members of his/her work group or team without creating the perception of in-groups in his/her work unit? In your opinion, explain the impact of such a relationship to one of the stages of the dyadic theory.
  4. What should a leader do to dispel any notion or misconception that there are in-groups and out-groups in his/her work unit? Explain. Evaluate the two types of relationships under the vertical dyadic linkage model.
  5. What do you say to those who argue that tactics used by followers to get noticed by their leader (such as impression management, ingratiation, and self-promotion) are shameful and self-serving and should be avoided? Explain and offer your opinion of the link to developing high-quality LMX relationships.

 

  1. Critical analysis of leadership theory and style maintains

**Select one or more:*
a. leadership should come from the ranks
b. leadership is most effective when there are contingent rewards and corrective coaching
c. leadership should be defined by the structure of the organization
d. leadership skills make a manager the most powerful entity

  1. Positive psychologists refer to positivity and success as a measure of

**Select one or more:
a. identifying and fixing problems
b. languishing and exceeding potentials
c. counterproductive behaviors and preventing them in the workplace
d. higher managerial performance, both in terms of decision making and interpersonal tasks

  1. Organizational change involves

**Select one or more:
a. behavior modification across the organization and leadership that scans for environmental resistance
b. learning capabilities across management teams and a survey of all stakeholders for support
c. behaviors that should be altered and aligned with current procedures
d. actions that are amended to provide shifts in the direction an organization to takes to implement improvement.

 

24) Explain the meaning of dualism and dual societies. Do you think that the concept of dualism adequately portrays the development picture in most developing countries? Explain your answer.

 

25) Australian Indigenous Contemporary Perspectives

  • Assessment Description/Focus: Community Case Study Report
  • Value:50 %
  • Length:1,500 words (the word limit does not include the report’s Contents Page)
  • Reference Style:CDU Harvard Reference Style. Provide at least 12-13 references in the reference list. For detailed information please visit

https://www.cdu.edu.au/sites/default/files/Harvard-Referencing_ALLSP1.pdf

http://libguides.cdu.edu.au/cdureferencing/harvard

  • Task:Community case study Report

You may choose one of the networks/institutions/organisations that you identified as sites for information in relation to Indigenous knowledges/perspectives provided below and explore its activities in relation to the protection, maintenance and promotion of Indigenous knowledges and perspectives.

Networks/Organisations/Institutions:

Local – Larrakia Nation Aboriginal Corporation (LNAC); Northern Land Council (NLC); Central Land

Council (CLC); Garma Festival of Traditional Cultures; Kimberley Land Council (KLC); Torres Strait

Regional Authority (TSRA)

National – National Congress of Australia’s First Nations Peoples; Lowitja Institute; National

Indigenous Research and Knowledges Networks (NIRAKN); Assembly of First Nations; Australian

Institute of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Studies (AIATSIS); Poche Indigenous Health Network

International – Indigenous Peoples’ Council on Biocolonialism (IPCB); Indigenous Work Group for

Indigenous Affairs (IWGIA); International Alliance of Indigenous and Tribal Peoples of the Tropic

Forests; Centre for World Indigenous Studies (CWIS); World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO)

This assessment will include:

  1. an explanation of what the study is about.
  2. a brief background of the network/institution/organisation in relation to the nature of how its active social engagement in policy and advocacy reflects broader Indigenous contemporary perspectives.
  3. a highlight of ethics and protocols in accessing and utilising Indigenous knowledges – For example researching and working in Indigenous contexts.
  4. how issues of Indigenous human, cultural and intellectual property rights are addressed – refer to and outline relevant guidelines, protocols and laws that protect human, cultural, and intellectual property and copyrights when working in Indigenous contexts.
  • Preparation:

For ideas to assist with this assessment, you may read a case study on an Indigenous organisation, Kimberley Land Council’s intellectual property and traditional policy by Forster & Janke (2015). Refer to the link below

https://learn-ap-southeast-2-prod-fleet01-xythos.s3.ap-southeast-2.amazonaws.com/5b2b431b0cadd/5551382?response-cache-control=private%2C%20max-age%3D21600&response-content-disposition=inline%3B%20filename%2A%3DUTF-8%27%27Forster%2520and%2520Janke%25202015%2520ILB2015V008N18_017.pdf&response-content-type=application%2Fpdf&X-Amz-Algorithm=AWS4-HMAC-SHA256&X-Amz-Date=20200520T090000Z&X-Amz-SignedHeaders=host&X-Amz-Expires=21600&X-Amz-Credential=AKIAIW5OVFIUOTV36DNA%2F20200520%2Fap-southeast-2%2Fs3%2Faws4_request&X-Amz-Signature=ce623865236c3afa9c0777897d862efc115aa5711308437907942b890312de5f

References:

  1. Foster, P and Janke, T 2015, “Keeping cultural knowledge with Indigenous research protocols: A case study on the Kimberley land council’s intellectual property and traditional knowledge policy”, Indigenous Law Bulletin, vol. 8, no. 18, pp. 17-20.

In addition to this reading, you Must look at the following references in relation to ‘Practising ethical and cultural protocols in Indigenous contexts’ for your case study report:

  1. Aguirre, BV & Tualima, H 2017, Protect and promote your culture; A practical guide to intellectual property for Indigenous people and local community,World Intellectual Property Organisation, https://www.wipo.int/edocs/pubdocs/en/wipo_pub_1048.pdf
  2. Janke, T 2010, Who owns story,Australian Institute of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Studies,https://aiatsis.gov.au/sites/default/files/docs/asp/who-owns-story.pdf
  3. Janke, T 2009, Writing up indigenous research,http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_a05f0ce9808346daa4601f975b652f0b.pdf
  4. Janke, T 1998, Our culture: our future report on Australian Indigenous cultural and intellectual property rights,http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_2740d8cff7d24320b70f8a34015f9a53.pdf
  5. World Intellectual Property Organisation n.d., What is intellectual property?, https://www.wipo.int/edocs/pubdocs/en/intproperty/450/wipo_pub_450.pdf

LINKS:

http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_a05f0ce9808346daa4601f975b652f0b.pdf

https://www.adcq.qld.gov.au/__data/assets/pdf_file/0003/2289/2011-Mabo-Oration-booklet-tagged.pdf

http://www.wipo.int/export/sites/www/tk/en/databases/creative_heritage/docs/terry_janke_icip.pdf

https://search.informit.com.au/fullText;dn=338099393895770;res=IELIND

  • Presentation:Give your study a title, and you must present it in a Formal Report format. Please read the file attached to it for detailed Requirement about this report.
  • Assessment Criteria
  1. Correct presentation format – Report (5%)
  2. Clearly and concisely construct an argument (15%)
  3. Demonstrate critical engagement with the topic (15%)
  4. Use of correct sentence structure, spelling, and grammar (10%)
  5. Correct use of CDU Harvard Referencing Style – in-text and reference list (5%)

 

26) Q9: Provide an understanding of the complexities of case
management in the following areas:
a. Family structure
b. Dynamics
c. Communication
d. Decision making
MR FER
Q10: Identify at least two relevant Mental Health / AOD related information in each
of the following areas:
? Organisation and regulatory standards
? Policy and procedures
? Legislation and statutory mandates
MR FER
Q11: Please provide the requirements for making a referral process to another service
where needs have been identified.
MR FER
Q12. Explain the principles and practices for the following:
a. Planning complex service inputs
b. Working across multiple services
MR FER
Q13: How can we as Case Managers in the mental health or AOD sector,
a. Understand the impact of service duplication
b. Recognise the issues faced by clients, their families and carers accessing multiple
services?
MR FER
Q14. What are the requirements of evidence – based practices? MR FER
Q15. Describe how a Case Manager recognises at least two indicators of imminence of
self-harm or harm to other.

 

27) In approaching this case study, you are to take on the fictional position of one of the following: a) a defence activist, b) a prosecutorial activist, c) a police activist, d) a court activist, or e) a victim activist. Taking on this position, you are to analyse one of the following contemporary criminal justice cases from your chosen perspective: – The conviction of George Pell – The conviction of Borce Ristevski – The over-representation of people with acquired brain injury in the CJS – The over-representation of Indigenous Australians in the CJS In undertaking your case study, you are to provide an overview of your chosen case (who, what, when, where), and outline various criminal justice issues from your activist position. Provide recommendations as to how the issues you identify can be properly addressed. Use evidence and examples to support your claims.

Attachments:

 

28) . How many Brahma worlds (Form planes) are there? Name the Brahma world where the beings born there have no mind. Write down the name of the 2S Rupavacara Vipaka Citta. (2nd Fine material Resultant Consciousness) in English or Pali 6. Decline one of the following in all cases 1. Loka 2. Canda 3. Dhamma Or Give the Pali terms for the following:
1. Child 2. Town 3. Tree 4. Village 5. Doctrine 6. Sun 7. Moon 8. Boy 9. King 10. Farmer

Attachments:

 

29) You are required to write an academic essay on the topic listed above. Your essay should follow an essay structure and should flow in a clear and logical manner. You should write the essay in your own words and ensure that you acknowledge any direct quotations appropriately.
You need to support your response with appropriate evidence from academic sources (minimum of 8) and ensure that you reference these sources appropriately in APA format.
You should ensure that you meet the word length limit and proofread your work carefully. You should also ensure that you follow the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance to format and present your essay.

Attachments:

 

30) ASW3101 Assessment 2 – Professional Social Work Report (35% weighting of unit assessment)

Template

PART A – SOCIAL WORK ASSESSMENT PLAN, 1000 WORDS max.(70%)

Students are to write a response to Questions 1-5 below and then complete the Table.

*Please note that the first section of the table, called ‘Personal Information’ is already completed.

  1. Briefly explain the purpose/s of completing an assessment in social work practice with reference to readings?
  2. a) What are the primary issues of concern in this case study?b) Drawing on your understanding of human development, the effects of trauma and social work practice theory, explain why you think these are of primary concern?
  3. Identify and explain each of the social work theories you would use to complete this assessment? (Linking your understanding of the theory with reference material and readings)
  4. Identify the assessment and interpersonal skills you would choose to complete this assessment with the client in the case scenario, and provide at least two examples of how you would use them?
  5. Identify one of your personal values or beliefs and discuss how this may be challenged while engaged with this scenario and propose how you would address this challenge, mindful of social work ethics

Assessment Report – Marina Heights Community Health Service

Personal Information
Name of client Trudi Ying
Contact details Mobile phone: 0400 123 678 Work 6231 1111

Address: 1 Banks Avenue, Green Valley, Victoria 4500.

Date of birth 1.6.1990
Source of referral Marina Heights Home Care Service
Reason for referral Has been diagnosed with ongoing social phobia following recovery form workplace accident
Presenting Issue Concerns about Ms Ying’s capacity to.
Current financial situation Ms Ying’s financial situation is now under strain.
Employment/education Ms Ying is currently unemployed and not able to look for employment
Does the client identify as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander? No
Background Information
Describe client’s relationships with family members or significant others
Current Situation
Physical health & wellbeing
Mental health & wellbeing
Traumatic events
Spirituality & religion
Strengths
Vulnerabilities/challenges
Client’s concerns about current situation
Client’s expressed wishes or goals
Conclusions & Summary

(Assessment of situation)

Recommendations

(Initial plan for intervention)

PART B – WRITING A CASENOTE

Students are to write a casenote using the template below and case study provided. It is expected that students will use the Casenote guide provided in class to complete this task. 400 words max. (30%)

Casenote – Marina Heights Community Health Service

Name of client:
Address & contact details of client
Presenting problem:
Referral source: Self/ other:

If other please name:

Reason for referral
Date of client interview:
Outline client’s key concerns
Outline other concerns, if any
What goals have been identified to address concerns? Goal 1 Goal 2 Goal 3
What actions or strategies are proposed to achieve the identified goals? Action/strategy Action/strategy Action/strategy
Agreed date and time of next appointment /contact with client
Date of casenote: Worker name:

 

31) Purpose

Our course has explored of a wide variety of people and styles involved in sex, dance, entertainment and art. And there are so many other innovators/innovations we haven’t considered. Who, where or what style in these fields are are you interested in knowing more about?

For this assignment, select a person, place or style NOT covered in this course and explain/justify your choice in terms of history, sex, dance, entertainment and/or art. Make the case for your choice to possibly be included in this course in the future.

Task

  1. Select and research your topic.
  2. Explain how your topic connects to each of these areas: history, sex, dance, entertainment and/or art. Use at least one slide per above mentioned area. Use at least one video in your presentation. Creativity combined with visual impact will be part of the grade. Judicious use of images (photos, drawings, etc.) that clarify and/or illuminate is encouraged. The numbers of images used is not the point; be selective.
  3. Compile your sources in a bibliography, using the citation style (Links to an external site.) of your choice, for the end of the presentation.
  4. Create a presentation using your choice of software: PowerPoint (Links to an external site.), Prezi (Links to an external site.), Google Slides (Links to an external site.), or Keynote (Links to an external site.) or video editing software (iMovie (Links to an external site.) or Windows Movie Maker (Links to an external site.)). (Note that the links to the software lead to instructions on their use.) You are responsible for choosing and using the software without assistance from the instructor. Your submitted file must open easily on a basic, current computer connected to the Internet without any add-ons, extensions, conversions, updates, etc. The file type should be either .ppt or .pdf, or the URL of your video uploaded to YouTube.If you use the .pdf file type, know that transitions and videos will not run/display. Make sure any privacy settings allow easy and free access. If you have ANY questions about software, do not contact the instructor — contact the IT help desk at 702-895-0777 or ithelp@unlv.edu.
    • Maximum: 10 slides or 1.5 minutes for videos
    • The attached sample .ppt is solely for illustrative purposes. Do not use it if you make a PowerPoint!
    • Check your presentation several times to ensure it functions correctly — you may want to email the file or link to yourself and open it on another computer — and does not have any watermark or any extraneous slides.

</pstyle=”margin-top:>

Attachments:

 

33) Overview
The purpose of this assignment is to investigate a dataset that has been produced as a result of the survey you conducted on Climate Change. You now need to interrogate the dataset in order to answer questions posed by your client, the Australian Government. Ultimately, you will need to analyse the data, interpret the results, and then draw appropriate conclusions.
Scenario
The Australian Government has previously commissioned you, Ellyse Perry (Chief Analyst at Survey House), to develop a survey to help them gauge the views of the Australian public regarding “Climate Change”. Now, in order to implement possible Climate Change policy initiatives, the Government, through their representative Daisy Pearce (Manager, Public Relations in the Prime Minister’s Office), wants you to interpret the data gathered from your survey and then answer several questions.
Daisy does not have an analytics background, so it’s important that you utilise “plain, easy to understand language” in your answers. If you believe you need to include any technical terms, then you must explain these in a clear and succinct manner.

Attachments:

 

 

 

34) 1. Describe the concept of Aboriginal and/or Torres Strait Islander cultural safety (20-50 words). 2. Describe how cultural safety is related to cultural awareness (20-50 words) 3. Describe how cultural safety is related to cultural competence (20-50 words)

Attachments:

 

35) 1 Provide an outline of the cost-benefits analysis method.
2 Describe each of the following types of innovation:
? Incremental innovation
? Disruptive innovation
? Architectural innovation
? Radical innovation
3 Describe Schumpeter’s theory of innovation including the five types of innovations described in the theory.
4 List the basic elements of the concept of creativity
5 List the five organisational learning principles.
6 List three quality management and continuous improvement theories.

Attachments:

 

36) Imagine you are leading the introduction of a beginning teacher mentoring program at an educational institution. Your task is to lead the development of mentors, so they have the skills and knowledge to mentor beginning teacher effectively. As part of this task you are asked to DESIGN two resources:
1. An 8-10 slide PowerPoint (PPT) introducing mentoring of beginning teachers to the mentors and mentees. The PPT should include: a. A definition and the benefits of mentoring b. Key considerations for mentoring beginning teachers c. An example of an effective mentoring session (this may be an excerpt from a transcript, YouTube clip, recorded example) with a analysis of why it is effective d. Some useful professional readings for mentors and mentees e. Speaking notes on each slide which include key points that would be discussed when presenting the slide f. Reference list

 

37) Summarise the neurophysiological evidence for the right hemisphere differing from the left hemisphere in holistic processing, with special reference to facial recognition

Attachments:

 

 

38) Topic: Discuss and critically evaluate the role of anxiety in academic
procrastination.
Word Limit: 1500 words. There is no 10% leeway on this limit. In- text
references are included in the word count, but not the reference list.
The literature review must also have a separate title page (with author byline)
and abstract (preferably no longer than 100 words).

 

 

39) Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered using categorical analysis.

  1. What is your research question?
  2. What is the null hypothesis for your question?
  3. What research design would align with this question?
  4. What dependent variable was used and how is it measured?
  5. What independent variable is used and how is it measured?
  6. If you found significance, what is the strength of the effect?
  7. Explain your results for a lay audience and further explain what the answer is to your research question.

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

 

 

41)

Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered using categorical analysis.

  1. What is your research question?
  2. What is the null hypothesis for your question?
  3. What research design would align with this question?
  4. What dependent variable was used and how is it measured?
  5. What independent variable is used and how is it measured?
  6. If you found significance, what is the strength of the effect?
  7. Explain your results for a lay audience and further explain what the answer is to your research question.

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

 

42) 1. Create an abstract class DiscountPolicy. It should have a single abstract method computeDiscount that will return the discount for the purchase of a given number of a single item. The method has two parameters, count and itemCost. 2. Derive a class BulkDiscount from DiscountPolicy, as described in the previous exercise. It should have a constructor that has two parameters, minimum and percent. It should define the method computeDiscount so that if the quantity purchased of an item is more than minimum, the discount is percent percent. 3. Derive a class BuyNItemsGetOneFree from DiscountPolicy, as described in Exercise 1. The class should have a constructor that has a single parameter n. In addition, the class should define the method computeDiscount so that every nth item is free. For example, the following table gives the discount for the purchase of various counts of an item that costs $10, when n is 3: count 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Discount 0 0 10 10 10 20 204. Derive a class CombinedDiscount from DiscountPolicy, as described in Exercise 1. It should have a constructor that has two parameters of type DiscountPolicy. It should define the method computeDiscount to return the maximum value returned by computeDiscount for each of its two private discount policies. The two discount policies are described in Exercises 2 and 3. 5. Define DiscountPolicy as an interface instead of the abstract class described in Exercise 1.

 

43) Task Description

Write a research proposal for an original empirical study. The proposal is intended to build on the Research Proposal Part 1. Proposal Part 2 must:

  • be on a topic relevant to the program of study in which you are currently enrolled, and
  • involve data collected from or about human research subjects.

The proposal must contain:

  • introduction including brief review of literature
  • aim and research question
  • description and justification of research methods (including design, sampling, data collection, and analysis)
  • discussion of research ethics
  • timeline and budget, and
  • description and justification of limitations

You are permitted to make adjustments to the research question and literature review you submitted in Part 1. However, given time constraints, students are strongly discouraged from selecting an entirely new topic.

You may use this research proposal as a foundation for subsequent study (e.g. a dissertation or independent study). If you plan to do so, please consult with the relevant convenor or academic supervisor to ensure the proposal you develop is suitable for this purpose.

In preparing this assignment, students are strongly encouraged to consider:

  • Course content (especially Topic 7)
  • Marking criteria sheet
  • Feedback from the teaching team on their blog post and Proposal Part 1

Criteria & Marking:

  • Logical, specific, and answerable research question supported by literature review (15 marks)
  • Methods are described, justified, and answer the research question (35 marks)
  • Ethical issues are described and addressed (20 marks)
  • Resources and activities covered in budget and timeline. Limitations are described and justified. (15 marks)
  • Academic standards of writing and referencing (15 marks)

 

44) Assignment
For this assignment, you will research assessment options for the offender population that you are writing about in your Signature Assignment.

Find three peer-reviewed journal articles that address common conditions and assessment measurements used with this population. Prepare an annotation for each article.

After you have completed the annotations, prepare a 1-page summary that includes the following:

  • An overview of the population and the condition that is being assessed
  • A listing and brief description of assessment instruments or methods utilized with this population
  • A description of any validity reliability concerns with the instruments
  • Recommendations regarding the assessment practices and tools one might utilize when assessing this population

 

45) 1. Complex visual processing, such as visuospatial processing, happens in which part of the brain?

 

46) 1. Create an art work or digital timeline of Rizal’s first travels abroad 2. The timeline should cover the period starting from his departure from the Philippines on May 3, 1882 until the printing of his novel, Noli Me Tangere in 1887 3. Create an art work (e.g. drawing, sketch, etc.) or use MSWord, Powerpoint or any appropriate computer program for your work. 4. Design the timeline with the correct information and use the appropriate images and/or graphics.

 

 

47) An essential characteristic of a profession is the need for its members to abide by a code of
ethics.” ACS Code of Ethics – 2014.
ICT professions require standard ethical behaviours in working environments. Australian
Computer Society has outlined the Code of Ethics of certified ICT professions. This Code of
Professional Conduct (the Code) has six core ethical values and provides the associated
requirements for professional conduct in ICT job roles. ACS requires its members to abide by
these values, and act with responsibility and integrity in all of their professional dealings.
The learning outcomes covered by this task include:
• Describe the practices used in real-world research including legal, commercial and ethical frameworks.
• Make decisions based on social, cultural and ethical issues, and understand the values
expounded in professional practices in diverse contexts.
The Task
In this assessment, you are required to:
• Read the six core ‘ACS code of Ethics’ and its associated requirements
• Read the ‘ACS Code of Professional Conduct Case Studies’
• Search for a real life case scenario where there was a dilemma of ethical value in ICT
industry or profession.
• Provide the following information about the incident of interest:
o Description of the incident
o Must also include the references to the sources of information
o What was the ethical issue?
o What ICT profession or activity was involved?
o What ACS code of Ethics and their associated requirements can be applied to
the situation? Refer to the ACS code of Ethics document provided.

Attachments:

 

 

48) Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered by multiple regression.

Choose a categorical variable to dummy code as one of your predictor variables.

Estimate a multiple regression model that answers your research question. Post your response to the following:

  1. What is your research question?
  2. Interpret the coefficients for the model, specifically commenting on the dummy variable.
  3. Run diagnostics for the regression model. Does the model meet all of the assumptions? Be sure and comment on what assumptions were not met and the possible implications. Is there any possible remedy for one the assumption violations?

Attachments:

 

49) Students are to select a character from a film / novel / TV show where the character has suffered
loss and grief (either they have lost someone significant to them or a significant part / aspect of
themselves).
Students are to simulate the first two sessions of this client coming to therapy. You do not need to
describe these sessions word for word, but please reflect upon what would the therapist aim to
achieve in these two sessions, and how might a client and therapist work through the first few
sessions.
In your response you need to include the following:
a) Describe the presenting issues for the client.
b) Describe how you would engage and connect to this client.
c) Explain your thoughts and ideas around contracting and case planning; what are your goals
and objectives for the client and the therapy process?
d) What theoretical ideas might inform and support your therapeutic process?
e) What interventions would you consider using (please provide rationales)?
f) What obstacles can you anticipate / might arise?
g) How would you potentially work to overcome these?
h) What strategies for self-care might you employ?
Analysis of this client’s grief and loss experience forms part of your written analysis.
In your written response you need to demonstrate your understanding of the theories studied this
term and the realistic process clients go through in this context. More important than demonstration
of skill and technique is your demonstrated ability to reflect, analyse and critique and provide your
rationale

50) Social Work Agency Assignment, student scholars will “view themselves as learners and engage those with whom they work as informants 2.1.4(4) Students will be scheduled to give an oral presentation about his/her agency. Students may use note cards, PowerPoint or other medians to support the presentations. This will essentially be a group oral presentation and will be evaluated as such. Any handouts that the student wishes to include will be distributed at the end of the presentation. The presentation should be only be (10) minutes (groups will be stopped if over the allotted time) long and must include but not be limited to the following. 1. A history of the agency and/or program 2. The purposes, functions, goals and types of services provided by the agency/program 3. A description of the clientele of the agency/program, areas of diversity/difference and strengths perspectives 4. The primary problems presented by the clients that the agency/program serves 5. How the agency/program is funded 6. Your impression and explanation of the Social Worker’s understanding of the scope of the services available to them through the specific agency/program setting 7. The interviewees’ knowledge and perception of the role of social work ethics within the agency/program

Attachments:

 

 

51) 6. Identify the main energy and raw material inputs needed to manufacture this product and the stage(s) in the production process where the majority of energy and materials inputs are consumed. (2 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts) 7. Identify the main causes of unsustainability over the product’s lifecycle (production, distribution, consumption and disposal stages). (3 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Understand concepts, Analyse and interpret information) 8. By applying the principle of the ‘waste=food model’ or the ‘waste management hierarchy’ provide one recommendation to reduce the volume of waste or pollutants discharged in the production, distribution or consumption of this product. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Creativity) 9. By applying the principle of the cradle to cradle design protocol, suggest one key improvement to the design of this product and explain how your idea will reduce the unsustainability of the product. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Creativity) 10. Identify this organisation’s key stakeholder groups and their specific expectations of the organisation. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts, Depth of research) 11. Describe one major corporate social responsibility (CSR) issue which confronts this organisation. (3 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts, Depth of research, Referencing)

 

 

  1. Criminal Justice Theory
  2. Why do girls break the law? How do their reasons for law-breaking differ from males? What changes are necessary in policy and practice to adequately prevent and respond to girls’ lawbreaking?
  3. Shaw and McKay are known for their Social Disorganization Theory. It is a theory to explain differences in levels of offending across neighborhoods. Over the years, the theory has been expanded upon and further developed. Using the concepts of Social Disorganization Theory, explain how and why a particular neighborhood (Neighborhood A) may have a higher rate of juvenile delinquency than a second neighborhood (Neighborhood B).
  4. How have biological explanations of delinquency been regarded in criminology? What is the state of the field today with regards to biology and crime?
  5. Trace the evolution or development of anomie or strain theories from their origin to their modern variations. Be sure to name each theory and theorist(s) and discuss the similarities and differences between the theories.
  6. All I need to know, including the behaviors that meet our society’s standard of conduct, I learned in Kindergarten. I have also come to understand that people can, later on in their life, learn to engage in criminal behavior in the same way they learn to play golf, drive a car, perform appendicitis surgery, or write a scholarly article. The acquisition, execution, and continued involvement in all types of behavior including those that are defined as a crime is learned. The learning process can be through observation, apprenticeship, and positive reinforcement. Discuss and assess the validity of the claims above. Identify and review the several theoretical versions that underpin these claims.
  7. One of the most consistent and strongest relationships in the field of delinquency theory is that associating with delinquent peers is highly correlated with delinquency. Discuss the theoretical and empirical literature concerning delinquent peers and delinquency.

 

 

53) Select two contrasting theories used by social workers, as discussed in class. I would like to discuss • Pychodynamic theory • Cognitive-Behaviourist theory (i) Describe each theory (about 600 words total) (ii) Critically examine their cultural and epistemological assumptions (about 800 words) (iii) Discuss the implications of this for social work practice (about 600 words) In writing this assignment you may use the first person if you wish (e.g. ”I think . . .”, ”My experience of . . .) etc Marking Criteria: You will be assessed on how well you understand the theories you have selected (10 marks) How well you analyse them in terms of epistemological and cultural assumptions (20 marks) How well you can relate these to social work practice (20 marks).

 

54) Does Professor Gordon’s evaluation of de Tocqueville’s words coincide with your own? If there are differences in interpretation, examine those differences carefully. Examine how and why your interpretation might differ? What does this infer about your own instinctual reaction to the term “American exceptionalism”? Do you agree with your classmates’ interpretations? Hypothesize about the similarities and differences in your responses and why they are similar/different.

http://www.visionandvalues.org/2011/04/the-roots-of-tocqueville-s-american-exceptionalism/

 

 

55) Adult Development and Aging Life is characterized by transformations; every aspect of the human being changes along the whole lifespan during both development and aging. As people get older, major challenges impact on their ability to engage in everyday tasks. The assignment about

Later Life And Aging.

  • Please type papers. Your paper should be about 2 pages long.
  • Assignments should be submitted on the Moodle before the due date. Zero mark will be awarded to answers that are copied and submitted late.
  • Due Date: 30/04/2020.
  • No emailed assignmentswill be accepted.

 

56) choose one question below to answer. The research essay shall go beyond a mere recollection of knowledge, and shall show the reflection and critical evaluation of the chose topic. All sources from someone else’s work shall be precisely referenced in footnotes. A bibliography is required to be provided at the end of the essay.

  1. What do you think of the dominance of the Roman Church in the Middle Ages? Any positive and/or negative impacts?
  2. Some argued that in a modern society where science has been made popular and the vast of public are well educated, it is meaningless even ridiculous to hold any religious belief. What do you think about such view?
  3. The Catholic criticised the Protestants that their protestation1,ruined a once uniform kingdom by creating thousands of scattered kingdoms,2,ruined a wholehearted belief of God among nations by tearing it into pieces ofdifferent versions of belief,3,ruined the single dominance of Popeship by establishing thousands of tyranniesby local monarchies, and4,was more intolerant to their own fellow protestants than what the Roman Popedid in the past centuries.What do you think of such criticism of Protestants?
  4. Which aspect(s) of the Enlightenment movement impress you most? Why?

5.What do you think of the slogan of ‘universal human happiness as the highest goal’? What are its positive and negative impacts?

6.Do you think the core values upheld by the Enlightenment movement in conflict with the Christian belief?

Attachments:

 

 

57) For this assessment, source a journal article of your choice on recent research about a current social
issue. The study should have been conducted within the last 5 years. The assessment asks you to
critique the paper by discussing the component parts.
In answering this assessment, students should first briefly describe the paper, including:
1. the stated rationale and background for the study
2. the aims and objectives of the study
3. an overview of the research methods used, including the techniques for sampling, data
collection and data analysis.
Then, after the above description of the paper, conduct a critical assessment of the methods
used. This should include a critical discussion of the following areas:
1. the overall research design
2. the way key concepts were defined and measured
3. the sampling process
4. the data collection methods
5. the way the data was analysed
6. the approach to interpretation of results
7. ethical issues
In your assessment, discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the methodological approach
showing what could have been done differently and why. Issues of validity and reliability should
also be mentioned.

 

58) 1.What does it mean to say that an individual is an “information literate person”?

2.Cite examples from your experience, as to how the information literacy component of this course (i.e. UGRC 136) has positively affected your: (i) Academic endeavours(ii) Socio-political life.

 

 

59) Task overview: 1. Choose 1 problem solving theory, i.e. task centred practice OR crisis intervention 2. Choose 1 psychological theory, i.e. cognitive behavioural therapy OR attachment 3. Analyse the case study from the perspective of the 2 theories you have selected. You need to: 1. Describe the main arguments of each theory (approx. 250 words per theory) 2. Explain why you selected that specific theory; why it is helpful in understanding the case study? (approx. 150 words per theory) 3. Identify 2 key principles from each of the theories (4 in total) 4. Apply the 4 principles to aspects of the case study; how do they inform your understanding of the case study? How would they shape your practice? (approx. 250 words per principle) 4. Draw an eco-map and genogram that represent the case study (approx. 50 words) 5. Using the principle of stress, explain why systems theory is helpful in understanding the case study (approx. 350 words) Please use sub-headings and include a brief introduction and conclusion (i.e. 150 words each). The word limit is 2500 words. 10% variance is allowed. It is acceptable to write in first person and use personal pronouns such as “I” or “my” in this assessment. This assessment must be supported by at least 10 academic references. You will need to use topic materials and undertake wider research. APA referencing conventions must be used. Please see the Marking ruberic (in Topic central in FLO) for more information on the assessment criteria. Please submit via the Assessment link in Topic central in FLO.

 

  1. 60) Make recommendations for the design choice.
  2. Explain whether you think that this is the appropriate correlation or bivariate regression to use for the research question. Why or why not?
  3. As a lay reader, were you able to understand the results and their implications? Why or why not?

 

61) Once your group has chosen its PBL topic, each member of the group will contribute to and share the research. Then each individual will report on the group’s findings using the Report structure and template provided. 1. Read/watch the suggested resources that have been provided to you. As you read/watch, take notes. It is recommended that you use the Cornell notes structure. 2. Complete further research, as needed, to help you complement the resources that have been provided. 3. Begin to plan your report using the documents called PBL Report structure guidance for students and Report structure and template. (You will find these in the LMS). 4. As you complete your initial planning, take note of remaining gaps in your research. 5. Complete remaining research and start to plan your report. 6. Consult with your teacher, as needed, during the research and planning stages. 7. Write a first draft of your report; don’t forget to include citations and a reference list. 8. Proof-read and edit and get some peer feedback on the first draft of your report. 9. Submit your draft report to your teacher, via Turn It In, for feedback. 10. Use the feedback from your teacher, and peers, to review and edit your report. 11. Complete a final proof-read and edit of your report before the final submission. Reminders/Tips for the report process: • While the Report structure might be a new skill and text type that you are learning, you can still use the TEEL structure for your paragraphs. • It is advised that group members help one another with the peer drafting of the report. This will allow you to talk with each other about the research and help you to prepare for the group components of the Project (Part B).

Attachments:

 

  1. “Summarisethe neurophysiological evidence for the right hemisphere differing from the left hemisphere in holistic processing, with special reference to facial recognition.”

Attachments:

 

 

  1. • Evidence of understanding of the guiding principles and theories of case management and use of these.
    • Clearly identify and justify your choice of approach utilising principles and theories of case management.
    • Discuss the strengths and limitations of a case management approach within a multidisclinary setting.
    • Discuss how case management principles and approaches might influence your practice as a social worker
    • Correct grammar, punctuation and spelling
    • Referencing using APA (6th edition) conventions

Attachments:

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64) How do anthropologists define religion? Do you agree with anthropologists that there is a universality to religion?
2-3 paragraphs

 

65) Question 1 Outline the different ways in which crime can be defined. What do these different definitions tell us about the nature of crime(750 words) Question 2 Outline the role that discretion plays in the early stages of the criminal justice process (investigation, charge, pre-trial). Reflect on the ways in which earlier discretionary decisions impact upon later outcomes for accused people. (750 words) Reference List; Minimum of 5. This assessment is 1,500 words long, so your answer for each questions should be about 750 words in length (therefore totalling 1,500). The assessment is worth 40% in total, so each question will be worth 20%. Resources: To answer these questions, you should use the following material: 1) key readings, 2) lecture material, 3) workshop Key Reading: 1. Australia Criminal Justice by Findlay M, Odgers S, & Yeo S 5TH edn. Book Chapters: An Introduction to Australia criminal justice, Criminal Responsibility, Police investigation, Expanding Crimes investigation, Pre-trial and Trial. 2. The construction and deconstruction of crime by Muncie J, in key reading in sociology, by Newburn T, Cullompton: Willian, 2009 pp 11-16

Attachments:

 

 

69) To complete the task, students should follow these steps:
1. Identify the key components of the question you have chosen. What is it asking you to do? What are the key words or concepts and theories that it refers to?
2. Consider what information is needed to successfully answer the question. As a start, think about the online weekly modules or set readings that are most relevant and review those materials. Bear in mind you will need to go beyond these (and you need to focus on published materials in your essay, so the set readings should be given preference over lecture pods/online materials).
3. Begin researching your chosen topic. Use the library databases to identify other academic sources. If you are not sure how to do this seek some support from library staff.
4. Take notes on the readings you complete, being sure to distinguish between your summaries/paraphrasing and any direct quotes. (Be sure to review the guides to referencing in vUWS if you are not clear on this).
5. Having obtained relevant information to answer the question, draft an essay plan that considers how you might structure your essay. Resources on essay planning are available in vUWS.
6. Commence drafting your essay. Keep coming back to your essay plan to check that you are still on track as you do so.
7. Re-read and refine your essay. As you do so, ask yourself: ’does this answer the question’? ’Are the points I am making, and the significance of them clear’? ’Are the connections between points, particularly between paragraphs, clear’?
8. Check your essay for spelling and/or grammatical errors.
9 Minimum of 5 reference required.

Attachments:

 

70) Sociology 100: Social Structures
Spring 2020
Socio-ME-ology Guidelines (Unessay Project)
Throughout the term you will be asked to use your “sociological imagination” to
understand your own lived experiences through the lens of the socio-structural topics
discussed in class. You will use this knowledge to develop a socio-ME-ology (i.e., a
sociology of self), which is your end of term socio-ME-ology unessay project.
Using these guidelines to inform your approach, you will work on a multi-medium project
(e.g., photography, film, art, music, written word) that expresses your sociology of self,
and on the final day of class you will submit your project to the instructor, as well as
share your experiences and explain your Socio-ME-ology unessay project to the class
through a short presentation.

 

71) For this Module 2 Assessment, you will examine a scenario that includes an inter-group conflict. In this scenario, you are recognized as an authority in cross-cultural psychology and asked to serve as a consultant to help resolve the conflict. You will be asked to write up your recommendations in a 5–6 page paper not including your title and reference page.

Reference

Darley, J.M. & Latané, B. (1968). Bystander interview in emergencies: Diffusion of responsibility. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 8(4), 377-383.

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To Prepare:

Review the following:

Scenario: Culture, Psychology, and Community

Imagine an international organization has approached you to help resolve an inter-group conflict. You are an authority in cross-cultural psychology and have been asked to serve as a consultant based on a recent violent conflict involving a refugee community in your town and a local community organization. In the days, weeks, and months leading up to the violent conflict, there were incidents of discrimination and debates regarding the different views and practices people held about work, family, schools, and religious practice. Among the controversies has been the role of women’s participation in political, educational, and community groups.

Assignment:(6 pages excluding title page and reference page):

Part 1: Developing an Understanding(2 pages)

  • Based on the scenario, explain how you can help integrate the two diverse communities so that there is increased understanding and appreciation of each group by the other group. (Note: Make sure to include in your explanation the different views and practices of cultural groups as well as the role of women.)
  • Based on your knowledge of culture and psychology, provide three possible suggestions/solutions that will help the community as a whole. In your suggestions make sure to include an explanation regarding group think and individualism vs. collectivism.

Part 2: Socio-Emotional, Cognitive, and Behavioral Aspects(2 pages)

  • Based on your explanations in Part 1, how do your suggestions/solutions impact the socio-emotional, cognitive, and behavior aspects of the scenario and why?

Part 3: Gender, Cultural Values and Dimensions, and Group Dynamics(2 pages)

  • Explain the impact of gender, cultural values and dimensions, and group dynamics in the scenario.
  • Further explain any implications that may arise from when working between and within groups.

Support your Assignment by citing all resources in APA style, including those in the Learning Resources.

 

72)

How has the birth control pill altered sexuality and feminine gender expectations?

  • A definition of population control and examples.
  • A description of how population control could help or harm a society (examples)
  • Your thoughts on the “One Child” policy. Would it work in the US?

 

73) Describe the experience in your memory in as much detail as you can. What happened? What things did you see? What sounds do you remember hearing? What do you remember touching, smelling, tasting? How did you feel physically? How did you feel, emotionally?
Paragraph 2: Describe the contribution of the hippocampus to your memory. What input did the hippocampus get from the senses, sight, sound, smell, touch, taste, movement? How was your body feeling at the time? What was the mood? How did the hippocampus make this memory? Tell about episodic memories that were made.
Paragraph 3: Describe the contribution of the amygdala to your memory. What feelings were input? Tell about the emotional memory that was made.

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74) Write a 3- to 5-paragraph critique of the article. In your critique, include responses to the following:

  • Which is the research design used by the authors?
  • Why did the authors use this t test?
  • Do you think it’s the most appropriate choice? Why or why not?
  • Did the authors display the data?
  • Do the results stand alone? Why or why not?
  • Did the authors report effect size? If yes, is this meaningful?

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

 

75) The Vaccine War The Crisis Situation The crisis is the controversy arising from the partial recommendation of vaccines. Conventionally, vaccines are generally associated with the prevention of severe health conditions; however, when professionals inform the public the practice is not effective in controlling certain circumstances, a point of confusion arises. The choice of this crisis situation was essential to learn some of the exceptions regarding the application of vaccines. Summary The video presents the case of the outbreak of measles; therefore, it was a time when people expected guidance from the healthcare professionals to guide them on reactive and preventive measures. They recommended the application of vaccines for the children. They further reported that immunization might not be adequate for disorders such as autism (Frontline, 2010). This led to the aspects of war over vaccines to rage on. The situation prompted the need for scientific establishment against populist coalitions of celebrities, parents, and activists. The benefit of Anthropological Perspective to Examining the Crisis Situation Examining the crisis can be better undertaken using the anthropological perspective. The approach can be used to analyze and understand the criteria of human behaviors as a result of the case (Khasnabish, 2014)). This will further help determine the influence behind the activist interventions, which resulted as reactive measures.

 

 

76) Critical Response Assignment – Media View of Child Maltreatment – 50 Points

This assignment is to prompt reflection, thinking and class discussion.  Bring in one media story that relates to any aspect of child abuse or neglect.  Be prepared to discuss your media piece according to the following questions:

  • What impact does the article have on the reader/viewer/consumer?
  • What values are reflected in the language of the story, video clip, article or other media resource?
  • What is the reporter&#39;s view of the people involved?  Does the reporter appeal to the reader to adopt a specific view?  Does the reporter offer any solutions?
  • What impression of child maltreatment do the media portray in this type of story, video clip, article or other media reference?

Suggested length of the paper :  1- 2 pages.

 

78) 1. Briefly describe an organization you know well and discuss how the six types of knowledge provided below are expressed in that organization, Select two and discuss how you have experienced them in your own life. Embrained Embodied Encultured Embedded Encoded Commodified 2. Compare and contrast tacit, explicit, and codified knowledge. Share a situation in which you used each type or believe each was used on you. Describe the experience and how you think understanding was realized by you (how you learned what you learned). 3. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using formal IPR to commercialize an innovation. Determine any barriers a start-up entrepreneur is likely to experience.

 

79) Below are the instructions for the PP presentation:

Assignment Details: Computer Ethics PowerPoint

Review your initial post from this week’s discussion activity on computer ethics. Use Microsoft PowerPoint to create a presentation based on your initial computer ethics discussion and associated research. T

Your presentation Should:

  • Identify the key points you want to highlight.
  • Contain a minimum of three slides in the body of the presentation.
    • Each slide in the body of the presentation should have no more than three bullet points.
    • Each slide must include animation.
  • Include graphics, audio, video or embedded links as needed to support and enhance your topics.

In addition:

  • Create a title slide that that includes a Title of PowerPoint, Students Name, Course Number & Title, Instructor&#39;s Name, and Date, in that order.
  • Create a reference slide that identifies all sources used within the presentation (including graphics or other multimedia)
  • Format your references according to APA style as outline in the and use in-text citations where necessary throughout the body of your presentation.

Below is my initial post:

 

The article I chose was digital dilemmas: Values, ethics and information technology.

What is information technology (IT)? This is the study or use of systems (dealing with computers and telecommunications) for storing, retrieving, and sending information. These are the things we do everyday when we use the computer. Anything that we send or retrieve some how is always being stored even if its not being physically done by the person using this unique instrument. This article talks about the the ways this system is used and the different ares of life its used. One that I picked up on in my reading was SST which is self service technologies. This system allows us the opportunity to have personal freedom and become more self sufficient, this is good for doing online applications and applying for things via the internet. But some of the ethical issues with this is that you can&#39;t tell if information is true until you do a face to face meeting. This is an issue that isn&#39;t just personal but also happens in large companies well as the government.

 

Reference: Canadian Public Administration. Jan2014, vol.57 issue2,p295-317.23p, Kernaghan,Kenneth

 

79) Essay report  of 500word  on Healthcare

3 sources that will be use in the report

1 academic journal article and  the 2 other frome acadimc websites or books

 

4pages

page 1 the  titel

page 2 and 3 full pages of essay

page 4 reference

=4 on healthcare

 

80) In a five-slide Powerpoint describe modernist architecture in reference to history.

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Accounting Assignments Help US Canada Australia

 

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Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and…

Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and operating income as
changes occur in the units sold, selling price, variable cost per unit, or fixed costs of a product.
3-2 Describe the assumptions underlying CVP analysis.
The assumptions underlying the CVP analysis outlined in Chapter 3 are
1. Changes in the level of revenues and costs arise only because of changes in the number of product (or
service) units sold.
2. Total costs can be separated into a fixed component that does not vary with the units sold and a variable
component that changes with the number of units sold.
3. When represented graphically, the behaviors of total revenues and total costs are linear (represented as a
straight line) in relation to number of units sold within a relevant range and time period.
4. The selling price, variable cost per unit, and fixed costs are known and constant

 

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy…

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy are married and have three children, Alice, Bryson, and Carl. They live at 500 Main Street, Phoenix, AZ 85021. Robert is a counselor working for a company called Healthy U. Amy works part-time as a pharmacy tech at Walgreens. Here are their social security numbers and birthdates:


View complete question »

Name Social Security Number Birthdate
Robert 123-56-3214 1/15/1988
Amy 564-52-6363 2/23/1990
Alice 558-99-3336 5/5/2013
Bryson 120-33-4566

 

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Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6…

Task One
It is stated under AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’ that companies must value and record as an expense
any options granted to employees in exchange for their services. Previously Australian companies
recorded share-based payments in the notes to the financial statements, arguing that share-based
payments did not cost the company anything.
Required
a) Explain the reasoning that led to the development of AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’.
b) Discuss briefly the possible economic implications of AASB 2.
(10 marks)
Task Two
Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6 years
and a face value of $20 each. Annual interest of 5% is payable at the end of each year. The notes
were issued at their face value and each note can be converted into one ordinary share in Sampras
Ltd at any time over their lives. Organisations with a similar risk profile to Sampras Ltd have issued
debt with similar terms but without the option to convert at the rate of 7% per annum.

 

 

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair market…

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair
market value of 100% issued shares of the company as at 31 December 2018 (‘valuation
date’). The purpose of the valuation is to assist the company in its deliberation of the
prospective sale of the equity stakes to new strategic investor. The deliverable for this
valuation engagement will be in the form of a valuation report, documenting the entire
valuation process, to be issued to the company.

 

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Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented…

Week 1 The fundamental qualitative characteristics that financial information must possess to be useful to the primary users of general purpose financial reports—identified in the Conceptual Framework are ‘relevance’ and ‘faithful representation’.
Required: a) Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) b) Provide one example where information is not relevant but is faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) c) Provide one example where information is relevant and faithfully represented. (4 marks, maximum 150 words)
Week 2 a) What is a social contract and how does it relate to organisational legitimacy? (6 marks, maximum 300 words) b) Explain two ways organisations can use corporate disclosure policy to maintain or regain organisational legitimacy? (4 marks, maximum 200 words)
Week 3 Diamond Ltd acquired an item of polishing equipment on 1 July 2015 for $440,000. The equipment is expected to have a useful life of 10 years and the straight-line method of depreciation is to be used. It has salvage value of $40,000. On 1 July 2017, the equipment is deemed to have a fair value of $424,000 and revaluation is undertaken in accordance with the Diamond Ltd policy of measuring property, plant and equipment at fair value. The asset is still usable for next 8 years but the salvage value is determined to be zero. The asset is sold for $356,000 on 1 July 2019.
Required: Provide the journal entries necessary at the following dates to account for the above transactions and events. (Ignore narrations). Show your working. (10 marks) • 01/07/2015 • 01/07/2017 • 01/07/2019
Week 4 Snowy Ltd acquires Pax Ltd on 1 July 2018 for $5,000,000 being the fair value of the consideration transferred. At that date, Pax Ltd’s net identifiable assets have a fair value of $4,400,000. Goodwill of $600,000 is therefore the difference between the aggregate of the consideration transferred and the net identifiable assets acquired.
The fair value of the net identifiable assets of Pax Limited are determined as follows: ($000) Patent rights 200 Machinery 1,000 Buildings 1,500 Land 2,300 5,000 Less: Bank loan 600 Net assets 4,400 At the end of the reporting period of 30 June 2019, the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,500,000. The carrying amount of the net identifiable assets of Pax Ltd, excluding goodwill, is unchanged and remains at $4,400,000.
Required: a) Prepare the journal entry to account for any impairment of goodwill. (6 marks) b) Assume instead that at the end of the reporting period the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,200,000. Determine the impairment of goodwill amount. (No journal entries required) (4 marks)
Week 5 On 1 July 2019, Fisher Ltd decides to lease a cargo ship from XFinance Ltd. The term of the lease is 20 years. The implicit interest rate in the lease is 10 per cent. The fair value of the cargo ship at the commencement of the lease is $2,215,560. The lease is non-cancellable, and requires a lease payment of $300,000 on inception of the lease (on 1 July 2019) and lease payments of $250,000 on 30 June each year (starting 30 June 2020). Included within the $250,000 lease payments is an amount of $25,000 representing payment to the lessor for the insurance and maintenance of the cargo ship. There is no residual payment required. Annuity factor, n=20; r = 10% is 8.5136.
Required: a) Prove that the interest rate implicit in the lease is 10 per cent. (2 marks) b) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of Fisher Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020. (4 marks) c) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of XFinance Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020.

 

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James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL)….

James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL).
After purchasing 1,000 shares of SNL, James received a letter (via email) from the company
secretary advising him of a forthcoming annual general meeting (AGM). As a new
shareholder of SNL, James has plenty of questions to SNL’s company secretary.
James rings and asks SNL’s company secretary to explain to him what is meant by the terms
‘member’ and ‘shareholder’, and the different ways in which a person may become a member.
He also asks to explain who may be eligible to become a member, and how many members
a company is permitted to have. Finally, James asks: how does a person cease to be a
member of a company?
1. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his questions above. Use relevant sections of the Corporations Act
2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (5 marks)
At the company’s annual general meeting, James bumps into the company secretary. James
had observed that the notice he had received advising him of his company’s annual general
meeting had stated that it would commence ‘at 1 pm’. Yet, on the day, the annual general
meeting had not commenced until 1.10 pm because the chair had been delayed in traffic
while trying to reach the meeting’s venue. James surmised that this delay in starting the
meeting could constitute a procedural irregularity that could only be rectified by his company
conducting the whole annual general meeting again.
2. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his question on procedural irregularity. Use relevant sections of the
Corporations Act 2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (3 marks)

 

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Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company…

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company
produces various food products including meats and milks. You work as a management accountant in
this company.
Your manager has asked one of your colleagues in the management accounting department to
prepare a comparative profit or loss report for the current and previous month. The manager wants
the report to cover only meat production in Victoria’s branches. Your colleague suggests that since
the company has different branches and products, financial statements should cover all of the
company’s activities. He also suggested that the report should be prepared for a financial year in
accordance with accounting standards.
Using your knowledge of financial and managerial accounting, general and specific purpose financial
reports and various users of accounting information, advise your colleague as to the approach they
should adopt to meet the manager’s requirements and ensure the information correctly reflects the
department’s operations.
Your answer needs to be in your own words and correctly referenced to receive full marks.

 

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Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources….

You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed
several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions
below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

 

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Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which…

  1. Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which
    apply to reporting by Australian companies and corporate groups, including Company Law,
    International and Australian Accounting Standards, and Stock Exchange requirements;
    2. Critically analyse and interpret the financial statements and other disclosures produced by
    Australian companies and corporate groups;
    3. Apply Australian Accounting Standards and Corporate Legislation to the financial reporting
    processes of a range of corporate forms including companies and joint ventures;
    4. Evaluate financial accounting problems and select appropriate accounting strategies for the
    accounting entity;
    5. Prepare accounting reports for companies and other corporate forms that meet the compliance
    requirements of the professional and legal bodies in Australia;
    6. Make judgments about appropriate use of accounting standards and accurately apply appropriate
    treatments and communicate these outcomes to a diverse range of stakeholders.

 

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Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits…

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

 

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Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars….

Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars. Management predicts that ending finished goods inventory for the first quarter will be 71,400 units. The following unit sales of the transmissions are expected during the rest of the year: second quarter, 357,000 units; third quarter, 347,000 units; and fourth quarter, 260,500 units. Company policy calls for the ending finished goods inventory of a quarter to equal 20% of the next quarter’s budgeted sales.
Propare a production budget for both the second and third quarters that shows the number of transmissions to manufacture.

 

Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts… 1 answer below »

  1. Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts in selecting the accounts to be debited and credited. (Do not insert theaccount numbers in the journal at this time.) 11 Cash 31 Emily Page, Capital 12 Accounts Receivable 32 Emily Page, Drawing 14 Supplies 41 Fees Earned 15 Prepaid Rent 51 Salary Expense 16 Prepaid Insurance 52 Rent Expense 18 Office Equipment 53 Supplies Expense 19 Accumulated Depreciation 54 Depreciation Expense 21 Accounts Payable 55 Insurance Expense 22 Salaries Payable 59 Miscellaneous Expense 23 Unearned Fees 2. Post the journal to a ledger of four-column accounts. 3. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance. 4. At the end of June, the following adjustment data were assembled. Analyze and use these data to complete parts (5) and (6). a. Insurance expired during June is $200. b. Supplies on hand on June 30 are $650. c. Depreciation of office equipment for June is $250. d. Accrued receptionist salary on June 30 is $220. e. Rent expired during June is $2,000. f. Unearned fees on June 30 are $1,875. 5. Enter the unadjusted trial balance on an end-of-period spreadsheet (work sheet) and complete the spreadsheet. 6. Journalize and post the adjusting entries. 7. Prepare an adjusted trial balance. 8. Prepare an income statement, a statement of owner’s equity, and a balance sheet. 9. Prepare and post the closing entries. (Income Summary is account #33 in the chart of accounts.) Indicate closed accounts by inserting a line in both the Balance columns opposite the closing entry. 10. Prepare a post-closing trial balance.

 

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of $12,500…

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of
$12,500 and negotiating a loan for the balance. The estimated life of the vehicle was
12 years and residual value $3,000. The vehicle was to be depreciated at the rate of
30% using the declining balance method.
Depreciation is recorded on 30th June each year.
On 30th September, 2017 and 30th September, 2018 all three vehicles were serviced
at a cost of $5,400.
On 31st March, 2019 Vehicle No 1 is sold to Extratta Traders because for $8,000.
You are required to:
a. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2017 to show the
Motor Vehicles account; 3 marks
b. Record all the journal entries that took place from 1st July 2017 to 30th June
2019 (ignore GST and show all calculations). 17 marks
c. If revenue for the financial year 2018 was $61,500, prepare an extract from the
Profit and Loss Statement at 30th June 2018 indicating associated
expenses for motor vehicles for the year. 3 marks
d. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2019 to show the
Motor Vehicles account. 3 marks
B. Why would Utensilite choose the two methods of depreciation it has? What is
the impact of each method on Profit figures over the life of the asset? Describe
two other depreciation methods that could have been used to depreciate the
motor vehicles. Which of the four methods do you believe is most appropriate
for motor vehicles and why?

 

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Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance…

Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance sheet from the adjusted trial balance of Hanson Storage. Ms. Hanson’s capital account balance of $40,340 consists of a $30,340 beginning-year balance plus a $10,000 investment during the current year.

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What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?…

  1. QUESTIONS1. What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?2. What are the four basic purposes of internal control? Give an example of each one? B. EXERCISE1. The California State University (CSU) system is the largest four-year higher education system in the United States. In 2004, all twenty-three CSU campuses adopted People Soft, an enterprise resource planning system, for managing finances, personnel records and other important functions. The project was referred to as the Common Management System (CMS). Considering Brown’s taxonomy of risk, identify five risks the CSU and its management took by making the PeopleSoft decision.2. The following is a question in which one is expected to evaluate internal controls. The Art Appreciation Society operates a museum for the benefit and enjoyment of the community. During hours when the museum is open to the public, two clerks who are positioned at the entrance collect a $5 admission fee from each nonmember patron. Members of the Art Appreciation Society are permitted to enter free of charge upon presentation of their members hip cards. At the end of each day one of the clerks delivers the proceeds to the treasurer. The treasurer counts the cash in the presence of the clerk and places it in a safe. Each Friday afternoon the treasurer and one of the clerks deliver all cash held in the safe to the bank, and receive an authenticated deposit slip which provides the basis for the weekly entry in the cash receipts journal. The Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society has identified a need to improve their system of internal control over cash admission fees. The Board had determined that the cost of installing turnstiles, sales booths, or otherwise altering the physical layout of the museum will greatly exceed any benefits that may be derived. However, the Board has agreed that the sale of admission tickets must be an integral part of its improvement efforts. Smith has been asked by the Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society to review the internal control over cash admission fees and provide suggestions for improvement. Required Indicate weaknesses in the existing system of internal control over cash admission fees, which Smith should identify, and recommend one improvement for each of the weaknesses identified.

 

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

 

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Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

 

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

 

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Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. -State for each variable…

Task 1: Variable List 1. Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. 2. State for each variable whether it is qualitative or quantitative; if it is qualitative, state whether it is nominal or ordinal, and if it is quantitative, state whether it is discrete or continuous. Task 2: Histogram 3. Create a histogram showing the distribution of salaries. Find the 5-number summary of the distribution of salaries. Comment upon the shape of the distribution: is it symmetric? If it is not, is it positively or negatively skewed? Are there any outliers present? If so, are they of particular interest? State which central measure would be best to use to describe the centre of this distribution, and the reason(s) why.

Attachments:

 

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years….

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

 

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In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures 2015-2016,…

Part A (70 marks)
In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures
2015-2016, the Income Tax Rates Amendment (Working Holiday Maker Reform) Act 2017
(the ‘WHMR Act’) was passed. The WHMR Act proposed changes to tax rules for working
holiday makers on 417 and 462 visas (‘backpackers’) as a means of raising revenue. This,
with other proposed legislative amendments concerning working holiday makers, has been
referred to in the media as the ‘Backpacker Tax’.
Choose and read ONE of the following cases.
Clemens and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 124 (6 March 2015); or
Jaczenko and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 125 (6 March 2015);or
Koustrup and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 126 (6 March 2015)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What issues are being considered in your chosen case, and what decision
(conclusion) is reached? (20 marks)
2. Would the decision in your chosen case support the need for a change to the
residency rules for backpackers in Australia? Give reasons (20 marks)
3. How does the WHMR Act treat income earned by ‘backpackers’ in Australia? (10
marks)
4. Is this different to the way income earned by ‘backpackers’ was treated prior to the
introduction of the WHMR Act? If so, how? (20 marks)

 

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the…

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the core features of
international business strategy. They argue that: “(s)everal of these cases focus on company and country
scenarios related to China, Germany, Mexico, Myanmar, Russia, Venezuela, and prominent other markets.”
(p609) These cases cover a range of international companies including Apple, Dominos, Ford, General Motors,
Microsoft, Philips Siemens, Skype and Volkswagen. As well, these cases in general relates to several unit learning
outcomes including differing elements of international business – related theories, national differences, the
global trade and investment environment, the strategy and structure of international business, and international
business functions.
Required:
This Group Assignment is comprised of two parts.
Part A: Written Report on Two Cases (15%) [this part must be submitted via Turnitin by 5:00pm Friday 24
January 2020] – Expected length – Total 2000 words (i.e., 1000 words for each case)
First, you, as a group, are required to select two out of twenty cases as included at the end of the text by Hill
and Hult (2019 – pp608 – 634). The selection of these two cases will be determined by the coordinator of the
unit and will be allocated in Week 4 during Semester 3, 2019.
Second, you are required to:
a. Summarise and elaborate the respective case scenarios;
b. Answer and critically evaluate the set questions in each case; and
c. Demonstrate applicable theories and issues of international business relates to the selected case.
Third, as well, you are required to provide your reflections and conclusions using contemporary aspects of
international business relating to the case.
The expectation is that you are required to use academic and professional authentic references in analysing
the case and writing the report. Please go through unit outline for guidelines about Turnitin submission and
referencing style.
The Group Assignment develops students’ theoretical and technical skills in international business theory and
strategy as well as their written communication skills. You are required to form a group by Week 4 with no
more than THREE members of your class. Each member is fully responsible for the discussion, preparation,
composition and submission of the integrated case analysis in group. Failure by a student to attend,
contribute, and submit the assignment will result in the said student receiving a zero (0) mark weighting for
this assessment task. You must attach a completed, signed coversheet and a self and peer contribution
evaluation form with your written assignment.

Attachments:

 

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Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing…

Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing swimming pools. During the year
ended 30 June 2019 Michael received $915,000 in cash for sales of equipment andmaterials and for pool services. Wages of
$275,000 were paid to his staff. This included an amount of $50,000 paid to his brother. The work of the brother could have been
done by an unrelated person for $10,000. On 1 June 2019, Michael paid $4,530 to his lawyer to complete the winding up of a
business he had operated at a loss in earlier years. One of Michael’s customers bought some pool materials for $600 on credit
on 21 June 2018 but could not pay the account which was issued on the same day because he went bankrupt in November 2018.
Michael wrote off the debt on 1 July 2019. During the year ended 30 June 2019 Michael paid rates and taxes of $5,270 on a
vacant block of land. Michael was thinking of putting a holiday house on the block of land.
Michael made an interest free loan of $500,000 on 1 January 2019 to one of his employees. The employee used the loan for two
purposes: 30% for the purchase of an investment property and 70% to pay off his home mortgage. On 1 March 2019 Michael
paid the life Insurance premium for one of his employees in the amount of $25,000.
Michael bought a rental property on 4 July 2018 for $1,000,000. He borrowed $750,000 of this money on the same day from
the bank to buy the property. The term of the loan was 4 years. The property was leased on 4 July 2018. He received rent in
cash from his tenants during the year ended 30 June 2019 in the amount of $95,000. On 1 July 2018 Michael paid the bank a loan
application fee of $1,570

 

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business…

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business and residential customers Students will nave the opportunity to establish payroll records and to complete a month of payroll information for Wayland. Wayland Custom Woodworking is located at 1716 Nichol Street. Logan. Utah. 84321. phone number 435-555-9877. The owner is Mark Wayland. Wayland’s EN is 91-7444533. and the Utah Employer Account Number Is 999.92904 Wayland has determined it will pay their employees on a semimonthly basis. Federal income tax should be computed using the percentage method.
For Pan 2 of this project, you will complete payroll for the last month (December) of the fourth Quarter (Q4) of 2018. which consists of the final two pay periods of the year. Then file the annual tax forms for Wayland as well as prepare each employee’s Form W-2 In Part 2.
The SUTA (Ur) rate for Wayland Custom Woodworking is 2.6 percent on the first $34,300. The state withholding rate is 4.95 percent for all Income levels and marital statuses.

 

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Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still…

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

 

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Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the…

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the
fifth largest in Australia.
The 2019 integrated annual report for the Company is provided on the subject Moodle shell.
Using the 2019 Report, compare the financial results of the Company between 2018 and
2019. You should use any financial information provided in the 2019 reports (including
ratios, and narratives) to conclude on the improvements or not in financial position and
profitability. You discussion should focus on reasons for this.
What other information would you need to make an assessment of Lendlease?
Word Limit 1100 words, Marks = 45
Question 2.
The 2019 integrated annual report is the fourth for Lendlease. Explain what is an
integrated report, and how Lendlease is Managing and Measuring Value.
What is your opinion of the Sustainability achievements of Lendlease?

 

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal…

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal
Court of Australia decision Addy v Commissioner of Taxation [2019] FCA 1768.
(Hint: you may either read the decision or read at least one of the several
commentaries available online)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What are the possible consequences of this decision for ‘backpackers’ who have
already paid tax in accordance with WHMR Act? Give reasons.(20 marks)
2. How has the Australian Tax Office (ATO) responded to the decision in Addy v
Commissioner of Taxation? (10 marks)

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the…

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the first month.

Transactions on May 1:

  1. Don Humes invested $40,000 cash in the company, as its sole owner.
  2. Hired two employees to work in the warehouse. They will each be paid a salary of $3,050 per month.
  3. Signed a 2-year rental agreement on a warehouse; paid $24,000 cash in advance for the first year.
  4. Purchased furniture and equipment costing $30,000. A cash payment of $10,000 was made immediately; the remainder will be paid in 6 months.
  5. Paid $1,800 cash for a one-year insurance policy on the furniture and equipment.

Transactions during the remainder of the month:

  1. Purchased basic office supplies for $500 cash.
  2. Purchased more office supplies for $1,500 on account.
  3. Total revenues earned were $20,000—$8,000 cash and $12,000 on account.
  4. Paid $400 to suppliers for accounts payable due.
  5. Received $3,000 from customers in payment of accounts receivable.
  6. Received utility bills in the amount of $350, to be paid next month.
  7. Paid the monthly salaries of the two employees, totalling $6,100.

Instructions

 

 

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is…

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is September 21, 1961, and Bruce’s is June 27, 1960. Bruce is the office manager for Ames Dental Clinic. Alice is the CPA at Lehman, York & Hunter CPA, LP. The Jones provide over half of the support of their two children, Cynthia (born January 25, 1994, Social Security number (017-44-9126) and John (born February 7, 1995, Social Security number (017-27-4148), who live with them. Both children are full-time students and live with the Jones except when they are away at college. Cynthia is in her third year of college, and earned $8,750 from a summer internship in 2019, and John is in his first year of college and he earned $6,500 from a part-time job in 2019. In 2019, the Jones’ paid $4,500 for Cynthia’s college tuition and $7,500 for John’s college tuition. The Jones also provided all the support for their 26-year-old son Ryan who recently graduated from law school but cannot find employment. Ryan lives in DC. According to Mr. Jones on July 01, 2019, he and his wife exchanged their two-family house in Westchester County (378 Pinebrook Blvd, New Rochelle, NY), which they rented entirely from January 01, 2005 to July 01, 2019, for a four family rental property located at 581 Atlantic Avenue, Brooklyn, NY. At the time of the exchange, the FMV of the two-family house was $900,000, and the adjusted basis was $275,000. The four-family house had an adjusted basis of $600,000 and a FMV of $800,000. The two-family home was subject to a $100,000 mortgage, which the buyer assumed. The Jones also owned and rented a two-unit commercial retail building located at 1560 Avenue A, New York NY, which they purchased on December 01, 2018 and placed in service on January 01, 2019. Information for all three of the rental properties is listed below. In March 2019, Bruce decided to start his own business; a retail bicycle shop to be located in NYC near Central Park called “Bruce’s Bikes.” On April 20, 2019, Bruce signed a 10-year lease at a monthly rental rate of $10,000, effective May 01, 2019, for retail space on 110th Street and CPW. The lease provided that Bruce was responsible for the costs of improving the retail space for its intended use. The terms of the lease also provided that the first three months were rent-free so that Bruce could complete the construction needed to operate a retail bike shop. When Bruce executed the lease he paid the landlord $30,000 as a security deposit. On May 01, 2019, Bruce paid a contractor $225,000 to provide all construction work relating to the build-out, which included electrical, plumbing, and carpentry. On June 01, 2019, Bruce purchased the following assets for the business:

Attachments:

 

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Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers -Discuss how management…

Assignment In recent years, successful companies have begun to focus on managing cross-company processes with suppliers to reduce costs, increase speed, and improve quality. In tis print advertisement J.D. Edwards, a producer of ERP software systems notes that companies must ‘collaborate or die’. Required: a) Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers b) Discuss how management accounting information can play a role in different stages of collaboration Limit: 4-6 pages Instructions: Format: A4 paper, corner stapled; no folders accepted; typewritten in 1½ spacing; pages must be numbered. A completed assignment cover sheet must be attached to the front of your assignment. Style Guide: Assignments should be closely checked for errors of typing, spelling, grammar, etc. Where you use specific material from any source, you must provide reference to the specific quotation, and all sources consulted must be included in a bibliography at the end of your assignment. Penalties for late lodgement: A maximum penalty of 10 per cent of the mark allocated to this assignment will be deducted for each day that the assignment is late

 

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights…

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.

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Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in…

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in harmonised international accounting practices across countries have been growing over the last ten years. Study based in emerging economies, such as China (He et al., 2012), Romania (Albu et al., 2014), India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh (Ali et al., 2006), South Pacific Island countries (Chand, 2005), United Arab Emeritus (Irvine, 2008), and Turkey (Misirlioglu et al., 2013), have consistently reported the challenge of effectively implementing IFRS in those countries due to country-specific contextual issues. Nobes (2015) also reported challenging issues in implanting IFRS in developed countries.
Assignment questions
1. Prepare a report critically arguing why having a single set of accounting standards (i.e. IFRS) for a world-wise use is inherently problematic.
2. Review literature explaining the contextual issues of implementing IFRS in emerging economies and in developed countries.
3. Critique whether adoption and use of IFRS will lead to improved financial reporting quality.

 

Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum…

Question 1 (2 marks) ‘Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum and face to face group learning, for all levels of students around the world, due to the Covid-19 pandemic. Online has asked you to research customer preferences and to recommend a pricing policy. There are limited price differences relating to the timing of classes in the Northern Hemisphere. However, for Southern Hemisphere classes running a class at or below 45 students (normal class size is 50) costs significantly more for Online to run the class. Required (200 words): a. In addition to customer preferences, what information would you like to gather before recommending a pricing policy? Explain why each item you list is relevant. b. Explain why it is important to understand customer preferences before investing in the infrastructure to run the system. c. Is the need to consider customer preferences different for this organisation than for another type of organisation? Why or why not? Question 2 (3 marks) Given you are constrained to your house due to Covid-19 you have decided to try and launch your own small business. Required (200 words): a. Design a small business and document 1 key product. Name your business and product. List a maximum of 10 costs that will be involved in selling your product and explain why they are either a variable or fixed cost. b. Estimate a reasonable selling price per unit for your product and estimate a value for each of the costs you listed in part a. c. Workout your Breakeven point, showing all calculations. d. Assume you require a profit of $25,000, calculate your new breakeven point, showing all calculations. e. Define and calculate the ‘Margin of Safety’, in both units and dollars, assuming you sell 75,000 units. Ensure you include all calculations.

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Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:…

Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:
May June
Budgeted hours 6 000 8 000
One-hour visits (hrs x 0.2 x 1) 1 200 1 600
Half-hour visits (hrs x 0.8 x .5) 2 400 3 200
Total direct professional labour 3 600 4 800
Hourly wage rate for dentists $200 $200
Total direct professional labour cost $720 000 $960 000

 

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping precinct….

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping
precinct. The business, called the “Hunny Pots”, sells two types of pots, Large and
Small.
The Business has registered for GST and has an ABN 40 741 258 639. It pays GST
quarterly to the Australian Tax Office.
Accounting system
The company has financial year end 30 June and prepares adjusting entries at the
end of the each month. The firm uses the following journals to maintain its accounting
records
? Sales Journal: to record all credit sales of inventory
? Purchased Journal: to record credit purchases of inventory
? Cash Receipts Journal: to records all cash receipts
? Cash Payments Journal: to records all cash payment
? General Journal: to record all transactions other than the above
The company maintains a general ledger for each account. Subsidiary ledgers are
used to record separate details that Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable.
The company uses a perpetual inventory recording system.
Goods and services tax (GST)
The company is registered for GST and therefore is required to pay GST on its
purchases and collect GST on its sales. All prices include GST unless specifically
excluded
Unadjusted Trial Balance and Chart of Accounts
The unadjusted Trial Balance as at 29 February 2020 and a Chart of Accounts is
presented on the next page.
Accounting Procedures
The transactions are recorded by you, the accountant for Hunny Pots on a daily basis
in the appropriate journal. Transactions are posted daily from the General Journal.
Transactions are also posted daily to the Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable
subsidiary ledgers. Total of the Special Journals are posted to the appropriate
accounts at the end of the account period.

 

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues…

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues related to the materials covered in this course. In the contemporary discussion forum participation, students will be required to contribute informative responses during the specified period, demonstrating engagement and interaction with contemporary tax issues. In considering the development of your responses, you will need consider what each of the articles are concerned about and what the relevance to the tax system is. For example, is the topic about some event that has occurred to a particular taxpayer(s) or perhaps there is a particular kind of activity that needs considering? Determine what the relevant tax issues might be, in terms of the topics we have been covering in this course. There is no mandatory word limit, however a good guide is to consider a paragraph or two, per post.

Please note that weeks do not necessarily corelate perfectly with topics and therefore I do not generally reference/align content or assessments to particular weeks. Moreover, although we have provided a structure to scaffold learning by splitting the syllabus into topics, there are a lot over cross overs and interactions between topics. As such, I would ensure you are familiar with how things fit together.

 

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For example, if you are a foreign resident (topic 2) who undertakes some kind of activities in Australia, then your tax rates will differ (topic 1) to tax residents. You will include only Australian sourced income (topic 2), and you will need to consider whether the activities are amount to assessable income (topic 3), or perhaps are captured by capital provisions (topic 4), or neither,  and if so whether any expenditure may be deductible (topics 6,7), and so on.

 

We generally assign topics 1-9 to Assessment 1.

 

Marking Criteria  Short Description  Mark
1. Relevant Contribution. Demonstrated ability to prepare and contribute relevant posts to the discussion forum topic(s). 2.5
2. Synthesis and Analysis. Ability to synthesise material in order to raise issues or construct a persuasive and substantive response. 2.5
3. Interaction and Engagement. Ability to engage in a reflective discourse. The extent of engagement with students, in terms of interaction, insight and direction offered. 2.5
4. Presentation and Referencing. The extent of appropriate organisation and structure; legal terminology and writing skills.

 

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Business Assignments Help USA, Canada & Singapore

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Q1.

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company
produces various food products including meats and milks. You work as a management accountant in
this company.
Your manager has asked one of your colleagues in the management accounting department to
prepare a comparative profit or loss report for the current and previous month. The manager wants
the report to cover only meat production in Victoria’s branches. Your colleague suggests that since
the company has different branches and products, financial statements should cover all of the
company’s activities. He also suggested that the report should be prepared for a financial year in
accordance with accounting standards.
Using your knowledge of financial and managerial accounting, general and specific purpose financial
reports and various users of accounting information, advise your colleague as to the approach they
should adopt to meet the manager’s requirements and ensure the information correctly reflects the
department’s operations.
Your answer needs to be in your own words and correctly referenced to receive full marks.

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Q2.

Develop your SWOTs.-Compare your product with your forecast environment. How will your product fit in the external competitive environment? Demand-system support-Strong-Weak relationships relative to competitors? What is its competitive position-advantages/disadvantage relative to competitors? (SEE THE TRIANGULATION APPROACH FROM THE LECTURES). For opportunities and threats does the potential size and likely growth or demand-shrinkage rely on end-user numbers? End-user acceptance of the product-Pros/Cons? (Note: these are broad estimates) Potential threats and opportunities emerging in the macroenvironment, mesoenvironment or microenvironment-Please use attached table to summarise.

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  1. Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which
    apply to reporting by Australian companies, including Company Law, International and Australian
    Accounting Standards, and Stock Exchange requirements;
    2. Understand and evaluate different theories of accounting such as positive accounting theory,
    normative accounting theory, stakeholders’ theory, legitimacy theory, institutional theory, and
    different initiatives of relevant global organisations such as GRI, IR;
    3. Apply Australian Accounting Standards and Corporate Legislation to the financial reporting
    processes;
    4. Evaluate advanced level financial accounting problems and select appropriate accounting
    strategies for the accounting entity;
    5. Understand different provisions of accounting standards and the compliance requirements of the
    professional and legal bodies in Australia;
    6. Make judgments about appropriate use of accounting standards and accurately apply appropriate
    treatments for different advanced level accounting issues;

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Q4
Week 8. Two-Hour writing session what questions to focus regarding major assessment item
DUE 9 PM Tonight. Provide academic references. Your writing should equal that of a government role, not merely rational (proper spelling, apply rules of capitalisation over random use of font sizes, styles and bolding, correct English grammar, parallel verb tense). Returned papers will be graded with comments to allow you to improve and expand it prior to 11 June due date. This is not a new assignment. Already you were to have submitted at least the topic and a one page summary of your progress.
Cover ALL areas below, however, submit whatever you have accomplished to get this assignment in tonight by 9 PM.Best Wishes!

  1. Define the specific public health nutrition issue chosen, its underlying factors giving rise to this health problem? Apply principles of public health nutrition and a ’systems approach’ to analyse YOUR CHOSEN population-level food and nutrition issue.
  1. With regard to your chosen Nutrition issue, analyse relevant portions of the food and nutrition system in Australia. In your ‘background’ discuss the relevant drivers: economic, political, environmental and/or social and evaluate their impact on the whole system and its components.
  1. Identify populations and ‘at risk subgroups’ to consider when developing interventions for your nutrition issue. Why is your target group community at risk? What are the past, current and future consequences of health due to this issue to the community?
  1. From a Public Health Nutrition perspective, critique current 1) policies, 2) strategies and 3) advocacy practices associated with your chosen nutrition issue and examine how priorities have been addressed and their outcomes.
  1. What does your analysis recommend should be done? What is your strategy intervention to address this issue? This must be clear, itemised and detailed. From your new level of expertise, make recommendations to improve this nutrition issue based upon topics in readings and in class, not limited to:
    1. Government policy, funding and new laws. However, be mindful that Australia allows individual self-determination and that the banning of: alcohol (a nutrition issue), sugar (a nutrition issue) or cigarettes (a significant risk factor in CVD, but, not a nutrition issue and therefore not relevant to any of our assignments) is impossible;
    2. Where to position the intervention: Upstream, Downstream and Midstream – support your choices with clear examples linked directly to your Nutrition issue. Include proper definitions as several in class have misunderstood the terminology, refer to the readings and quote references;
  2. Other than a reduction in the public health nutrition issue (which may include these or these or additional markers – Incidence? Complications? Years lost (lifespan) or years of disability) what other indicators should be monitored to indicate successful strategies and interventions? (Government policies? Media coverage?) Why and what do you expect from reports by other researchers?
  1. Communicate professionally and effectively. What will be the result if this issue is not addressed?

Q5
Question 1 3 Marks
(a) On 24 March 2020 an ANZ share was trading at $14.60 in ASX. The premium of Calls option with a
strike price (exercise price) of $16.00 with an expiry date on the month of your next birthday was
$1.00 per share. Draw the line curve of return (Profit/Loss) from the investment in this option against
share price varying from $0 to $30. (Draw the price per share on X-axis from $0 to $30 and Profit/Loss
in Y-axis. Must use Excel or similar software for the plot.) 2 marks
(b) If you had $2,000 to invest, how much profit would you make if the price jumped to $26.00 per share
of ANZ bank. Note that you have to pay a total brokerage fee of $19, options are traded in bundles of
100 shares in ASX, and you cannot overspend. (You may not be able to spend some amount of
money if it is too little for a bundle of shares.)
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Q6
This section will be a short paragraph that summarises the intent of the project. It should include: • The purpose and/or the desired outcome of the project • Timeframes for completion • Budget required (estimated) For example: “This project aims to increase the capacity of University of the Sunshine Coast (USC) staff and students to access health and wellbeing services by instituting a Health Promoting University Policy. The project is intended to be completed within 2 years, within a budget of $15 000.”
Q7
This assignment requires students to develop a crowdfunding proposal that incorporates key elements of a business plan.
The proposal may vary in length but students must be aware that this is in essence, a Web Pitch in which your product or service is the star of the show.
Here, you are asked to develop an online crowdfunding proposal that (1) reflects what an online user would see when reviewing your business and (2) serve as a serious business proposal. In writing your pitch, aim to incorporate the edited work you have completed for assignments 1 and 2.
a. A detailed written description of your product/ service (with diagrams/photos). [6 marks) b. A video description of your product/ service. [6 marks] c. What makes your product different? [3 marks) d. What’s your story? (Note: A good crowdfunding pitch tells a story). [3 marks) e. What rewards are you offering investors’, [2 marks)
Q8

  1. Amber Turing was hoping for Frothly to be acquired by a potential competitor which fell through,
    but visited their website to find contact information for their executive team. What is the
    website domain that she visited?
    2. Amber found the executive contact information and sent him an email. What is the CEO’s name?
    Provide the first and last name.
    3. After the initial contact with the CEO, Amber contacted another employee at this competitor.
    What is that employee’s email address?
    4. What is the name of the file attachment that Amber sent to a contact at the competitor?
    5. What is Amber’s personal email address?
    6. What version of TOR did Amber install to obfuscate her web browsing? Answer guidance:
    Numeric with one or more delimiter.
    7. What is the public IPv4 address of the server running www.brewertalk.com?
    8. Provide the IP address of the system used to run a web vulnerability scan against
    www.brewertalk.com.
    9. The IP address from Question 8 is also being used by a likely different piece of software to attack
    a URI path. What is the URI path?
    10. What SQL function is being abused on the URI path from Question 9?
    11. What is Frank Ester’s password salt value on www.brewertalk.com?
    12. What is user btun’s password on brewertalk.com?
    13. What was the value of the cookie that Kevin Lagerfield’s browser transmitted to the malicious
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    1. URL as part of a XSS attack?
      14. The brewertalk.com web site employed Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) techniques. What was
      the value of the anti-CSRF token that was stolen from Kevin Lagerfield’s computer and used to
      help create an unauthorized admin user on brewertalk.com?
      15. What brewertalk.com username was maliciously created by a spear phishing attack?
      16. According to Frothly’s records, what is the likely MAC address of Mallory’s corporate MacBook?
      HINT: Her corporate MacBook has the hostname MACLORY-AIR13.
      17. What episode of Game of Thrones is Mallory excited to watch?
      18. What is Mallory Krauesen’s phone number?
      19. Enterprise Security contains a threat list notable event for MACLORY-AIR13 and suspect IP
      address 5.39.93.112. What is the name of the threat list (i.e. Threat Group) that is triggering the
      notable event?
      20. Considering the threat list you found in Question 19, and related data, what protocol often used
      for file transfer is actually responsible for the generated traffic?

Q9
Again, using the four functions as your guide, do you think the managerial challenges Jeff Bourk faced when getting the airport up and running are different from what he faces now in actually overseeing the airport’s operation? Explain
Q10
You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’ budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
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Q11
Computer BIOS (Basic Input Output System) has been traditionally
responsible for the booting process. However, it has largely been replaced by
the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI).
Find and summarise ONE resource that describes UEFI. The resource, and
your summary, must focus on UEFI, however, you may mention how it differs
from BIOS.
Title, Link and Reference:
here.>
Summary:
and why it is relevant to the task here>

Q12
Using the information provided about Noyers Ltd and appropriate research regarding the
industry and other economic factors:
a. Assess the key business risks of Noyers Ltd from the information available to you (at
least six (6) need to be identified);
b. Explain the implications of each risk identified on the financial statements;
c. Identify the related financial statement accounts at risk.
d. Identify the related management assertion (refer to ASA 315) most at risk for each
financial statement account identified as being at risk.
e. Justify your identification of the management assertion at risk.
Use the spreadsheet template tab Task 1 in order to complete this task.
Task 2
Materiality assessment requires an auditor to make judgements about the size of
misstatements that would be considered ‘material’ to the users of the financial statements.
The auditor will design procedures in order to identify and correct errors or irregularities that
would have a material effect on the financial report and affect the decision making of the
users of the financial report. Materiality is used in determining audit procedures, sample
selections, and evaluating differences from client records to audit results. It is the maximum
amount of misstatement, individually or in aggregate, that can be accepted in the financial
report.
In selecting the base figure to be used to calculate materiality, an auditor should consider the
key drivers of the business. They should ask, ‘What are the end users (i.e. shareholders, banks
etc.) of the accounts going to be looking at?’ For example, will shareholders be interested in
profit figures that can be used to pay dividends and increase share price?
S & A Partners’ audit methodology dictates that one planning materiality (PM) amount is to
be used for the financial report as a whole (that is, rather than separate PMs for the income
statement and the balance sheet). The basis selected is the one determined to be the key
driver of the business.
Q13
You are tasked with creating a text-based program for storing data on Hotel Room Bookings – however, as this
is a comparative languages course, you will be creating the same application in the following three programming
languages:
• Java,
• Python, and
• Lisp
As you implement the application in each language you should keep notes on:
– The features of the languages used,
– Which features you found useful, and
– Any issues or complications which arose due to the complexity or lack of any language features.
A brief discussion document based on these programming features for each individual language accompanying
each implementation is required. Finally, a comparative overview of the languages highlighting how they were
suitable or not suitable for the creating this type of application is also required.
It is recommended that the first version of the application you write is in the programming language which is
most familiar to you. This will help you to have a working ‘template’ for storing room bookings which you can
then translate into the other programming languages.
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Q14
1 Outline three examples of barriers to the implementation of a WHS Management System. For each
barrier, identify a strategy that can be used to overcome the barrier.
2 List three reasons why it is important to consult with staff when implementing or reviewing WHS
procedures and policies in the workplace.

Q15
Q9: Provide an understanding of the complexities of case
management in the following areas:
a. Family structure
b. Dynamics
c. Communication
d. Decision making
MR FER
Q10: Identify at least two relevant Mental Health / AOD related information in each
of the following areas:
? Organisation and regulatory standards
? Policy and procedures
? Legislation and statutory mandates
MR FER
Q11: Please provide the requirements for making a referral process to another service
where needs have been identified.
MR FER
Q12. Explain the principles and practices for the following:
a. Planning complex service inputs
b. Working across multiple services
MR FER
Q13: How can we as Case Managers in the mental health or AOD sector,
a. Understand the impact of service duplication
b. Recognise the issues faced by clients, their families and carers accessing multiple
services?
MR FER
Q14. What are the requirements of evidence – based practices? MR FER
Q15. Describe how a Case Manager recognises at least two indicators of imminence of
self-harm or harm to other.

Q16
Choose any three concepts. Write a short essay defining and explaining the importance of each of the chosen concept. Each concept essay should not exceed 500 words (or 1500 words in total for the three concepts). Email your essay directly to me (ranald.taylor@murdoch.edu.au). 1. Consumer equilibrium 2. Income and substitution effects 3. Marginal rate of substitution 4. Backward bending labour supply curve 5. Producer equilibrium 6. Returns to scale 7. Short-run and long-run costs 8. Total factor productivity growth

Q17
Choose any three concepts. Write a short essay defining and explaining the importance of each of the chosen concept. Each concept essay should not exceed 500 words (or 1500 words in total for the three concepts). Email your essay directly to me (ranald.taylor@murdoch.edu.au). 1. Consumer equilibrium 2. Income and substitution effects 3. Marginal rate of substitution 4. Backward bending labour supply curve 5. Producer equilibrium 6. Returns to scale 7. Short-run and long-run costs 8. Total factor productivity growth
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Q18
Over time most businesses will have goals to grow and expand. One growth option is to target a new market segment (known as market development). You need to determine whether the Pizza restaurant in the case below will need to modify its marketing mix as they pursue another target market.
Gino Pizza restaurant offers a unique range of high-quality pizzas. The restaurant is well known for its innovative and unique pizza tastes. They originally segmented their market based on demographics and attitudes. As a result, they decided that their target market would be “pizza purists”, “variety seekers” and “experience seekers” who are willing to pay a premium price for unique tastes. The business was built around a general positioning of: “Set new standards for pizza restaurants”. Their marketing mix/strategy is as follows:

Marketing Mix Element General Approach
Product Unique range of high-quality pizzas. Use unusual ingredients (with choices such as oysters, kangaroo, avocado). Great wine list.
Price Premium pricing. Membership discounts.
Place Located in a beautiful historic building. No home delivery but offers takeaway option.
Promotion Food magazines, word of mouth, digital marketing, targeted television commercials.
People Knowledgeable, cheerful, approachable, multi-skilled and friendly staff.
Process Reservation is a must. Impeccable and multilingual service. High ratio of serving personnel to patrons. The pizza is immediately prepared and served hot.
Physical Evidence Intellectual atmosphere, surrounded by books and old portraits of intellectuals.

The store has now decided to grow the business by offering “something for everyone” targeting ‘value seekers’ and ‘convenience seekers’ and have a ‘value’ based positioning focus. Please answer the following question using the textbox provided below:
Considering the restaurant’s new target market, explain how you would structure the new marketing mix, across the 7Ps, for the restaurant to successfully pursue its new target market. Feel free to make assumptions and try to be creative!
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Q19
Portfolio guidelines
The main part of the portfolio which students should prepare for this course consists of a qualitative
case study.
To produce the qualitative case study, students should first clarify (in a form of an abstract) the
dimensions of their PhD research, that is – to state the problem they wish to explore, the purpose of
their research, and the methodology they intend to apply. Next, students should select a person, a single
institution or company, or a particular policy to be their case, i.e. unit of analysis; this case should
correspond to the student’s PhD research purpose and question(s). Then, students need to conduct one
observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). In addition, students need to conduct an
interview with a key informant relevant to the selected case. In other words, the observation report and
the interview transcript (along with other gathered documents relevant to the case) should serve as
bases for the writing of the qualitative case study.
Eventually, students should submit by email four documents:
1. Abstract of your PhD research (300-400 words).
Your abstract should include background of the problem, purpose statement, research question(s),
clarification of the methods and techniques you intend to use, as well as a brief mention of the
expected findings of your research. To find out more about writing abstracts, please see the
document entitled ‘How to write an abstract’ which is available from the student platform Moodle.
Also, please consider the examples of purpose statement given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp.
62-63). Do not forget to add an appropriate title to your research. To learn more about titles, please
see the document entitled ‘How to write a great title’ which is available from the student platform
Moodle.
2. Written transcript of an interview (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and conduct one interview with a key informant from whom you can gather
relevant data that will help you to write the case study. Make sure you use open-ended questions in
order to gather sufficient information about the person’s direct experience and views about the
problem so that you can write the case study in a form of a convincing narrative. The content of the
recorded interview should be transcribed according to the model given in the textbook (see
Merriam, pp. 111-113).
3. Observation report (field note) (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and carry out one observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). This
could be a systematic, planned observation during a field visit to a site and situation relevant to your
chosen case. You need to produce a field report, i.e. an observation note/report according to the
model given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp. 132-135). Your observation comments should be
added in the note either within the text (in brackets) or on the right hand margins.
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4. Case study (2000-4000 words).
The case study should be written as a report in a narrative form, and it should include rich, ‘thick’
descriptive parts. Besides an effective introduction, you should provide some background of the
problem; indicate your intentions and methodology; provide description of the findings; and offer
conclusions. Also, do not forget to add in Appendix the inventory of all the documents used while
preparing the case study. You may wish to follow the outline of a case study report which is given as
an example in the textbook (see Merriam, p. 263). Do not forget that qualitative research is about
people’s interpretation of the phenomenon that you investigate, so presenting their personal story
in the narrative report is essential to making a convincing case.
Studying the chapters from the main textbook (especially chapters 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10 in Merriam, 2009)
may appear essential to writing a successful portfolio. Indeed, further useful information can be found in
the other textbooks which are available from the student platform Moodle.

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Q20
Therefore, you should not include a lengthy literature review on your topic and research question. Instead you should mainly focus on the following:
– Explaining your data collection methods and justifying why these are appropriate to your research question.
– Explaining your sampling strategy and showing how it was guided by your research question as well as practical concerns (and your recruitment/access strategy if relevant).
– Explaining your analysis strategy, choices you made along the way, why these are appropriate to your research question and the data you collected.
– Explaining any changes you made to your research question or sample, data collection or analysis strategies after starting the study and justifying them.
– Presenting the results of your analysis including your interpretation.
– Showing your interpretative claims are supported by (grounded in) your data.
Nevertheless, it is always necessary to properly contextualize a study. Thus, you should also address the following:
– What is your research question?
– Why is it important to you and/or why should it be important to others? (Does it address a theoretical gap, respond to a practical concern or investigate an interesting phenomenon?)
– What does some existing literature say about this research question and how does your study fit with this literature? (for example, does it confirm, extend or contradict current knowledge?) To do this you will have to cite some existing theory and/or a few studies, but do not conduct a lengthy literature review.
– Why you have taken the approach you have taken, your views on qualitative research and your view of your role as the researcher and how you affect the research process.
– Strengths and limitations of your study and possible next steps.
You can use any  you wish but you must use more than one method, and use each method to collect data several times. The minimum for each method is as follows:
1.4 interviews
2.3 observations
3.2 focus groups
4.5 documents/texts for archival analysis
More important than satisfying a numerical minimum, however, is showing that you obtained sufficiently rich data to allow for interesting and credible analysis and interpretations, showing that you know how to use the methods appropriately and showing that you were deliberate and thoughtful about your choice of method, sampling, etc.
You must obtain consent from any participants (except when you observe in a public space or use publicly available data). You should use pseudonyms to maintain the anonymity of all sources.
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As mentioned, I do request that you connect your study to some existing research or theory, particularly in the introduction and in the discussion sections. You might be able to use some of the readings in our module (e.g. exemplary articles) or in one of your other modules.
Your essay should be typed, double spaced, fully referenced1, and in 12-point font. The 3,000 word limit excludes the bibliography and any tables or figures.
Deadline:
Monday, December 14, 2015, 4:00 PM
(1) Submit one electronic copy on moodle, and (2) hand in one hard (printed) copy to the Faculty Office of Social Science (FOSS) along with your portfolio (see below) before the deadline.
1 Any academic citation style used in social science journals is acceptable as long as it is used consistently throughout the document.
Portfolio
(Submit this to the Faculty Office of Social Science (FOSS) with the hard copy of your essay before the deadline mentioned above.)
Your portfolio gathers in one place evidence of what you have learned and accomplished during this module and demonstrates what you are now capable of as a qualitative researcher.
From the exercises you conducted outside of class, your portfolio should include:
1. Research question, purpose and/or propositions for your observation
2. Field notes from your observation (during and/or after)
3. Memo for your observation (optional)
4. Research question, purpose and/or propositions for your interviews (if different from research question/purpose for observation)
5. Notes from your interviews
6. Transcript of your interview
7. Memo for your interview (optional)
8. Signed consent form for your interview
9. Coded interview transcript
From the qualitative study you conducted for your individual coursework, your portfolio should include copies of the materials (artefacts) of your data collection and analysis, such as, for example, transcripts, archival texts, fieldnotes, consent forms, memos, examples of coding, etc.
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Q21
Conduct a semi-structured qualitative interview on a topic that is directly relevant to a sociological issue.
a. Make a transcript, which should be presented in an appendix.
b. Include in the appendix the interview topic guide
c.Your report, which should be no more than 2,000 words (excluding the appendix), should:
a. construct a research question and provide a brief sociological account of existing empirical research in your selected subject area
b. put your data in context, for example, explain the aim of an interview,
c. provide a theoretically informed account of the methodology applied to generate the qualitative data i.e., discuss qualitative interview methodology
d. discuss which technique,or combination of techniques you are using to analyse your data You should demonstrate that you have read some theoretically informed discussion of your chosen technique of data analysis
e. discuss the procedure applied to systematically code your data patterns of association)
f.discuss the validity and reliability of your findings
……. QUESTION TITLE :- semi-structured qualitative interview

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Q22
Prepare a 1 page double-spaced paper in APA format. The paper should have �1� margins all around, 12 point font, Times New Roman, pages numbered in upper right corner, running head and proper citations within the body of paper in APA format. The paper should include a cover page and reference page in APA format which is not include in the page count. This is a DBA in Business Administration course. The title of the course is Qualitative and Case Study Research for Business Analysis. Please write this paper as if it is your own assignment. The paper has to be scholarly written. This assignment will be submitted to turnitin. Please do not use information from another paper. Please use peer-reviewed references no older than 5 years old. Please us at least 2 of the references below. The assignment is due by April 08, 2015 by 6PM EST. I will upload the research study that we are to use for this project. You must focus on the background, problem statement, purpose statement, research question and conceptual/theoretical framework against the doctoral Study Rubric which I will upload. I am requesting you writer 337512 because you are completing my week 6 application which this should be included with this project. I know that I uploaded but apparently the professor felt that it was not correct. The professor is allowing me to correct the assignment. Thank you in advance. Catalog Description The D.B.A. capstone project requires that students know how to collect, organize, and interpret data. In this course, students broaden their research and general analysis skills as they further explore methodology and project types to incorporate into their doctoral study. Students engage in coursework focusing on qualitative and case study research methods, through which they learn to focus their analysis on efforts to improve the quality of an organization and its performance. Students examine techniques for thinking in an action-oriented manner, as if they were consultants, so that they can apply their own doctoral study in the real world. Finally, students engage in an iterative process of writing a proposal, incorporating feedback from peers and the course instructor. Ultimately, the proposal is offered by students as a document for review for consideration by potential mentors for their doctoral study. Designing a Qualitative Study and Approach The foundation of every successful doctoral study is a well-formulated business problem statement. You have likely already identified a business topic about which you are passionate, but is it a business problem that you can actually investigate? For example, does the business problem statement have a limited enough scope, and does enough research exist to support your inquiry? Critically thinking about factors such as these is necessary for constructing a pragmatic research question and a focused and promising doctoral research study. This week, you will focus on developing your business problem statement for your own study, concentrating on its scope and on the potential resources and research methods that you can apply to it. Be sure to follow the criteria in the Walden doc study rubric. Work with your colleagues and Instructor to determine your statement’s feasibility and appropriateness as it relates to your doctoral study. You will use their feedback to hone and refine your business problem statement. In addition, you will continue your evaluation of your selected doctoral study, focusing on the data collection methods and their fit with the identified problem and approach. Consider the relationship between the problem, the methods, and data collection techniques and how this relationship helps to focus a study. Learning Outcomes
By the end of this week, you will be able to: �Evaluate data collection methods for qualitative research in a business-related doctoral study
�Examine how to focus an appropriate qualitative study
�Create a first draft of your business problem statement
�Assess ethical challenges in conducting qualitative research Resources Week 3: Designing a Qualitative Study and Approach This page contains the Learning Resources for this week. Be sure to scroll down the page to see all of the assigned resources for this week. To view this week’s video resources, please use the streaming media players below. Media �Laureate Education (Producer). (2012). Interview techniques part II [Video file]. Retrieved from http://class.waldenu.edu Note: The approximate length of this media piece is 14 minutes. This video program focuses on strategies needed to ensure the success of qualitative interviews. It discusses relevant subtopics, such as types of interview questions, the importance of neutrality, cross-cultural interview considerations, potential ethical issues, and tips for effectively recording data gathered during the interview process………………………………………. For a custom paper on the above topic, place your order now! What We Offer: • On-time delivery guarantee • PhD-level writers • Automatic plagiarism check • 100% money-back guarantee • 100% Privacy and Confidentiality • High Quality custom-written papers
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Q23
Research Report :
The assignment is to produce a research report (max. 3000 words) based on an analysis of qualitative data you will each collect by undertaking an interview. Your task is to conduct an interview, record it, transcribe a sample of your recordings, undertake some initial analysis of the content of the conversation and reflect on the process of collecting data this way. It is expected you will support this using insights gained by your wider reading on the subject of qualitative interviewing.

The aims of the assignment are:
• to familiarise yourself with the use of a qualitative method (in this case interviewing) for both data production and data analysis
• to develop your research interviewing and transcription skills
• to promote reflection on the process of doing qualitative research.
The assignment task is to use a semi-structured or an unstructured interview process to discover your interviewee’s views and perspectives on the subject of the experiences of postgraduate students who study abroad.
This will involve using interview approaches to probe the subject and gather and analyse your interviewee’s own responses to this topic (in his or her own words).

The expectation is that you will interview a fellow postgraduate student, possibly someone from your own course. You will have to use your initiative to find a person who will be willing to be interviewed. It is preferable to make contact with someone you don’t know very well; a useful approach to do this may be to seek someone who is a friend of a friend.
You decide if you want to use a unstructured or semi-structured interview approach. You must explain your choices in the method discussion of your report. If you use a semi-structured approach prepare a schedule of interview topics you think it may be useful to discuss (please include these as an appendix to your report and comment on the practical and theoretical relevance of these in your analysis).

If you use unstructured interviewing approaches describe in your report how you started the discussion and used follow-up questions. You should lead your interviewee into the topic gently without putting words into his or her mouth; so you should not introduce too much rigid structure or artificiality into the conversation. The atmosphere should be relaxed allowing your interviewee to talk in detail about events important to him or her. Your role is to keep the interview flowing and on-course and respond to their conversation appropriately with follow-up questions and comments. Ideally you want to capture rich, descriptive details of their experiences and perspectives.

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There are three stages to this assignment, each has specific marks allocated to it and must be in evidence in your final report:
1) Data production and Method (approx. 1000 words):
• Each student is to conduct their own interview with a relevant participant and should consider (through appropriate reading) how to conduct this successfully.
• The report should discuss who you selected (a general description, without identifying the individual); why you selected them and how you set up the interview with them.
• Ethical guidelines are emphasised and you should ensure that you follow these (including for example considering issues of informed consent and confidentiality).

• The interview must be recorded – this must be kept safe and made available to the tutor if requested. You should be able to use your phone, mp3 player, computer or a recorder to complete this task. (Loan audio/video equipment if required is under the supervision of Media Loans, Ground Floor, MHT building; equipment is limited so book early!)
• Your report should include an account of the methods used and your methodological approach. Academic references should be used to indicate how your approach was informed by background reading on qualitative interviewing. You should also discuss how and why any themes were chosen to help structure the interview and how the resulting data was analysed.

2) Transcription (approx. 500 words of actual conversation from the interview):
• The assignment must include a transcript of part of the interview; which should demonstrate the use of transcription techniques.
• Students need to familiarise themselves with the ‘script’ of the resulting interview. They should listen to the tape several times to work out which parts of the conversation are most relevant, interesting and able to demonstrate your transcription skills. This extract from the interview should be around 500 words and must include (as a minimum) the exact words as spoken during part of the interview.

• The interview should be conducted in English (even if the interview participants English is not perfect). Your transcript should be of the interview as spoken, and this may include mistakes and unusual sentences. You may however sometimes have to include some explanatory comments in order to make the sense clear to the reader.
• In the extremely unlikely event you are unable to interview in English you would need to make a full transcription in the first language and then a full translation. Your reasons for doing this must be justified and discussed in the method section and it should be noted that this is NOT RECOMMENDED
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– as it takes much longer to do and is much harder to capture the meaning of the conversations.
3) Reflection on research findings and process (approx.. 1000 words):
• Students need to write a short reflection on the interview they conducted.
• This should include a summary of the findings – including a summary of key themes emerging from the interviews and the lessons learnt.
• You might want to discuss the differences between your original expectations of themes for conversation and those discussed in the interview itself.

• You should reflect on the success or otherwise of the interview in addressing the overall original objective of the research.
• You may want to relate this discussion to the known strengths and weaknesses of the technique you chose (giving academic references). Remember this should always relate to a reflection on the process of your interview and its outcomes not a general discussion.
The structure of the report should be as follows:
• Method Description and Discussion (approx. 1000 words) – 40% of marks
• Transcript. Presentation of an extract from the interview, a sample transcript with annotations (approx. 500 words)
– 30% of marks
• Reflection on the interview findings and approach (approx. 1000 words) – 20% of marks
• References (using Harvard conventions) – demonstrating appropriate wider reading and skills in referencing – 10% of marks
Suggested Further Reading
Bryman A & Bell E (2007) Business Research Methods 2nd Edition Oxford University Press
Denzin N & Lincoln Y (2005) The SAGE handbook of Qualitative Research London: Sage
Eriksson, P & Kovalainen, A (2008) Qualitative Methods in Business Research London, Sage

Gummesson E (1991) Qualitative Methods in Management Research London: Sage.
Marschan,-Piekarit, R & Welch, C, (2005) Handbook of Qualitative Research Methods for International Business London: Edward Elgar.
Mason, J. (2002) Qualitative Researching. London: Sage
Saunders, M et al (2006) Research Methods for Business Students London: Financial Times/Prentice Hall
Silverman, D. (2001) Interpreting Qualitative Data: Methods for Analysing talk, text and interaction. London: Sage
Silverman, D (2000) Doing Qualitative Research: A Practical Handbook London: Sage

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Q24
Research Paper-
The final paper must be in APA format, including a title page, abstract, body and references. The total paper must be a minimum of 10 pages, meaning that the body of the paper must be at least 7 pages in length.
Prior to writing the paper, students must conduct one interview each with their contact person and conduct their observations at the agency. During the interviews and observations, students must explore the concepts of case management as identified and observed within the agency in accordance with material covered in this course in the textbooks. Woodside, M. and McClam, T. (2018). Generalist Case Management: A Method of Human Service Delivery (5th Edition). Belmont, CA: Cengage.
[ISBN-978-1-305-94721-4]
In the paper, students will analyze the agencys use of the case management concepts covered in the course through their observations and input from the interviews. Data from observations and interviews must be incorporated in the analysis of each topical area. Students must attribute information obtained from the interviews to their contact people using APA-formatted personal communication citations. The analysis also must be supported by evidence obtained from the reference material listed on the reference page and the texts in the course. A minimum of three peer-reviewed journal articles must be cited in the paper.
Students must use the following topical outline and include the following headings to organize the paper:
Agency name and description: several paragraphs detailing the agencys function and its clientele. This section should introduce the contact person for the project, including job title and credentials.
Principles and goals of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Three components of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Model(s) of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Role(s) of the case manager: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Three phases of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Summary: several paragraphs detailing the students experience with the project, including a summary analysis and objective evaluation of the agencys performance in carrying out the case management concepts covered in the course.
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Q26
Topic: Discussions of the logistics of a case study The case study can be an existing company or a self-developed innovative e-commerce business-model. The content should include: – Description of the case study incl. the specific business idea (the unique selling proposition, the main markets and customers, the products and services).. – Description of the logistics network, operations and framework include. figures – Identification of the main 3 drivers in logistics which the case study is facing include the positive resp. negative effects on the case study and the explanation for the choice by using an appropriate methodology or argumentation. – Derivation of recommendations how the case study should face the drivers and (negative) solve or (positive) make use of the effects named before.
Q27
“Media do have influence, but they are among many influences on human awareness, attitudes and behaviour and their effects are contingent and contextual” (Macnamara 2012, p. 153). Discuss how Public Relations practice is informed by the application of media theories.
“Theories are…alive and relevant. Discovering them is unlocking the door to chambers of hidden treasures…” (Macnamara 2012, p. 14). Using at least two of the theories or theoretical concepts described in Topic 8, discuss the relevance of theory to the contemporary Public Relations manager.
Length: 1800 words
Resources:
The following resources will be made available on the course website to assist in the completion of this assessment:

  • An example of a well-structured and argued essay on another topic;
  • Links to guides on essay writing; and
  • Links to information on searching academic databases.

Format:
The paper is to be presented as a formal academic essay. No headings should be used, however there should be a clear structure that leads from one point to the next and supports an overall position or argument throughout.
Referencing Style:
The Harvard Referencing Style is to be used in blog posts for academic references. See Referencing Guides on the UniSA Library website.
Students will be assessed on:
• a demonstrated understanding of relevant theories,
• strong evidence of scholarly research to support the discussion (including referencing skills),
• a logical presentation of arguments that lead to a stated position on the topic, and
• professional standard of writing style including expression, grammar, punctuation and spelling

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Q28
Form and requirements
Topic – The role of forensic accountants in preparing insurance claims after natural disaster.
Students are asked to research publicly-available sources to gather relevant information and analyze the topic. The research report should summarize the key information, identify relevant themes, leading practices or pitfalls for practitioners and managers. Superficial reports, or those that merely recapitulate of news accounts or press releases will not be sufficient to receive full marks. To receive full credit, you must synthesize three or more high-quality information sources to provide a succinct summary of the subject and bring your own analysis of the case using the themes and learning from the course. Include a reference page of all sources.
While we expect that most of the Research Reports will be written in memorandum form, we will accept of other forms of reports. For example, students have the option to submit an oral presentation as a Powerpoint with voiceover (similar to the short lecture segments in this course) or YouTube video. The form and format is up to the student. Whatever form is chosen, the Research Report should be clear, concise, and businesslike. To illustrate, imagine that an executive level supervisor has asked you to research this topic and send her a memorandum to summarize the issue and tell her what she needs to know in her executive role in the enterprise. Imagine that she is a busy person. She is interested in understanding the most relevant elements and she wants you to pick out the most important information. She does not want to read a lot of extraneous information and she wants valuable information she can use. In this exercise it is more important to summarize and synthesize the most important information in a concise manner than to create a long, detailed report with every possible fact. Regardless of form, the reports should be “client-ready”. That is, well-written in error-free, articulate English. It is my professional experience that typos and writing flaws significantly impact the perception of the quality of your work. Grades in this exercise will reflect that. Research reports should be direct and to-the-point. Written, narrative reports should not exceed 3,000 words.

Q29
This Task is an individual research task which will involve an in-depth examination of ONE Old Testament OR New Testament story. Your NRSV Bible will be beneficial for this Task as it provides important information regarding context. Structure of the Research: ? Choose ONE Bible Story from the list below: ? Noah (Gen 6-9) (Myth) ? Jonah (Prophecy) ? The Red Sea (Narrative) ? Paul’s Conversion (Acts. (Narrative) ? Ps 137 (Wisdom) ? Complete detailed research on this story using the scaffold attached. This research will be checked progressively in class. Simply typing up the scaffold information does not mean that you are answering the question below! The scaffold is designed to structure your research and order your thoughts so that you are able to complete the written response. ? Complete a correctly referenced bibliography as a part of your research. ? Your research will be used to answer the following question in PEEL format: How do the Scriptures communicate the mystery and truth of God
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Q30
1. (3 Marks) Identify the main research question addressed by the authors. This should be expressed in
a paragraph of about 7 sentences.
2. (3 Marks) What are the main approaches other researchers have previously used to address the problem?
3. (3 Marks) What approach is being proposed by the authors of this paper? Why are the previous
approaches different from what is being proposed in this paper? Specifically identify the problem faced
by previous approaches.
4. (3 Marks) Summarize/state the description (demographic) of the participants used in this study, how
they were selected and payments received. Comment on any item that may have caught your attention
with regard to generalizing the results obtained in this study.
5. (3 Marks) The authors have used a factorial design in their study. Justify their choice. How else could
they have constructed the study and what will be the potential benefit or otherwise of the approach you
have suggested?
6. (4 Marks) In the study carried out in this paper, what are the dependent variables? Explain in your
own words why the choice of these dependent variables are appropriate for the research question.
7. (12 Marks) Factorial design entails a decision on the factors to be considered (i.e. independent variables). In this study what are the factors? What are the various conceptual questions the choice of these
factors allow the researchers to answer? Explain each of your conceptual questions and how it relates to
the main research question. Draw a diagram/table showing the factorial design along with the factors.
8. (15 Marks) Explain in detail how the data collected by the researchers would be combined to determine
the main effects. In determining the main effects how would you state the hypothesis tests (both null and
alternate)? What test would be conducted? What are the first order interactions? Using the material
provided in the paper, what are their implications?

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Q31
Portfolio guidelines
The main part of the portfolio which students should prepare for this course consists of a qualitative
case study.
To produce the qualitative case study, students should first clarify (in a form of an abstract) the
dimensions of their PhD research, that is – to state the problem they wish to explore, the purpose of
their research, and the methodology they intend to apply. Next, students should select a person, a single
institution or company, or a particular policy to be their case, i.e. unit of analysis; this case should
correspond to the student’s PhD research purpose and question(s). Then, students need to conduct one
observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). In addition, students need to conduct an
interview with a key informant relevant to the selected case. In other words, the observation report and
the interview transcript (along with other gathered documents relevant to the case) should serve as
bases for the writing of the qualitative case study.
Eventually, students should submit by email four documents:
1. Abstract of your PhD research (300-400 words).
Your abstract should include background of the problem, purpose statement, research question(s),
clarification of the methods and techniques you intend to use, as well as a brief mention of the
expected findings of your research. To find out more about writing abstracts, please see the
document entitled ‘How to write an abstract’ which is available from the student platform Moodle.
Also, please consider the examples of purpose statement given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp.
62-63). Do not forget to add an appropriate title to your research. To learn more about titles, please
see the document entitled ‘How to write a great title’ which is available from the student platform
Moodle.
2. Written transcript of an interview (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and conduct one interview with a key informant from whom you can gather
relevant data that will help you to write the case study. Make sure you use open-ended questions in
order to gather sufficient information about the person’s direct experience and views about the
problem so that you can write the case study in a form of a convincing narrative. The content of the
recorded interview should be transcribed according to the model given in the textbook (see
Merriam, pp. 111-113).
3. Observation report (field note) (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and carry out one observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). This
could be a systematic, planned observation during a field visit to a site and situation relevant to your
chosen case. You need to produce a field report, i.e. an observation note/report according to the
model given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp. 132-135). Your observation comments should be
added in the note either within the text (in brackets) or on the right hand margins.
4. Case study (2000-4000 words).
The case study should be written as a report in a narrative form, and it should include rich, ‘thick’
descriptive parts. Besides an effective introduction, you should provide some background of the
problem; indicate your intentions and methodology; provide description of the findings; and offer
conclusions. Also, do not forget to add in Appendix the inventory of all the documents used while
preparing the case study. You may wish to follow the outline of a case study report which is given as
an example in the textbook (see Merriam, p. 263). Do not forget that qualitative research is about
people’s interpretation of the phenomenon that you investigate, so presenting their personal story
in the narrative report is essential to making a convincing case.
Studying the chapters from the main textbook (especially chapters 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10 in Merriam, 2009)
may appear essential to writing a successful portfolio. Indeed, further useful information can be found in
the other textbooks which are available from the student platform Moodle.
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Q32
Scenario 1. North Korea Nuclear & Ballistic Missile Program: You are a Defence Intelligence
Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2 (Intelligence
Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to research,
analyse and deliver a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue
Paper’ on the historical, current and projected situation in North Korea concerning its
Nuclear Weapons and Ballistic Missile programs. Your assigned mission is to provide an
intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the operational
environment approach to support the development of potential future Australian national
courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess North Korea’s Nuclear and Ballistic Missile
program capabilities and assess its intent to employ them: how, when and where — most
likely and most dangerous courses of action (COAs).
Scenario 2. PRC Maritime Territorial Ambitions in the South China Sea: You are a Defence
Intelligence Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2
(Intelligence Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to
build a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue Paper’ on the
historical, current and projected situation in the South China Sea involving expansive
People’s Republic of China (PRC) maritime territorial claims. Your assigned mission is to
provide an intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the
operational environment approach to support the development of potential future
Australian national courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess the PRC’s expansive
maritime territorial claims and supporting activities in the South China Sea, as well as
China’s future intentions, to include most likely and most dangerous potential courses of
action (COAs).
Q33
During the instructional design and technology specialization courses, you will be developing instructional materials supporting a learning intervention solution that will be developed and delivered using the Lectora instructional authoring system. Consequently, you will need to develop a working knowledge of the Lectora instructional authoring system. Therefore, for this assignment, you will design and develop a standalone learning module on how to use Lectora’s Title Wizard feature. Your Lectora deliverable will be published to the Single File Executable format (*.exe) and must include a minimum of the following: ? Welcome screen ? Learning objectives screen ? 6-8 screens describing and depicting the steps required to create a basic Lectora title using the Title Wizard function Follow the instructions in Lectora for the “Publish for Offline Use” option to publish your Lectora file to the Single File Executable format. Submit your assignment in this .exe format. The maximum Lectora published file size submitted to your individual submitted files area cannot exceed 20MB unless the file is submitted in compressed form (.zip). Compressed files (.zip) not to exceed 200MB.
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Q34
his paper has no formatting guidelines. You can write it in essay style, or you can answer the questions using numbers or bullet points. Overall assignment should be at least 3-4 paragraphs, minimum. Just be sure to make your answers clear and distinct, and fully answer the prompt.
Directions:
Pick one of the minority groups that have been discussed in Unit 2 of our text, specific cultural groups. This will entail Hispanic and Latinx populations, American Indian and Native American populations, African American populations, Asian American populations, European and Mediterranean American populations, and Nonethnic cultures. In your written assignment, answer the following questions:

  1. Find an organization that provides resources and services to this cultural group. Briefly describe the organization, what services and resources they provide, and any other information that you see pertinent. In terms of health, what programs and services do they offer that target health. Try and find an organization that is in Clark County. 1- 2 paragraphs, minimum.Cite your source.
  2. Describe cultural factors to be considered when providing health services to this population. Name at least 3. When a health provider (eg. a nurse, doctor, dentist, counselor, etc.) is working with someone from the cultural group you picked, what are some tips you would give them? Consider whether the group you chose has strong roots in complementary and/or alternative medicine, or if they are based in traditional Western practices. As an example, pages 166- 167 in our textbook offers tips to working with Hispanic populations and creating public health programs. 1 paragraph, minimum
  3. List 3 strategies to reduce or eliminate health disparities within your population. Strategies can be found in Chapter 13 of your text. The strategies are not geared toward one specific cultural group but use your critical thinking skills to apply it to the cultural group you chose. 1 paragraph, minimum

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Q35
ACU requires assignments to follow APA style version 6 or 7 guidelines in semester one, 2020, as follows: • Size font 12 Black, bold for headings, double spacing throughout • Font Style is plain: Times New Roman, Calibri or Arial • Align to the text to the left and leave the right side uneven (no justifying) • Microsoft Word format or PDF only • Use 1in or 2.5cm margins on all sides (top, bottom, left and right) • APA references in-text and a reference list, no footnoting, appendices or images • Page numbers to bottom right hand side footer – simple number only • Keep quoting to a limit of 1 or 2 for essay only • Do not use HLSC122 lecture or journal club notes, lecturer comments or LEO resources as references Your writing, in each paragraph – apart from introduction and conclusion- should be supported by at least one high-quality varied academic reference (check textbooks in unit outline reference list). This assignment requires that you use at least four academic references, apart from research study being critiqued This reference is supporting your knowledge and understanding of critical appraisal related to the research study.

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Q36
NUR3003: Monash University- Clinical Motor Skills of Taking TPR & BP- Education For Clinical Practice-
Task:
To teach the BLS session, you will need to design and develop an evidence-based teaching plan for apeer teaching session you will be conducting in the clinical laboratories for 1st year students in weekeleven (11). The session involves teaching BLS.
Apart from Part 2 where a table format and dot points may be used, the ‘usual’ academic writingstandards apply to this assignment as follows:
• The header must include (a) student university student ID number and (b) the unit code.
• The footer must contain (a) assignment number, (b) page number and (c) date of submission.
• The lesson plan template provided can be cut and pasted into your assignment document.
• Use A4 format only; use 11 or 12 font Arial or Times New Roman.
• Use 2.5cm margins on each side of the page with double line spacing between lines.
• Sub-headings can be used to guide the reader.
• Submit in word format; do not submit as PDF or Pages document.

Q37
Assessment Task 2: Written Assignment – Searching for evidence
Description: Students are required to: identify, demonstrate and explain the rationale for conducting a structured search for evidence based on a health scenario. Student are also required to discuss how relevant the search is to the clinical question.
Instructions:
From the scenario/answerable question provided (LEO HLSC122, Assessment submission & resources) choose any one (1) as a basis for your inquiry.
Writing in an essay format (introduction, body, conclusion, reference list). The table/s are included in the word count, do not use an appendix. Minimum four (4) references (two to support your search strategy, two examples from your final search). Small/short headings may be used. Do not repeat the questions or scenario.
1. Based on the answerable question, identify key words, search terms and alternative words that you will then use to complete a structured search for evidence.
2. Identify the best two (2) databases that you would use to search for evidence related to the clinical question.
3. Explain why these two (2) databases are the best databases for conducting your structured search.
4. Use one (1) database described above to demonstrate your comprehensive and structured search for evidence using the table from Richardson-Tench et al. (2016, p. 47). Use the following headings in the table: ‘actions’, ‘search mode’, ‘results’, and ‘limiters’.
5. The table should demonstrate the use of a variety of search strategies (example Boolean operators, truncation, wildcard, limiters).
6. Your final search should demonstrate a significantly smaller number of results than your initial search.
7. Discuss how relevant your final search results were related to the PICO/PICo question/elements.
8. Include the best two (2) examples from your final search results as a full reference in the reference list.
Due date: Friday 01/09/2017, 1200 hours (midday)
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 800 words
Purpose: This assignment requires your understanding of step one and two of the evidence-based practice (EBP) process. By undertaking this assessment task you will demonstrate your ability to use an answerable question to search for the best available evidence related to a clinical scenario.
Learning outcomes assessed: 2, 4, 5, 6
How to submit: Submission is via the Turnitin drop box available in LEO HLSC122 2017 Semester 2 (Assessment submission & resources tile).
Return of assignment: Feedback (written, rubric and/or voice comments) will be available in the Turnitin drop box in LEO not more than three weeks after the final submission date.
Assessment criteria: The marking guide (rubric) for this assessment task is in the unit outline and Turnitin.
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Q38
Assessment Task 2: Written Assignment – Searching for evidence
Description: Students are required to select any one (1) of the scenario/answerable question/evidence (provided in the LEO HLSC122, 2017 Semester 1 (Assessment Resources tile) to search for evidence.
Students are required to: identify and explain the rationale for selecting particular databases; search for evidence and refine your search using a variety of strategies; demonstrate a systematic search using a table with a final result significantly less than the initial search results. Finally the student is required to validate the accuracy of the search results.
Instructions: From the scenario/answerable question provided (LEO) HLSC122, 2017 Semester 1 (Assessment Resources tile) to search for evidence, choose any one (1) as a basis for your inquiry.
1. Based on the answerable question, identify key words, search terms or phrases that you will use to complete a systematic search for evidence.
2. Identify the best two (2) databases that you would use to search for evidence based on the answerable question.
3. Explain why you chose these two (2) databases to conduct your search.
4. Using one (1) database described above, demonstrate your initial and refined search for evidence using the table from Richardson-Tench et al. (2016, p. 47). Use these headings in the table: &#39;actions&#39;, &#39;search mode&#39;, &#39;results&#39;, and &#39;limiters&#39;.
5. The table should demonstrate the use of a variety of search strategies (example Boolean operators, truncation, wildcard, limiters).
6. Your final search should demonstrate a significantly smaller number of results than your initial search.
7. Explain the accuracy (relevance) your search results related to the PICO/PICo question.
8. Include two (2) examples from your final search results as a full reference in the reference list.
Due date: Friday 7 April 2017, 2200 hours
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 800 words
HLSC122 Inquiry in Health Care – U. Outline 201730 FINAL 8.2.17
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Q39
This 1800 word assignment is to be written and presented in three parts:  Part 1-appraisal paper 1;  Part 2-appraisal paper 2; and  Part 3-justification of strongest evidence related to scenario.  Students are directed to the ACU Study Guide: Skills for Success to identify skills required for academic writing. Headings are permitted for this task. Students should use APA style to cite all references within the body of their essay and in the reference list. There is a chapter … View More
Q40

  1. (3 Marks) Identify the main research question addressed by the authors. This should be expressed in
    a paragraph of about 7 sentences.
    2. (3 Marks) What are the main approaches other researchers have previously used to address the problem?
    3. (3 Marks) What approach is being proposed by the authors of this paper? Why are the previous
    approaches different from what is being proposed in this paper? Specifically identify the problem faced
    by previous approaches.
    4. (3 Marks) Summarize/state the description (demographic) of the participants used in this study, how
    they were selected and payments received. Comment on any item that may have caught your attention
    with regard to generalizing the results obtained in this study.
    5. (3 Marks) The authors have used a factorial design in their study. Justify their choice. How else could
    they have constructed the study and what will be the potential benefit or otherwise of the approach you
    have suggested?
    6. (4 Marks) In the study carried out in this paper, what are the dependent variables? Explain in your
    own words why the choice of these dependent variables are appropriate for the research question.
    7. (12 Marks) Factorial design entails a decision on the factors to be considered (i.e. independent variables). In this study what are the factors? What are the various conceptual questions the choice of these
    factors allow the researchers to answer? Explain each of your conceptual questions and how it relates to
    the main research question. Draw a diagram/table showing the factorial design along with the factors.
    8. (15 Marks) Explain in detail how the data collected by the researchers would be combined to determine
    the main effects. In determining the main effects how would you state the hypothesis tests (both null and
    alternate)? What test would be conducted? What are the first order interactions? Using the material
    provided in the paper, what are their implications?
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Q41
Scenario 1. North Korea Nuclear & Ballistic Missile Program: You are a Defence Intelligence
Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2 (Intelligence
Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to research,
analyse and deliver a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue
Paper’ on the historical, current and projected situation in North Korea concerning its
Nuclear Weapons and Ballistic Missile programs. Your assigned mission is to provide an
intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the operational
environment approach to support the development of potential future Australian national
courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess North Korea’s Nuclear and Ballistic Missile
program capabilities and assess its intent to employ them: how, when and where — most
likely and most dangerous courses of action (COAs).
Scenario 2. PRC Maritime Territorial Ambitions in the South China Sea: You are a Defence
Intelligence Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2
(Intelligence Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to
build a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue Paper’ on the
historical, current and projected situation in the South China Sea involving expansive
People’s Republic of China (PRC) maritime territorial claims. Your assigned mission is to
provide an intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the
operational environment approach to support the development of potential future
Australian national courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess the PRC’s expansive
maritime territorial claims and supporting activities in the South China Sea, as well as
China’s future intentions, to include most likely and most dangerous potential courses of
action (COAs).
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Q42
This paper has no formatting guidelines. You can write it in essay style, or you can answer the questions using numbers or bullet points. Overall assignment should be at least 3-4 paragraphs, minimum. Just be sure to make your answers clear and distinct, and fully answer the prompt.
Directions:
Pick one of the minority groups that have been discussed in Unit 2 of our text, specific cultural groups. This will entail Hispanic and Latinx populations, American Indian and Native American populations, African American populations, Asian American populations, European and Mediterranean American populations, and Nonethnic cultures. In your written assignment, answer the following questions:

  1. Find an organization that provides resources and services to this cultural group. Briefly describe the organization, what services and resources they provide, and any other information that you see pertinent. In terms of health, what programs and services do they offer that target health. Try and find an organization that is in Clark County. 1- 2 paragraphs, minimum.Cite your source.
  2. Describe cultural factors to be considered when providing health services to this population. Name at least 3. When a health provider (eg. a nurse, doctor, dentist, counselor, etc.) is working with someone from the cultural group you picked, what are some tips you would give them? Consider whether the group you chose has strong roots in complementary and/or alternative medicine, or if they are based in traditional Western practices. As an example, pages 166- 167 in our textbook offers tips to working with Hispanic populations and creating public health programs. 1 paragraph, minimum
  3. List 3 strategies to reduce or eliminate health disparities within your population. Strategies can be found in Chapter 13 of your text. The strategies are not geared toward one specific cultural group but use your critical thinking skills to apply it to the cultural group you chose. 1 paragraph, minimum

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Q43
“Media do have influence, but they are among many influences on human awareness, attitudes and behaviour and their effects are contingent and contextual” (Macnamara 2012, p. 153). Discuss how Public Relations practice is informed by the application of media theories.
“Theories are…alive and relevant. Discovering them is unlocking the door to chambers of hidden treasures…” (Macnamara 2012, p. 14). Using at least two of the theories or theoretical concepts described in Topic 8, discuss the relevance of theory to the contemporary Public Relations manager.
Length: 1800 words
Resources:
The following resources will be made available on the course website to assist in the completion of this assessment:

  • An example of a well-structured and argued essay on another topic;
  • Links to guides on essay writing; and
  • Links to information on searching academic databases.

Format:
The paper is to be presented as a formal academic essay. No headings should be used, however there should be a clear structure that leads from one point to the next and supports an overall position or argument throughout.
Referencing Style:
The Harvard Referencing Style is to be used in blog posts for academic references. See Referencing Guides on the UniSA Library website.
Students will be assessed on:
• a demonstrated understanding of relevant theories,
• strong evidence of scholarly research to support the discussion (including referencing skills),
• a logical presentation of arguments that lead to a stated position on the topic, and
• professional standard of writing style including expression, grammar, punctuation and spelling

Q44
During the instructional design and technology specialization courses, you will be developing instructional materials supporting a learning intervention solution that will be developed and delivered using the Lectora instructional authoring system. Consequently, you will need to develop a working knowledge of the Lectora instructional authoring system. Therefore, for this assignment, you will design and develop a standalone learning module on how to use Lectora’s Title Wizard feature. Your Lectora deliverable will be published to the Single File Executable format (*.exe) and must include a minimum of the following: ? Welcome screen ? Learning objectives screen ? 6-8 screens describing and depicting the steps required to create a basic Lectora title using the Title Wizard function Follow the instructions in Lectora for the “Publish for Offline Use” option to publish your Lectora file to the Single File Executable format. Submit your assignment in this .exe format. The maximum Lectora published file size submitted to your individual submitted files area cannot exceed 20MB unless the file is submitted in compressed form (.zip). Compressed files (.zip) not to exceed 200MB.
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Q45
Form and requirements
Topic – The role of forensic accountants in preparing insurance claims after natural disaster.
Students are asked to research publicly-available sources to gather relevant information and analyze the topic. The research report should summarize the key information, identify relevant themes, leading practices or pitfalls for practitioners and managers. Superficial reports, or those that merely recapitulate of news accounts or press releases will not be sufficient to receive full marks. To receive full credit, you must synthesize three or more high-quality information sources to provide a succinct summary of the subject and bring your own analysis of the case using the themes and learning from the course. Include a reference page of all sources.
While we expect that most of the Research Reports will be written in memorandum form, we will accept of other forms of reports. For example, students have the option to submit an oral presentation as a Powerpoint with voiceover (similar to the short lecture segments in this course) or YouTube video. The form and format is up to the student. Whatever form is chosen, the Research Report should be clear, concise, and businesslike. To illustrate, imagine that an executive level supervisor has asked you to research this topic and send her a memorandum to summarize the issue and tell her what she needs to know in her executive role in the enterprise. Imagine that she is a busy person. She is interested in understanding the most relevant elements and she wants you to pick out the most important information. She does not want to read a lot of extraneous information and she wants valuable information she can use. In this exercise it is more important to summarize and synthesize the most important information in a concise manner than to create a long, detailed report with every possible fact. Regardless of form, the reports should be “client-ready”. That is, well-written in error-free, articulate English. It is my professional experience that typos and writing flaws significantly impact the perception of the quality of your work. Grades in this exercise will reflect that. Research reports should be direct and to-the-point. Written, narrative reports should not exceed 3,000 words.
Q46
This Task is an individual research task which will involve an in-depth examination of ONE Old Testament OR New Testament story. Your NRSV Bible will be beneficial for this Task as it provides important information regarding context. Structure of the Research: ? Choose ONE Bible Story from the list below: ? Noah (Gen 6-9) (Myth) ? Jonah (Prophecy) ? The Red Sea (Narrative) ? Paul’s Conversion (Acts. (Narrative) ? Ps 137 (Wisdom) ? Complete detailed research on this story using the scaffold attached. This research will be checked progressively in class. Simply typing up the scaffold information does not mean that you are answering the question below! The scaffold is designed to structure your research and order your thoughts so that you are able to complete the written response. ? Complete a correctly referenced bibliography as a part of your research. ? Your research will be used to answer the following question in PEEL format: How do the Scriptures communicate the mystery and truth of God
Q47
Topic: Discussions of the logistics of a case study The case study can be an existing company or a self-developed innovative e-commerce business-model. The content should include: – Description of the case study incl. the specific business idea (the unique selling proposition, the main markets and customers, the products and services).. – Description of the logistics network, operations and framework include. figures – Identification of the main 3 drivers in logistics which the case study is facing include the positive resp. negative effects on the case study and the explanation for the choice by using an appropriate methodology or argumentation. – Derivation of recommendations how the case study should face the drivers and (negative) solve or (positive) make use of the effects named before.
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Q48
Portfolio guidelines
The main part of the portfolio which students should prepare for this course consists of a qualitative
case study.
To produce the qualitative case study, students should first clarify (in a form of an abstract) the
dimensions of their PhD research, that is – to state the problem they wish to explore, the purpose of
their research, and the methodology they intend to apply. Next, students should select a person, a single
institution or company, or a particular policy to be their case, i.e. unit of analysis; this case should
correspond to the student’s PhD research purpose and question(s). Then, students need to conduct one
observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). In addition, students need to conduct an
interview with a key informant relevant to the selected case. In other words, the observation report and
the interview transcript (along with other gathered documents relevant to the case) should serve as
bases for the writing of the qualitative case study.
Eventually, students should submit by email four documents:
1. Abstract of your PhD research (300-400 words).
Your abstract should include background of the problem, purpose statement, research question(s),
clarification of the methods and techniques you intend to use, as well as a brief mention of the
expected findings of your research. To find out more about writing abstracts, please see the
document entitled ‘How to write an abstract’ which is available from the student platform Moodle.
Also, please consider the examples of purpose statement given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp.
62-63). Do not forget to add an appropriate title to your research. To learn more about titles, please
see the document entitled ‘How to write a great title’ which is available from the student platform
Moodle.
2. Written transcript of an interview (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and conduct one interview with a key informant from whom you can gather
relevant data that will help you to write the case study. Make sure you use open-ended questions in
order to gather sufficient information about the person’s direct experience and views about the
problem so that you can write the case study in a form of a convincing narrative. The content of the
recorded interview should be transcribed according to the model given in the textbook (see
Merriam, pp. 111-113).
3. Observation report (field note) (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and carry out one observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). This
could be a systematic, planned observation during a field visit to a site and situation relevant to your
chosen case. You need to produce a field report, i.e. an observation note/report according to the
model given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp. 132-135). Your observation comments should be
added in the note either within the text (in brackets) or on the right hand margins.
4. Case study (2000-4000 words).
The case study should be written as a report in a narrative form, and it should include rich, ‘thick’
descriptive parts. Besides an effective introduction, you should provide some background of the
problem; indicate your intentions and methodology; provide description of the findings; and offer
conclusions. Also, do not forget to add in Appendix the inventory of all the documents used while
preparing the case study. You may wish to follow the outline of a case study report which is given as
an example in the textbook (see Merriam, p. 263). Do not forget that qualitative research is about
people’s interpretation of the phenomenon that you investigate, so presenting their personal story
in the narrative report is essential to making a convincing case.
Studying the chapters from the main textbook (especially chapters 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10 in Merriam, 2009)
may appear essential to writing a successful portfolio. Indeed, further useful information can be found in
the other textbooks which are available from the student platform Moodle.
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Q49
ACU requires assignments to follow APA style version 6 or 7 guidelines in semester one, 2020, as follows: • Size font 12 Black, bold for headings, double spacing throughout • Font Style is plain: Times New Roman, Calibri or Arial • Align to the text to the left and leave the right side uneven (no justifying) • Microsoft Word format or PDF only • Use 1in or 2.5cm margins on all sides (top, bottom, left and right) • APA references in-text and a reference list, no footnoting, appendices or images • Page numbers to bottom right hand side footer – simple number only • Keep quoting to a limit of 1 or 2 for essay only • Do not use HLSC122 lecture or journal club notes, lecturer comments or LEO resources as references Your writing, in each paragraph – apart from introduction and conclusion- should be supported by at least one high-quality varied academic reference (check textbooks in unit outline reference list). This assignment requires that you use at least four academic references, apart from research study being critiqued This reference is supporting your knowledge and understanding of critical appraisal related to the research study.
Attachments:

Q50
Please analyse one of the following formulas from the CHM pharmacology aspect based on your review of relevant key literature, and write up a report addressing the individual ingredients of chosen formula, and in particular the CHM pharmacological mechanisms which underpin the formula’s overall functions and clinical applications.
· Gui Zhi Tang
2. Please include at least 5 references which should be cited using the APA style of referencing
3. Adhere to 2000 word account with a 5% leeway. Word count does not include reference list. Word count should be listed at the end of the paper.

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Q51
Your essay task is to: (i) identify and explain the key characteristics that divide organisms into prokaryotes and eukaryotes, (ii) identify and explain the key characteristics that divide prokaryotes into eubacteria and archaeans, and (iii) explain the evidence for the claim that archaeans and eukaryotes are more closely related to one another than either is to the eubacteria.

Q52
To prepare for this assignment, students should review and learn the material and lecture notes previously delivered in BTEC8002 about SDS-PAGE, qPCR, mammalian cell transfection, reverse transcription, production of a library and Illumina NGS. Completion of this assignment will: • Support students in learning the content delivered before the mid-semester break • Illustrate application of these methods and techniques The short question and answer section will assist you in reading the paper insightfully and will also assess your ability to apply your theoretical knowledge (from the lectures) to comprehend the research conducted in the manuscript. The last task is then to write a critique of the manuscript. Remember, a critique should always be constructive (improving the ability to present data or to write, suggest better suited/superior approaches, improve language and grammar, citations etc.). Critique of a manuscript can be positive or negative as long as the critique is demonstrated to be justifiable. Unless the paper is utter nonsense and poor research, for providing constructive critique it is advisable to first state what was done well, then critique the lower quality sections.
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Q53
This assessment is based on an oral presentation of your research project. You will be required to
present your research project, including the main results and what they mean in the wider context,
as well as defend your project in relation to any questions asked by the audience. Your supervisor
will be invited to attend your presentation and you are encouraged to invite other industry
professionals working in your research area. Students are expected to attend all the presentations
in their group over the afternoon. This is an opportunity to ensure that you have a clear
understanding of why you have been conducting your research, interpreting and presenting the
results and what they mean. Questions that you are asked may help you to interpret your results
differently or help with putting them into an industry perspective.
The presentation will run for 15 minutes including 5 minutes for questions. Please, also submit
your power point through Turnitin using the submission point on Blackboard.
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Q54
Clinical Scenario
Ankle sprains are one of the most common sport-related injuries treated by rehabilitation professionals. These injuries often result in lost participation and can lead
to subsequent injury episodes. Therefore, it is important to determine appropriate
means of preventing these injuries. There has recently been an increase in the
popularity of balance training programs for the prevention of knee anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL) injury, with some thought that starting these programs in younger
athletes may be most beneficial. However, there is the potential that these types
of training programs may also be beneficial for decreasing the risk of other lower
extremity injuries, including ankle sprains in the adolescent athlete.

Q55
Clinical Scenario
Ankle sprains are one of the most common sport-related injuries treated by rehabilitation professionals. These injuries often result in lost participation and can lead
to subsequent injury episodes. Therefore, it is important to determine appropriate
means of preventing these injuries. There has recently been an increase in the
popularity of balance training programs for the prevention of knee anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL) injury, with some thought that starting these programs in younger
athletes may be most beneficial. However, there is the potential that these types
of training programs may also be beneficial for decreasing the risk of other lower
extremity injuries, including ankle sprains in the adolescent athlete.

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Q56

  1. Collect information on the impact of a disease and summarise this as an introduction to
    policy report.
    2. Examine the strategies that have been used in the past to control this disease.
    3. Evaluate the strategies of at least two approaches used that have been found to have
    some merit and report on the impact of those two approaches.
    4. Assess the prognosis for the disease’s control if we continue with current strategies and
    optionally recommend a policy change that might result in further control.

Q57
Students are required to consider and reflect on their learning this semester relating to the assessment and communication of activities of living. Using the following: • The Roper-Logan-Tierney Model for Nursing (Holland & Jenkins,2019); • ‘Cues’ and ‘Judgements’ from The Situated Clinical Decision-Making Framework (Gillespie & Patterson 2009); and • Borton’s (1970) Model of Reflection (Smith, James, Adamson & Gentleman, 2016), prepare a 1500-word reflective paper that outlines your personal role in providing essentials of care for future practice as a Registered Nurse. When preparing your reflection consider and include the following: • Introduction – A brief overview of what you plan to discuss (short paragraph). • Define essentials of care. • What? – Describe your experience this semester in relation to the assessment and communication of activities of living on a dependence/independence continuum and factors influencing activities of living. • So What? – What cues (data/information/things you noticed) did you identify from your experiences this semester that shaped your judgements (understanding) about your personal role in assessing and communicating essentials of care for future practice? • Now What? – What could you and/or need to do now to enable you to effectively assess and communicate essentials of care for future practice? • Conclusion – A brief summary of what you discussed (short paragraph, no new information). We encourage you to use your journaling notes from seminars to assist you with this assessment.

Q58

You write a structured review that includes an introduction paragraph, then a minimum of 3 paragraphs with each one of these paragraphs giving suggestions to a different team member, and finally a conclusion paragraph. Importantly you write about a totally different outbreak (you must leave your team and visit a new team). Like the Peer Review 1 you have done previously, it must be written in the impersonal. A peer review is an important piece of work. It is worth 10% of your final mark. How much time should you allocate to writing a peer review? To work this out, consider that you should spend a minimum of 8 hours per week on each 12 credit point course. So for 10% of the assessment for a 13 week course that’s about 10.5 hours to prepare the peer review! I love numbers, you can now see that each % assessment is worth about an hours work. So if something is worth 10%, you may need to spend 10 hours to turn in a good report of your findings!

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Q59

Coursework Task (30 Marks) 1. Respond to the TWO drug inquiries below by assessing the evidences from appropriate references. Complete a Drug Information Request Form for EACH of the inquiry. a) Ms Lily Cheam (contact number: 87654321), a nurse at a day care centre, called to ask you on the doses to be given for a 55 years old healthy man. She needs to counsel him on how to take the Senna tablets and lactulose syrup that he bought from NTUC supermarket for his current constipation. She wants to know the doses, when to take, any regards to meal, etc. b) Dr Tan Koh Vit (drtan@gmail.com) emailed you to ask which proton pump inhibitors he should give for a male 50 years old patient that is already taking clopidogrel for coronary artery disease. The patient has a newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease. Dr Tan is considering esomeprazole, lansoprazole, or omeprazole, and ask you to provide detailed supporting information. Additionally, Dr Tan is asking you to recommend an additional medication for the patient’s body ache due to recent flu. Suggested Structure of Coursework You need to include the following features in your coursework. You may also wish to make use of these features to structure your coursework submission. (Refer to the assessment rubrics given in APPENDIX B for the allocation of marks.)
Q60
2. Mineral supplements are commonly sold in combination with other minerals or vitamins (i.e. calcium-magnesium tablets, multi-mineral capsules or calcium-vitamin C softgels.) Give TWO actual examples of mineral-mineral and/or mineral-vitamin supplement products found in the local pharmacies. Please select actual products that are currently sold online or in stores.* *Please note that you do not have to physically make a trip to the pharmacy. You can look for suitable products online as most major retailers have an online store. I.E.: Example 1: “Naturemade” brand Multi-Minerals (Calcium-Magnesium-Phosphorus) tablets Example 2: “Kordel” brand Vitamin C-Zinc softgels Ensure that your answer contain clear photos of both supplements and that you have listed out their ingredients, respectively. Analyze the active ingredients in each product and describe their possible interactions with each other. Explain if these interactions affect mineral absorption in a positive, negative or neutral manner. In addition, explain clearly if you would recommend each of these products to your friends and family.

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Q61

In this Assessment, you will engage in policy analysis. Choose a health policy (either current or past),
either at the state or federal level, to analyse in this Assignment (eg, mental health policy, women’s health policy,
preventative health policy, men’s health policy, Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health policy).
The Assignment should be approximately 2,000 words (+/- 10%) and presented in essay form.
Address the following questions in your Assessment but please do not answer the questions
as a series of short answers:
Firstly, provide a short introduction to your essay. Then proceed to analyse your chosen policy, and in doing so,
consider the following issues:
The Problem and Context
•Describe the current and historical policy context of the problem.
•What is the problem which the policy seeks to address?
What problems are highlighted???
•What problems have been overlooked?
Frame of Reference/Dominant Discourse
•What is the common frame of reference or dominant discourse evidence within this policy???
•Are certain words and phrases commonly used???
•Are there any underlying assumptions behind these?
Targets, Stakeholders and their Representation
•Who is the target of the policy (the subject of the discourse)???
•Who are the other stakeholders identified in the policy? Describe key institutional structures,
agencies and workforce capacity building.
•How are the subjects of the policy being represented???
•How are different social groups portrayed in this policy and what implications does this have?
•Are there any moral judgements expressed in this representation?
Policy process
•Who were the stakeholders involved in the development of the policy? Who was overlooked?
•Whose interests were represented in the development of the policy? Which voices were not heard???
•What were the potential competing interests and power differentials of those involved
in the development of the policy???
•What was the motivation for stakeholders in creating this policy???
•Were there any particular windows of opportunity that enabled the development of this policy?
Policy Solutions
•What solutions are put forward to address the problems?
What alternative solutions might have been overlooked?
•Are there any social/power/ethical implications of this policy?
Effectiveness
•Consider the implementation of the policy. How effectively do you think the current policy has been implemented???
•What are the accountability processes for the policy???
•Consider evaluation measures (indicators) and any evaluation which has been undertaken.
•How effective has the policy proven to be?

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Q62

In this Assessment, you will engage in policy analysis. Choose a health policy (either current or past),
either at the state or federal level, to analyse in this Assignment (eg, mental health policy, women’s health policy,
preventative health policy, men’s health policy, Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health policy).
The Assignment should be approximately 2,000 words (+/- 10%) and presented in essay form.
Address the following questions in your Assessment but please do not answer the questions
as a series of short answers:
Firstly, provide a short introduction to your essay. Then proceed to analyse your chosen policy, and in doing so,
consider the following issues:
The Problem and Context
•Describe the current and historical policy context of the problem.
•What is the problem which the policy seeks to address?
What problems are highlighted???
•What problems have been overlooked?
Frame of Reference/Dominant Discourse
•What is the common frame of reference or dominant discourse evidence within this policy???
•Are certain words and phrases commonly used???
•Are there any underlying assumptions behind these?
Targets, Stakeholders and their Representation
•Who is the target of the policy (the subject of the discourse)???
•Who are the other stakeholders identified in the policy? Describe key institutional structures,
agencies and workforce capacity building.
•How are the subjects of the policy being represented???
•How are different social groups portrayed in this policy and what implications does this have?
•Are there any moral judgements expressed in this representation?

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Q63

Create a 5 slide PowerPoint presentation with speaker notes for a staff training meeting on the pathophysiology and pharmacologic agents for a select disease process.

  1. Hypothyroidism

Describe the physiology and pathophysiology of the disease, clinical manifestations, and evaluation (e.g., labs, imaging).

Q67
What are the benefits of hydras reproducing asexually by budding? How have they impacted humans, and how have we, as humans, impacted them?

Pay someone to write my essay for chinese students abroad 

Identify a risk factor (or factors) for a non-communicable disease (or diseases) and critically appraise and summarise the evidence for the relationship between the two, using your understanding and interpretation of the concept of causation. The public health importance of the disease in a specific, named, developed country should be identified, using relevant reports and studies. The implications for public health action in that country should be discussed. Learning Outcomes Addressed • Apply epidemiological and bio statistical methods and concepts within the context of public health planning, investigation and surveillance. • Review, critically appraise, and summarise published epidemiological papers and reports.

Q69

You are a new enrolled nurse working in a clinic located in a remote area. The clinic building is an older structure and lacks the use of clinical and client information, such as posters. It has been identified that many of the staff are efficient in their roles but have some out-of-date ideas in their nursing practice. The clinic manager has asked you to research the most current information about a specific topic, such as: Infection control Plan the research activity 1. In order to complete this assessment, you need to identify TWO (2) areas related to the topic, where research can help support and improve your own practice as an EN. E.g topic: Infection control and prevention (or as agreed with your educator) 2. Identify the reason(s) for undertaking your research from the list below. • You may select several reasons. • Provide a brief rationale for each. E.g reasons: Comparison / hypothesis testing / trend identification / own knowledge extension / strengthen quality of own practice. 3. Write a clear statement highlighting your research question or hypothesis, e.g. “Is there a difference between hand washing protocols and actual practice”. It may include: • Nursing interventions applicable to the topic • Client perceptions of the provision of this topic • Models of nursing care that utilise the topic • Political issues confronting nursing practice and health care provision in relation to the topic An example of a question (the student can NOT use this example), would be: Does hand washing among healthcare workers reduce hospital acquired infections? An example of a hypothesis (the student can NOT use this example), would be: Hospital acquired infections are more likely to be passed on by hand washing with water than when hands are washed with soap.

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Q70
A nurse is taking care of an 85-year-old woman in a hospital-based skilled nursing facility. In the report, the nurse is told the patient has not been breathing well for the past 2 days. She has been lethargic, her skin is warm and dry, and she has a decreased urine output. The following laboratory findings were returned from the laboratory immediately after morning report:

  • Na: 147
  • Cl 110
  • K 4.0
  • Blood Gases:
  • pH 7.33
  • PCO2 48
  • HCO3 27
  • Po2 96
  • Urine:
  • Urine Specific Gravity 1.040

Address the following:

  1. Identify each of the abnormal laboratory findings in the above results. Specify how they differ from a normal range and identify what condition each abnormality indicates.
  2. What specific electrolyte disturbance does the patient have?
  3. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see with this electrolyte abnormality presented above?
  4. If the patient had an increase in her potassium level, what clinical manifestations would the nurse monitor for?
  5. What blood gas abnormality is seen in this patient? Discuss the rationale for your answer.
  6. What are the three major mechanisms of pH regulation?

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Q71

Develop a substantive response in which you describe the different variables found in every hypothesis-driven experiment in your own words:

  • Hypothesis
  • Independent Variable
  • Dependent variable
  • Control Variable

Looking at the attached video for the following question.

Discuss the sources of error in the experiment presented in the video. How you would change the parts of the experiment to gain viable results? What type of data would be produced and how would it be quantified?
Be sure and include the following parts in your experiment.

  • Initial Observation
  • Hypothesis
  • Independent variable
  • Dependent variable
  • Control group/Constants
  • Data collected
  • Possible Results
  • Possible Conclusion

Providespecific examples and references to the video in your response.

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Q72

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word integrative paper that explores how the process of recovery for an addict is changed when the co-addict in their life focuses on a codependent recovery. Include the following:

  • How does substance abuse affect the addict&#39;s physical, emotional, and psychological wellbeing?
  • What recovery behaviors might the addict exhibit that aligns with the five dysfunctional patterns of codependency?
  • How are the addict&#39;s family relationships affected by codependency?
  • How is the process of recovery different when the co-addict takes a codependency approach to recovery?

Include at least two peer-reviewed research articles.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Q73

A microbe is any living organism that spends its life at a size too tiny to be seen with the naked eye. Microbes include and characterize, , some fungi and even some very tiny animals that are too small to be seen without the aid of a microscope. and the recently discovered prions are also considered microbes. The term microbe is short for microorganism, which means small organism. To help people understand the different types of microbes, they are grouped or classified in various ways. Microbes are extremely diverse and represent all the great kingdoms of life, including the animals, plants, fungi, protists and bacteria View the tree below

Q74

  • Discuss psychological factors that influence whether individuals start to smoke, drink alcohol, or use drugs.
  • Describe the effects of tobacco, alcohol, or drug abuse in the workplace.
  • Explain how employee assistance programs can help employees in controlling this habit.
  • Explain the relationship between mental health and tobacco, alcohol, or drug abuse.

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Q75

Module 5 Written Assignment Chapter 10 Stimulants, Chapter 11 Tobacco
1. Describe how the following CNS Stimulants work: amphetamines, cocaine, caffeine and nicotine; include physical effects, symptoms of use, overdose and withdrawal. Discuss how they impact neurotransmission and what neuro-chemicals are affected.
2. Discuss why stimulant use is so popular in today’s society. Be sure to support your conclusions with research.
3. Tobacco is considered the leading cause of preventable death among adults today. Have current strategies to reduce smoking worked? Research the impact of the following strategies: taxes on tobacco products, restricted smoking areas, and reduction of advertisement. Site your references.
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Q76

  1. List and explain 3 different methods that can be used to prevent the spread of food borne infections
  2. For each of the following diseases, list the pathogen, type of microorganism responsible (bacteria, virus or protist), mode of transportation, strategies for prevention
  3. Briefly describe at least 2 individual choices that influence the control and spread of HPV
  4. What 2 factors contribute to its spread
  5. ……. ….

18.       Organ rejection is a common problem with organ transplants. In light of        what you have learned about the functioning of the immune system, explain,     in sentence form, the potential reasons for organ rejection. Be sure to include            the terms “phagocyte,” “T-Cell,” and “B-cell” in your answer.

……. ….
19.       Severed combined immunodeficiency (SCID) or “bubble-boy syndrome” is an           inherited disorder that affects approximately one out of every 100,000 newborns. Left untreated, infants with SCID usually die within a year of their    birth from infections that are not lethal to the rest of the population. The             disease affects both the B-cells and T-cells of their immune system. Describe             why we are not able to live without functional B- and T-cells. Be sure to             include an explanation of the function of these cells in your answer.

20.       HIV changes the shape of its glycoproteins very quickly. Explain why this       would make it difficult for scientists to develop an effective vaccine against       this virus.

21.       In sentence form, explain the following statement: “We are in a constant        arms race against pathogenic micro-organisms.” In your explanation, include       a description of both antibiotics and antivirals. Use two examples to support    your explanation.

……. ….
23.       Using a Venn diagram, compare and contract antibiotics and antiseptics.        Provide two points for each heading.

24.       In May 2000, an outbreak of a waterborne intestinal disease caused by the E. coli bacterium hit a small community in Bruce County, Ontario. Use an Internet search engine to find a reliable article or website describing this preventable tragedy.

a)         In point form, assess the reliability of the article using each of the following   five criteria.
……. ….

  • Website
  • Author/s
  • Date of Publication
  • Objective Reasoning
  • External Links

b)        Briefly describe the cause of the outbreak and why it was considered             preventable.

25.       The last large-scale outbreak of polio in Canada occurred in 1959. Briefly      explain why we still vaccinate against the poliovirus.

26.       In point form, compare and contrast cholera and polio. Provide two   similarities and two differences between them.

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Q77
What is immunity? Please explain to me about innate immunity & aquired immunity. I also want to know what comes under aquired immunity (for example, naturally acquired immunity & artificially acquired immunity).

Q78

Pay someone to do my homework 

Answer questions 1-3 with the following information: A study wasrecently carried out in Demark comparing two drug-eluting stentsfor coronary artery disease (Lancet, 375: 1090-1099, 2010). Stentsare used to open the blood flow through partially or fully occludedcoronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. (When thevessels occlude, and the muscle they supply dies, this is amyocardial infarction or heart attack.) Research over the yearshave found that stents themselves can also occlude, although therate of occlusion is lower when stents are coated with drugs thatinhibit the revascularization of arteries. This recent Danish studycompared a new (experimental) agent, sirolimus, with an existing(control) agent known to reduce occlusion, zotarolimus. The primaryend-point of the study was a composite measure of cardiac death,myocardial infarction, and blood vessel revascularization. Patientswere followed for 18 months.

Q79

Question 1
Triglycerides are
1. formed by combining a total of four molecules
2. the major components of cell membrane
3. informational molecules
4. held by hydrogen bonds between OH and COOH groups
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer:
Question 2
Which of the following descriptions regarding Gram staining is correct?
A. A purple dye is used to stain the lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
B. An electron microscope is a necessary tool for Gram staining
C. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells can be differentiated
D. Gram-negative cells also gain a color
Answer:
Question 3
Typically, the most abundant macromolecule and element that can be found in
a cell belong to

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Q80
Choose a topic from the list provided on UTSOnline
• Conduct a literature search using the appropriate databases (e.g. PubMed) and keywords to
find current, relevant, peer-reviewed scientific articles on your topic.
• Critically read these scientific articles. Use the points below to help guide what kind of
content should be in the article. Other high-quality content relevant to your article will be
rewarded.
1. The significance and impact of the microorganism(s) in human or animal health, industry or to
the environment e.g. value and/or cost to society, value to industry or value to the environment
(e.g. nutrient cycling). Use this to focus your article on an angle that relates to a broad
audience.
2. If your microorganism(s) is:
a. a pathogen – information on its disease process, transmission and control methods
b. an industrially relevant microorganism(s) – commercial products that are made, the
industrial processes used to produce these product(s) and the physical parameters that
are required to allow the microorganism(s) to thrive (e.g. temperature)
c. an environmentally-relevant microorganism(s) – environmental process(es) the
microorganism(s) is involved in and the physical parameters that are required to allow
the microorganism(s) to thrive (e.g. temperature)
3. Other information might include:
a. a full taxonomic classification of the microorganism(s)
b. the microorganism(s) natural host(s) and/or environments
c. the methods of identification or detection of the microorganism(s)
In your own words, synthesise this scientific information to tell a story in the format of a magazinestyle article (see modules on UTSOnline). You will need to critically evaluate the literature, draw
conclusions and make recommendations. Consider your audience and purpose.

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Choose a topic from the list provided on UTSOnline
• Conduct a literature search using the appropriate databases (e.g. PubMed) and keywords to
find current, relevant, peer-reviewed scientific articles on your topic.
• Critically read these scientific articles. Use the points below to help guide what kind of
content should be in the article. Other high-quality content relevant to your article will be
rewarded.
1. The significance and impact of the microorganism(s) in human or animal health, industry or to
the environment e.g. value and/or cost to society, value to industry or value to the environment
(e.g. nutrient cycling). Use this to focus your article on an angle that relates to a broad
audience.
2. If your microorganism(s) is:
a. a pathogen – information on its disease process, transmission and control methods
b. an industrially relevant microorganism(s) – commercial products that are made, the
industrial processes used to produce these product(s) and the physical parameters that
are required to allow the microorganism(s) to thrive (e.g. temperature)
c. an environmentally-relevant microorganism(s) – environmental process(es) the
microorganism(s) is involved in and the physical parameters that are required to allow
the microorganism(s) to thrive (e.g. temperature)
3. Other information might include:
a. a full taxonomic classification of the microorganism(s)
b. the microorganism(s) natural host(s) and/or environments
c. the methods of identification or detection of the microorganism(s)

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10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

 

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

 

 

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Question 1:     Mathematics

 

Math 111 – S2020 –  Covering Week 14 –  Weekly Assignment

Directions:  Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work.  Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so.   All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering.   Your final answer must be circled.

 

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem.  Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

 

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between  and its antiderivative.  Give examples.

 

 

(5 points) Using the knowledge that  , explain why the indefinite integral must have the  “added at the end.  Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

 

Two students are studying on campus.  Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library.  Zach texts John that he’s hungry.  John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer.  Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time.  Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

 

Given Zach travels with the velocity      and John travels with velocity    where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach.  In other words,  and

 

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer?  How long does it take John to get there?

 

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( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by  and the x-axis.  Determine the area bound by by  and the x-axis.

 

 

 

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

 

 

(  6 points)

  1. Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
  2. Evaluate the definite integral    to find the area bound by  and the x-axis.
  3. Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

 

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9  points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at .  Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)?   If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

 

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)?  If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

For  on the interval   using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval.  Which will overestimate?  Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values.  You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

 

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

 

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Question 2:     Finance

 

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

 

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

  • (iii)  Provide for auditors remuneration
  • (iv)  Income tax expense
  • (v)  Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
  • (vi)  Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

  • (vii)  Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
  • (viii)  Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
  • (ix)  On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
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Required:

  • (a)  Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
    (21 Marks)
  • (b)  Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
    (4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

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Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

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Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

  1. a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
    b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

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Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

 

Who can write an admission essay for my new college

Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

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Question 3:     Mathematics

 

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
A 95% confidence interval with
A. 2.262
B. 2.861
C. 1.671
D. 2.045
E. 2.571
F. 2.205
G. 1.665

 

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

.

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About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best).  For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

 

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications.  State the null and alternative hypothesis.

 

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better.  State the null and alternative hypotheses.

 

 

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For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

 

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

 

 

 

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

 

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

 

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A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

 

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

a. Type I Error
b. Type II Error
c. We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
d. We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

 

The critical value at 90% confidence is
Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
The value of 1-P should be set equal to
The organization must select an SRS of at least
A. 1.645
B. 0.50
C. 0.50
D. 423
E. 1.96
F. 1.976
G. .25
H. .75
I. 466
J. 1692

 

 

Question 4:     Chemistry

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

 

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

 

 

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

 

  • The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

 

Temperature of Air (oC)

(x-axis)

Volume of Air (mL)

(y-axis)

100 140
20 110
4 105

 

 

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________oC

 

 

  • Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

 

Answer:

 

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  • Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

 

Answer:

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CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

 

 

1.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

 

2.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

 

3.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

 

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

 

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Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t1 vs. v1, t2 vs. v2 and t3 vs.v3). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

 

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

Temperature (°C) Volume of Water (mL) Volume of Air (mL)

(Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)

Part 1

(t1, v1)

Part 2

(t2, v2)

Part 3

(t3, v3)

 

Temperature of Boiling water:

 

Total Volume of Flask:

 

 

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

 

 

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

 

Absolute Zero: _____________ oC

 

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Question 5:     Other

 

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

 

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

  • Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
  • Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

  • Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
  • Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
  • Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
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Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted.   While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

  • Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
  • Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
  • Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
  • Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
  • Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

  • Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
  • Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
  • Major divisions are clear visually.
  • All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

  • No misspellings or typos are present.
  • Writer uses complete sentences.
  • Work is writer’s original text.
  • Grammar and punctuation are correct

 

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Question 6:     History

 

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

 

Question 7:     Law

 

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

 

 

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

 

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus.  You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

 

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

 

 

 

I.

 

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

 

 

 

II.

 

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female.  In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination.  Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

 

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.  The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City.  The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

 

 

III.

 

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram.  Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

 

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

 

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Question 8:     Computer Science

 

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

 

Question 9:     General

 

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

 

A                                  B                                               C

Adversity            Beliefs About A             Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events)            (Our thoughts)                (how we feel and behave)

 

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

 

Question 10:   Other

 

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

 

 

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity.  I am giving you  quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons.  Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image.   Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core?  (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms: aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different.  Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life?  Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law.  Take all this to the next step.  Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

 

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Part II

 

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

 

 

Question 11:   Religious Studies

 

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

 

Question 12:               Finance

 

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project: €1,800,000 €2,900,000 €2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project: €350,000 €390,000 €280,000

 

  • BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
  • The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
  • The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
  • Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
  • Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
  • Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
  • If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
  • The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
  • Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
  • The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

 

 

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Question 13:   Business Finance

 

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

 

Question 14:               Finance

 

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

  • Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

 

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Question 15:   Engineering

 

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

  1. a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
  2. b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

 

Question 16:               Mathematics

 

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

  1. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
  2. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
  3. What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
  4. Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
  5. Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

 

Question 17:   Computer Science

 

Assignment 3 Question

 

Further Background

 

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

 

Complete the Following

 

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

 

Agile Methodologies

 

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

Plan and Monitor Project

 

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

  • Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
  • Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
  • Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

  • be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
  • be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
  • be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

 

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MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA STANDARDS
High Distinction Distinction Credit Pass Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

6 marks

Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00) Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09) Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49) Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89) Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about

which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.

Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.

Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

6 marks

Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(5.10-6.00)

Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(4.50-5.09)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases.

(3.90-4.49)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors.

(3.00-3.89)

Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong.

Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong.

Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong.

(0.00-2.99)

Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures)

2 Marks

Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49) Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29) Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation

1 Marks

Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00) Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84) Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74) Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64) Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

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REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

 

Question 18:               Business

 

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

 

Question 19:               General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

 

Question 20:               General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 21:               General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 22:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

  1. There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 23:               Statistics

1.

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor.  The participants are divided by gender.  Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

 

2.

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

 

3.

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

 

4.

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

5.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

 

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6.

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

 

7.

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

 

8.

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

 

9

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

 

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

 

 

 

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Question 24:   Music

 

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

 

  1. A)

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

 

  1. B)

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

 

  1. C)

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

 

  1. D)

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

 

  1. A)

They taught themselves.

 

  1. B)

They learned in school.

 

  1. C)

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

 

  1. D)

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

 

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

 

  1. A)

None of the above

 

  1. B)

Machismo

 

  1. C)

It was difficult for them to learn the music

 

  1. D)

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

 

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

 

  1. A)

immigration

 

  1. B)

drug dealing

 

  1. C)

social diseases

 

  1. D)

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

 

  1. A)

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

 

  1. B)

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

 

  1. C)

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

 

  1. D)

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

 

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

 

  1. Form

 

  1. Texture

 

  1. Pitch

 

  1. Timbre

 

4.Rhythm

1.

Volume and articulation of sounds

2.

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

3.

Frequency of the tone

4.

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

5.

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

6.

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

 

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

  1. Refers to the dancer him/herself

 

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

 

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

 

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

1.

Body

2.

Time

3.

Space

4.

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

 

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

 

. Idiophones

 

. Chordophones

 

1.Aerophones

 

Vibrations of air columns

 

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

 

Vibrations of strings

 

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

 

  1. A)

A piano solo

 

  1. B)

An opera

 

  1. C)

An open drum circle

 

  1. D)

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

 

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

 

  1. A)

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

 

  1. B)

the sung farewell in a corrido.

 

  1. C)

a statement of protest in popular song.

 

  1. D)

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

 

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

 

  1. A)

Diaspora

 

  1. B)

Essentialization

 

  1. C)

Stereotype

 

  1. D)

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

 

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

 

  1. A)

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

 

  1. B)

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

 

  1. C)

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

 

  1. D)

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

 

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

 

  1. A)

Triple meter

 

  1. B)

Compound meter

 

  1. C)

Huapango

 

  1. D)

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

 

  1. A)

Tecnobanda

 

  1. B)

Quebredita

 

  1. C)

Chicken scratch

 

  1. D)

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

 

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

 

  1. A)

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

 

  1. B)

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

 

  1. C)

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

 

  1. D)

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

 

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

 

  1. A)

Gloría Rios

 

  1. B)

Amparo Ochoa

 

  1. C)

Judith Reyes

 

  1. D)

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

 

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

 

  1. A)

Emilio Zapata

 

  1. B)

Jorge Negrete

 

  1. C)

Agustín Lara

 

  1. D)

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

 

  1. A)

Idiophone

 

  1. B)

Membranophone

 

  1. C)

Aerophone

 

  1. D)

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

 

  1. A)

Bajo sexto

 

  1. B)

Mandolin

 

  1. C)

Guitarrón

 

  1. D)

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

 

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

 

  1. A)

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

 

  1. B)

giving space to women composers.

 

  1. C)

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

 

  1. D)

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

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Question 21 options:

 

  1. A)

Kunqu

 

  1. B)

Zarzuela

 

  1. C)

Opera

 

  1. D)

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

 

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

 

  1. A)

Zapateado

 

  1. B)

Ceili

 

  1. C)

Baile

 

  1. D)

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

 

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

 

  1. A)

May 5th.

 

  1. B)

April 15th.

 

  1. C)

September 16th.

 

  1. D)

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

 

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

 

  1. A)

Music, verse, and instrumentation

 

  1. B)

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

 

  1. C)

Music, verse, and choreography

 

  1. D)

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

 

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Question 25 (1 point)

 

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 26 (1 point)

 

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 27 (1 point)

 

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 28 (1 point)

 

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 29 (1 point)

 

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 30 (1 point)

 

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 31 (1 point)

 

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 32 (1 point)

 

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 33 (1 point)

 

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 34 (1 point)

 

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 35 (1 point)

 

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 36 (1 point)

 

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 37 (1 point)

 

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 38 (1 point)

 

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 39 (1 point)

 

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 25:               Business

 

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled.  For example:

  • What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
  • How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
  • Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

  • Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
  • Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
  • Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
  • Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
  • Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

 

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Question 26:               Business

 

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

 

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Question 27:               Business

 


For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
  2. Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
  3. Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

 

Question 28:               Economics

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

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  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

 

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

 

  • Question 10

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 1

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 3

10 out of 10 points

  • Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

 

 

  • Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

 

  • Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

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If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

 

 

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

 

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Question 29:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

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If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

 

  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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Question 30:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

Hold on! Just looking for the best college student tutoring website where you can pay someone to help with your assignments? Homework nest (www.homeworknest.com) is here for you. Get cheap custom essays writing help, solved homework problems, dissertation writing help, instant professional tutoring and one more thing, all these come from a cream of verified scholars? Chat with a tutor online; get custom homework help to give your grades a boost. Homework Nest is an online professional college homework help company that helps college students with their homework needs!

 

 

  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

Question 31:               Psychology

 

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

 

Grogginess

 

Blurred vision

 

Headaches

 

Dryness of the mouth

 

  1. The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

 

transfer information into long-term memory.

 

remember significant events from the distant past.

 

perform basic mathematical calculations.

 

remember one’s own name.

 

  1. One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

 

is generally reversible

 

is not reversible

 

involves a slow increase in symptoms

 

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

  1. Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

 

can result from short term use

 

can result from low doses

 

occurs in less than 2% of patients

 

may often be irreversible

  1. Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

 

A familiar person is actually a double.

 

You are a famous or important person.

 

People are out to get you.

 

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

 

  1.  Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
  2. Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

 

The rights of mentally ill individuals

 

The rights of society to be protected

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

 

NGRI

 

GBMI

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

 

schizotypal personality disorder

 

schizoaffective disorder

 

schizophreniform disorder

 

brief psychotic disorder

  1. One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

 

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

 

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

 

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

 

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

  1. Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

 

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

 

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

 

both of these statements are correct

 

neither of these statements are correct

  1. Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

 

children tend to outgrow ADHD

 

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

 

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

 

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

  1. Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

 

restricted behavior pattern

 

social impairment

 

ritualistic behavior

 

maintenance of sameness

  1. Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

 

an anxiety disorder

 

a mood disorder

 

a split personality

 

obsessive-compulsive disorder

  1. The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

 

careless mistakes

 

fidgeting

 

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

 

all of these

  1. If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

 

head trauma

 

Parkinson’s disease

 

Huntington’s disease

 

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Alzheimer’s disease

  1. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

 

Disorganized speech

 

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

 

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

 

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

  1. According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

 

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

 

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

 

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

 

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

  1. Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

 

psychological testing

 

mental status exam

 

autopsy

 

reported observations of the patient by family members

  1. Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
  2. The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

 

hallucinations

 

delusions

 

both a and b

 

neither a nor b

  1. Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

 

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

 

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

 

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

 

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

  1. Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

 

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dementia

 

Alzheimer’s

 

delirium

 

amnesic disorder

  1. In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

 

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

 

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

 

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

 

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

  1. If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

 

hallucinations.

 

delusions.

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

 

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

 

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

 

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

 

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

 

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

 

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

 

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

 

None of the above

  1. Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

 

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

 

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

 

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

 

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

 

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

 

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

 

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

 

None of these

  1. The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

 

is based on well controlled studies

 

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

 

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

 

has no scientific evidence

 

 

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  1. Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

 

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

 

stimulant medication

 

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

 

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

  1. The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

 

over-involvement

 

criticism

 

emotional distance

 

Hostility

  1. Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

 

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

 

have a genetic component

 

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

 

are unique to children

  1. Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

 

at birth

 

by age one

 

by age three

 

by teen years

  1. At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

 

jealous

 

erotomanic

 

somatic

 

persecutory

  1. The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

 

variable home structure

 

 

unshared environment

 

 

environmental phenomenon

 

 

unique perceptive interpretation

 

 

 

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  1. Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

 

 

 

Question 32:   Psychology

 

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

 

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

 

the development of primary sex characteristics

 

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

 

 

 

.

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

 

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

 

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

 

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

 

hypothalamus

 

pituitary gland

 

thyroid hormones

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

 

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

 

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

 

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

 

epiphyses.

 

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

 

estrogens

 

androgens

 

thyroid glands

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

 

infants.

 

toddlers.

 

elementary schoolchildren.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

 

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

 

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

 

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

 

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

 

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

 

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

 

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

 

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

 

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

 

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

 

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

 

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

 

greater in girls than boys.

 

about the same in both genders.

 

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

 

Lilly, someone who began dating early

 

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

 

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

 

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

 

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

 

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

 

body fat.

 

hormones.

 

diet and exercise.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

 

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

 

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

 

sex differences in body fat.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

 

appearance of facial hair

 

growth of testes and scrotum

 

growth of penis

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

 

genetically inherited.

 

often determined culturally.

 

a major embarrassment for most boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

 

underarm hair.

 

menarche.

 

acne.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

 

androgens only; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; testes

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

 

regular ovulation

 

development of the nipples of the breasts

 

growth of pubic hair

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

 

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

 

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

 

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

 

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

 

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

 

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

 

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

 

nutritional deficiencies

 

excessive exercise

 

All of the above

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

 

genetic factors.

 

environmental factors.

 

None of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

 

good nutrition

 

family conflict

 

peer pressure

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

 

her most stressful days of the month

 

days she feels most sexually aroused

 

her biological sister living in a different city

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

 

endocrine trend.

 

menarche trend.

 

secular trend.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

 

secular trend.

 

longitudinal trend.

 

physiologic trend.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

 

sanitation.

 

infectious diseases.

 

genetics.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

 

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

 

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

 

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

 

cross-sectional

 

cross-sequential

 

secular

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

 

cross-sectional study.

 

cross-sequential study.

 

correlational study.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

 

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
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Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

 

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

 

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

 

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

 

early maturation

 

stressful life events

 

the delayed phase preference

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
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Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

 

family relationships.

 

nutrition.

 

activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

 

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

 

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

 

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

longitudinal design.

 

adolescent growth spurt.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

 

mood fluctuations throughout the day

 

television, computers, and artificial light sources

 

early school starting times

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

 

school should be held year-round.

 

school should begin later in the morning.

 

school should begin earlier in the morning.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

 

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

 

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

 

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

 

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

 

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

 

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

 

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

 

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

 

less likely to be depressed.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

 

Alison, who is a late mature

 

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

 

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
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milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

 

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

 

when the girl reaches menarche early

 

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

 

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

 

 

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A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

 

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
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63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

 

do better in school.

 

be ostracized by their classmates.

 

get along with their parents.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

 

greater popularity

 

a more positive self-concept

 

greater confidence in one’s self

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

 

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

 

experiment with drugs and alcohol

 

All of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

 

often expected to be more mature than they are.

 

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

 

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

 

more intellectual curiosity.

 

greater exploratory behavior.

 

higher levels of social initiative.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

 

less frequent temper tantrums

 

less depression

 

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
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69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

 

being less popular, especially with boys

 

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

 

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

 

have a more negative self-image.

 

succeed in school.

 

perceive themselves as attractive.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

 

the developmental readiness hypothesis

 

the maturational deviance hypothesis

 

genetic makeup

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
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Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

 

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

 

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

 

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

 

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

 

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

 

All of the above.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

 

early; late

 

late; late

 

early; early

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

 

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

 

delayed phase preference

 

secular trend

 

feedback loop

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

 

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

 

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

 

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

 

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

 

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

 

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing White boys

 

early-maturing White girls

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

 

 

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decreases from childhood to adolescence.

 

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

 

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

 

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

normal adolescent eating patterns.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

 

depression

 

alcohol and tobacco use

 

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder

 

obesity.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder.

 

deprivation syndrome.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

obesity nervosa.

 

purging.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

 

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

 

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

 

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

 

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

 

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

 

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

 

to be physically inactive.

 

suffer from chronic illness.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

 

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

 

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

 

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

 

chronic illness.

 

cardiovascular disease.

 

risky behaviors.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
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91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

 

suicide

 

homicide

 

cancer

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

 

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

 

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

 

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

 

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

 

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

 

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
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94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

 

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

 

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

 

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

 

Hispanic females

 

White females

 

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

 

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

 

whether biologic

 

 

 

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Question 33:   Education

 

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

 

 

Question 34:               Health Care

 

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 35:               Health Care

 

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

 

Question 36:               Health Care

 

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

  • Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

 

 

 

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m2 of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

 

 

 

 

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

 

 

 

 

  • Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

 

 

 

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  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

 

 

 

 

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

 

Where Can I pay for College Algebra and Math Homework Help

 

 

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

 

 

 

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  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

 

 

 

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

 

 

 

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  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

 

 

 

 

  • Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

 

 

 

  • Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

 

 

 

 

  • Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

 

 

 

 

  • Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

 

 

 

  • Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

 

 

 

 

  • Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

 

 

 

 

  • Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

 

 

 

 

  • Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

 

 

 

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  • Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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 Question 37:  Other

 

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

  • ·  Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
  • ·  Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

  • ·  Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
  • ·  Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
  • ·  Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

  • ·  Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
  • ·  Custom Tab Stops
  • ·  Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

  • ·  Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
  • ·  Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

  • ·  Custom Margins
  • ·  WordArt
  • ·  Paragraph Shading
  • ·  Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
  • ·  Insert and format an image
  • ·  A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
  • ·  Columns

Submission:

  • ·  Print your document
  • ·  Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.
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  •  Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score Item 12 8 4 0
Content Content is well chosen and well written Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written Very little relevant content is included in the resume
Overall Look Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
Header/Footer Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document. Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer Content is not included in the header or footer
Tab Stops Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable Custom tab stops make the content less readable Custom tab stops are not applied
Styles Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Styles make the content less readable Styles are not applied
Font Choices Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Font choices make the content less readable Custom fonts and font styles are not included
Paragraph and Line Spacing Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable Custom spacing makes the content less readable Custom spacing is not included
Other Features Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism Did not use any other features

 

 

 

 

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Question 38:               Biology

 

 

 

 

  1. Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

 

 

 

  1. Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

 

________________________

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following statements are FALSE?
  2. An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

  1. If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

  1. Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
  2. All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

 

 

  1. Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
  2. BB X Bb
  3. Bb x bb
  4. BB X bb
  5. Bb x Bb

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
  2. Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
  3. Because both parents passed on white alleles

 

 

 

 

  1. In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

 

 

 

 

 

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  1. An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
  2. male with
  3. male without
  4. female with
  5. female without

 

 

 

14   The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

 

What is the name of this graphic device?

 

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

 

 

 

  1. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

 

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

 

 

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

 

 

 

 

  1. When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

 

 

 

  1. Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

 

 

 

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  1. A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

 

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

 

 

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’.  The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

 

 

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

 

 

 

 

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Question 39:               Biology

 

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

  • Why study primates?
  • What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

  • What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

  • Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

  • How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
  • Why do primates have long growth and development?
  • What are the primate residence patterns?
  • What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
  • What is the importance of grooming?
  • How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

o

  • Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
  • What is the basic primate social unit?
  • How do primates communicate?
  • What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

  • Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
  • Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

  • Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

  • Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

  • Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
  • What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

  • What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
  • How do primates acquire food?
  • How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

    • What is a hominin?
    • Why did hominins emerge?
    • Patchy Forest Hypothesis
    • Provisioning Hypothesis
    • What is bipedalism?
    • What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?
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o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

  • What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
  • What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

  • What is honing and non-honing chewing?
  • What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
  • What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

  • For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

2

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

  • Homo hablis
    o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

  • Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

  • Homo naledi
  • Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

 

 

 

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  • What are archaic Homo sapiens?
  • Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

  • Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
    o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

3

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

 

Australopithecines (robust) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

 

Homo Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

4

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

5

 

 

Question 40:               Finance

 

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

 

 

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Question 41:               Finance

 

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

 

 

 

 

Question 1:     Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

 

Substance abuse

  1. Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
  2. Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
    B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
    C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
    D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
  3. Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
  4. Compensation
    B. Denial
    C. Suppression
    D. Undoing
  5. Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
  6. Alcohol
    B. Barbiturates
    C. Heroin
    D. Marijuana
  7. Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
  8. Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
    B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
    C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
    D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
  9. Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
  10. Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
    B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
    C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
    D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
  11. Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
  12. Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
    B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
    C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
    D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
  13. The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
  14. Aid in GABA inhibition.
    B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
    C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
    D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
  15. Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
  16. Diazepam
    B. Carbamazepine
    C. Clonidine
    D. Methadone
  17. Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
  18. Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
    B. Recurrent flashback events
    C. Psychological dependence after initial use
    D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
  19. The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
  20. Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
    B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
    C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
    D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
  21. The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
  22. Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
    B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
    C. Women working in careers outside the home
    D. Women working in the home
  23. Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
  24. Depressant.
    B. Hallucinogenic.
    C. Stimulant.
    D. Tranquilizing.
  25. When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
  26. Acetylcholine excess
    B. Dopamine depletion
    C. Serotonin inhibition
    D. Norepinephrine rebound
  27. Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
  28. Caretaking.
    B. Codependent.
    C. Helpful.
    D. Supportive.
  29. During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
  30. How long have you used substances?
    B. How often do you use substances?
    C. How do you get substances into your body?
    D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
    E. How much of each substance do you use?
    F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
    G. What substances do you use?

2

  1. Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
  2. Seizures
    B. Shivering
    C. Anxiety
    D. Chest pain
  3. Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
  4. Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
    B. Control eating impulses
    C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
    D. Eat only three meals per day
  5. A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
  6. Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
    B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
    C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
    D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
  7. Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
  8. Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
    B. Succimer (Chemet)
    C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
    D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

 

 

 

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  1. A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
  2. Naloxone (Narcan)
    B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. Magnesium sulfate
    D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
  3. During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
  4. “I trust you not to purge.”
    B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
    C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
    D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
  5. A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
  6. “If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
    B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
    C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
    D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
  7. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
  8. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
    B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
    C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
    D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
  9. When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
  10. The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
    B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
    C. The family is poor
    D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
  11. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
  12. They tend to overprotect their children
    B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
    C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
    D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
  13. In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
  14. Remaining with the client and staying calm
    B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
    C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
    D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
  15. Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
  16. Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
    B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
    C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
    D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
  17. Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
  18. Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
    B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
    C. Discussing the future with the client
    D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

 

 

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  1. A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
  2. Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
    B. Focus discussions on food and weight
    C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
    D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
  3. Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
  4. Carbonated beverages
    B. Aftershave lotion
    C. Toothpaste
    D. Cheese
  5. Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
  6. Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
    B. Provide privacy during meals
    C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
    D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
  7. Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
  8. Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
    B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
    C. Use of drugs or alcohol
    D. History of previous victimization
  9. A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
  10. Acetate accumulation
    B. Thiamine deficiency
    C. Triglyceride buildup.
    D. A below-normal serum potassium level
  11. A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
  12. The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
    B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
    C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
    D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
  13. When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
  14. Client’s physical needs
    B. Client’s safety needs
    C. Client’s psychosocial needs
    D. Client’s medical needs
  15. The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
  16. Accept responsibility for own behaviors
    B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
    C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
    D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
  17. A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
  18. Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
    B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
    C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
    D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

 

 

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  1. A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
  2. Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
    B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
    C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
    D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
  3. Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
  4. A postoperative infection
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Acute sepsis.
    D. Pneumonia.
  5. Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
  6. Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Opiate withdrawal
    D. Cocaine withdrawal
  7. A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
  8. Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
    B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
    D. Epinephrine.
  9. A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
  10. “I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
    B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
    C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
    D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
  11. Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
  12. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
    B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
    C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
  13. A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
  14. “Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
    B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
    C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
    D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
  15. A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
  16. Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
    B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
    C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
    D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
  17. When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
  18. Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
    B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
    D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
  19. A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
  20. The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
    B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
    C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
    D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
  21. A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
  22. A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
    B. Depression and physical withdrawal
    C. Silence and noncompliance
    D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
  23. A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
  24. “I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
    B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
    C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
    D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
  25. A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
  26. Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
    B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
    C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
    D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

 

 

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  1. A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
  2. Coronary artery spasm
    B. Brady arrhythmias
    C. Neurobehavioral deficits
    D. Panic disorder
  3. A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
  4. Begin after seven (7) days
    B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
    C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
    D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
  5. Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
  6. Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
    B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
    C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
    D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
  7. A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
  8. Keeping the client restrained in bed
    B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
    C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
    D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
  9. Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
  10. Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
    B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
    C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
    D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
  11. Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
  12. One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
    B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
    C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
    D. One who talks about wanting to die
  13. Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
  14. Allergies
    B. Cancer
    C. Diabetes mellitus
    D. Hepatitis A
  15. Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
  16. The student discusses conflicts over drug use
    B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
    C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
    D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
  17. A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
  18. Clozapine (Clozaril)
    B. Thiothixene (Navane)
    C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
    D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
  19. A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
  20. Al-Anon
    B. Make Today Count
    C. Emotions Anonymous
    D. Alcoholics Anonymous
  21. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
  22. Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
    B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
    C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
    D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
  23. Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
  24. Antisocial personality disorder
    B. Borderline personality disorder
    C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
    D. Narcissistic personality disorder
  25. Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
  26. Has only moderate impulse control
    B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
    C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
    D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
  27. A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
  28. Manipulate her husband
    B. Gain control of one part of her life
    C. Commit suicide
    D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

 

 

 

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  1. A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
  2. Psychotherapy
    B. Total abstinence
    C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
    D. Aversion therap

3

Paranoid schizo, schizo

  1. A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
  2. an example of presenting reality.
    B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
    C. focusing on emotional content.
    D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
  3. A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
  4. “I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
    B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
    C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
    D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
  5. A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
  6. reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
    B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
    C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
    D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
  7. The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
  8. Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
    B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
    C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
    D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
  9. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
  10. take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
    B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
    C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
    D. go to their room until the voices go away.
  11. A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
  12. Assist the client with feeding.
    B. Assist the client with showering.
    C. Reassure the client about safety.
    D. Encourage socialization with peers.
  13. A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
  14. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  15. The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
  16. has a more predictable onset of action.
    B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
    C. produces fewer drug interactions.
    D. has a longer duration of action.
  17. A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
  18. “Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
    B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
    C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
    D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
  19. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
  20. Risk for violence toward self or others
    B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
    C. Ineffective family coping
    D. Impaired verbal communication
  21. The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
  22. his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
    B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
    C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
    D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

 

 

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  1. Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
  2. decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
    B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
    C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
    D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
  3. A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
  4. Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
    B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
    C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
    D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
  5. Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
  6. Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
    B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
    C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
    D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
  7. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
  8. delusion.
    B. looseness of association.
    C. illusion.
    D. hallucination.
  9. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
  10. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
    C. haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. midazolam (Versed)
  11. A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
  12. “I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
    B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
    C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
    D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
  13. A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
  14. Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
    B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
    C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
    D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
  15. For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
  16. Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
    D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
  17. A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
  18. “This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
    B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
    C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
    D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
  19. Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
  20. Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
    B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
    C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
    D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

 

 

 

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  1. A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
  2. Tardive dyskinesia
    B. Dystonia
    C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
    D. Akathisia
  3. What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
  4. chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
    B. haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
    D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
  5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
  6. Aggressive behavior
    B. Paranoid thoughts
    C. Emotional affect
    D. Independence needs
  7. During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
  8. “When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
    B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
    C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
    D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
  9. The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
  10. a false belief about the functioning of the body.
    B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
    C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
    D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
  11. A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
  12. Agranulocytosis
    B. Extrapyramidal effects
    C. Anticholinergic effects
    D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
  13. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
  14. Helping the client to participate in social interactions
    B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
    C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
    D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
  15. A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
  16. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  17. A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
  18. Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
    B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
    C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
    D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
  19. Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
  20. Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
    B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
    C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
    D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
  21. The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
  22. Benztropine (Cogentin).
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
    C. propranolol (Inderal).
    D. haloperidol (Haldol).
  23. A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
  24. Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
    B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
    C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
    D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
  25. A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
  26. disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
    B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
    C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
    D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
  27. A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
  28. Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
    B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
    C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
    D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
  29. A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

 

 

 

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Question 2:     Heath Care

 

  1. A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

 

  1. A)           Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
  2. B)            Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
  3. C)            Encourage the client to go to bed early.
  4. D)           Keep the client busy during the day.

 

 

  1. A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

 

  1. A)           Provide ample information.
  2. B)            Support the client when in delusion.
  3. C)            Reduce distracting stimuli.
  4. D)           Offer a large-muscle activity

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

 

  1. A)           Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
  2. B)            Administer lithium before meals.
  3. C)            Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
  4. D)           Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

 

  1. During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

 

  1. A)           Reactive depression
  2. B)            Mania
  3. C)            Psychotic depression
  4. D)           Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

 

  1. A)           Weight gain
  2. B)            Lack of energy
  3. C)            Memory loss
  4. D)           Increased sleep

 

 

  1. What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

 

  1. A)           Hepatotoxicity
  2. B)            Hypertensive crisis
  3. C)            Orthostatic hypotension
  4. D)           Hyperalertness

 

 

  1. Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

 

  1. A)           Euthymia
  2. B)            Dysthymia
  3. C)            Cyclothymia
  4. D)           Psychotic depression

 

 

  1. Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

 

  1. A)           Psychosis
  2. B)            Serotonin syndrome
  3. C)            Hypertensive crisis
  4. D)           Hallucinations

 

 

 

 

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  1. Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Dopamine
  3. C)            GABA
  4. D)           Acetylcholine

 

 

  1. Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

 

  1. A)           Behavioral therapy
  2. B)            Supportive psychotherapy
  3. C)            Interpersonal psychotherapy
  4. D)           Cognitive therapy

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

 

  1. A)           Major depression
  2. B)            Seasonal affective disorder
  3. C)            Bipolar disorder
  4. D)           Reactive depression

 

 

 

 

  1. The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

 

  1. A)           The central nervous system
  2. B)            The autonomic nervous system
  3. C)            The limbic system
  4. D)           The peripheral nervous system

 

  1. A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Norepinephrine
  3. C)            Epinephrine
  4. D)             Dopamine
  5. The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

 

  1. B)            Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

 

  1. C)            Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

 

  1. D)           Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

 

  1. The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

 

  1. A)           “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
  2. B)            “How long have you been taking the medication?”
  3. C)            “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
  4. D)           “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

 

 

 

 

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Page 6

 

  1. A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
  2. A)           Fruit salad
  3. B)            Lobster
  4. C)            Pork medallions
  5. D)           Spinach and feta salad

 

 

  1. A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

 

  1. A)           Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
  2. B)            Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
  3. C)            Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
  4. D)           Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

 

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

 

  1. A)           Hypertension
  2. B)            Dizziness
  3. C)            Hallucinations
  4. D)           Sexual dysfunction

 

 

  1. The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

 

  1. A)           “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
  2. B)            “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
  3. C)            “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
  4. D)           “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

 

 

  1. The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

 

  1. A)           Vagal nerve stimulation
  2. B)            Electroconvulsive therapy
  3. C)            Deep brain stimulation
  4. D)           Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Page 8

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

 

  1. A)           Headache
  2. B)            Blurred vision
  3. C)            Hearing loss
  4. D)           Vertigo

 

 

  1. Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

 

  1. A)           Do not leave any syringe unattended.
  2. B)            Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
  3. C)            View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

 

  1. D)           Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

 

 

  1. The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

 

  1. A)           “How are you currently feeling?”
  2. B)            “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
  3. C)            “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
  4. D)           “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

 

  1. A)           Hopelessness
  2. B)            Risk for Injury
  3. C)            Disturbed Sleep Pattern
  4. D)           Ineffective Coping

 

  1. Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Client appearance
  2. B)            Body language
  3. C)            Speech
  4. D)           Energy level
  5. E)            Work history

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

 

  1. A)           Thyroid gland and thyroxin
  2. B)            Pineal gland and melatonin
  3. C)            Pancreas and insulin
  4. D)           Pituitary gland and oxytocin

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

 

  1. A)           September/October
  2. B)            February/March
  3. C)            April/May
  4. D)           December/January

 

 

  1. When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

 

  1. A)           The disease remits as the client ages.
  2. B)            The disease increases as the client ages.
  3. C)            The depression increases as the client ages.
  4. D)           The manic phase increases as the client ages.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

 

  1. A)           A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
  2. B)            Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
  3. C)            Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
  4. D)           Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

 

  1. A)           Antidiabetics
  2. B)            Antihypertensives
  3. C)            Anticonvulsants
  4. D)           Antianginals

.

 

 

  1. The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

 

  1. B)            Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
  2. C)            Limit sodium intake daily.
  3. D)           Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
  4. E)            Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
  5. F)             Monitor intake and output

 

 

  1. The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

 

  1. A)           Mania
  2. B)            Hypothyroidism
  3. C)            A pituitary deficiency
  4. D)           A cerebral vascular accident

 

  1. When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

 

  1. A)           Cold and allergy medications
  2. B)            Antiulcer medications
  3. C)            Multivitamins
  4. D)           Laxatives

 

  1. Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

 

  1. A)           Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
  2. B)            Install skylights.
  3. C)            Sleep in a darkened room.
  4. D)           Stay indoors during the winter time.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
  2. A)           Speaking in slow, brief sentences
  3. B)            Presenting the reality of the situation
  4. C)            Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
  5. D)           Being present without speaking

 

 

 

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Question 3:     Health Care

 

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. “I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
  2. “I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
  3. “I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
  4. “I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

 

 

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

 

  1. Bladder distention
  2. Decreased blood pressure
  3. Calf swelling
  4. Diminished bowel sounds
  5. Calf swelling

 

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

  1. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
  2. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
  3. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
  4. A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
  2. Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
  3. Remove the stockings at least once per shift
  4. Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

 

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

 

  1. Auscultate lung sounds
  2. Measure urine output
  3. Monitor blood pressure readings
  4. Monitor serum electrolyte levels
  5. Auscultate lung sounds

 

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

 

  1. “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  3. “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  4. “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

 

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

 

  1. Touch the face with a cotton ball
  2. Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
  3. Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
  4. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

 

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

 

  1. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
  2. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
  3. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
  4. Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

 

 

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A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Walking briskly
  2. Riding a bicycle
  3. Performing isometric exercises
  4. Engaging in high-impact aerobics

 

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

 

  1. Erythema on pressure points
  2. Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
  3. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
  4. A bowel movement every other day

 

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
  2. Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
  3. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
  4. Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

 

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Check the client for injuries
  2. Move hazardous objects away from the client
  3. Notify the provider
  4. Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
  2. Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
  3. Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
  4. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

 

 

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

 

  1. “I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
  2. “Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
  3. “You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
  4. “The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

 

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

 

  1. “Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
  2. “Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
  3. “Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
  4. “Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
  2. Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
  3. Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
  4. Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
  5. Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

 

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

 

 

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  1. Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
  2. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
  3. Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
  4. Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

 

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
  2. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

 

  1. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
  2. Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
  2. Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
  3. Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
  4. Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

 

 

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

 

  1. Insert an implanted port
  2. Close a laceration with sutures
  3. Place an endotracheal tube
  4. Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

 

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

 

  1. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
  2. Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
  3. Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
  4. Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

 

 

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A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Lacrimal apparatus
  2. Pupil clarity
  3. Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
  4. Visual fields
  5. Visual acuity

 

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

 

  1. The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
  2. When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
  3. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
  4. The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

 

  1. Airborne
  2. Droplet
  3. Contact
  4. Protective environment

 

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
  2. Draw up medications together in the same syringe
  3. Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
  4. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
  2. Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
  3. Cleanse the wound from the center outward
  4. Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

 

 

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A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

 

  1. A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
  2. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
  3. A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
  4. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

 

  1. Purulent exudate
  2. Warmth
  3. Skin blanching
  4. Bleeding

 

 

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

 

  1. Critical pathway
  2. Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  3. Transfer report
  4. Medication administration record (MAR)

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

 

  1. Protective environment
  2. Airborne precautions
  3. Droplet precaution
  4. Contact precautions

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Suction the client’s airway
  2. Administer a bronchodilator
  3. Increase the humidity in the client’s room
  4. Assist the client to an upright position

 

 

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A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

 

  1. BUN 15 mg/dL
  2. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
  3. Sodium 143 mEq/L
  4. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

 

 

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

 

  1. Bend at the waist
  2. Keep his feet close together
  3. Use his back muscles for lifting
  4. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

 

 

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

 

  1. The medication
  2. The route
  3. The dose
  4. The frequency

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

 

  1. Tomato juice
  2. Banana slices
  3. Pancakes
  4. Fried egg

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

 

  1. “What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
  2. “I blame medical science for not curing me.”
  3. “Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
  4. “Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask the client to consider a direct donation
  2. Withhold the blood transfusion
  3. Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

 

 

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
  2. Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
  3. Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
  4. Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

 

  1. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
  2. Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
  3. Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
  4. Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

 

 

 

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

 

  1. Role ambiguity
  2. Sick role
  3. Role overload
  4. Role conflict

 

  1. Role overload

 

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

 

  1. “When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
  2. “Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
  3. “At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
  4. “Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

 

  1. Biofeedback
  2. Aloe
  3. Feverfew
  4. Acupuncture

 

 

 

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A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

 

  1. “I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
  2. “I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
  3. “I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
  4. “I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

 

 

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  3. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  4. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

 

  1. “We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
  2. “This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
  3. “After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
  4. “We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

 

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

 

  1. Tell the client which food should eat first.
  2. Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
  3. Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
  4. Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

 

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

  1. “I’m having mild pain.”
  2. “The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
  3. “I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
  4. “The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

 

  1. “They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. “They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
  3. “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
  4. “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

 

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

 

  1. Neck vein distention
  2. Urine specific gravity 1.010
  3. Rapid heart rate
  4. Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

  1. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
  2. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
  3. Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  4. Administer a pain medication to the client

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
  2. Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
  3. Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
  4. Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

 

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

 

  1. Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
  2. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
  3. Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
  4. Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

 

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. Place the client in a side-lying position
  2. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  3. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  4. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

 

 

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
  2. Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  3. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  4. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

 

 

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

 

  1. Side-lying
  2. Supine
  3. Semi-Fowler’s
  4. Trendelenburg

 

 

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Question 4:     Health Care

 

1)      A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Turn the patient every 2 hr
  2. i)        The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
  3. b)      Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
  4. i)        The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end  of life
  5. c)      Hold oral care
  6. i)        The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
  7. d)     Increase the room’s temperature
  8. i)        Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

 

2)      A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

  1. a)      Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
  2. i)        The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  3. b)      Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
  4. i)        A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  5. c)      Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
  6. i)        Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
  7. d)     Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
  8. i)        The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

 

3)      A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Place the client in a side lying position
  2. i)         The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
  3. b)      Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  4. i)        Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
  5. c)      Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  6. i)        The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
  7. d)     Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
  8. i)        The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

 

4)      A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

  1. a)      The client is receiving formula at room temperature
  2. i)        Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
  3. b)      The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
  4. i)        Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
  5. c)      The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
  6. i)        Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
  7. d)     The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
  8. i)        It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

 

 

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5)      A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

  1. a)      Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
  2. i)        A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
  3. b)      Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
  4. i)        And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
  5. c)      Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
  6. i)        The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
  7. d)     Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
  8. i)        The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

 

 

6)      A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

  1. a)      Protective environment
  2. i)        Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
  3. b)      Airborne precautions
  4. i)        Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
  5. c)      Droplets precautions
  6. i)        Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal  pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
  7. d)     Contact precautions
  8. i)        Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

 

7)      A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
  2. i)        The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
  3. b)      Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
  4. i)        Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
  5. c)      Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
  6. i)        In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
  7. d)     Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
  8. i)        Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

 

8)      A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

  1. a)      Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
  2. i)        The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  3. b)      Complete an incident report
  4. i)        The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  5. c)      Consult the facility’s risk manager
  6. i)        The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
  7. d)     Notify the nursing manager
  8. i)        The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

 

9)      A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

  1. a)      “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
  2. i)        As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
  3. b)      “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
  4. i)        Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
  5. c)      “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
  6. i)        Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
  7. d)     “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
  8. i)        Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

 

10)  A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

  1. a)      “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. i)        The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
  3. b)      “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  4. i)        The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
  5. c)      “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  6. i)        The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
  7. d)     “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
  8. i)        With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

 

 

11)  A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

  1. a)      Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
  2. i)        The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
  3. b)      Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
  4. i)        Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
  5. c)      Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
  6. i)        Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
  7. d)     Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
  8. i)        An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

 

12)  A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. i)        A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
  3. b)      “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
  4. i)        Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
  5. c)      “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
  6. i)        The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
  7. d)     “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
  8. i)        The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

 

13)  A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. i)        A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  3. b)      Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  4. i)        Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  5. c)      Lock the remaining  medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  6. i)        The nurse should not lock the remaining  controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
  7. d)     Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
  8. i)        The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

 

14)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

  1. a)      “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
  2. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  3. b)      “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
  4. i)        This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
  5. c)      “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
  6. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  7. d)     “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
  8. i)        This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

 

 

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15)  A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

  1. a)      Insert the catheter at 45* angle
  2. i)        Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
  3. b)      Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  4. i)         The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
  5. c)      Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  6. i)        The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
  7. d)     Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
  8. i)        The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

 

16)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

  1. a)      Use a bed exit alarm system
  2. i)        The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
  3. b)      Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
  4. i)        Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
  5. c)      Apply one soft wrist restraint
  6. i)        Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
  7. d)     Dim the lights in the pt’s room
  8. i)        Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

 

 

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17)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Assist the pt into a prone position
  2. i)        The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
  3. b)      Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
  4. i)        The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
  5. c)      Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
  6. i)        The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
  7. d)     Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
  8. i)        The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

 

18)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  1. a)      Numbness of the extremities
  2. i)        Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
  3. b)      Bradycardia
  4. i)        Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
  5. c)      Positive Chvostek’s sign
  6. i)        A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
  7. d)     Abdominal cramping
  8. i)        The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

 

19)  A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

  1. a)      Crackles
  2. i)        Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
  3. b)      Rhonchi
  4. i)        Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
  5. c)      Friction rub
  6. i)        Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
  7. d)     Normal breath sounds
  8. i)        These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

 

 

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20)  A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
  2. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
  3. b)      “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
  4. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
  5. c)      “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
  6. i)        The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
  7. d)     “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
  8. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

 

21)  A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

  1. a)      Increase in hematocrit
  2. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
  3. b)      Increase in respiratory rate
  4. i)        Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
  5. c)      Decrease in heart rate
  6. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
  7. d)     Decrease in capillary refill time
  8. i)        Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

 

 

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22)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

  1. a)      Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
  2. i)        The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  3. b)      Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
    i)     The 1staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
  4. c)      Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  5. i)        If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  6. d)     Administer a pain medication to the client
  7. i)        Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

 

23)  A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

  1. a)      Role ambiguity
  2. i)        Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
  3. b)      Sick role
  4. i)        Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
  5. c)      Role overload
  6. i)        The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
  7. d)     Role conflict
  8. i)        Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

 

 

 

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24)  A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
  2. i)        The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
  3. b)      Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
  4. i)        The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
  5. c)      Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
  6. i)        The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
  7. d)     Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
  8. i)        When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

 

25)  A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

  1. a)      During the admission process
  2. i)        Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
  3. b)      As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
  4. i)        Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
  5. c)      During the initial team conference
  6. i)        Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
  7. d)     After consulting with the pt’s family
  8. i)        The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

 

26)  A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. a)      “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
  2. i)        Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
  3. b)      “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
  4. i)        Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
  5. c)      “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
  6. i)        Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
  7. d)     “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
  8. i)        Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

 

27)  A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

  1. a)      A lesion with uniform pigmentation
  2. i)        Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  3. b)      New appearance of petechiae
  4. i)        Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  5. c)      A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
  6. i)        An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
  7. d)     The presence of a papule
  8. i)        Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

 

 

 

 

 

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28)  A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Insert the needle at a 15* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
  3. b)      Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
  4. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
  5. c)      Administering the medication into the abdomen
  6. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
  7. d)     Massage the site following the injection
  8. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

 

29)   A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

  1. a)      Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
  2. i)        The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
  3. b)      Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
  4. i)        Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
  5. c)      Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
  6. i)        The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
  7. d)     Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
  8. i)        Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

 

30)  A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

  1. a)      Critical pathway
  2. i)        A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
  3. b)      Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  4. i)        SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
  5. c)      Transfer report
  6. i)        The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
  7. d)     Medication administration record (MAR)
  8. i)        The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

 

31)  A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
  3. b)      Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
  4. i)        The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
  5. c)      Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
  6. i)        The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
  7. d)     Massage the injection site after administration
  8. i)        The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

 

32)  A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

  1. a)      The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
  2. i)        The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
  3. b)      When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
  4. i)        To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
  5. c)      The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
  6. i)        The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
  7. d)     The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
  8. i)        The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

 

 

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33)  A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

  1. a)      “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
  2. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
  3. b)      “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
  4. i)        Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
  5. c)      “Does the pain radiate?”
  6. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
  7. d)     “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
  8. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

 

34)  A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

  1. a)      The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
  2. i)        The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
  3. b)      The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
  4. i)        The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
  5. c)      The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
  6. i)        The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
  7. d)     The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
  8. i)        The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

 

35)  A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Alginate
  2. i)        Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
  3. b)      Guaze
  4. i)        Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
  5. c)      Transparent
  6. i)        Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
  7. d)     Hydrocolloid
  8. i)        Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

 

36)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

  1. a)      Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
  3. b)      Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
  4. i)        The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

 

 

 

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Question 5:     Health Care

 

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1)    Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)    Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)    Tarsals
b)    Tibia
c)    Sphenoid
d)    Scapula
e)    Clavicle

3)    Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4)    Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5)    Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6)    An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

  1. a
    a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

8)    How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

10)    Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

12)    Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

  1. a)    E
    b)    F
    c)    G
    d)    H
    e)    I

14)    What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)    H
c)    I
d)    J
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

16)    The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

  1. e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    G
    e)    None of the selections are correct

18)    The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)    D
b)    E
c)    F
d)    I
e)    J

20)    What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)    E
b)    B
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

22)    Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

 

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23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

24)    Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

26)    The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

28)    Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

30)    This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

 

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31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and C

34)    A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
  2. a)    B
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    E
    e)    F

37)    The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

 

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38)    Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

39)    Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)    Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

41)    Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

  1. a)    C
    b)    D
    c)    H
    d)    I
    e)    J

43)    These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

  1. a)    A
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    B
    e)    F

 

 

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45)    Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)    A
b)    C
c)    D
d)    E
e)    F

47)    This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

 

 

 

 Question 6:    Biology

 

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

 

 

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

 

 

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

 

 

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene.  Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

 

 

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

 

 

 

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Question 7:     Chemistry

 

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

 

Question 8:     Physics

 

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

 

Question 9:     Psychology

 

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

 

  • What topic and research question did you pursue?
  • How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
  • Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
  • What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
  • Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
  • What insights did you gather about your research question?
  • What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 10:   Statistics

 

Mid Semester Assignment

 

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

 

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

 

  1. This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
    3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

 

  1. (20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a)  What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b)  All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c)  The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

3

  1. (14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

 

 

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(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

 

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

 

  1. (20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

 

(a)  Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b)  What is the mean and variance of X?

(c)  What is the probability that the bag of flour has less than 1kg of flour in it?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d)  If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e)  The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

 

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

 

  1. (37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

 

(a)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

 

(b)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

 

(c)  Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

 

(d)  Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

 

(e)  Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

 

(i)  If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

 

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

 

 

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

 

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

 

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

 

  1. (9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

 

(a)  What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

 

(b)  What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

 

(c)  If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

 

(d)  When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

 

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

 

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

 

 

 

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Question 11:   Psychology

 

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

 

 

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Question 12:               Business

 

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

 

 

Question 13:               Business

 

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

 

 

 

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Question 14:                Statistics

 

 

Assignment #4

  1. A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
  2. A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
  3. If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
  4. A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

 

Assignment 3

  1.     1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
  2.      a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
  3.     what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
  4.     c.  What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

 

  1.     2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
  2. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
  3. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

 

  1.    3.      Use the table below to answer the questions below:  
Column A

Z score

Column B

Area Between the mean and Z

Column C

Area beyond the Z score

.12 .0478 .4522
1.40 .4192 .0808
1.41 .4207 .0793
1.42 .4222 .0778
1.43 .4236 .0762
1.44 .4251 .0749
1.45 .4265 .0735
1.46 .4279 .0721
1.47 .4292 .0708
1.48 .4306 .0694
1.49 .4319 .0681

 

  1. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  2. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
  3. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  4. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student Year Criminal Justice Major
1 Sophmore  Yes
2 Senior  No
3 Junior  Yes
4 Freshman  No
5 Freshman  Yes
6 Sophmore  Yes
7 Sophmore  Yes
8 Junior  No
9 Sophmore  Yes
10 Sophmore  No

 

  1. What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
  2. a sophomore?
  3. a student majoring in sociology?
  4. a freshman or a sophomore?
  5. not a freshman?

 

  1. What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
  2. ±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

  1. Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
  2. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
  3. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
  4. the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

 

 

 

 

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Question 15:               Sociology

 

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

 

 

Question 16:               History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

  • Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
  • What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17:               General Question

 

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

 

Question 18:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

 

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 19:               Mathematics

 

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

 

Question 20:               Nursing

 

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

  1. What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
  2. What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
  3. Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
  4. Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
  5. What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

 

Question 21:               Biology

 

  • Why Study Biology?
  • What is Life?
  • What About?
  • How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
  • Role of Experiments
  • Experimental Design
  • Experimental Problems
  • Higher Levels of Organization
  • Scientific Names
  • Categories of Biological Classification
  • Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
  • 1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
  • Fungi
  • Plants
  • Animals
  • Animal Cell Features
  • History of Microscopes & Cells
  • Cell Theory
  • Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
  • Components of Nucleus

 

 

Question 22:               Accounting

 

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

 

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:    

 

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?     

                                                                                                               

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                  

11d. Producer surplus is the                                    

                                                                    

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?       

                                        

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

 

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except            

                                                                                                 

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:     

                                                                     

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                             

 17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?      

                                    

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that             

                                                                                         

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

 

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:          

                                                                      

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a                 

                                                                                       

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area       

                           

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area           

                

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be            

                                                

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:      

       

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:          

                                                                                                                          

 

 

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27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?         

 

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?     

 

29c.  The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:                                                                                                                           

  1. The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:    

                                                        

31c. Frictional unemployment is   

                                                                                                  

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases       

                                      

34a. Technological improvement causes                                                         

                             

                 

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by        

                                                                                                                          

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,      

                                                                                              

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that     

                                                              

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

 

40d. An increase in the price level will        

                                                                                      

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?                                                                                                                                             

                        

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect       

      

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can               

                                                        

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause                 

                                                                                                            

                                                                                                                                  

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?               

                                                                                         

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

 

 

 

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50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.                

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?                                                                           

 

Question 23:   Accounting

1)    The financial system is primarily a means by which    1)
A)    funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)    the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)    business firms distribute their goods.
D)    money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)    Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?    2)
A)    Wells Fargo Bank    B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit    D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)    If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):    3)
A)    liability to both you and Intel.    B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.    D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?    4)
A)    corporate equities    B) life insurance
C) bank deposits    D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)    Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)    profitability    B) risk sharing    C) information    D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-­‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)    Economists define risk as
A)    the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)    the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)    the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Economists define liquidity as
A)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)    the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)    the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-­‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)    the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)    Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)    computer    B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine    D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)    reduces the difference between the return on three-­‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-­‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)    relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)    guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)    eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  13-­‐14  Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)    Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)    bonds.    B) dividends.    C) stocks.    D) coupons.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

 

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Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)    Securitization is the process of    11)
A)    issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)    converting loans into securities.
C)    issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)    reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)    If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)    a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    Financial markets    13)
A)    act as go-­‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)    channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)    channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)    generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is    14)
A)    a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)    a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)    an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)    Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)    Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)    George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)    Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)    Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)    Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)    primarily through government agencies.
B)    indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)    indirectly through financial markets.
D)    directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)    Bank of America
C)    NASDAQ
D)    Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    bank    B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund    D) insurance company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)    The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)    provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)    provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)    help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)    borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)    Financial intermediaries
A)    include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)    directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)    include banks and other depository institutions.
D)    are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)    in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)    for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)    in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)    for government securities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)    A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)    both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)    both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)    both involve the use of financial markets.
D)    both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.    B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.    D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)    Economists define money as 24)
A)    cash in circulation.
B)    bonds issued by large corporations.
C)    anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)    deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)    The Federal Reserve System    25)
A)    is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)    is the central bank of the United States.
C)    is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

  1. D)    is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
    Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)    Monetary policy refers to the government’s    26)
A)    plans for retiring the national debt.
B)    management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

  1. C)    decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
    D)    decisions on how much money to spend.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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27)    Diversification refers to the    27)
A)    difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)    difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)    difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)    splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)    The purpose of diversification is to
A)    increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)    reduce tax liability.
C)    reduce risk.
D)    reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)    The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)    savers to earn interest tax-­‐free.
C)    savers to hold many assets.
D)    borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    Liquidity
A)    was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)    is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)    is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)    is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)    Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)    treasury bond    B) stock
C) money market mutual fund    D) house
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)    Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)    bonds issued by state governments    B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds    D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)    The financial system performs the role of communicating information by    33)
A)    incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)    constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)    providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)    constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)    The distinguishing feature of a well-­‐functioning financial market is the
A)    continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)    increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)    continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)    incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)    In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)    the Federal Reserve System.
B)    Congress and the President acting together.
C)    the President.
D)    Congress.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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36)    In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)    Fannie Mae.
B)    Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)    the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)    the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)    A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)    large businesses.    B) federal government.
C) small businesses.    D) state governments.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)    What made the recession of 2007-­‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)    it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)    the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)    the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)    the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)    All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)    there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)    large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)    the financial system was disrupted
D)    unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)    Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    the savings of relatives and friends
B)    their own savings
C)    global investors
D)    local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)    All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)    it involves small loans
B)    lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)    many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-­‐income countries
D)    the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)    Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)    Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)    Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)    More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)    Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)    The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)    securitization    B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading    D) microlending
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)    Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)    securitization    B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting    D) lending to households
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)    All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)    coupon payments on bonds    B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks    D) fees on loans

46)    Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both    50)
A)    help regulate the banking system.
B)    reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)    sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)    directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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51)    All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    alt-­‐A mortgages.
B)    mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)    adjustable-­‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)    subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52)    Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A)    when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

  1. C)    when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)    All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    lenders loosened lending standards.
B)    borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)    mortgage-­‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)    investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  15-­‐16  Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)    Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)    those with fixed-­‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)    those with adjustable-­‐rate mortgages
C)    subprime borrowers
D)    those with alt-­‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)    The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed    55)
A)    the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)    the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

 

 

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  1. C)    the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
    D)    the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
    Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
    financial crisis
    Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)    Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?    56)
A)    J.P. Morgan    B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)    Alt-­‐A borrowers were those who
A)    borrowed using “ʺinterest-­‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)    did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)    chose adjustable-­‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-­‐rate mortgages.
D)    used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)    The financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)    American International Group (AIG)    B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)    At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)    declines in the value of mortgage-­‐backed securities.
B)    holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)    defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)    not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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60)    Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:    60)
A)    alt A    B) securitized    C) adjustable    D) subprime
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)    The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to    61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)    allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)    increase the return to savers
D)    enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)    An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently    1) is
A)    they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)    they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)    the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)    they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)    By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)    goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)    individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)    individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)    individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

 

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AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)    The most important economic benefit from specialization is  that it    3)
A)    eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)    makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)    makes barter possible.
D)    leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    When an economy relies on specialization,    4)
A)    each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)    the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)    each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)    Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must    5)
A)    have an extensive system of higher education.
B)    develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)    be heavily agricultural.
D)    be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)    Barter is    6)
A)    the basis for economic specialization.
B)    the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)    another name for money.
D)    an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Under a system of barter    7)

A)    currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)    goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)    each individual trades output directly with another.
D)    only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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8)    Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)    An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)    An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)    An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)    An individual deposits three twenty-­‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    In a barter system individuals    9)
A)    will almost invariably specialize.
B)    find it impossible to specialize.
C)    find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)    must be entirely self-­‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)    A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)    the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)    taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)    the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)    traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11)    Under a barter system
A)    each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

  1. B)    prices for goods are very stable.
    D)    each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
    Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12)    How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100    B) 1,000 C) 10,000    D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)    poorly-­‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)    the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)    the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)    the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card.   Andy’ʹs   problem   illustrates   the   drawback   to   a   barter   system   known   as   A)   the specialization problem.
B)    the transactions problem.
C)    the many prices problem.
D)    the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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15)    Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)    Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)    The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)    Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)    Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)    Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)    government rationing
B)    barter
C)    money
D)    the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)    Marlboro cigarettes    B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins    D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)    Money eliminates the need for
A)    people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)    specialization.
C)    the market system.
D)    any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19)    Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that    19)
A)    the need for specialization is reduced.
B)    the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)    the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)    transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)    Commodity money can best be described as    20)
A)    standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)    a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A)    the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)    The introduction of money to an economy results in:    22)
A)    a more efficient barter system    B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization    D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    Money can BEST be described as:    23)
A)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)    any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)    commodities that have intrinsic value
D)    paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24)    Money is a medium of exchange in that    26)

A)    it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)    other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)    currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)    money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)    Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)    checks at commercial banks.
B)    currency.
C)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)    gold coins.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)    When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)    money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)    money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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29)    When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)    money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)    money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    An asset is
A)    the same thing as a liability.    B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

  1. C) anything that never declines in value.    D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)    The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money    31)
A)    may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)    serves as a medium of exchange.
C)    is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)    retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)    Wealth is
A)    equal to income.
B)    a flow variable.
C)    the sum of the value of assets.
D)    the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)    The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)    stock   of   all   assets,   money   is   an   individual’s   stock   of   currency   and   currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

 

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Question 24:               Economics

 

  1. Real wages in the United States in the long run:
    A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
    B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
    C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
    D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
  2. The long-run trend of real wages:
    A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
    B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
    C. has been upward.
    D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
  3. If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
    A. decreased by 2 percent.
    B. increased by 2 percent.
    C. increased by 3 percent.
    D. increased by 8 percent.
  4. Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
    A. total output.
    B. stock of capital.
    C. output per worker.
    D. international trade.
  5. Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
    A. the law of diminishing returns.
    B. improvements in technology.
    C. reductions in wage rates.
    D. increases in the quantity of labor.

 

 

 

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  1. The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
    A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
    B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
    C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
    D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
  2. The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
    A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
    B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
    C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
    D. the supply of labor has increased.
  3. If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 3 percent.
    C. fall by 3 percent.
    D. rise by 11 percent.
  4. If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 4 percent.
    C. fall by 4 percent.
    D. rise by 8 percent.
  5. Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
    B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
    C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
    D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
  6. Marginal resource cost refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
    B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
    C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
    D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

 

 

 

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  1. If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
    A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
    B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
    C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
    D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
  2. The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
    A. of diminishing returns.
    B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
    C. of declining MRC.
    D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
  3. A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
    A. perfectly inelastic.
    B. perfectly elastic.
    C. highly inelastic.
    D. highly elastic.
  4. A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
    A. marginal revenue product is zero.
    B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
    C. marginal resource cost is zero.
    D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
  5. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
  6. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
    D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

 

  1. A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
    A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
    B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
    C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
    D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
    A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
    B. is a monopsonist.
    C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
    D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 units of labor.
    B. 3 units of labor.
    C. 4 units of labor.
    D. 5 units of labor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $30.
    C. $24.
    D. $32.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $24.
    D. $30.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
    B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    C. is a “wage taker.”
    D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. has a principal-agent problem.
    B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
    C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
    D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
    A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
    B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
    C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
    D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
    A. $2.
    B. $3.
    C. $4.
    D. $16.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $8.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
    A. $8.
    B. $52.
    C. $2.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
    A. pure monopolist.
    B. discriminating monopolist.
    C. monopolistic competitor.
    D. pure competitor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 workers.
    B. 3 workers.
    C. 4 workers.
    D. 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $24.
    C. $32.
    D. $48.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
    A. $20.
    B. $16.
    C. $12.
    D. $8.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
    A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
    B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
    C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
    A. upsloping; horizontal
    B. downsloping; vertical
    C. vertical; upsloping
    D. horizontal; upsloping

 

  1. The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
    A. monopsonist.
    B. monopolist.
    C. bilateral competitor.
    D. bilateral monopolist.

 

  1. In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
    A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
    B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
    C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
    D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

 

 

  1. A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
    A. $9.
    B. $10.
    C. $15.
    D. $21.

 

 

 

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  1. Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
    A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
    B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
    C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
    D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

 

  1. In monopsony:
    A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
    B. the work force is highly mobile.
    C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
    D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
    A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
    B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
    C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
    D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

 

  1. If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
    A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
    B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
    C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
    D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

 

  1. A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
    A. worker’s wage rate.
    B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
    C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
    D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
    B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
    C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
    D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

 

 

 

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  1. Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
    A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
    A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
    B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
    C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
    D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

 

  1. As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
    A. and employment will both be lower.
    B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
    C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
    D. and employment will both be higher.

 

  1. “Player drafts” of professional athletes:
    A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
    B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
    C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
    D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

 

  1. Which of the following is not correct?
    A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
    B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

 

 

 

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  1. A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
    A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
    B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
    C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
    D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

 

  1. The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
    B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
    C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
    D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

 

  1. If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
    A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
    B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
    C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
    D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

 

  1. If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
    A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
    B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
    C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
    D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

 

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
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  1. Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
    A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
    B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
    C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
    D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

 

  1. Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
    A. $15.
    B. $25.
    C. $35.
    D. $45.

 

  1. Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
    A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
    B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
    C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
    D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

 

 

 

 

  1. If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
    A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
    B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
    C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
    A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
    B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
    C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
    D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
    A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
    B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
    C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
    D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
    A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
    B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
    C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
    D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
    A. W4.
    B. W3.
    C. W2.
    D. W1.

 

  1. Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
    A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
    B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
    C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
    D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

 

  1. Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
    A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
    B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
    C. industrial unions.
    D. craft unions.

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and E.
    C. B and G.
    D. B and F.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and F.
    C. B and F.
    D. A and F.
  2. Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
    A. D minus A
    B. D
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
    A. D minus A
    B. F
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
    A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
    B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
    C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
    D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

 

 

 

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  1. Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
    A. inclusive unionism.
    B. exclusive unionism.
    C. bilateral monopoly.
    D. monopsony.

 

  1. Occupational licensing:
    A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
    B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
    C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
    D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

 

  1. If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
    A. wage rate will rise.
    B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
    C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
    D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

 

  1. If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
    A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
    B. employment may either increase or decrease.
    C. employment will increase.
    D. employment will decrease.

 

  1. The electricians’ union is a good example of:
    A. exclusive unionism.
    B. an industrial union.
    C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
    D. inclusive unionism.

 

  1. Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
    A. increasing the supply of labor.
    B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
    C. decreasing the demand for labor.
    D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

 

 

 

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  1. Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
    A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
    B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
    C. increase the demand for construction workers.
    D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

 

 

  1. Craft unions:
    A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
    B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
    C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
    D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

 

  1. Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
    A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
    B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
    C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
    D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

 

  1. In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
    A. be logically indeterminate.
    B. be established at the level desired by the union.
    C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
    D. always be established at the competitive level.

 

 

 

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  1. If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
    A. a cartel.
    B. countervailing power.
    C. a bilateral monopoly.
    D. an internal labor market.

 

  1. Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
    A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
    B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
    C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
    D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
    A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
    B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
    C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
    D. not alter its level of employment.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
    A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
    B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
    C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
    D. eight workers would be hired.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
    A. below $7.
    B. between $5 and $8.
    C. above $5.
    D. above $8.

 

  1. Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
    A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
    B. economy has high unemployment.
    C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
    D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

 

 

  1. Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
    A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
    B. reduces employment.
    C. undermines incentives to work.
    D. is deflationary.

 

 

 

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  1. Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
    A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
    B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
    C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
    D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

 

  1. Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
    A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
    B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
    C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
    D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

 

 

  1. If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
    A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
    B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
    C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
    D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

 

  1. Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
    A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
    B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
    C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
    D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

 

  1. Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
    A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
    B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
    C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
    D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

 

  1. Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
    A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
    B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
    C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
    D. geographic immobilities.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages:
    A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
    B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
    C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
    D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
    A. differences in worker training and skills.
    B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
    C. geographic immobilities.
    D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

 

 

 

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  1. The idea of compensating differences is used:
    A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
    B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
    C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
    D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

 

 

  1. The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
    A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
    B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
    D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

 

  1. Data on education and earnings reveal:
    A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
    B. no relationship between the two.
    C. a positive relationship between the two.
    D. a negative relationship between the two.

 

  1. According to age-earnings data,
    A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
    B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
    C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
    D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

 

 

  1. Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
    A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
    C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
    D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

 

  1. Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
    A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
    B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
    C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
    D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

 

  1. Human capital is best defined as:
    A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
    B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
    C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
    D. the exchange of money for real assets.

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. discrimination

 

  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographical immobility of workers
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. compensating wage differentials

 

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographic immobility of workers
    B. discrimination
    C. noncompeting groups
    D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

 

  1. Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
    A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
    B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
    C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
    D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

 

 

 

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  1. In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
    A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
    B. the neglecting or evading of work.
    C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
    D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

 

  1. Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
    A. equalizing differences.
    B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
    C. shirking.
    D. the free-rider problem.

 

  1. The idea of efficiency wages is that:
    A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
    B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
    C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
    D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

 

  1. Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
    A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
    B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
    C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
    D. increasing the supply of labor.

 

  1. Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
    A. royalties.
    B. profit-sharing.
    C. bonuses.
    D. piece rates.

 

  1. A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
    A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
    B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
    C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
    D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

 

  1. For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
    A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
    B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
    C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
    D. reduce total compensation payments.

 

  1. Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
    A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
    B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
    C. offset monopsony.
    D. address the principal-agent problem.

 

  1. One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
    A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
    B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
    C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
    D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

 

 

 

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Question25:    Psychology

 

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind  ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

 

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Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a  _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is  concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

 

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Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a  __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes
c. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
d. the number of driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. cognitive perspective

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of a driving simulator
b. the use of nicotine
c. the driving skills of each driver
d. the number of collisions

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
b. educational knowledge
c. replication
d. publication

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Experimenters can justify the use of deception because ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is not that harmful
b. there is informed consent
c. it may be necessary for the experiment to work
d. research is more important than people

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
All of the following variables, except for __________ show a negative correlation.
Choose one answer.
a. school grades and IQ scores
b. men’s educational level and their income
c. height and weight
d. alcohol consumption and scores on a driving test

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
One of the reasons psychodynamic theories have persisted over the years is that they are ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. used by the majority of psychologists
b. difficult to scientifically test and, thus, difficult to disprove
c. based on facts
d. supported by significant scientific research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experiment
d. correlational studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
Choose one answer.
a. rare
b. common
c. expected
d. imperfect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. description
b. control
c. prediction
d. explanation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
b. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades
b. her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz
c. there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
d. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing behavior
b. controlling behavior
c. explaining behavior
d. predicting behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed but only when necessary.
b. There are rules that prevent the killing of animals.
c. There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals.
d. New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. volunteer bias
c. the principle of falsifiability
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
Freud stressed the importance of _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. adolescence
b. early adulthood
c. early childhood experiences
d. middle adulthood

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. emotion
b. keeping a closed mind
c. authority and expertise
d. reason and logical evaluation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient represents two things: ______________________ and ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a representative sample; strength
b. strength; direction of the relationship
c. the experimental group; control group
d. direction of the relationship; expectant functionality
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Dr. Mosher is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a  ___________________ .
Choose one answer.
a. evolutionary psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist      ect
c. cognitive psychologist
d. biopsychological psychologist
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the ______.
Choose one answer.
a. survey method
b. experimental method
c. naturalistic observation method
d. psychometric approach

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
The majority of psychologists work in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. colleges and universities
b. public school
c. government
d. private practice

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Sam described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. observer effect
b. restaurant effect
c. butterfly effect
d. parent effect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
________________ is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.
Choose one answer.
a. Statistics
b. The scientific method
c. The double-blind method
d. Checks and balances

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. a case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experimentation
d. participant observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly?
Choose one answer.
a. to comply with legal requirements
b. to allow researchers to replicate experiments
c. to identify all the extraneous variables
d. to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits
b. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness
c. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements
d. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
Choose one answer.
a. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
b. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid.
c. It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings.
d. It is basically the same process as objective introspection.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. educational knowledge
b. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
c. publication
d. replication

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1

 

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All of the following are accurate statements regarding random assignment EXCEPT ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is a procedure in which each subject has the same possibility of being assigned to a given group
b. it is a procedure in which subjects are assigned to a positive correlation or a negative correlation condition
c. it is a procedure for assigning people to experimental and control groups
d. it is a procedure that allows individual characteristics to be roughly balanced between groups

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication.
b. A psychologist has no medical training.
c. A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school.
d. An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Rob was named to the first team all-American basketball team last year. However, he is academically ineligible to play this year due to failing several classes. As a result, he is ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. supporting the idea that negative stereotypes exist for collegiate student athletes that they are likely to perform poorly in academics compared to non-athletes
b. supporting the idea that professors are biased in grading assignments of collegiate student athletes
c. supporting the idea that athletes have higher GPAs than non-athletes
d. supporting the idea that collegiate student athletes are not as smart as non-athletes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is  concerning critical thinking and astrology?
Choose one answer.
a. Research shows no connection between astrological signs and personality.
b. Astrology is based on stars and, therefore, it is scientific.      ect
c. Astrology is used by a lot of people.
d. Although there are many skeptics, astrology has strong evidence suggesting it is a valid science.
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a  __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. confounding variable
b. independent variable
c. dependent variable
d. random variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Professor Holden gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question ly, her students need to remember that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated
b. given these variables, the correlation will be positive
c. given these variables, the correlation will be negative
d. a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. understanding
b. changing
c. describing
d. predicting

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
“There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Choose one answer.
a. Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested.
b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
c. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
d. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true.      ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was developed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Sigmund Freud
d. William Tell

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities?
Choose one answer.
a. functionalist
b. behavioralist
c. psychodynamic
d. Gestaltist

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of collisions
b. the use of nicotine
c. the use of a driving simulator
d. the driving skills of each driver

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. biopsies of the brain of a cadaver
b. acute time of death in stroke patients
c. images of the living brain
d. select biopsied portions of a brain

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. cognitive perspective
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
The work of Freud was built around __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes
b. a method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior
c. a method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations
d. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing
b. understanding
c. predicting      ect
d. changing
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. Gestalt
b. behavioral
c. humanistic
d. psychodynamic

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
The goals of psychology are to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. understand, compare, and analyze human behavior
b. explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind
c. describe, understand, predict, and control behavior
d. improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. logical and well thought out
b. focusing on opinion
c. giving it a lot of thought
d. seeing one side of an argument very clearly

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Wesleyan University researchers Jamison and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
b. a correlation between collegiate athletes exposure to the negative stereotypes, the better they performed on an intelligence test
c. collegiate student athletes performed better in the classroom if they were made aware of the impact of
negative stereotypes
d. professors often excuse absences by collegiate student athletes who miss class due to attending practices

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. replications
b. experimenter effects
c. volunteer biases
d. single-blind studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
b. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
A psychologist evaluated Tameka, an eight-year-old child who has experienced difficulty in school. The psychologist sent questionnaires to 100 teachers to determine if they had ever seen similar cases. Based on the teachers’ responses, the psychologist hypothesized that a particular diet might cause the learning problem. Following her tabulation of the responses, she designed a study that would tell her if diet were the actual cause. Which of the following lists, in order from first to last, the research methods this psychologist used?
Choose one answer.
a. experiment, case study, survey
b. correlation, case study, experiment
c. naturalistic observation, survey, experiment
d. case study, survey, experiment

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
An operational definition is ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships
b. a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested
c. the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation
d. the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
Choose one answer.
a. structuralism; observable behavior
b. psychoanalysis; unconscious conflict
c. Gestalt; whole
d. natural selection; functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the cigarette without nicotine is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the control group
b. the experimental group
c. the no-control group
d. the driving simulator

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. the principle of falsifiability
c. volunteer bias
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. explanation      etc.
b. description
c. control
d. prediction
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. the science of behavior
b. the science of behavior and mental processes
c. the science of human behavior and mental processes
d. the science of mental processes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
Choose one answer.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. Gestalt

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. room crowding
c. eating McDonald’s food
d. observer effects

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning critical thinking is etc.?
Choose one answer.
a. There are few truths that need not be tested.
b. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
c. Some authorities should not be questioned.
d. All evidence is not equal in quality.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

 

Question 26:               Chemist

 

   Homework 6

An ammonia water solution is added at a specified rate to a charge of a formaldehyde water solution.  The reaction is instantaneous, that is, as soon as the ammonia and formaldehyde mix they react forming HMT and water; the reaction is also highly exothermic.  A cooling jacket surrounds the reactor to cool the liquid.

 

 

 

Process Information:

Initial charge of formaldehyde water solution = 1000 kg

Mass fraction of formaldehyde in the original solution = 0.42

Initial temperature of formaldehyde water solution = 50 oC

Feed flow rate: ;  Ammonia mass fraction in feed:

Feed temperature:

Heat capacity of reactants and products:

Heat of reaction (assumed constant):

Overall heat transfer coefficient:

By the way, the jacket volume (volume of liquid in the jacket) is 2 m3.  Be careful with the units!

 

 

The feeding time is 130 minutes.

 

  1. a)      Assume that the cooling water flow rate is so high that its temperature due to heat transfer hardly increases that is, its exit temperature is also.  Find the heat transfer area such that the reactor temperature just rises to by the end of the feeding time.
  2. b)       Assume now that the utility plant providing the cooling water is limited in its capacity, and we must remove the assumption of very high cooling flow and thus, constant cooling temperature.  It is necessary to find out the water flow rate that experiences no more than increase in temperature, that is, the maximum exit water temperature cannot be over, and at the same time does not allow the reactor’s content to exceed by the end of the feeding time.  Use the heat transfer area obtained in (a).

 

Question 27:   Science

 

Midterm Exam 

Return to Assessment List

Comment: Outstanding!

 

Part 1 of 1 –

100.0/ 100.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder is an example of a ____?

 

A.High explosive

B.Low explosive

C.Flammable liquid

D.Caustic explosive

 

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which explosive is considered to be the first composite explosive developed?

 

A.Gunpowder and/or Blackpowder

B.Poudre B

C.Greek Fire

D.Saltpeter

 

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An explosive is a substance capable of producing an explosion by its own ______.

 

A.Matter

B.Structure

C.Density

D.Energy

 

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Who introduced blackpowder to Europe?

 

A.Nobel

B.Munroe

C.Schwartz

D.Bacon

 

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder contains a __________ and a ___________ chemical mixture.

 

A.Fuel & oxidizer

B.Oxidizer & primer

C.Oxidizer & granulate

D.Fuel & nitrate compound

 

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

High explosives ____________ under the influence of shock.

 

A.Burn

B.Deflagrate

C.Fizzle

D.Detonate

 

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

According to Tenny Davis, this type of ordnance/munition contains 3 classes of explosives.

 

A.Dynamite

B.TNT

C.Blasting Cap

D.Complete round of ammunition

 

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This inventor discovered liquid nitroglycerine.

 

A.Ascanio Sobrero

B.Alfred Noble

C.Charles Munroe

D.Albert Schwartz

 

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This process greatly improved upon the quality and production efforts of Blackpowder.

 

A.Milling and/or corning

B.Sensitizing

C.Drying

D.Wetting

 

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

TNT is also known as _______?

 

A.Triluene

B.Trinitrotoluene

C.Tetracycaline

D.Tritium nitrate

 

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

__________ was the 1st smokeless powder.

 

A.Ballistite

B.Poudre B

C.Gunpowder

D.Blackpowder

 

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which country developed the 1st explosive testing procedures to determine adequate safety handling precautions?

 

A.England

B.Sweden

C.Germany

D.China

 

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

___________ is a chemical reaction which takes place between a substance and oxygen.

 

A.Combustion

B.Equilibrium

C.Kinetics

D.Dissolution

 

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The combustion process of propellant and explosive substances can be defined as a _____________.

 

A.Self-sustaining reaction

B.Exothermic reaction

C.Rapid-oxidizing reaction

D.All of the above

 

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The propagation of any explosion reaction through a deflagration explosive is based on _____________.

 

A.Thermal reactions

B.Chemical kinetics

C.Thermo mechanics

D.Kinetic combustion

 

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosives can be classified by the ease with which they can be _______ and _________.

 

A.Composed and detonated

B.Composed and deflagrated

C.Detonated and dissolved

D.Ignited and subsequently exploded

 

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Incendiary compositions containing saltpeter, sulphur, and combustible materials over a century ago were used primarily for ______ and ______.

 

A.War and amusement

B.Amusement and theology

C.War and advanced space exploration

D.DNA testing and amusement

 

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Antimony is also known as ________.

 

A.Sb2S3 which is referred to as Antimony sulphide

B.Sb8h1

C.Saltpeter

D.Sulphur

 

Answer Key:

Question 19 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Permitted explosives are also known as ____________.

 

A.Primary explosives

B.Secondary explosives

C.Commercial explosives

D.Special explosives

 

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical explosive was the 1st compound to be globally accepted as a basic compound for military use.

 

A.Picric acid

B.Blasting gelatin

C.Blackpowder

D.Potassium nitrate

 

Answer Key:

Question 21 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical code provides the makeup for TNT.

 

A.C7H5N3O6

B.C5H8N4O12

C.CH4N4O2

D.C3H6N6O6

 

Answer Key:

Question 22 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosions by type can be divided into which 3 groups?

 

A.Atomic, chemical, & kinetic

B.Kinetic, overpressure, & blastwave

C.Chemical, atomic, & mechamical

D.Atomic, chemical, & physical

 

Answer Key:

Question 23 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Atomic energy is approximately how many times greater than chemical energy?

 

A.A million to a billion

B.A hundred and to million

C.A hundred to a thousand

D.A thousand to a million

 

Answer Key:

Question 24 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An erupting volcano is an example of what type of explosion?

 

A.Physical

B.Chemical

C.Atomic

D.Kinetic

 

Answer Key:

Question 25 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Chemical explosions can be divided into how many groups?

 

A.2

B.1

C.3

D.4

 

Answer Key:

 Question 28:              Health Care

 

  1. To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

  1. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

  1. A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient’s elective surgery.

  1. Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

  1. A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner’s initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

  1. A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient’s response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management.  Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

  1. A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

  1. Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

  1. A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

  1. After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his follow-up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

  1. An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient’s recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient’s neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

  1. A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient’s parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can’t transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

  1. Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication’s side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

  1. During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient’s symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

  1. Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

  1. While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient’s spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

  1. A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient’s use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

  1. For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient’s chronological age.

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient’s murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

  1. A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient’s family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

acknowledge the family’s anxiety.
arrange for a meeting with a social worker.
escort the family to a conference room.
gently direct the family to maintain composure.

  1. An acute care nurse practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who is intubated for mechanical ventilation. The patient’s arterial blood gas results are: pH-7.35; PCO2-44 mm Hg; HCO3-22 mEq/L; and PO2-52 mm Hg. The current ventilator settings are: Assist control; Respiratory rate-14 breaths/min; Tidal volume (TV)-400 mL; Fraction of inspired O2-100%; and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP)-5 cm H2O. The nurse practitioner’s next action is to increase the:

peak pressure alarm to 40 mm Hg.
PEEP to 10 cm H2O.
respiratory rate to 18 breaths/min.
TV to 500 mL.
Question 29:   Health Care

 

Care of Adults and Older Adults

 

 

  1. The nursing unit manager on a medical teaching unit says that she would like a nurse to present a case study at interdisciplinary rounds on a patient who has compartment syndrome from a leg injury. This is the first patient you have cared for with this complication, and you have difficulty presenting your ideas in front of a group. What would you do?
  2. Ask to attend the rounds to increase your understanding of the condition.
  3. Research the condition and present what you have learned as well as your assessment findings and care measures.
  4. Suggest that a more experienced nurse be selected to present this case study.
  5. Approach the unit manager, explain your difficulty presenting in front of interdisciplinary team members, and ask to be excused from presenting.
  6. Which of the following situations would indicate a professional boundary violation?
  7. To empathize with a patient’s situation, sharing a personal experience with a patient that is very similar to the situation the patient is experiencing.
  8. Reminding a patient who has dementia that certain sexual touch behaviours are not acceptable.
  9. Being concerned about a patient’s welfare and seeking ways to protect the client’s best interests.
  10. Having well-intentioned behaviours that detract from achievable health outcomes for patients.

 

 

  1. An important component of professional practice is self-awareness. Why is self-awareness an important basis for nursing practice?
  2. It may prevent biases and assumptions from affecting relationships.
  3. It may allow the nurse to examine how biases and assumptions could interfere with therapeutic effectiveness.
  4. It may enable the nurse to treat people from different cultural backgrounds according to the dominant beliefs of their culture.
  5. It allows for mo re objectivity in facilitating the healing process.

 

  1. Which of the following is a theoretical perspective that underlies group process and effectiveness?
  2. The personality style theory acknowledges that the nature of individuals in a group helps us understand group dynamics and sources of conflict in the group.
  3. When groups are formed to complete a task, the task functions need to be assigned to individuals to ensure effective group functioning.
  4. Considering the roles and functions or groups would explain the developmental theory of groups.
  5. For group effectiveness, a group needs to have homogeneity and common views and interests.

 

 

  1. Which of the following group principles interfere with the effectiveness of a group?
  2. Groups get to know each other while focusing on accomplishing tasks.
  3. Groups set norms, cooperate, and monitor progress.
  4. Groups encourage similarity of viewpoints and minimize differing opinions.
  5. Groups deal with conflicts and allow members to express their differences.

 

  1. Janna, age 27 years, a sing le mother, appreciates the help you have given her through the birth of her first child.  When you conclude your last follow-up community visit, she expresses gratitude and suggests that you come back and visit her and the baby for regular outings. How would you respond?
  2. Acknowledge your appreciation of this experience, explain that her nursing needs have been met, and tell her you have to leave to care for other new mot hers.
  3. Thank her for the offer and tell her that you will have to give her a call to see whether you will be able to work in outings in your personal schedule.
  4. Tell her this would be unprofessional.
  5. Stale that you would really like to do this but you are too busy with your other commitments.

.

 

 

  1. How would you respond to Mr. Carlson?
  2. Remind him that he has signed the consent and that the surgery has been scheduled.
  3. Discuss his fear s regarding the surgery and reassure him that many patients want to change their minds as the surgery draws near.
  4. Explore reasons why he wishes to cancel the surgery, clarify his concerns, and reinforce that he can change his mind if he chooses.
  5. Tell him not to make up his mind until the doctor comes to talk to him again.

 

  1. Mr. Carlson makes the decision to sign himself out of the hospital. What actions would you take?
  2. Ensure that he signs the release form and contact the doctor and the operating room staff.
  3. Convince him 10 slay because heart surgery is very important.
  4. Contact the nursing unit manager and document it in the chart.
  5. Realistically explain the wail list for surgery and what could happen to him.

.

 

  1. You are admitting Darlene, age 40 years, who has come in for regulation of her insulin dependent diabetes.  When she is unpacking, you note that she has a bag with some of her used syringes with needles, which she places in the top drawer of her bedside table. What would you do?
  2. Rein force that she should keep the syringes in her suitcase so there are no injuries to staff members.
  3. Ask her why she is keeping the used syringes and ensure they are disposed of safely.
  4. Ask her to glove and dispose of the contaminated syringes in the needle receptacle.
  5. Report the incident to the diabetic care team so effective teaching can be done.

 

  1. You are supervising a nursing student during a dressing change. When the student is removing the dressing from a leg ulcer, the patient begins to yell and swear at both of you. He threatens to throw the water pitcher if both of you don’t leave his room immediately. What should you do?
  2. Leave the leg ulcer undressed and exit the room immediately.
  3. Report the incident to the doctor and have him or her explain that this behaviour will not be tolerated.
  4. Temporarily dress the wound, explain that verbal abuse is not tolerated, leave the room and return later to discuss alternate wound dressing strategies.
  5. Firmly explain that that behaviour will not be tolerated, remove the water pitcher, and continue applying the dressing

 

 

  1. You have completed your initial assessment and charting on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When you go back into the room 1 hour later, you note that his Status has changed: He has become confused end does not know where he is; is taking short, rapid breaths at 34 breaths/min; has to sit up to breathe; and has a bluish tinge around his lips. His oxygen saturation levels have gone from 94% to 84%.  What would you document for the assessment?
  2. Confused and disoriented X3, Dyspneic, Pallor of lips. Oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 84%.
  3. Confused, Cheyne Stokes breathing at rate of 34/min. Positioned in Fowler’s position. Blue lips.
  4. Disoriented, Tachypneic breathing at 34/min.Short of breath.  Oxygen saturation at 84%.
  5. Disoriented to place, tachypneic, shallow breathing at 34/min, orthopneic with circumoral cyanosis.  Oxygen saturation at 84%.

 

 

 

  1. Laurana, age 24 years, is being discharged today after the birth of her first baby. She is concerned about how she will manage at home and wonders how she can get her questions answered.  What sources of information would you suggest?
  2. Parents and friends.
  3. A retired nurse in her neighborhood and web sites.
  4. Community health clinics, telehealth, and hospital-based web site.
  5. Pamphlets, library books, husband, parents, and in-laws.

 

  1. What is the most important responsibility when inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
  2. Accurate measurement and lubrication of the NG tube.
  3. Asking the patient to breathe deeply when the tube is inserted past the nasopharynx.
  4. Encouraging the patient to swallow sips of water to facilitate the insertion.
  5. Checking the placement of the tube by aspiration and testing the pH of the contents.

 

 

Case Study: Mrs. April Hume, age 86 years, has been admitted with advanced liver metastasis after a mastectomy. She is very weak and is experiencing abdominal pain, has ascites, and is having difficulty breathing. She has requested that only supportive measures be given. Questions 14 and 15

 

  1. Which would be priority nursing Interventions?
  2. Addressing concerns she might have regarding death and dying, encouraging family support, and promoting her independence in meeting her needs.
  3. Initiating oxygen therapy, Fowler’s positioning, pain control, and addressing her Questions and concerns.
  4. Encouraging her to eat, mobilizing her every 2 hours, and having her perform deep breathing and coughing exercises every half hour.
  5. Ensuring that she under stands that she is on a palliative care unit and explaining that only comfort measures she requests will be followed.

 

 

  1. Mrs. Hume is anxious and concerned about her breathing difficulties. She states that she feels that breathing is taking so much energy that she is hardly able to eat. She is having difficulty mobilizing because of the pain and spends most of her time in bed. She says that her family is concerned about her lack of progress. What would you do?
  2. Explore other ways to more effectively control her symptoms and advocate for her when approaching her family.
  3. Rein force the meaning of supportive care to her family and restrict their visits so Mrs. Hume has more rest time.
  4. Provide support for the family and encourage Mrs. Hume to become more actively involved in her care.
  5. Determine where the patient is regarding the stages of dying and discuss the findings with her family.

 

  1. If a mass casualty occurs near your acute care unit what would be included in a disaster preparedness plan?
  2. An informal fan out to contact and inform all registered nurses about the disaster and elicit their help in assisting with the casualties.
  3. A formal written plan of action for coordinating the response of the hospital staff and to designate how different areas will be used.
  4. A designation of levels of casualty care and having nurses volunteer services at different levels.
  5. A formal plan to ensure that medical supplies and medications are available for the great number of casualties.

 

  1. Mrs. Jones recently had a cystectomy for bladder cancer. She has an ileal conduit (urostomy).  What teaching would you include?
  2. How to protect the skin, how to apply a dressing over the ostomy site, and the importance of reporting shreds of mucus in the urine as evidence of a urinary tract infection.
  3. Stoma care and application of an ostomy pouch and drainage bag, increasing intake of fluids, observing amount and the colour of the urine.
  4. Odour control, skin cleansing, and irrigation of the ostomy.
  5. Signs of infections or skin breakdown, intermittent application of the appliance, and the importance of dietary restrictions.

,

 

  1. Which of the following patients require increased sensory stimulation to prevent sensory deprivation?
  2. A 24-year-old patient who has been admitted with an anxiety disorder and appears very agitated.
  3. A 60-year-old patient, who is blind, reads books through use of Braille, listens to the radio, and regularly takes walks around the unit.
  4. A 65-year-old patient, who has employment-induced presbycusis and advanced glaucoma.
  5. An 84-year-old patient who has hemiparesis and ambulates with a walker.

.

 

 

  1. Mrs. Starface, age 62 years, a First Nations patient, has been admitted with a chronic cough and progressive weight loss.  She has a positive Mantoux test result, and is placed in isolation for suspected tuberculosis. What isolation precautions should the nurse take?
  2. Have her wear a disposable mask when she is transported to the radiography department.
  3. Wear a gown and gloves while in her isolation room.
  4. Wear a disposable mask, gown, and gloves while giving care.
  5. Discourage visitors from spending time with the patient to reduce transmission.

.

 

  1. Mrs. Mames, age 27 years, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted in active labour.  She states that her contractions are very intense and that she needs pain medication.  What is the most important factor to assess before analgesic administration?
  2. Her respiratory rate and fetal heart rate during contractions.
  3. The frequency, duration, and intensity of her contractions.
  4. The effectiveness of the coaching from her husband.
  5. How well she manages through the next five contractions.

 

 

  1. Mrs. Dravies, gravida 2, para 1, is admitted at 8 weeks gestation for a moderate amount of bleeding and abdominal cramps.  A day later, the bleeding stops, and she is being discharged.  What would you include in discharge teaching?
  2. Ask her how badly she wants this baby and what she would be willing to do to ensure carrying the baby to term.
  3. Ask her if she understands the reason for the cramping and bleeding and explain what precautions she could take to retain the pregnancy.
  4. Explain that nurse aborts the fetus if it is abnormal and that bleeding and cramps may indicate an abnormality.
  5. Ask her if she has been eating nutritious meals and restricting her activity during pregnancy.

 

  1. Mr. Jones, age 64 years, had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday.  How could you detect hypovolemic shock in this client?
  2. Slow, irregular heart rate and pulse deficit.
  3. Bounding pulse and hypotension.
  4. Pallor, cold extremities, and tachycardia.
  5. Dark red-tinged urine, shivering, and confusion.

 

  1. Jennifer, age 16 years, is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery room after wiring of a fractured jaw.  She is conscious.  Her breathing has become noisy and shallow.  Her oxygen saturation levels were at 98 and now are at 90.  What actions would you take?
  2. Position her in Sims position with her head to the side, give oxygen as ordered, and suction if needed.
  3. Position her in Fowler’s position to assist her in breathing and give oxygen as ordered.
  4. Insert an airway, suction her, and position her in the supine position.
  5. Encourage her to breathe deeply, position her in the prone position, and give oxygen as ordered.

 

 

 

  1. Daniel, age 16 years, had a cast applied after a fracture of the tibia.  When teaching him before discharge about detecting signs of impaired circulation and nervous system functioning, which signs would indicate problems?
  2. Pallor, coolness, and numbness of the toes.
  3. Pain at the fracture site and a small amount of bleeding through the cast.
  4. Inability to move the leg at the fracture site.
  5. Slight edema of the foot and presence of pedal pulse.
  6. Mr. Blair had a bowel resection 2 days ago and has had a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted.  He is complaining of increased abdominal pain and nausea.  What assessments or actions would be most appropriate?
  7. Check the patency and amount of drainage from the NG tube.
  8. Give him an analgesic and antiemetic as ordered.
  9. Irrigate the NG tube with water and give an analgesic as ordered.
  10. Explain that nausea is common because the NG tube irritates the gag reflex.
  11. Mr. Evans has ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver.  He is jaundiced and malnourished.  Which of the following problems is not associated with cirrhosis of the liver?
  12. Eupnea related to esophageal varices.
  13. Potential for pressure ulcers related to malnourishment.
  14. Concentrated, dark urine related to kidney excretion of bile byproducts.
  15. Confusion and disorientation related to increase in circulating toxins.
  16. Mrs. Chu had a cholecystectomy 2 days ago.  Which signs would indicate a wound infection?
  17. Serosanguineous drainage, temperature of 38-degree C, and abdominal pain.
  18. Purulent drainage, pain in the mid incision, and temperature of 38.5-degree C.
  19. Serous drainage, temperature of 38 degree C, and redness of the incision line.
  20. Sanguinous drainage, temperature of 37.5 degree C, and bradycardia.

 

  1. Dillon is 7 years old and weighs 30 kg.  He has acute streptococcal pharyngitis.  He is prescribed Keflex (cephalexin) 26.67 mg/kg q6h.  How much would he receive in each dose?
  2. 150 mg.
  3. 200 mg.
  4. 400 mg.
  5. None of the above.

 

 

  1. Jane, age 18 years, has an asthma attack when in the hospital.  She is in respiratory distress.  What initial action would you take?
  2. Position her in the supine position and administer oxygen and bronchodilators as ordered.
  3. Position her in the Sims position and gave bronchodilators as ordered.
  4. Position her in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and give bronchodilators as ordered.
  5. Give bronchodilators and steroid medication as ordered.

 

  1. Mrs. Jones, age 34 years, returns from the recovery room after bowel surgery.  She is receiving morphine sulfate through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.  When you assess her pain levels, her pain intensity is 8 of 10.  When you ask her if she has been using the button to relieve her pain, she states, “I’m afraid that I’ll become addicted if I use too much morphine.”  Which would be the best response to her concern?
  2. “Morphine is not addicting in these circumstances.”
  3. “You need to take the morphine to help you rest and recuperate from the surgery; you can deal with the addiction later.”
  4. “When morphine is used to alleviate severe pain for 2 to 3 days, there is little likelihood of becoming addicted.”
  5. “Have you had problems with drug addiction before?”

 

 

  1. Mr. Keaton, age 65 years, has a plastic anemia and is going to receive a transfusion of packed blood cells.  In addition to taking vital signs and verifying that packed blood cells are matched to the patient, what other assessments would you make?
  2. Assess pain at the transfusion site and transfuse the packed blood cells over 5 hours to lessen reactions.
  3. Check the patient regarding chills, low back pain, dyspnea, and skin itching during the transfusion.
  4. Ask the patient about headaches, maintaining bed rest during the transfusion, and reducing intake of fluids to reduce the likelihood of fluid overload.
  5. Transfuse the blood quickly for the first 15 minutes and then check for abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms.

.

 

  1. Mrs. Kilts, age 84 years, has hypostatic pneumonia.  When you complete your assessment, which of the following would indicate hypoxia?
  2. Tachypnea, orthopnea, tachycardia, and circumoral cyanosis.
  3. Hypotension, bradycardia, braypnea, and use of accessory muscles in the neck.
  4. Eupnea, hypertension, bradycardia, and cyanosis of the nail beds.
  5. Occasional productive cough, pursed-lip breathing, and nasal flaring.

 

  1. When you enter the recreation room, you observe Sara Jones, age 20 years, pacing, speaking in a threatening manner, and appearing to defend herself. She has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. What approach would you take?
  2. Approach her directly and tell her you are going to get her some medication to help her calm down.
  3. Ignore her until she calms down and then approach her gently and ask what is wrong.
  4. Ask her if she is hallucinating and whether she has taken her medication today,
  5. Approach her calmly and find out what is causing her to be upset.

 

 

 

  1. Mr. Pritchard, age 55 years, has been informed by his doctor that his pancreatic cancer is inoperable and that it has spread to his liver. When you enter the room, he states, “The doctor feels that things are hopeless. I hate this place. You’re all so useless. Just leave me alone.”  What would be a therapeutic response?
  2. “This is devastating news for you. I’ll let you have some time and will come back later.”
  3. “You arc much too young to have inoperable cancer. How does your family fee l about this?”
  4. “You’ll need to get over this. Your family needs you to get your affairs in order.”
  5. “Why are you upset with us? You need some time to calm down.”

 

  1. Mr. Corwin, age 74 years, has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) after a right hip fracture. What are important priorities on the first postoperative day?
  2. Supporting the leg to maintain adduction, ensuring adequate pain control, and maintaining bed rest.
  3. Assessing the neurovascular status in the right leg; providing pa in control; and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises, position changes, and early ambulation.
  4. Assessing for skin integrity, enhancing his nutritional status, and restricting his movement and activity in bed.
  5. Preventing confusion and disorientation, restricting analgesics, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing.

 

  1. Mr. Balm, age 70 years, comes into the emergency department with acute onset of severe chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety.  His respirations are 28 breaths/min, and he has circumoral cyanosis with an oxygen saturation of 84%.

What would your immediate actions be?

  1. Gather information regarding the nature and intensity of the chest pain.
  2. Place him in Fowler’s position, Initiate oxygen therapy, and gel an analgesic ordered.
  3. Keep him in the supine position, encourage deep breathing, and request an ECG.
  4. Get an order for an analgesic, position him in the side-lying position, and encourage pursed- lip breathing.

 

  1. During a gymnastics practice, 18-year-old Tracey falls and fractures her right tibia. The doctor asks to be notified if anterior compartment syndrome presents in the right extremity.  What signs and symptoms would indicate this syndrome?
  2. Edema of the right foot, loss of sensation in the right leg, and hypotension.
  3. Edema of the right foot, redness on the skin surface or the calf, and poor capillary refill in the toenails.
  4. Severe pain aggravated by plantarflexion, tense and tender muscles in the lateral right calf, and paresthesia.
  5. Painful contracture of the calf muscles, inability to extend the leg, and redness arid warmth in the calf region.

 

  1. Mr. Harris, age 65 years, had a n abdominal perineal resection for cancer of the rectum. He is receiving morphine via a patient-control analgesia (PCA) pump. What would your priority assessment be regarding the analgesia?
  2. The rate and depth of respiration.
  3. The pulse rate and blood pres sure
  4. The effectiveness of pain control
  5. The accuracy of the programming on the pump.

 

  1. You are caring for Shauna, an 18- year-old gymnast who has been admitted for investigation of seizures. She weighs 50 kg. For two meals, you observe that she eats a very small amount of salad and skim milk. What approach would you take?
  2. Tell her you will have a dietician come to assess her eating habits.
  3. Ask her about her usual eating patterns and reason for her low intake.
  4. In form the doctor regarding her poor intake and suggest an appetite stimulant.
  5. Inform her that it she isn’t eating foods, a nasogastric feeding tube will have to be inserted.

 

  1. When you complete the initial postoperative assessment for Mr. Violini, age 55 years, you note that his IV is in fusing at 200 cc/hr. You check the order, which reads: “IV of 1000 cc D5S to infuse over 8 hours.” What actions would you lake?
  2. Continue infusing the IV at 200 cc/hr and observe his hydration status.
  3. Change the rate to 125 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
  4. Reduce the rate to 150 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
  5. Tell him that he should not adjust the flow clamp on the IV.

 

  1. Dana Evans, age 19 years, has been admitted after an asthma attack. When you complete your assessment, you observe that she is anxious, has audible wheezing, and is using her neck muscles when breathing. What would you do?
  2. Position her in orthopneic position, encourage coughing exercises, and ask her to calm down.
  3. Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen, and give her the ordered pm lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg.
  4. Encourage her to lie in a semi-prone position, perform diaphragmatic breathing, and give her the ordered pm beclomethasone dipropionate (Beclovent) inhaler.
  5. Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen as ordered, and give her the ordered pm med salbutamol (ventolin) by inhaler.

 

  1. Mr. Lexus, age 33 years, comes into the emergency department with severe back pain radiating to the left lower groin region. The doctor suspects renal calculi and orders meperidine HCI (Demerol) 100 mg 1M q3-4h pm. One hour after Mr. Lexus receives the medication, he states that the pain is still at 8 of 10.  What actions would you take?
  2. Explain that the medication takes longer than 1 hour to exert its effects.
  3. Tell him he will have to wait for 2 more hours before he can get his next injection.
  4. Contact the doctor, explain that the pain is still at 8 of 10, and request a higher dosage.
  5. Ask Mr. Lexus if he has routinely taken pain killers or street drugs.

 

  1. Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using critical thinking skills?
  2. The nurse follows the routine of the unit and encourages others to do the same.
  3. The nurse asks another nurse to outline the steps in performing a wound packing.
  4. The nurse does not know the answer and checks to find the answer on the unit or in the library.
  5. The nurse asks the patient about the symptoms she is experiencing an d lists them on the care plan.

 

  1. Which is the most important step in the nursing process?
  2. The assessment step because it involves collecting, organizing, and validating information that is used for the remaining steps.
  3. The nursing diagnosis step because it involves identifying the problems.
  4. The planning steps because it identifies ways to reduce, prevent and resolve problems.
  5. The implementation step because it ensures that interventions are effective.

 

  1. When identifying the nursing diagnosis or patient problems, which statement is most accurate?
  2. The nursing diagnosis helps to clarify the medical diagnosis and the problems that result from this diagnosis.
  3. Critical thinking skills are used to interpret, analyze, and duster the assessment data to determine the problems.
  4. The nursing diagnosis focuses on ways to prevent, reduce, or resolve the identified problems.
  5. The identification of patient problems provides the means of measuring the degree to which the goals are met.

 

 

 

  1. When performing a psychosocial assessment, which areas should be assessed?
  2. Breathing patterns, circulation patterns, and metabolic needs.
  3. Health ha bits, family, and social and sexual pattern).
  4. General survey, movement, eating habits, and activities of daily living.
  5. Rest and sleep patterns, activity and exercise patterns, and coping and stress tolerance.

 

  1. What is the primary purpose of conducting a health history?
  2. Identify the risk factors and how to promote health for the client.
  3. Obtain information to identify the level of health of the client and his or her past illnesses.
  4. Examine the chief complaint of the client and related factors.
  5. Provide for health teaching opportunities.
  6. When completing the physical assessment of the abdomen, which is the first skill used in the assessment?

 

  1. Which of the following statements heard during shift report identifies an important priority for action?
  2. A patient is reluctant to ambulate on the evening of surgery.
  3. A postoperative patient’s pulse has been increasing, and his blood pressure is decreasing.
  4. A postoperative patient is drowsy and slow to respond when the analgesic is at its maximal effect.
  5. A postoperative patient has not voided for 5 hours alter surgery.

 

  1. Upon completion of teaching related to Lanoxin (digoxin), a client is able to explain the effects of the medication and when not take it and can also identify the radial pulse site. What would this indicate?
  2. An accurate assessment of her teaching needs.
  3. An evaluation of psychomotor and cognitive learning.
  4. A high degree of motivation.
  5. An independent learner.

 

 

  1. When teaching a group of middle-aged women, what would you include when discussing primary prevention?
  2. Prevention of anemia and type 1 diabetes.
  3. Prevention of ulcers and inflammatory bowel disease.
  4. Fall prevention and maintaining joint mobility.
  5. Prevention of osteoporosis and the importance of regular breast self-examinations and regular Pap smears.

 

  1. A community health nurse is planning to address the needs of elderly adults living in their homes.  What primary area s should be included in this discussion?
  2. Importance of exercise, balanced nutrition and hydration, and safety and fall prevention.
  3. Prevention of joint deterioration and mobility problems.
  4. Prevention of hearing and visual deficits.
  5. Importance of frequent doctor visits and access to health care resources.

 

  1. Which of the following legal definitions is true?
  2. Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect victims in emergency situations.
  3. Negligence is intentional failure to act responsibly or deliberate omission of a professional act.
  4. Malpractice is failure to perform professional duties that result in patient injury.
  5. Scope of practice involves general guidelines that define nursing.

 

  1. A nurse has delegated the taking of vital signs for an unregulated health care provider. When a client’s blood pressure is reported as high, the registered nurse rechecks the blood, pressure and other vital signs for the patient. What would these actions be called?
  2. Obligation to the patient.
  3. Reversing of delegation.
  4. Empowerment of the patient.
  5. Accountability for care.

 

  1. When suctioning a tracheotomy, which actions are correct?
  2. Insert the suction catheter as far as patient can tolerate and suction for 25 seconds.
  3. Oxygenate the patient and then suction for 10 to 15 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
  4. Suction every 15minutes to prevent secretions, from accumulating.
  5. Commence suctioning upon insertion of the catheter and continue for 5 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
  6. A patient has been admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. He is sent to the hospital unit after emergency chest tube insertion. What would constitute an emergency situation with the chest tube?
  7. Bubbling of air in the underwater seal chamber.
  8. Improper suction setting on the wall suction.
  9. Disconnection of the connecting tubing from the chest tube.
  10. Drainage of bloody material into the drainage chamber.

 

 

 

  1. A postoperative patient after bowel surgery has orders for DAT (diet as tolerated). What assessments would indicate return of peristalsis?
  2. Distended abdomen and tympany on percussion.
  3. Soft abdomen and absence of bowel sounds on auscultation.
  4. Intermittent cramping, abdominal pain and bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
  5. Nausea, vomiting, and pain on palpation.

 

  1. A patient has a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine after a bowel resection. What are the nursing responsibilities after the client has self-administered a bolus of medication?
  2. Have the client mobilize to reduce the harmful effects of morphine.
  3. Ensure that the client understands that a bolus may take up to 15 minute to alleviate the pain.
  4. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to lessen respiratory depression.
  5. Reduce the amount of IV pain medication being administered on a regular basis.

 

  1. Your assigned patient has been requesting a stronger pain medication. In response, the doctor has ordered morphine combined with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. How would you explain the effectiveness of these two medications?
  2. Combining these two drugs will increase pain relief without the increased side effects of increasing the morphine dose.
  3. The two drugs are antagonistic, so they will relieve the pain but will counteract the side effects.
  4. Combining the two drugs will lessen the incidence of addiction.
  5. The NSAID will relieve muscle pain; the morphine will act centrally on the central nervous system to relieve pain.

 

  1. In addition to the pain medication, what other measures help promote comfort and alleviate pain?
  2. Encouraging ambulation and vigorous rubbing of the inflamed tissues.
  3. Gentle massage of the area, warm and cold applications, guided imagery, and TENS.
  4. Prolonged heat applications followed by prolonged cold application to the area
  5. Encouraging tensing of muscles and performing distraction exercises.

 

  1. Which of the following would be indicators of severe hypoxia?
  2. Generalized pallor and eupnea.
  3. Circumoral cyanosis and Pa02 of 70 mm Hg.
  4. Low oxygen saturation levels of 95%.
  5. Increased anxiety and drowsiness.
  6. What nursing measures are important when a Foley retention catheter has been inserted?
  7. The Foley catheter should be left unsecured to prevent urethral irritation.
  8. Urine samples should be obtained by disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag.
  9. The patient should limit fluid intake to keep the catheter patent.
  10. Reflux of urine from the tubing to the bladder should be prevented.

 

  1. You read through your assigned patient’s chart.  The history states:  “Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; reduced CSWM in left leg.”  What do these medical history terms and abbreviations indicate.’?
  2. The patient is experiencing intermittent shortness of breath, is unable to breathe unless in a supine position, and has impaired venous return in the left leg.
  3. The patient is experiencing painful breathing and shortness of breath with exertion and has impaired arterial flow to the left leg.
  4. The patient is experiencing periods of severe shortness of breath at night and impaired circulation and sensory and motor functioning in the left leg.
  5. The patient has reduced breathing capacity, loss of breathing reserve, and impaired motor movement of the left leg.

 

  1. Which sexuality alterations might emerge after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
  2. The patient may be concerned that a heart attack may occur during orgasm.
  3. Emotional concerns may interfere with the phase of resolution.
  4. The arousal phase may he affected by personal concerns.
  5. Sexual dysfunction may present because of reduced ventricular contractions.

 

  1. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate impaired arterial circulation in the lower extremities?
  2. Capillary refill in the toenails with in 2 seconds.
  3. Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse; coolness and decreased sensation in the feet.
  4. Edema and coolness in the ankles and feet.
  5. Redness, inflammation, and sharp pain with calf muscle con traction.

 

  1. Which of the following isolation precautions would be relevant for the communicable illness identified?
  2. Airborne precautions are indicated for varicella (chickenpox) and involve wearing a mask when in the room.
  3. Gloves, a mask, and a gown are worn when changing a wound dressing infected with Staphylococcus
  4. If a patient is infected with VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus), vital signs equipment is brought into the room every time it is needed.
  5. Specimens obtained from a contaminated wound would be transferred directly to the laboratory without special precautions.

 

  1. You are developing a care plan for a patient with tuberculosis. What isolation precautions would you take?
  2. Use a special mask to prevent inhaling infected airborne droplets.
  3. Wear a mask, gown, and gloves when providing care.
  4. Wear c, gown and gloves when in contact with the patient.
  5. Prevent visitors from visiting to reduce the possibility of transmission.

 

  1. You arc assessing a patient who has been in a car accident. He complains about sore ribs and painful breathing on the left side of his chest cage.  What assessment findings would alert you to a pneumothorax?
  2. Pain on exhalation; fatigue.
  3. Dyspnea; decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
  4. Bradycardia and hypertension.
  5. Tachypnea and hyperventilation.

 

  1. A patient has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Suddenly, the patient develops chest pain and severe dyspnea. He looks anxious and is very apprehensive. What actions would you take?
  2. Position him in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and call the physician.
  3. Auscultate for abnormal breath sounds and encourage deep breathing.
  4. Encourage pursed- lip breathing and coughing exercises.
  5. Ambulate the patient, encourage deep breaths, and take the apical pulse.
  6. Your patient has a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following neurologic deficits may present after a CVA?
  7. Visual field deficits such as homonymous hemianopsia.
  8. Emotional changes such as lack of emotional response and enhanced coping.
  9. Motor deficits such as paresthesia with numbness and tingling.
  10. Verbal deficits such as dysphagia and memory loss.

 

  1. Which of the following assessment findings are associated with cholelithiasis?
  2. Associated risk factors include being male and athletic.
  3. Jaundice is seen if the calculus lodges in the common bile duct.
  4. Biliary colic attacks occur when there is stone formation in the gallbladder.
  5. Symptoms of pain include steady LUQ pain radiating to the left scapula.
  6. Which of the following assessment findings are seen in patients with cancer of the head of the pancreas?
  7. Early onset of pain.
  8. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
  9. Early onset of jaundice and pruritus.
  10. Presence of steatorrhea, melena stools, and dilute urine.

 

 

  1. A client presents with cirrhosis of the liver secondary to alcohol abuse. What assessment findings would indicate portal hypertension?
  2. Ascites and hematemesis.
  3. Pulmonary edema.
  4. Absence of jugular vein distension.
  5. Cramps and watery diarrhea.

 

  1. Alter a total hip arthroplasty, what are the most important precautions to prevent dislocation?
  2. Limit movement s resulting in internal rotation and adduction of the affected hip.
  3. Use a pillow under the knees to prevent hip flexion.
  4. Reduce extension and hyperextension of the affected hip.
  5. Use toile t seats to prevent circumduction of the hip joint.
  6. Without hand washing between activities, a nurse makes an occupied bed and then assists another patient with meal preparation. Considering the chain of infection, which statement is true?
  7. The new portal of entry of microorganisms could be through the mouth.
  8. The mode of transmission is through direct contact.
  9. Microorganisms from the bed making would be spread by direct contact.
  10. An epidemic infect ion would occur if pathogens from the health care agency caused an illness.
  11. What are characteristics of effective decision making strategies in a nurse?
  12. Reviewing the chart and duplicating the actions of previous nurses.
  13. Gathering assessment data and analyzing and identifying-priority problems.
  14. Independently developing a plan of care based on the nurse’s workload.
  15. Willingness to follow the doctor’s orders and directions without questioning his or her rationale.
  16. What are important considerations when assessing and caring for a patient with pyrexia?
  17. The patient usually experiences a decrease in vital signs.
  18. The patient usually exhibits flushing of the skin and jaundice.
  19. The patient may experience dehydration and convulsions from a high temperature.
  20. The patient may experience increased urine output and dilute urine.
  21. Which of the following statements is true regarding wound healing when an infection is present?
  22. The infected portion of the wound will likely heal by primary intention.
  23. The inflammatory phase of healing will be shortened.
  24. The proliferative or regeneration phase will be delayed and prolonged.
  25. There will be less for mat ion of granulation tissue because of the infection,

 

  1. Which of the following assessment factors would indicate a need for oral pharyngeal suctioning?
  2. Thin sputum and a weak cough.
  3. Breathing rate of 36 breaths/min; noisy, gurgling respirations.
  4. Auscultation of fluid (rales and rhonchi) in the lower lobes of the lungs.
  5. Oxygen saturation levels of 95%; use of diaphragmatic breathing.

 

  1. Which of the following is an important consideration when performing oral-pharyngeal suctioning?
  2. Oxygen provided before suctioning limits the effectiveness of the suction.
  3. The nurse should only suction when the patient agrees to the procedure.
  4. Fluid intake should be limited to reduce the secretions produced.
  5. The duration of each suctioning episode should be IO to 15 seconds.
  6. What important postoperative care measures related to care of chest tubes should be done the day after a lobectomy?
  7. Disconnect the tubing to empty and measure drainage at the end of each shift.
  8. Frequently check the dressing and chest tube for drainage.
  9. Ensure that all connections arc securely taped.
  10. Position the patient in the prone or supine position to permit optimal drainage.

 

  1. Nutrients are important for wound healing.  Which of the following is true regarding the role of specific nutrients in healing?
  2. Vitamin C is needed for building capillaries and fibroblasts in the inflammatory phase.
  3. Essential amino acids art’ needed to ensure building blocks are present for building or proliferative phase.
  4. Nonessential fatty acids to provide a good supply of glucose for energy.
  5. Vitamin K is needed for the convalescent phase to help restore energy and nutrient needs.
  6. Mr. John G. has a history of cramps and has been experiencing diarrhea for the past 2 days. His urine is concentrated. You would assess for:
  7. Dehydration by checking tissue turgor and checking mucous membranes.
  8. Impaction as a result of the surgery.
  9. Signs of kidney suppression because of the concentrated urine.
  10. Absence of bowel sounds in the abdomen.

 

  1. What assessment findings would indicate circulatory overload from too rapid an IV in fusion?
  2. Decreased pulse, decreased blood pressure, and jugular vein distension.
  3. Increased pulse, increased respirations, and jugular vein distension.
  4. Headache, paleness, and hypertension.
  5. Increased temperature, peripheral edema, and decreased pulse rate.

 

  1. Which is the priority system to assess when a patient has severe hypothyroidism?
  2. Respiratory system.
  3. Heart and circulation.
  4. Neuro logic system.
  5. Integumentary system.
  6. A patient with diabetes is being tested for glvcosylated hemoglobin. How would you explain the reason for this diagnostic test?
  7. It determines the fasting blood glucose level.
  8. It determines the average blood glucose level in the previous; months.
  9. It determines the ratio of glucose to hemoglobin.
  10. It is used to identify a reduction in hemoglobin because of high glucose levels.

Case Study: Mr. Evan Jenkins, age 65 years, has had type 2 diabetes for 20 years and has been admitted to the hospital with chronic renal failure. Questions 87 to 90

 

  1. When completing the initial assessment, which signs would indicate circulatory overload?
  2. Increased blood pressure, apprehension, and shock.
  3. Weigh t gain, coughing of frothy sputum, and jugular vein distension.
  4. Cool, dry skin; gastric distension; and pleural edema.
  5. Apprehension, poor tissue turgor, and bradycardia.
  6. Which of the following statements is true regarding end-stage renal failure?
  7. A common cause of renal failure is pyelonephritis.
  8. It results in an increase in erythropoietin, leading to chronic fatigue.
  9. It results in a decrease in creatinine and blood urea nitrogen.
  10. It is characterized by fluid volume excess, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia.
  11. What are important nursing care measures for a patient with chronic renal failure?
  12. Prepare the client for temporary peritoneal dialysis or hemodialvsis.
  13. Restrict sodium and potassium; restrict fluids as ordered.
  14. Provide a diet high in protein; restrict fluids as ordered.
  15. Monitor for hypotension and maintain accurate intake and output records.
  16. Mr. Jenkins makes this comment just before his hemodialysis treatment: “What havI got to live for? I’d just like this to be over.” How would you interpret these comments?
  17. This indicates feelings of depression associated with a long –term, incurable disease.
  18. This response will be temporary, and he will feel much better after his hemodialysis is initiated.
  19. His family is no t providing the support he needs at this time.
  20. This is an unusual response and indicates that his cognitive abilities have become impaired by the disease.
  21. A client has just been transferred to the postanesthesia recovery room. What are the most important initial assessments that need to be completed?
  22. Skin color, warmth of extremities, and mental status assessment.

 

Question 30:               Health Care

 

NSG 4029 WEEK 5 KNOWLEDGE CHECK
1.    Technology competence is:

  1.  The goals of nursing informatics are effectiveness, efficiency and safety.
  2.  An informatics nurse violates a patient’s legal right to privacy and confidentiality by:
  3.  Which fields in nursing were affected by the information technology?

 

Question 31:               Law

 

The purpose of this paper is to enable you to complete an original research project on a relevant topic in the administration of justice. Drawing on the extant literature and using your own unique research frame, you will develop and complete a research paper that answers your unique questions (your electives classes in AJ will help) about an issue in the administration of justice. While your own interests will guide your research, it is crucial to use the literature available to develop an informed and professional research paper. 

Paper Requirements: After your topic is selected and approved. (1) Abstract: should include your research questions, the theory (AJ 100 or 105 will help) or theories that inform your research, the methods of data collection and analysis (see AJ 301/2) to be used, and what you believe you will find as a result of your study (see course objectives). (2) BODY: After you have identified a specific topic, you will then develop your own unique area of discussion and analysis: introduction, literature review, theory and methods, and possible finding (your previous courses in AJ will help such as AJ 100,105, 211,240, etc.). (3) Citations: You must use the APA guide for identifying authors cited in the text as well as the bibliography listing all sources used in alphabetical order. If you are not familiar with APA, there are reference guides in the library as well as on-line sources. (4) Placement of graphs, figures, or tables: If you use graphs, figures, or tables in your paper, I would prefer that you note their location in the text, [TABLE 1 HERE], and compile all tables at the end of the paper. This is easier for both the writer and the reader. (5) Format: Papers must be type, double spaced, with one-inch side, top, and bottom margins and use a 12-point font.. The minimum page requirement for the paper is 12 pages (NOTE: cover, reference, graphs, figures and, tables pages will not be counted as part of the 12 pages). While I do not specify a maximum length, I am anticipating that most people will submit papers 12 pages long.

 

Question 32:               Business

 

  1. Explain what happens to the 95 % confidence interval as the sample size increases. (2 marks)
  2. Explain what happens to the width of the confidence interval for a 99% interval versus a 95%. (2 marks)

 

 

Q2.   Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we do not know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) or the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm and the sample standard deviation as 25cm.

 

  1. Derive the 95% confidence interval for the population mean (4 marks)
  2. Compare your interval here and last week – which is larger and why? (2 marks)

To answer ii question, you need to answer the question below.

 

 

 

Tutorial covering Lecture Topic 6: Part 1 Confidence intervals. (answer this in different page)

 

Q3. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) is 25, but we do not know the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm.

 

  1. Derive the 95% confidence interval around the sample mean. (3 marks)
  2. In your answer to i) will the specific confidence interval you have derived contain the population mean? Explain carefully. (2 marks)

 

Question 33:               Business

 

INDIVIDUAL LEARNING PROJECT INSTRUCTIONS The Individual Learning Project is an opportunity for you to evaluate yourself and your role within your organization by completing 10 self-assessment activities. You will begin the paper by completing a modified Abstract that details a past, present, or future job you will use as a basis for analyzing the self-assessment results. You will then write a full-page analysis of each assessment and combine all 10 together according to the provided format for submission at the end of the course. Each self-assessment must have at least 1 reference from your textbook to support your analysis and be cited according to current APA. You will find the Self-Assessment Activities in Connect. These are the activities you must complete. They are found at the end of the indicated chapter. CHAPTER SELF-ASSESSMENT ACTIVITY 2 Are You Introverted or Extraverted? 4 How Do You Cope With Stressful Situations? 5 How Strong Are Your Growth Needs? 7 What is your Preferred Decision-Making Style? 8 What Team Roles Do You Prefer? 9 Are You An Active Listener? 10 What’s Your Approach to Influencing Co-Workers? 11 What’s Your Preferred Conflict Handling Style? 12 Do Leaders Make a Difference? 13 What Organizational Structure Do You Prefer? After completing an assessment, analyze it by using the scoring key located in Connect and write an analysis with the following components: Title of the self-assessment (centered at the top of the page) 1. Purpose of assessment 2. Your actual score 3. The interpretation of your score, using the assessment feedback 4. How you can use the results of this self-assessment to improve your effectiveness and/or efficiency in an organization Page and Paper Format: • Components 1–3 above must not exceed 1/4 of the space on the page. • Component 4 above must occupy the remaining 3/4 of the space on the page. • All pages must be double-spaced with 1” margins (right, left, top, bottom) and left-justified. • Font must be Times New Roman and 12-pt size. • Titles for each assessment must be centered according to current APA format. • The first line of paragraphs must be indented 5 spaces. • For the submitted collection of analyses, attach a standard cover page like the sample document accompanying these instructions. Your submissions must also include a reference page. • Submit the collection as a Microsoft Word document. • Page headers must include short title and pagination (use Microsoft Word header function) with standard numbering according to APA requirements

 

Question 34:   English

 

 

Notes on plagiarism:

  1. According to the Arab Open University By-laws, “the following acts represent cases of cheating and plagiarism:
  • Verbatim copying of printed material and submitting them without proper academic acknowledgement and documentation.
  • Verbatim copying of material from the Internet, including tables and graphics.
  • Copying other students’ notes or answers.
  • Using paid or unpaid material prepared for the student by individuals or firms.

 

  1. Penalties for plagiarism ranges from failure in the STMA to expulsion from the university.

 

  1. Collaboration with anyone else (including fellow students) is strictly prohibited.

 

  1. All quotations used must be referenced.

 

Declaration: I hereby declare that the submitted STMA is my own work and I have not copied any other person’s work or plagiarized in any other form as specified above.

Student Signature:

 

 

FACULTY OF LANGUAGE STUDIES

EL120: English Phonetics and Linguistics

 

Exam Instructions:

 

 

  1. There are THREE parts to this examination paper as in the following table:

 

Part Question No. Marks per section
A 50
B a 7.5
b 5
c 2.5
C 35
TOTAL   100

 

 

  1. You are required to answer all THREE parts.

 

  1. Follow carefully the instruction in each part.

 

  1. Review your answers carefully paying attention to your grammar, spelling and punctuation as well as to relevant textual elements (e.g. paragraphing, cohesion & coherence) as part of the mark for each question will be given to language accuracy and text organization.

 

 

 

 

You are required to answer ALL questions

 

 

PART A

 

Answer the following questions in a paragraph form in not less than 150 words each. USE YOUR OWN WORDS                                   (50marks)                                                                            

 

  1. Explain why there are more sounds than letters of the alphabet in English? Illustrate your answer with examples.             (Not less than 150 words)                  (25 Marks)

 

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. What are the differences between a phoneme and an allophone? Refer to at least 2 features as examples of allophones and the effect of neighboring sounds. Use examples of your own to illustrate your answer. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

 

_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

PART B

 

  1. a) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following consonant descriptions and provide examples of this symbol in three positions (initial, medial, final)

(7.5 Marks)

 

  1. i) Voiced dental fricative: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

  1. ii) Voiceless velar plosive/stop: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

iii) Voiceless post alveolar affricate: /    /   Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

 

 

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  1. b) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following descriptions of RP

vowels: Put each vowel in three examples of your own.                                          (5 Marks)

 

 

  1. A long, front, high, unrounded vowel: / /   Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

  1. A short, front, high, unrounded vowel: /    /   Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

 

  1. c) Use the above two vowels in b) in two sets of minimal pairs to illustrate the difference between them. (2.5 marks)

 

  1. ________________ & ___________________
  2. ________________ & ___________________

 

 

PART C

 

Which of the following statements is true (T) and which is false (F)? Provide the correct answer in case of “FALSE”      . Explain The Phonetic Rule Relevant To Each Of The 7 Statements.                                                                                                       (35 Marks)

 

  1. The pronunciation in connected speech of “good girl” as / good girl / is an example of aspiration.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. The difference between the /f/ in the word fish and the /v/ sound in the word vase has to do with voicing.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. The pronunciation of the underlined vowel sounds in the following words is identical (the same): four – founder – soup.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. The alveolar ridge is the organ responsible for creating voiced and voiceless sounds.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

  1. The /t/ in till has the same pronunciation as the /t/ in still.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. /l/ in light – while – milk is the same allophone.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

  1.  The place of the stress in the word ‘object’ is the same in the noun and the verb.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

Question 35:               History

 

Please write a 250-word essay about a NJ Historical figure (that you select) found within the chapters of the Maxine Lurie text. Tell why this person is important, what they did, how others reacted to their actions, how this person relates to the present, and your Personal Analysis of the individual’s actions.

 

 

 

 

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Question 36:               General

 

What would Mary T. Norton think of the women’s movement of the 1970’s? What would she think of today’s society? Since Norton envisioned a female Governor and a female President, do you think she should have run for those offices? Why? How has Mary T. Norton impacted your life?

 

 

 

 

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Question 37:               Human Resource

 

What do you believe would be the most important components of the selection process for the following jobs? a Telemarketer,

  1. Restaurant manager
    c. School teacher
    d. A beginner football player

 

Question 38:               Finance

 

Instructions:

 

1 This is an individual assignment.
2 Your assignment should be typed using font-size 12, Times New Roman, and 1.5 spacing.
3 Your report should not exceed 2000 words in length. This excludes quotes, references.
4 It should contain complete references by using the APA referencing method for all citations made in the paper (including internet citations). An essay without citations would be considered as plagiarism and would be awarded a failed grade.
5 A Turnitin originality report has to be attached to the assignment. You will have to register yourself at www.turnitin.com. The information required when submitting your assignment are :

·         Class ID: 24175513

·         Enrollment Password: d2fin100

6 The assignment should submit online through LMS
7 You must submit your assignment by 30 April 2020. Failure to submit the assignment by the stipulated date would result in your assignment not being marked or marked as zero.

 

You will be given a selected public listed company that listed in Bursa Malaysia as your research target.

You are required to find all the necessary financial information from the companies’ Annual Reports, on the companies’ website, online searching etc., in order to perform the different tasks that required by this assignment as shown in the following sections.

You are required to write an analysis report on your selected company to present you findings. Your reports should start with an introduction to introduce the background of the company and perform industry and competitive analysis to understand the intense of competitiveness in the market.

Section A

In the first section of your report, you are required to examine the short-term financial activities of your selected company.

Using the following assumptions together with the information you collect from the company’s annual report to perform the required task:

Assumption:

  1. Assuming a constant rate for purchases, production, and sales throughout the year.
  2. Assuming all sales are on credit.
  3. Assume a 365-day year.
  4. Assuming the credit period that currently offer by the company to their customers are close to the company’s average collection period, and they did not offer any cash discount.
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Required:

  1. Calculate the following ratios for your selected company (based on the latest annual report):
    1. Average age of Inventory
    2. Average collection period
    3. Average payment period
  2. what are your selected company’s operating cycle (OC), cash conversion cycle (CCC), and the resource needs to support its cash conversion cycle (based on the latest annual report)?
  3. The company are contemplating to introduce a cash discount of 3 percent to those who pay the account within 10 days, while the others are still expect to pay according to the current credit period. The following assumption have been made:
  4. The sales revenues are expected to increase by 3 percent.
  5. 40 percent of the customers are expected to take the 3 percent discount.
  • The average collection periods are expected to reduce by 30%
  1. The bad debt expenses are expected to decrease from 1.5% of sales to 1% of sales.
  2. The firm’s opportunity cost of tying up funds in account receivable is 12%
  3. All the costs of sales are variable cost and 50 percent of the other operational costs are variable cost.
  • Other incomes remain unchanged.

You are required to calculate the following items:

  1. Additional profit contribution from the increase in sales revenue
  2. Cost/cost savings of marginal investment in account receivable
  3. Cost/cost savings of marginal bad debts
  4. Cost of cash discount
  5. Net profit/loss from initiating of proposed cash discount
  6. Use your findings from part (a) to part (e) to assess whether offering the cash discount can be justified financially.

 

  1. Answer the following questions:
    1. Why is working capital management one of the most important and time-consuming activities of the financial manager?
    2. What is the relationship between the predictability of a firm’s cash inflows and its required level of net working capital? How are net working capital, liquidity, and risk of insolvency related?
    3. What are the basic trade-offs in a tightening of credit standards?

 

 

 

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Section B

In this second section, you are required to conduct an equity analysis on your selected company. Your report should include the following content:

  1. You are required to perform the equity valuation on the selected company to find the intrinsic value by using an appropriate equity valuation model.
  2. Explain your selected equity valuation model, and why you think your selected model is appropriate to use to value the selected company.
  3. Explain how you estimate/obtain the inputs for your valuation model, and why you think the method you use to estimate the input is appropriate for your selected company.
  4. You should use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to calculate the required return for the selected company. You may find the Beta of your selected company from investing.com.
  5. For the market return, you should use the return on FBM KLCI index as a proxy for the market return. You should first find the average monthly changes for FBM KLCI over the past twenty years and then annualized it to find the annual capital gains. You should then add the average annual capital gains with the long-term average dividend yield of FBMKLCI to find the annual market return. The average dividend yield for FBMKLCI are assumed to be 3.5%.
  6. You should use the yield of 10 years Malaysian Government Securities to represent the risk-free rate.
  7. Based on this information, you can then calculate required rate of return for the common stock of your selected company.
  8. Using all of this information from the previous steps, you are then required to find the intrinsic value for your selected company.
  9. You will also need to find out what is the current price of your selected company.
  10. Explain how the outbreak of the Covid-19 will affect your selected company.
  11. Based on your analysis, would you recommend buying this stock at the current market price? Explain why you make that recommendation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Assessment Criteria

For your guidance, your assignment report will be marked as follows:

  Question Marks (%)
Introduction, Company Background and industry analysis 10
Section A Working Capital Management
Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel). 25
Theory and explanation 15
Section B Equity Valuation and Cost of Capital
Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel). 30
Explanation, discussion and analysis 15
Conclusion and recommendation

 

5
Total 100

 

The marks will then convert into the final weightage of 50%.

 

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Question 1:       Art

Write about this sculpture.

Statue of Hercules (Lansdowne Herakles), about A.D. 125, Roman

https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

Follow instruction. (it said artwork from a museum visit, due to virus crisis we change to online observation which is the link i provide above)

Include this:

compare this sculpture with this below

  • –  post
  • –  facial expression
  • –  muscular
  • –  heroism

Statue of a Victorious Youth, 300–100 B.C., Greek. https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

INSTRUCTION:

PURPOSE: to apply what you have learned from the course about formal elements to a single work of art. Skills:This assignment will help you hone the following skills:

  • Observation in visual analysis
  • Interpretation and application of observations to problem solving
  • Articulation of ideas using art historical terminology
  • Clear writing to express and single point

Knowledge:

  • Components of composition
  • How elements of design interact
  • The creative process in the visual arts

TASK: To complete this assignment you will:

  • Observe and note formal elements you see. Consult the list of formal elements and principles of composition below.
  • Build an argument that shows how each element you discuss contributes to the effect you are claiming the work has.
  • Keep in mind that formal elements never work alone
  • Consider how the artist uses each element on your list. Ask yourself if the artist uses that element in a consistent way (which has the effect of unifying the subjects represented), or if the artist is using that element to differentiate, and so to create a specific contrast, between two or more areas.
  • Do NOT arrive at a thesis (the claim that you are going to support) for your essay until you have finished making observations about patterns in the use of each formal element and have thought about how those observations “add up.”
  • It might be helpful to consider the element of emphasis first. Ask yourself: Does the art/object have one main point of emphasis? Or are there two or more points of equal emphasis? Alternatively, is there no point of emphasis? Your answer to these questions should help you determine where the artist wants to direct initially your attention. Make a note of it.
  • Compose a formal analysis, 750 words (approximately 3 pages, 12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)
  • You may wish to organize your discussion of formal elements by principles of composition that may result from the use of the formal elements, see below.
  • Be concise. In your first paragraph, clearly state what you think is the work’s main idea or effect—in other words, how the artist is characterizing his or her subject (or what qualities of the subject the artist is revealing). The first paragraph is the only place where a discussion of subject matter belongs. In subsequent paragraphs, support this thesis with evidence of how the various formal elements of the work contribute to that specific effect or idea.
  • Focus just on those formal elements that have the most impact in your case. You should, however, address no fewer than three formal elements (items 1 through 7 below) in a substantial manner. It is a good idea to organize your paper so that you discuss one formal element per paragraph after your initial paragraph, which should state your thesis. If relevant to your analysis, you may use a principle of composition as a topic for organizing your discussion of several formal elements.
  • Make sure that each paragraph in which you consider a formal element shows how the artist’s use of that formal element contributes to the overall effect or idea you are claiming (in your thesis, or first paragraph) the artist has achieved.
  • Do not write in narrative format, describing your experience.
  • Format your paper
  • MUST be 750 words (12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)

NOTES:

  • This is not a research assignment. You will not be rewarded, and could be penalized, for writing about irrelevant matters.
  • If the mechanics of writing is not your strength, please note that art history is a writing-based discipline. It is, therefore, recommended that, prior to handing in your assignment, you make time to visit the Learning Resource Center on the second floor of the University Library for assistance.
  • Plagiarism: Students will automatically fail the course and may be referred for further disciplinary action should the student be found plagiarizing. The 2016-17 University Catalogue, under “Student Conduct and Discipline: Academic Integrity,” at http://catalog.csupomona.edu/content.php?catoid=4&navoid=766#Academic_Integrity, defines plagiarism thus:

“Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication—Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication is intentionally or knowingly presenting words, ideas, or work of others as one’s own work. Plagiarism includes copying homework,

copying lab reports, copying computer programs, using a work or portion of a work written or created by another but not crediting the source, using one’s own work completed in a previous class for credit in another class without permission, paraphrasing another’s work without giving credit, and borrowing or using ideas without giving credit.”

*Note from the catalog’s definition of plagiarism that plagiarism may refer to copying the work of a fellow student. So, if you study with another student, make sure you do the actual assignment INDEPENDENTLY!

Formal Elements

*Refer to class notes to review various formal elements and how they work.

  1. Color (hue)
    a. color saturation

High saturation of color helps to create intensity. b. interaction of colors

This includes the impact of complementary and analogous colors.
*Note: Formal analysis does not involve symbolic interpretations of colors. In other words, do not make statements such as “yellow symbolizes optimism.” The formal effect of colors always

depends on their relationship to other colors.

  1. Value
    Low value = dark (black or tones of colors). High value = light (white or tints of colors).

Remember that contrast of value is the only compositional dynamic that creates emphasis in a painting.

  1. Line
    a. actual: can have character: thick, thin, curving, straight, etc.

They can also direct the eye and indicate movement.

Do not confuse line with brushwork.
b. implied: can indicate movement or they can simply ensure

that the viewer makes connections among certain objects in the painting.
c. axis: refers to the dominant implied line in a painting (horizontal vertical, or

diagonal). Remember that diagonal axis usually imply dynamism, movement.

  1. Scale (remember: in painting, there are two kinds of scale to consider)
    a. when speaking of the scale of the painting as an object, consider whether the painting creates,

for example, an intimate or a distant relationship between you, the viewer, and the subject.
b. When speaking of scale as the relative sizes of objects in the painting, consider the impact

of significant disparities of scale. Does the artist, for example, suggest that one object overwhelms, is more powerful, than another?

  1. Brushwork
    If it’s visible, brushwork shows how the artist laid down paint (spontaneously, smoothly,

erratically, roughly, etc.). This gives the depiction of the subject a particular energy.

  1. Medium (materials)
    Medium could be important if the choice of medium is unusual. If so, it
    may be used to emphasize particular physical properties (transparency, roughness, etc.) or

cultural associations (opulence, humbleness, etc.).

  1. Point of view
    How objects or figures are arranged in relation to you, the viewer, is an indication of the

perspective (literally and figuratively) that the artist wants us to have in relation to that subject.

Principles of composition
*not themselves formal elements, but are created by the use of formal elements.

  1. Emphasis (focal point).
    Note: This is a good one to discuss first, since it tells you whether or not the artist is communicating that a particular part of the composition is more important than other parts. Keep in mind that, in a painting, there may be one or multiple or no points of emphasis.
  2. Contrast (any element may be used contrastingly in a composition). Be sure to specify what sort of contrast you mean.
  3. Rhythm (repetition of line or shape—a form bounded by line—creates rhythm) 10. Unity (referring to compositional coherence)
    11. Balance (referring to the equal distribution of visual weights)
  4. Construction of space. Does the artist create spatial recession (depth) or flatness, or a combination of both? If you consider the construction of space in your essay, you should articulate the compositional cause(s) and expressive effect(s) of the spatial recession or flatness you find.

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Question 2:       Economics

 

Drawing diagrams and describing them on the topic of “Impact on AD/AS” (Macroeconomics.)

 

Impact on AD / AS:

Economic event Primary Impact on AD / AS
(draw a diagram)
Explanation (what caused the change, and make sure you say what happens to the price level and real GDP)
The Central Bank has announced an increase in interest rates.    
The price of oil worldwide is decreasing.    
The Rouble has fallen in value against many of the major currencies.    

 

Government has announced a new plan to build 3 new high-speed rail lines.

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Average wage rates in the economy are rising.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Consumer confidence surveys show that households expect a prolonged recession.  At the same time, firms also expect a prolonged recession.    
The discovery of new raw material sources

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

   
Foreign countries purchase an unusually large quantity of Russian lumber.

 

 

 

 

 

   
The vegetable growing areas of Russia experience an extended drought.

 

 

 

 

 

   

 

 

 

Question 3:       Health Care

 

In a well-constructed paragraph explain & describe the biases in this Case-Control study?

  1. Case-Control study: A researcher plans to investigate the efficacy of a new pancreatic cancer screening tool, using a Case-Control study design. She selects patients from 10 physicians’ offices, and places them into two groups. The Control group has no family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive one screening per year using the typical method. The Case group has a family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive two screenings per year, using the new technique.

 

 

Question 4:       History

 

INSTRUCTIONS:  Paper must be: Two to three pages in length; APA format; at least two references must be used- the text book does not count; include a reference page——–title page and abstract are not required.

 

This is the textbook that goes with the class.

Text: Racial and Ethnic Relations, Census Edition Author(s): Feagin, J., R., &

Feagin, C. B.

ISBN: 0-205-02499-8 ISBN-13: 978-0-205-02499-5

Edition / Copyright: 9TH 12 – Current Edition

Publisher: Pearson

 

Question: EXAM QUESTION:  Discuss how the Holocaust has impacted the Jewish people today and how it may impact future generations.  Specific examples. If you feel the Holocaust had no past or future impact support your stance with solid research.  What impact has the push to deny the Holocaust had on society?

 

 

 

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Question 5:       Business

 

This assignment has 2 parts which needs to be done separately. Part 1: You’ve developed a very popular, up-scale but reasonably priced, clothing fashion line for young people. You produce designs in a number of countries, manufacturing in low-cost locations, and with retail outlets in major U.S. and European cities. Demand is popping and you have access to plenty of production capacity and capital. Answer the following questions:(A) How should you organize the business outside of the U.S.? (B)Should you set-up reasonably independent companies, subsidiaries, in each foreign market?(C)What would that do and not do for you?(D)Or, do you want to impose a strict brand image, procedures, and central planning from headquarters, where your offices are?(E)What are the pros and cons of this approach?….

 

Instruction

Part2: Explain the First Mover Advantage and the six modes of entry into foreign markets. Identify a foreign market that you will be entering. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? Identify the best market entry strategy that you will be using for the foreign market of your choice……NO MINIMUM WORDING

 

Question 6:       Biology

 

Format: Formal essay MLA, Times new roman, 12 pt, double spaced, 1000 words. Intro, body paragraphs for evidence, conclusion. – Topic: Compare and contrast the characters in “Boys and girls” by Alice Munro and “The Cask of Amontillado” by Edgar Allan Poe to demonstrate the different way Realism and romanticism portray characters. – Please include a works cited page with the two short stories and other articles and references to back up the claims. (At least minimum of 2 other references minus the short stories) – Make sure you read the short stories and understand the main characters in each of them before writing (Boy and Girls is realism and The Cask of Amontillado is Romanticism)

 

Question 7:       Management

 

Management Team Decision

PURPOSE – The purpose of this exercise is for your team to assess the importance of certain policies to an organizational culture and to weigh the effects of changing policies that account for the unique character of that organizational culture. This exercise also pushes you to consider how external issues (sociocultural, demographic) affect the internal environment of the firm.

As a team take a perspective (“for pets” or “against pets”) and discuss the reasons in support of that perspective. For example, a group of “for pets” would only discuss reasons to keep the pet policy.

DOG DAY BLUES

One of the reasons you accepted a management position at MicroTek several years ago was the company’s laidback culture. A loose organizational structure enables employees to move freely between projects, and the open office space encourages informal encounters and generates a feeling of teamwork. And among the very generous corporate perks is a policy allowing employees to bring their pets to work. It is not uncommon to see a small animal sitting in an employee’s in-box drinking from a hamster lick. Several employees bring their dogs, large and small, to the office.

As the company has grown, thanks in part to its informal culture, more and more people are taking advantage of the pet policy, and problems are arising. Food is swiped from desks, animals are rooting through trash bins, and dogs are marking territory on the partitions that surround their owners’ desks. Visiting customers often try to mask startled (at best) or disapproving (at worst) looks when they tour your facility for the first time—and even the second and third times. During a recent breakfast meeting, when a board member refused to share her bagel with the CEO’s dog, the dog relieved itself on her briefcase. At least one employee has complained of allergic reactions due to the high levels of pet dander in the office air, but rather than change the policy, you installed a high-power air cleaner.

Despite the challenges, you have resisted changing the pet policy because it symbolizes both the company’s relaxed culture and MicroTek’s commitment to its employees’ work–life balance. This afternoon, however, you were notified that your office does not meet the required indoor air quality standards. Apparently, the cleaner you installed can’t handle all the pet dander. To meet the standards, you’ll need an even more powerful air cleaner that costs between $100,000 and $200,000. That would be a significant investment in the pet policy! And who knows if it would solve the allergy problem. Is the policy worth the cost?

You ask yourself, “How committed am I to the pet policy?” Is the pet policy just trendy (or avant-garde), or does it say something deeper about your company?

For this Management Team Decision, assemble three or four students to act as the management team for MicroTek. Include both pet owners and people without pets to avoid any bias. Before you begin the exercise, have each team member privately write down answers to each of the following questions. By sharing your individual responses, you may be able to have a more varied and rounded discussion.

 

Questions

 

  1. Do you buy the expensive air cleaner or eliminate the pet policy? Why or why not?

 

  1. If you choose to stop allowing animals at the office, what effect, if any, do you think the change will have on the company’s culture?

 

  1. Can you think of a way to allow people to bring pets to work without upgrading the air cleaner or violating workplace air quality regulations?

 

 

Question 8:       Communication

 

The Power of Connection: Building a Personal Learning Network

Relationships are all there is. Everything in the universe only exists because it is in relationship to everything else. Nothing exists in isolation. We have to stop pretending we are individuals who can go it alone.
—Margaret Wheatley, Turning to One Another: Simple Conversations to Restore Hope to the Future

The rise of social media and its power to instantaneously connect people to others is a testament to just how interconnected the world has become. Social media has become an important way to form and maintain relationships. Many people use social media platforms such as Facebook and Twitter to keep in touch with family, friends, and colleagues. Businesses search for new ways to connect with current and future customers. How many people, however, have recognized the potential of social media as a powerful learning tool?

Forward-thinking educators have begun purposefully building online social networks, known as Personal Learning Networks (PLN)s, of colleagues and experts in the field. Rather than see social networks as an annoyance or way of wasting time, these educators have made them an invaluable means of personal and professional growth. Business professionals can benefit from following their lead. Creating a PLN often is a guide for professionals and committed lifelong learners to help build relationships with others from all over the world. With careful work and commitment to building and maintaining a PLN, the possibilities for connection are endless.

To prepare for this Assignment, review the materials in the Learning Resources and consider novel ways in which you might use technology to foster new connections and seek information and advice.

 

Learning resources:

  1. https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/01/24/education-twitter-profiles/
  2. https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/04/17/pln-twitter/
  3. https://technologyembedded.wordpress.com/2012/05/20/twitter-101/

 

 

TASK

Submit a 4- to 5-page paper in which you create the plan for your PLN. Your paper should include the following:

  • A description of what networks and tools you will use to create your PLN, including a brief rationale for each
  • Information you will present in your professional profile (which may be placed on one or more social media platforms), including specific text you will use to identify yourself and your interests for those who might be interested in following you or joining your PLN
  • A categorized, annotated list of at least 5people or groups that you might add to your PLN (through their Twitter feed, blog, LinkedIn page, etc.), including the following for each person or group:
    • A brief (1–2 paragraphs) rationale for why you would include the person or group in your PLN
    • A brief (1 paragraph) description of the process by which you found the person or group you added to your PLN, e.g., by browsing a group’s Twitter feed and then deciding to add it to your own PLN, by locating another person the group’s feed follows, by finding a group on Facebook and deciding to send a friend request to an individual within that group, etc.
  • Support your work with a minimum of two specific citations per page from this week’s Learning Resources and/or additional scholarly sources.

Be sure to use the APA Course Paper Template (6th Ed.) to complete this Assignment.Please Note: For each page of your paper, you must include a minimum of two APA-formatted scholarly citations.

 

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Question 9:       History

 

19th Century Europe was shaped by the ideas of liberalism, conservatism, nationalism and socialism.  Discuss this statement and provide specific examples to illustrate your points about these forces.

Your essay should be at least 1200 words and should include two citations from the text and two from the primary sources to be read for this assignment.  I don’t want any more citations than this, as I want to hear your ideas and words.  Choose compelling quotes from the text and the primary sources.

Required Course Textbook(s):

Making of the West, Value Edition, Combined Edition: 5th

  1. ISBN: 9781319065461
  2. Author: Hunt
  3. Publisher: MPS (Macmillan Publishers)
  4. Formats: PAPERBACK
  5. Copyright Year: 2017

Check the sites below for proper citation formatting.

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/747/01/ (Links to an external site.)

And for APA:

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/ (Links to an external site.)

*************************************************************************************

Primary sources to consider:

Nationalism

Germany

http://sourcebooks.fordham.edu/Halsall/mod/arndt-vaterland.asp (Links to an external site.)

Conservatism:  Divine Origins of Constitutions

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/1810demaistre.html (Links to an external site.)

Scientific Socialism

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/marx-summary.html

 

 

Question 10:              Biology

 

  1. A client’s spouse states “I’ve noticed that my spouse doesn’t sleep well anymore and sometimes can’t find the right words when we’re visiting.” The nurse should correctly respond:

 

  1. a) “Does anyone in your family have Alzheimer’s disease?”
  2. b) “How long have you noticed these changes?”
  3. c) “These are common changes associated with age.”
  4. d) “Do you think your spouse is depressed?”

 

Application

Learning Outcome 2

 

 

 

  1. A client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre syndrome and the nursing diagnosis Spontaneous Ventilation,Impairedhas been identified. In planning care for this client, the nurse will prioritize the following interventions, with 1 being the most critical and 4 the least:

 

1) Careful airway suctioning to prevent infection

2) Client education regarding residual problems

3) Monitor arterial blood gases to identify changes.

4) Maintain hydration and caloric intake.

 

 

 

  1. A client comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision and muscle spasms that come and go, which have been occurring over the past several months. The client is scheduled for an MRI and lumbar puncture with examination of the CSF. A critical piece of the client history for the nurse to note is that:

 

  1. a) The client is from Canada.
  2. b) The client has a family history of epilepsy.
  3. c) The client has been depressed.
  4. d) The client’s father had Parkinson’s disease.

 

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  1. A nurse working in a fertility clinic reviews the health history of a client whose father had Huntington’s disease. What statement by the nurse would best address this client’s risk factors?

 

  1. a)      “Have you ever been tested for this disease?”
  2. b)      “What do you know about testing for this disease?”
  3. c)       “Are you sure you want to have children?”
  4. d)      “Your child has a 50% chance of getting this disease.”

 

 

 

  1. A home health nurse visits a client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease who lives at home with a spouse. In order to meet the needs of the spouse, the nurse suggests:

 

  1. a)      Making arrangements for the client to visit the local senior citizen’s center in the afternoon.
  2. b)      Providing the client a list of daily activities to complete.
  3. c)       Finding respite care to come into the home several days a week.
  4. d)      Finding placement in a long-term care facility.

 

 

 

  1. A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease has lost 5 pounds over the past month. The best nursing intervention would be:

 

  1. a)      Recommend referral to a nutritionist.
  2. b)      Make sure the client is put on a mechanical soft diet.
  3. c)       Give the client food choices he can select.
  4. d)      Provide quick snacks throughout the day.

 

 

  1. A client complains of periods of confusion and forgetfulness at times, and reports clear thought process at most times of the day. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. The best response by the nurse is:

 

  1. a)      “You probably have nothing to worry about, it’s most likely stress-related.”
  2. b)      “Everybody has a few problems with memory as they get older.”
  3. c)       “Have you started any new medications since the symptoms began?”
  4. d)      “You should probably have an MRI of your brain.”

 

 

  1. A client states “My doctor said sometimes I would have an on/off problem with this medication—what does that mean?” The best response by the nurse is:

 

  1. a)      “There will be times when you are depressed (off) and when you are happy (on).”
  2. b)      “You will have to take breaks from this medicine by stopping (off) and starting it (on) again, so you don’t build up a tolerance to it.”
  3. c)       “The on times will be when your symptoms are under control, the off times are when you will have increased problems with symptom management.”
  4. d)      “I’m not a pharmacist, so I shouldn’t be answering this question.”

 

 

 

  1. A client with myasthenia gravis is taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Teaching about this medication should include immediately reporting:

 

  1. a)      Increased weakness.
  2. b)      Problems with increased drooling.
  3. c)       Orthostatic hypotension.
  4. d)      Headache.

 

 

 

  1. A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease becomes very agitated in the evenings. Appropriate nursing interventions would include:

 

  1. a)      Use of anti-anxiety medications or tranquilizers.
  2. b)      Moving the client to an area of activity to provide distraction.
  3. c)       Playing soft music in the client’s room.
  4. d)      Recommending the client be moved to a more secure environment.

 

Learning Outcome 4

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 47

 

 

  1. When the nurse was assessing a client for neurological changes from a head       trauma, which eye assessments are included? Select all that apply.

 

  1.         Ptosis
  2. Extraocular movements
  3.        Accommodation
  4. Color of iris
  5. Nystagmus

 

 

  1. When teaching a community health class about eye safety, which statement by one of the participants would   reflect a need for additional teaching?

 

  1. “I will wear goggles whenever I work around equipment such as lawnmowers, saws, and trimmers.”
  2. “When I play sports, I should wear protective eyewear to minimize risks of eye injury.”
  3. “When working with chemicals, if a splash occurs, I should first call 911 and then go to the emergency facility.”
  4. “When working or playing in the outdoors, I should wear shades that have UV protection even if the day is cloudy.”

 

 

 

 

  1. The client was complaining of dizziness and disequilibrium with head      movements. The nurse understands which nursing diagnosis would be the top            priority based upon these findings?

 

  1.        Fluid Balance, Deficit
  2. Adjustment Impairment
  3. Coping, Ineffective
  4. Falls, Risk for

 

 

  1.            When the nurse is planning the health history questions to ask a client about     possible hearing changes that might have occurred due to frequent sinus         infections, which question would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

 

  1.        “Do you have any pain in your ears?”
  2. “Have you ever had drainage from your ears?”
  3. “Does anyone in your family have congenital deafness?”
  4. “Have you noticed a change in your hearing, such as muffling of sounds?”

 

 

 

  1. When the nurse is assessing for a possible conductive hearing loss, which            assessment would be the first one to perform?

 

  1.        Inspection of the external ear
  2. Weber test
  3. Rinne test
  4. Tympanogram

 

 

 

  1. The nurse suspects that a bone-conductive hearing loss is present in the client.                 Which diagnostic would best differentiate between bone conduction loss and air                conduction loss?

 

  1. Rinne test
  2. Weber test
  3.        Assessment of balance and body position
  4. Palpation of mastoid process

 

 

  1. When planning home management for a client who recently lost vision after eye trauma, which of the following would be most appropriate to evaluate the emotional status of the client?

 

  1. “Do you feel depressed about your vision loss?”
  2. “Tell me how your change in vision has affected how you feel about           yourself.”
  3. “Have you made arrangements for someone to help you around the house?”
  4. “You know; a lot of people do very well with little help once they get home.”

 

 

  1. When explaining a tonometer test results of 28 mm Hg to a client, the nurse would use which explanation to be most accurate? The tonometer measures the pressure in the:
  2. Posterior chamber of your eye, which is too low and requires medication to increase the pressure to prevent blindness from retinal damage.
  3. Inner ear, to evaluate the semicircular canals functions related to nerve damage, and 28 mm Hg is “within the normal range.”
  4. Pressure in the middle ear that builds up with Mastoiditis, and 28 mm Hg is very high, and needs to be treated with surgical insertion of tubes to drain the fluid behind the tympanic membrane.
  5. Anterior chamber of the eye that builds up from overproduction or decreased drainage of the aqueous humor, and could lead to possible retinal changes due to above-normal pressures, like yours, if not treated.

 

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****NOTE TEXT contradicts itself for two different norms are given on page 5 of chapter 47 and page 39 of chapter 48…. Please clarify which range is desired for consistency in text readings.

 

 

  1. When performing the caloric test, nystagmus develops in the left eye while        irrigating the right ear. The nurse evaluates the client further for which condition    that contributes to the results of the caloric test?

 

  1. Alcohol, CNS depression, or barbiturate use
  2. Increased anterior pressure in the left eye
  3. Nothing further, since nerves are intact in the inner ear
  4. Increased pressure from brain lesions

 

 

  1. When assessing a 75-year-old client, which findings would require immediate    action by the nurse? A statement about:

 

  1. Floaters being present at times.
  2. Additional light and “reading glasses” being needed more often.
  3. The development of a white circle around colored part of eye.
  4. Frequent falls from tripping over items in the floor.

 

 

 

 

 

Chapter 48

 

  1. A young female who has a 2-year-old and a new baby has just lost all vision in one eye following a vehicle trauma. The client asks what she will do, since she has no help when she goes home. The nurse would choose which nursing diagnoses when planning care? Select all that apply.
  2. Post-Trauma Syndrome
  3. Grieving, Actual/Anticipatory
  4.    Family Processes, Interrupted
  5.    Self-Esteem, Situational Low
  6. Injury, Risk for

 

 

  1. Upon admission when orienting a client who has been blind since birth to the hospital room, which activity by the nurse would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Orient the client both verbally and physically to the layout of the room.
  2. Describe everything in detail about how the equipment works.
  3. Tell the client you will leave the light on 24 hours a day.
  4. Place signs to remind staff to not move equipment without telling the client.

 

 

 

  1. Which instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to give to a client with acute conjunctivitis from Staphylococcus? Select all that apply.

 

  1. You should wash your hands before cleansing the eye and giving eyedrops.
  2. You can rub your eyes with a clean, soft cloth for itching.
  3. You can soak your lids with warm saline to soften crusts and exudates.
  4. You should not share towels, make-up, or contact lens with anyone else.

 

 

 

  1. Following a severe corneal ulcer, the client had keratoplasty (corneal transplant). What nursing care should be included in the plan of care? The client should: (Select all that apply.)
  2.     Wear an eye-shield the first 24 hours and then at night until several weeks postoperatively as directed by healthcare provider.
  3. Be instructed to avoid lifting, sneezing, coughing or bending over at the waist.
  4. Report any change, such as increased pain, drainage, bleeding, floaters, and cloudiness noted.
  5. Be instructed on how to administer eyedrops and ointments in a sterile manner.
  6. Be educated on the need for mydriatics during the postoperative period.

 

 

 

  1. Before teaching about home management for clients with open-angled glaucoma, which order would be questioned by the nurse?
  2. Timolol (Timoptic), beta-adrenergic blocker, for a 60-year-old with congestive heart failure (CHF)
  3. Dorzolamide (Trusopt), a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, for a client with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
  4. Acetazolamide (Diamox) for a 20-year-old male
  5. Brimonidine (Alphagan), an adrenergic agonist, for a healthy 40-year-old

 

 

  1. In a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse should assess for             which complications that might be present? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Retinitis pigmentosa with retinal atrophy
  2. Kaposi neoplasms of the external surfaces of the eyelid
  3.    Cotton-wool spots around the optic nerve
  4. Exudative macular degeneration
  5. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

 

 

  1. Following myringotomy for acute otitis media, which topic would be appropriate for teaching about home management by the nurse?

 

  1. Ear irrigations should be placed on the wall of the external canal, and not on the tympanic membrane.
  2. Air travel and sudden barometric shifts will not affect the surgical procedure.
  3. Sterile cotton-tipped swabs can be used to clean the ear drainage.
  4. Shampooing and swimming are not restricted after a couple of weeks.

 

 

  1. The client with otosclerosis would be expected to have which potential finding by the nurse during assessment?

 

  1. Rinne test results that bone conduction is equal or greater than air conduction
  2. Severe vertigo is present when questioned.
  3. Purulent drainage is observed or reported with cyanosis of the tympanic membrane.
  4. Diminished hearing is noted in the lower tones, such as a man’s speaking voice.

 

 

  1. A client with severe symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, sensorineural hearing deficit,              nausea, and vomiting would have which nursing diagnosis as a first priority?

 

  1. Nutrition, Imbalanced, Less than Body Requirements
  2. Trauma, Risk for
  3. Disturbed Sleep Patterns
  4. Sensory Perception, Disturbed: hearing

 

 

 

  1. A client with a nursing diagnosis ofCommunication: Impaired, Verbal related to hearing deficit would expect which action in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Speak face-to-face, but do not overarticulate your words.
  2.    Offer alternative methods of communication, such as paper and pencil.
  3. Speak loudly and in a higher pitch for easier understanding of words.
  4. Restate in exactly the same words if not understood the first time.
  5. Do not use facial and hand gestures that are distracting while talking.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Chapter 49

 

 

  1. A client is scheduled to undergo a prostate biopsy. When providing education concerning postoperative care related to the procedure, which of the following should be included?

 

  1. Avoid strenuous activity for 24 hours.
  2. There may be discomfort for 24–48 hours after the procedure.
  3. The client can immediately return to his preprocedure activity level.
  4. The names of sexual contacts must be collected.

 

 

 

 

  1. A male client reports to the clinic with an open area on his penis. Which of the following questions will be most important to include in the data collection?

 

  1. “Have you had sexual intercourse recently?”
  2. “Do you think you have a disease?”
  3. “Are you promiscuous?”
  4. “When did you initially notice this open area?”

 

 

  1. While providing care to the parents of a baby boy who has the chromosomal makeup of XXY, which of the following should be included in the teaching plan?

 

  1. The boy will have an enlarged penis and scrotum.
  2. The boy will be at increased risk for the development of testicular cancer.
  3. The child will be sterile.
  4. The child might have altered development of secondary sex characteristics.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is obtaining a health history on a client complaining of recent-onset impotence. During the interview, which of the following questions will be most beneficial in identifying a potential cause of the manifestation?

 

  1. “Does this occur often?”
  2. “How does your partner feel about this problem?”
  3. “For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?
  4. “Are you on any medications?

 

 

 

  1. A female client has reported to the clinic for an initial gynecological examination. The client reports feeling nervous. When beginning the interview, which of the following questions would be most appropriate?

 

  1. “How many sexual partners have you had?”
  2. “Are you OK?”
  3. “How often are you intimate with your partner?”
  4. “What concerns do you have about today’s examination?”

 

 

 

  1. A client is approximately 4 weeks pregnant. The client reports noting a scant amount of vaginal bleeding. The examination reveals the cervix is closed. Based upon your knowledge, which of the following hormones do you anticipate will be lower than expected for the client?

 

  1. Progesterone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Prostaglandin
  4. Luteinizing hormone

 

 

 

  1. A client is scheduled for a mammogram. Which of the following might adversely impact the testing?

 

  1. The use of deodorant
  2. The use of facial makeup
  3. The administration of medications used to increase bleeding times
  4. Eating breakfast the morning of the test

 

 

 

  1. When providing education to a client concerning breast self-examinations, the client asks what days are best to perform the examination. What information should be included in the response given to the client?

 

  1. It does not matter what day the examination is performed.
  2. It is best to perform the examination on the first day of the menstrual period.
  3. It is best to perform the examination in the days just prior to the menstrual period.
  4. The examination is best performed after the menstrual period.

 

 

  1. When obtaining the health history of a 60-year-old female, the client reports noting small red lesions on her vulva. Based upon your knowledge, which of these diagnoses is most likely correct?

 

  1. Herpes simplex
  2. Primary syphilis
  3. Secondary syphilis
  4. Vulvar carcinoma

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is teaching a client how to perform a testicular self-examination. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. Any painful lump should be reported.
  2. Tenderness of the scrotal sac contents should be reported.
  3. Most men have one testicle that is significantly larger than the other.
  4. It is best to do the examination upon arising on the designated day.

 

CHAPTER 51

 

  1. A 41-year-old client has reported to the clinic with clinical manifestations consistent with menopause. The client states that her menstrual periods have become irregular, with the last period occurring approximately four months ago. What information should be provided to the client concerning the use of contraceptives?

 

  1. Contraceptives should continue to be utilized.
  2. Contraceptives are no longer needed.
  3. Contraceptives will only be needed in the months after menstruation is experienced.
  4. Contraceptive use will only be needed for another two months.

 

 

  1. The client who has been experiencing the clinical manifestations associated with menopause voices an interest in using alternative and complementary therapies to manage them. What initial response by the nurse is indicated?

 

  1. “Those seldom work.”
  2. “Many women report success with these measures.”
  3. “What types of therapies are of interest to you?”
  4. “Have you discussed this with the physician?

 

 

  1. During the teaching session for a client who recently had a hysterectomy, the client states that she is nervous about taking the estrogen replacement therapy prescribed by her physician. She states that she is worried about developing breast cancer later in life. Which of the statements by the nurses will be most appropriate?

 

  1. “The risk of breast cancer is somewhat increased for women with a family history who opt to take estrogen replacement therapy.”
  2. “The risk of breast cancer is not increased for women who have had a hysterectomy and take estrogen replacement medications.”
  3. “Perhaps you should consider an estrogen–progestin combination therapy.”
  4. “Taking estrogen replacement is not required after a hysterectomy.”

 

 

 

 

  1. A 30-year-old woman reports increasing difficulty during the days preceding the onset of her menstrual cycle. Which of the following might assist in the management of her condition? Select all that apply.

 

  1. Increase dietary sugar intake to promote energy.
  2. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
  3. Reduce caffeine.
  4. Utilize guided imagery.

 

  1. A client who has been experiencing premenstrual syndrome reports to the clinic with a diet diary she has kept over the past several weeks. Which of the following findings should be reviewed with the client, with a recommendation made for dietary modification?

 

  1. Daily intake of caffeine-free soda
  2. Daily intake of low-fat yogurt
  3. Foods rich in magnesium
  4. Daily intake of white bread

 

 

  1. A woman is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further education?

 

  1. “I can expect to go home a few hours after the procedure.”
  2. “I might experience some abdominal pain after the procedure.”
  3. “There might be some vaginal bleeding after the procedure.”
  4. “Shoulder pain should be reported, as it might signal a complication.”

 

 

 

  1. A 13-year-old female reports to the school nurse with concerns about her menstrual cycle. The client states that she has not yet started her period, and asks if this is normal. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s response?

 

  1. The client should be referred to a gynecologist for a pelvic examination.
  2. The client should have started her period by now.
  3. It is not abnormal for the client to have not yet started her period.
  4. The client should be tested for hormonal imbalances.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is collecting data during a routine clinic visit. The client reports she has experienced bleeding between her menstrual periods. What initial action by the nurse is most appropriate?

 

  1. Determine the timing of the bleeding episodes.
  2. Determine the amount of the bleeding episodes.
  3. Assess for the presence of sexually transmitted infections.
  4. Review the length of the client’s normal menstrual cycles.

 

 

  1. A client has been experiencing anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding. The client is 25 years of age, and is concerned about maintaining her fertility. Based upon your knowledge, which management technique likely would be employed first?

 

  1. Oral contraceptives
  2. Progestin therapy
  3. Therapeutic D and C
  4. Endometrial ablation

 

 

  1. A client is preparing to be discharged to home after a hysterectomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the teaching session has been successful?

 

  1. “I will need to report temperature greater than 101 degrees.”
  2. “I might experience vaginal bleeding for about one week.”
  3. “I will need to report any hot flashes, as they indicate my hormone replacement therapy is not effective.”
  4. “I will still need to see my physician for gynecological examinations.”

 

 

 

Chapter 52

 

 

  1. A client recently diagnosed with herpes simplex II asks how to best manage the lesions. What information should be given to the client?

 

  1. The use of soap should be restricted.
  2. It is safe to use a solution of 50% rubbing alcohol and 50% water to clean the lesions.
  3. Wearing nylon panties will reduce discomfort.
  4. Gentle soap and water can be used to clean the lesions.

 

 

 

  1. A client recently treated for pelvic inflammatory disease asks how she can best prevent a recurrence of the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The physician will prescribe prophylactic antibiotic therapy.
  2. The use of condoms will be beneficial.
  3. Annual gynecological examinations should be scheduled.
  4. Douching after intercourse will assist in removing potential pathogens from the genital area.

 

 

  1. A client treated for pelvic inflammatory disease is preparing for discharge. During the teaching session, the use of tampons is discussed. Which of the following statements by the client indicate the understanding of the content provided? Select all that apply.

 

  1. “I will be able to wear tampons.”
  2. “The use of tampons is forever prohibited.”
  3. “Tampons must be changed at least every four hours.”
  4. “I should wear pads at night.”

 

 

  1. A pregnant client reports to the clinic and learns she has tested positive for herpes simplex. The nurse develops a plan of care. Which of the following nursing diagnoses has the highest priority?

 

  1. Injury, Risk for related to the disease process
  2. Knowledge, Deficient related to the diagnosis
  3. Anxiety related the diagnosis
  4. Family Processes, Interrupted related to the effects of the diagnosis on her relationship with her partner

 

 

 

  1. A client has been diagnosed with latent syphilis. During the counseling session, the client asks about transmitting the disease to his spouse. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. “You will need to abstain from sexual relations until treatment is completed.”
  2. “You will need to wear a condom.”
  3. “At this late stage, the disease is contained to only you.”
  4. “At this stage of the disease, transmission is by contact with blood.”

 

 

 

  1. During a gynecological examination and testing, a female client is diagnosed with a Chlamydial infection. The client denies any symptoms of the disease, and asks when she contracted the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The client has most likely had the infection for about 1–3 weeks.
  2. The infection has been in her body for less than 1 month, since no symptoms are present.
  3. The infection might have been in her body for an indefinite period of time.
  4. Symptoms typically begin a few months after the infection enters the body.

 

 

 

  1. The nurse is planning to teach a course about sexually transmitted infections. What information concerning genital warts should be included?

 

  1. Handwashing will aid in the reducing the spread of genital warts.
  2. Genital warts will result in cervical cancer for the majority of women who get them.
  3. Women who have certain types of genital warts should be vaccinated against other types.
  4. The risk for the development of penile cancer is high in men diagnosed with genital warts.

 

 

  1. A client asks which method of contraception will provide the greatest protection against sexually transmitted infections. What method can the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Oral contraceptives
  2. Male condoms
  3. Sponges
  4. Spermicides

 

 

  1. A client reports to the clinic with a painless, ulcerated area on her labia. Based upon your knowledge, what diagnosis do you anticipate?

 

  1. Herpes simplex II
  2. Syphilis
  3. Condylomata acuminata
  4. Gonorrhea

 

 

 

  1. A client with herpes simplex II is concerned about sexual relations. What information should be provided to the client?

 

  1. The infection can be transmitted only when the lesions present.
  2. The infection can be prevented with condom use.
  3. Sexual relations must be avoided during the prodromal period and for at least 10 days after the lesions are healed.
  4. Sexual activity is permissible once the lesions have dried out.

 

 

 

Question 11:     Literary Studies

 

Choose ONE of the following paired images and poems from the “Poetry and the Visual Arts” section of the textbook (NOTE: This is the section with the thicker, glossy pages in the center of the textbook; the pages have letters rather than numbers) Choice #1: American Gothic – Analyze the painting by Grant Wood and the poem by John Stone. In what sense can Stone’s poem be regarded as an analysis of the painting? Does Stone see Grant’s depiction of the two figures as a satire or a celebration? What symbolic elements are found in the painting? Choice #2: Girl Powdering Her Neck – Analyze the woodblock print by Kitagawa Utamaro and the poem by Cathy Song. What does Song’s poem add to the visual information provided in Utamaro’s woodcut? What is the relationship of the final three lines to the rest of the poem and what effect does it have on the reader? Choice #3: Vietnam Veterans Memorial Wall – Analyze the photograph of the memorial from the Library of Congress and the poem “Facing It” by Yusef Komunyakaa. What is the significance of the poem’s title and how are the speaker’s war experiences reflected in the war memorial? Does the speaker’s response to the memorial indicate that the conception and composition of the memorial were successful or unsuccessful as a public memorial? Remember you must: Adhere to MLA format The Bedford Handbook provides a guide (MLA Chapters 48 to 51) Paper should range between 1,300 and 1,500 words Upload your assignment to Turnitin

 

 

 

 Question 12:    General Question

 

5-page research essay in MLA format answering the question “Is the United States on the same trajectory as Italy in the spread of the coronavirus?” must have 3 sources minimum and a work cited page

 

Question 13:     Health Care

 

Development is best explained by a model that
a. concentrates on one aspect of development
b. uses behavior as its focus
c. includes biological, psychological, and social influences
d. restricts itself to the observable

 

Humans have a remarkable potential for change, but resiliency has
a. limitations
b. defined markers
c. unlimited capacity
d. known characteristics

 

A 10-year-old girl peeks in her older sister’s diary, but later feels guilty. She tells herself, “I shouldn’t have done that. It wasn’t right.” According to Freud, which moral component of the personality is responsible for her feelings about her behavior?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Preconscious

 

What is Freud’s “pleasure principle”?
a. the notion that unconscious forces govern our behavior is the pleasure principle
b. childhood pleasures have a strong influence on adult personality
c. individuals act to gratify instinctual desires and to avoid pain
d. personality is shaped by how individuals indulge their sexual urges

 

Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development is based on
a. the notion that the personality develops early in childhood
b. the premise that humans interact with an ever-widening circle of people
c. the need to avoid developmental crises
d. the idea that early social experiences determine later ones

 

Which of the following crises in the life cycle is the cornerstone of Erikson’s theory?
a. Trust versus mistrust
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. initiative versus guilt
d. identity formation versus identity diffusion

 

Which of the following statements refers to Piaget’s universalist constructivist theory?
a. humans passively assimilate their understanding of the world
b. humans construct reality through their understanding of the world
c. humans have inborn schemata that help them understand the world
d. humans construct reality by being acted on by the environment

 

What is Piaget’s definition of adaptation?
a. intelligence
b. assimilation and accommodation
c. ability to effectively negotiate environmental demands
d. all of the above

 

In his explanation of cognitive development, Vygotsky stressed
a. assimilation
b. social interactions
c. reinforcement
d. schema

 

Vygotsky believed language gradually becomes ___ and directs behavior
a. structured
b. pragmatic
c. internalized
d. reinforced

 

In Brofenbrenner’s model of human ecology, the school, the neighborhood, and peer group belong in which system?
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

 

The American cultural value placed on the primacy of the biological family is an example of a(n)
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

 

Maslow believed that our needs are best seen as a(n)
a. ellipse
b. hierarchy
c. interlocking circle
d. polygon

 

Using our abilities to the limits of our potential refers to
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. conditioning
d. self-actualization

 

The environment responds to human behavior and either reinforces it or eliminates it. This theory is known as
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

 

The importance of modeling is emphasized in
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

 

It is important to remember that different is not
a. unique
b. deficient
c. appreciated
d. diffuse

 

___ is a belief that interactions among all aspects of development require analysis
a. Piagetian psychology
b. operant conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. developmental contextualism

 

Which of the following is an example of between-group differences in gender research on language development?
a. Girls develop language more rapidly than boys.
b. Girls do better than boys on subtests of anagrams, synonyms, speech production, and word knowledge.
c. Although dyslexia is more common in boys, some girls develop dyslexia
d. Gender accounts for 1% of the variability in language development

 

Research on aggression supports which of the following statements?
a. Boys are more hostile than girls.
b. For men, physical aggression is about inflicting harm.
c. For women, physical aggression is about defending their social status
d. physical aggression is related to perceptions of social power.

 

Which of the following is not associated with homelessness?
a. hunger and poor nutrition
b. developmental delays
c. health problems
d. lowered intelligence

 

A major characteristic of successful schools in poor economic locations is
a. an emphasis on academic achievement
b. classroom television
c. building conditions
d. proximity to the center of the city

 

What are genes?
a. Long strands of DNA
b. the sequences in which nucleotide bases are arranged
c. multiple combinations of nucleotide bases
d. the functional units of DNA

 

Skin cells contain
a. 46 chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. 46 autosomes
d. 23 sex chromosomes

 

which process is responsible for the genetic variability among human organisms?
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. fertilization
d. capacitation

 

Where does fertilization occur in the female?
a. uterus
b. vagina
c. fallopian tubes
d. ovaries

 

the critical period of organogenesis occurs doing
a. the embryonic period
b. the germinal period
c. the fetal period
d. at the time of conception

 

Research suggests that insufficient folic acid in the mother’s diet may contribute to the failure of the neural tube to close, resulting in spina bifida. At which point in prenatal development does the neural tube close?
a. fourth week
b. eighth week
c. fourth month
d. sixth month

 

the causes of infertility are:
a. unknown
b. male
c. female
d. male or female

 

estimates are that one in every __ American couples are infertile
a. two or three
b. three or four
c. five or six
d. seven or eight

 

a major concern for sperm banks is control of
a. disease
b. donor availability
c. confidential information
d. technological innovation

 

for all assisted reproductive technologies ____ is critical
a. location
b. climate
c. timing
d. contingency

 

genes make up ___% of DNA
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

 

the human genome project is an attempt to map
a. all human genes
b. cellular materials
c. nucleotides
d. cell divisions

 

an example of a single-gene genetic disorder is
a. down syndrome
b. turner syndrome
c. klinefelter syndrome
d. sickle-cell anemia

 

an example of a chromosomal disorder is
a. spina bifida
b. chronic disease syndrome
c. phenylketonuria
d. turner syndrome

 

how is prematurity defined?
a. infants are premature if born before 37 weeks, regardless of weight
b. infants are premature if they weigh less than 2500 g at birth, regardless of age
c. infants are premature if they weigh less than 1500 g and are born before 37 weeks
d. prematurity is based on the relationship between weight and gestational age

 

the organ system that is most critical to the premature infant’s outcome is
a. the heart
b. the lungs
c. the brain
d. the nervous system

 

Which characteristic makes regular use of alcohol during pregnancy a teratogen?
a. alcohol interferes with fetal cell division and growth throughout pregnancy
b. alcohol alters the development of the fetus’s central nervous system during the last trimester
c. women who abuse alcohol are less likely to be well nourished
d. all of the above are correct

 

what is the best-known cause of deafness in newborns?
a. cocaine use by the mother during pregnancy
b. mother’s contraction of rubella during the first trimester
c. mother’s exposure to radiation during the last trimester
d. mother’s exposure to cytomegalovirus (CMV)

 

when a natural mother retains input into the adoption process, it is called ___ adoption
a. selected
b. congruent
c. accommodated
d. open

 

Couples considering adoption should think carefully about the ___ of the child
a. weight
b. age
c. size
d. cognition

 

At what point after birth do typical infants double their birth weight?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

 

you notice that a new mother feeds her baby boy by propping a bottle on a pillow next to him. why do you want to discourage this practice?
a. the baby will have difficulty regulating the flow of formula
b. the baby is not learning how to organize his behavior
c. the mother and the baby are not learning to read each other’s signals
d. all of the above are correct

 

you observe a baby lying on her abdomen, raising her head, shoulders, and upper abdomen while supporting herself with her forearms. about how old is this baby?
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 3 months
d. 6 months

 

a new mother who is breastfeeding her baby asks you if her baby can see her. what is your answer?
a. no. babies cannot see clearly until they are about 6 weeks old
b. yes. babies have 20/20 vision at birth
c. no. visual acuity is about 20/100 at birth
d. yes. objects that are within close range, especially your face, are perfectly clear

 

apgar scores are recorded at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. what do they measure?
a. heart rate, respiratory effect, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and skin color
b. first and second periods of reactivity
c. behavioral states: sleeping, waking, and crying
d. gestational maturity, such as flexion of extremities, quality of skin, and development of eyes, ears, and genitals.

 

which of the following is an example of contingency seeking in newborns?
a. infants learn to adjust their rate of sucking by using the mother’s voice as a reward.
b. infants prefer complex patterns of black and white
c. newborns discriminate their mother’s voice from the voices of other women
d. infants turn their head to search for a sound

 

the final area of the brain to develop is the
a. occipital lobe
b. association area
c. sensory area
d. auditory area

 

nervous system development commences in a process called
a. neural induction
b. tubular processes
c. neural migration
d. neuronal balance

 

Human infants exhibit reflexes because
a. their nervous systems are not fully mature
b. some infant reflexes are building blocks for voluntary motor behavior
c. some reflexes are designed to protect them from potential harm
d. of all of the above

 

to elicit the babinski reflex, you stroke the sole of a baby’s foot, beginning at the heel and moving towards the toes. the toes flex, as if they are going to grab your finger. is this normal?
a. no. if the baby is younger than 1 year, the toes should fan out and extend
b. yes, if the baby is older than 1 year, the toes will flex.
c. both a and b are true
d. neither a nor b is true

 

According to piaget, what are the four accomplishments of the sensorimotor period?
a. rolling over, sitting up, crawling, and walking.
b. time, spatial relationships, cause and effect, and object permanence
c. visual acuity, binocular vision, depth perception, and spatial relationships
d. primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, and tertiary circular reactions

 

you are watching a baby who is sitting up in her mother’s lap. the baby is playing with a box of animal crackers, by shaking it, hitting it on the arm of the chair, and patting the lid with her hand. what age range and what substage of piaget’s sensorimotor period is this baby in?
a. age 1-4 months, primary circular reactions
b. age 4-8 months, secondary circular reactions
c. age 8-12 months, coordination of secondary circular reactions
d. age 18-24 months, beginning of representational thought

 

When parents feel that other adults, including their own parents, are looking over their shoulder and telling them how to bring up their child, this phenomenon is called
a. ghosts in the nursery
b. generational interest
c. parental transference
d. social sharing

 

most children begin to speak their first words at an age of approximately
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

 

which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. children instantly tune into their environment
b. children give clues to their personalities
c. children, from birth, engage in reciprocal interactions
d. all children are temperamentally similar at birth

 

Role refers to ___ about behavior
a. observations
b. insights
c. expectations
d. comments

 

The special bonding between an infant and usually the mother is called
a. detachment
b. attachment
c. relating
d. symmetry

 

 

The person most associated with the attachment movement is
a. sigmund freud
b. b. f. skinner
c. jean piaget
d. john bowlby

 

the three components of an emotion are feelings, internal changes, and
a. behavior
b. continuity
c. congruence
d. assimilation

 

The true social smile appears at an age of approximately
a. 4 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 10 weeks

 

You are going down the stairs behind a little boy who is placing both feet on each step as he goes while holding the railing. about how old is he?
a. 3 years old
b. 4 years old
c. 5 years old
d. 6 years old

 

Which skill that is essential for reading readiness develops between ages 3 and 6?
a. using hands as tools
b. copying and tracing figures
c. visuomotor scanning
d. recognizing the letters of the alphabet

 

You are pouring juice for a 4-year-old and 10-year-old into two different glasses: one short and wide, the other tall and narrow. the 4-year-old insists on having the tall narrow glass despite assurances from the 10 year old that the two glasses have the same amount of juice. which term is used to describe the 4 year olds understanding of this situation?
a. centration
b. appearance reality
c. cause by association
d. difficulty with conversation

 

Which of the following is an example of a child’s difficulty with conversation during the preschool period?
a. thinks a ball of clay gets bigger when it is rolled into a snake
b. given two rows of m&ms with 10 candles in each row, will say the row more spread out has more
c. says the glass with the most juice is the taller one, even if the child just saw the juice poured from a shorter but wider glass
d. all of the above

 

montessori’s ideas concerning __ periods are important in planning preschool programs
a. lengthy
b. class
c. sensitive
d. daily

 

preschool educators are alert to match materials and methods to appropriate ages because of the theory put forth by
a. piaget
b. freud
c. skinner
d. pavlov

 

the rules of ___ describe how to put words together to form sentences
a. phonology
b. semantics
c. grammar
d. pragmatics

 

“daddy camed home” is an example of
a. overextension
b. mispronunciation
c. overregulation
d. delayed language

 

Parents who value compliance with their authority and set nonnegotiable standards for their children’s behavior are examples of ___ parenting, according to Baumrind
a. authoritative
b. authoritarian
c. permissive
d. neglectful

 

Which of the following factors contribute to how parents parent?
a. childhood experiences of parents
b. personality characteristics of children being parented
c. working environment of parents, especially fathers
d. all of the above

 

which of the following conditions is not necessarily associated with homelessness?
a. health problems
b. hunger
c. poor nutrition
d. low intelligence

 

Recent additions to the number of homeless are
a. mothers and young children
b. single fathers
c. individuals with alcohol problems
d. individuals with drug problems

 

One of the major adjustments a child may experience following the divorce of parents is to
a. siblings
b. transitions
c. relatives
d. synchronicity

 

Even after their divorced parents remarry, some children still believe their natural parents will reunite. this belief is called
a. hopeful planning
b. wishful thinking
c. reconciliation fantasies
d. psychic cognition

 

Erikson called it the period of initiative versus guilt; that is, children recognize that they make choices and are responsible for their behavior. plato referred to it as “a constitutional government within them.” freud thought that the superego, as “a garrison in the conquered city of the id,” is similar. to which developmental task of the preschool years are they referring?
a. agency
b. sense of self
c. mastery of aggression
d. self-control

 

Which of the following is an example of a 4 year old’s concept of self?
a. i am a better swimmer than my brother
b. people like me because i play fair
c. i like to swim
d. i am better at drawing than at coloring

 

By what age do children typically develop gender identity?
a. 18 months
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

 

preschoolers tend to engage in sex-typed behaviors, such as boys playing with trucks and girls playing with dolls, how do developmentalists explain this phenomenon?
a. males and females have inborn sex-typed tendencies
b. preschoolers are rewarded for exhibiting sex-typed behaviors
c. girls are more rigidly socialized to exhibit certain behaviors than are boys
d. preschoolers are developing concepts of gender constancy and role

 

The most common type of play during early childhood is ___ play
a. physical
b. unrestricted
c. social
d. pretend

 

Children play for fun, learning, and
a. emotional release
b. cognitive dissonance
c. physical alignment
d. social graces

 

by what age can children typically ride a two wheeled bicycle?
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 years

  1. 7 years

 

Malnourished children in the united states tend to be obese, not thin, because
a. they consume a lot of junk food
b. they watch too much television
c. they eat too many packaged foods
d. all of the above

 

What did Piaget mean by concrete operations?
a. children’s thinking is perceptually bound
b. causal reasoning is based on association
c. children’s thinking is very matter of fact
d. children can do mentally what had to be done physically before.

 

Boys of about ages 9 to 10 love to collect and sort baseball cards. which characteristic of concrete thought contributes to this activity?
a. hierarchical classification skills
b. matrix classification skills
c. abstract thinking
d. set identity

 

sternberg’s theory is based on
a. context
b. gender
c. age
d. biology

Gardner’s theory of intelligence includes __ types of equal intelligence
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight

 

a well-known model of problem solving is
a. HOME
b. DUPE
c. NATO
d. SAC

 

Everyone should attempt to internally represent solutions to problems
a. true
b. false
c. uncertain

 

kohlberg used a method called
a. cognitive structuring
b. contextual determinism
c. moral dilemmas
d. contingencies of reinforcement

 

Gilligan believed that kohlberg’s work was too ___ oriented
a. age
b. culture
c. neutral
d. male

 

LEP refers to those students whose primary language is not
a. English
b. Spanish
c. French
d. Vietnamese

 

To work with LEP students, many school systems are trying to decide between ESL programs and
a. separate systems
b. bilingual education
c. native-born instructors
d. curricular insertion

 

by about what age do children develop reciprocity in their friendships?
a. 6 years
b. 8 years
c. 10 years
d. 12 years

 

Which of the following statements best describes children’s games during middle childhood?
a. children are inflexible about the rules of competition
b. rules help keep aggression in check
c. competition can foster social, mental, and physical development
d. all of the above are correct

 

Good schools are characterized by their emphasis on
a. building conditions
b. recreational facilities
c. amount of materials
d. academic success

  1. academic success

 

The author of an influential study of school effectiveness was
a. rutter
b. piaget
c. brunner
d. skinner

 

Creativity is also known as
a. critical thinking
b. convergent thinking
c. divergent thinking
d. vertical thinking

 

Among the characteristics of creativity are visualization, thinking processes, and
a. knowledge
b. contingency
c. laterality
d. symmetry

 

What is the sensitive period of the development of language?
a. up to 2 years old
b. up to 4 years old
c. up to 6 years old
 

Which triad of factors contributes to resilience in children at risk?
a. family discord, low socioeconomic status, poor school environment
b. cohesive family, easy-going personality, competent adults in community
c. mothers who work, absent fathers, good social skills
d. being in foster care, concerned case worker, visits with mother.

 

Developmental disabilities represent alterations in the typical developmental sequence of which three areas?
a. fine motor, gross motor, intelligence
b. problem solving, language, motor coordination
c. motor; cognitive, neurobehavior
d. neurobehavior, intelligence, gross motor

 

Which of the following characteristics describes children who are gifted?
a. above average IQ
b. high levels of creativity
c. high levels of commitment to task
d. all of the above

 

 

Question 14:     Nursing

 

Nursing/Community Health: Questions and Answers

Questions and Answers

  1. A nurse conducting a community health education program stresses that Lyme disease is caused by a _____________.
  2. Spirochete
  3. Virus
  4. Parasite
  5. Helminth

 

  1. When conducting a community education program related to Lyme disease, the nurse stresses that if left untreated, Lyme disease result in which of the following?
  2. Respiratory failure
  3. Acute renal failure
  4. Cardiac dysrhythmias
  5. Permanent skin lesions

 

  1. Maria brought her 10-year-old child to the clinic. She was concerned that the child could develop Lyme disease because a deer tick was found on the child. The nurse tells Maria that infection with Lyme disease is likely if the deer tick
  2. Was large
  3. Was attached to the child’s skin for at least 24 hours
  4. Caused bleeding
  5. Remained attached for at least 1 hour

 

  1. Systemic lupus erythematosus is
  2. An acute autoimmune disease
  3. The result of hyperactivity of killer T cells
  4. A chronic multisystem inflammatory disease
  5. More common in men aged 20 to 30 than in women in that age group

 

  1. The nurse conducting a health education program as part of a PTA meeting stresses that gastrointestinal infections are more likely to occur in people who
  2. Smoke
  3. Are lactose intolerant
  4. Take antacids
  5. Eat a spicy diet

 

  1. During an orientation session for new hires, the nurse educator stresses that some pathogens can survive on bed rails and tables for
  2. 30 minutes to an hour
  3. Weeks
  4. 5-20 minutes
  5. 2-3 months

 

  1. Which of the following statements about a fever is correct?
  2. A fever is generally harmful.
  3. Oral prednisone masks a fever.
  4. A fever suppresses the action of macrophages.
  5. A rectal fever of 99.6 °F in children indicates serious infection.

 

  1. During an in-service in a long-term care facility, the nurse educator stresses that in the elderly (select all that apply)
  2. Infection usually produces a fever above 101°F.
  3. Changes in mental status may indicate an infection.
  4. Fatigue is a possible sign of infection.
  5. A fever 2 degrees above baseline requires immediate attention.

 

  1. What is the most accurate test to detect HIV infection currently on the market?
  2. ELISA
  3. OraSure
  4. Western blot
  5. B-cell analysis

 

  1. Which of the following statements about HIV is true?
  2. HIV infects CD8 T cells.
  3. HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA to DNA.
  4. HIV infections can be completely eradicated by the use of antivirals.
  5. HIV infection initially causes pronounced signs and symptoms.

 

  1. The role of histamine in the inflammatory process includes
  2. Initiating vasoconstriction to limit bleeding
  3. Coating pathogens for easier phagocytosis
  4. Promoting hyperthermia
  5. Increasing capillary permeability

 

  1. Which of the following statements about chronic inflammation is true?
  2. Chronic inflammation lasts 5 to 7 days.
  3. Chronic inflammation results in granuloma formation.
  4. Chronic inflammation results from viral infections.
  5. Chronic inflammation produces copious amounts of serous exudate.

 

  1. Granulocytes
  2. Produce antibodies
  3. Include killer T cells
  4. Contain enzymes capable of killing bacteria
  5. Arrive at the site of cell injury in approximately 24 hours

 

  1. Macrophages
  2. Are involved in debris cleanup at the inflammatory site
  3. Are responsible for producing allergic reactions
  4. Live approximately 120 days
  5. Are immature monocytes

 

  1. Which of the following statements about B cells is correct?
  2. B cells provide cell-mediated immunity.
  3. B cells produce antibodies.
  4. B cells release histamine.
  5. B cells live approximately 3 months.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about suppressor T cells is true?
  2. Suppressor T cells turn off antibody production.
  3. Suppressor T cells mature in the bone marrow.
  4. Suppressor T cells are the most numerous type of T cell.
  5. Suppressor T cells release lymphokines that destroy pathogen cell walls.

 

  1. The antibody classified as IgE is responsible for
  2. Passive immunity
  3. Protecting the lungs from infection
  4. Activating complement
  5. Allergic reactions

 

  1. Research has indicated that chemokine receptors (CCR5 and CXCR4)
  2. Are found on human immunodeficiency virus particles
  3. Allow the human immunodeficiency virus to enter CD4 cells
  4. Protect HIV-positive individuals from developing opportunistic infections
  5. Are responsible for neoplasm development

 

  1. The complement system
  2. Causes the release of histamine from mast cells
  3. Causes clot formation at the site of cell injury
  4. Is another name for T cells
  5. Includes bradykinin

 

Question 15:              Health Care

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

BASIC CONCEPTS

 

  1. What does the term “host” mean?

a.

The person infected by a virus.

b.

The type of virus known as a retrovirus.

c.

The type of virus known as a common virus.

d.

The type of infection that occurs only in immunosuppressed people.

 

 

 

  1. Why do most people become ill with a specific viral infection only once?

a.

Once a virus is killed by the body, it is gone from the earth forever.

b.

During a viral infection, the body changes the virus to be less virulent.

c.

Antiviral drugs change the viral DNA so it cannot infect the same person again.

d.

During a specific viral infection, the person’s immune system improves protection against that virus.

 

 

  1. Which statement about antiviral drugs is true?

a.

They are all most effective at killing viruses.

b.

They are all effective against any type of infection.

c.

They all work by slowing the replication of viruses.

d.

They are all only effective in people with strong immune systems.

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is only given by oral inhalation?

a.

Cyclovir (Zovirax)

b.

Zanamivir (Relenza)

c.

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

d.

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

 

 

 

  1. Which specific virus causes mononucleosis?

a.

Cytomegalovirus

b.

Hantavirus

c.

Epstein-Barr virus

d.

West Nile virus

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is most likely to have more severe central nervous system side effects, including worsening of glaucoma?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Amantadine

c.

Valacyclovir

d.

Zanamavir

 

 

 

  1. Which antiviral drug is highly likely to cause birth defects when taken by a pregnant woman?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Zanamivir

c.

Rimantadine

d.

Ribavirin

 

 

 

  1. What is the major difference between retroviruses and common viruses?

a.

Retroviruses cannot be killed by antiviral therapy, but common viruses can.

b.

A retrovirus usually can cause disease over and over again in the same person.

c.

A retrovirus carries the enzyme reverse transcriptase, and common viruses do not.

d.

Retroviruses will respond to antibacterial drugs as well as to all the antiviral drugs.

 

 

  1. Which class of antiretroviral drugs works by preventing new viral particles from leaving the infected cell?

a.

Entry inhibitors

b.

Fusion inhibitors

c.

Protease inhibitors

d.

Reverse-transcriptase inhibitors

 

 

 

  1. Which problem is a sign or symptom of an allergic or anaphylactic response to an antiviral drug?

a.

Nausea

b.

Vivid dreams

c.

Intolerance to fatty foods

d.

Swelling of the face or throat

 

 

 

  1. Which drug can only be given by subcutaneous injection?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Darunavir (Prezista)

 

 

 

  1. Which drug does not work on all strains of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and therefore the patient must be tested before using the drug to make sure it will work?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Raltegravis (Issentra)

 

 

 

  1. Which drug increases the risk for muscle weakness in older patients who are also taking a “statin” type of lipid-lowering drug?

a.

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

b.

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

c.

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

d.

Raltegravis (Issentra)

 

 

 

  1. What is the purpose of antiviral drug therapy?

a.

To make the patient immune to infection by viruses.

b.

To reduce infection by killing the virus causing disease.

c.

To reduce illness duration by controlling viral reproduction.

d.

To prevent opportunistic infections in immunosuppressed patients.

 

 

  1. Which statement about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is true?

a.

Everyone with AIDS has HIV infection but not everyone with HIV infection has AIDS.

b.

Everyone with HIV infection eventually dies of it because the disease cannot be cured.

c.

With successful antiretroviral therapy, HIV-infected patients become HIV-antibody negative.

d.

When HIV disease becomes AIDS, the infection is in the blood and treatment must be given intravenously.

 

 

 

  1. Which antiretroviral drug is now prescribed for preexposure prophylaxis to prevent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection?

a.

Acyclovir

b.

Edurant

c.

Crixivan

d.

Truvada

 

 

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. How are viral infections different from bacterial infections?

a.

Bacterial infections can be spread from one person to another, whereas viral infections cannot be spread directly.

b.

Bacterial infections can be cured by treatment with some anti-infective drugs, whereas viral infections are not cured by anti-infective therapy.

c.

Viruses only cause disease in a person who is immunocompromised, whereas bacteria can cause disease even among immunocompetent people.

d.

Viruses are the less mature form of a bacterium, so there is essentially no difference between viral infections and bacterial infections.

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed any antiviral drug?

a.

“Take the drug exactly as prescribed and for as long as prescribed.”

b.

“Never take any antibacterial drugs while you are on antiviral therapy.”

c.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

d.

“Avoid unnecessary exposure to this drug by stopping it when you have no symptoms for 24 hours.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed intravenous (IV) acyclovir (Zovirax). Which question is most important to ask before giving the first dose of this drug?

a.

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

b.

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

c.

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

d.

“Have you ever had asthma?”

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed oral valacyclovir (Valtrex)?

a.

“Avoid coffee and other caffeinated beverages.”

b.

“Wear long sleeves and a hat when going outdoors.”

c.

“Take this drug 1 hour before or 4 hours after eating a full meal.”

d.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been prescribed amantadine (Symmetrel) has all of the following health problems. For which problem should you contact the prescriber before giving the first dose?

a.

Asthma

b.

Influenza

c.

Glaucoma

d.

Diabetes mellitus

 

 

 

  1. A 2-year-old patient with respiratory syncytial virus is prescribed aerosolized ribavirin (Virazole). Which visitor should you ensure is not in the patient’s room during the aerosol treatments?

a.

16-year-old brother

b.

81-year-old grandmother

c.

32-year-old pregnant mother

d.

36-year-old father who has diabetes

 

 

 

  1. A patient who is taking interferon is also prescribed ribavirin (Virazole). Which laboratory blood test result for this patient do you report immediately to the prescriber?

a.

Red blood cells (RBCs) 2.2 million/mm3

b.

White blood cells (WBCs) 6000/mm3

c.

Sodium 134 mEq/L

d.

International normalized ratio (INR) 1.6

 

 

 

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  1. Which precaution about zanamivir (Relenza) therapy do you teach a patient who also uses a bronchodilator for asthma control?

a.

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily while using this drug.”

b.

“Use the bronchodilator 15 minutes before taking the zanamivir.”

c.

“Avoid taking the zanamivir within 2 hours of using the bronchodilator.”

d.

“Take your pulse daily while on this drug because when taken with a bronchodilator heart rhythm problems are common.”

 

 

 

  1. For what reason does adefovir dipivoxil have a black box warning?

a.

It induces type 2 diabetes mellitus.

b.

It increases the severity of hepatitis B symptoms.

c.

It is highly toxic to both the liver and the kidneys.

d.

It has a high likelihood of increasing the risk for birth defects and fetal damage.

 

 

 

  1. Which common side effects should you watch for when a patient is taking adefovir dipivoxil?

a.

Numbness and tingling in extremities

b.

Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

c.

Dizziness and light-headedness

d.

Increased confusion

 

 

 

DIF:    Cognitive Level: Understanding        REF:    p. 142

 

  1. What specific precaution would you teach the family of a patient prescribed amantadine?

a.

“Be sure that the patient performs mouth care four to six times daily.”

b.

“Remind the patient that monthly follow-up lab tests will be needed.”

c.

“Contact the prescriber immediately for any worsening of depression or thoughts of suicide.”

d.

“Ensure that the patient takes in at least 1000 mL more fluids that he or she puts out.”

 

 

 

  1. How are retroviruses different from common viruses?

a.

Retroviruses respond to antibacterial drugs but common viruses do not.

b.

Retroviruses have a greater efficiency of infection than common viruses.

c.

Common viral infections can be cured while retroviral infections can only be controlled.

d.

Common viruses can infect anyone whereas retroviruses can only cause infection in an immunosuppressed host.

 

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed to begin highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the most important question to ask this patient before beginning therapy?

a.

“Do you have any symptoms now of active infection?”

b.

“Is there any possibility that you are pregnant?”

c.

“Are you currently sexually active?”

d.

“What other drugs do you take?”

 

 

 

  1. A patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for a year has the following blood laboratory test values. Which value do you report to the prescriber immediately?

a.

White blood cell count 3500 cells/mm3

b.

Lactate dehydrogenase 990 IU/L

c.

Sodium 132 mEq/L

d.

Hematocrit 32%

 

 

 

  1. A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease and is taking a “cocktail” consisting of protease inhibitors, nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors, and nonnucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors. Which statement made by the patient indicates that more teaching about the drug therapy is needed?

a.

“Using three drugs at the same time enhances suppression of viral replication.”

b.

“There is no problem using these drugs during the last trimester of my pregnancy.”

c.

“Because this drug combination kills HIV, I do not need to worry about transmitting the virus.”

d.

“If the virus becomes resistant to this cocktail, another combination of drugs may be required to reduce my viral load.”

 

 

 

  1. Which test results indicate that a patient’s antiretroviral therapy is effective?

a.

White blood cell count 5000 cells/mm3

b.

Blood urea nitrogen level 15 mg/dL

c.

Blood positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies

d.

CD4+ to CD8+ ratio increased

 

 

  1. A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy informs you that she is now pregnant. What advice regarding drug therapy do you give this patient?

a.

“Stop taking these drugs for your entire pregnancy.”

b.

“Stop taking these drugs for the first trimester and start again for the second and third trimesters.”

c.

“Continue to take these drugs throughout your pregnancy exactly as they have been prescribed.”

d.

“It will be necessary to double your dosages of these drugs to ensure your unborn baby is adequately protected.”

 

 

 

  1. What is the most important question to ask before giving the first dose of darunavir to a patient newly prescribed this drug?

a.

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

b.

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

c.

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

d.

“Have you ever had asthma?”

 

 

 

  1. A child is prescribed emtricitabine (Emtriva) 120 mg orally. The drug on hand is emtricitabine suspension 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters do you prepare for a correct dose?

a.

2

b.

6

c.

12

d.

20

 

 

  1. A patient who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) reports diarrhea. Which dietary change should you suggest for this patient?

a.

“Avoid fatty and fried foods.”

b.

“Increase your intake of fiber.”

c.

“Take an antacid 30 minutes before each meal.”

d.

“Restrict your intake of fluids to 1 L/day.”

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking lamivudine (Epivir) for 6 months reports reduced sensation in the fingers and toes. What is your best action?

a.

Document the report as the only action.

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Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

c.

Remind the patient to continue the drug as usual and take a multiple vitamin daily.

d.

Reassure the patient that this is an expected drug side effect and to use injury precautions.

 

 

 

  1. Which health problem must you be specifically alert for in pregnant women who are prescribed any nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)?

a.

Headache

b.

Lactic acidosis

c.

Diabetes mellitus

d.

Nausea/vomiting

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking efavirenz (Sustiva) reports a sore throat, fever, and blisters. What is your best action?

a.

Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

b.

Document the report as the only action.

c.

Remind the patient that these are symptoms of opportunistic infection.

d.

Reassure the patient that these are common and expected side effects of the drug.

 

 

  1. Which food, drink, or herbal supplement do you warn a patient who is prescribed nevirapine (Viramune) to avoid?

a.

Caffeinated beverages

b.

Grapefruit juice

c.

St. John’s wort

d.

Dairy products

 

 

 

  1. How do protease inhibitor (PI) drugs prevent viral replication?

a.

They are counterfeit bases that prevent reverse transcriptase from synthesizing the DNA needed for viral replication.

b.

They inactivate the enzyme that allows the viral genetic material to be integrated into the human host’s cellular DNA.

c.

They prevent the production of proteins needed for viral particles to leave the cell and infect other cells.

d.

They prevent initial infection by blocking the receptor the virus uses to enter target cells.

 

 

 

  1. A patient who has been taking indinavir (Crixivan) for a year has just been told that the organism is now resistant to this drug. The patient expresses worry to you that this means the disease will now progress to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and death will soon follow. What is your best response?

a.

“Your health care provider can change this drug to the intravenous form, which prevents viral replication even in HIV that has developed drug resistance.”

b.

“Although the HIV is now resistant to this drug, other antiretroviral drugs are likely to be effective in controlling your disease.”

c.

“The HIV easily becomes drug resistant. That is why the drug combinations are switched so often.”

d.

“That is a possibility because these drugs do not kill the virus. It is best to be prepared.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient on HAART that includes neviripine (Viramune) has all of the following side effects. Which one should you report to the prescriber immediately?

a.

Nausea

b.

2 lb weight loss

c.

Clay-colored stools

d.

Dizziness on standing

 

 

 

  1. A pediatric patient is prescribed nelfinavir (Viracept) 450 mg orally. The available drug is 50 mg/scoop. How many level scoops do you measure into the patient’s pudding to administer the correct dose?

a.

9 scoops

b.

6 scoops

c.

3 scoops

d.

2 scoops

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach an older patient who is prescribed atazanavir (Reyataz)?

a.

“Be sure to take this drug at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after taking an antacid.”

b.

“Weigh yourself daily and notify your prescriber if you gain more than 2 lb in 1 week.”

c.

“Check your pulse for a full minute daily and notify your prescriber if it becomes irregular or slow.”

d.

“Check your calves daily for swelling or redness. If these symptoms appear, go to the emergency department immediately.”

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)?

a.

“After the drug is mixed, store it away from light.”

b.

“Use sterile technique to draw up and inject the drug.”

c.

“Do not take this drug if there is any possibility that you are pregnant.”

d.

“Mix the drug with tap water, then rinse the drug’s original container and add that fluid to the drug mixture.”

 

 

 

  1. A 40-year-old patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) asks why the new drug maraviroc (Selzentry) is not being prescribed for her. What is your best response?

a.

“This drug is very expensive and your insurance may not cover it.”

b.

“This drug can cause birth defects and should not be prescribed for anyone who is pregnant or might become pregnant.”

c.

“This drug is very toxic to the heart and lungs. It is prescribed only for patients who are young and have no other health problems.”

d.

“This drug is not effective against all HIV subtypes and the HIV causing your infection does not have the target for this drug.”

 

 

 

  1. Which precaution is most important to teach older adults who are prescribed maraviroc (Selzentry)?

a.

“If an injection site infection occurs, do not reuse that site until the skin has healed completely.”

b.

“Take the drug with food or milk to reduce the likelihood of GI side effects.”

c.

“Change positions slowly when moving from a sitting to a standing position.”

d.

“Store the drug at room temperature.”

 

 

 

  1. A patient prescribed raltegravir (Isentress) reports all of the following problems or changes since starting this drug. Which problem or change do you report to the prescriber?

a.

Abdominal cramps and bloating

b.

Muscle aches and weakness

c.

Urinating more at night

d.

Loss of taste for sweets

 

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  1. What precaution is most important to teach a patient newly prescribed to take Truvada?

a.

“Continue to use safer sex practices.”

b.

“Avoid caffeine and any fatty or fried foods.”

c.

“Be sure to drink at least 3 L of fluids daily.”

d.

“If you develop muscle or joint aches, notify your prescriber immediately.”

 

 

 

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. Which antiretroviral drugs have greater effectiveness when administered with ritonavir? (select all that apply)

a.

Edurant (rilpivirine)

b.

Emtriva (emtricitabine)

c.

Invirase (saquinavir)

d.

Lexiva (fosamprenavir)

e.

Prezista (darunavir)

f.

Reyataz (atazanavir)

g.

Tivicay (dolutegravir)

h.

Ziagen (abacavir)

 

 

 

  1. Which patient outcomes are major goals of antiretroviral therapy? (select all that apply)

a.

Prevention of opportunistic infections

b.

Conversion to an HIV-negative antibody status

c.

Reduction of the number of viral particles in the patient’s blood

d.

Increase in CD4+ cells

e.

Decrease in CD8+ cells

f.

Prevention of disease spread

 

 

 

COMPLETION

 

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

 

  1. A child who is HIV positive and weighs 40 lb is prescribed to receive atazanavir (Reyataz) at a dose of 7 mg/kg. The drug on hand is a premixed oral suspension of 50 mg/60 mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed to receive 300 mg of ribavirin by oral suspension. The drug on hand is ribavirin oral suspension with a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

 

 

  1. A patient is prescribed 45 mg of enfuvirtide by subcutaneous injection. The available drug is a premixed solution of enfuvirtide with a concentration of 90 mg/mL.

 

Question 16:     Business Management

 

Chapter 9   Foundations of Group Behavior

 

1) Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

  1. A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
  2. B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
  3. C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
  4. D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
  5. E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

 

2) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

  1. A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
  2. B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
  3. C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.

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  1. D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
  2. E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

 

3) An informal group is characterized by the ________.

  1. A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
  2. B) predetermined designation of tasks of members.
  3. C) pursuit of particular organizational goals.
  4. D) fulfillment of the need for social contact
  5. E) creation of timelines and rationale

 

4) Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?

  1. A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
  2. B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is lesser than that of informal groups.
  3. C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain.
  4. D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
  5. E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

.

 

5) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of, is the territory of the ________ theory.

  1. A) social exchange
  2. B) expectancy
  3. C) social identity
  4. D) reinforcement
  5. E) equity

 

6) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?

  1. A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures.
  2. B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group’s performance.
  3. C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
  4. D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an in-group view members of an out-group.
  5. E) It proposes that members of an in-group are viewed as being homogenous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.

 

7) ________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better than other people.

  1. A) In-group homogeneity
  2. B) Xenocentrism
  3. C) In-group favoritism
  4. D) Black sheep effect
  5. E) Hindsight bias

8) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company’s day-to-day functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner’s cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from a different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) in-group favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

 

9) Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customer attendants watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, following which Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them saying “you guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

  1. A) social loafing
  2. B) in-group favoritism
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) contrast bias
  5. E) social exchange

10) Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

11) In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  3. C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

 

12) Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  2. B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

13) Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

  1. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
  2. B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
  3. C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
  4. D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

14) Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) adjourning
  2. B) performing
  3. C) storming
  4. D) forming
  5. E) norming

15) Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership?

  1. A) introduction
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) evolution
  5. E) norming

16) The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________.

  1. A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
  2. B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
  3. C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
  4. D) intragroup conflict within the group
  5. E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

 

17) By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is established.

  1. A) norming
  2. B) storming
  3. C) forming
  4. D) adjourning
  5. E) performing

 

18) During the third stage of group development ________.

  1. A) conflicts over leadership are common
  2. B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
  3. C) intragroup conflicts occur
  4. D) members resist the constraints the group places on them
  5. E) groups disband

19) Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development?

  1. A) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group development model.
  2. B) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  3. C) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.
  4. D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
  5. E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

 

20) When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________.

  1. A) storming
  2. B) norming
  3. C) inertia
  4. D) forming
  5. E) performing

21) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage?

  1. A) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
  2. B) During the performing stage there is conflict over who will control the group.
  3. C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which behaviors the group considers acceptable.
  4. D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.
  5. E) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.

 

22) Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?

  1. A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively.
  2. B) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development.
  3. C) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level from the first stage.
  4. D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.
  5. E) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.

 

23) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development?

  1. A) It applies to all permanent work groups.
  2. B) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
  3. C) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time constraints.
  4. D) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and group shift to break out of the phases of inertia.
  5. E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes.

 

24) Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team’s progress with no inputs coming from the members and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month’s duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________.

  1. A) forming
  2. B) inertia following the first meeting
  3. C) second phase of inertia before the group’s last meeting
  4. D) storming
  5. E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

25) The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________.

  1. A) the phase of inertia before transition
  2. B) the determination of the group’s direction
  3. C) the transition to plan the major changes
  4. D) a period of accelerated activity
  5. E) the adoption of new perspectives

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26) The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model.

  1. A) performing
  2. B) inertia
  3. C) equilibrium
  4. D) transition
  5. E) first meeting

 

27) Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model?

  1. A) better perspectives and patterns
  2. B) group solidarity and collectivist goals
  3. C) promotion of diversity
  4. D) deadlines and time constraints
  5. E) role perception and expectation

 

28) Role perception is defined as ________.

  1. A) the way others believe we should act in a given context
  2. B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation
  3. C) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  4. D) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others
  5. E) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group.

 

29) Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence Nightingale, had very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She felt that as a nurse, she must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she could serve her patients well, and she often went to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects Janice’s ________.

  1. A) role fuzziness
  2. B) role ambiguity
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) role perception
  5. E) role status

 

30) Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context.

  1. A) fuzziness
  2. B) expectation
  3. C) conflict
  4. D) perception
  5. E) enhancement

 

31) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs?

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) similarity
  3. C) role expectation
  4. D) uncertainty reduction
  5. E) dispersion of responsibility

32) When ________, the result is role conflict.

  1. A) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role
  2. B) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world
  3. C) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the group that are distinctive
  4. D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another
  5. E) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics

 

33) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.

  1. A) role conflict
  2. B) social loafing
  3. C) groupthink
  4. D) role fuzziness
  5. E) group shift

.

 

34) Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members?

  1. A) status
  2. B) norms
  3. C) dyads
  4. D) goals
  5. E) cliques

 

35)  Which of the following is an example of performance norms?

  1. A) dress codes
  2. B) rules in informal groups
  3. C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment
  4. D) distribution of pay
  5. E) the manner in which a job must be done

 

36) The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job.

  1. A) appearance
  2. B) social arrangement
  3. C) performance
  4. D) reference
  5. E) organizational

 

37) A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

  1. A) performance norms
  2. B) appearance norms
  3. C) resource allocation norms
  4. D) reference norms
  5. E) leisure norms

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38) ________ refers to the adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group.

  1. A) Deviance
  2. B) Conflict
  3. C) Divergence
  4. D) Conformity
  5. E) Appearance

 

39) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________ groups.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference
  3. C) organizational
  4. D) control
  5. E) nominal

 

40) Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him.

  1. A) nominal group
  2. B) organizational group
  3. C) control group
  4. D) intervention group
  5. E) reference group

41) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members?

  1. A) undue hardship
  2. B) deviant workplace behavior
  3. C) antidiscrimination and retaliation
  4. D) progressive discipline
  5. E) wrongful termination

 

42) Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?

  1. A) It is involuntary in nature.
  2. B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.
  3. C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees.
  4. D) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups.
  5. E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

43) Status refers to the ________.

  1. A) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility
  2. B) adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group
  3. C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others
  4. D) existence of roles that are at variance with one another
  5. E) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members

44) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

  1. A) control over the resources needed by the group
  2. B) contribution to goals
  3. C) ability to conform to group norms
  4. D) personality
  5. E) talent

 

45) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

  1. A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.
  2. B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.
  3. C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.
  4. D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.
  5. E) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren’t severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

 

46) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of size of the group has on the performance of the group?

  1. A) The size of the group does not affect the group’s overall behavior.
  2. B) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones.
  3. C) As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in problem solving.
  4. D) If the goal of the group is fact-finding then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups.
  5. E) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.

 

47) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) group shift
  5. E) social facilitation

.

 

48) When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively. Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard. However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________.

  1. A) groupthink
  2. B) collective efficacy
  3. C) social loafing
  4. D) group shift
  5. E) in-group favoritism

49) Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing?

  1. A) difficult task assignments
  2. B) high collective efficacy
  3. C) severe time constraints
  4. D) dispersion of responsibility
  5. E) heavy workload

50) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?

  1. A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
  2. B) increasing the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
  3. C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified
  4. D) increasing the size of the group
  5. E) increasing the group’s workload

 

51) Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing? 

  1. A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group.

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  1. B) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when they work collectively.
  2. C) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size.
  3. D) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes.
  4. E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance.

 

52) ICE is a non-profit organization that runs awareness campaigns and research programs that provide data to initiate the process of legislative changes on various aspects of the environment like forest cover, nuclear fuel, endangered species and others. The ICE operates through networks of grass-root level researchers who are grouped into flexible project teams whose roles and duties change with each new project. The ICE believes its employees to be like family and an informal environment pervades its functioning without any compromises being made in the efficiency. Recently, the project manager of the rainwater harvesting pilot project in the suburbs has been informed of two delays in the project. When the third extension request came to him, he looked into the matter by speaking individually with the five team members. Which of the following complaints by the team members, if true, would indicate the presence of social loafing in the team?

  1. A) A team member complained that the residents of the suburb in which they were working were uncooperative and did not accept their most cordial requests for helping in data collection.
  2. B) Nancy, one of the new team members, reported that she felt the team was not cohesive enough.
  3. C) Two of the most experienced employees on the team reported having to shoulder a disproportionate amount of the current workload and asked for an internal transfer.
  4. D) The scarcity of funds was one of the major concerns that all the team members mentioned.
  5. E) The team members were dissatisfied with the compensation package as they felt they were putting in a lot of work and being paid relatively less.

 

53) ________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

  1. A) Assertiveness
  2. B) Social dominance
  3. C) Authoritativeness
  4. D) Cohesiveness
  5. E) Diversity

54) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

  1. A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.
  2. B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.
  3. C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.
  4. D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.
  5. E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

 

55) ________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one another.

  1. A) Homogeneity
  2. B) Diversity
  3. C) Conformity
  4. D) Civility
  5. E) Universality

56) Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making?

  1. A) increased ambiguous responsibility
  2. B) increased conformity pressures
  3. C) increased diversity of views
  4. D) increased dispersion of accountability
  5. E) increased pace of decision making

 

57) When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions.

  1. A) acceptance of solution
  2. B) speed
  3. C) efficiency
  4. D) clear responsibility
  5. E) legitimacy

Answer:  A

 

58) Group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________, when compared to individual decision making.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) creativity
  3. C) acceptance of final solutions
  4. D) speed
  5. E) accuracy

 

59) ________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action.

  1. A) Group shift
  2. B) Social loafing
  3. C) In-group favoritism
  4. D) Cyber loafing
  5. E) Groupthink

60) Sonia Soans is corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other. Using the results of the activity she understands the baseline measures of the group’s functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From the scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________.

  1. A) diversity
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

Explanation:  D) Groupthink relates to norms and describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

 

61) Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize groupthink?

  1. A) increasing the group size
  2. B) encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
  3. C) preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
  4. D) asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives
  5. E) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

 

62) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.

  1. A) social desirability bias
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) halo effect
  4. D) social loafing
  5. E) in-group favoritism

 

63) Group shift is seen when ________.

  1. A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group
  2. B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution
  3. C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
  4. D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
  5. E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus.

 

64) The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed having major concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of ________.

  1. A) conformity
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) role conflict
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

65) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome, and even profitably use, this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Mark’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Mark felt that Eu Air should suspend some of its less profitable flights in the short run in favor of the routes that have greater demand among consumers.
  2. B) Mark proposed that this was an opportunity for Eu Air to use its brand name effectively and diversify into other products and services.
  3. C) Mark agreed with Joe’s opinion that providing the best service possible, even if it meant incurring a loss in the short run, would be the best strategy.
  4. D) Mark proposed that the prices be hiked and additional customer service measures be included so costumers have the best experience flying with Eu Air.    
  5. E) Mark encouraged the top-management team to consider laying off surplus employees and rightsizing Eu Air to enhance its efficiency and lower costs.

66) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Mark experienced group shift in the meeting?

  1. A) Mark felt that implementing a price rise was necessary to recover the costs in operating the flights.
  2. B) Mark stated that the company should increase operations but at lower fares so they can regain control over the market share.
  3. C) Mark believed that most of their clientele was not price sensitive.
  4. D) Mark was of the opinion that oil suppliers were going to pressure them even more in the future and the company had to resort to alternatives like bio fuels.
  5. E) Mark recommended that the company should establish a fuel hedging contract with its key suppliers to ensure protection from fuel price rises.

.

67) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Joe’s opinions during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe proposed that the company should invite price quotes from new suppliers to reduce their dependence on their current fuel suppliers.
  2. B) Joe determined that the best strategy would be to slash prices and minimize all fringes that are used for customer service.
  3. C) Joe convinced the top management team to decrease the capacity of the flights.
  4. D) Joe recommended that the prices for business class fares be increased as they represent a less price sensitive group of customers.
  5. E) Joe claimed that aviation fuel was their second largest expense and this was the time to contemplate obtaining a few futures contracts with suppliers.

68) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Joe experienced group shift during the meeting?

  1. A) Joe stated that the company should cut expenditures on other areas like marketing and advertising instead of hiking fares to retain their current profit margins.
  2. B) Joe stated that hiking prices would lead to losing market share to the low-cost airlines which already controlled half the market.
  3. C) Joe stated that precise methods of fuel filling and consumption must be implemented to efficiently use their current supply of fuel.
  4. D) Joe suggested adding a fuel surcharge to all tickets for commercial flights with immediate effect.
  5. E) Joe proposed the usage of direct and higher altitude routes that would curtail fuel consumption.

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69) Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) electronic meeting groups

 

70) Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project, Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign. To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of ________.

  1. A) in-group favoritism
  2. B) group shift
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) groupthink
  5. E) social loafing

 

71) Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming?

  1. A) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible.
  2. B) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of “production blocking.”
  3. C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.
  4. D) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an individual working alone.
  5. E) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.

 

72) A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.

  1. A) reference groups
  2. B) nominal groups
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) interacting groups
  5. E) in-group

 

73) Bonnie Patterson is a manager for seven years at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A good part of her work day involves holding meetings and she likes to get work on a time-bound schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate over the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the another, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group decision making.

  1. A) interacting
  2. B) reference group
  3. C) brainstorming
  4. D) nominal group
  5. E) groupthink

 

74) Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

  1. A) nominal and electronic
  2. B) brainstorming
  3. C) brainstorming and electronic
  4. D) electronic and interacting
  5. E) interacting and brainstorming

 

75) ABL is one of the largest consumer goods companies in the country and it recently held its annual conference where members of all regional divisions were invited. Since the company is vast and rarely finds all its employees together in such a manner, it used this opportunity to present to them certain new ideas they had regarding various aspects of their functioning. Large meetings with each regional team were held to provide them with information about the proposed changes and to obtain their anonymous votes through computers. This helped the company speed up the decision-making process and consolidate the results immediately. Which of the following group decision techniques did ABL use here?

  1. A) heuristics and algorithm approach
  2. B) nominal groups approach
  3. C) electronic meeting approach
  4. D) reference groups approach
  5. E) brainstorming

 

Question 17:              Finance

 

 

  1. If a stock has a beta of 0.78 would its required rate of return be higher or lower than the required return for the average stock on the market? Why? Would it be more or less risky than holding a fund that replicated the S&P 500 Index ? Why?

 

 

 

  1. The nominal risk free rate (RRF) equals 0.55%. The market risk premium is equal to 6.0%. The Beta of Harrah’s Inc. is 1.33. Use the CAPM to calculate the required rate of return for Hershey stock (Rs)?

 

 

  1. If you are a risk-averse investor and you decide to hold a single stock, which stock would you prefer? Use the Coefficient of Variation (CV) to determine your answer. Explain your final choice.

 

  1. A stock with an expected return of 20% and a standard deviation equal to 10%.
  2. A stock with an expected return of 7% and a standard deviation equal to 3%.
  3. A stock with an expected return of 16% and a standard deviation equal to 16%

 

 

  1. Assume you have a portfolio with the stocks and their information:
Stock Total $ invested Beta Expected Return Portfolio weight
DuPont $125,000 1.00 12%  
McDonald’s Corp $150,000 0.55 8.6%  
Ford $600,000 1.33 11%  

 

 

  1. a) Calculate Beta of the Portfolio.
  2. b) Calculate the Expected return for the portfolio using the CAPM and the beta value for the portfolio. Assume the market risk premium (Rm – Rrf) equals 6% and the Risk free rate (Rrf) equals the rate on a 2 year treasury 1.25%.
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Question 18:              Finance

 

SHOW YOUR WORK.

  1. Assume you own 10 shares of Johnson and Johnson. You paid $43/sh. You sold the stock one year later for $40/share. During the year you held the stock, you earned no Dividends. What was your total dollar return? What was your percentage return?

 

  1. Assume a share of preferred stock pays a constant dividend of $1.25. If the required return is 6.5%, what is the expected price of this preferred stock?

 

  1. A share of common stock will pay a dividend of $2.00 at the end of this year so D1= $2.00. If the expected long-run constant growth rate for this stock is 4 percent, and if investors require an 6 percent rate of return (Rs=6%), what is the expected price of the stock?

 

 

  1. Martian stock is expected to grow at 8% in year 1, 9% in year 2 and 6% in year 3.It is then expected to grow at a constant rate of 3% in the years that follow. The required rate of return (Rs) equals 9%. The company just aid a Dividend of $1.55 at the end of last year so (D=$1.55. What is the expected price of this stock? If the stock was selling on the market for $45, would you buy it based on your calculations? Explain your answer.

 

Question 19:     General Question

 

Instruction

James shows up to work approximately five minutes late this morning, walks silently (but quickly) down the hallway and begins to punch in at the time clock located by the front desk. Sarah, the front desk manager, says, “Good morning, James,” but James ignores her, punches in, and heads into the shop to his workplace. Sarah rolls her eyes, picks up the phone, and dials the on-duty manager to alert her that James just arrived and should be reaching his desk any moment. The message should take the form of an email; however, you will submit your assignment to the online course shell. The professional email message must adhere to the following requirements: 1. Content: Address the communication issue from the scenario. Request a face-to-face meeting to discuss the issue (at a specific time). Concentrate on the facts of the situation and avoid using overly emotional language. Assume your recipient is learning about the situation for the first time through your communication. 2. Format: Use a descriptive subject line or heading. Include an appropriate and professional greeting / salutation. Use email form including: To:, From:, Subject:, and Signature. 3. Clarity / Mechanics: Focus on clarity, writing mechanics, and professional language/style requirements. Run spell/grammar check before submitting. 4. Your assignment must: This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details. 5. Submitting your assignment: Submit your assignment through the online course shell only. 6. The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: Plan, create, and evaluate professional documents. Deliver professional information to various audiences using appropriate tone, style, and format. Analyze professional communication examples to assist in revision.

 

Question 20:     Law

 

 

The book review essay should include all the following – each roman numeral represents a required heading for the paper:

 

  1. Title Page – Include name, date, and course information.

 

  1. Introduction – one-page maximum
  2. Summary of the work

 

  • Family Experience – a minimum of four pages in length.
  1. In the book, Dave referred to his mother as both ‘mother’ and

‘mom’. What prompted the change? Support with at least two

specific examples from the work.

  1. Why do you suppose Dave was the object of his abuse by his

mother? Provide a specific example from the text to support your work.

  1. Describe the relationship between Dave and his father. Support

with at least two specific examples from the work.

  1. In what ways did Dave not feel a sense of belonging in his family?

Support with at least two specific examples from the book.

  1. What do you suppose was Dave’s worst experience of abuse? Provide a specific example from the book.
  2. Why do you suppose Dave continued to fight?

 

  1. Contribution to the field of Victimology – one-page minimum
  2. Purpose of the work – how does it increase awareness about Dave’s experience.
  3. How does this work contribute to Victimology?

 

  1. Conclusion – Summary of your thoughts – one-page maximum

 

  1. Reference Page – Pelzer book and any supporting readings included in the book review.

 

The book review essay must be typed, double-spaced, Times New

Roman 12 fonts, with 1″ margins all around. You must include a

title page.

 

Question 21:     Economics

 

A snack food chain runs a promotion in which shoppers are told that 1 in 4 kid’s meals include a prize. A father buys 2 kid’s meals and neither has a prize. The father concludes that because neither has a prize the chain is being deceptive.

What are the null and alternative hypothesis?

 

Describe a Type I error in this context.

 

 

Describe a Type II error.

 

 

A retailer maintains a website that it sues to attract shoppers. The average purchase amount is $80. The retailor is evaluating a new website that would, it hopes, encourage shoppers to spend more. Let µ represent the average amount spent per customer at its redesigned website. Mark each statement as True or False.

The appropriate null hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new designs is µ = $80.

 

The appropriate alternative hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new design is  µ > $80.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The makers of Mini-Oats Cereal have an automated packaging machine that can be set at any targeted fill level between 12 and 32 ounces. Every box of cereal is not expected to contain exactly the targeted weight but the average of all boxed filled should. At the end of every shift, 16 boxes are selected a random and the mean and standard deviation of the sample are computed. Based on these sample results, the production control manager determines whether the filling machine needs to be readjusted or whether it remains all right to operate. Use α = 0.05 and assume the population is normally distributed.

Establish the appropriate null and alternative hypothesis to be tested for boxes that are supposed to have an average of 24 ounces.

 

 

 

 

At the end of a particular shift during which the machine was filling 24 ounce boxes, the sample mean of 16 boxes was 24.32 ounces with a standard deviation of 0.70 ounces. Assist the production control manager in determining if the machine is achieving its targeted average.

 

Question 22:              Law

 

The research paper will be based on a recent case before the courts. You must identify the case and how it relates to the topics covered in this course. You must use the proper citation for the case you selected, as well as the APA style for your entire paper. The paper must be a minimum of five pages (not counting the cover and reference pages), double spaced, 12-point font. Your thesis must be concise, explaining your position. I am interested in why you chose a particular case to analyze The case is Florida v. Jardines and the topic is the fourth amendment against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause

 

Question 23:              Religious Studies

 

The Journey Paper Instructions

  1. Go somewhere (the park, the lake, etc.), any place that you won’t be disturbed or distracted.

For Step 1, write out your prayer. Be transparent, honest, and thoughtful in your prayer. Pray specifically toward the purpose of discovering and uncovering thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

  1. You are encouraged to press through and go deeper into yourself to find the hidden meanings of your emotions, thoughts and self-statements.
  2. Follow the remaining steps: (Use a present situation, not one from the past that you have already worked through.)

Step 2: Describe the unpleasant situation that disturbs you.

Step 3: List any destructive behaviors stemming from the unpleasant situation.

Step 4: Describe how others responded to your behaviors and how relationships were affected.

Step 5: What are the negative and harmful emotions you feel in regard to the situation? (You may feel several emotions. Write them all down.).

Step 6: Ask yourself the following questions:

  1. What is the worst thing about this situation?
  2. How does this situation affect me personally?
  3. What is the basis, the essence of the problem?
  4. What is the main thing in this problem that makes me feel so bad?
  5. Exactly what is it that feels so bad about this?
  6. What is the worst of this feeling?

Step 7: Move even deeper through your emotions toward your deepest felt sense, and record all your feelings.

Step 8: (1) Examine your thoughts. Ask, “What am I telling myself?” (2) Ask, “Why am I feeling this way?” (Realize that there is a strong possibility that the reason you feel as you do is that you are taking the situation personally.)

Step 9: Ask, “In the list of strongholds, what is the faulty thinking regarding my security and my worth as a person that causes me to take this situation so personally?” Once you have detected the faulty thinking, how can it be rejected and corrected?

Step 10: First, forgive anyone who may have created the situation, and thank God you that you can learn and grow as a result of it. Second, now that you have detected the basic fallacy in your thinking regarding the problem situation, reject the fallacy. See your textbook for the “how to”.

  1. List at least two specific scriptures that are especially meaningful to you that can be used to reprogram and renew your mind.
  2. Paper requirements.
  • Written in paragraph (narrative form), covering all of the above.
  • 5-7 full pages >1″ margin, top, bottom, left, right.
  • Times New Roman, 12 point font.
  • Double Spaced
  • Cover Sheet, must meet APA style standards. (See the library or internet if you are unfamiliar with this style.)

 

Question 24:     Health Care

 

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

 

Question 25:     Science

 

Instruction

Topic: The Effect of COVID-19 on the Climate Elaborate on the topic, describe and give insights. Please follow the Rubic structure when writing the paper. Please be creative!

 

Question 26:     Business Management

 

Write a small paragraph about one particular company that used business risk plan that made them overcome business threat or risk. It has to a real example and how they did overcome it

 

Question 27:     History    

 

Instructions: – Your response should be in essay format. Write as much as possible telling me who, what, why, where, and how. Use complete sentences and multiple paragraphs (3 – 5) . 1. Discuss the experiences of Mexican and Mexican Americans during the Great Depression. What was so unique about their experiences and how did they compare to other ethno racial groups throughout the country? What did the federal government do specifically to this community and? What was the purpose of the government’s action? Be detailed and provide examples 2. Describe the Mexican Revolution of 1910. Who were the leaders of the revolutionary groups and who were they opposing? What was the cause or causes of this war? What was the position regarding this conflict? What was the outcome of this war and what did that mean for the relationship between the and Mexico? Provide details and list examples to supplement your response.

 

Question 28:              Psychology

 

Chapters 11, 3, 4, 5

Chapter 11

  1. With which of Maslow’s claims do contemporary researchers find fault?

 

  1. Which of the following behaviors is explained by set-point theory?

a

  1. What does research on the effects of testosterone on sexual desire reveal?

 

  1. Callie was excellent at darts, so when she challenged her friend Erik to a game, she gave

him the opportunity to pick how far a    way he stood from the dartboard. Consider the

study by Atkinson and Litwin (1960) described in the text in which people high and low

in the need to achieve and to avoid failure got to stand wherever they wanted relative to

a target. If Erik was high in the need to achieve and low in the need to avoid failure,

where would he choose to stand?

 

  1. Imagine you wanted to motivate your younger brother to do a good job keeping his

room tidy. One way to do so might be to increase his sense of autonomy. Which of the

following could help you achieve that end?

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  1. According to research described in the text, which of the following statements is false?

 

  1. Which of the following words is most synonymous with ​personal agency​?

 

  1. Considering the specificity, level of challenge, and proximity of the following goal

statements, which would be most motivating?

 

  1. You’ve just failed a math exam. Considering Carol Dweck’s research on mindsets, which

of the following thoughts could keep you from becoming discouraged about your future

math performance?

  1. Which of the following is true of autonomy?

 

  1. Sophia and Bella joined the local orchestra and had their first performance. During

practice, they performed equally well, but on the day of the show, Bella made several

mistakes, whereas Sophia played better than she ever had. Considering Zajonc’s work

on social facilitation, which of the following could best explain this difference?

 

  1. According to research described in the text, what do grades measure?
  2. Which of the following motives and motivational orientations is categorized as an

approach motivation?

 

 

  1. What is the key function of the behavioral inhibition system?

 

  1. Cocaine increases the activity of which of the following chemicals in the reward center of

the brain?

 

Chapter 3

  1. The hippocampus of London taxi drivers is larger than that of the average driver. What

feature of the brain does this best illustrate?

 

  1. The effects of Phineas Gage’s accident on his intellect and personality illustrated which

of the following about the brain?

  1. Which part of MacLean’s triune brain is responsible for regulating bodily functions

critical to survival?

 

  1. Damage to which of the following areas would cause your movements to become

uncoordinated, even clumsy?

 

  1. Of the following, which structure of the limbic system would be most active if you were

to walk into your most challenging class and notice students clearing their desks, as if

preparing to take a test (one for which you aren’t prepared!)?

 

  1. On which of the following properties of the body does fMRI capitalize to produce

images?

 

  1. Damage to which of the following lobes would make it difficult for you to touch your

finger to your nose with your eyes closed?

  1. The rich interconnections between _____ lobes and other areas of the brain enable us to

possess uniquely human capabilities, including the ability to think about ourselves and

consider how others view us.

  1. This area of the frontal lobes enables you to concentrate on taking this self-test, while

simultaneously blocking out irrelevant stimuli.

 

  1. That we’re able to coordinate complex activities is due largely to the fact that the brain is

 

  1. Which of the following was ​not​a finding in research comparing brain activation among

English and Chinese speakers doing arithmetic?

 

  1. Which particular structure of the neuron can be as long as a meter (a little over 3 feet),

allowing neurons to send information across relatively long distances?

 

  1. The incredible speed with which action potentials are able to rush down the length of an

axon is enhanced by which of the following structures?

  1. When used by neurons in the spinal cord, this neurotransmitter controls muscles, and

when used by neurons in the brain, it regulates memory.

  1. Unexplained weight gain would most likely be related to a decrease in the functioning of

which of the following glands?

 

Chapter 4

  1. Research by Turkheimer and colleagues (2003) indicated that genes had a small

influence on intelligence in poor environments but a large effect in high-SES

environments. What does this suggest about the relative effects of nurture and nature?

  1. Among cultures that encourage the drinking of milk, nature selects for the gene that

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enables members of that culture to digest lactose. Among cultures for which milk is not

important, few people possess this gene. These facts support which of the following

ideas about the relation between biology and culture?

  1. Which of the following traits is likely to be the most heritable?
  2. If the only difference between MZ and DZ twin pairs is their genetic similarity, then the

difference in the degree to which the two twin types resemble each other

psychologically must be caused by

  1. Based on research by Bouchard and colleagues (1990) on the psychological similarity of

twins raised apart, we would estimate that the correlation for twins raised apart on the

trait of conscientiousness would be approximately

  1. Based on twin studies, we know that the heritability of personality traits is not 1.00. This

leaves room for what other kind of influences?

 

  1. Heritability studies indicate that variations in genes do account, in part, for variations in

personality. Which of the following would be reasonable to conclude based on this

finding?

  1. Using the metaphor of books to describe your body’s cells, what part of the book

represents DNA?

  1. In molecular genetic methods, sometimes researchers know exactly what allele they are

interested in. At other times, they conduct a(n) ________ to identify the genetic basis of a

behavior of interest.

  1. Recent advances in molecular genetic analyses of monozygotic twins indicate that

identical twins

  1. The process of natural selection isincompatible​with which of the following ideas? ​
  2. Which of the following patterns of preferences for mates should we expect to observe,

according to evolutionary psychologists?

  1. Which of the following wouldnot​be supportive of the mental-modules hypothesis? ​
  2. In an interesting illustration of culture’s influence on biology, researchers found that

among people living in the Caucasus Mountains, there was little genetic diversity

because of the

  1. Although shared family environments account for none of the variability in sexual

orientation, one theory is that variations in which of the following types of environment

may be influential?

 

 

Question 29:              Linguistics

 

  1. Phonetics is one of the linguistic subfields dealing with human speech sounds; it isconcentrated on what three aspects of speech sounds?

 

 

  1. a) How they are articulated, how they pattern, and how humans hear them
  2. b) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how humans perceive them
  3. c) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how they pattern
  4. d) None of the above

 

 

  1. What aspect of articulation is responsible for voice (for sounds that are voiced)?

 

 

a)The tongue, specifically, the tongue dorsum

  1. b) The tongue, specifically, the tongue tip
  2. c) The tongue, specifically the tongue blade
  3. d) The pharynx
  4. c) The vocal folds
  5. d) both (a) and (c)
  6. e) Both (c) and (d)
  7. f) None of the above

 

  1. Which of the following English sounds are voiced?

a.[s] and [t]

b.[k] and [f]

c.[m] and [v]

d.[j] and [g]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (c) and (d)

 

  1. Which of the following contains only sounds that are made with the tongue dorsum (i.e., the back of the tongue)?

a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following contains only sounds that are made at the velar place of articulation?

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a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “bid” and “bed” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “Luke” and “look” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

 

  1. The articulatory difference between the vowels in “beat” and “boot” is that

 

 

  1. a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
  2. b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
  3. c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
  4. d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
  5. e) both (a) and (b)
  6. f) both (b) and (c)
  7. g) none of the above

 

 

 

  1. Phonology is another linguistic subfield that deals with human speech sounds; it is concentrated on aspect of speech sounds?

 

 

  1. a) How they are articulated
  2. b) Their physical properties
  3. c) Their perception by human listeners
  4. d) Their patterning
  5. e) None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following are minimal pairs?

a.“boot” and “beat”

b.“cash” and “dash”

c.“crawl” and “drawl”

d.“treat” and “dream”

e.“tip” and “tips”

f.“go” and “went”

 

g.“fish” and “fishing”

h.both (a) and (b)

i.both (b) and (c)

j.(a), (b), and (c)

k.(e), (f), and (g)

l.None of the above

 

 

  1. Which of the following words contains a consonant cluster?

 

 

  1. a) “traps”
  2. b) “tea”
  3. c) “bowl”
  4. d) “though”

 

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fish” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

  1. None of the above

 

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fishing” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

  1. None of the above

 

  1. How many morphemes does the word “fishcakes” contain?

 

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

e.None of the above

 

 

  1. The word “fishcake” is an example of what word formation process?

 

 

  1. a) blending
  2. b) coinage
  3. c) compounding
  4. d) clipping
  5. e) backformation
  6. f) None of the above

 

  1. Describe why the sentence “I saw the man with a telescope” is ambiguous, and say what the two possible meanings are.

 

 

 

  1. Describe why “acquisition” is a better term than “learning” to describe the development of language in a child.

 

 

 

  1. Watch the 55-minute documentary “The Human Language Series: Acquiring Language”. Then, discuss what is meant when linguists say that language is“innate”. This understanding of the nature of human language started with Noam Chomsky in the 1950s, and it is now central to all of linguistics.

 

Your response should be at least 100 words. You can find the video on YouTube here:

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j_KlekPZZ6k

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Question 30:     Other

 

Full 10-page criminology paper based on rational theory and how it affects the location, Chicago. Crimes, prevention, solutions, and etc.

 

Question 31: Other

 

Directions:

  1. Using this document, please insert your name in the space above.

 

  1. The midterm will consist of 2 essays and 1 long answer question. You will have a choice of 2 questions for each of the 2 essays. Your answers must be based on material from the course readings, so please make sure to reference your readings when applicable. Your midterm is designed to measure your understanding of the reading and your ability to work with the ideas presented by the authors in the response to the questions.

 

YOU MAY NOT CONSULT WITH ANYONE ABOUT ANY ASPECT OF THE EXAM. However, questions about clarity should be submitted via “Got Questions” on Blackboard. You may not consult web sources that are not part of the course materials while you are answering the exam.

 

  1. When you have completed your exam, please sign (electronically) the statement below that indicates that this is entirely your own work.

 

  1. Essay 1 (Length: 2 ½ to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Discuss the punitive criminal justice policies implemented at the end of the 20th century and their impact on the criminal justice system (including law enforcement, the courts, and corrections).

Or

    1.  Discuss the impact of public opinion, punitiveness, politics and the news media on the criminal justice system.

 

  1. Essay 2 (Length: 2 ½  to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Discuss the relationship between politics and criminal justice policy.

Or

    1. Select a controversial criminal justice issue and use the policy community framework to outline the participants, networks and relationships that will likely influence the policy-making process.

 

  1. The Long Answer (Length: 2 ½; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
    1. Briefly describe the first six stages of planned change (analyzing the problem, setting goals and objectives, designing the program, developing an action plan, monitoring program implementation and evaluating outcomes). What are the major questions we need to ask at each stage?

 

 

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Question 1: Health Care

DPH 655 Environmental Health Law Assignment
This is an individual assignment whereby you will identify a US law related to environmental health policy and explore its history and purpose. The paper should be 3 pages’ double spaced, 12 pt Times New Roman font, 1 inch margins. You should make sure your paper answers the questions below. Use professional voice. You should include scholarly citations in your paper (no Wikipedia, web MD, or the like). Answer the questions in paragraph form (do not simply list the questions and answer them).
1. What is the full name of the law?
2. What is the common name that the law is known by?
3. When was the law passed?
4. Describe any significant amendments.
5. What event or circumstances prompted the law’s passing?
6. What is the law’s impact on the environment? That is did it function as it was intended to?
7. In plain language, describe what the law does. Don’t get bogged down in the provisions and sections, highlight and summarize the main point of the law in your own words.
8. What is the state of the law today? Is it working as intended? Is it playing a key role in current environmental issues? Has it been involved in any interesting legal or policy battles? If so, describe that.
Use your own words. Cite references in APA style. Theowl@Purdue is a wonderful resource for proper APA citation. Papers will be analyzed for plagiarism through TurnItIn.
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Question 2: English

Norovirus in Vermont
PART I. OUTBREAK DETECTION

On the morning of February 5, the mother of a young child called the Vermont Department of Health (VDH) to report a possible foodborne outbreak. The woman’s child, age 5 years, and two neighborhood children, ages 7 and 10 years, had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea within 12 hours of each other. The child aged 5-years had become so sick that her mother had taken her to the emergency department at the local hospital.
The mother reported that her child initially complained of nausea around 10:00 a.m. on Monday, February 2. The nausea was followed by vomiting and multiple episodes of diarrhea. The child was unable to eat or drink anything without vomiting. Toward evening, the child became listless. The woman took the child to the emergency department where she was noted to be dehydrated and that she had a fever. Stool and blood specimens were collected, and the child was treated with intravenous fluids and released.
The mother called the emergency department the following day to receive the test results for her child. A nurse told her that preliminary stool culture results were “negative for the usual bacteria.”
The two neighborhood children had had similar symptoms (i.e., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever) but had not become as ill as the woman’s child. Their symptoms started a few hours earlier than her child’s. Both had returned to school the day after becoming ill.
The three children usually did not play together but had attended a birthday party on the morning of Sunday, February 1. The mother was concerned about homemade ice cream that was served at the party because she had heard it had been prepared using raw eggs.
After confirming the mother’s information with the emergency department physician, VDH staff called the mother who had organized the February 1 birthday party. The woman reported that her own child was well (except for a cold). Other parents had called her, however, saying that their children had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea.
The woman reported that her son’s birthday party had occurred at a private indoor swim club in Essex, Vermont, close to Burlington. Approximately 30 children and adults were in attendance. The children ranged in age from 5 to 10 years. Not all of the children attended the same school.
Cake, ice cream, and canned drinks had been served at the party. All refreshments had been commercially prepared. The ice cream had not contained raw eggs.
The majority of children had played in the pool at the swim club before presents were opened and cake and ice cream were served. Two children who later became ill had left the party before cake and ice cream were served to attend another birthday party.
The mother provided a list of party attendees, indicating which ones she knew had been ill, and their telephone numbers. She also provided the name and telephone number for the swim club manager.
PART II. HYPOTHESIS GENERATION
VDH investigators notified the district health department of the problem and then contacted the manager of the private swim club. The manager stated that he was dealing with a “problem” and refused to talk with health department investigators. He suggested that they leave their telephone number and he would call them back if he had time.
After VDH investigators stated the reason for their call and reassured the swim club manager that the health department needed to investigate the reported illnesses so that the source could be found and actions could be taken to prevent others from becoming ill, the manager spoke with investigators.
The manager had not heard about the illnesses associated with the February 1 birthday party, but had received reports of illness among other persons who had used the pool during the weekend. Rumors were circulating that participants in the infant-mother swim class (that last met on Saturday, January 31) were sick with “stomach flu.”

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The manager provided VDH investigators with the names and contact information for persons who had complained to him about being ill and for members of the infant-mother swim class.
VDH investigators, with the assistance of district health department staff, contacted households of persons who had visited the swim club and reported illness since January 27 to VDH, the mother organizing the February 1 birthday party, or the swim club manager. Investigators asked about specific symptoms, the date of illness onset, and the most recent date the ill person had visited the swim club.

On the basis of these calls, 21 persons were identified as having attended the swim club and having reported being ill (Table 1). Signs and symptoms included vomiting (90%), nausea (81%), abdominal cramps (67%), diarrhea (48%), fever (48%), and headache (43%). Symptoms began a median of 30 hours (range: 8−62 hours) after visiting the swim club.

During the calls, multiple parents, who had been at the pool on January 31 noted that the water in the pool had been cloudy. One parent had reported the pool’s condition to the lifeguard and was told that the cloudiness resulted from chemicals added to the water. The parent later saw another swim club staff member collecting water from the pool for testing. No one reported having seen a fecal incident or vomiting while they were at the pool.
On the basis of the initial findings, VDH investigators believed that the gastrointestinal illness was consistent with norovirus infection. They hypothesized that the virus was spread by exposure to the pool at the private swim club on Saturday, January 31, or Sunday, February 1. The district health department arranged collection of stool specimens from 10 patients for norovirus testing at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), using reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR).

PART III. ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES AND WATER QUALITY INVESTIGATION
On the afternoon of February 5, VDH environmental health investigators undertook a comprehensive evaluation of the private swim club associated with the gastroenteritis outbreak. Investigators met with the swim club manager, the pool operator, and staff on duty during the outbreak period.
The goal of the evaluation was to gain a thorough understanding of the design features of the swim club and its operations so that investigators could explore the suspected source of the outbreak and assess factors that might have contributed to its occurrence.

VDH environmental health investigators learned the following information about the swim club and its operations. The club actually had two indoor swimming pools: a smaller activity pool and a lap pool. The smaller activity pool had been used for the February 1 birthday party and the infant-mother swimming class. The club also had a hot tub, men’s and women’s locker rooms, a sauna, and a party room where food was served for private events (Figure 2).

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The lap pool, activity pool, and hot tub were situated close to each other (Figure 2). The men’s and women’s locker rooms were adjacent to the pools. Each locker room had a diaper-changing station. Hand-washing signs were posted throughout the club.

The swim club was popular for children’s parties because the activity pool had a slide. Swim classes were also held at the club; classes for children and infants-mothers were held in the activity pool. The club did not have a snack bar. Food for private parties was brought in by event organizers. Pool staff did not help prepare or distribute food for these special events.
Municipal public water was used to fill the pools. The water in the three pools circulated separately for treatment, moving first through a hair and lint strainer (where the larger debris in the water was removed) and then to a pump. From the pump, the water was forced through a rapid sand filter, where it was then disinfected. After disinfection, the water was heated and returned to the pool through a series of inlets in the pool wall.
Water recirculated continuously in all three pools. State law required turnover rates of 6 hours for the lap pool, 2 hours for the activity pool, and 1 hour for the hot tub. Flow meters measured the flow rate for filtration of the water from each pool.
Liquid sodium hypochlorite was used to disinfect the pools at the swim club. An automated disinfectant feeder was attached to the filtration system, helping to mix the disinfectant with the water. A device operating in conjunction with the disinfectant feeder automatically adjusted the pH of filtered and chlorinated water.
Pool operations at the private swim club were performed by lifeguards. However, they received no standardized training or certification in pool maintenance but took instructions from the pool operator who serviced the pool equipment and made decisions regarding water treatment. Staff reported that they tested the water from each pool twice daily; but no records of the results were maintained.

Because no records of water chemistry were maintained at the swim club, aquatic staff were asked to recall water conditions during the weekend and the quantity, time, and type of chemical solutions they had added to each pool. Staff were also asked about any unusual occurrences (e.g., fecal incidents, vomiting, or deviations from normal operating procedures).
On Friday, January 30, no abnormalities in pool water appearance were noted by staff, and testing of water from all three pools was reported as being “normal”. Staff had reported a marked cloudiness of the water in the activity pool on Saturday and that patrons had complained about the cloudiness. No action was taken, despite complaints from patrons concerning water quality, because the pool operator was off-duty.
The cloudiness of the activity pool persisted through Sunday morning, February 1. Chlorine and pH readings taken by staff at that time were “below acceptable standards.” The pool operator was called, and staff were instructed to superchlorinate the pool with several cups of 65% calcium hypochlorite granules.

On Monday morning, the pool operator returned to duty at the swim club and tested a water sample from the activity pool. The sample revealed a total chlorine of 1.5 parts per million (ppm), a free available chlorine of 0.5 ppm, and a pH of 6.8.

Upon his return to the swim club, the pool operator found a kink in the chemical feed pump tube that supplied sodium hypochlorite to the activity pool water. The kink was repaired and the pool was super chlorinated again Monday night (February 2). The pool operator reported that the chlorine and pH were within normal limits when tested Tuesday morning, February 3. These findings were confirmed by VDH investigators.

The swim club did not have standard operating procedures detailing how to respond to abnormal pool chemistries; how to handle water quality complaints; or how to respond to fecal incidents, vomiting, or problems when the pool operator was off-duty. Because aquatic staff turnover at the pool was high, the swim club manager believed that the pool operator should make decisions about pool problems on a case-by-case basis.

PART IV. EPIDEMIOLOGIC STUDY TO TEST THE HYPOTHESIS
After the environmental health assessment of the private swim club, VDH investigators conducted an epidemiologic study to confirm suspicions regarding the source of the outbreak and to identify risk factors for infection.
The swim club manager estimated that 250 persons had visited the club from Friday, January 30−Monday, February 2. Pool attendance records and contact information were available for swim club members. The club manager also provided contact names for group events held at the pool during this time period.
VDH investigators decided to undertake a cohort study because the outbreak was confined to a well-defined group of persons (i.e., those individuals who had visited the pool during January 30–February 2) and the exposure of interest was known. A cohort study also permitted investigators to identify all cases and calculate attack rates.
Investigators planned to contact swim club members who had been at the club during the outbreak period and persons who had attended the special events during that weekend. Each person (or his or her parent) was to be asked about recent gastrointestinal illnesses; onset of symptoms; specific swimming pool exposures; food and water consumption while at the swim club; use of locker rooms, showers, and toilets; and whether they witnessed anyone vomiting or any fecal incidents at the pool. A VDH epidemiologist developed a questionnaire to collect the information.

VDH and district health department staff members were trained to administer the questionnaire by telephone for the cohort study. Interviews were conducted during February 12−22. Information was collected for 189 (74%) of the 255 persons who had visited the swim club during the period of interest.
A case was defined as vomiting or diarrhea (i.e., three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period) in a person who had gone to the swim club during the outbreak period and who experienced symptoms within 72 hours of visiting the facility. Investigators calculated attack rates and relative risks for different exposures at the club and set a P value of 0.05 as the cut-off for statistical significance.
Fifty-two (33%) of the 160 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool met the case definition. Only one (4%) of the 28 persons who only used other parts of the facility (e.g., lap pool, hot tub, or locker rooms) met the case definition. Because of these findings, further analyses were restricted to the 157 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool and who provided investigators complete information.
Attack rates were 0% (0/21) for persons who used the activity pool on January 30; 57% (25/44) for persons who used the pool on January 31; 29% (22/75) for persons who used the pool on February 1; and 12% (2/17) for persons who used the pool on February 2. Six persons, including three who were ill, had exposures to the pool on multiple days. Attack rates also varied by other exposures in and around the activity pool (Table 2).

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In the cohort study, going into the activity pool at the private swim club was significantly associated with illness. Among persons who went into the activity pool, getting water in the mouth and getting splashed in the face were significantly associated with illness. Neither swimming (versus wading) nor using the slide was associated with illness.

Use of the locker rooms or showers at the swim club was not significantly associated with illness. However, eating and drinking at the swim club were significantly associated with illness.

Eating and drinking at the facility accounted for only 18 (35%) of the 52 cases of gastrointestinal illness. Furthermore, investigators noted that persons who ate and drank at the facility were largely limited to children attending the birthday party on the morning of February 1, when the water in the activity pool was highly suspect in terms of maintenance failures and contamination.

When analyses were stratified by date of exposure to the swim club, persons eating at the facility or drinking at the facility were at no greater risk for illness than other persons attending the club on the same day. In addition, multivariate logistic regression analysis identified the date of attendance at the facility and getting water in the mouth were the only factors significantly associated with illness. Investigators concluded that food and drinks were not independent risk factors for illness.

PART V. CONTROL AND PREVENTION MEASURES
The cohort study confirmed suspicions that the outbreak was spread by exposure to water in the activity pool at the private swim club and likely resulted from a fecal incident in the pool when the chlorinator was not functioning properly.

Five of 10 stool specimens collected from ill persons and submitted to CDC tested positive for norovirus by RT-PCR testing. The nucleotide sequences of the amplified RT-PCR products were identical, indicating a single contamination event at the activity pool.
The chlorinator was fixed and, at the time of the pool evaluation, pool chlorine and pH were consistent with recommended national standards.

VDH investigators believed that a lack of pool staff training, inadequate record-keeping, and lack of standard operating procedures contributed to the outbreak. Consequently, VDH investigators recommended that all pool staff at the club be trained in water testing and basic pool maintenance and that the pool operator remain onsite or be readily available for consultation during weekends, when pool usage was usually highest. Investigators also recommended that the club keep records of routine pool chemistries and pool maintenance.

In addition, investigators recommended that the swim club develop written standard operating procedures and emergency response plans detailing how water-quality complaints should be handled, the correct response, and lines of communication to the pool operator. In particular, VDH investigators recommended the development of a fecal incident response policy.

VDH investigators helped the swim club manager and pool operator develop a written policy for responding to fecal incidents. As part of the policy, staff were to document each fecal incident by recording the date and time of the event, whether it involved a formed or diarrheal stool, and the free chlorine levels and pH at the time the event was detected.

Pool management distributed the fecal incident response policy to all swim club staff and held special classes to review the approach to a fecal incident. New staff members received the policy and viewed a short video about the steps necessary to respond to a fecal incident.
After the investigation, members of the private swim club voiced concern about the adequacy of actions taken to prevent future waterborne outbreaks at the club. The club manager asked VDH staff to meet with interested club members.

EPILOGUE

The number of recreational water-associated outbreaks in the United States has increased substantially since 1978 when CDC first began collecting reports.3 The increase has been caused by outbreaks of gastroenteritis (Figure 3) and likely results from a combination of factors, including the emergence of chlorine-resistant pathogens (e.g., Cryptosporidium), increased participation in aquatic activities by the public, and an increased number and variety of aquatic venues.

Source: CDC Waterborne Disease and Outbreak Surveillance System
During 2005−2006, a total of 78 recreational water-associated outbreaks were reported in the United States, resulting in 4,412 cases of illness. Fifty-eight (74%) of the outbreaks occurred at treated water venues, resulting in 94% of the cases of illness.
As experienced in Vermont, problems contributing to outbreaks associated with treated recreational water in 2005-2006 include low disinfectant levels, inadequate water-quality monitoring, breakdowns of equipment and lengthy detection times, inadequately trained aquatic staff, and unclear chains of communication for resolving problems. Unfortunately, these problems are not limited to facilities associated with waterborne outbreaks. In a study of pool inspections at six sites across the United States, over half of all pools had at least one violation. Water-chemistry violations comprised 38.7% of total violations, followed by violations of the filtration and recirculation system (38.6%), and policy and management violations (22.7%). Approximately 8% of pools were closed immediately because of public health concerns.4

Prevention of outbreaks in treated recreational water venues is likely to be accomplished only through concerted efforts by pool operators, the public, and public health professionals.

• Pool operators should employ multiple mechanisms to prevent contamination of pools and transmission of pathogenic agents, including effective facility design and pool maintenance. Operators should implement diarrhea-exclusion policies and disinfection guidelines after fecal incidents. In addition, staff should be trained to perform pool operations, enforce policies, and educate young bathers and their parents about healthy swimming practices.

• The public should follow basic guidelines for healthy swimming. They should avoid swallowing water and stay out of the pool when they have diarrhea. Because fecal shedding of pathogens is common, bathers should use appropriate hygienic measures around pools (e.g., showering before swimming, taking children on frequent bathroom breaks, and changing diapers in the bathroom instead of at the poolside). Pool policies and design should support these efforts by the public. Increased public awareness of pool safety issues and action can promote better maintenance of pools by operators.

• Public health professionals should lead prevention efforts that include surveillance, health education, epidemiologic and laboratory studies, and environmental health research. Public health professionals should (1) require and improve training for pool inspectors, (2) update pool codes to stay current with changing pool designs and needs, and (3) lead efforts to educate aquatic staff and the public. They should also work with industry representatives in developing easier, more effective methods for treating pool water. In addition, because the majority of gastrointestinal illnesses can be spread by water, food, person-to-person contact, and animal-to-person contact, investigators should keep an open mind when investigating such cases and consider all possible sources of transmission during the investigation of an outbreak.

Improved pool operator and public education combined with more effective methods of water treatment should increase swimming safety and reduce the risk for waterborne diseases associated with recreational water facilities.

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REFERENCES
1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). An outbreak of norovirus gastroenteritis at a swimming club—Vermont, 2004. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2004; 53:793−5. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5334a5.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

2. Podewils LJ, Blevins L, Hagenbuch M, et al. Outbreak of norovirus illness associated with a swimming pool. Epidemiol Infect 2007; 135:827−33.

3. Yoder JS, Hlavsa M, Craun GF, et al. Surveillance for waterborne disease and outbreaks associated with recreational water use and other aquatic facility-associated health events—United States, 2005–2006. MMWR Surveill Sum 2008;57(No. SS-09);1−29. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/ss5709a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

4. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Surveillance data from swimming pool inspections—selected states and counties, United States, May−September 2002. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2003; 52:513−16. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5222a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.
1. Describe the event.
2. Which individuals experienced the event?
3. When did they experience the event?
4. Where are the individuals who have experienced the event?
5. What environmental factors are associated with the event?
6. Given the differences in resources, how well were available resources used?
7. Evaluate the process; describe how you would have done things differently given the location, resources, and particular event.
8. Going forward, what screening mechanisms should be put in place to detect these conditions early?

Question 3: English

Instruction
To begin this assignment, you will examine the case study, “Missed Pickup Means a Missed Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship,” provided in this week’s resources. Then, to complete this Assignment, review the Learning Resources below, and respond to the following bullets in a 3- to 5-page paper, which will include 2 Appendices. Begin your paper with an introduction and then provide a summary of the case study (Missed Pickup). Prepare a needs assessment to analyze both employees’ skill levels identified in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, prepare an analysis of what should have happened, and what actually did happen, in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, evaluate the appropriateness among possible choices of action (strategies), including discipline, development, improvement, or termination for the two employees. As a Human Resources professional, create a performance improvement plan for each employee that outlines the following: Expected behaviors; Metrics for improvement; Required action steps; Consequences for not meeting the plan’s expected outcomes; Their manager’s role. Prepare instructions for the manager on how to conduct a meeting with each employee about improvements and consequences. Your Assignment must include 3–5 references to support your thinking. USE THE TEMPLATE BELOW, MUST USE SUPPORTING EVIDENCE, USE RESOURCES BELOW https://www.shrm.org/ResourcesAndTools/hr-topics/employee-relations/Pages/performance-improvement-plans.aspx https://www.thebalancecareers.com/performance-improvement-plan-contents-and-sample-form-1918850

U.S.
Missed Pickup Means a Missed
Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship
By DEAN E. MURPHY FEB. 5, 2004
A missed courier pickup, an honest clerk and an unyielding federal bureaucracy have conspired to deny 30 college students here the chance to compete for a prestigious Fulbright research grant.
”It seems surreal to me,” said Mary Ann Mason, dean of the graduate division at the University of California, Berkeley. ”It is an unnecessary, foolish, tragic incident.”
The students, all enrolled in doctoral studies, got the news on Tuesday night from the university’s chancellor, Robert M. Berdahl, that their applications were disqualified because they were late. Dr. Berdahl had earlier flown to Washington in a failed bid to persuade education officials in the Bush administration to change their minds.
”For these students to lose out on the opportunity to compete for the Fulbright award in this way is outrageous,” Dr. Berdahl said. ”No one could have imagined the Department of Education could have reacted the way it did.”
The department, which administers the Fulbright-Hays Doctoral Dissertation Research Abroad Fellowship Program, rejected the applications because they were not mailed by the Oct. 20 deadline, according to a letter to Dr. Berdahl from Sally L.
Stroup, an assistant secretary of education.
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On that day, the applications were in an envelope at the university’s Sproul Hall for pickup by Federal Express. But the courier did not come until the next morning because of a ”software glitch,” said Sandra Munoz, a FedEx spokeswoman.
The company provided the university with two letters acknowledging the mix-up and accepting blame for the late delivery. It also backdated the shipment’s air bill to reflect the intended Oct. 20 pickup date.
”We realize how serious this is, and the inconvenience we are causing everyone,” Ms. Munoz said. ”We certainly apologize.”
Late in the day on Oct. 20, an employee with the university’s graduate division sent an explanation by e-mail to the Education Department, which told the university to send the applications with the explanation from FedEx, university officials said.
For months, the university officials assumed the problem had been worked out. But the e-mail exchange, Dr. Mason said, came back to haunt them. It was cited last month by lawyers for the department as grounds for rejecting the applications, she said. Since the air bill had been backdated, the correspondence was apparently the only evidence that the applications had not been sent on time.
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”The final terrible remark of the lawyers was, ‘If you hadn’t e-mailed Washington, we would have let it go because we wouldn’t have known there was a problem,’ ” Dr. Mason said.
The implicit message, she said, was, ”Honesty is not the best policy.”
A spokeswoman for the Department of Education did not respond to several telephone messages seeking comment. In a statement released Wednesday, Assistant Secretary Stroup defended the decision.
”Although we are very sorry for UC Berkeley’s graduate students who had hopes of Fulbright-Hays doctoral fellowships, the facts are indisputable: UC Berkeley was negligent in failing to mail its application on time, despite the fact that for years the
university has applied for this program each fall,” she said.
”When it became apparent that Federal Express would not arrive in time, a simple trip to the post office would have ensured that the university’s application met the deadline,” she said. ”Sixty other institutions met the application deadline.”
Last year, 15 of the 30 applicants from Berkeley were awarded Fulbright fellowships, ranging from $20,000 to $64,000.
In retrospect, the officials said, it would have been prudent to take the package to a nearby FedEx office or the post office, but no one had envisioned a delivery error would have such consequences. Now, officials are looking to FedEx to bring about some sort of happy ending.
Dr. Mason said lawyers for the university were ”talking with FedEx about sharing some responsibility.” She said one idea was that FedEx would provide some doctoral research grant money.
Ms. Munoz said FedEx was eager to resolve the situation.
”Obviously,” she said, ”our goal is always 100 percent customer satisfaction.”
Jason Seawright, one of the applicants, said that while he would appreciate any help, it would be hard for any other grant to match the résumé-building force of a Fulbright.
”In addition to the money, this is something that opens doors in your career,” he said. ”Right, I’ll put that on my résumé: the FedEx fellowship.”
© 2016 The New York Times Company

Title of Your Paper, Centered, and Using Both Upper and Lowercase Letters
Your Name Here
Walden University

Instructor’s Name
Course Title and Number
Date:

Center the Title of Your Paper Here
Please regard this APA document as providing a template for most of your written paper assignments. If you read this essay carefully and print a copy for your use, it will be a great help as you create your assignments. We ask you to write most of your written paper assignments in with opening and closing paragraphs, a clear purpose that is accomplished in the course of the essay, and logically organized paragraphs that develop your ideas. Please notice what this introductory paragraph accomplishes. As you construct your introductory paragraph, remember to engage the reader and to express the purpose you hope to fulfill in the paper. In addition, the introduction may offer a roadmap or a plan for the paper as a whole.
This template generally follows APA formatting, but there are exceptions. A number of features appropriate for a long manuscript or for a dissertation are not necessary for relatively brief assignments. For example, you do not need an abstract for every assignment.
Throughout your paper, consider the way a paragraph looks on the page. The indentation and length of a paragraph convey a message to the reader, suggesting a brief or extensively developed unity of an idea. Two naturally emphatic places in any paragraph are the opening sentence and the closing sentence. Take advantage of these positions in a paragraph; use them for emphasis and for guiding your reader.
The opening sentence of any paragraph provides a natural opportunity to direct the reader from one idea to another. The sentence may function as a combination topic and transition device, suggesting to the reader where this particular section is headed. You may also use single words or phrases to connect your ideas to one another. Think of transitional expressions such as the following as glue or signposts: also, in addition, moreover, therefore, similarly, in contrast, although, or however. (You will find many more transitional expressions and the punctuation they require in any grammar book or on the Walden Writing Center website). It is your responsibility to demonstrate for the reader the relationship between one idea and another so that the reader never has to guess at the logical organization of your ideas.
Another way that you might wish to indicate organization to your reader is the use of headings. However, in your written paper assignments, no headings are required. If your paper exceeds five pages, or if you think that headings will help to convey the organization and clarity of a particularly complex paper, consult the Walden Writing Center for the correct formatting of the various levels of headings. Remember that headings alone will not accomplish what your writing should accomplish. In other words, your heading may announce “Conclusion,” but if a number of paragraphs introducing new ideas follow that heading, it is rather like a false advertisement and will confuse the reader.
Because this is a graduate program, your writing is expected to reflect Standard Edited English. That is, it is to be grammatically correct, formal, written English intended for silent reading. We do not usually speak in (or listen to) Standard Edited English; in our oral dialect, we naturally use contractions, slang, repetition, and all kinds of interpersonal oral signals to one another. In a rather formal writing context, however, none of those elements of speech are particularly useful or appropriate. In particular, APA style does not allow for the use of contractions (e.g., write it is instead of it’s) or informal slang (e.g., use learners or students instead of kids). Admittedly, the writing that you are submitting for a grade in your master’s courses is more formal than that to which you may be accustomed. Take the time to read your writing aloud; to consult a grammar source regarding some stylistic elements you might have forgotten over the years; to avoid contractions and the use of underlining; and to be sure that your sentences are clear to your reader. Write in your authentic voice but in your most intelligent and interesting voice as well. Imagine what questions your reader might ask you, and then provide your reader with well-developed, detailed, specific ideas rather than vague generalizations.
One essential way to develop your ideas is to ground them in the course materials you have been reading or in additional sources that you discover in the course of your studies. When you refer to the author of a required reading or to a statement by an expert on a video, you are offering a context for your idea that stems from the published research by experts in your field. Conversely, if your thinking remains vague and general and you do not ground your ideas in published references, your ideas are likely to be underdeveloped. Let your readers know that you have read (or viewed) and learned from the writings of education experts by either paraphrasing their ideas or quoting their language and following either the quote or a paraphrase with an in-text citation. For example, if you wanted to quote an extensive passage from Gardner’s The Unschooled Mind, the block quotation format as outlined would be:
We are able to know the world through language, logical-mathematical analysis, special representation, musical thinking, the use of the body to solve problems or to make things, an understanding of other individuals, and an understanding of ourselves. Where individuals differ is in the strength of these intelligences—the so-called profile of intelligences—and in the ways in which such intelligences are invoked and combined to carry out different tasks, solve diverse problems, and progress in various domains. (Gardner, 2004, p. 12)
Note that the block quotation as shown above is double-spaced. When you end your quotation, make sure the next paragraph transitions from that information so your reader can follow you. You might additionally want to include other theorists’ ideas to substantiate the above information. You can insert shorter quotations (fewer than 40 words) by using the format in the following sentence: Knowles (1998), an authority on adult learning theory, most likely described (use past tense for reporting research) adults as “motivated to learn to the extent that they perceive that learning will help them perform tasks or deal with problems that they confront in their life situations” (p. 67). The reader may be so intrigued with this allusion to Knowles’s idea that he or she may wish to follow up by consulting the same reference.
Note that if you are citing information from Laureate multimedia files, you will cite as (Laureate Education, 2016). The year may change depending on the multimedia file. The complete bibliographic information for the cited reference is available in the reference list for your reader to further investigate if he or she chooses. Full guidelines for citing Laureate multimedia files in current APA format appear on the Writing Center website at http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm. It is important to know that APA formatting does not support quoting directly from multimedia files. If you use any multimedia as support for your thinking, you must paraphrase and include the cited reference.
A third option open to you is to cite a fellow student’s discussion posting or other shared course work in your assignments to substantiate your own perspective. Citing other students is a way to use all resources available to you, and it demonstrates your willingness to give credit to your online colleagues. For example, in a critical analysis of a source, you might remark that a fellow student named Alex Jones identified an author’s study as “interesting but lacking in practical application to the classroom” (Jones, 2012) to indicate how your views harmonized with those of other classmates. Information on how to cite discussion posts and other more unique references in APA are found at the Writing Center’s citations web page.
Now, glance back over this essay to note that it is a well-developed piece of writing and not merely a five-paragraph, perfunctory essay. Notice the transitional expressions that allow your mind to move smoothly from one idea to the next. Not all paragraphs are the same length, suggesting that the author is able to develop ideas in various ways. Try to determine what single topic unifies each paragraph. Ask yourself, “What question does this paragraph attempt to answer?” All sentences do not look or sound alike either: Some are brief and direct, while others are more complex and flowing. With practice and a bit of extra time, you can create an assignment that not only looks professional but also conveys your ideas powerfully and earns you the grade you seek.
Some program tools can assist you in creating documents with a professional appearance. The MS Word Troubleshooting site can be a helpful resource. If you have Office 365, go to Tools and then Spelling and Grammar down at the bottom of the box. Alternatively, you may use another resource to check your documents by going to Review and then select Spelling and Grammar. When a green squiggle line (indicating potential grammatical error) or a red squiggle line (indicating potential spelling error) appears, right click on the line and you will get a message about the possible error. However, remember that this is just a computer program and therefore not as wise as the judgment of the author who has consulted a grammar or usage dictionary. You might also consider using Grammar, a more comprehensive, free grammar revision tool available through the Walden Writing Center website.
Finally, just before submitting your work to your faculty member, ask yourself, “Have I fully addressed the complete assignment?” Then in your concluding paragraph, end your essay, rather like the last gesture of tying the ribbon on a present. Some writers close an essay with a concise summary of key ideas because there is no need for unnecessary repetition in a brief essay as in the following sentence. In this essay, we have identified, modeled, and directed you to the key requirements. Others like to offer an idea that takes the reader beyond the implications of this particular treatment of the topic. However, you choose to close your essay, do close the door firmly, thereby giving the reader a satisfying sense of completion.
References
Note: For additional information regarding APA formatting, consult

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http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Fisher, D. (2004). Setting the “opportunity to read” standard: Resuscitating the SSR program in an urban high school. Journal of Adolescent and Adult Literacy, 48, 138-150. doi:10.1598/JAAL.48.2.5 When a DOI is available for documents you retrieve from a library database, such as EBSCOHost or ProQuest, use the DOI. Often, the DOI is printed directly on the first page of the article. Never use the URL from the library database because it is a password-protected site.
Frey, N., & Allen, A. (2008). Retelling informational text to improve reports of information. The California Reader, 41(2), 12-15. Retrieved from http://www.californiareads.org/california_reader.htm When no DOI is available, use the home page of the journal and “retrieved from” even though you obtained the article from a database (e.g., ProQuest) or other electronic source. You may need to use a search engine (e.g., Google or Yahoo) to find the homepage. If you used a copy on paper, there is no need to include a DOI or journal homepage.
Gardner, H. (1999). Intelligence reframed: Multiple intelligences for the 21st century. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Gardner, H. (2004). The unschooled mind: How children think and how schools should teach. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Knowles, M. (1998). The adult learner. Woburn, MA: Butterworth-Heinemann.
Swan, D. (2006, September 22). Learning styles. Message posted to EDUC 6610 discussion board, Week 3.

Appendix: Guidelines for Formatting Multimedia Files

Note: Walden’s guidelines for citing multimedia files can be found here:
http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Across the courses, the in-text citation is (Laureate Education, date)
Note: The publishing date for multimedia files are found in the Course Syllabus under Course Materials. This is the date you will use in the in-text citation and in the reference entry.

1. If you are using the Multimedia file, the correct formatting is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (2015). Voices from the field: The 21st century
[Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author

Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.
2. How do you tell if the multimedia file is in a series or a single source?
Multimedia files that are part of a series will usually be listed as Part 1, Part 2, or Program 1, Program 2, etc. Some multimedia files are clearly labeled as being excerpts from a series.
3. If you are viewing the multimedia files in the Resource section of 6610, the correct reference entry is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (year). Name of program [Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD Author.
Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.

Note: Use the above for stand-alone multimedia that are (a), not part of a series and (b), are viewed via a media. The title of the multimedia file is in italics. In the case of a multimedia file that is part of a series, the individual program is not in italics, but the series title is italicized instead.

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Question 4: Business

conduct an Internet search on the following topics: “History of Hospitals” “Hospitals of the Early Christian Era” “Hospitals in the Renaissance” “Medieval Hospitals” “Health Care and Hospitals in the Twenty-first Century” Utilizing the above information, develop an outline that identify the key turning points in the historical development of the hospital concept, including the evolution of ethical and legal issues related to health care. The outline should be in the form of bulleted information – sentences or paragraphs are not needed. Then, consider and briefly explain the following in preparation of your outline: How the development of the hospital has been a difficult process, legally and ethically. How time and public enlightenment were necessary to overcome major barriers of ignorance and prejudice. Support your outline with a minimum of three scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-pages, not including title and reference pages

Question 5: Health Care

Write 12 pages, APA format and include a cover page, reference page, and any applicable tables or appendices. Research proposal should have a nursing theoretical foundation

Your research proposal must include the following sections: Background and rationale for the study Review of the relevant literature Design and methodology You must include the following components: Section One: Introduction The research proposal should: Start with a statement of the problem and objective for the study, which articulates the main objectives that the study desires to achieve. Include a description of the theoretical framework to be utilized and a rationale for choosing a framework. Describe the significance and relevance of the problem. Why is this particular study needed? How will findings contribute to the field of advanced practice nursing? Why is this research needed? Section Two: Literature Review The literature review should: Be a synthesis of the major concepts from recently published research findings. Be organized by themes and not just a report about what each author discovered in his or her research findings. Identify no fewer than six relevant research articles. Synthesize the literature in relation to where the study fits within the context of the proposed study. Section Three: Design and Methodology In this section, what is to be done, and who, what, how, and where are all to be included in your proposal. The methods should be relevant to the question that is to be answered as a result of the research study. There should be information included about the study design, the setting and sample, data collection methods, and data collection analysis procedures. Ethical considerations should also be addressed in this area. Limitations and a plan for communicating the research findings should also be included in this section. All critical elements of design and methods should be detailed, including: Definitions of the variables Identification of the population and sample Procedures for sampling Processes for obtaining consent to do the study Informed consent form to be given to research participants Data collection procedures A clearly stated method of data analysis An explanation on why your data analysis method is appropriate for your research Issues related to validity and reliability Ethical considerations (including plans for the protection of human subjects as appropriate)

Question 6: English

Write a 3-4 page extra credit essay of how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.

Digital Project: Food Culture
For this optional, extra credit assignment, you will be tasked with researching food and food culture via various digital channels and using your findings to carve out your own role in the world of digital food culture. The purpose of this assignment is for you to explore how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.
The assignment will be in 3 parts, each of which has its own point value (listed below).
Part 1: For the first part of this assignment, you will do what I like to call “light research” (i.e., informal, without need for MLA formatted citations) on food culture in digital media. In your research, you will spend some time looking through at least three of the following channels: food magazines (online), food blogs (websites), food “influencers” (Instagram, YouTube, etc.), and food television (Netflix, cable, etc.). Make a list of the shows, influencers, magazines, and/or blogs you come across, highlighting specific details about each. Consider making a list/chart/etc. to outline these similarities/differences you see.
Part 2: After you do your research, you will construct an explanation of your findings that is 1-2 pages in length (roughly 300-500 words). This will be a coherent response that utilizes complete sentences and appropriate academic language. Your response will detail what research you did and, more specifically, what factors stood out in your research. Such factors include but are not limited to: the similarities/differences in presentation, major themes, significant flaws, etc. You will, essentially, explain and expand upon the notes you took throughout the research portion (Part 1). Don’t forget to draw conclusions about what this all means!
Part 3: Finally, after you’ve (1) done your research and (2) drawn up conclusions about your research, you will (3) consider what role you play in all of this. In a short response of 100-150 words (a few sentences), you will identify the role you play in the realm of digital food culture. Are you a creator, viewer, or something else? Why/how? To what extent? Identify and explain why and how you play the role you do, and any other relevant details about your engagement with digital food culture.
Again, this is an optional, extra credit assignment. Adhere to the rules above, but have fun with it! Find below the point values for each portion of the assignment:
1. Part 1: 20 points possible
2. Part 2: 25 points possible
3. Part 3: 5 points possible
4. Total: 50 points possible
Question 7: Mathematics

Sample Final Exam 1 Part A
James is taking a computer science course. The mark breakdown is as follows:
• Midterm Exam 1 – 20% • Midterm Exam 2 – 30% • Final Exam – 50%
All exams are out of 100 marks. James received scores of 70 on Midterm Exam 1 and 60 on Midterm Exam 2. To receive a final grade of B+ in the course, a student requires a final grade of 75% or higher. What is the minimum score James must get on the final exam in order to receive a final grade of B+?
(A) 78 (B) 83 (C) 86 (D) 90 (E) 95
A researcher is studying how the height of children during early adolescence is affected by milk consumption. She plots the heights (in inches) and the milk consumption (in cups per day) for a sample of children and wants to fit a least squares regression line to the data. She calculates the following for this sample of children:
• The correlation between milk consumption and height is 0.4.
• The mean milk consumption is 4.0 cups per day.
• The mean height is 60.0 inches.
• The standard deviation of milk consumption is 1.5 cups per day. • The standard deviation of heights is 3.0 inches.
What is the predicted height of a child who consumes 5 cups of milk per day?
(A) 60.4 inches (B) 60.8 inches (C) 61.2 inches (D) 61.6 inches (E) 62.0 inches
3. A biologist is studying the mercury levels in fish from three different lakes in the area. She selects random samples of ten fish from each lake. The sample of 30 fish is a:
(A) stratified sample.
(B) simple random sample. (C) convenience sample. (D) multistage sample.
(E) systematic sample.
4. The head of the Department of Mathematics would like to determine whether student performance in an introductory math course differs depending on the professor of the course and the time of day the course is offered. Two math professors, Dr. Smith and Dr. Johnson, are each teaching two sections of the same introductory math course this semester. Dr. Smith teaches sections A01 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A03 (at 1:30 p.m.) and Dr. Johnson teaches sections A02 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A04 (at 1:30 p.m.). At the end of the semester, the department head will compare the average grades of the students in the four sections.
This is an example of:
(A) a completely randomized design with four treatments.
(B) a randomized block design with two blocks and two treatments. (C) a randomized block design with four blocks and four treatments. (D) a matched pairs design with two treatments.
(E) an observational study.
2

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The next two questions (5 and 6) refer to the following:
The following five games are scheduled to be played at the World Curling Championships one morning. The values in parentheses are the probabilities of each team winning their respective game.
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3: Game 4: Game 5:
Finland (0.43) USA (0.28) Japan (0.11) Denmark (0.33) France (0.18)
vs. Germany (0.57) vs. Switzerland (0.72) vs. Canada (0.89)
vs. Sweden (0.67)
vs. Scotland (0.82)
The outcome of interest is the set of winners for each of the five games. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 25 (D) 32 (E) 64
In a sports game, the “favourite” is the team with the higher probability of winning and the “underdog” is the team that is less likely to win. What is the probability that at least one underdog wins their game?
(A) 0.93 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.67 (E) 0.59
The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Suppose we have the following facts about customers buying alcohol at the Liquor Mart:
• 55% buy wine (W).
• 40% buy beer (B).
• 22% buy wine and beer.
• 6% buy wine and vodka (V ).
• 5% buy beer and vodka.
• 50% buy beer or vodka.
• 2% buy wine and beer and vodka.
7. If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys vodka? (A) 0.10 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.19 (D) 0.25 (E) 0.28
3
8. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events W and B are independent.
(B) Events W and B are mutually exclusive. (C) Events W and V are independent.
(D) Events W and V are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and V are independent.
If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys only wine? (A) 0.14 (B) 0.17 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.29 (E) 0.34
In a random sample of 17 customers, what is the probability that exactly 10 of them buy wine?
(A) 0.1153 (B) 0.1367 (C) 0.1495 (D) 0.1629 (E) 0.1841
In a random sample of 300 customers, what is the approximate probability that less than 38% of them buy beer?
(A) 0.0808 (B) 0.1492 (C) 0.1736 (D) 0.2389 (E) 0.2929
In a particular election, 40% of voters voted for the NDP, 35% voted for the Liberals and 25% voted for the Conservatives. If we take a random sample of two voters, what is the probability that they voted for different parties?
(A) 0.765 (B) 0.345 (C) 0.525 (D) 0.655 (E) 0.485
There are four patients on the neonatal ward of a local hospital who are monitored by two nurses. Suppose the probability (at any one time) of a patient requiring attention by a nurse is 0.3. Assuming the patients behave independently, what is the probability at any one time that there will not be enough nurses to attend to all patients who need them? (i.e., what is the probability that at least three patients require attention at the same time?)
(A) 0.0756 (B) 0.1104 (C) 0.0837 (D) 0.0463 (E) 0.2646
4
14. The yearly rainfall in Vancouver, B.C. follows a normal distribution with standard
deviation 172 mm. In 20% of years, the city gets over 1200 mm of rain. What is the mean annual rainfall in Vancouver (in mm)?
(A) 1055.5 (B) 1165.6 (C) 982.6 (D) 1344.5 (E) 1234.4 The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
The time X taken by a cashier in a grocery store express lane to complete a transaction follows a normal distribution with mean 90 seconds and standard deviation 20 seconds.
What is the first quartile of the distribution of X (in seconds)?
(A) 73.8 (B) 85.0 (C) 69.4 (D) 81.2 (E) 76.6
What is the probability that the average service time for the next three customers is between 80 and 100 seconds?
(A) 0.6156
(B) 0.4893
(C) 0.7212
(D) 0.5559
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
5
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
The amount X spent (in $) by customers in the grocery store express lane follows some
right-skewed distribution with mean $24 and standard deviation $15.
17. What is the probability that the average amount spent by the next three customers is more than $20?
(A) 0.4619
(B) 0.6772
(C) 0.8186
(D) 0.7673
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
What is the approximate probability that the next 40 customers spend less than $1,000 in total?
(A) 0.5199 (B) 0.6064 (C) 0.6628 (D) 0.5784 (E) 0.6331
An economist calculates that, in order to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $60 with 95% confidence, she requires a sample of 90 Canadians. What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $20 with 95% confidence?
(A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 156 (D) 270 (E) 810
The breaking strength of yarn used in the production of woven carpet material is normally distributed with standard deviation 2.4 psi. A random sample of 4 specimens of yarn from a production run is measured for breaking strength, and a confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (128.609, 134.191). What is the confidence level for this interval?
(A) 0.90 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.96 (D) 0.98 (E) 0.99
6
21. A variable X is described by a semi-circular density curve with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4, as shown below:
We take a simple random sample of 100 individuals from the semi-circular distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004. (B) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
(C) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4. (D) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004.
(E) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
22. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to examine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount spent on textbooks by U of M students in one semester is greater than $400. A random sample of 50 students is selected and the mean amount spent on textbooks for one semester is calculated to be $430. Assume the population standard deviation is known to be $165. What is the P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0985 (B) 0.0409 (C) 0.0764 (D) 0.1112 (E) 0.0630
7
23. A man accused of committing a crime is taking a polygraph (lie detector) test. The polygraph is essentially testing the hypotheses
H0: The man is telling the truth. vs. Ha: The man is lying.
Suppose we use a 5% level of significance. Based on the man’s responses to the questions
asked, the polygraph determines a P-value of 0.08. We conclude that:
(A) there is insufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (B) there is sufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (C) there is insufficient evidence that the man is lying.
(D) the probability that the man is lying is 0.08.
(E) the probability that the man is telling the truth is 0.08.
A statistician conducted a test of H0: μ = 10 vs. Ha: μ > 10 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. Based on the gathered data, the statistician calculated a sample mean of x ̄ = 12 and concluded that H0 could be rejected at the 5% level of significance. Using the same data, which of the following statements must be true?
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ>10atthe1%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=9vs. Ha: μ>9atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ̸=10atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II (E) II and III
A sample of 30 vehicles is outfitted with snow tires. The vehicles travel 80 km/h in winter driving conditions and apply the brakes. The sample mean and standard deviation of stopping distances for these 30 vehicles are calculated to be 162 metres and 35 metres, respectively. We would like to test whether the true mean stopping distance differs from 150 metres. At the 1% level of significance, we should:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.02 and 0.025.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05.
(D) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10.
8
The next two questions (26 and 27) refer to the following:
Researchers are studying the impact of alcohol consumption on a person’s ability to perform a simple task. Five subjects complete a small puzzle while sober, and then again after drinking three glasses of wine. The times (in seconds) are shown below, as well as some summary statistics:
Subject Sober (S) After Wine (AW)
1
2
3
4
5 mean 169.2 198.6
std. dev. 55.9 72.5
109 132 248 155 202 141 128 290 174 260
Diff.(d=S−AW) −32 4 −42 −19 −58 −29.4 23.5
Assume that all necessary normality conditions are satisfied. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean time to complete a puzzle is longer after consuming three glasses of wine.
26. What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0
(B) H0: μS =μAW vs.Ha: μS >μAW (C) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0
(D) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd >0
(E) H0: X ̄S = X ̄AW vs. Ha: X ̄S < X ̄AW
27. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
28. You want to estimate the proportion of Canadians who would support a merger of the federal NDP and Liberal parties to within 0.035 with 92% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 625 (B) 784 (C) 466 (D) 816 (E) 553
9
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Manitobans who are bilingual (fluent in two languages). We take a random sample of 200 Manitobans and find that 42 of them are bilingual. What is the margin of error for a 95% confidence interval for p?
(A) 0.0565 (B) 0.0353 (C) 0.0693 (D) 0.0288 (E) 0.0404
The Acme Car Company claims that less than 8% of its new cars have a manufacturing defect. A quality control inspector randomly selects 300 new cars and finds that 15 have a defect. He conducts a hypothesis test to examine the significance of the car company’s claim. What is the P-value of the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0359 (B) 0.0485 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0571 (E) 0.0274
10
Sample Final Exam 1 Part B
The shower flow rates (in L/min) for a sample of 30 houses are ordered and shown below:
2.2 2.8 3.8 4.2 4.6 5.0 5.7 6.0 6.2 6.2 6.5 6.5 6.7 6.8 7.0 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.4 7.6 7.7 7.9 8.0 8.1 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.8 11.4
(a) Find the five-number summary for this data set.
(b) Construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. Show any necessary calculations. What is the shape of the distribution, excluding outliers?
We would like to examine how the age X of a certain model of car affects its selling price Y . The age (in years) and price (in $) for a sample of 10 cars of the same make and model are recorded from the classified ads in the newspaper one weekend. The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 18, 600 − 1, 700x. It is also determined that 81% of the variation in a car’s price can be accounted for by its regression on age.
(a) Provide an interpretation of the slope of the least squares regression line in this example.
(b) What is the value of the correlation between age and price for these cars?
(c) One car in the sample is 5 years old and has a price of $15,500. Calculate the value of the residual for this car.
Three hats each contain ten coins. Hat 1 contains two gold coins, five silver coins and three copper coins. Hat 2 contains four gold coins and six silver coins. Hat 3 contains three gold coins and seven copper coins. We randomly select one coin from each hat.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the three selected coins. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of gold coins selected. Find the probability distribution of X.
State the Central Limit Theorem.
We take a random sample of 27 trees in a large forest and measure their heights. The sample mean is calculated to be 28.4 feet and the sample standard deviation is calculated to be 5.3 feet. Heights of trees in the forest are known to follow a normal distribution.
(a) Construct a 98% confidence interval for the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 2% level of significance to determine if there is evidence that the true mean height of all trees in the forest is less than 30 feet. Show all of your steps, including the hypotheses, test statistic, P-value and a properly- worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
12
Sample Final Exam 2 Part A
1. The receipt totals (rounded to the nearest dollar) for a sample of 25 customers in the express lane at a supermarket are ordered and shown below:
5 8 9 13 16 18 19 19 21 23 24 26 30 34 35 37 42 45 48 50 56 56 62 64 73
What is the interquartile range for this data set?
(A) 29 (B) 29.5 (C) 30.5 (D) 31 (E) 32
2. The table below displays the number of pass completions X and the number of passing yards Y for six Winnipeg Blue Bomber quarterbacks during the 2015 football season:
Quarterback 1 2 3 4 5 6
Completions 107 34 16 51 149 1 Passing Yards 1434 346 169 453 1757 6
The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = −53.51 + 12.53x. What is the value of the residual for Quarterback 5 (Matt Nichols)?
(A) −109.97 (B) −56.46 (C) −14.46 (D) 14.46 (E) 56.46
A farmer grows pumpkins, whose weights follow a normal distribution with mean 18 pounds and standard deviation 3 pounds. A supermarket will only buy those pumpkins that weigh between 15 and 25 pounds. What proportion of the farmer’s pumpkins will the supermarket buy?
(A) 0.7850 (B) 0.8314 (C) 0.8876 (D) 0.9772 (E) 0.9996
The yearly rainfall in Regina, Saskatchewan follows a normal distribution with mean 384 mm and standard deviation σ. In 10% of years, the city gets less than 320 mm of rain. What is the standard deviation of the amount of annual rainfall in Regina?
(A) 40mm (B) 50mm (C) 60mm (D) 70mm (E) 80mm
From past records, the professor of a large university course has established the following distribution of grades received by students in the course (with some values missing):
Grade A+ A B+ B C+ C D F Probability 0.08 0.17??? 0.13??? 0.22 0.09 0.07
A student requires a grade of C or better to pass the course. What is the probability that a randomly selected student passes the course?
(A) 0.76
(B) 0.62
(C) 0.84
(D) impossible to calculate without at least one of the missing probabilities (E) impossible to calculate without both of the missing probabilities
Over the last year, suppose it is known that 32% of Winnipeggers have been to a Jets hockey game, 25% of Winnipeggers have been to a Blue Bombers football game, and 63% of Winnipeggers have been to neither a Jets game nor a Bombers game. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipegger has been to both a Jets game and a Bombers game over the last year?
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.12 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.18 (E) 0.20
14
7. A recently married couple plans to have two children. The outcome of interest is the gender of each of the two children. Consider the event that exactly one of the couple’s children will be a boy. Which of the following is the complement of this event?
(A) two boys
(B) two girls
(C) one girl
(D) at least one girl (E) zero or two girls
The next three questions (8 to 10) refer to the following:
We have a small deck of ten cards. Five of the cards are red, three are blue and two are green. We randomly select four cards from the deck with replacement. That is, after we select a card and record the colour, we replace the card in the deck and thoroughly shuffle it before we select another card.
8. Let X be the number of blue cards that are selected. The distribution of X is:
(A) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.1. (B) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.3. (C) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.4. (D) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.3. (E) not binomial.
9. Let A be the event that the first selected card is the only red card in our four selections. Which of the following events is mutually exclusive of the event A?
(A) second card selected is blue
(B) no green cards are selected
(C) third selected card is the only green card
(D) same number of red and blue cards are selected (E) same number of blue and green cards are selected
10. Now suppose that, instead of selecting four cards, we repeatedly select cards with re- placement (replacing the card and shuffling the deck after each draw) until we draw a green card for the first time. What is the probability that we draw our first green card on the fifth draw?
(A) 0.0819 (B) 0.4096 (C) 0.1342 (D) 0.0554 (E) 0.1746
15
A backpacking party carries five emergency flares, each of which will light with a probability of 0.93. What is the probability that exactly four of the flares will light?
(A) 0.1271 (B) 0.0524 (C) 0.2947 (D) 0.2618 (E) 0.1835
Suppose it is known that 11% of students at a large university live in dorms. In a random sample of 500 students at the university, what is the approximate probability that at least 14% of them live in dorms?
(A) 0.0735 (B) 0.0418 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0028 (E) 0.0968
A variable X follows some left-skewed distribution with mean 100 and standard deviation 50. We take a random sample of 2,500 observations from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect the histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1. (B) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1.
(C) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50. (D) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50.
(E) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 0.02.
A manufacturer of automobile batteries claims that the distribution of battery lifetimes has a mean of 54 months and a variance of 36 months squared. A consumer group decides to check the claim by purchasing a sample of 50 of these batteries and subjecting them to tests to determine their lifetime. Assuming the manufacturer’s claim is true, what is the probability that the sample has a mean lifetime less than 52 months?
(A) 0.1292 (B) 0.3707 (C) 0.0091 (D) 0.4909 (E) 0.3483
A recycling plant compresses aluminum cans into bales. The weights of the bales are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 100 pounds standard deviation 8 pounds. What is the probability that a random sample of 64 bales has a mean weight between 99 and 101 pounds?
(A) 0.3413 (B) 0.4772 (C) 0.5561 (D) 0.6826 (E) 0.7485
16
16. We would like to estimate the value of the mean μ of some population. Ten statisticians each take a separate random sample of 100 individuals from the population, and each of them calculates a 90% confidence interval for μ. What is the probability that exactly eight of their confidence intervals will contain the value of μ?
(A) 0.1445
(B) 0.1937
(C) 0.2324
(D) 0.2891
(E) depends on the value of μ
We would like to construct a confidence interval to estimate the true mean systolic blood pressure of all healthy adults to within 4 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury). We have a sample of 25 adults available. Systolic blood pressures of healthy adults are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 8.6 mm Hg. What is the maximum confidence level that can be attained for our interval?
(A) 80% (B) 90% (C) 95% (D) 96% (E) 98%
Lumberintendedforbuildinghousesandotherstructuresmustbemonitoredforstrength. A random sample of 25 specimens of Southern Pine is selected, and the mean strength is calculated to be 3700 pounds per square inch. Strengths are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 500 pounds per square inch. An 85% confidence interval for the true mean strength of Southern Pine is:
(A) (3615, 3785) (B) (3671, 3729) (C) (3556, 3844) (D) (3544, 3856) (E) (3596, 3804)
17
The University of Manitoba uses thousands of fluorescent light bulbs each year. The brand of bulb it currently uses has a mean lifetime of 900 hours. A manufacturer claims that its new brand of bulbs, which cost the same as those the university currently uses, has a mean lifetime of more than 900 hours. It is known that the standard deviation of lifetimes of the new brand of bulb is 80 hours. The university has decided to purchase the new brand of bulb if a hypothesis test gives significant evidence supporting the manufacturer’s claim at the 3% level of significance. A random sample of 64 bulbs were tested and their mean lifetime was 920 hours. Based on these findings:
(A) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228. (B) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456. (C) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.9772. (D) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228.
(E) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456.
We would like to determine whether the true mean pH level of a lake differs from 7.0. Lake pH levels are known to follow a normal distribution. We select a sample of ten water specimens from random locations in the lake. The sample mean pH level is calculated to be 6.8. A 98% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (6.5, 7.1). Based on this confidence interval, our conclusion is to:
(A) fail to reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(B) fail to reject H0 at the 1% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(C) fail to reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(D) reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(E) reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
18
21. We select a random sample of ten oranges from trees grown in a large orchard. The standard deviation of the weights of these ten oranges is calculated to be 19 grams. Based on this sample, a confidence interval for the true mean weight of all oranges grown in the orchard is calculated to be (126.41, 153.59). What is the confidence level of this interval?
(A) 90% (B) 95% (C) 96% (D) 98% (E) 99%
The next two questions (22 and 23) refer to the following:
Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colourless and odourless gas. Even at low levels of exposure, carbon monoxide can cause serious health problems. A home is considered safe if the mean CO concentration is 4.8 parts per million (ppm) or lower. We take a random sample of eight readings in various locations of a home. These readings have a mean of 5.0 ppm and a standard deviation of 0.5 ppm. Assume that CO readings follow a normal distribution. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether the home is unsafe.
22. The P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test is:
(A) between 0.02 and 0.025. (B) between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) between 0.05 and 0.10. (D) between 0.10 and 0.15. (E) between 0.15 and 0.20.
23. We conclude that:
(A) there is proof that the home is safe.
(B) there is sufficient evidence that the home is safe.
(C) there is insufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (D) there is sufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (E) there is insufficient evidence that the home is safe.
19
24. The heights (in inches) of all 24 players on the Winnipeg Jets hockey team are ordered and shown below:
69 70 70 71 72 72 73 73 73 74 74 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 76 77 77 77 80
We would like to determine if the true mean height of Winnipeg Jets hockey players differs from 75 inches. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) We should conduct a z test, as it is reasonable to assume heights follow a normal distribution.
(B) We should conduct a t test, as we have no idea of the form of the distribution of heights.
(C) We should conduct a z test, as the sample size is fairly high, so X ̄ will have an approximate normal distribution.
(D) We should conduct a t test, as the population standard deviation is unknown.
(E) A hypothesis test is unnecessary in this situation.
The next three questions (25 to 27) refer to the following:
The high school and university GPAs for random samples of students from two
universities are shown below:
University A
Student 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 x ̄ s
High School (H) University (U) Diff. (d =H−U)
0.02
−0.66
0.06
0.17
0.74
0.19
3.87 0.26
3.70 0.44 0.67 0.17 0.47
3.76 3.64 4.15 4.07 4.20 3.56 3.71 3.74 4.30 4.09 3.90 3.46 3.37 3.04
University B
Student
High School (H) University (U)
Diff. (d = H−U) 0.58
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 x ̄ s 3.54 0.64 3.28 0.69 0.14 0.26 0.33
3.60 2.79 4.21 3.75 2.58 4.00 4.25 3.14 3.02 2.42 4.23 3.87 2.52 3.15 4.03 3.00
0.37
−0.02
−0.12
0.06
0.85
0.22
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25. We would like to construct a 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference μd in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A. Which of the following statements are true?
(I)
(II) (III)
(IV)
For any University A student, high school GPA and university GPA are independent.
For any two University A students, high school GPAs are independent.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that differences in high school GPA and university GPA follow a normal distribution.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that high school GPAs and university GPAs both follow normal distributions.
(A) I
(B) I
(C) II and III only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and III only
26. Refer to the previous question. Assuming the necessary normality conditions are satis- fied, the 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A is:
(A) (−0.12, 0.46) (B) (−0.47, 0.81) (C) (−0.03, 0.37) (D) (−0.26, 0.60) (E) (−0.38, 0.72)
27. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether high school GPAs differ on average from university GPAs for all students at University B. Assuming the proper normality conditions are satisfied, the P-value for the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
and III only and IV only
21
28. The North Dakota Department of Tourism is interested in estimating the true proportion p of Manitobans visit the state in any given year. What sample size is required in order to estimate p to within 0.06 with 95% confidence?
(A) 234 (B) 245 (C) 256 (D) 267 (E) 278
29. In a random sample of 1,000 university students, 837 of them say they have a Facebook account. A 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of all university students who have a Facebook account is:
(A) (0.818, 0.856) (B) (0.783, 0.891) (C) (0.829, 0.845) (D) (0.794, 0.880) (E) (0.806, 0.868)
30. In a random sample of 175 university students, 70 have student loans. We would like to test the claim that more than 30% of all university students have student loans. The test statistic for the appropriate test of significance is:
0.30 − 0.40 (A) (0.30) (0.70)
0.40 − 0.30 (D) (0.40) (0.60)
175 0.40 − 0.30
175 0.30 − 0.40
(B) (0.30) (0.70) 175
(E) (0.30) (0.40) 175
0.40 − 0.30
(C) (0.35) (0.65) 175
22
Sample Final Exam 2 Part B
1. A dentist would like to conduct an experiment to determine the effect of the brand of toothpaste (Crest or Colgate) and the type of toothbrush (regular or electric) his patients use on the health of their teeth. The dentist has 240 patients (80 children and 160 adults) who volunteer to participate in the experiment. The treatments will be randomly assigned to the subjects. The dentist believes the effect of the treatments will differ for children and adults, so she conducts a randomized block design.
(a) Identify the following in this experiment: i. factors
ii. factor levels
iii. treatments
iv. response variable
v. blocking variable
(b) How is control achieved in this experiment?
(c) Suppose at the end of the experiment that it is determined that subjects who used Crest toothpaste and an electric toothbrush had significantly healthier teeth than subjects in the other treatment groups. Can we conclude that the treatment was likely the cause?
2. The
probabilities that each team will win their respective game, as determined by odds- makers. Note that tied games are not possible. We will assume the outcome of one game is independent of any other.
Winnipeg Jets’ next three scheduled games are shown below, together with the
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3:
Winnipeg Jets (0.6) Winnipeg Jets (0.7) Winnipeg Jets (0.8)
vs. Pittsburgh Penguins (0.4) vs. Montreal Canadiens (0.3) vs. Buffalo Sabres (0.2)
(a) The outcome of interest is the set of winners of each of the three games. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of games the Winnipeg Jets win. Find the probability distribution of X.
3. The weights of adobe bricks used for construction follow a normal distribution with mean 5.0 pounds and standard deviation 0.2 pounds.
(a) Only 12% of bricks are heavier than what weight?
(b) We take a random sample of four bricks. Can you calculate the probability that the average weight of these four bricks is greater than 5.1 pounds? If so, calculate the probability. If not, explain why not.
(c) What is the probability that the total weight of a random sample of 50 bricks is less than 248 pounds?
(d) Is the probability you calculated in (c) exact or approximate? Explain.
4. A random sample of 20 students at a large university has a mean GPA of 3.12. GPAs at the university are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 0.47.
(a) Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean GPA of students at the university differs from 3.00. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
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Sample Final Exam 3 Part A
1. The five-number summary for the heights (in cm) of the players on a men’s hockey team is as follows:
162 174 176 181 194
The three goalies on the hockey team are Darren, who is 191 cm tall, Brandon, who is 165 cm tall, and Kyle, who is 193 cm tall. If an outlier boxplot for the heights of the hockey team was constructed, which of these players’ heights would be labelled as outliers?
(A) only Brandon
(B) only Kyle
(C) Darren and Kyle, but not Brandon (D) Brandon and Kyle, but not Darren (E) Darren, Brandon and Kyle
2. Researchers want to determine how the height of a mountain can help explain the temperature at the top of the mountain. The two variables were measured for a sample of mountains and the least squares regression line was calculated. It was also reported that 58% of the variation in temperature at the top of a mountain can be explained by its regression on the mountain’s height. What is the value of the correlation between the two variables?
(A) 0.76 (B) 0.58 (C) −0.34 (D) −0.76 (E) −0.58
3. How fast do icicles grow? Researchers measured the growth rate of icicles in a cold chamber subjected to different temperatures (−20◦C or −30◦C) and different wind speeds (30, or 40 km/h). What is/are the factor level(s) in this experiment?
(A) length of the icicles
(B) growth rate of the icicles
(C) temperature and wind speed
(D) −20◦C, −30◦C, 30 km/h, 40 km/h
(E) −20◦C/30 km/h, −20◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h
There are three coloured coins in a hat – one gold coin, one silver coin and one copper coin. You will randomly select coins from the hat, one at a time without replacement, until the gold coin is selected, and then you will stop. The outcome of interest is the sequence of colours that are selected during this process. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 9
Consider two events A and B. We know P(A) = 0.37 and P(A∪B) = 0.7354. If A and B are independent, then what is P(B)?
(A) 0.47 (B) 0.39 (C) 0.62 (D) 0.44 (E) 0.58
A six-sided die has faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Suppose the die is “loaded”, so that any particular even-numbered face is twice as likely to land face up as any particular odd-numbered face. If we roll this die once, what is the probability that the number showing is greater than 3?
(A)1 (B)2 (C)5 (D) 7 (E) 9 2 3 9 12 16
26
7. Two friends are playing a game of Rock, Paper, Scissors. To play this game, each player simultaneously and independently selects one of the three items. From prior experience, it is known that each of the two friends will select the items with the following probabilities:
Player Rock Paper Scissors Joe 0.4 0.2 0.4 Tom 0.5 0.2 0.3
In this game, rock beats scissors, scissors beats paper and paper beats rock. The two friends will play one game. What is the probability Joe wins against Tom?
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
8. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) If the probability of A is 0.6 and the probability of B is 0.5, then A and B cannot
be mutually exclusive.
(B) If the probability of A is 0.4 and the probability of B is 0.6, and if A and B are
independent, then P (A ∩ B) must be equal to 0.24.
(C) If P(A)=0.3,P(B)=0.6,andP(A∪B)=0.72,thenAandBmustbeindepen-
dent.
(D) If A and B are mutually exclusive, and if A and C are mutually exclusive, then B
and C must be mutually exclusive.
(E) Two events that are mutually exclusive cannot be independent.
9. Which of the following variables has a binomial distribution?
(A) You roll five fair dice, each with face values of 1 through 6.
X = total number of dots facing up on the five dice
(B) You monitor the weather statistics every Saturday in Winnipeg for a year.
X = number of Saturdays during the year that it snows
(C) A paper boy delivers the newspaper to every house on your block.
X = number of houses that get their newspaper on time tomorrow morning
(D) You repeatedly flip two quarters simultaneously until both quarters land on Heads.
X = number of flips required for both quarters to land on Heads
(E) An unprepared student randomly guesses the answer to each of the 30 multiple- choice questions on the final exam.
X = number of multiple-choice answers the student gets correct
27
10. During Tim Hortons’ annual “Roll Up the Rim to Win” promotion, customers who purchase a cup of coffee check under the rim of the cup to see if they have won a prize. It is known that 16.7% of all cups are winners. If you buy one cup of coffee every day for a week (7 days), what is the probability you win at least two times?
(A) 0.1892 (B) 0.2349 (C) 0.2857 (D) 0.3311 (E) 0.3836
The next three questions (11 to 13) refer to the following:
The amount of soap per bottle for a particular brand of dish soap follows a normal
distribution with mean 828 ml and standard deviation 4 ml.
What is the probability that a random sample of 10 bottles of dish soap contain a mean amount greater than 830 ml?
(A) 0.3085 (B) 0.1539 (C) 0.9429 (D) 0.2296 (E) 0.0571
There is an approximate 99.7% chance that a random sample of 16 bottles of dish soap will contain an average fill volume between:
(A) 825 and 831 ml. (B) 824 and 832 ml. (C) 826 and 830 ml. (D) 816 and 840 ml. (E) 820 and 836 ml.
13. What amount should be placed on the label of the bottles so that only 4% of bottles contain less than that amount?
(A) 820ml (B) 821ml (C) 822ml (D) 828ml (E) 829ml
28
14. When an archer shoots her arrow, she hits the bullseye on the target 78% of the time. The result of each of her shots is independent of any other. If she shoots 300 arrows, what is the approximate probability she hits the bullseye at least 240 times?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0436 (C) 0.0719 (D) 0.1401 (E) 0.2005
15. The Central Limit Theorem states that:
(A) when n gets large, the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and closer to the population
mean μ.
(B) if a variable X has a normal distribution, then for any sample size n, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is also normal.
(C) if a variable X follows a normal distribution, then when n gets large, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is exactly normal.
(D) when n gets large, the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and
closer to σ/√n.
(E) regardless of the population distribution of a variable X, when n gets large, the
sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal. The next two questions (16 and 17) refer to the following:
The fill volume per bottle for a certain brand of beer follows a normal distribution with mean 341 ml and standard deviation 3 ml.
If you buy a case of 24 bottles of beer, what is the probability that the bottles will contain an average of exactly 339.5 ml?
(A) 0.0034 (B) 0.0207 (C) 0.0000 (D) 0.0071 (E) 0.0122
If you buy a twelve-pack of beer, what is the probability that the total volume of beer will exceed 4.1 litres?
(A) 0.0838 (B) 0.2206 (C) 0.1397 (D) 0.4443 (E) 0.3632
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18. Weights of loaves of bread made at a bakery follow a normal distribution with a mean of 450 grams and standard deviation 12 grams. A random sample of five loaves of bread is selected. There is only a 2.5% chance that the average weight of the sample will be below:
(A) 439.48 grams. (B) 441.20 grams. (C) 442.54 grams. (D) 438.62 grams. (E) 440.76 grams.
19. Sizes of apartments in a large city follow a normal distribution with mean 846 square feet and standard deviation 160 square feet. We will take a simple random sample of four apartments in the city and calculate their average size x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40. (B) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40.
(C) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80. (D) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80.
(E) impossible to determine with the information given.
20. Consider two Canadian universities. University A has a student population of 10,000 and University B has a student population of 30,000. A statistician, interested in the average age of first-year students, collects the general records of samples of 500 first-year students from University A and 600 first-year students from University B. She assumes the standard deviations of ages are equal for the two universities. Based on her samples, she constructs a 95% confidence interval for the true mean age of first-year students at each university. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The interval for University A will be narrower, as a higher percentage of students was sampled from University A.
(II) The interval for University B will be narrower, as a higher number of students was sampled from University B.
(III) If the statistician calculated 90% intervals instead, the intervals would be wider.
(IV) If the statistician doubled her sample sizes, the lengths of her intervals would
be reduced by half.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III (D) I and IV (E) II and IV
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The next two questions (21 and 22) refer to the following:
City engineers in Hamilton, Ontario would like to estimate the true mean commuting distance of all workers in the city between home and their principal place of business. They calculate that, in order to estimate this mean to within ±1 kilometer with 99% confidence, they require a sample of 120 workers.
What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean commuting distance for all workers in Hamilton to within ±2 kilometres with 99% confidence?
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 85 (D) 240 (E) 480
The city of Montreal has a population five times greater than that of Hamilton (and so it would be logical to assume that it has five times as many workers). Suppose we wanted to estimate the true mean commuting distance between home and work for all workers in Montreal to within ±1 kilometre with 99% confidence. Assuming equal standard deviations for the two cities, we would require a sample of how many Montreal workers?
(A) 24 (B) 120 (C) 269 (D) 600 (E) 3000
We take a random sample of n individuals and measure the value of some variable X. We conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 30 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 5% level of significance. We calculate a sample mean of x ̄ = 33 and we reject the null hypothesis. Which of the following must be true?
(I) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 10% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(II) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ > 30 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(III) AtestofH0: μ=31vs.Ha: μ ̸= 31 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III
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Prior to distributing a large shipment of bottled water, a beverage company would like to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean fill volume of all bottles differs from 600 ml, which is the amount printed on the labels. Fill volumes are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.0 ml. A random sample of 25 bottles is selected. The sample has a mean fill volume of 598.8 ml and a standard deviation of 3.0 ml. What is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) t=−0.50 (B) z=−2.00 (C) t=−2.00 (D) z=−3.00 (E) t=−3.00
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount of jam per jar for a certain brand of jam differs from 350 ml, the amount stated on the label. We take a simple random sample of 16 jars and measure the amount of jam in each of them. The sample mean is calculated to be 348.7 ml. Suppose it is known that the amount of jam per jar follows a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.8 ml. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0157.
(B) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314.
(C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 50 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 50 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. A random sample of 25 observations is taken from the population. A 90% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (44.46, 49.58). A 96% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (43.82,50.22). The P-value of the appropriate test of significance must be:
(A) less than 0.04.
(B) greater than 0.10.
(C) between 0.02 and 0.05. (D) between 0.04 and 0.10. (E) equal to 0.06.
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The next three questions (27 to 29) refer to the following:
Coke and Pepsi are the two most popular colas on the market. Do consumers prefer either one of the two brands of cola over the other? We conduct a matched pairs experiment as follows: 20 volunteers participate in a blind taste test. Each volunteer tastes both Coke and Pepsi (in random order) and scores the taste of each cola on a scale from 0 to 100. Some information that may be helpful is shown in the table below:
Scores for Coke mean = 78 std. dev. = 27
Scores for Pepsi mean = 83 std. dev. = 24
Difference (d = Coke − Pepsi) mean = −5
std. dev. = 13
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are independent.
(II) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are dependent.
(III) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that scores for Coke and scores for Pepsi both follow normal distributions.
(IV) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that differences in scores (Coke − Pepsi) follow a normal distribution.
(A) I only (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) II and III (E) II and IV
What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0 (B) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d ̸=0 (C) H0: μC =μP vs. Ha: μC <μP (D) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0 (E) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd ̸=0
29. Assuming the appropriate assumptions are satisfied, what is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) −0.38 (B) −7.69 (C) −2.85 (D) −1.72 (E) −0.88
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30. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The P-value in a hypothesis test is calculated under the assumption that the null
hypothesis is true.
(B) The lower the P-value of a hypothesis test, the greater the strength of evidence against the null hypothesis.
(C) The level of significance in a hypothesis test is the highest P-value for which the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) A hypothesis test is designed to assess the evidence in favour of the null hypothesis.
(E) For normally distributed populations, the most important assumption in a hypothesis test for μ is that the sample is a simple random sample.
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Sample Final Exam 3 Part B
Researchers are studying the effect of alcohol consumption on a person’s short-term memory. Six volunteer subjects are assigned to consume a certain number of drinks X. A short time later, the subjects are given a memory test, and their score Y on the test is recorded. The data are shown below, together with the means and standard deviations:
Subject 1 2 3 4 5 6 mean std. dev. No. of Drinks 4 2 8 3 1 6 4 2.61 Test Score 81 90 22 58 80 53 64 25.07

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The correlation between number of drinks and test score is calculated to be r = −0.869.
(a) What fraction of the variation in test score can be accounted for by its regression
on number of drinks consumed?
(b) Find the equation of the least squares regression line.
(c) Find the predicted test scores for a subject who consumes 5 drinks and for a subject who consumes 11 drinks.
(d) Is one of your predictions in (c) more reliable than the other? Explain.
Consider the following information about three events A, B and C:
• P(A)=0.43
• P(C)=0.28
• P(A∩B)=0.19 • P(B∩C)=0.12 • P(A∪B)=0.61 • P(A∪C)=0.71
(a) What is P(B)?
(b) Are any two of the three events mutually exclusive?
(c) Are any two of the three events independent?
(d) What is the probability that exactly one of the three events occurs?
We would like to estimate the true mean size μ (in square feet) of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg. A random sample of 30 two-bedroom apartments in the city is selected, and the mean size of these apartments is calculated to be 1000 square feet. Suppose it is known that sizes of two-bedroom apartments in the city follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 200 square feet.
(a) Calculate a 93% confidence interval for the true mean size of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
(b) Interpret the meaning of the interval you calculated in (a).
An apple grower selects a random sample of 30 apples from this year’s crop. The mean and standard deviation of weights of these apples are calculated to be 156 grams and 14 grams, respectively. Weights of apples are known to follow a normal distribution.
The apple grower suspects that the true mean weight of apples from this year’s crop differs from that of last year’s crop, when the true mean weight was 150 grams. Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to investigate the grower’s suspicion. Show all of your steps.
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Canadians who support Donald Trump. In a random sample of 400 Canadians, 80 of them say they support the American president.
(a) Calculate a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of Canadians who sup- port Donald Trump.
(b) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true proportion of Canadians who support Donald Trump is less than 0.25.
(c) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (b).
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Sample Final Exam 4 Part A
The average height of all 23 students in a class is 132.5 cm. The average height of the 14 boys in the class is 135.2 cm. What is the average height of the girls in the class?
(A) 129.1 cm (B) 128.6 cm (C) 129.8 cm (D) 127.9 cm (E) 128.3 cm
The batting averages of 34 Major League Baseball players are ordered and shown below:
0.178 0.202 0.210 0.219 0.222 0.237 0.245 0.250 0.256 0.258 0.258 0.260 0.261 0.263 0.267 0.268 0.271 0.275 0.277 0.279 0.279 0.281 0.283 0.284 0.286 0.288 0.294 0.299 0.305 0.311 0.313 0.327 0.338 0.340
The five-number summary is: 0.178 0.256 0.273 0.288 0.340
We construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. To what values do the lines coming out from the box (i.e., the whiskers) extend?
(A) 0.202 and 0.338 (B) 0.210 and 0.327 (C) 0.208 and 0.336 (D) 0.237 and 0.313 (E) 0.178 and 0.340
A police officer would like to determine how the number of alcoholic beverages consumed by a person can predict his or her blood alcohol level. The officer measures the values of both variables on a sample of people leaving a bar one night. The correlation between the two variables is calculated to be 0.88 and the equation of the least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 0.003 + 0.012x. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) 88% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(B) 77% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(C) 94% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(D) 88% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(E) 77% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
An experiment is being conducted to study the effectiveness of different brands of sun- screen and SPF (sun protection factor) levels. Volunteers will be randomly assigned to apply either Coppertone or Ombrelle sunscreen, with an SPF level of either 30 or 60. Subjects will spend eight hours outside in the sun, and the degree of sunburn (if any) will be compared for all treatments. What is/are the treatment(s) in this experiment?
(A) degree of sunburn
(B) sunscreen brand and SPF level
(C) sunscreen brand, SPF level and degree of sunburn
(D) Coppertone, Ombrelle, SPF 30, SPF 60
(E) Coppertone/SPF 30, Ombrelle/SPF 30, Coppertone/SPF 60, Ombrelle/SPF 60
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The professor of a large class decides to grade the final exam on a curve. He will use the following criteria:
• 15% of students will get a grade of A+. • 17% of students will get a grade of A. • 11% of students will get a grade of B+. • 18% of students will get a grade of B. • 9% of students will get a grade of C+. • 12% of students will get a grade of C. • 10% of students will get a grade of D. • 8% of students will get a grade of F.
Scores on the exam are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 67 and standard deviation 11. What is the minimum score required to obtain a grade of C?
(A) 56.88 (B) 57.26 (C) 58.90 (D) 59.32 (E) 60.44
Labels on the boxes for a certain brand of soap claim the bars of soap weigh 150 grams. Weights of bars of soap are in fact known to be normally distributed with a standard deviation of 4 grams. What should be the mean weight of all bars of soap if we want only 7% of bars to weigh less than the amount stated on the label?
(A) 144.08 grams (B) 145.83 grams (C) 153.28 grams (D) 154.75 grams (E) 155.92 grams
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The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Winnipeg has three professional sports teams – the Winnipeg Jets hockey team, the
Winnipeg Blue Bombers football team and the Winnipeg Goldeyes baseball team. Suppose we have the following information about Winnipeg residents:
• 55% are Jets fans (J).
• 20% are Goldeyes fans (G).
• 50% are Bombers fans (B) or Goldeyes fans. • 27% are Jets fans and Bombers fans.
• 11% are Jets fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 10% are Bombers fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 6% are fans of all three teams.
What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a Bombers fan? (A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events J and B are independent.
(B) Events J and G are mutually exclusive. (C) Events J and G are independent.
(D) Events B and G are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and G are independent.
9. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a fan of none of the three teams?
(A) 0.21 (B) 0.23 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.27 (E) 0.29
10. If we take a random sample of 12 Winnipeg residents, what is the probability that exactly three of them are Goldeyes fans?
(A) 0.2084 (B) 0.2137 (C) 0.2256 (D) 0.2362 (E) 0.2419
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11. If we take a random sample of 500 Winnipeg residents, what is the approximate probability that less than half of them are Jets fans?
(A) 0.0122 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0351 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0594
The next three questions (12 to 14) refer to the following:
We have four boxes, each of which contains 10 coloured balls:
• Box 1 contains 4 red balls, 5 green balls and 1 yellow ball. • Box 2 contains 3 red balls, 5 green balls and 2 yellow balls. • Box 3 contains 2 red balls, 5 green balls and 3 yellow balls. • Box 4 contains 1 red ball, 5 green balls and 4 yellow balls.
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting exactly one yellow ball?
(A) 0.44 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.36 (D) 0.48 (E) 0.32
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting at least one yellow ball?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8 (E) 0.9
14. Which of the following variables have a binomial distribution?
(I) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 with replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(II) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of yellow balls selected
(III) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 without replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(IV) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of green balls selected
(A) I only
(B) I and III only (C) I and IV only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and IV only
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The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
A variable X follows a uniform distribution, as shown below:
The mean and standard deviation of this distribution are 3.5 and 2, respectively.
15. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect this histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (B) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2. (C) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.005. (D) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (E) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2.
16. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and calculate the value of the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1. (B) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
(C) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.005. (D) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1.
(E) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
42
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
Credit card balances for the I. O. U. Credit Corporation follow a normal distribution
with mean $800 and the standard deviation is $200.
What is the probability that the mean balance for a random sample of 100 customers is greater than $780?
(A) 0.7157 (B) 0.5793 (C) 0.9484 (D) 0.8413 (E) 0.6368
What is the probability that the total balance for a random sample of 40 customers is less than $30,000?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0336 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0571
A variable X follows a normal distribution with mean 43 and variance 144. We take a random sample of n individuals from this distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. What must the sample size be so that the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ is equal to 0.8?
(A) 15 (B) 64 (C) 120 (D) 180 (E) 225
The number of undergraduate students at the University of Winnipeg is approximately 9,000, while the University of Manitoba has approximately 27,000 undergraduate students. Suppose that, at each university, a simple random sample of 3% of the undergraduate students is selected and the following question is asked: “Do you approve of the provincial government’s decision to lift the tuition freeze?”. Suppose that, within each university, approximately 20% of undergraduate students favour this decision. What can be said about the sampling variability associated with the two sample proportions?
(A) The sample proportion for the U of W has less sampling variability than that for the U of M.
(B) The sample proportion for the U of W has more sampling variability that that for the U of M.
(C) The sample proportion for the U of W has approximately the same sampling variability as that for the U of M.
(D) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions without taking many samples.
(E) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions because the population sizes are different.
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The sizes of farms in a U.S. state follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 30 acres. We would like to take a sample of farms large enough to estimate the true mean size of all farms in the state to within 5 acres with 94% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 126 (B) 128 (C) 130 (D) 132 (E) 134
A researcher would like to estimate the true mean daily water intake μ for all Canadians. She measures the daily water intake (in ml) for a sample of Canadians and calculates a 95% confidence interval for μ to be (1771.6, 1928.4). Daily water intake for Canadians is known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 280 ml. What sample size did the researcher take?
(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 36 (D) 49 (E) 64
We would like to test whether the true mean IQ of all adult Canadians is less than 110. Suppose that IQs of adult Canadians follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 17. A random sample of 30 adult Canadians has a mean IQ of 108. What is the P-value for the appropriate test of H0: μ = 110 vs. Ha: μ < 110?
(A) 0.6444
(B) 0.2090
(C) 0.3556
(D) 0.2611
(E) impossible to determine because the level of significance was not given
24. Which of the following statements comparing the standard normal distribution and the t distributions is false?
(A) The density curve for Z is taller at the Centre than the density curve for T.
(B) Thetdistributionshavemoreareainthetailsthanthestandardnormaldistribution.
(C) In tests of significance for μ, Z should be used as the test statistic when the distribution of X is normal, and T should be used in other cases.
(D) As the sample size increases, the t distributions approach the standard normal distribution.
(E) In tests of significance for μ, T should be used as the test statistic when the population standard deviation is unknown.
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25. A sample of five Major League Baseball games has a mean duration of 168 minutes and a standard deviation of 17 minutes. Game durations are known to follow a normal distribution. A 90% confidence interval for the true mean duration of all Major League baseball games is:
(A) (155.49, 180.51) (B) (154.18, 181.82) (C) (153.10, 182.90) (D) (152.68, 183.32) (E) (151.79, 184.21)
26. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether the true mean score of all players in a bowling league differs from 150. The mean and standard deviation of the scores of 12 randomly selected players are calculated to be 170 and 16, respectively. Scores of all players in the league are known to follow a normal distribution. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.0005 and 0.001. (B) between 0.001 and 0.002. (C) between 0.0025 and 0.005. (D) between 0.005 and 0.01. (E) between 0.01 and 0.02.
27. For which of the following situations is a matched pairs t test appropriate? (Assume all appropriate normality conditions are satisfied.) A researcher wants to know:
(I) whether hypnosis reduces pain. 20 volunteers place their hand in ice water and the time until the pain is unbearable is recorded. They are hypnotized and the exercise is repeated.
(II) whether Shell sells more gasoline than Petro Canada. The weekly gas sales are recorded for samples of 5 Shell gas stations and 5 Petro Canada gas stations.
(III) whether husbands spend more household money than wives on average. The amount spent on the husband’s credit card and wife’s credit card are compared for a sample of 10 married couples.
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II (D) I and III (E) II and III
45
On the evening news, a reporter states, “In a recent poll of likely voters, 50% of respondents indicated that they plan to support the Conservative Party in the upcoming provincial election. The results are accurate to within 3.1%, 19 times out of 20”. What sample size was used for the survey?
(A) 600 (B) 800 (C) 1,000 (D) 1,200 (E) 1,400
We would like to estimate some population proportion p. We take a random sample of n individuals and calculate an 80% confidence interval for p to be (0.33, 0.37). Using the same sample, which of the following could be a 99% confidence interval for p?
(A) (0.36, 0.38) (B) (0.32, 0.40) (C) (0.34, 0.36) (D) (0.36, 0.44) (E) (0.31, 0.39)
30. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether the true proportion of Canadians who support Prime Minister Justin Trudeau differs from 0.50. In a random sample of 300 Canadians, 165 of them say they support the prime minister. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836. (C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.9582. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
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Sample Final Exam 4 Part B
1. A student driving to university must pass through two sets of traffic lights. The first set of lights is green 50% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 40% of the time. The second set of lights is green 60% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 30% of the time. It is also known that the lights function independently.
2.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the two lights when the student ar- rives at the intersections. List the complete sample space of outcomes, and calculate the probability of each.
(b) What is the probability that both sets of lights are the same colour when the student arrives at the respective intersections?
(c) What is the probability that the first light is green or the second light is red?
(d) Let X be the number of red lights encountered by the student on her way to
university. Find the probability distribution of X.
(a) List the four conditions of the binomial setting.
(b) Heights of professional basketball players follow a normal distribution with mean 196 cm and standard deviation 8 cm. What proportion of professional basketball players are taller than 200 cm?
(c) If we take a random sample of ten professional basketball players, what is the probability that exactly four of them are taller than 200 cm?
(a) Give the definition of a lurking variable.
(b) Give the definition of a simple random sample.
(c) Explain the difference between a statistic and a parameter. Give three examples of each.
(d) Explain the difference between two events being mutually exclusive and two events being independent.
(e) Explain what it means for a result to be statistically significant.
3.
One measure of the quality of education provided by a university is the number of students per class. A random sample of 30 third-year classes is selected at a large university. The number of students in each of the classes are ordered and shown below:
10 11 14 14 15 17 18 20 22 22 22 23 26 26 27 28 31 33 34 34 36 42 44 49 50 55 62 68 77 82
From these data, the sample mean is calculated to be 33.73. The population standard deviation of class sizes is known to be 18.50.
(a) Construct a histogram for this data set. What is the shape of the distribution of class sizes for this sample?
(b) We would like to estimate and conduct a hypothesis test for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university. Despite the fact that class size does not appear to follow a normal distribution, explain why it is nevertheless appropriate to use inference methods which rely on the assumption of normality.
(c) Construct a 99% confidence interval for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at this university.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (c).
(e) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean third-year class size at this university differs from the national average of 40. Show all of your steps.
Sixteen people (eight males and eight females) volunteered to be part of an experiment. All 16 people were between the ages of 25 and 35. The question of interest in this experiment was whether females receive faster service at nightclubs than males. Each of the eight male participants was randomly assigned a bar, and each of the eight females was randomly assigned to one of these same eight bars. One Friday night, all 16 people went out to the bar. The male and female assigned to the same bar would arrive within five minutes of each other. Each person then waited at the bar and ordered a similar drink. The time (in seconds) until the drink was served was recorded. Some information that may be helpful is shown below:
Females mean = 275 std. dev. = 37
Males mean = 302 std. dev. = 48
Difference (d = F−M) mean =−27
std. dev. = 29
(a) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test, at the 1% level of significance. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (a).
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Sample Final Exam Answers Part A
Question Sample Final 1 Sample Final 2 Sample Final 3 Sample Final 4
1 C C B E
2 B B D B
3 A B D E
4 E B C E
5 D C E A
6 C E C E
7 B E A C
8 A D D C
9 D E E D
10 E A D D
11 D D E A
12 D C A A
13 C D B C
14 A C E C
15 E D E B
16 A B C A
17 E E B D
18 C C A E
19 E D D E
20 D A B B
21 E B A B
22 A D B D
23 C C B D
24 B E D C
25 D C E E
26 A D D B
27 B D E D
28 A D E C
29 A A D E
30 E B D B
1. (a)
Sample Final 1 Part B Solutions
The minimum is 2.2 and the maximum is 11.4.
The median is in position (n + 1)/2 = (30 + 1)/2 = 15.5, so the median is the
average of the 15th and 16th ordered data values, i.e., (7.0+7.2)/2 = 7.1.
The first quartile is the median of all data values lower in position than the median,
so Q1 is in position (15 + 1)/2 = 8. Therefore, Q1 = 6.0.
The third quartile is in position 8 above the median (or equivalently, 8 positions
down from the maximum), and so Q3 = 8.0.
The five-number summary is: 2.2 6.0 7.1 8.0 11.4
(b) We calculate the fences:
LF =Q1−1.5IQR=6.0−1.5(8.0−6.0)=6.0−3.0=3.0
UF =Q3+1.5IQR=8.0+1.5(8.0−6.0) =8.0+3.0=11.0
There are two values less than the lower fence (2.2 and 2.8) and one value greater than the upper fence (11.4). These outliers will be plotted as points on the outlier boxplot.
The whiskers extend to the lowest and highest data values that are not outliers (the “new minimum” and “new maximum”), i.e., 3.8 and 8.8.
The outlier boxplot is shown below:
Excluding outliers, the distribution is skewed to the left. 50
(a) (b)
(c)
(a) (b)
When the age of a car increases by one year, we predict its selling price to decrease by $1,700.
We know that 81% of the variation in a car’s selling price can be accounted for by its regression on the age of a car. This is the definition of r2, so we know r2 = 0.81. The correlation is therefore
√√
r=− r2 =− 0.81=−0.90
Note that we take the negative square root of r2, since there is a negative association between the two variables.
The residual for this car is
yi − yˆi = 15500 − (18600 − 1700(5)) = 5400
S = {GGG, GGC, GSG, GSC, SGG, SGC, SSG, SSC, CGG, CGC, CSG, CSC} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
x0123 P (X = x) 0.336 0.452 0.188 0.024
4. The
variable X, when the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal.
5. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(25.87, 30.93)
If we took repeated samples of 27 trees and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 98% of all such intervals would contain the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
t = −1.57, 0.05 < P-value < 0.10, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean height of all trees in the forest was 30 feet, the probability of observing a sample mean at least as low as 28.4 feet would be between 0.05 and 0.10.
No
Central Limit Theorem states that, regardless of the population distribution of a
51
1. (a)
Sample Final 2 Part B Solutions
i. The factors in an experiment are the explanatory variables. There are two factors in this experiment – brand of toothpaste and type of toothbrush.
ii. Brand of toothpaste has two factor levels – Crest and Colgate. Type of toothbrush has two factor levels – regular and electric.

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iii. There are 2 x 2 = 4 treatments – Crest/regular, Crest/electric, Colgate/regular and Colgate/electric.
iv. The response variable is the health of the patients’ teeth.
v. The blocking variable is age (one block consisting of the children and the other block consisting of the adults).
Control is achieved by the comparison of the four treatment groups in each block. (Note that blocking is also another form of control. In this case, by using a random- ized block design, we eliminate the possibility of age becoming a lurking variable.)
Yes. Since this was a properly designed experiment using the principles of randomization, replication and control, we can conclude that the treatment was likely the cause of the observed difference in the response.
S = {WWW, WWB, WMW, WMB, PWW, PWB, PMW, PMB} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
(b)
(c)
2. (a) (b)
3. (a) (b) (c) (d)
x0123 P (X = x) 0.024 0.188 0.452 0.336
5.235 0.1587 0.0793 exact
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4. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(2.91, 3.33)
If we took repeated samples of 20 students at the university and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 95% of such intervals would contain the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
z = 1.14, P-value = 0.2542, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean GPA of all students at the university was 3.00, the probability of
observing a sample mean at least as extreme as 3.12 would be 0.2542. Yes. Fail to reject H0.
53
1. (a)
Sample Final 3 Part B Solutions
The fraction of the variation in test score that can be accounted for by its regression on number of drinks consumed is, by definition, r2. Here, r2 = (−0.869)2 = 0.755.
(b) The slope of the least squares regression line is
sy 25.07
b1 =rs =−0.869 2.61 =−8.347
x
The intercept of the least squares regression line is
b0 = y ̄ − b1x ̄ = 64 − (−8.347)(4) = 97.388
The equation of the least squares regression line is yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347x. (c) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 5 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(5) = 55.653
(d) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 11 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(11) = 5.571
(e) The prediction for the subject who consumed 5 drinks is more reliable, since the value x = 11 falls outside the range of x-values in our sample. Predicting the test score for the subject who consumed 11 drinks is extrapolating.
54
2. (a) (b)
(c)
(d)
3. (a) (b)
0.37
A and B are not mutually exclusive. B and C are not mutually exclusive. A and C are mutually exclusive.
A and B are not independent. A and C are not independent. B and C are not independent.
0.46
(933.9, 1066.1)
If we took repeated samples of size 30 and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 93% of all such intervals would contain the true mean size of all two- bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
4. t = 2.35, 0.02 < P-value < 0.04, reject H0.
5. (a) (b) (c)
(0.1671, 0.2329)
z = −2.31, P-value = 0.0104, reject H0.
If the true proportion of Canadians who supported Donald Trump was 0.25, the probability of observing a sample proportion at least as low as 0.20 would be 0.0104.
55
1. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a)
(b) (c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Sample Final 4 Part B Solutions
S= {GG, GY, GR, YG, YY, YR, RG, RY, RR}
0.43
0.65
The probability distribution of X is as follows: x012
P (X = x) 0.42 0.46 0.12
A binomial experiment is one for which the following four conditions are satisfied:
There is a fixed number of trials n.
There are only two possible outcomes of interest for each trial – a success or a failure.
The outcome of one trial is independent of any other.
The probability of success p is constant from trial to trial.
0.3085 0.2080
A lurking variable is one that explains the relationship between variables in a study, but is not included in the study itself.
A simple random sample of size n is one that is chosen in such a way that all possible groups of n individuals have the same chance of being chosen.
A statistic is a number that describes a sample. Examples of statistics include the sample mean x ̄, the sample standard deviation s and a sample proportion pˆ. A parameter is a number that describes an entire population. Examples of parameters include the population mean μ, the population standard deviation σ and a population proportion p.
56
4. (a)
From a histogram of the data, we see the distribution of class sizes for this sample is skewed to the right.
5. (a)
t = −2.63, 0.01 < P-value < 0.02, fail to reject H0.
Note that n = 8 (and not 16), as n is the number of pairs.
(d) Two events that are mutually exclusive have no outcomes in common (i.e., they cannot both occur at the same time). Two events that are independent can both occur at the same time, but the outcome of one does not affect the outcome of the other.
(e) Statistical significance is a difference so large that it would rarely be observed by chance alone. We say that the results of a hypothesis test are statistically significant when the P-value ≤ α and we reject H0.
(b) Although it does not appear that the population distribution of class sizes is normally distributed, the Central Limit Theorem tells us that since the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of the sample mean X ̄ is approximately normal.
(c) (25.03, 42.43)
(d) If we took repeated samples of 30 classes and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 99% of such intervals would contain the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university.
(e) z = −1.86, P-value = 0.0628, fail to reject H0.
(b) If the service time in nightclubs was the same on average for males and females, the probability of observing a sample mean difference at least as low as −27 would be between 0.01 and 0.02.

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Question 8: Science

UNIT 1.0: Human-Environment Interactions 1
Introduction: Human-Environment Interactions 1.1 The Environment and Environmental Sciences 1.2 Over-Population and Over-Consumption As Central Themes in Human Resource Demands 1.3 Sustainable Development 1.4 Using Science to Describe and Evaluate the Environment Conclusions UNIT 2.0: Ecosystem Dynamics 2 Introduction: Ecosystem Dynamics 2.1 Ecology and Ecosystems 2.2 Systems Theory and Feedback 2.3 Energy Flow in Ecosystems 2.4 Material Cycling in Ecosystems – Biogeochemical Cycles 2.5 Biotic Interactions and Their Influences on the Ecosystem 2.6 Population Dynamics Conclusions UNIT 3.0: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3 Introduction: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3.1 Ecosystem Management 3.2 Parks and Protected Areas 3.3 Sustainable Forestry 3.4 Biodiversity – Alien Invasive Species and Species at Risk 3.5 Sustainable Agriculture and Soil Conservation Conclusions UNIT 4.0: Water Resources and Their Management 4 Introduction: Water Resources and Their Management 4.1 Properties of Water 4.2 Water Quantity and Conservation 4.3 Water Quality 4.4 Water Treatment and Pollution Prevention Conclusions UNIT 5.0: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5 Introduction: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5.1 Earth’s Climate System and Energy Budget 5.2 Arctic Amplification and Climate Change in Canada 5.3 Canada’s Climate Change Plan Conclusions UNIT 6.0: Ecotoxicology 6 Introduction: Ecotoxicology 6.1 What is Ecotoxicology? 6.2 Features and Fate of Toxins 6.3 Toxins and Pest Management 6.4 Risk Assessment 6.5 Case Studies in Ecotoxicology Conclusions

Question 9: Health Care

For this assessment, you will report on the information that you collected in your interview, analyzing the interview data and identifying a past or current issue that would benefit from an interdisciplinary approach. This could be an issue that has not been addressed by an interdisciplinary approach or one that could benefit from improvements related to the interdisciplinary approach currently being used. Additionally, you will start laying the foundation for your Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal (Assessment 3) by researching potential change theories, leadership strategies, and collaboration approaches that could be relevant to issue you have identified. Additionally, be sure to address the following, which corresponds to the grading criteria in the scoring guide. Please study the scoring guide carefully so you understand what is needed for a distinguished score. Summarize an interview focused on past or current issues at a health care organization. Identify an issue from an interview for which an evidence-based interdisciplinary approach would be appropriate. Describe potential change theories and a leadership strategy that could inform an interdisciplinary solution to an organizational issue. Describe collaboration approaches from the literature that could facilitate establishing or improving an interdisciplinary team to address an organizational issue.

Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal
Write a brief introduction (2 to 3 sentences) to your proposal that outlines the issue you are attempting to solve, the part of the organization in which the plan would be carried out, and the desired outcome. This will set the stage for the sections below.
Objective
Describe what your plan will do and what you hope it will accomplish in one or two succinct sentences. Also, comment on how the objective, if achieved, will improve organizational or patient outcomes. For example:
Test a double-loop feedback model for evaluating new product risk with a small group of project managers with the goal of reducing the number of new products that fail to launch. This objective is aligned to the broader organizational goal of becoming more efficient taking products to market and, if successful, should improve outcomes by reducing waste.
Questions and Predictions
For this section ask yourself 3 to 5 questions about your objective and your overall plan. Make a prediction for each question by answering the question you posed. This helps you to define the important aspects of your plan as well as limit the scope and check its ability to be implemented.
For example:
1. How much time will using a double-loop feedback model add to a project manager’s workload?
a. At first, it will likely increase their workloads by 5 to 10 percent. However, as the process is refined and project managers become more familiar and efficient, that percentage will decrease.
Change Theories and Leadership Strategies
For this section, you may wish to draw upon the research you did regarding change theories and leadership for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. The focus of this section is how those best practices will create buy-in for the project from an interdisciplinary team, improve their collaboration, and/or foster the team’s ability to implement the plan. Be sure that you are including at least one change theory and at least one leadership strategy in your explanation. Always remember to cite your sources; direct quotes require quotation marks and a page or paragraph number to be included in the citation.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the theory or strategy?
• How will it likely help an interdisciplinary team to collaborate, implement, and/or buy in to the project plan?
o Make sure to frame this explanation within the organizational context of the proposed plan, that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Team Collaboration Strategy
In this section, begin by further defining the responsibilities and actions that represent the implementation of the plan. One strategy to defining this is to take a “who, what, where, and when” approach for each team member.
For example:
• Project Manager A will apply the double-loop feedback model on one new product project for a single quarter.
• Project Manager B will apply the double-loop feedback model on all new product projects for a quarter.
Vice President A will review the workloads of project managers using the double-loop feedback model every Thursday for one quarter.
After you have roughly outlined the roles and responsibilities of team members, you will explain one or more collaborative approaches that will enable the team to work efficiently to achieve the plan’s objective. As with the change theories and leadership strategies, you may draw on the research you conducted for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. However, you are being asked to give a more in-depth explanation of the collaboration approaches and look at how they will help the theoretical interdisciplinary team in your plan proposal.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the collaboration approach?
• What types of collaboration and teamwork will best help the interdisciplinary team be successful?
• How is the collaboration approach relevant to the team’s needs and will it help drive success?
o Make sure to frame this explanation in terms of the subject of the plan proposal; that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Required Organizational Resources
For this section, you will be making rough estimates of the resources needed for your plan proposal to be successful. This section does not have to be exact but the estimates should be realistic for the chosen organization.
Items you should include or address in this section:
• What are the staffing needs for your plan proposal?
• What equipment or supplies are needed for your plan proposal?
o Does the organization already have these?
 If so, what is the cost associated with using these resources?
 If not, what is the cost of acquiring these resources?
• What access (to patients, departments, and so forth) is needed?
o Are there any costs associated with these?
• What is the overall financial budget request for the plan proposal?
o Staff time, resource use, resource acquisition, and access charged?
 Remember to include a specific dollar amount in your request.
After you have detailed your budget, make sure that you explain any impacts on organizational resources that could happen if your plan is not undertaken and successful. In other words, if the issue you are try to solve through your plan proposal persists or gets worse, what will be the potential costs to the organization?

Question 10: Science

Write about one of the following subjects: – intellectual property related to information technology OR – computer crime The paper should have an introduction, good and bad sides, conclusion. If you have an opinion about the subject, write about it. You can study a case to better describe the subject of your paper. Also if you have recommendations to fix any problems with the subject of the paper, include them. Avoid blogs because in most cases they are people’s opinions without supporting sources/references. Cite at least 3 different sources. Assume you are writing the paper for college students who don’t have a technical background.

Question 11: Biology

Choose a topic and write a brief (4-5 pages) review (formal essay format) of some scientific articles that relate to a topic covered in the human nutrition curriculum of Biology 102 *note the topic must be somehow related to human nutritional science – if you want to choose a research topic that involves research outside of humans – you must relate it to human biology in some sense.

This must include references to scientifically sound sources (peer reviewed journal articles), and these references must be cited in the correct scientific format.

* no data base links – (do not copy and paste from pub-med)
* web pages can be used as “supportive references” and must also be referenced correctly

Your analysis should include a summary of the hypotheses of the experiments, the results and discussion of the results and most importantly – your opinion of the study. Why did you find it interesting and what did you learn about the topic?

Use the knowledge that you have gained from Chapter 1 to convey the information in a way a scientist would understand.

Marking Rubric:

1. At least 3 scientific journal article references (other resources can be used to support your ideas) that convey different conclusions related to your topic. (1 mark)

2. A brief but well thought out description of the experiments and the results and conclusions (2 marks)

3. Your personal opinion about what the results mean, and why you chose to research this topic. (1 mark)

4. References are correctly formatted (both the embedded references in the text, and the full reference in the Bibliography) (1 mark)

Total = 5 marks

Chapter 1 in your textbook gives you information related to how science is done and how to think critically to evaluate scientific claims. Incorporate this material into your assignment and convince me that the information you are conveying is scientifically sound and comes from a peer reviewed source. An example of a database that will allow you to access these articles is:

(www.pubmed.com)

Your paper must be referenced in a scientifically accepted format (APA) – for an example: look at the format of the references included in the papers you have chosen, or the “endnotes” provided at the end of every chapter in your textbook.

Question 12: Biology

How do seniors with compromised sight/hearing navigate the city?] Describe the mechanics of normally functioning eyes… How does one see? (Biology) Describe the mechanics of normally functioning ears… How does one hear? (Biology) Describe (for your reader) how one uses sound and sight to navigate the streets of NYC. It may help to walk us through a route that’s familiar to you: like traveling from home to school. Explain how someone with limited sight/hearing could navigate that same route (Include your research) Conclusion

Question 13: Religious Studies

1. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 6:45-52 contrasted with Matthew 14:25-27,32-33? 2. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 9:2-10 contrasted with Matthew 17:1-13? Be sure to distinguish between paraphrase and direct quotes. Type a 350-750-word paper using MLA formatting. Make sure to use and cite these sources below: The Gospels by Barton and Muddiman (2010), p. 56 New Testament History and Literature by Martin (2012), pp. 106-108 Accurate use of English including careful documentation (including the ability to paraphrase and use quotations) and good organizational plan. 40 pts Adequate research. 20 pts Accurate and complete reflection of material read for the assignment. 40 pts

Question 14: Mathematics

Find the derivative and simplify completely.
1. 𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥3−7𝑥+6
2. 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑒sec 2𝑥
3. 𝑦=𝑙𝑛(3𝑥+𝑒−𝑥)4
4. h(𝑥)=𝑐𝑜𝑠4 7𝑥 √
5. 𝑦=cot(−2𝑥+𝑥4)
6. 𝑦=−2𝑥4𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑥

𝒙 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑓′(𝑥) 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑔′(𝑥)
1 -1 -3 2 4
0 3 7 1 -3
7. 𝑑 (𝑓∙𝑔)2, Evaluate when𝑥=1 𝑑𝑥
8. 𝑑 (1), Evaluate when𝑥=0 𝑑𝑥 𝑓3

Derivatives Part 3

Select the best answer and place the letter in the space provided.
_________ 1. If 𝑓(𝑥) = csc(4𝑥) − sec(3𝑥2), then f ‘(x) =
_________ 2. If f (x) = sin2 x, then 𝑓′ (𝜋) = 3
_________ 3. What is the derivative of 𝑦 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1(cos 𝑥)?
1 _________4. If𝑦=(9−𝑥2)3, what is the
equation of the normal line at (1,2)?
Differentiate the following. Simplify as best you can.
5.𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑐𝑜𝑠(3𝑥) 6.𝑔(𝑥)=𝑙𝑜𝑔6(2𝑥4 +5)3
7.𝑦=𝑐𝑜𝑠−1(6𝑥2) 8.14𝑥+8𝑦2 +𝑥5 =12−𝑦
9. Consider the equation 4𝑦2 − 3𝑥𝑦 = −2
a) Find the derivative for the function above.
b) Find the equation of the normal line to the curve at the point (1,3).
c) Find d2 y at (1,3) dx2

Directions: use the space provided to answer the following questions. Be sure to show all work to be awarded partial credit.
1. Suppose the position equation for a moving object is given by 𝑠(𝑡) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑡 + 3𝑡 where 𝑠(𝑡) is
measured in meters and t is measured in seconds. Find the velocity of the object when 𝑡 = 𝜋. 3
Find the derivatives of the following. Simplify as best as you can.
2.𝑦= 2𝑥 𝑥3−3𝑥2 3. h(𝑥) = 𝑥3−1 3√𝑥
4. 𝑦 = −𝑥3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 5.𝑦= 5𝑒𝑥 2𝑥2−1
6. 𝑓(𝑥) = 3 sec 𝑥 sin 𝑥 7. h(𝑥) = (2𝑥4 − 1) (𝑥2 − 𝑥3) 𝑥4
8. Find𝑑3𝑦given𝑦=3𝑥4−5𝑥3+8𝑥−10. 𝑑𝑥3
9. Find the fourth derivative when 𝑓(𝑥) = 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥.
10.Find𝑓”(𝑥)when𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥12 −𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥−4

Question 15: Economics
Industrial Organization Econ 304
Problem Set 3
1. Assume that there are two hair salons located on Main Street which is 1 mile in length. Salon A which is located at the east end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $5and Salon B which is located at the west end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $10. There are 1000 potential customers who live along the street and they are uniformly spread out along the street. Customers are willing to pay $40 for a hair-cut that is done at their home. If a customer has to travel to get a hair-cut, then a there and back travel cost of $5 per mile is incurred. Suppose that each salon wants to set a price for a hair-cut that maximizes salon’s profit.
1. a- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon A chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?
2. b- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon B chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?

Question 16: Psychology

Instruction
• Choose 1 specific stage of the family life cycle and apply it to a specific family challenge.
• Next chose 1 type of family challenge/crisis and describe in detail how it will impact the normal development of the family life cycle in general and then for the majority of the paper drill down into how that 1 specific challenge/crisis will impact 1 particular stage of the family life cycle.
• You will research both the challenge and the life cycle stage and then report out on best practices and evidence based social work interventions with families.
• Finally, you will design a family therapy treatment plan (see syllabus page 11) and discuss the treatment goals, objectives, and techniques used in treatment if it helps develop a mini case scenario with a presenting problem related to the family challenge/crisis
• Some examples of family challenges/crises include but are not limited to: substance abuse of a parent or other family member, infertility, incarceration, re-entry into society/community from incarceration, terminal illness diagnosis, chronic illness, unemployment, natural disaster, death of grandparent, death of child, suicide of a family member, chronic persistent mental illness of a family member, immigration/deportation/detainment, relocation to another city/state/country, returning war veteran, active deployment, juvenile delinquency, disability new onset, child with physical or mental or cognitive/developmental disability etc.
*It must be written using APA format, 6-8 pages in length, and with a minimum of 6 references. GRADING RUBRIC FOR RESEARCH-BASED PAPER APA Format 10 points Use of scholarly sources (less than 10 years old) 10 points Proper length and number of references 10 points Clearly and thoroughly identifies the challenge area being explored 10 points Clearly and thoroughly explores each stage of family development and impact of challenge area 40 points Clearly and thoroughly describes treatment in specific stage 20 points Violations such as the absence of or minimal use of citations in the paper (a form of plagiarism) or in-body citations in the paper not found on the reference page or vice versa, etc. or any indication of plagiarism. Automatic “0” for the paper
Below here are the stages to choose from: The stages of family life
Stage 1: Family of origin experiences · During this phase the main tasks are: o Maintaining relationships with parents, siblings and peers
*Completing education o Developing the foundations of a model of family life
Stage 2: Leaving home · During this phase the main tasks are: o Differentiation of self from family of origin and parents and developing adult to adult relationships with parents *Developing intimate peer relationships. o Beginning work, developing work identity and financial independence.
Stage 3: Premarriage stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Selecting partners’ o Developing a relationship o Deciding to establish own home with someone.
Stage 4: Childless couple stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Developing a way to live together both practically and emotionally o Adjusting relationships with families of origin and peers to include partner
Stage 5: Family with young children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Realigning family system to make space for children o Adopting and developing parenting roles o Realigning relationships with families of origin to include parenting and grand parenting roles o Facilitating children to develop peer relationships
Stage 6. Family with adolescents · During this phase the main tasks are: o Adjusting parent-child relationships to allow adolescents more autonomy o Adjusting family relationships to focus on midlife relationship and career issues o Taking on responsibility of caring for families of origin
Stage 7: Launching children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Resolving midlife issues o Negotiating adult to adult relationships with children o Adjusting to living as a couple again o Adjusting to including in-laws and grandchildren within the family circle o Dealing with disabilities and death in the family of origin
Stage 8: Later family life · During this phase the main tasks are: o Coping with physiological decline in self and others o Adjusting to children taking a more central role in family maintenance o Valuing the wisdom and experience of the elderly o Dealing with loss of spouse and peers o Preparation for death, life review, reminiscence and integration

Question 17: History

250 Word Discussion Post on the Transition of Rome from Republic to Empire. Must be cited using Chicago style format, please see rubric before starting. 6. Discuss the transition of Rome from a Republic to an Empire. Is it even accurate to call Rome a Republic before the reign of Augustus? Or is it an empire in every way except for name? Hint: A Roman Empire is different than The Roman Empire.

Question 18: Sociology

In the first part of the term we went through the various perspectives on what the self/individual is and what society/culture is and the relationship between self and society (the individual and culture). We concluded that all the perspectives believe that we are a product of culture (they, of course, had differing views on the individual’s capacity to create society, etc..). 1)So start by simply summarizing this. Explain what culture is (define it and explain it. Use my notes and the textbook. 2) Next, explain how we are a product of our culture. Again, refer to my notes and the textbook. Here introduce your choice of the influencer. Briefly explain cultural values and norms that the influencer embodies. Depending on your choice, you may want to explain the culture industry and its ability to produce human commodities that others consume, etc… 3) If you are dealing with an activist you might want to discuss the political discourses that this person’s identity embodies. 4) Next, from the Foucault lecture on discourse and Mead and Cooley’s lecture, we looked more deeply at how the self is formed. I explained the I-Other relationship and how we need others to emerge as a self. So explain this. In other words, explain how we require others to mirror back to us who we are extra… 5) Next, once you have explained what culture is and how the self is formed…and you have introduced your choice of influencer, you need to begin to answer my questions. What values does the person embody? What do they represent? Etc… And explain who their followers are? Who is the audience and what are they embracing about this person? Who are the haters? 6) The next part is about globalization and the postmodern world. I posted some notes but will lecture on this with reference to your essays tomorrow. Basically, Postmodernity allows us more freedom in becoming our own unique selves. We interact with multiple cultures and multiple discourses and from these interactions, we create a unique self and are thus a complex configuration of identities. Here you will bring in your influencer and build your analysis. It is said that in the postmodern world cultural products, which include human beings, are a complex configuration of identities–a hybrid or fusion of multiple identities–and this has given people more freedom to become what we want to be. But we still have to appeal to the greater of society in order to be accepted or included. So you need to explore your influencer and come up with a conclusion of who they are and how they are an expression or reflection of the postmodern world.

Question 19: English

CG Assignment 2
Student’s name: Academic no:
A/Complete the sentences using must, mustn’t, can’t, could, might, have to, need to, needn’t (4marks)

1 We’re absolutely sure they’ve got our money. They ______________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2 Perhaps she’ll arrive this afternoon. She _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
3 It’s impossible that they are brother and sister. They _____________________________________ .
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. We don’t have plenty of time. We ___________________________________________ hurry up.
5. You must keep it a secret. You______________________________________________ tell anybody.
6. I’ll be all right. You _______________________________________________ worry about me.
7. I__________________________________________ have bought eggs. We had some already.
8. He works away from home. He___________________________ drive 80 miles every day.

B/Respond to the statements or questions using the words in brackets. (3 marks)
1. I have just seen a bank robbery. (must, be frightened
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2. She walked straight past me without saying hello. (can’t, see) ________________________________________________________________________________________
3. The team lost 5–0. (must, play badly)
________________________________________________________________________________________

What would you say in these situations? (3 marks)
You have booked a seat on a train. You find that someone is sitting in your seat. Explain politely that the seat is yours.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
You are in a hotel and you want to write a letter but there’s no writing paper in your room. You want Reception to provide you with some. ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________
Your friend feels he isn’t making much progress with his English. Make a suggestion to help him.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 20: Gender Studies

All papers need to have an abstract included

Based upon your research in this module and additional research you conduct:

1) what specific training relating to YOUTH in gangs is available to law enforcement or corrections officers? Present an overview of currently available training designed to teach law enforcement officers about youth in gangs (NOTE: G.R.E.A.T. is NOT gang officer training; it is a training for youth led by officers and should NOT be referred to). Listing names of training courses is insufficient; you must explain the contents of the training. HINT: search in government publications and state and national gang training organization web sites that list training conferences.

2) using theories and concepts examined in this module and your own research propose at least two (2) specific improvements to training police or corrections officers could use to better work with youth in gangs (more of the same training is not an improvement),

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3) explain how and why the improvements you proposed in 2) above can help officers work safer and more effectively with youth drawn to or in gangs, and

4) specifically explain in one paragraph how our university’s core value of RESPECT applies to specific contents of the textbook readings for this module and include a citation and page number.

Respect
Animated in the spirit of Jesus Christ, we value all individuals’ unique talents, respect their dignity, and strive to foster their commitment to excellence in our work. Our community’s strength depends on the unity and diversity of our people, on the free exchange of ideas, and on learning, living, and working harmoniously.

Your response should go beyond the obvious and be written at a graduate level. Your answer must be no less than 1500 words and you must use at least three authoritative sources to support your position. NOTE: the use of only three (3) authoritative sources demonstrates a minimum level of acceptable graduate level work and is not exemplary nor necessarily proficient.
YOU MUST ALSO ADD THE URL (Uniform Resource Locator) OR the DOI (Digital Object Identifier) to the end of EVERY APA reference found on the internet.

Question 21: English

Instruction
A poem consists of at least twenty lines. The longer the better (but not too long) The topic is on “ignorance is bliss”. It must cover how ignorance is bliss. I want as many allusions of current or historical social issues that touch upon the topic. plenty of poetic devices need to be incorporated into the piece. Also, the poem must be insightful and complex with a lot of ambiguity that can be deciphered.

Question 22: Religious Studies

Write four summaries of the reading from any four of the following chapters in Everyday Bible Study:
15. Observe: How to Make Accurate Observations
16. How to Use Multiple Translations of the Bible
17. How to Ask Key Questions
28. Interpret: How to Find the Meaning of the Bible
29. Correlate: How to Connect Scripture to Other Scriptures
30. Correlate: How to See Jesus in the Bible
31. Apply: How to Live Out What You Learn
32. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 1: Law
33. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 2:
Narrative 34. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 3: Wisdom and Poetry
35. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 4: Prophetic Literature
This means that in this assignment you are developing four summaries of 120 words each (one for each of the four chapters you selected). You should aim to create four summaries where each summary is between 100-120 words. Each of your summaries should not exceed the 120-word or $12 limit.

Question 23: Law

Essay on Biometrics and intersection with technology and law. Follow the outline and please should be well foot-noted!

Biometrics Now/Future/Ethics/Law
Introduction: Fingerprint recognition, voice identification, facial recognition, DNA matching, and signature matching are all forms of Biometric technology. These technologies aim to identify a person’s identity through unique traits and characteristics. Since biometric characteristics cannot be conjectured or stolen, biometric systems present a superior level of security than usual means of authentication such as passwords or pins.
1. Background
a. Timeline and brief history of biometrics – A.K. Jain, A. Ross, S. Prabhakar (2004), An
introduction to biometric recognition, IEEE Transactions on Circuits and Systems for Video Technology 14 (1) 4–20
2. Biometrics Today
1. Biometric technologies
2. Biometric applications
3. Recent advancements in emerging biometrics
i. Biometrics based on brain and heart signals – Vascular pattern based biometrics – Kauba C., Prommegger B., Uhl A. (2020) OpenVein—An Open-Source Modular Multipurpose Finger Vein Scanner Design.
3. Future of Biometrics
a. Second generation biometrical systems aims to scan intent – Sutrop, M. and Laas-Mikko,
K. (2012), From Identity Verification to Behavior Prediction: Ethical Implications of Second Generation Biometrics. Review of Policy Research, 29: 21-36.
4. Implications of current and future Biometric technology a. Threat to individuals and organizations
i. Dangers to owners of secured items
ii. Threat of privacy invasion
iii. Identity theft – Park, Eunice, Your Biometrics: Private or Not? (December 31, 2019). Orange County Lawyer Magazine, Vol. 62, No. 1, February 2020, at 32.
iv. Threat to companies for compliance
v. Wrongful accusations and threat of civil liberties if Biometrics mapped intent
5. Ethical Discussion of Biometrics
a. Possible Effects on Human Dignity – Alterman, A. (2003). “A piece of yourself”: Ethical
issues in biometric identification. Ethics and Information Technology , 5, 139– 150.
6. Legal Ramifications
1. Constitutional Law Considerations
i. Right to Privacy – Woodward J.D. (2008) The Law and the Use of Biometrics . In: Jain A.K., Flynn P., Ross A.A. (eds) Handbook of Biometrics . Springer, Boston, MA
ii. 4th and 5th Amendments
2. Laws Regulating Biometric Data
i. BIPA
ii. California Statutes
1. CCPA
3. The need for a global standard of laws that regulate biometrics – Pope, C. (2018).
Biometric data collection in an unprotected world: Exploring the need for federal legislation protecting biometric data . Journal of Law and Policy, 26(2), 769-804.
7. Conclusion
Question 24: Education

Mini Case International Financial Management Fifth Edition Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mini Case
International Financial Management Fifth Edition
Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mexico experienced larger scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings, and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.
Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject.
· Mexico’s key economic indicators; BOP, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994-1995
· Causes of Mexico’s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation
· Policy actions for prevent and mitigate the balance of payment problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso
· Lesson from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries

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Question 25: Sociology
1.
a. What is the difference between the free exercise clause and the establishment clause?

b. What limitations exists on religious practices?

2.
a. What are three types of speech not protected by the First Amendment?

b. Why do you think the Supreme Court limits student speech more than the speech of adults?

3.
a. What are the requirements for a lawful assembly on private property?

b. For what reasons might the right to assemble be limited on public property

4.What kinds of clubs are not allowed in school?

a. Why do school officials have the right to limit students’ rights of assembly?

1. Is a trained dogs sniff of someone or something a search of that person or thing? Explain why or why not.
2. Do you agree with the majority of the Court in the Caballes case or with the dissenting opinions? Explain why.

3. Would your opinion in the Caballes case be different if it had involved a bomb-sniffing dog instead? Explain.

1.
a. What is the plain view doctrine?
b. In what situations can police conduct a search warrant?
c. Should searches of motor vehicles require police to have a warrant?
2.
a. What is cyber-surveillance?

b. What do you think is the most important factor in deciding whether a search is reasonable?
3.
a. Why is it possible for people to agree on a fundamental value such as the right to privacy but disagree over the meaning of that right in specific situations?

Question 26: Law

This is an exercise in legal problem solving. This assessment task covers material taught in Contracts I and II only.

Assessment tasks exist to help students learn and apply their knowledge. Grades exist to show how fully this goal is attained.
This assessment task must be the student’s own understanding and effort. If the words or ideas used are not your own, then you must correctly reference them using the Harvard/WesternSydU referencing style.
Requests for extensions will only be considered in the most extraordinary circumstances. If you make such a request, you must attach all work done to date on this task to your email, otherwise it will be automatically declined and you will then need to file an application for special consideration. Late penalties will apply to a submission made after the due date without an extension – 10% of total marks per day or part thereof. You should upload your completed work as soon as you are able, without waiting for an email from the unit coordinator granting or declining an extension or for an outcome on your special consideration application, as the Easter public holidays will occur just after submission so your request will not be dealt with until the Tuesday, some 4 days after the due time for submission, or even later.

A deferred assessment task might be granted as a result of your application for special consideration. If so, it will take the form of a 2 hour open book online exam. This will be held after the teaching is finished but before the final exam.

This assessment task is designed to address student learning outcomes 1–4 for the unit:

INSTRUCTIONS:

· Before submitting your Essay, it should be spell-checked and read aloud to check for grammatical errors and/or run through the grammar-checking tool in MS Word.
• Answer all questions.
• Word limit: 1500 words for the entire task, excluding your Reference List. This is a strict word count, you cannot exceed this count, therefore no +10% permitted. The penalty for exceeding the word limit is 1 mark per 100 words or part thereof.
· Do not attach a cover sheet, as this is built into the Turnitin system. If you do this will impact upon your Originality Report, your word count, and your privacy.
• Format: Double spaced, Arial 12 point, MS Word document. If you do not use a Word document we will not be able to view and mark it. Please note you can download the MSWord App for iPads free via App Store.
• If you have a question about this assessment task, please read the Learning Guide and these instructions, before posting a question to the Discussion Board on vUWS. Do not email the unit coordinator unless your enquiry is of a personal nature. Using the Discussion Board means that every student has the benefit of access to the answers to questions about the assessment task, which is a fairer system for everyone. Do NOT post your actual responses to any of the questions, as this may involve you in possible academic misconduct. Also do not ask for help in identifying how to answer a problem.

QUESTIONS:
There are three questions in this assessment task. Students must answer all questions.

Question 1: 8 marks
Graham wishing to impress his friend Stacey, goes with Stacey to an antique shop. He inspects an antique dining table and asks the shop assistant the price. The shop assistant tells him that the price is $5,000. Graham says to the shop assistant that he will take it and gives his address to the shop assistant to deliver it to his home. Payment will be on delivery.
When the table arrives, Graham telephones the shop and tells the shop assistant that he was only pretending to buy the table and that he had no intention of going through with the purchase. The shop assistant tells him that Graham must pay for the table.
Is there a binding contract between Graham and the shop? Discuss this situation using case law to support any argument you may make.
Question 2: 5 marks
Andrew and Susan married in 2015 and lived together until they separated in 2018. After 12 months of living apart, they came to an agreement in relation to maintenance and property matters. The agreement was that Susan would pay Andrew $250,000 for his interest in their matrimonial home, and that Andrew would pay Susan $1000 per month to contribute to the mortgage payments on this home. Susan paid to Andrew $250,000 but Andrew refuses to make maintenance payments to Susan. Andrew argues that their agreement is not enforceable because it was made in a domestic context. Is Andrew correct? Explain your answer and indicate relevant authority where appropriate.

Question 3: 5 marks
Chris owned and raced some greyhound dogs, who were very successful on the track. Bruce wanted to buy one of them and breed with it. However, when Bruce approached Chris, Chris told him his dogs were not for sale. Bruce increased the price he was offering but Chris continued to say no.
After several attempts Bruce finally said to Chris that he was being a stubborn ox and that dogs can easily die if one was not too careful with what they fed them.
Chris started to fear for the safety of his beloved animals and himself, so he approached another dog owner, George, and offered to sell all his dogs quite cheaply provided it was a quick sale. George agreed to the sale and now has the dogs.
Chris regrets his hasty decision and wishes to set aside the contract for the sale of his dogs. What legal argument could Chris make to set aside the contract for sale? Is it likely he will be successful?

Two marks are specifically set aside for English expression and referencing in your answer. This is negatively marked, that is you will lose ½ mark for each error up to a maximum loss of 2 marks.
The marking guidelines are as set out in the Learning Guide: Students are assessed against those standards.

Question 27: Business
The final consists of 5 essay questions from Chapters 11-15. Each response should be 150-200 content words and include references.

Question 1 of 5
Differentiate between the three types of bonds.

Question 2 of 5
Describe the five as they apply to human resource management.

Question 3 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between transaction and translation risks. Explain how these risks affect firms and investors.

Question 4 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between standardization, adaptation, and globalization. Provide an example of each.

Reference:

Question 5 of 5
20.0 Points
Describe and differentiate between the US GAAP and the International GAAP.

Question 28: Business

Introduction
½ a page. Introduce the small business (the name, main operations, target market)
P 1. Analyse key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify these considerations within an organizational context.
You should include an analysis of key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify them within the organization’s context. SWOT analysis; evaluating performance; business model canvas; Mckinsey 7S Framework.
P2 Evaluate the opportunities for growth applying Ansoff’s growth vector matrix.
Within the chosen small business, the risks of each option and how they can be mitigated.

P3 Assess the potential sources of funding available to businesses and discuss benefits and drawbacks of each source.
Talk about the long term (2 examples) and short term sources (2 examples), advantages and disadvantages of each source.

P4 Design a business plan for growth that includes financial information and strategic objectives for scaling up a business.
Must be detailed enough to show plans for growth and securing funding, set out strategic objectives, strategies and appropriate frameworks for achieving objectives.
P5 Assess exit or succession options for a small business explaining the benefits and drawbacks of each option.
Compare and contrast the options and make valid recommendations.
Decide appropriate course of action with justified recommendations.
Planning for Growth

You will prepare a report of a business plan for the growth of your simulated small business.
Use a standard report word-process and use a normal script of font size 10 to 11. Line spacing 1.5

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Question 29: Economics

Q.1 Why do national income accountants compare the market value of the total outputs in various years rather than actual physical volumes of production? What problem is posed by any comparison over time of the market values of various total outputs? How is this problem resolved?

Q.2 Why are only final goods counted in measuring GDP for a particular year? Why is the value of used furniture that’s bought and sold not counted?
Answer:

Q.3 What are the three main types of consumption expenditures? Why are purchases of new houses considered to be investment expenditures rather than consumption expenditures?
Answer:

Q.6 Which of the following are included in this year’s GDP? Explain your answer in each case.
a. The services of a commercial painter in painting the family home.
b. An auto dealer’s sale of a new car to a nonbusiness customer.
c. The money received by Smith when she sells her biology textbook to a used-book buyer.
d. The publication and sale of a new economics textbook.
e. A $2 billion increase in business inventories.
f. Government purchases of newly produced aircraft.

Question 30: Chemistry
1. Which is true regarding the seven crystal systems?
A) they completely define a crystal structure
B) they describe the shape of the unit cell.
C) there are 7 shapes that can completely fill 3D space through translational symmetry
D) all of the above.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 crystal systems?
A) Tetragonal
B) Rhombohedral
C) Trigonal
D) Face centered cubic

3. Elemental metals do not commonly crystallize in which of the following lattices
A) simple cubic
B) face centered cubic
C) hexagonal close packed
D) body centered cubic.

4. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Cu that crystallizes in the fcc? A) [100]
B) [110]
C) [111]
D) (110)

5. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Na that crystallizes in the bcc? A) [110]
B) [100]
C) [111]
D) (111)

6. In a BCC metal, the plane with the highest planer density is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

7. The closest packed plane in a metal FCC structure is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

8. Which is TRUE about Bragg’s Law?
A) It defines conditions necessary for diffraction in primitive cells
B) It is insufficient to predict diffraction in non¬primitive cells
C) It relates the path length difference between to diffracted beams to the lattice d¬spacing
D) All of the above

9. Which plane will show a peak on a diffraction pattern for alpha¬Fe (metal bcc structure)? A) (100)
B) (220)
C) (210)
D) (221)

10. Which of the following statements about vacancies is true?
A) vacancies are always present in materials
B) as temperature increases, the number of vacancies will increase
C) as temperature decreases, the number of vacancies will increase
D) vacancies are considered linear defects

11. The Hume¬Rothery rules give the conditions to be met for
A) Mixing between two elements
B) Assignment of coordination number
C) The existence of an impurity
D) Complete solid solubility

12.
Which of the following describe the defect represented by AlMg•

A) Aluminum vacancy on a magnesium site
B) Magnesium vacancy on an aluminum site
C) Aluminum substitution on a magnesium site
D) Magnesium substitution on an aluminum site

13. Which of the following could be used to maintain electroneutrality for the substitution of an aluminum atom into a magnesium lattice point?
A) For every two aluminum substitutions, create one oxygen vacancy
B) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium vacancy
C) Electroneutrality is maintained for this substitution
D) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium interstitial

14. Which is true regarding dislocations in crystals?
A) they are categorized as being two¬ dimensional defects
B) they occur only in metals
C) they can be described quantitatively by their Burger’s vector
D) cannot be readily detected because they are too small.

15. Twin boundaries, grain boundaries, and stacking faults all represent which kind of defect?
A) Types of dislocations
B) Two dimensional defects
C) Linear defects
D) Point defects

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16. Which of the following statements describes Fick’s first law?
A) the diffusivity is proportional to the concentration gradient
B) the net mass flux is proportional to the diffusivity
C) the flux is described by the error function
D) the diffusivity is thermally activated

17. Diffusion in a solid
A) is facilitated by point defects such as vacancies
B) is a function of temperature
C) requires a concentration gradient,
D) all of the above.

18. A condition of non¬steady state diffusion (i.e. the net flux is varying with time) can be described by
A) Fick’s Second law,
B) the Avrami equation
C) an Arrhenius relationship
D) none of the above.

19. Diffusivity has units of
A) mass/time2
B) length2/time
C) mass/length2•time
D) mass length/time

20. Which of the following statements about diffusion is TRUE?
A) As the bond strength is increased, the diffusion coefficient increases
B) The smaller the diffusing species the smaller the diffusivity
C) As atomic packing factor increases, diffusivity increases
D) As bond energy increases, the activation energy for diffusion increases

21.

NaCl crystallizes in the Rock salt structure illustrated above. (the figure shows multiple unit cells together). Its x-ray diffraction pattern for lamda = 0.154 nm is also shown. The table attached shows relevant data for atoms and ions which you may find useful to answer the questions, 21¬24, below.
21. Consider NaCl as well as the compounds MgO, MgS, and KBr which also crystal in the same Rock salt structure. Which shows the ranking order these compounds from lowest to highest melting point?

A) MgS < MgO < KBr < NaCl
B) MgO < MgS < KBr < NaCl
C) NaCl < KBr < MgS < MgO
D) NaCl < KBr < MgO < MgS

22.
Refer to the picture in question 21. The peak for the (220) takes place at a 2¬theta value of 45 degrees. Calculate the lattice parameter for NaCl. The value of the lattice parameter is
A) 0.201 nm
B) 0.569 nm
C) 0.109 nm
D) 0.308 nm

23. Refer to the figure in question 21. The calculated the theoretical density of NaCl is A) 13.29 g/cm3
B) 1.05 g/cm3
C) 2.11 g/cm3
D) 0.527 g/cm3

24.
Refer to the figure in question 21. For a similar XRD pattern for MgS (with lamda=0.154 nm) at what diffraction angle (2¬theta) would you expect the first peak to appear?
A) 30.2 degrees
B) 15.1 degrees
C) 17.9 degrees
D) 35.8 degrees

25.

Refer to figures (i) – (ii) to answer questions 25 – 26 about the specific directions and planes depicted below using proper Miller (or Miller¬Bravais) indices.
25. Which choice indicates the three directions shown in Figure i?
A) (101), (111), (010)
B) [101], [111], [010]
C) [110], [010], [011]
D) None of the above

26. Which choice indicates the plane shown in Figure ii, in question 25? A) [101]
B) (110)
C) [110]
D) (101)
27.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, Which of the following choices describes a Frenkel defect reaction in this material?
A) Null → VMg″ + VCl•
B) MgCl2 → VMg″ + 2Cli•
C)
Cl

MgCl2 → VMg″ + Mgi•• +2Cl x

D) Null → VMg″ + 2VCl•

28.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites in this crystal is 2.3 x10¬13 at 500°C and the activation energy for this vacancy formation is Ev = 2.3 eV, calculate the fraction of Mg vacancies expected to exist at 800°C.
A) 3.6 x10¬9
B) 1.1 x10¬4
C) 1.4 x10¬17
D) 4.6 x10¬22

29.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the compound was MgBr2, how would you expect the slope of the curve to change in a plot of ln (fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites) as a function of 1/T?
A) Slope of curve would become positive
B) Slope of the curve would decrease
C) Slope of the curve would increase
D) Slope would stay the same

30.
Using a hydrocarbon gas to carburize the surface of a steel, we obtain a surface carbon content of 1.0 wt%. The initial carbon content of the steel is 0.2 wt%. How long would take at 1000˚C to obtain a carbon concentration of 0.6 wt% at a distance 1mm from the surface? Given: Do = 20 x 10¬6 m2/S; Q = 142 kJ/mol
A) 1.52 x10¬5 hours
B) 1.02 x107 hours
C) 15.2 hours
D) 10.2 hours

Question 31: Health Care

NUTRI 101 FINAL EXAM
Question1 What is the major monosaccharide found in the human body?
Select one:
a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
d. galactose
Question2 Which of these is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be broken down by the human digestive process?
Select one:
a. amino acid
b. simple sugar
c. starch
d. fiber
Question3 What is the purpose of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 2010?
Select one:
a. to help people with specific diseases requiring special diet information
b. to provide dietary guidelines for Americans from birth to old age
c. to support the premise that nutrients should come primarily from supplements
d. to help Americans choose an overall healthful diet
Question4 How much moderate-intensity exercise is recommended in order to decrease an individual’s risk of chronic disease?
Select one:
a. 30 minutes per day
b. 45 minutes per day
c. 60 minutes per day
d. 90 minutes per day

Question5 What is an advantage of fat as a source of fuel for exercise?
Select one:
a. It can be utilized during intense, short-term exercise.
b. It is the most efficient fuel source for anaerobic exercise.
c. The body can utilize it quickly and efficiently.
d. It supplies more than twice the energy of carbohydrates.
Question6 In the human body, when is glycogen synthesis greatest?
Select one:
a. during sleep
b. upon rising in the morning
c. preceding strenuous activity
d. immediately following exercise
Question7 What is the first step in the production of energy from food?
Select one:
a. anaerobic breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm
b. conversion of food energy to ATP
c. aerobic breakdown of nutrients in the mitochondria
d. anabolic metabolism of vitamins and minerals
Question8 A cell’s genetic material is contained in its
Select one:
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
b. nucleus.
c. mitochondria.
d. Golgi complex.
Question9 The primary functions of epithelial tissue in the lining of the respiratory tract are to
Select one:
a. facilitate communication with the brain and other organs.
b. support and protect the lungs, store fat, and produce blood cells.
c. hold internal structures together and facilitate movement.
d. secrete important substances, absorb nutrients, and excrete waste.

Question10 What happens in the human body when too much Vitamin C is consumed via supplements?
Select one:
a. It is stored in muscle and liver.
b. The body converts it to its active form.
c. It will all be used for metabolic processes.
d. It is excreted in the feces and urine.
Question11 What substances manufactured by the endocrine glands act as chemical messengers in the body? Select one:
a. enzymes
b. genes
c. hormones
d. proteases
Question12 What is the term for the partially digested food mixture as it leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine?
Select one:
a. chyme
b. bile
c. mucus
d. chyle
Question13 How does the body regulate blood glucose levels after a meal?
Select one:
a. Glycogen is released from muscles.
b. Epinephrine is released by the adrenal glands.
c. Insulin is released from the pancreas.
d. Glucagon is released from the pancreas.
Question14 Which of these is the only animal-derived food that contains a significant amount of carbohydrates? Select one:
a. beef
b. eggs
c. milk
d. poultry
Question15 Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrate?
Select one:
a. lipase
b. protease
c. amylase
d. dextrose
Question16 What product is formed as a result of the incomplete breakdown of fat when carbohydrates are not available to the body?
Select one:
a. glycogen
b. ketones
c. insulin
d. cholesterol
Question17 Which type of fats can raise the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level in the blood?
Select one:
a. saturated
b. monounsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. essential
Question18 Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. HDL > 40 mg/dl
b. LDL < 200 mg/dl
c. total cholesterol > 150 mg/dl
d. blood pressure >139/89 mg HG
Question19 If a 100-calorie serving of food has 10 grams of fat, what percentage of the calories in that food is fat? Select one:
a. 90%
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 10%
Question20 Plant proteins are considered incomplete when they are missing which of these?
Select one:
a. peptide bonds
b. gelatin
c. branch chained amino acids
d. essential amino acids
Question21 Edema can be caused by a lack of which substance in the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. cholesterol
b. triglycerides
c. protein
d. glucose
Question22 The enzymatic digestion of protein begins in the
Select one:
a. mouth.
b. esophagus.
c. stomach.
d. small intestine.
Question23 Based on the RDA, how many grams of protein would a healthy 125-pound woman need daily?
Select one:
a. 46
b. 56
c. 66
d. 76
Question24 Which of the following is closely correlated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. being a female
b. having a smaller body surface area per body volume
c. having greater lean body mass
d. undergoing an extreme dieting regime
Question25 Joe is 25 years old and weighs 154 pounds. What would be Joe’s 24-hour estimated basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. 70 kcal/24 hours
b. 1680 kcal/24 hours
c. 1848 kcal/24 hours
d. 3696 kcal/24 hours
Question26 Which term refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest?
Select one:
a. basal metabolism
b. physical activity caloric expenditure
c. thermic effect of food
d. thermogenesis
Question27 What theory proposes that everyone has a genetically determined body weight that is maintained through internal controls?
Select one:
a. environmental theory
b. external cue theory
c. internal cue theory
d. set point theory
Question28 In which list are all of the vitamins fat-soluble?
Select one:
a. Vitamins A, B, C, D
b. Vitamins A, D, E, K
c. Vitamins B, C, D, E
d. Vitamins B, D, E, K
Question29 What is the primary role of Vitamin D in the body?
Select one:
a. to carry oxygen in the blood to the cells
b. to help regulate calcium and bone metabolism
c. to help regulate the heart beat
d. to act as an antioxidant
Question30 Where is most Vitamin A stored in the body?
Select one:
a. liver
b. kidneys
c. heart
d. small intestine
Question31 Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin with exposure to UVB rays?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B-6
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Question32 Iron absorption is enhanced by the consumption of
Select one:
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a. eggs.
b. chicken.
c. peas.
d. oranges.
Question33 Why does an increase in energy expenditure require an increase in B complex vitamins?
Select one:
a. They provide minimal calories.
b. They are involved in carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism.
c. They have a high bioavailability.
d. They regulate calcium absorption.
Question34 What compound is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B-12?
Select one:
a. intrinsic factor
b. insulin
c. Vitamin D
d. calcium

Question35 How does sodium maintain appropriate fluid balance in the body?
Select one:
a. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the extracellular fluid.
b. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the extracellular fluid.
c. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the intracellular fluid.
d. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the intracellular fluid.
Question36 Which mineral is important in regulating the human heartbeat?
Select one:
a. iron
b. potassium
c. sodium
d. zinc
Question37 Goiter is caused by a deficiency of
Select one:
a. fluoride.
b. iodine.
c. magnesium.
d. sodium.
Question38 While Jim was running a marathon he lost 2.5 pounds. How much fluid should Jim have consumed to prevent dehydration?
Select one:
a. 10-19 ounces
b. 20-39 ounces
c. 40-49 ounces
d. 50-60 ounces

Question39 Why does excessive intake of alcohol result in dehydration?
Select one:
a. Alcohol is high in calories.
b. Antidiuretic hormone is inhibited by alcohol.
c. Antidiuretic hormone is stimulated by alcohol.
d. There is a decrease in urinary output.
Question40 A decrease in urine output would likely be the result of a diet that is
Select one:
a. high in carbohydrates.
b. high in protein and sodium.
c. low in carbohydrates.
d. low in protein and sodium.
Question41 Which pituitary hormone signals the kidneys to conserve water by conserving sodium?
Select one:
a. aldosterone
b. antidiuretic hormone
c. glucagon
d. insulin
Question42 During which stage of the lifecycle can a prolonged deficiency in iron result in impaired cognitive development?
Select one:
a. early infancy
b. early adulthood
c. late adulthood
d. pregnancy
Question43 Which government program provides supplemental food vouchers specifically for low-income pregnant women and children?
Select one:
a. Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP)
b. Commodity Supplemental Food Program (CSFP)
c. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)
d. Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

Question44 Which is a symptom of anorexia?
Select one:
a. shame or embarrassment
b. fluctuating weight of ±10 pounds
c. erosion of tooth enamel
d. rituals involving food and exercise
Question45 Which statement describes a consequence of anorexia?
Select one:
a. The white blood cell count increases, leading to a higher number of infections.
b. Body temperature is lowered, which results in decreased metabolism.
c. The body conserves energy to combat semi-starvation.
d. Heart rate increases to make up for other metabolic changes.
Question46 Which of these is an effective means to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses?
Select one:
a. Increase the use of antibiotics in animal feed.
b. Keep cold foods between 42-50 degrees F.
c. Keep hot foods between 90-100 degrees F.
d. Thaw foods in the refrigerator.
Question47 According to the Environmental Protection Agency, which of the following is a useful strategy for reducing the intake of pesticide residue from foods?
Select one:
a. Thoroughly scrub, rinse, and peel fruits and vegetables.
b. Limit the variety of foods eaten to avoid overexposure to chemicals.
c. Consume only larger, more mature fish and not smaller, younger ones.
d. Eat the outer leaves of compact leafy vegetables and discard the remainder.
Question48 It is unlawful to add any amount of a cancer-causing substance to food, according to the
Select one:
a. GRAS list.
b. USDA.
c. Delaney Clause.
d. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
Question49 Which of the following is an unintended effect of the use of pesticides in food production?
Select one:
a. decreased food production
b. shortened storage life of harvested crops
c. destruction of natural predators of plant eating insects
d. increased food costs
Question50 Which food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. pickled vegetables
b. shellfish
c. fried foods
d. swordfish
Question51 Which of these actions helps to decrease the risk of pesticide exposure?
Select one:
a. Remove skin from poultry and fish.
b. Store food at proper temperatures.
c. Use ground meat within 1 to 2 days after purchase.
d. Cook meats thoroughly.
Question52 Which of these pregnancy complications can be reduced by 50% if a woman is physically active during pregnancy?
Select one:
a. low birth weight baby
b. premature labor
c. gestational diabetes
d. cesarean section
Question53 The body’s need for iron increases during pregnancy because of the need to
Select one:
a. increase absorption of Vitamin C.
b. reduce nausea.
c. increase appetite.
d. synthesize additional hemoglobin.
Question54 It is recommended that a healthy woman of food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. up to 15
b. 16 to 25
c. 26 to 35
d. 36 to 45
Question55 After about six months, which mineral stores have been depleted in breast-fed babies?
Select one:
a. calcium
b. iron
c. magnesium
d. iodine
Question56 Why is it recommended that solids foods be introduced after six months of age?
Select one:
a. to prevent risk of choking
b. to decrease risk of food allergies
c. to meet increased caloric needs
d. to meet increased calcium needs
Question57 Which of the following can increase the risk of osteoporosis?
Select one:
a. higher lactase production
b. increased absorption of calcium
c. inadequate exposure to sunlight
d. increased vitamin D synthesis

Question58 What is one of the basic premises of the USDA/HHS Dietary Guidelines for Americans,2010?
Select one:
a. Most Americans can best meet their nutrient needs by taking supplements.
b. Adults should consume 8 to 10 glasses of water every day.
c. Nutrient needs should be met primarily through food consumption.
d. Weight loss is best achieved with a low-carbohydrate diet.
Question59 How does an active lifestyle help to slow some of the physiological changes that occur during aging?
Select one:
a. maintains muscle mass
b. decreases body water
c. decreases muscle elasticity
d. increases fat stores
Question60 Charlie is 75 years old and is complaining of problems with constipation. Which dietary recommendation may be appropriate to help Charlie establish more regular bowel habits?
Select one:
a. Decrease intake of sweets.
b. Increase intake of calcium-rich foods.
c. Increase intake of whole grains and water.
d. Decrease intake of fat.

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Question 32: Health Care

NUTRI 101 MIDTERM EXAM

1. Healthy People 2020 was designed to

Select one:
a. eliminate health disparities, improve access to health education and quality health care, and strengthen public health services.
b. disclose dietary practices that best support health.
c. prevent chronic disease.
d. eliminate dietary inadequacies and excesses, and to encourage healthful practices.

2. A ______ is generally a fake medicine used to disguise the treatments of participants in an experiment.

Select one:
a. placebo
b. control
c. case
d. Hypothesis

3. Which of the following are substances in plant foods that are not digested in the stomach or small intestine?

Select one:
a. Dextrose
b. Disaccharides
c. Dietary fiber
d. Simple sugars

4. A kilocalorie is a measure of

Select one:
a. heat energy.
b. fat in food.
c. nutrients in food.
d. sugar and fat in food.

5. According to MyPlate, consumption of foods from the Grains group should include

Select one:
a. an equal amount of whole grain and refined grain products.
b. at least half of the grain servings as whole grain cereals, breads, crackers, rice, or pasta every day.
c. only whole grain products.
d. a serving of grain products at each meal.

6. Which of the following is true about the way we should eat to achieve good nutritional status?

Select one:
a. Eat fruits and vegetables because we can get all the nutrients we need from these.
b. Do the best we can but take supplements to fill in the deficient areas.
c. Eat a wide variety of foods because no single natural food meets all human nutrient needs.
d. Eat only plant products because animal products are bad and generally filled with hormones for animal growth.

7. Compare the following menu to MyPlate and answer the subsequent questions.
Picture Using MyPlate’s Daily Food Plan for 2000 kilocalories as a reference, the Grains are

Select one:
a. adequate in number of servings but lacking fiber.
b. adequate in number of servings and fiber.
c. inadequate in number of servings.
d. inadequate in number of servings and fiber.

8. One cup of apple juice has 111 kilocalories and 1.4 mg of vitamin C. The same serving size of orange juice has 112 kilocalories and 124 mg of vitamin C. Which of the following is true regarding their nutrient density?

Select one:
a. Apple juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than orange juice.
b. To get adequate vitamin C while watching kilocalorie intake, it would be better to consume apple juice than orange juice.
c. Apple juice provides more vitamin C per kilocalorie than orange juice.
d. Orange juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than apple juice.

9. A compound that allows for communication between one cell and the next is a

Select one:
a. neurotransmitter.
b. neuron.
c. nephron.
d. Synapse.

10. ______ tissue is part of rigid body structures, such as bone and cartilage.

Select one:
a. Connective
b. Epithelial
c. Nervous
d. Muscle
11. A function of the large intestine is to absorb

Select one:
a. fats and proteins.
b. dietary fiber.
c. water and minerals.
d. proteins and carbohydrates.

12. Which of the following hormones corrects a hyperglycemic state?

Select one:
a. Insulin
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Glucagon

13. Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose?

Select one:
a. Alcohol
b. Fruits
c. Grains
d. Sugar cane

14. The most important long-term strategy for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to

Select one:
a. lose body fat.
b. eat regular meals.
c. maintains a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day.
d. avoid sugar.

15. “Hidden” fat includes

Select one:
a. butter.
b. fat in crackers and other grain products.
c. fat around the edges of meats.
d. mayonnaise in potato salad.

16. Sometimes phospholipids are used in commercial salad dressings to suspend vegetable oil in water. In this case, phospholipids are serving as _______________.

Select one:
a. fat replacers
b. emulsifiers
c. thickeners
d. homogenizers

17. All of the following describe the characteristics of fat cells except

Select one:
a. the number of fat cells decreases when fat is lost from the body.
b. the storage capacity for fat depends on both fat cell number and fat cell size.
c. the number increases when storage capacity has reached its limit.
d. the body’s ability to store fat is limitless.

18. The child with kwashiorkor has all the following conditions except

Select one:
a. moderate weight deficit.
b. some visible fat stores.
c. edema in the abdomen and legs.
d. a skin-and-bones appearance.

19. An illness that results from a malfunction of the red blood cell because of an incorrect structure in parts of the hemoglobin protein chain is called _______________.

Select one:
a. marasmus
b. kwashiorkor
c. sickle cell anemia
d. megaloblastic anemia

20. The basic building block of a protein is called a(n)

Select one:
a. fatty acid.
b. monosaccharide.
c. amino acid.
d. keto acid.

21. A _________________________ is usually more accurate at estimating the number of calories you burn during a workout than are calorie estimators on cardio machines.

Select one:
a. bathroom scale
b. body fat monitor
c. step monitor
d. heart rate monitor

22. Which of the following is true about basal metabolism?

Select one:
a. It represents about 30 percent of total energy expenditure.
b. It is energy expenditure to maintain heartbeat, respiration, other basic functions, and daily activities.
c. It represents about 60 percent to 75 percent of total calories used by a sedentary person during each day.
d. It includes the energy used to digest food.

23. The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that adults should engage in the equivalent of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity each week for substantial health benefits. Which of the following statements accurately describes the physical activity required to lose excess body weight and maintain weight loss?

Select one:
a. Weight loss and weight maintenance will likely require more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week.
b. Engaging in 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week is adequate for weight loss and weight maintenance for most adults.
c. During a weight-loss program, physical activity should be restricted to no more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week to prevent increases in appetite.
d. Moderate-intensity aerobic activities are not adequate for weight loss or weight maintenance; intense activity is necessary to boost basal metabolic rate.

24. Beta-carotene is a precursor to

Select one:
a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin D.

25. High doses of vitamin D may cause

Select one:
a. excessive acne.
b. calcium deposits in the kidneys and other organs.
c. limb paralysis.
d. a flaky skin rash.

26. Soybeans, egg yolks, meats, and lecithin are sources of ______.

Select one:
a. riboflavin
b. choline
c. chromium
d. iodide

27. A niacin deficiency causes the disease _______________.

Select one:
a. anemia
b. beriberi
c. cheilosis
d. Pellegra

28.Some niacin is formed in the body from

Select one:
a. phenylalanine.
b. tyrosine.
c. tryptophan.
d. lysine.

29. A pantothenic acid deficiency

Select one:
a. is very unlikely because of its widespread availability.
b. is very likely.
c. occurs commonly in children.
d. occurs commonly in the elderly.

30. Which of the following is an example of a vitamin that is more bioavailable in its synthetic form?

Select one:
a. folate
b. vitamin B-6
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin A

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