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Q1. Workforce Planning

Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.

 

Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.

 

Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:

• specific job skills and competencies
• employee qualifications
• the breadth of training offered and available

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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document

 

Q2. Week 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:

 

• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.

 

• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner

You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.

One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.

Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:

• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.

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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:

• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).

 

Cite a minimum of two references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

 

Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech

Read the following scenario. 

Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.

Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.

Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.

Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.

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In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:

• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

 

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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage

 

 

Read the following scenario.

Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.

The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.

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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

 

Include the following:

• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.

 

Cite a minimum of three references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods

Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.

You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.

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Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:

• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.

 

Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.

 

Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q7. Case Study 1 Transforming the Organization

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Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:

1. How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.

 

Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS

Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)

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This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®.

Instructions

Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.

1. Write an Introduction describing your topic.
2. Write the Statement of the Problem section.
3. Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
4. State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
5. Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
6. Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
7. Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
8. Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
9. Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
10. Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
11. Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
12. Describe your method of sampling.
13. Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
14.  Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
15. Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
16. Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
17. Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
18. What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?

Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.

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Q9. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes

Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.

• Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.

 

 

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Q11. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

• What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

• What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q12. Wk 2 Discussion

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

• What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

• What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

 

Q13. Original Work Only

Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

1. Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
2. Industry and Market Feasibility
3. Product or Service Feasibility
4. Financial Feasibility
5. Entrepreneurial Readiness
6. Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?

 

 

Q14. Discussion question

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each:

• What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
• Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.

 

Q15. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

 

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions

For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

 

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:

• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:

o A title,

o Your name,

o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),

o Your instructor’s name, and

o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).

• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

 

 Q16. Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse

 

Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 3:

• Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
• Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.

 

Assignment:

1. Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
2. Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
3. Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
4. Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
5. References should be provided in initial thread and replies.

 

Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking.  Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?

 

Q17. Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

Q18. The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem

Details:

The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.

Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.

Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.

Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.

The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).

Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.

Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.

Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:

1. Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
2. Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
3. When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.

To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

 

Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

 

 

 

Q20. week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

• Assess the organization’s current status:

o    Leadership

o    Board members

o    Structure

o    Number of employees

• Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

 

Q21. role of sport in education

role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

 

Q22. Strategic Choice and Evaluation

 

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

1. What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how?  Why is this relationship important?
2. How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
3. What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
4. What might encourage diversification?
5. What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
6. What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
7. Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
8. What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

 

Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

 

Use examples to support your discussion.

 

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

 

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

Q24. Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation

Include the following in your outline: 

• Organizations(Apple Inc)
• Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
• Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

 

Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources

1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
2. What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
3. What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
4. What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
5. What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
6. What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
7. How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
8. How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

 

 

 

 

 

Q26. MGT 279 Assignment 4

1. In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
2. As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
4. What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

 

   Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel^®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific 

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

1. What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
2. Using Excel^®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
3. What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
4. What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
5. What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
6. What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
7. What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
8. What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
9. What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
10. What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
11. What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
12. How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
13. How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
14. Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
15. Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
16. Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
17. Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format. 

 

Q28. New hire for job position

 

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

 Q29. Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Hi,

I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”  So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process

Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

 

 

Q30. For Contemporary Decision Making.

Consider  how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the  statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.

• consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean  as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank.  Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

• Provide an example of empirical probability ?

 

 

 

 

BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;

Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.

ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions

When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)

Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
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Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
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Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
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William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
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The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
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M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
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Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
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Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
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One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
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The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.

Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.

Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.

The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,

Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.
…
I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take
…
And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end

Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
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According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
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In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
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Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
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Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points

“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
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Question 9
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Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
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Question 10
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According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
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Question 11
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Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
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Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points

One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
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Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
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Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which is not one of the Three Unities?
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Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
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Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
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Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
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Question 18
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The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
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Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
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Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
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Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
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Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
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Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
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Question 24
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A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
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Question 25
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The Greek play began with the parados.
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Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
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Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points

With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
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Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
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Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
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Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
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Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
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Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
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The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
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Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
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Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
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Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
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Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Dionysus was the god of dance.
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Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
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Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
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Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
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Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
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According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
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Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
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Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
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Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
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Question 48
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Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
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Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
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Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
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Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.

Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab

Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.

Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****

Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument

In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

Assignment

In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.

Proposal Argument Prompt

Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

As you compose your essay, be sure to:

• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.

IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1

Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics

Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Q7. Thinking Critically 1

For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.

Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.

Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE

ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument

In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.

Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)

Ethical Essay Prompt

Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

Instructions

After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”

When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.

Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.

Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.

Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.

Proofreading Checklist

Part 1

Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.

Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.

Part 2

When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself

Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.

Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.

Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)

Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.

HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.

Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)

RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1

• Question 1

This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2

When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3

Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4

When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5

Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7

Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8

When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9

The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10

According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11

Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12

In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13

Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14

A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15

According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16

Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17

One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18

According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19

When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20

According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.

Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5

According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.

1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?

2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?

3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?

4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?

5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?

6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?

7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?

8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was

Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.

Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as

Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.

Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.

Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.

Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with

Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?

Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?

1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.

1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.

1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?

1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was

2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find

3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:

4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.

5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.

6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because

7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture

8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.

9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.

10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?

11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?

Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University

1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by

2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because

3.
Hidalgos were

4.
Convertible husbandry

5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT

6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by

7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by

8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when

9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was

10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of

11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by

12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of

13.
Francisco Pizarro was

14.
The European traffic in African slaves

15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from

16.
Enclosure was the process by which

17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it

18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain

19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period

20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that

Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University

1.
With respect to religiosity and women

2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that

3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526

4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as

5.
Catherine de’ Medici

6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT

7.
The Council of Trent met to

8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT

9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a

10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli

11.
The millenarians believed that

12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by

13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that

14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because

15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to

16.
The Huguenots

17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation

18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists

19.
The Jesuits were a

20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by

Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were

2.
In the Late Middle Ages

3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when

4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)

5.
Unam Santa (1302)

6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua

7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when

8.
The Conciliar Movement

9.
The Lollards were

10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to

11.
Feudal traditions

12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because

13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?

14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT

15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France

16.
The Great Schism came to an end

17.
Wycliffe and Hus

18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason

19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that

20.
Which of the following events occurred last?

Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?

1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that

2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at

3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?

4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:

5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?

6. The Crusades were

7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except

8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire

9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the

GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.

•
• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.

Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.

Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.

Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices

Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.

Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.

Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points

This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm

Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.

Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.

Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.

Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?

Q8. Assignment 2 Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff

Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.

Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System

Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic

URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475

Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing

Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”

Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

ART

Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review

For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.

Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?

Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.

Our Case Study:

The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.

Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.

Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:

Classic Interpretations:

For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:

Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?

Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process

Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.

Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.

Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report

This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?

Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.

• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?

Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)

Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)

1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.

Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned

Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.

Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?

Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics

Objective
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Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.

Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.

ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).

*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).

Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.

***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)

Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.

Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)

Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries

Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.

Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4

Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)

Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )

Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)

FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity

Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.

Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:

Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?

Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent âclocksâ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:

1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnât this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:

• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:

• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?

Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics

Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.

Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.

Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.

Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers

Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?

Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.

citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal

Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,

Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?

Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust

Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50

Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA

Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?

How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?

LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 5

1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.

with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.

Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma

Warp

Ship

Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense

back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:

2

5
3

none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.

They are all velar

They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar

They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.

rounded
tense

high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:

voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.

voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.

none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.

True

False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.

True

False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?

Voiceless velar oral stop

Voiceless velar nasal stop

Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.

True

False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?

Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.

None of these are false.

There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.

In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.

True

False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?

none of these answers

China
Cute

Bamboo

Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:

An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.

A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.

None of these answers.

The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers

alveolar

approximant

lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.

The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.

None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.

The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.

True

False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.

True

False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?

None of these answers.
The nasal system.

The vocal tract system.

The respiratory system.

The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:

none of these answers.

/θ/
/ð/

/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.

An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.

An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.

how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.

the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:

the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.

none of these answers

fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.

True

False
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Bottom of Form

Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.

If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at

Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…

PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE

, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.

Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals

Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity

Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed

Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo

The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.

Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s

Double Indmnity market scene
50:20

LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s

Kiss me deadly beach scene

Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies

Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.

PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.

Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.

Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about effect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median

Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

ASSESSMENT BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

Pain before
treatment Pain after
treatment
9
5
6
4
3
10
9
9
7
5
2
5
8
3
6
7 8
6
4
3
3
8
6
7
8
4
4
4
5
5
3
8

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Region

Political
Party Urban Rural
Republican 16
32
29
18
18 19
28
29
37
26
Democrat 35
36
27
39
22 24
19
14
26
30
Libertarian 12
16
10
27
19 9
13
7
25
12
Independent 27
17
23
21
12 15
16
26
25
13

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine

8

10
5

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS

Less likely to support No change More likely to support

25
12
9

7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.

Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers

Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers

Result A+

Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3

Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers

Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.

ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account

Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.

Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.

Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.

a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))

Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity

b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI

Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking
Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.
•
• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers
Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.
•
• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases
Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.
•
• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case
Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.

Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?

Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do

Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?

Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.

Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.

Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.

EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
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contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?

Q3. Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394

Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work

CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points

This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.

Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.

Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.

REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family

Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.

 

Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed

This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional

social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.

Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau

http://www.santafenewmexican.com/news/local_news/n-m-poverty-rate-down-but-is-still-among-worst/article_5da80fa0-d4cd-5fe7-b0c8-3e05f44a7daf.html pulled 11/27/2018

New Mexico Report – 2018

2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18

Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+

BIBL 104 – Quiz 7

• Question 1

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

• Question 2

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

• Question 3

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

• Question 4

In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.

• Question 5

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

• Question 6

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

• Question 7

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

• Question 8

1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.

• Question 9

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

• Question 10

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

• Question 11

In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.

• Question 12

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.

• Question 13

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

• Question 14

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

• Question 15

2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.

• Question 16

In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”

• Question 17

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

• Question 18

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

• Question 19

Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.

• Question 20

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

• Question 21

In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.

• Question 22

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

• Question 23

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.

• Question 24

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

• Question 25

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

• Question 26

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

• Question 27

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.

• Question 28

In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.

• Question 29

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

• Question 30

1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.

• Question 31

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.

• Question 32

In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.

• Question 33

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

• Question 34

In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.

• Question 35

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.

• Question 36

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.

• Question 37

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

• Question 38

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

• Question 39

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

• Question 40

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

• Question 41

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.

• Question 42

In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.

• Question 43

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

• Question 44

Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.

• Question 45

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

• Question 46

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

• Question 47

Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.

• Question 48

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.

• Question 49

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

• Question 50

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than

one large church.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and

approachable to all believers at all times.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 5

0 out of 1 points

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with

different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in

and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for

both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary

death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by

Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual

building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of

love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they

should have dealt with this sin problem.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 22

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s

righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and

gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 26

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of

Question 27

0 out of 1 points

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would

pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

Question 28

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.

Question 29

0 out of 1 points

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by

having the young man circumcised.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the

church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

Question 33

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is

that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He

breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

Question 37

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise

of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.

Question 38

0 out of 1 points

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are

“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim

belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is

perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is

the Bridegroom.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s

apostolic authority.

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law

is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord

will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.

Question 46

0 out of 1 points

Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have

been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”

Question 47

0 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good

Christian behavior.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament

truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 49

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in

the flesh.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He

then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that

we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first

generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and

God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.

Question 30
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when

He hung on the cross.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.

Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.

Question 38
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he

reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on

Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly

arrangement of the local church.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days

____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff

____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium

____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain

____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease

____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone

____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics

____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness

____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe

____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home

____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam

____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships

____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one

____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support

____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea

____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia

Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.

• Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.

• Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.

• Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

• Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

• Question 7

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

• Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 9

1 out of 1 points

According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.

• Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

• Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

• Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

• Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

• Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.

• Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

• Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

• Question 17

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.

• Question 20

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 21

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

• Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

• Question 23

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Selected Answer:
False

• Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

• Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

• Question 26

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.

• Question 27

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.

• Question 28

1 out of 1 points

John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.

• Question 29

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.

• Question 30

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 31

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

• Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

• Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”

• Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

• Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?

• Question 36

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.

• Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

• Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

• Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

• Question 41

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

• Question 43

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

• Question 44

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

• Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

• Question 46

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

• Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

• Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

• Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 50

1 out of 1 points

In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 6

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

Question 7

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

Question 17

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Selected Answer:

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.

Selected Answer:

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 42

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT

GENDER STUDIES.

Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.

Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.

Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.

Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below

THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.

View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.

Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.

Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

Q5. Discussion Board Forum:

pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below

DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.

Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.

Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.

Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.

Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.

Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA

Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse

Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient

CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)

1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?

Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.

HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
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Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
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A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
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At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
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An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
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Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
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A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
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A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
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A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
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5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
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A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
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Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
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When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
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An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
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A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
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A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
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A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
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Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
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While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who

Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?

Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation

Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation

Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.

____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement

____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.

____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory

____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease

____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin

____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement

____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.

____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria

____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).

____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis

____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)

____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease

____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation

____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease

____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.

____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.

____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles

____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle

____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta

____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.

____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.

____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)

____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.

____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.

____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave

____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4

____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal

____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute

____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate

____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node

____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.

____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention

____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.

____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity

____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.

____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation

____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).

____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis

____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.

____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.

____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin

____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.

____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance

____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule

____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.

____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.

____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.

____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure

____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air

____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities

____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.

____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure

____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis

____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation

____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)

____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)

____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)

____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25

____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal

____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30

____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.

____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)

____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system

____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis

____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory

____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic

____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated

____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic

____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion

____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease

____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency

____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.

____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation

____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy

____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure

____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.

____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Matching

Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity

____ 198. Proto-oncogene

____ 199. Pleomorphic

____ 200. Anaplasia

____ 201. Caretaker gene

____ 202. Autocrine stimulation

Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent

____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins

____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle

____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction

____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles

____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole

Match th

Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]

Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1

Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
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Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive

Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication

Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer

Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.

Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support

Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in

Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few

Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)

NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –

Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy

____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners

____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs

____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing

____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level

Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney

____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms

____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin

____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues

____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects

____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues

____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range

____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range

____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long

____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action

____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists

____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow

____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed

____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual

____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.

____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.

____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion

____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above

____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins

____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above

____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive

____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs

____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time

____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor

____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug

____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”

____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration

____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose

____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.

____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally

____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration

____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response

Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form

____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug

____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders

____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment

____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy

____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above

____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated

____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English

____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective

____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration

____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.

Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings

____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure

____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity

____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin

____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state

____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above

____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them

____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy

____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above

Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male

____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function

____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D

____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen

____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E

____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response

____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV

____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F

____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer

____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication

____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants

____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G

____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives

____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction

____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F

Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices

____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations

____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds

____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders

____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting

____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.

____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.

____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above

____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms

____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent

____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.

____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance

____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence

____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above

Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption

____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities

____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization

____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care

____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction

____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy

____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States

Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin

____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug

____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug

____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify

Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure

Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?

A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI

The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin

Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action

Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks

Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium

Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)

In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month

Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite

Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear

Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day

Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)

Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?

A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients

Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

Off-Label prescribing is:

A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

One goal of asthma management in children is:

A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.

The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation

A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose

Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors

Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:

A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve

A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst

Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

A. True
B. False
B. False

A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia

Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.

Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis

Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.

Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)

Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks

Sitagliptin has been approved for:

A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible

Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?

A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.

A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control

Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease

Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD

To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d

The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine

The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days

A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E

The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months

Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin

What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.

When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history

When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off

When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?

A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream

When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet

Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker

Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.

Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

A woman who has migraine with aura:

A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens
…

Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…

LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948

article title

volume and issue information

journal title

author

Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?

paraphrase

hanging quote

direct quote

Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan

Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.

Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score

Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%

Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%

PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions

Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.

• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:

Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that

Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.

Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.

Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:

Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief

Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism

Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules

Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms

Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.

Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)

Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.

In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.

In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.

In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.

While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.

A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.

Questions to Consider

1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?

2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?

3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.

4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.

Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history

Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59

Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.

RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:

Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q4. 2019 Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 6 complete solutions
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
______________ became the first Christian martyred for preaching the gospel.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
0 out of 2 points
The author of Acts is clearly not an eyewitness of much of what he writes about.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the Acts of the Apostles” isn’t a survey of the ministry of all twelve disciples; rather it is about ____________ and _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts is filled with gospel preaching, including sermons by Peter, __________, and Paul.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem while Paul and Barnabas went on.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at _______________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
__________, pastor of the Jerusalem church, presided over the council.
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart of the Gentile world in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
0 out of 2 points
Paul begins his third missionary journey from
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
On Paul’s first missionary journey he took ___________ and ___________ with him.
Selected Answer:
Barnabas/ John Mark
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Jewish authorities finally arrested Paul at __________ where he defended himself before the Sanhedrin.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
On his second missionary journey, Paul receives a vision at ________ that encourages him to travel to Macedonia.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
In ______________ on their first missionary journey, Paul and Barnabas were mistaken for gods.
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Paul asked ________________ to join him in his work at Lystra while on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
2 out of 2 points
The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name ___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
2 out of 2 points
A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in Jerusalem at _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
2 out of 2 points
In __________ on his second missionary journey, Paul speaks to the Areopagus.
Selected Answer:

Q5. 2019 Answer key to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 5

42 out of 50 points
Time Elapsed
55 minutes out of 1 hour and 30 minutes
Instructions
• Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
• 50 true/false and multiple-choice questions
• Open-book/open-notes
• Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the quiz.
• The timer will continue if you leave this quiz without submitting it.
Results Displayed
Submitted Answers, Feedback
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Selected Answer:
Mark
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Jesus asked James three times, “Do you love Me?” Upon Peter’s positive confession Jesus recommissioned him to service.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew is the most comprehensive of the four Gospels.
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The last twelve verses of Mark are included in the KJV but modern translations like the NASB, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, and NIV usually use footnotes or a combination of footnotes and brackets to indicate that some manuscripts lack the verses.
Selected Answer:

Q6. 2019 Answers to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4

Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4 Answers 2019
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In Haggai’s final message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of Judah and a member of the house of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Lamentations, Jerusalem’s fate was worse than that of Sodom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is marked by grace and truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s message is a personal one in which the prophet laments and dialogues with the Lord over the justice of His ways in using the Babylonians to punish Judah’s sins.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day of the Lord to restore His people.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the same to them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
_________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that “They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which means chêsêd in Hebrew.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Might Savior.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They trusted in their political and military advisors for their security.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Like a con artist, Nineveh had seduced other nations into alliances and then had
betrayed them because of her greed and lust for wealth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Luke 22:37 quotes from Isa 53:12 (“And he was numbered with the transgressors”) as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In his first vision, Zechariah saw a flying scroll that measured thirty feet by fifteen feet and was covered with written curses against those who had broken God’s commandments
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Amos’ prophecies of judgment demanded a response because they were not absolute predictions of what must happen in the future as much as they were warnings of what would happen if Israel did not repent and change its ways.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the New Testament explains that John the Baptist is the fulfillment of the messenger prophesied by Malachi.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They believed their mountain fortresses made them invulnerable to enemy attack.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Malachi is structured around disputations in which the Lord dialogues with His people in a series of questions and answers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is from the throne of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Zephaniah’s ministry reminds us of the importance of preaching which confronts evil, calls for repentance, and leads to revival.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Lamentations reveals that, as the Divine Warrior, the Lord poured out His anger on the city of Jerusalem. However, He would not abandon the Temple for it was His own sanctuary.
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
The ultimate fulfillment of the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah was the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, who was literally God incarnate and who would preserve the line of David forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ confirmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew the people of Israel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as an “Everlasting Father.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Daniel was thrown into a lion’s den because he refused to stop praying.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the __________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Babylonians allowed Jeremiah to remain in the land of Judah, and he ministered there until he and his scribe Baruch were kidnapped by a faction of Jews and taken away as hostages to Egypt.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Nahum, God’s justice demanded the Assyrians experience the suffering and degradation they inflicted on others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a rebellious daughter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Zephaniah began his ministry at approximately the same time as Ezekiel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The ____________ were descendants of Esau and had a stormy relationship with Israel throughout their history.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identifies ___________ as the author of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Peter cites and quotes from Isa 53:4–5, 9, 11–12 (“He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth,” and “by his wounds you have been healed”) in 1 Peter 2:21-25 as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as a suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the personification of the city of Jerusalem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In the final section of the book of Micah, God’s relationship to His people is presented as
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The judgment of the Edomites is a reminder that God stands opposed to all forms of human arrogance and pride.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the bread of life.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s third question was:
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose reigns forever.
Selected Answer:

Q7. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10

Q8. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9

Q9. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8

Q10. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7

CHEMISTRY.

Q1. Citric Acid Cycle

 

Balance Sheet for the Citric Acid Cycle The citric acid cycle has eight enzymes: citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, and malate dehydrogenase. (a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction catalyzed by each enzyme. (b) Name the cofactor(s) required by each enzyme reaction. (c) For each enzyme determine which of the following describes the type of reaction(s) catalyzed: condensation (carbon–carbon bond formation); dehydration (loss of water); hydration (addition of water); decarboxylation (loss of CO2); oxidation-reduction; substrate-level phosphorylation; isomerization. (d) Write a balanced net equation for the catabolism of acetyl-CoA to CO2

 

Q2. Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

According to the Arrhenius definition, what is the substance that provides hydroxide ions in solution?

Solvent

Precipitate

Base

Acid

Salt

 

According to Arrhenius theory, what is an acid?

1. A substance that contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions with water.
2. A substance that will lower the hydrogen ion concentration when placed in water.
3. A substance that has an H in its formula.
4. An electron pair donor.
5. An electron pair acceptor.

 

Which of the following is not capable of acting like a Brønsted–Lowry base?

1. H₂O()
2. NH₄⁺ion
3. Cl^–ion
4. HNO₃(aq)
5. H₂PO₄^–(aq)

 

Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

1. HCO₃^–(aq)
2. HOH()
3. NH₃(g)
4. CO₃^2–(aq)
5. CH₃OH()

Consider the following generalized reaction.

 

For this reaction, which of the following is correct?

1. A is proton source.
2. B is a proton remover.
3. A is an electron pair donor.
4. B is an electron pair acceptor.
5. This a Lewis acid-base reaction.

 

Which of the following is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

1. OH^–
2. HPO₄^2–
3. HCl
4. NH₄⁺
5. Fe³⁺

 

 

Which one of the following pairs does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?

H₃PO₄ / HPO₄^2-

H₂O / OH^–

HBr / Br^–

NO₃^– / HNO₃

HClO₂ / ClO₂^–

 

Choose the pair that does not constitute a conjugate acid-base pair.

CH₃CO₂H / CH₃CO₂^–

H₃O⁺ / H₂O

HSO₄^– / SO₄^2-

H₃PO₄ / HPO₄^2-

None. All of these are conjugate acid base pairs.

 

Which one of the following is a strong acid?

nitric acid, HNO₃

phosphoric acid, H₃PO₄

hypobromous acid, HOBr

bromic acid, HBrO₃

carbonic acid, H₂CO₃

 

Given the following relative acid strengths, starting with the weakest: HCO₃^– < HNO₃ < HBr, what is the relative strength of each conjugate base, starting with the weakest?

1. CO₃^2–< NO₃^–< Br^–
2. Br^–< CO₃^2–< NO₃^–
3. NO₃^–< Br^–< CO₃^2–
4. Br^–< NO₃^–< CO₃^2–
5. CO₃^2–< Br^–< NO₃^–

 

 

Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between nitrous acid and hydrogen sulfide ion?

1. HNO₂+ HS^–H₂NO₂⁺ + S^2–
2. HNO₂+ HS^–NO₂^– + H₂S
3. HNO₂+ HSO₄^–H₂NO₂⁺ + SO₄^2–
4. HNO₂+ HSO₄^–NO₂^– + H₂SO₄
5. HNO₃+ HSO₄^–NO₃^– + H₂SO₄

 

Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between HC₂O₄^– and HPO₄^2–? (Note: H₂C₂O₄ is a stronger acid than H₂PO₄^–.)

1. HC₂O₄^–+ HPO₄^2–H⁺ + H₂O₄^2– + HPO₄^2–
2. HC₂O₄^–+ HPO₄^2–H⁺ + HC₂O₄^– + PO₄^3–
3. HC₂O₄^–+ HPO₄^2–C₂O₄^2– + H₂PO₄^–
4. HC₂O₄^–+ HPO₄^2–H₂C₂O₄ + PO₄^3–
5. HC₂O₄^–+ HPO₄^2–H₂ + C₂O₄^2– + PO₄^3–

 

Which one of the following chemical equations illustrates the ionization of perchloric acid, HClO₄, when it dissolves in water?

2 HClO₄2 ClO₄^– + H₂

HClO₄ + H₂O H₃O⁺ + ClO₄^–

HClO₄ + OH^– H₂O + ClO₄^–

3 HClO₄ + 2 H₂O 2 H₂O⁺ + 3 HClO₄^–

HClO₄ + H₂O H₂ClO₄⁺ + OH^–

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. Acid-base reactions involve a transfer of protons; redox reactions involve a transfer of electrons.
2. In both redox and acid-base reactions, the reactants are given special names to indicate their roles in the transfer process.
3. Just as certain species can either donate or accept protons and thereby behave as an acid in one reaction and a base in another, certain species can either accept or donate electrons, acting as an oxidizing agent in one reaction and a reducing agent in another.
4. Just as acids and bases may be classified as “strong” or “weak” depending on how readily they donate or accept protons, the strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents may be compared according to their tendencies to attract or release electrons.
5. Unlike most acid-base reactions in solution, which reach a state of equilibrium, most aqueous redox reactions do not reach a state of equilibrium and proceed entirely either in the forward or reverse direction.

 

The autoionization of water, as represented by the below equation, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H₂O(l) + H₂O(l) H₃O⁺(aq) + OH^–(aq)

The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water increases and the water remains neutral.

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
i. K_w = [H⁺][OH^–] = 1.0 × 10^–14 at 25°C.
ii. Water or water solutions in which [H⁺] = [OH^–] = 10^–7 M are neutral solutions, neither acidic nor basic.
iii. A solution in which [H⁺] > [OH^–] is basic.
iv. A solution in which [OH^–] > [H⁺] is acidic.

1. i and ii
2. iii and iv
3. ii, iii, and iv
4. All statements are correct.
5. All statements are incorrect.

 

At 55°C, the ion-product constant of water, K_w, is 7.05 × 10^-14. The pH of pure water at 55°C is

4.384

7.000

3.804

4.484

None of these choices are correct.

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H₂CO₃, with K_a1 = 4.2 × 10^–7 and K_a2 = 4.8 × 10^–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is K_w = 1.0 × 10^–14 at 25°C. What is the OH^– concentration of a solution that is 0.15 M in Na₂CO₃?

2.7 × 10^-6 M

6.0 × 10^-5 M

5.6 × 10^-3 M

2.1 × 10^–4 M

2.5 × 10^-4 M

 

What is the [ OH^– ] in a solution that has a pH of 10.15 ?

1.41×10^-4 M

0.213 M

1.41×10^-5 M

7.08×10^-10 M

7.08×10^-11 M

 

Which of the following is true for a basic solution?

[ H⁺ ] < [ OH^– ]

K_w = [ H⁺ ]

[ OH^– ] = [ H⁺ ]

[ H⁺ ][ OH^– ] = 1

[ OH^– ] < [ H⁺ ]

 

What is the pH of a solution when [OH^–] = 5.0×10^-2 mol/L?

12.70

7.00

13.70

0.30

1.30

 

What is the [ H⁺ ] of a solution that has a pH of 7.37?

4.27×10⁶

2.34×10^-7

4.27×10^-8

2.34×10⁷

 

Which one of the following is not characteristic of a acid?

Producing a solution with a pH less than 7

Tasting sour

Producing hydrogen ions in solution

Turning red litmus blue

 

If the pH of a solution is equal to 7.00, the solution is _____.

basic

amphoteric

neutral

acidic

 

The pH of a solution is 5.330. Find [OH^–].

2. [OH^–] = 2.14 × 10^–9molar
3. [OH^–] = 4.70 × 10^–11molar
4. [OH^–] = 5.33 × 10^–7molar
5. [OH^–] = 4.70 × 10^–6molar
6. [OH^–] = 5.33 molar

 

A solution is made by dissolving 12.50 g of NaOH, a strong base, in water to produce 2.0 liters of solution. What is the pH of this solution?

13. 13.50
14. 13.19
15. 11.74
16. 0.81
17. 0.31

 

The following three equations represent equilibria that lie to the right.

HNO₃(aq) + CN^–(aq) HCN(aq) + NO₃ ^–(aq)

HCN(aq) + OH^–(aq) H₂O(l) + CN^–(aq)

H₂O(l) + CH₃CH₂O^–(aq) CH₃CH₂OH(aq) + OH^–(aq)

Identify the strongest base.

1. CH₃CH₂O^–
2. NO₃^–
3. CN^–
4. CH₃CH₂OH
5. H₂O

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H₂CO₃, with K_a1 = 4.2 × 10^–7 and K_a2 = 4.8 × 10^–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is K_w = 1.0 × 10^–14 at 25°C. What is the OH^– concentration of a solution that is 1.15 M in Na₂CO₃?

7.4 × 10^-6 M

1.7 × 10^-4 M

2.1 × 10^–4 M

6.9 × 10^-4 M

1.5 × 10^-2 M

 

As water is heated, its pH decreases. This means that

the dissociation of water is an endothermic process.

the water has a lower [OH^–] than cooler water.

the K_w value is decreasing.

the water is no longer neutral.

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the pH of a 8.22×10^-2 M NaF solution (K_b = 1.4 x 10^-11).

11.94

2.06

5.97

3.15

8.03

 

At 65°C, the ion-product constant of water, K_w, is 1.20 × 10^-13. The pH of pure water at 65°C is

3.727

7.000

4.307

4.407

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the hydroxide concentration in a 3.0 M HCl aqueous solution.

3.0*10^-14 M

7.0*10^-13 M

1.0*10^-7 M

3.4*10^-15 M

3.0*10^14 M

 

 

 

 

Q3. Chapter 16 – Solutions

 

Chapter 16 

 

1. Consider the following beaker which has had its contents (KBr and water) mixed until no further change occurs.

 

Which of the following best describes the contents of the beaker?

1. KBr – solute and water – solvent.
2. Saturated solution.
3. Addition of enough water would produce an unsaturated solution.
4. A heterogeneous mixture.
5. All of the above correctly describe the contents of the beaker.

 

2.

Which of the following correctly applies to the term “solution”?

1. heterogeneous mixture
2. variable composition
3. constant properties
4. dissolved particles can are usually larger than about 10^–7cm
5. exist only in the liquid and gas state

3.

A solution that has a relatively large amount of solute dissolved in it at a particular temperature is said to be _____.

unsaturated

oversaturated

dilute

supersaturated

concentrated

 

4.

Suppose you are given a beaker containing a solution. None of the solute is on the bottom. You drop a small crystal of the solute into the solution, and it readily dissolves into the solution. Which one of the following terms best describes the solution?

concentrated

supersaturated

unsaturated

static

saturated

 

5.

Which of the following substances should be the most soluble in ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH)?

CH₄

NaCl

Mg₃(PO₄)₂

CH₂Cl₂

O₂

 

6.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1. The roles ofsoluteand solvent are not always clearly defined in the solution of one liquid in another.
2. When water and carbon tetrachloride are in the same test tube, a denser layer of carbon tetrachloride forms beneath a less dense layer of water. The liquids are said to be miscible.
3. A solution of a given concentration that is saturated at one temperature may be unsaturated at another temperature.
4. Dilute nitric acid and dilute sulfuric acid may or may not have the same concentration.
5. The concentration of solute in a supersaturated solution is greater than the normal solubility limit.

 

7.

“Like dissolves like” essentially means:

Solids won’t dissolve in liquids.

Ionic compounds will only dissolve in molten salts.

Ionic compounds won’t vaporize easily.

Polar solutes will dissolve in polar solvents.

 

8.

In carbon steel, carbon is the _____ and iron is the _______.

solute, solution

solvent, solute

solute, solvent

solution, solute

 

9.

dentify the incorrect statement about events that occur between the time excess solid solute is first introduced to a liquid solvent and the time when the solution becomes saturated. Assume that the surface area of the solute remains constant throughout the process.

1. The rate of concentration change is zero when the solution is saturated.
2. The net rate of concentration change is greatest at the beginning of the process.
3. The rate of dissolving is greater than the rate of crystallization when the solution is one-half saturated.
4. If temperature remains constant, the rate of dissolving is constant.
5. If temperature remains constant, the rate of crystallization remains constant.

 

10.

When a saturated solution is in equilibrium with undissolved solute, …

1. the solution separates into layers.
2. dissolving and crystallization stop.
3. the quantity of dissolved solute equals the quantity of undissolved solute.
4. the concentration of the solution remains constant.
5. the temperature increases until more solute dissolves.

 

11. Which of the following will always cause the greatest increase in the solubility of a gas in a liquid?

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid with no temperature change of the liquid

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

12. Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
13. CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃
14. CH₃–CH₂–O–CH₂–CH₃
15. CH₃–CH₂–OH
16. CH₃–OH

I < III < IV < II

I < II < IV < III

III < IV < II < I

I < II < III < IV

None of these is correct.

 

13.

The structures of cyclohexane and benzene are shown below.

cyclohexane

benzene

It is logical to expect that these liquids are…

1. miscible because of their similar structures and sizes.
2. miscible because they contain the same number of carbon atoms.
3. immiscible because benzene, with half as many hydrogen atoms, has less hydrogen bonding than cyclohexane.
4. immiscible because one molecule is polar and the other nonpolar.
5. immiscible because both molecules have ring structures

 

 

14.

Consider the graph shown below.

 

Which substance shows the smallest increase in solubility as the temperature is increased?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E

 

15.

To determine the mass percent of a solution’s composition, what do you need to know?

Mass of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and volume of solution

Mass of solute and volume of solution

 

16.

 

Find the mass percent of CuSO₄ in a solution whose density is 1.30 g/mL and whose molarity is 1.36 M.

2.66%

16.7%

1.77%

83.3%

None of these choices are correct.

 

17.

If 8.73 g Ca(NO₃)₂ is dissolved in enough water to make 0.750 L of solution, what is the molar concentration of Ca(NO₃)₂?

11.6 M

1.16×10^-2 M

7.09×10^-2 M

25.1 M

0.114 M

 

18.

What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.20 M FeCl₃ solution?

6.7×10^-2 M

0.80 M

0.60 M

0.20 M

0.40 M

 

19.

What concentration unit is necessary for the calculation of vapor pressure lowering of a solvent?

mass fraction of solvent

molarity of solute

mole fraction of solvent

molality of solvent

mole fraction of solute

 

20.

 

75.0 mL of water is added to 12.9 mL of 0.250 M KMnO₄. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?

1. 1.70 M
2. 1.45 M
3. 0.0581 M
4. 0.0430 M
5. 0.0367 M

 

21.

 

What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at STP, is produced in the reaction of excess aluminum with 50.0 mL of 0.935 M hydrochloric acid?

1. 0.531 L
2. 1.06 L
3. 2.12 L
4. 0.0474 L
5. 0.0237 L

 

22.

Write the balanced equation for the reaction of aluminum chloride with silver nitrate and determine what volume of 0.107 M silver nitrate is required to precipitate all the chloride from 15.00 mL of 0.0500 M aluminum chloride.

45. 45.0 mL
46. 7.01 mL
47. 21.0 mL
48. 63.1 mL
49. 15.0 mL

 

23.

Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary standard in finding the concentration of a solution of sodium hydroxide by the reaction KHC₈H₄O₄ + NaOH → NaKC₈H₄O₄ + H₂O. What is the molarity of the base if 32.75 mL is required to titrate 1.732 g of the primary standard?

1. 0.5189 M
2. 0.2590 M
3. 1.732 M
4. 3.861 M
5. 3.275 M

 

24.

The citric acid in a lemon juice sample was neutralized by titration with NaOH solution. If 5.00 mL of lemon juice required 47.8 mL of 0.121 M NaOH for neutralization, what was the molarity of the citric acid in the lemon juice? The reaction is 3 NaOH + H₃C₆H₅O₇ → 3 H₂O + Na₃C₆H₅O₇.

1. 1.16 M
2. 3.47 M
3. 0.110 M
4. 0.386 M
5. 0.329 M

 

25.

A 50.0 mL hydrochloric acid sample is analyzed for its concentration by titration. Determine the concentration of the sample, given that it requires 21.50 mL of 0.102 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the acid.

1. 0.105 M
2. 1.05 M
3. 22.8 M
4. 0.0439 M
5. 0.237 M

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
2. the densities of the solute and solvent
3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

h

3

1

2

5

4

 

Which of the following statements concerning the solubility of a solute is/are correct?

(1) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.
(2) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with increasing temperature.
(3) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 only

2 only

1 only

 

The solubility of a gas usually increases with increasing temperature.

True

False

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
2. the densities of the solute and solvent
3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

 

 

 

 

Q4. Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

 

Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

1.

 

Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that:

equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.

the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.

the rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.

 

2.

Hydrogen gas can be collected by water displacement when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid. When the container is filled with the hydrogen gas, which of the following is true of the total pressure (P) inside the container?

 

 

3.

 

What is the phase change from liquid to solid called?

Fusion

Freezing

Condensation

Sublimation

Evaporation

 

4.

 

Which of the following properties of liquids is the least affected by the strength of intermolecular forces?

1. vapor pressure
2. boiling point
3. heat of vaporization
4. density
5. viscosity

 

5.

 

Arrange the following molecules, CH₃CHO, SO₂, and H₂O, in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces.

CH₃CHO, SO₂, H₂O

SO₂, CH₃CHO, H₂O

H₂O, SO₂, CH₃CHO

H₂O, CH₃CHO, SO₂

CH₃CHO, H₂O, SO₂

 

6.

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Intermolecular forces are weaker in liquids than in gases because the particles are closer to each other.
2. Smaller intermolecular distances in liquids result in stronger intermolecular forces, when compared to intermolecular distances and forces in gases.
3. Compared to liquids, large distances between gaseous molecules yield large intermolecular attractions.
4. The smaller the distance between molecules the smaller the intermolecular attractions, therefore attractions are weaker in liquids than gases.
5. All statements are correct.

 

7.

The kinetic molecular theory as applied to liquids differs in two major ways from the theory as applied to gases. One of these is that…

1. Matter no longer appears to be made up of discrete particles
2. Energy changes result from intermolecular collisions
3. Attractive forces between molecules are significant
4. Molecules are no longer in motion relative to each other
5. Forces between molecules are no longer electrostatic in character

 

8.

Considering the molecular mass and polarity influences on physical properties, which of the following predictions about the boiling points of elemental bromine and chlorine fluoride is most apt to be correct?

1. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br₂has the lower boiling point.
2. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br₂has the higher boiling point.
3. Molecular mass predicts Br₂has the lower boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
4. Molecular mass predicts Br₂has the higher boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
5. Molecular mass and polarity have an insignificant influence on the physical properties of these molecules.

 

9.

 

The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids at STP?

 

10.

 

The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is

 

 

11.

 

Which of the following molecules will have the highest boiling point?

CH₄

I₂

SiH₄

SO₂

O₂

 

12.

 

Select from the following the statement that is incorrect or contrary to the generalizations that you’ve learned.

1. The strength of induced dipole forces depends on the ease with which electron distributions can be polarized.
2. Dipole forces are present in NF₃, but not in CF₄.
3. The principal intermolecular forces in a straight chain hydrocarbon such as C₈H₁₈are induced dipole forces.
4. Intermolecular forces are usually stronger for substances that exhibit hydrogen bonding than for otherwise similar substances lacking hydrogen bonds.
5. Induced dipole forces exist in both polar and nonpolar molecular substances, but they are essentially the only attractions in polar compounds.

 

 

13.

Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?

HF

NH₃

CH₄

H₂O

all the same

 

14.

 

The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the boiling points listed below:

SbH₃ –17°C, AsH₃ –55°C, PH₃ –87°C, NH₃ –33°C

The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass decreases; however, ammonia (NH₃) does not follow the trend because of:

dipole-dipole attraction.

hydrogen bonding.

metallic bonding.

London dispersion forces.

ionic bonding.

 

 

 

15.

 

Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?

NaCl(l)

N₂(s)

HF(l)

H₂O(l)

K(s)

 

16.

 

Draw the Lewis diagrams of CH₃OH and water, then from the Lewis diagrams, identify the statement among the following that is most apt to be incorrect.

1. Hydrogen bonds are probably the principal intermolecular force in both compounds.
2. Both compounds have both hydrogen bonding and induced dipole forces.
3. Both molecules being polar, dipole-dipole forces are present in both compounds.
4. Induced dipole forces are present in CH₃OH, but not water.
5. Induced dipole forces are probably the least significant intermolecular forces in both compounds.

 

17.

 

There is 250 mL of water stored in a 500-mL sealed container. As the temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K:

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase increases indefinitely.

the number of water molecules in the liquid phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase remains constant.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases indefinitely.

 

18.

 

What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?

It would decrease.

It would double.

It would become half its value.

It would increase.

Two of these choices are correct.

 

19.

 

Among the following, identify the incorrect statement about a boiling liquid:

1. Boiling temperature may be increased by raising surrounding pressure.
2. The temperature of the liquid must be greater than that of the gas above the liquid.
3. Boiling in an open beaker occurs at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.
4. Equilibrium vapor pressure at boiling temperature equals, or is slightly higher than, surrounding pressure.
5. All statements are correct.

 

20.

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
5. All statements are incorrect.

21.

Although both are readily soluble in water, why does table salt (NaCl) conduct an electric current when dissolved in water but table sugar (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁) does not?

Because table salt has a simpler formula than table sugar.

Because sugar contains carbon atoms which do not conduct electricity.

Because sugar has a larger mass than salt.

Because salt forms ions of Na⁺ and Cl^– in water which are free to move about to conduct an electric current whereas sugar does not form ions in water.

22.

Why does ice float on liquid water?

1. It is a compound without carbon atoms that exists in the liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
2. The linear structure of the water molecule allows ice molecules to pack together tightly enough to allow ice to float.
3. Ice is structurally similar to wood, so ice floats on water in a manner similar to wooden ships where air becomes trapped in cells within the solid structure.
4. Oxygen’s low electronegativity leads to the collapse of the crystal structure, allowing the molecules to become closer together in water.
5. Water molecules in the solid form are held in a crystal pattern that has voids between the molecules.

23.

In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?

vaporization

sublimation

melting

crystallization

None of these choices are correct.

24.

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. There is long-range order in a crystalline solid
2. Graphite is an example of an amorphous solid.
3. Glass, rubber, and plastic are examples of crystalline solids
4. Particles in an amorphous solids are arranged in a distinct geometric order
5. In a crystalline solid particles can move past the closest neighboring particles.

 

25.

 

Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?

White phosphorus

Calcium fluoride

Sulfur hexafluoride

Carbon dioxide

Silver

 

26.

 

Which of the following substances is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?

NH₃

MgCl₂

Cl₂

H₂S

CH₄

 

27.

 

The heat of fusion of gold is 63 joules per gram. Once a 25.0 g sample of gold has been heated to its melting point, 1063°C, how much additional heat is required to melt it?

1. 89 kJ
2. 39 kJ
3. 2.7 kJ
4. 2.6 kJ
5. 1.6 kJ

 

28.

Calculate the heat of fusion of an unknown pure substance if 5.33 × 10³ kJ of heat is required to melt a 17.2 kg sample.

1. 1.09 × 10^–5J/g
2. 3.23 × 10^–3J/g
3. 3.10 × 10²J/g
4. 9.17 × 10⁴J/g
5. 3.10 × 10⁵J/g

29.

Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of C₄H₁₀. This compound has vapor pressures of 492 mmHg and 355 mmHg at -12.0 °C and -20.0 °C, respectively. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

-81.4 kJ/mol

30.7 kJ/mol

9.73*10^3 kJ/mol

2.24*10^4 kJ/mol

22.4 kJ/mol

30.

Calculate the specific heat of an unknown metal if a 123 gram sample requires 8.8 kJ of heat to change from 16°C to 97°C.

1. 0.88 J/g · °C
2. 1.1 J/g · °C
3. 5.8 × 10³J/g · °C
4. 1.3 × 10⁴J/g · °C
5. 8.8 × 10⁷J/g · °C

31.

The graph below represents a temperature versus energy plot for a pure substance.

Identify the point(s) where…
(i) only gas exists
(ii) both solid and liquid exist

1. (i) 7 (ii) 2 and 3
2. (i) 7 (ii) 5 and 6
3. (i) 1 (ii) 2 and 3
4. (i) 4 (ii) 5 and 6
5. (i) 4 (ii) 2 and 3

 

What is the total heat flow if 27 grams of steam at 143°C is cooled to become water at 34°C? The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of steam is 2.0 J/g · °C. The heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 kJ/g, and the boiling point of water is 100°C.

2. 2.3 kJ
3. 7.4 kJ
4. 61 kJ
5. 71 kJ
6. 9.8 × 10³kJ

 

A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO₂ has a total pressure of 9.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO₂?

6.6 atm

With all other factors being equal, which of the following correctly lists intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength?

1. Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
2. Induced dipole forces < Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
3. Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces
4. Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Induced dipole forces
5. Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 28.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

226 torr

680 torr

760 torr

505 torr

255 torr

 

Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?

The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.

The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.

Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.

The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.

 

 

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
5. All statements are incorrect.

 

What is the total heat flow if 28 grams of water at 12°C is cooled to become ice at –19°C? The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of ice is 2.1 J/g · °C. The heat of fusion of ice is 333 J/g, and the freezing point of water is 0.0°C.

5. 1.1 kJ
6. 1.4 kJ
7. 9.4 kJ
8. 10.8 kJ
9. 11.8 kJ

 

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 24.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

543 torr

669 torr

266 torr

217 torr

760 torr

 

 

Q5. i a need diagrams

 

Using the notation scheme for defining manipulator configurations (Section 8.1.2), draw diagrams (similar to Figure 8.1) of the following robots: (a) TRT, (b) VVR, (c) VROT.

 

Q6. Non-profit organization Propose two te

 

Non-Profit Organizations

Please respond to the each and every single requested information following in 2-3 thorough paragraphs: (Please provide your resources)

• 1. Propose two (2) techniquesthat a nonprofit can use to measure management and employee efficiency within its organization.
• —Speculate on the major benefitsthat these techniques may have on the organization.
• 2. Determine whether or not traditional financial and management evaluation ratios such as return on assets (ROA), return on equity (ROE), economic value added (EVA), and market value added (MVA)apply to nonprofits.

 

Q7. One argument in the debate surround

 

1. One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations. In three paragraphs

 

2. Globalization’s impact on jobs and wages is an important topic for debate. Discuss the major points for globalization in the jobs and wages debate, and describe how the actions of large multinational corporations affect the issues in the jobs and wages debate. In three paragraphs

 

3. Identify the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) three main goals and explain how the WTO differs from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

 

4. Summarize each benefit a company might obtain from the globalization of markets.

 

5. Explain globalization of production and its benefits. 3 benefits

 

 

 

 

One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations.

 

Q8. Stoichiometry Answer

8.39 grams of Zinc (MW=65.39 g/mole) and 12.2 grams of AgNO3 (169.87g/mol) are placed in a flask and react to form zinc (II) nitrate. how many grams of zinc nitrate will form?

 

Q9. The appraisal process is one step involved in i

 

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

 

Q10. Assess the value of branding in health

 

Module 3 – Case

Branding & Online Marketing

Case Assignment

Your assignment is to write a 4- to 5-page scholarly position essay in which you assess the value of branding in health care. Specifically, under what circumstances do you feel that it is beneficial for health care organizations to use branding?

1. Can the use of branding have unexpected negative consequences? Explain in detail.

 

 

COMMUNICATIONS.

Q1. ASSIGNMENT 8 EN360 Technical Communication

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

 

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures”on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2. technical commumications

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

Part D: Ted Talk Lecture Evaluation

 

Watch a 10-20 minute TED Talks lecture online (www.ted.com). There are 27 evaluation criteria on the “Checklist for Oral Presentations” below (also found in Chapter 24 of your textbook). Select 10 among them that you believe are most salient for this speaker. Identify strong areas and areas that could have been better. Provide an example for each. (These are skilled speakers, so you’ll probably be highlighting more strengths than weaknesses.)

 

Grading Rubric

 

Please refer to the rubric below for the grading criteria for this assignment.

 

 

 

 

This is the end of Assignment 8.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q3. EN 360 technical communications 

 

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

Q4    COMS 101 Reading Analysis 3: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

Question 1

40 out of 40 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

According to one early researcher, we can recall about what percent of a speech immediately after a speech.

According to one early researcher, we recall about what percent of a speech after several days.

The first of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The fourth of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The number of decibels created by the normal speaking voice.

The phase of listening in which you attach meaning to words.

The phase of listening in which you assess the worth of the speaker’s ideas and determine their importance.

Changing an attitude or behavior to eliminate an inconsistency.

Listeners have the ability to process about this many words per minute.

Most people use about this many words per minute when talking.

• Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

The background noise we encounter in communication situations.

The attitudes, emotions, beliefs, assumptions, and biases that, as noise, condition our responses in communication situations.

For most serious special-occasion speeches, you should use this style of language?

Speeches that honor and highlight events, institutions, and individuals.

A speech in which demonstrates interest in and enthusiasm about his or her speech.

 

Q5. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 2: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A

 

Question 1

30 out of 30 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

Goals that center around specific tasks to be performed.

Goals that relate to the individual’s personal needs and ambitions.

As groups grow in number, the need for this increases.

In this small group format, group members have an informal interchange on the issues in front of an audience.

In this structured small group format, speakers who have expertise in the particular areas give prepared speeches on specified topics.

In this audience-centered small group format, group members respond to audience questions but do not interact with each other.

Making sure group members understand and agree on the problem is part of the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

The ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Proces is to analyze the problem.

Determining criteria for an acceptable solution is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Generating possible solutions is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Choosing the best solution to the problem is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Putting the best solution into effect is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Evaluating your group’s success or the lack thereof is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

He stated that the ideal group size is 5-7 members.

He devised a theory of reflective thinking.

• Question 2

20 out of 20 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

In the Johari Window, information known to self and to others.

In the Johari Window, information known to others but not to self.

In the Johari Window, information known to self but not to others.

In the Johari Window, information known neither to self nor to others.

The relational dialectic that concerns our need to relate to others yet independent.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs to share information yet be private.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs for excitement and uncertain yet stable.

The lose/lose approach to conflict management that is characterized by withdrawal.

The win/lose approach to conflict management in which parties strive to be on the top.

The win/win approach to conflict management in which each person leaves the conflict satisfied with the outcome.

 

Q6. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest)

Liberty University COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1

• Question 1

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

The use of volume, pitch, tone, accent, speaking pace, and silence to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of gestures, facial expressions and eye contact to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of space to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of touch to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of time or timing to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of material objects to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

Social interaction among two or more people, usually in a face-to-face environment, but possibly also in real-time virtual environments.

Interaction among three or more people who come together for a common purpose.

When a speaker formally addresses a group of typically 10 or more individuals in a face-to-face environment where interactivity is possible but generally not practiced.

When people use a media technology to distribute information to a large group of physically detached people.

• Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A figurative form identifies one thing in a way that symbolically stands for another thing, such as when Martin Luther, in his great hymn, describes God as a mighty fortress

A figurative form explicitly compares two otherwise dissimilar things, usually via the modifiers like or as, such as when the poet Robert Burns wrote, “My love is like a red, red rose.”

A figurative form that alludes to something by either highlighting only one aspect of it or something broader that includes it, such as when journalists use the term Washington as a reference to America’s federal government.

The figurative use of a mild term in place of a harsh term to relay the same basic idea in a more tasteful form, such as when we say that someone “passed into God’s presence” rather than that this someone died.

The figurative use of a harsh term instead of a mild term for an intended effect, such as when one calls a lawyer an “ambulance chaser.”

The figurative ascription of human qualities to something that is not human, such as the Old Testament prophet Isaiah, in his book’s 55th chapter, anticipates the day when the trees of the field will clap their hands.

A statement that appears to be self-refuting but that is, in fact, true or possibly true, such as the statement, “The more things change, the more they stay the same.”

A combination of words that means something different than the words’ literal meaning, such as “You will do well if you play your cards right.”

Words that are used indirectly to signify a secondary meaning that is not patently obvious when the words are taken at face value.

Words that are used forthrightly to signify the person, place, thing, idea, action, or state of being that the words or combination of words evidently symbolize.

• Question 3

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A composite of your beliefs about human origin (where we came from), human nature (what makes us human), human purpose (why we are here), and human destiny (where we are going).

Someone who is aware of and content to live with an inconsistency between the belief system he or she professes and the one he or she practices

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she chooses to disbelieve in its existence, even though this person has reason for believing that it does exist.

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she has no reason to know it exists.

A person’s history of interactions with people whose input helps to shape the way he or she sees and acts toward the world.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it promotes the greatest good not for the individual, but for humanity as a whole.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it simply “works” for the person who holds it, regardless of whether it logically consists with anyone else’s experiences and standards.

Systems of belief that people develop on their own, primarily in response to what human standards have taught them to deem believable or acceptable.

Recognizes that God, the timeless, changeless source and sustainer of the universe and the source of all knowledge, discloses otherwise indiscernible foundational truths through Scripture, and that these otherwise hidden disclosures rightly frame and give direction to human questions to make sense of anything, including communication.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is unacceptable if it is illogical or if it is at odds with what common human observations tell us is true.

• Question 4

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

Sees the universe as a self-created, self-sustaining machine, consisting of material processes and particles and nothing more than these, that invariably follow the course that physics has blindly programmed it to follow.

Holds that although we come to see the world as we do by the people who influence us through socialization, this neither has to be nor should be so.

Social constructionists who aim to show how social influencers can impact what people become and how privileged groups use this to promote themselves at others’ expense.

The attempt to make sense of human communicative behavior and specific human communications in the light of divine revelation.

Verbal and/or nonverbal behavior manifest God’s love to others in a way that promotes what God values in the world.

 

Q 7. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)

COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

Question 1

 

 

An organizational pattern that focuses on relationships in time is referred to as:

Question 2

 

 

____________ function as a reminder of what you plan to say and the order in which you plan to say it and are used during the presentation.

Question 3

 

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

Question 4

 

 

All of the sub-points in a speech do not have to be logical extensions from preceding points.

Question 5

 

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

Question 6

 

 

“To explain to the class how participating in an athletic sport can bring psychological as well as physical benefits” is an example of a(n):

Question 7

 

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

Question 8

 

 

A speech discussing the relationship of industrial pollution to higher cancer rates in the general population would be most effective in what order?

Question 9

 

 

Mood is the emotional disposition of the speaker as the speech is being delivered whereas tone refers to the overall feeling you hope to create in your audience.

Question 10

 

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the three things you need to do when you “focus attention on topic and speaker”?

Question 11

 

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

Question 12

 

 

Quotations can be interwoven into the fabric of the speech without telling your listeners that you are speaking the words of another, but it’s important that you use the quote exactly and attribute it to the writer.

Question 13

 

 

Physically involving your audience in your introduction is not an appropriate introductory technique.

Question 14

 

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

Question 15

 

 

“This morning I will discuss the scientific, therapeutic, physiological facts and myths about the effects and the effectiveness of alternative medicine” is an example of which function of a speech introduction?

Question 16

 

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

 

Question 17

 

 

The characteristic of spoken language that refers to how ideas are arranged in a sentence is called:

Question 18

 

 

Imagery involves creating a vivid description through the use of one or more of our five senses.

Question 19

 

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

Question 20

 

 

Often the best humor for speeches comes from your own experiences.

Question 21

 

 

Jesse Jackson’s line, “We cannot be what we ought to be if we push dope in our veins, rather than hope in our brains,” is an example of antithesis.

Question 22

 

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

Question 23

 

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

Question 24

 

 

Putting too much information on note cards can result in:

Question 25

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for EMPHASIS?

Question 26

 

 

Which of the following IS NOT true regarding rate of speech?

Question 27

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for physical movement?

 

 

Question 28

 

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

Question 29

 

 

Which of the following is an aspect of physical delivery?

Question 30

 

 

What should a speaker avoid doing when she or he wishes to engage in effective eye contact during a speech?

 

Q8. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

• Question 1

 

The ____________ outline is also known as the full-content outline.

• Question 2

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

• Question 3

 

The first step in organizing your speech is:

• Question 4

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

• Question 5

 

If I’m giving a speech about participating in Living History, I may talk about choosing a character, researching the person, developing the speech, and presenting to the various classrooms.  The organization of this speech would be considered:

• Question 6

 

Outlining is regarded by our authors as:

• Question 7

 

When presenting a speech on the evaluation of jazz as a musical art form in America, Betsy first spoke about Dixieland jazz, the period of swing followed by be-bop. She concluded her remarks with comments on progressive and fusion sounds. Betsy used which organizational pattern in her speech?

• Question 8

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

• Question 9

 

According to your authors, the first few minutes are critical to the success of the entire speech.

• Question 10

 

An effective speaker will quickly establish a reason for audience members to listen.  This part of the introduction is referred to as:

• Question 11

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

• Question 12

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

• Question 13

 

Never use your conclusion to connect your speech topic to a broader context or societal issue.

• Question 14

 

According to your authors, which of the following is not considered a technique to use in the introduction of a speech?

• Question 15

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the ten introduction techniques?

• Question 16

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

• Question 17

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

• Question 18

 

Using signals when writing is just as important as using signals in a speech.

• Question 19

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

• Question 20

 

Parallel structure refers to the arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form.

• Question 21

 

Jargon can be used effectively if you are sure the members of your audience understand your references.

• Question 22

 

If I’m talking about my cat, and instead of saying, “I have a cat,” I say, “I have a white, long-haired, 12-year-old cat that weighs 20 pounds,” I am following what guideline regarding language usage?

• Question 23

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

• Question 24

 

A(n) ______________ speech involves the least amount of preparation.

• Question 25

 

The most appropriate mode of delivery for students in a public speaking class is memorization.

• Question 26

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

• Question 27

 

Which of the following is a characteristic of a manuscript speech?

• Question 28

 

All of the following are relevant aspects of speech preparation.  However, the key to successful manuscript speaking is ___________.

• Question 29

 

One of the performance guidelines for memorizing speeches is to memorize small sections of your speech at a time.

• Question 30

 

Which of the following is TRUE about gestures?.

 

Q9. COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2

• Question 1 

 

Which is not included in the body of the speech?

• Question 2 

 

Plagiarism involves using another’s work, words, or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

• Question 3 

 

A _________________ expresses your speech’s main point in one complete sentence.

• Question 4 

 

Which of the following strategies will help to reduce speech tension most effectively?

• Question 5 

 

The most effective way to organize your speech is to divide your message into four parts: opening remarks, thesis, body, and conclusion.

• Question 6 

 

Jessie referred to an study, reported on ScienceDaily, in which communication professors Amy Nathanson and Eric Rasmussen found that early TV exposure harms parent-child communication. Jessie offered a quote from Nathanson and Rasmussen state this point. This is an example of which kind of support?

• Question 7 

 

Which of the following is a literal analogy?

• Question 8 

 

The specific purpose of your speech is ____________.

• Question 9 

 

Which of the following is an example of a specific purpose?

• Question 10 

 

____________ involves using other people’s works, words or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

• Question 11 

 

Burt, attending a Midwestern university, delivered his first speech in his public speaking class on the growing numbers of automobile accidents in Italy. The problem with his speech, however, essentially was:

• Question 12 

 

“Ornate ambiguity” is the term used for a speaker who plans to be vague, sketchy, and considerably abstract.

• Question 13 

 

Which of the following IS NOT one of the types of informative speaking?

• Question 14 

 

“Show trends” is one of the suggestions provided when discussing which goal of informative speaking?

• Question 15 

 

This type of speech deals with abstract subjects such as ideas, theories, and principles.

• Question 16 

 

The notion of avoiding information overload refers to which goal of informative speaking?

• Question 17 

 

Saying “first, “second,” “third,” as you cover your three main points is an example of:

• Question 18 

 

A speech that paints a picture of an event, person, concept, and so on.

• Question 19 

 

Which of the following is the definition of a speech of description?

• Question 20 

 

Guidelines for the informative speaking goal of ____________ include questioning the source of the information, considering the timeliness of the information.

• Question 21 

 

___________________ is the process of preparing and delivering messages through verbal and nonverbal symbols to individuals or groups in order to alter, strengthen, or maintain attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors.

• Question 22 

 

The two overall persuasive goals are:

• Question 23 

 

“Consider now how you can enjoy retirement lounging in the sunshine of a warm climate, secure financially, and with both a mind and a soul for pleasure and comfort from making good investments during your working years.” This statement is found in which step in the motivated sequence?

• Question 24 

 

In the satisfaction step of the motivated sequence, you describe the problem you will address in your speech.

• Question 25 

 

In all cases of inductive reasoning, you can never be sure that your conclusions are absolutely accurate.

• Question 26 

 

Of the three parts of an argument, the most difficult part to understand is often the:

• Question 27 

 

The statement, “Malnutrition is a growing problem worldwide, especially in Asia,” is:

• Question 28 

 

Staging refers to the sequence of interlinking claims that establish the content and force of your position.

• Question 29 

 

“Dynamism” in credibility studies refers to logical precision.

• Question 30 

 

The part of an argument that links the evidence with the statement (claim) is called the:

 

 

Q10. COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3

 

Question 1 Which of the following is not true regarding occupation as a demographic characteristic? 

Question 2 Which of the following was not listed as one ofthe five variables related to “Who are my listeners?‘ 

Question 3 questions limit responses to several choices, yielding valuable information about such demographic factors a age, education, and income. 

Question 4 Which question is NOT a key question the text indicates is essential in audience analysis? 

Question 5 Audience expectations are rarely defined for you by the speaking invitation. 

Question 6 The first step in using a questionnaire is designing specific questions that are likelyto get you the information you need. 

Question 7 Attitudes are predispositions to act in a particular way that influence individuals responses to objects, events, and situations. 

Question 8 Which of the following is true about “avoid the age gap” when ma kingthe speaker—audience connection? 

Question 9 When trying to influence listeners, it is easier to change their attitudes than their beliefs or values. 

Question 10 A spea ker must be inclusive to avoid unfairly categorizing or stereotyping members of the audience. 

Question 11 If you were interested in discovering material from a comprehensive source on art and artists in your preparation for an informative speech. which of the fol lowing sou rces is most likely to provide you with the best information? 

Question 12 Identifi’ the best description of what research is: 

Question 13 An effective library search strategy moves you from the most specific information to be located in governmental sources to the very general information found in encyclopedias. 

Question 14 A credible speaker is perceived as a fan 

Question 15 lf you use a diagram, illustration, or graph from some source, you need to cite that source during your speech. 

Question 16 If you decide to interview, make sure you contact the person in advance, prepare questions in advance, develop questions in a logical order, and: 

Question 17 Message credibility is the extent to which a speaker is perceived as a competent spokesperson. 

Question 18 Which of the following IS NOT one of the four steps in developing a research strategy? 

Question 19 A website that is(has) is reliable and error-free. 

Question 20 Message credibility is defined as 

Question 21 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are 60 percent more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 22 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as a function of presentational aids? 

Question 23 A key advantage in using presentational aids in a speech is: 

Question 24 Visual aids fall into four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? 

Question 25 While other aspects of your speech should be audience-centered. the presentational aid is designed specifically to help the speaker. 

Question 26 Research has shown that three days after an event, people retain ‘IU percent of what they heard from an oral presentation, but they retain 35 percent of a visual presentation. Question 27 If you see audiences looking at your presentational aid as though asking, “What does THAT mean?” then you have violated which of the criteria for a presentational aid? 

Question 28 When using two-dimensional presentational aids, you want to ask yourself what its purpose is and if it will make the speech better. This question relates to which criteria for using two—dimensional presentational aids? 

Question 29 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 30 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as one ofthe general criteria for using presentational aids?

 

 

 

 

 

 

ARCHITECTURE

Q1. Architecture, Building and Planning-

Get creative. Write about what inspires you. Add photo to support your idea.

 

Q2. Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living

Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living in the 1930s. Your task is to go back in time and interview Elizabeth. The focus of your interview is twofold. First, you are to discern from Elizabeth what it meant to be a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s, how that shaped her worldview, and how America understood fundamentalism at the time. Second, you are to learn from Elizabeth how American religion has changed over time. How is being a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s the same and/or different from being a Puritan in the Colonial period? What, if anything, has changed? Again, your goal is to help the modern reader to understand the religious milieu and fervor that would have shaped Elizabeth’s world.
The script of your interview should be written in full; showing both the questions you would ask and the responses Elizabeth might provide. You must ask a minimum of 5 questions. Insert citations in the interview script so the modern reader might go and learn more about life as a Puritan and/or the religious setting of the period. You should list those sources at the end of your interview document. Your interview should use a minimum of 3 sources and should be between 2-3 pages long.

 

Q3. ACC-281-Week-5-Final-Paper

Focus of the Final Paper

Write an 8 to 10 page Case Analysis of the following article (which can be found in the Ashford Online ProQuest database):

Souza, M. & McCarty, B. (2007). From bottom to top: How one provider retooled its collections [electronic version]. Healthcare Financial Management, 61(9), 67-73.

Include the following:

1) Complete summary of the case study that identifies the key problems and issues, provides background information, relevant facts, the solution employed, and the results achieved.

2) Identify and explain the accounting practices California Sutter Health used in defining and solving its collection problems. Develop an alternative solution based on your own research using 3 to 5 academic sources from journals, professional organizations, and websites.

3) State your informed opinion of the approach used by California Sutter Health, and provide support using concepts from your research and personal experience.

 

Q4. BCOM 230 Week 1 Individual Assign

Reviewthe chosen organization’s philosophy, mission, vision, and values statements. This statement identifies the organization’s espoused values. Research the University Library or the Internet to locate articles about the organization’s enacted values.

Writea 350- to 700-word paper based on your review and research. Complete the following in your paper:
Describe the culture of the organization.
Discuss the types of communication this organization uses for internal and external communication.
The extent to which communication in an organization is determined by the organization’s culture.
Do the espoused values of the selected organization align with its enacted values?

 

Q5. Go to YouTube, and search for an epis

Go to YouTube, and search for an episode of UnderCover Boss. Imagine you are the CEO of the company in the selected episode.Compare two (2) job positions from the episode and perform a job analysis of each position.

1. Describe your method of collecting the information for the job analysis (i.e., one-on-one, interview, survey, etc.).
2. Create a job description from the job analysis.
3. Justify your belief that the job analysis and job description are in compliance with state and federal regulations.
4. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

Q6. Parkway Distributors is a wholesale fi

Smith Construction is building a warehouse for Raymond. The construction firm routinely leaves certain construction equipment at the building site overnight and on weekends. Late one night, Fred, age 10, began playing on some of Smith’s construction equipment. Fred accidentally released the brakes of a tractor on which he was playing, and the tractor rolled down a hill and smashed into the building under construction. Fred was severely injured in the accident. Fred’s parents sue both Smith Construction & Raymond for the injury.

• What legal doctrine is applicable in this case? Explain.

–

Parkway Distributors is a wholesale firm that employs several outside salespersons. Emily, a salesperson employed by Parkway Distributors, was involved in an accident with another motorist while she was using her car to make regular sales calls for Parkway distributors. Emily and the motorist are seriously injured in the accident. The motorist sues both Emily and Parkway Distributors for the injury based on negligence.

• Is there a legal basis for Parkway Distributors to be held legally liable for the injury to the motorist? Explain.

 

 

 

1. Whirlwind Mowers manufactures and sells power lawn mowers to the public and distributes the products through its own dealers. Andrew is a homeowner who has purchased a power mower from an authorized dealer on the basis of the dealer’s recommendation that “the mower is the best one available to do the job.” Andrew was cutting his lawn when the mower blade flew off and seriously injured his leg.

• Andrew sues Whirlwind Mowers and asks for damages based on negligence in producing the power mower. Is Whirlwind Mowers guilty of negligence? Explain.

 

Q7. HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

SYSTOLIC AND DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE OF FEMALES

The following table represents systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements of 40 females.

 

1. A) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to find the linear correlation coefficient for the systolic and diastolic measurements.

 

1. B) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to determine the linear regression equation that uses the systolic pressure to predict the diastolic pressure.

 

1. C) What is the best predicted value for diastolic pressure given that a woman has a systolic level of 100?

 

 

 

Q8. HLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

HLT 310V A Spiritualit

HLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

 

 

 

Q9. Hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 W

hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T score

 

Q10. Who is an Entrepreneur Where do

Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.

 

BIOLOGY.

Q1. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%

True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. (T/F, ANSWERS AT THE END OF THE PAPER)

 

____    1.   Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked increase in nuclear size.

 

____    2.   A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.

 

____    3.   For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.

 

____    4.   Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas: growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability, angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis.

 

____    5.   There is no current evidence that associates obesity with cancer formation.

 

____    6.   The term “neoplasm” can refer to a benign tumor.

 

____    7.   The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.

 

____    8.   Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.

 

____    9.   Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) directly affects melanocyte stimulation.

 

____  10.   Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I.

 

____  11.   Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.

 

____  12.   A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves cold drinks.

 

____  13.   Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors.

 

____  14.   Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for both Graves’ disease and hypothyroidism.

 

____  15.   Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.

 

____  16.   The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the glands during surgery.

 

____  17.   Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes.

 

____  18.   Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

 

____  19.   Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS) than in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

 

____  20.   When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart become more extensive and numerous.

 

____  21.   Veins are less compliant than arteries.

 

____  22.   Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.

 

____  23.   Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.

 

____  24.   While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.

 

____  25.   Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.

 

____  26.   Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.

 

____  27.   Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.

 

____  28.   Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.

 

____  29.   Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.

 

____  30.   Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.

 

____  31.   Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake, most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.

 

____  32.   In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.

 

____  33.   When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.

 

____  34.   Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus.

 

____  35.   An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.

 

____  36.   Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.

 

____  37.   Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.

 

____  38.   Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____  39.   Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?

a.

Osteogenic sarcoma

b.

Basal cell carcinoma

c.

Multiple myeloma

d.

Adenocarcinoma

 

 

____  40.   Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

a.

Blood vessels

b.

Epithelium cells

c.

Connective tissue

d.

Glandular tissue

 

 

____  41.   What are characteristics of cancer in situ?

a.

Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b.

Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c.

Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

d.

Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.

 

 

____  42.   Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of:

a.

dysplasia.

b.

hyperplasia.

c.

myoplasia.

d.

anaplasia.

 

 

____  43.   What are tumor cell markers?

a.

Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells

b.

Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked

c.

Cytokines produced against cancer cells

d.

Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy

 

 

____  44.   How are tumor cell markers used?

a.

To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer

b.

To treat certain types of cancer

c.

To predict where cancers will develop

d.

To screen individuals at high risk for cancer

 

 

____  45.   Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that:

a.

cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy.

b.

an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.

c.

tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.

d.

apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.

 

 

____  46.   What is autocrine stimulation?

a.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply

b.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors

c.

The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth

d.

The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use

 

 

____  47.   Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?

a.

A tumor suppressor gene

b.

A growth promoting gene

c.

An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth

d.

A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth

 

 

____  48.   What are oncogenes?

a.

Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation

b.

Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue

c.

Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue

d.

Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis

 

 

____  49.   Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome translocation

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome fusion

 

 

____  50.   In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome fusion

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome translocation

 

 

____  51.   What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?

a.

Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.

b.

The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.

c.

Genetic amplification causes the growth.

d.

Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

 

 

____  52.   Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes?

a.

Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent

b.

Because the first “hit” stops tissue growth and the second “hit” is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth

c.

Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two “hits” to effect carcinogenesis

d.

Because the first “hit” is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation

 

 

____  53.   By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

a.

By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome

b.

By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies

c.

By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs

d.

By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes

 

 

____  54.   What are characteristics of benign tumors?

a.

They invade local tissues.

b.

They spread through lymph.

c.

They cause systemic symptoms.

d.

They have a low mitotic index.

 

 

____  55.   Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

a.

Liposarcoma, lipoma

b.

Lipoma, liposarcoma

c.

Adisarcoma, adipoma

d.

Adipoma, adisarcoma

 

 

____  56.   Most human cancers appear to arise via:

a.

autosomal recessive gene inheritance.

b.

spontaneous gene mutations.

c.

X-linked recessive gene inheritance.

d.

autosomal dominant gene inheritance.

 

 

____  57.   Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except:

a.

lung.

b.

skin.

c.

bladder.

d.

kidney.

e.

pancreas.

 

 

____  58.   The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:

a.

herpes simplex virus type 6.

b.

herpes simplex virus type 2.

c.

human papillomavirus.

d.

human immunodeficiency virus.

 

 

____  59.   The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

a.

Ovarian

b.

Uterine

c.

Cervical

d.

Vaginal

 

 

____  60.   Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

a.

Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses

b.

Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses

c.

Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses

d.

Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses

 

 

____  61.   Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

a.

Women over 45 years

b.

Women who never had children

c.

Women who had a high body mass index

d.

Woman who smoked for more than 10 years

 

 

____  62.   Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?

a.

Skin, lung, and pancreatic

b.

Colon, liver, and lung

c.

Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic

d.

Bladder, skin, and kidney

 

 

____  63.   How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?

a.

By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage

b.

By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations

c.

By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations

d.

By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers

 

 

____  64.   Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

a.

Proto-oncogenes

b.

Oncogenes

c.

Tumor suppressor genes

d.

Growth promoting genes

 

 

____  65.   Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.

a.

negative-feedback

b.

positive-feedback

c.

neural

d.

physiologic

 

 

____  66.   Hormones are effective communicators because they:

a.

are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.

b.

increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.

c.

are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.

d.

decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.

 

 

____  67.   Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?

a.

Thyroxine (T₄)

b.

Aldosterone

c.

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  68.   How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?

a.

Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier

b.

Free in an unbound, water-soluble form

c.

Bound to a water-soluble binding protein

d.

Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry

 

 

____  69.   Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor?

a.

Calcium

b.

Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

c.

Diacylglycerol (DAG)

d.

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

 

 

____  70.   Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

a.

Angiotensin II

b.

Thyroxine

c.

Estrogen

d.

Testosterone

e.

Aldosterone

 

 

____  71.   Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells. It is highly regulated because it:

a.

is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.

b.

is continuously synthesized.

c.

acts as a second messenger.

d.

carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.

 

 

____  72.   Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?

a.

When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour

b.

When serum osmolality is increased

c.

When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased

d.

When vasopressin is given pharmacologically

 

 

____  73.   What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Anterior pituitary

c.

Mammary glands

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  74.   Where is oxytocin synthesized?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Paraventricular nuclei

c.

Anterior pituitary

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  75.   Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?

a.

Thyroxine

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

c.

Growth hormone

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  76.   What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

a.

It increases serum calcium.

b.

It decreases serum calcium.

c.

It decreases serum magnesium.

d.

It increases serum magnesium.

 

 

____  77.   Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?

a.

Potassium

b.

Calcium

c.

Sodium

d.

Magnesium

 

 

____  78.   Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?

a.

Increased triiodothyronine (T₃)

b.

Increased thyroxine (T₄)

c.

Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Increased calcitonin

 

 

____  79.   Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:

a.

tubules of nephrons.

b.

thyroid gland.

c.

glomeruli of nephrons.

d.

smooth and skeletal muscles.

 

 

____  80.   A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit. This patient’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

a.

The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T₄) and triiodothyronine (T₃).

b.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.

c.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.

d.

The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.

 

 

____  81.   What are actions of glucocorticoids?

a.

Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis

b.

Fat storage and glucose use

c.

Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization

d.

Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism

 

 

____  82.   What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?

a.

Hypokalemia and alkalosis

b.

Hyperkalemia and alkalosis

c.

Hyperkalemia and acidosis

d.

Hypokalemia and acidosis

 

 

____  83.   What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

a.

It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.

b.

It directly increases calcium reabsorption.

c.

It directly increases sodium reabsorption.

d.

It directly increases water reabsorption.

 

 

____  84.   Which of the following is an expected change in an older patient?

a.

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal

b.

Triiodothyronine (T₃) level below normal

c.

Cortisol level above normal

d.

Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) level above normal

 

 

____  85.   Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:

a.

G-protein–linked.

b.

ion channel.

c.

second messenger.

d.

tyrosine-kinase linked.

 

 

____  86.   What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

a.

Solute retention and water retention

b.

Solute retention and water loss

c.

Solute dilution and water retention

d.

Solute dilution and water loss

 

 

____  87.   The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?

a.

Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality

b.

Serum K⁺ 5 and urine hyperosmolality

c.

Serum Na⁺ 120 and serum hypo-osmolality

d.

Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality

 

 

____  88.   A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:

a.

neurogenic diabetes insipidus.

b.

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

c.

psychogenic polydipsia.

d.

osmotically induced diuresis.

 

 

____  89.   Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary

b.

Organic lesion of the thalamus

c.

Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary

d.

Organic lesion of the renal tubules

 

 

____  90.   If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).

a.

neurogenic

b.

nephrogenic

c.

psychogenic

d.

ischemic

 

 

____  91.   Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Urine specific gravity is low.

b.

Serum sodium is low.

c.

Urine protein is low.

d.

Serum total protein is low.

 

 

____  92.   The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:

a.

neurogenic.

b.

psychogenic

c.

nephrogenic.

d.

ischemic.

 

 

____  93.   Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:

a.

a pituitary adenoma.

b.

hypothalamic hyposecretion.

c.

autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.

d.

a neurohypophysial tumor.

 

 

____  94.   What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?

a.

Panhypopituitarism

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency

c.

Hypopituitarism

d.

Anterior pituitary failure

 

 

____  95.   How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?

a.

The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.

b.

The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.

c.

The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.

d.

The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.

 

 

____  96.   Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?

a.

Cushing syndrome

b.

Acromegaly

c.

Gigantism

d.

Myxedema

 

 

____  97.   What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia?

a.

Posterior pituitary adenoma

b.

Thymoma

c.

Prolactinoma

d.

Growth hormone adenoma

 

 

____  98.   How does Graves’ disease develop?

a.

A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

b.

A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue

c.

A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d.

An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter

 

 

____  99.   What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?

a.

Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 5’8″

b.

Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min

c.

Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs

d.

Constipation and amenorrhea

 

 

____ 100.   What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?

a.

High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b.

Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

c.

Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2 DDBA 8151: Organizational Leadership: Doctoral Theory and Practice

To prepare for this Assignment, review this week’s Learning Resources and select four leadership theories. Search the Walden Library for additional peer-reviewed, scholarly resources about your selected leadership theories. You should use both the articles in the Learning Resources and additional scholarly resources in your evaluation.

Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:

• The name of the theory
• The year the theory was introduced
• The theorist/author
• Key components of the theory

For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.

Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment. Also, refer to the Week 3 Assignment Rubric for specific grading elements and criteria.

The assignment will be submitted to SafeAssign.

 

Q3. Need help with DB post

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

 

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

• Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
• Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on a postsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

 

Assignment:

1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

 

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

• Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of apostsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
• Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on apostsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

Assignment:

1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. PAPER ON DISEASE PROCESS MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE

PAPER CAN BE ON BREAST CANCER, LYME DIESEASE OR OVERIAN CANCER

 

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Paper on Disease Process Instructions

The focus of this course has been the structure and function of the human body. A disease process results when there is a disorder of this structure or function.This paper will be a 900-1,200-word research-based paper in current APA format focusing on a disease process of your choice. The paper must include at least 2 scholarly references in addition to the course textbooks and materials. The disease chosen must involve at least three organ systems and the effect of the disease on these systems must be detailed in the paper. If you choose a broad disease process like cancer, you will need to specify the type, such as pancreatic cancer. The body is interrelated and the effects of a given disease will often present with common symptoms. The effect of the disease on the body’s efforts to maintain homeostasis should be addressed, as should all other given parameters.

 

Content and Outline

Use the following headings when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading in APA format) within your paper.

 

1. Introduction

• Indicate the disease to be discussed
• Indicate the organ systems affected
• Provide a brief overview of disease

 

1. Description

• Describe disease process
• Explain disease effect on organ systems
• Discuss effect on homeostasis and the body as a whole

III.                Diagnosis

• Outline how the disease is diagnosed
• Include common symptoms
• Discuss the main causes of the disease

 

1. Treatment

• Discuss treatment and management of the disease
• Outline steps for prevention of diseasae (if possible)

1. Conclusion

• Provide a summary statement for your paper.
• Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Length

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Sources

Your papaer must include at least 2 scholarly sources in addition the course textbooks and materials.

Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is a serious academic infringement. Avoid it at all costs. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. Note that you are fully responsible for any plagiarism detected by the instructor of this course. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

 

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document.

 

Submit your Disease Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

 

 

Q5. Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

 

 

Q6. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

• Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

• Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

• Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

• Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

• Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

• Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

• Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

• Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

• Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

• Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

• Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

• Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

• Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

• Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

• Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

• Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

• Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

• Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

• Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

• Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

• Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

• Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

• Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

• Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

• Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

• Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

• Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

• Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

• Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

• Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

• Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

• Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

• Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

• Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

• Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

• Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

• Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

• Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

• Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

• Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

• Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

• Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

• Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

• Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

• Question 1 

 

The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it

• Question 2 

 

From the species level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

• Question 3 

 

From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

• Question 4 

 

Which of the following choices names one of the various zones found in a lake?

• Question 5 

 

Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by

• Question 6 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

• Question 7 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

• Question 8 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

• Question 9 

 

Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.

• Question 10 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

• Question 11 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

• Question 12 

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

• Question 13 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 14 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

• Question 15 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

• Question 16 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

• Question 17 

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

• Question 18 

 

The microbe, Pyrodictiumoccultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it

• Question 19 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 20 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

• Question 21 

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

• Question 22 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

• Question 23 

 

Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.

• Question 24 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

• Question 25 

 

In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

 

 

Q7. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

• Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

• Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

• Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

• Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

• Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

• Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

• Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

• Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

• Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

• Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

• Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

• Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each ot

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

·         Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

·         Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

·         Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

·         Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

·         Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

·         Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

Q8. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

·         Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

·         Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

·         Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

·         Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

·         Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

·         Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

·         Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

·         Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

·         Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

·         Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

·         Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

·         Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

·         Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

·         Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

Q9. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

·         Question 1

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 2

 

Directional selection

·         Question 3

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 4

 

To a Darwinist, a beneficial mutation

·         Question 5

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 6

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 7

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 8

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 10

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 11

 

Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of

·         Question 12

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 13

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 14

 

One popular evolutionary model for the origin of flight in vertebrates is that flight evolved in

·         Question 15

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 16

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 17

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 18

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 19

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 20

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 21

 

Which stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record appears least likely to involve any biological change in populations with time?

·         Question 22

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 23

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 25

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 2 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 3 

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 4 

 

Which of the following represents three classes of mutations, each of which affects the evolutionary process differently?

·         Question 5 

 

Both the theist and the naturalist come to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 6 

 

The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if

·         Question 7 

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 9 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 10 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 11 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 12 

 

One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that

·         Question 13 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 14 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 15 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 16 

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 17 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 18 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 19 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

·         Question 20 

 

The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be described as

·         Question 21 

 

One important value that disruptive selection can have to a natural population is that it

·         Question 22 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 23 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 24 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 25 

 

The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to

 

 

Q10. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

COMPUTER SCIENCE.

 

Q1. CIS 210 Assignment 2: Use Cases

Prepare a 5-6 page paper in which you:

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case, complete with typical and alternate courses, that documents the event of a bank customer withdrawing money from an ATM.

·         Illustrate the use case using Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account deposit. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account transfer. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Identify and explain at least one (1) ethical issue that the use case exposes in connection with the development or use of the ATM system.

·         Research and cite at least three (3) authoritative academic sources.

 

Q2. Network Planning Assignment

Network Planning Assignment

 

Overview

The main objectives of this assignment are:

·         To help students gain a good understanding of the IP (Internet Protocol), which is the major underlying technology of the Internet. 

·         To help students to understand the importance of subnet and routing of IP address.

·         To encourage students to conduct an independent investigation into IP related topics from books, the Internet and through practical investigation.

                                                                                      

Engagement with this assignment should help students to understand the major underlying concepts of the Internet world.

Scenario

You have been appointed as a Network System Administrator by the Australian government to allocate public IP Version 4 (IPv4) addresses and build a routing table for edge routers to connect the Australian states as shown in Figure 1.

                          

The IPv4 is an exhaustive list of IPv4 addresses for current Internet users in the world. However, in this scenario you have the liberty to use the entire available unreserved public IPv4 addresses for the Internet users in Australia.

 

 

 

 

R2

 

 

 

R1

 

 

QLD

NT

 

 

 

 

WA

 

 

R4

 

 

R3

SA

 

 

 

NSW

 

 

 

R5

 

 

 

VIC

 

 

 

 

R6

 

 

TAS

 

 

 

 

Figure 1: Edge routers R1 – R6 connecting different Australian states.

Tasks                                                  

The major task is to allocate the unreserved public IPv4 addresses to different states in Australia based on the Internet users in those states. The number of Internet users for Australian states are given below:

 

New South Wales (NSW)                                              : 6 Million

Victoria (VIC)                                                                : 4 Million

Queensland (QLD)                                                        : 3 Million

Western Australia (WA)                                                 : 2 Million

South Australia (SA)                                                     : 1 Million

Tasmania (TAS)                                                            : 300 Thousand

Northern Territory (NT)                                                 : 150 Thousand

 

The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  Only unreserved public IPv4 address should be used for allocation.

§  Each state should have unique set of addresses – no address or set of addresses can be reassigned for any other state.  

§  You should use only the classless IPv4 addressing in the assignment.

§  The number of allocated addresses for each state should not exceed by 20% of the specified Internet users for that particular state. For instance, the allocated addresses for Tasmania should not exceed 360 Thousand addresses.

§  It is allowed to use one or more subnets to achieve the number of required address for a given state.

 

The minor task is to create a routing table for edge routers only for the state NT, WA and SA. The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  The routing table should be minimal with no redundant routes in the table.

§  Any packets from the source (NT or WA or SA) should take minimal route to reach the destination (NT or WA or SA).

§  Identify the Network Interface Card Address to connect NT, WA and SA.

 

Recommended Readings

The required materials for this assignment are covered from Week 4 onwards. It is highly recommended to read the following resources to complete the assignment:

§  Topic 5 – IP settings and configuration in Moodle resource

§  Topic 5 – Network Layer (IPv4 & IPv6 address format) in Moodle resource

§  Subnetwork (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subnetwork)

§  IP address (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address)

§  Routing concepts: How to read the Routing Table (https://www.ictshore.com/free-ccna-course/ routing-table-fundamentals/

 

 

 

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

·       K1. Describe and explain the role and function of network connectivity in current computing.

·       K2. Describe and explain the principles of communication in networks.

·       K3. Describe the role and functionality of hardware and software entities that contribute to the network
communications.

·       K4. Describe and explain the protocols and interactions that implement network communications.

·       K6. Describe fundamental aspects of cloud computing.

·       A1. Apply networking architecture knowledge to analyze the networking needs of business.

Assessment Details

 

All works submitted must be authored by the individual student submitting the work or where material from other sources is included it must be referenced using APA referencing.

 

Please note it is highly unlikely two students can have the same set of addresses allocated for a given state. Students found to have plagiarised will be dealt with according to university plagiarism policy (https://federation.edu.au/current-students/learning-and-study/online-help-with/ plagiarism).

Submission

 

Students are required to use the template, along with references, given in the Appendix A to complete the assignment. The completed template with your name and student number (3 pages plus reference page only) should be submitted through Turnitin in Moodle by Week 10 – refer course description for exact due date and time.

Marking Guidelines

 

IP address for each state (7 x 9 marks)

63 Marks

Subnet mask for each state (7 x 4 marks)

28 Marks

Allocation not more than 20% (7 x 2 marks)

14 Marks

Routing Table for each 3 edge routers (3 x 11 marks)  

33 Marks

Router Link (NIC) address for 3 edge routers (12 x 1 mark)

12 Marks

Total marks

150 Marks

 

The total marks for this assignment is 150 (15% Weighting for the course).

 

The marks will be available in Moodle and in FDLMarks by the end of week 12 of the semester.

 

 

IP Address (NT)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Appendix A                                                                                                                                             

IP Address (SA)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (TAS)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Page 1: Insert IP address and the Subnet Mask in the box provided for each state

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

IP Address (WA)

 

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

IP Address (QLD)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (NSW)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (VIC)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Page 2: Insert routing table entry in the box for 3 edge routers

 

Routing Table for R1 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R2 

 

 

R1

 

 

R2

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R3 

R3

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

Page 3: Insert the IP address for the Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect NT, WA and SA

 

 

Router

NIC 

IP Address

R1

#5

 

R1

#8

 

R1

#6

 

R1

#7

R1

#7

 

R2

#4

 

R2

#2

 

R2

#3

 

R2

#1

 

R3

#9

 

R3

#10

 

R3

#11

 

R3

#12

 

 

R2

R3

R1

NIC #6

NIC #1

NIC #2

NIC #3

NIC #4

NIC #5

NIC #8

NIC #11

NIC #12

NIC #9

NIC #10

NIC #7

 

Q3. Application 7: Johari Window Reflection

The Johari Window is a model that we use to understand and frame some of the important skills explored in HD205, including self-disclosure, feedback, self-awareness and self-management. The ultimate goal of using this model is to appropriately enlarge the open area by disclosing information or asking for feedback. Remember that the open pane includes all information known to self and known to others. When we expand our open pane and decrease our hidden and blind panes, this allows us to make deeper connections with those around us and we will be more productive, cooperative, and effective when working together. People who have a large open pane are usually easier to talk to, practice open and honest communication and get along well with others.

 

The open pane expands into the hidden pane through self-disclosure about ourselves. Expansion could be through sharingThis could be one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment.

 

The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you.  You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people.

 

Part 1 – Focus on Decreasing the Hidden Pane or the Blind Pane: The purpose of this stretch is for you to mindfully expand the open area of your Johari Window and thereby skillfully shrink the blind or hidden panes. You have the option to choose eitherfrom the hidden or blind pane as an area in which you wishwork.

 

• If you wish to expand your open pane by decreasing your hidden pane, this is done through self-disclosure to another person. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and tell them something that you typically keep hidden. Expansion could be through sharing one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment; yRemember that you are at choice about the appropriate level of disclosure.  Make the stretch meaningful and powerful by choosing someone to work with that deserves to know more about you.

 

ü   The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. .

• If you choose to expand your open pane through decreasing your blind pane, please fthis happens by asking for feedback. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and ask them for feedback about some aspect of yourself.  This could be about your contribution to a work team, class project, study group or living situation.  It could be about how you show up in a personal or professional relationship.  You could choose to speak with a parent, sibling or professor or someone else.    You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people. Choose someone that you really value their opinion and ask them about their perspective on some area of your life that is important for you to gain information about.  When asking for feedback, use the active listening skills that have been previously discussed in class. This should be meaningful conversation rather than a quick “drive-by” feedback session.

 

Part 2 – Stretch Reflection: Please spend time reflecting on the questions below and answer each of the following prompts. A recommendation is that the length of your responses should be approximately 500 – 600 words in length, total.

Prompts: 

1. In your own words define and describe the four panes of the Johari Window.
2. During this stretch, which pane did you choose to decrease? Describe your experience during the stretch and how it relates to that specific pane.
3. From the six principles of ACT (expansion, defusion, observer self, connection, committed action, and values), which one(s) supported you in expanding your open pane? How specifically did you implement this principle during the stretch and how did practicing this concept assist you?

 

Q4. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

 

 

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

 

 

 

To:  Replace with name

From: Replace with name

Date: Replace with date

Subject: Replace with subject of memo

Introduction

Lorem i psum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

Sed pellentesque sagittis diam, sit amet faucibus diam lobortis quis. Sed mattis turpis ligula, in accumsan ante pellentesque eu. Quisque ut nisl leo. Nullam ipsum odio, eleifend non orcinon, volutpat sollicitudin lacus. (Beetle Baily Cartoon)

Proposed Information System

Donec tincidunt ligula eget sollicitudin vehicula. Proin pharetra tellus id lectus mollis sollicitudin. Etiam auctor ligula a nulla posuere, consequat feugiat ex lobortis. Duis eu cursus arcu, congue luctus turpis. Sed dapibus turpis ac diam viverra consectetur. Aliquam placerat molestie eros vel posuere.

 

Figure 1.  Title (Source: www.source-of-graphic.edu ) 

Functions Important to Business

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Figure 2. Title (Source of data citation)

Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

 Data Management

Donec tincidunt ligula eget sollicitudin vehicula. Proin pharetra tellus id lectus mollis sollicitudin. Etiam auctor ligula a nulla posuere, consequat feugiat ex lobortis. Duis eu cursus arcu, congue luctus turpis. Sed dapibus turpis ac diam viverra consectetur.

Data Types

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Storage Methods

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Data Quality

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Transition of System Functions

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Evidence of Feasibility

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

 

 

References

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

141. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

• you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

• Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
• In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

• SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
• SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
• SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design

Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

• Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
• Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

• Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
• Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
• Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
• Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

• A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
• Use Cases summarizing the requirements
• Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
• a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
• a Class Diagram of the intended system
• a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
• A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

• Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

• A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

• A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

• A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

• Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

• Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

• A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

• Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

• Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

• A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

• Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
• For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
• Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
• This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.

2.      In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command

[SR1]Remove all comments in paper before submitting. One way to do this, right click on each comment, select ‘Delete Comment’.

 

[SR2]The CEO challenge is for an internal employee provide recommendation of new IT system to remove or bring the Shadow IT projects under the IT department.

Include how this assignment will communicate how your project proposal satisfied the CEO’s concern.

[SR3]Replace Latin text with your writing for this assignment.

[SR4]Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.

[SR5]Add diagrams when applicable

[SR6]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original)

[SR7]Add Charts when applicable.

[SR8]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original).

[SR9]Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.

[SR10]Explain how the functions you mentioned are being handled by the old information system, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.

[SR11]Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

[SR12]Reference Page Notes: Use a separate references page and double space. Note that throughout the paper and reference list, titles of non-periodicals and the names of journals, book titles, and volume are set in italics rather than being underlined. See APA Manual, pages 239-281 for examples of various references.  In addition, please read pages 215-232 for basic reference guidelines.

 

Remove References in example that you do not use.

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

141. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

• you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

• Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
• In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

• SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
• SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
• SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design

Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

• Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
• Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

• Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
• Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
• Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
• Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

• A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
• Use Cases summarizing the requirements
• Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
• a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
• a Class Diagram of the intended system
• a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
• A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

• Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

• A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

• A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

• A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

• Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

• Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

• A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

• Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

• Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

• A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

• Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
• For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
• Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
• This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
2. In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command from the client to the server via the medium. Notice that the available choices in the command panel change as the request is received at the server.
3. Now click the Server: 200 OK(DATA1) – send requested data. Similarly the simulation view reflects the response from server to the client.

 

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q1: In reality, what does the client represent? Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

EXPERIMENT #2: UNSUCCESSFUL RETRIEVAL OF A WEB PAGE

 

Repeat Experiment 1 again, but this time selecting Server: 400 Error(Code) – report requested data unavailable at the last step.

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q2: Identify a real scenario when this client and server interaction would occur.

 

 

Continue to Experiment #3 Instructions on the following page…

EXPERIMENT #3: REDIRECTION OF REQUESTED DATA

 

Repeat Step 1 and 2 of Experiment One, and then do the following

1. In command panel, select Server: 301 MOVED(URL2) – report moved URL.
2. Select Client: GET(URL2) – get data for new URL.
3. Select Server: 200 OK(DATA2) – send requested data.

 

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

 

Q3: Observe the simulation and compare with the results in Experiment One. What is the difference in the flow, and what does it mean?

 

 

EXPERIMENT #4: POST INFORMATION TO WEB PAGES

 

It should be obvious that there are many types of interactions that a client might have with a web server. One such interaction is when a client appends data to the URL to be received by the server.

Start a new simulation similar to Experiment #1, but this time choose Client: POST(URL1, DATA1) for step 2.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q4: What is the key difference that you observe in the interaction?

Q5: Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

Submitting your work

In a new Word document, include your screenshots of the simulations for each experiment, along with your answers for each of the five questions. Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_Assignment #. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard. Any assignment with screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp or a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.

 

Q8. Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in D

IT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT PHASE I INSTRUCTIONS

Project Background

Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in DC. You have recently bought the hospital, naming it [Your Firstname Lastname] Hospital.  For example, Jane Doe Hospital.  Jane Doe Hospital owns a 5-story building and houses many departments that span multiple floors. Its Radiology department is spread across the first and second floors, connected by a dedicated LAN. The department has recently deployed a new “Radiology Images” application as part of their initiative to digitize patient records.  However, the department staff sometimes faces long application delays during busy hours. It also experiences regular delays in Internet connectivity, FTPS services, web services, and email services.

Their original design, depicted in Figure 1, was categorized as a small network, providing services for up to 200 devices.  They have well surpassed this.  You, as their senior network engineer, are tasked with the job of a complete re-design.  This design must support a mediumsize network for 200 to 1,000 devices.

 

Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital Network Design                                                  

Project Overview

This project along with the Phase II IT Infrastructure Project will help you understand how a network administrator improves network performance in wired and wireless local area and wide area networks, using the application Cisco Packet Tracer. To learn more about Packet Tracer please read the Cisco Packet Tracer DS PDF.

In this project, you will study performance improvements in a congested, wired LAN/WAN environment that can be solved to varying degrees by a new IT infrastructure design and fully functional implementation in Packet Tracer. Later, in Phase II of the project, you will scale this design to a larger enterprise IT infrastructure.

To begin the projects, you will complete a review of related literature to identify what is appropriate to improve system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery of the existing IT infrastructure and model of your hospital.  Once this review of literature is complete, you will use the outcomes and research results to advance and improve the IT infrastructure.  Proper data analysis, comparison, and contrast will be summarized within in-text tables and figures as well as appendixes to explain the results of the IT infrastructure re-design and improvement.

 

Project Requirements

• Take screenshots demonstrating your network, servers, configurations, and protocols properly functioning in the new design.  Screenshots must include a unique piece of information identifying the student’s computer along with a proper operating system date/time.  Submit these as appendices in the Word document.
• Submit a working Packet Tracer lab, typically this file has a .pkt file extension.

o        This will include the fully operational new IT infrastructure design o All devices in the lab must be named with your first name and last name

• Example: Jane_Doe_Router_1 o All hardware and software should be configured properly and should be able to communicate securely using optimized networking designs, configurations, and protocols
• IT Infrastructure Design Requirements o You must start with a blank/new Packet Tracer file, existing labs or modified labs of existing solutions will receive a zero without exception

o        Include the existing hospital services and systems but optimized/improved o Design a medium-size network for 200 to 1,000 devices

• For example, an N-Tier design or superior supported by research
• Add appropriate routers and switches to support this new design
• Design and configure at least one appropriate networking protocol,

IPv4 or IPv6

• Design IP addressing that will scale to 1,000 devices
• Use proper network address translation (NAT)

o   Add an Internet Service Provider (ISP) into the design o Add appropriate security into the design

o   Add sufficient modularity, resiliency, and flexibility into the design

o   Design and implement the following new services and servers

• A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server that automatically assigns working IP addresses to new workstations that allows them to connect to all network devices properly

• A name server that manages the Domain Name System (DNS) and allows workstations to communicate with a web server external to the local area network
• An external web server that hosts your favorite website, accessible via the ISP
• Two new user workstations in eachbuilding that uses the new services and services properly
• Show these services working on each workstation in your project (e.g. a website from the web server, DHCP, etc)
• Written Requirements (Introduction, Literature Review, and Conclusion) o Submit a properly formatted APA paper in Microsoft Word o Here is an example paper: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/

o   Table of Contents that automatically adjusts page numbers of the main headings

o   Introduction

• Introduce the primary goals and objectives of the project o Review of literature that supports the new system simulation, model, and design
• Include appropriate IT frameworks and standards in which to design the new system
• Address system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery
• Include at least 10 scholarly journal articles focusing on relevant research on the problems being addressed

o   Packet Tracer design explanation

• Explain each of the additions and improvements
• Reference the primary configurations and how these were developed
• Include running configurations from routers/switches as appendices o Conclusion
• Highlight any limitations, managerial implications, and conclusions of the project deliverables and outcomes
• Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard.
• Any assignment without working Packet Tracer files or without screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp from the operating system and a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.· To copy screenshots to Microsoft Word:

o   Press the “Print Screen” key on your keyboard. The key is usually located at the upper right corner of a keyboard.

o   You can also use the “snipping tool” in Windows

o   For Windows users, open application “Paint” and paste the screen shot over.

“Paint” usually can be accessed this way: Start à All Programs à

Accessories. For users of other operating systems, use a similar application.

o   In “Paint”, select the graph or area needed and copy it. You need to click this icon  in order to be able to select an area. The icon is listed on the left side of the window.

o   Paste the selected area to a word processor.

o   Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q9. Week 8 Assignment

Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students)to Delete the existing records.

 

1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

Do the following tasks

The name of each Object should start with Week8

 

1) Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students) to Delete the existing records.

 

1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Network Penetration Testing (CIS or SEC 435)

Week 1 Lab 1 submission

tudents, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

If you have not logged into the iLabs environment yet, use your access code emailed to you by the bookstore when you purchased the books to register.

Lab Assignments

Submit each lab based on the following:

1. Log into the EC-Council iLab environment.
2. Complete the weekly lab assignment described below using EC-Council iLab.
3. Submit the screenshots for the steps specified in each lab assignment.
4. Write a short answer in Word format and include with the assignment submission link the following:
5. Summarize the technical experiences in completing the lab assignment.
6. Identify the commands that were of greatest benefit to you.
7. Provide general comments on the overall lab assignment experience.
   Note:This is an academic writing assignment. Correct punctuation, grammar, and spelling are necessary. Points may be deducted for poor writing.

 

Lab Assignment 1

Due Week 1 and worth 30 points

Complete the following EC-Council Labs.

Note: Lab 1 contains deliverables that are partially derived from the following course required textbook: EC-Council Press. (2017). Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures: Web Applications and Data Servers (2nd ed.). Cengage Learning.

 

Lab Version

Module Title

Location

Lab #: Title

Deliverable(s) for Submission

Strayer

SEC435

(CEHv.9)

Session Hijacking

iLab

Module 1o

Lab 1:  “Session Hijacking Using Zed Attack Proxy.”

1. Screenshots after Steps 8 and 22.

Q1. Artificial Neural Network

 

1). What would happen if Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) did not have any bias (fixed input)? For instance, suppose that ‘y’ must be 5 when all inputs are 0.

2). What are the main similarities and differences between the functions ‘logsig’ and ‘tanh’?

3). Indicate whether the next statements are true or false and explain:

• When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the LOGSIG function, the output values of the network cannot exceed a value of one no matter what input is applied tot he network. A value outside the range [0 1] is impossible to attain at the output of the ANN. If the required range is bigger than zero to one, then the output signal must be scaled appropriately.
• When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the TANH function, it is very important to note that the output signal is limited to the range from -1 to 1. The ‘tanh’ function has a shape very similar to the shape of the ‘logsig’ function. However, the lower range for the ‘logsig’ function is zero when compared with the lower range of the ‘tanh’ which is -1.

 

Q2. Master-Slave J-K Flip-Flop using NAND gages with explanation of Truth Table with arbitrary clock

 

Question: Find the output using the input sequences of the J-K Master-Slave flipflop using NAND gates. Follow the input sequences. Observe and record the output sequences.

 

Q3. Frequency Modulation (FM) demodulation

 

Find an expression for the instantaneous frequency of FM modulation

Find the followings expression for the signals z(t), w(t), of an FM demodulation as shown in the diagram. Determine the bandwidth of the signal w(t) according to Carson’s rule.

The received signal passes through a square law device, DC blocker, again a square law device, again a DC blocker.

w(t) is the output of the final DC blocker

z(t) is the output of the first DC blocker

x(t) is the output of the first square law device and x₂(t) is the output of the second square law device.

 

Q4. Principle and Operation of Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) receiver

 

 

The QPSK receiver, like the BPSK receiver, can create a synchronous carrier when the received signal has a phase shift. Show that even if the signal s(t) is shifted by an angle, the output of the frequency divider produces cosine and sin carrier wave synchronous to the received signal.

Q5. Electrical Hazards, potential severity, the extent of severity and consequences, Safe Practices

 

identify the type of hazard, the potential severity and potential consequences for the plant employee due to the application of insulating tape to the exposed high-voltage wire

 

Q6. Find the Standing Wave Ratio of a Transmission Line

 

Given a lossless Transmission line with Z₀=50ohm, terminated at a resistive load R_L>Z₀. The plot of voltage standing wave ratio is given with vmax=6volt, vmin=2volt.

(a) Determine the standing wave ratio on the line terminated (resistive).

(b) Determine R_L.

(c) Determine the voltage magnitude of the incident wave.

(d) Determine the wavelength of the line if the distance between the consecutive maxima and minima is given.

 

Q7. Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words)

 

 

Many theories and intervention techniques in performance psychology have a cognitive-behavioral approach. The interactional model of personality which describes behavior as the sum of personality (p), the environmental situation (s), and the interaction (i.e., Behavior = P + S + P x S) is generally a better predictor of success than the environmental situation or the personality alone. However, in many situations the environmental conditions are so influential that the stable personality characteristics will have little effect. This is known as the personality paradox. In this assignment, you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response.

General Requirements:

Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:

• Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
• Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
• This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.

Directions:

Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words) in which you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response. In your paper, include the following:

1. An explanation of how the personality paradox might occur.
2. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining the personality paradox.
3. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining how the performer’s personality interacts with the environment.

 

Q8. Monostable or one-shot multi-vibrator

 

•  Explain the conditions that the trigger signal that you will apply at trigger input (pin No.2) should have in order to trigger the monostable multivibrator. Explain your result.

Or

• Explain the principle of working of mono-stable multi-vibrator (One-shot multi-vibrator)

Or

• Give the pin description of IC 555 timer or mono-stable multi-vibrator and explain its principle of operation.

 

Q9. Binary Phase Shift Keying

 

What is the need to use the synchronous carrier in BPSK demodulation?

Can a non-synchronos carrier such as cos(w₀t) be used instead?

What is the use of the square-law device, the band-pass filter, and the frequency divider?

What is the function of the bit synchronizer?

How the integrate-and-dump circuit is used to recover the original signal? Show it mathematically.

Mathematically prove how the effect of 2w₀ can be eliminated.

 

Q10. python programming

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

• Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
• VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
• Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
• Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
• Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
• Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

• Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
• VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
• Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
• Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
• Datacenter Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data center using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
• Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

 

PHYSICS

Q1. Calculate the magnetic field in a Toroidal ring

3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate

(a)the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b)the required coil mmf.
(c)the coil current
(d)the coil flux
(e)the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage

 

Q2. What are the inductive and deductive methods of science? How they are involved in technology?

• Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
• Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
• What is grounded theory?
• The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
• Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful

 

Q3. PHSC 210 Comparative Essay

Comparative Essay Instructions

Selection of Topic

Choose 1 of the following topics for your Comparative Essay:

1. Age of the earth (radioisotope dating vs. alternative methods)
2. Origin of coal (swamp forests vs. marine deposition)
3. Dating the rock layers seen in the Grand Canyon (old earth vs. young earth)
4. The fossil record (evidence of: long periods of time vs. short periods of time)
5. Mass extinctions in the fossil record (old-earth vs. young-earth)

 

Content and Outline

Use the following outline when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading, as indicated) within your paper.

1. Introduction

• Indicate which topic you chose from the list above.
• Indicate the purpose of your paper (i.e., to compare old-earth and young-earth viewpoints on your chosen topic).

1. Old-Earth Secular View

• What is the old-earth secular viewpoint and the evidence supporting that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?

o   Do not discuss the old-earth creationist viewpoint on your chosen topic. For a description of old-earth creationism, go to http://www.icr.org/article/4535/.

III.                Young-Earth View

• What is the young-earth viewpoint and the evidence for that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?

1. Comparison of the Viewpoints

• Comparison is articulating similarities between the 2 viewpoints. What are the similarities (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
• Be sure to provide at least 2 similarities (comparisons) between the viewpoints.

1. Contrast of the Viewpoints

• Contrast is articulating differences between the 2 viewpoints. What are the differences (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
• Be sure to provide at least 2 differences (contrasts) between the viewpoints.

1. Conclusion

• Provide a summary statement for your paper.
• Be sure to restate your purpose.
• Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Avoid using first person throughout the paper. Use of “I” or “we” should be avoided.

 

Length

This paper must be 1,000–1,500 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

 

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a cover or title page with:

Ø  paper title

Ø  your name

Ø  instructor’s name

Ø  course number, section number and course name (i.e., PHSC 210 B21, Elements of Earth Science)

Ø  date

There is no need to include an abstract in your paper.

 

Sources

Your Comparative Essay must include at least 4 scholarly sources in addition the course textbook and the Bible. Of these required sources, 2 must be from an old-earth perspective and 2 from a young-earth perspective. Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed. There are exceptions to this rule (e.g., the Institute for Creation Research site is a .org site, but it has been judged a reputable site by those in the young-earth community. Answers in Genesis is also acceptable.). In particular, avoid Wikipedia. Study Bibles are also not appropriate for this assignment.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is an academic infringement and a violation of Liberty’s Honor Code. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. All submitted essays are subject to a SafeAssign review. This will compare your paper against thousands of other submissions.   Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document. Do not submit as .pdf file.

Submit your Comparative Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

Title [This should be one of the 5 options from the instructions.)
Student name

PHSC 210-[Section]

Date

Instructor

Introduction

Old-Earth Secular View

Young-Earth View

Comparison of the Viewpoints

Contrast of the Viewpoints

Conclusion

[Content needs to be a bit more than 1,000 words and less than 1,500 words full credit. The Cover and Reference pages do not count in this word total. Delete all blank lines. Left align all text except headings and always indent the first line of each paragraph. ]

 

 

References

[At least 4 sources are required – at least 2 from each side of the debate – in the format below.]

Author(s) (year). Title. Publication. DOI or Retrieved from [url] [Use hanging indent format where the second line is indented as shown on this line and the line following. Please include an adequate number of sources for this essay other than your course texts (see assignment Instructions).]

 

 

Q4. PHSC 210 dISCUSSION 2

Discussion Board Forum 2 Prompt

Topic: Current Young-Earth Research

 

Thread:

In this 350 word (minimum) discussion board thread, you will choose from 1 of 10 current young-Earth Institute for Creation Research articles based on your interest. Follow these steps:

1. Choose ONE of the following a current young-Earth articles from the list below.
   1. Oil, Fracking and Recent Global Flood (http://www.icr.org/article/oil-fracking-recent-global-flood/)
   2. Dinosaur Fossils in Late Flood Rocks (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-late-flood-rocks)
   3. The Ice Age and Scattering of the Nations (http://www.icr.org/article/ice-age-scattering-nations/)
   4. Dinosaur Soft Tissues: They’re Real! (http://www.icr.org/article/4819)
   5. World’s Most Catastrophic Extinction (http://www.icr.org/article/worlds-most-catastrophic-extinction)
   6. Is there Geological Evidence for the Young Earth? (http://www.icr.org/article/there-geological-evidence-for-young-earth)
   7. The Ice Age: Causes and Consequences (http://www.icr.org/article/4788)
   8. Dinosaur Fossils Found in Marine Rocks…Again (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-found-marine-rocksagain)
   9. One-Hour Oil Production? (http://www.icr.org/article/one-hour-oil-production/)
   10. Radioactive Decay Rates Not Stable (http://www.icr.org/article/radioactive-decay-rates-not-stable)

 

1. Read the article by clicking on the matching link to the article in the Reading and Study Folder > Discussion Board 2 Article Links for this module (or copy and paste a link above into your browser).
2. In 3 to 5 paragraphs, include the following in your thread:
   1. The author and title of the article.
   2. A summary the main finding(s) of the article.
   3. A discussion the significance of the findings.
   4. Your reasons for choosing this article.
   5. A short concluding sentence or two.
   6. (No bibliography is needed unless other sources are included. Cite using APA formatting. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Replies: (Two 100-word replies are required)

After reading a classmate’s thread, answer the following questions in a minimum of 100 words:

1. What most interested you about your classmate’s thread?
2. Is there anything you want to add to your classmate’s thread?
3. Are there any unanswered questions in the thread?

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of the Module/Week of the assignment and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

 

Q5. PHSC 210 DISCUSSION 1

Discussion Board Forum 1 Prompt

 

Topic: Earth Science in Action

 

Thread:

Complete the following step-by-step process:

1. Watch the presentation entitled “How to Find Articles for the ‘Earth Science in Action’ Assignment” in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4.
2. Explore the following 3 websites which are also available in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4:

http://www.sciencedaily.com/news/earth_climate/geology/

http://geologytimes.com/

http://geology.com/news

3. Find 1 article that interests you from 1 of the links above. Do NOT choose 1 article from each link.
4. Read the article and take notes.
5. Write a thread that addresses the following questions related to your chosen article:
6. What is the title of the article?
7. What is the web address for the article?
8. Who is(are) the author(s)?
9. What is(are) the topic(s) covered in the article?
10. What new information have scientists found?
11. Why is this new information important?
12. What impact will this new information have on mankind and/or on science?
13. What drew you to this article? That is, why did you find this article interesting?

 

Notes:

1. The article chosen must have been written within the last 5 years.
2. If you cannot answer all of the questions above, then you must choose another article.
3. Do not look for the shortest article as it will most likely not contain sufficient information for this assignment.
4. Be sure you do not merely list and answer the questions above. You must construct a well-written thread in narrative format with an introduction and conclusion. The following outline is recommended:
5. Introductory paragraph (include article title, web address, author(s), and topic(s) covered)
6. Paragraph discussing the new information found, why this information is important, and how this information will impact mankind and/or science
7. Paragraph discussing your interest in the article
8. Concluding paragraph
9. Be sure to reference your article in a bibliography using current APA format. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.

 

Replies:

After reading a classmate’s thread and reviewing the article at the hyperlink provided by the classmate, answer the following questions:

1. What most interested you about the classmate’s thread and article?
2. Is there anything fascinating about the article that the classmate did not identify?
3. Would you recommend this article to someone else? Why or why not? Provide at least 2 reasons.

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of Module/Week 4 and your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

Q6. Flight Performance and Compressibility Effects Exercise

 

Complete the Aircraft Performance Exercise linked below. Review the Examples and Tutorials before you start solving the problems. Make sure that it is your own work and show work with references.

 

 

Exercise 7: Maneuvering & High Speed Flight

 

For this week’s assignment you will research a historic or current fighter type aircraft of your choice (options for historic fighter jets include, but are not limited to: Me262, P-59, MiG-15, F-86, Hawker Hunter, Saab 29, F-8, Mirage III, MiG-21, MiG-23, Su-7, Electric Lightning, Electric Canberra, F-104, F-105, F-4, F-5, A-6, A-7, Saab Draken, Super Etendard, MiG-25, Saab Viggen, F-14, and many more). 

 

As previously mentioned and in contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

Notice also that NASA has some great additional information at: http://www.hq.nasa.gov/pao/History/SP-468/contents.htm.

 

1. Selected Aircraft:

 

2. Aircraft Gross Weight [lbs]:

 

3. Aircraft Wing Area [ft²]:

 

4. Positive Limit Load Factor (LLF – i.e. the max positive G) for your aircraft:

 

5. Negative LLF (i.e. the max negative G) for your aircraft:

 

6. Maximum Speed [kts] of your aircraft. If given as Mach number, convert by using Eq. 17.2 relationships with a sea level speed of sound of 661 kts.

 

 

For simplification, assume the CL_max for your aircraft was 1.5 (unless you can find a different CL_max in your research).

 

 

1. Find the Stall Speed [kts] at 1G under sea level standard conditions for your aircraft (similar to all of our previous stall speed work, simply apply the lift equation in its stall speed form from page 44 to the above data):

 

 

4. Find the corresponding Stall Speeds for 2G, 3G, 4G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the positive load limit from 4. above), using the relationship of Eq. 14.5. You can use the table below to track your results.

 

 

5. Add the corresponding Stall Speeds for -1G, -2G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the negative load limit from 5. above) to your table. Assume that your fighter wing has symmetrical airfoil characteristics, i.e. that the negative maximum CL value is equal but opposite to the positive one. (Feel free to use specific airfoil data for your aircraft, but please make sure to use the correct maximum positive and negative Lift Coefficients in the correct places, i.e. CL_max in the positive part and highest negative CL in the negative part of the table and curve, and indicate your changes to the given example.)

 

Explanation: Making the assumption of symmetry simplifies your work, since the stall curve in the negative part of the V-G diagram becomes a mirror image of the positive side. Notice also that the simplified form of Eq. 14.5 won’t work with negative values; however, if using the G-dependent stall equation in the middle of page 222, it becomes obvious that negative signs cancel out between the negative G and the negative CL_max, and Stall Speeds can actually be calculated in the same way as for positive G, reducing your workload on the negative side to only one calculation of the stall speed at the negative LLF, if not a whole number.)

 

 

6. Track your results in the V-G diagram below by properly labeling speeds at intercept points. Add also horizontal lines for positive and negative load limits on top and bottom and a vertical line on the right for the upper speed limit of your aircraft at sea level from 6. above. (Essentially you are re-constructing the V-G diagram by appropriately labeling it for your aircraft. Notice that the shape of the diagram and the G-dependent curve relationship is essentially universal and just the applicable speeds will change from aircraft to aircraft. Make sure to reference book Fig. 14.8 for comparison.)

 

 

G	VS (kts)
PLL:
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
NLL:

 

 

 

 

 

 

14. Find the Ultimate Load Factor (ULF) based on your aircraft’s Positive Limiting Load Factor (LLF). (For the relationship between LLF and ULF, see book discussion p. 226 and Fig. 14.9):

 

 

2. Find the Positive Ultimate Limit Load [lbs] based on the ULF in E. above and the Gross Weight from 2.?

 

 

1. Explain how limit load factors change with changes in aircraft weight. Support your answer with formula work and/or calculation example.

 

 

1. What is the Maneuvering Speed [kts] for your aircraft?

 

 

1. At the Maneuvering Speed and associated load factor, find the Turn Radius ‘r’ [ft] and the Rate of Turn (ROT) [deg/s].

 

14. I) Use Eq. 14.3 to find bank angle ‘f’ for that load factor (i.e. G). (Remember to check that your calculator is in the proper trigonometric mode when building the arccos).

 

 

14. II) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.15 to find turn radius ‘r’.

 

 

III) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.16 to find             ROT. (Make sure to use the formula that already utilizes speed in kts and gives results in             degree per second).

 

 

1. For your selected aircraft, describe the different features that are incorporated into the design to allow high-speed and/or supersonic flight. Explain how those design features enhance the high-speed performance, and name additional features not incorporated in your aircraft, but available to designers of supersonic aircraft.

 

 

14. Using Fig. 14.10 from Flight Theory and Aerodynamics, find the Bank Angle for a standard rate (3 deg/s) turn at your aircraft’s maneuvering speed. (This last assignment is again designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your final exam; therefor, please make sure to fully understand how to extract the correct information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials as necessary. You can use the below diagram copy to visualize your solution path by adding the appropriate lines, either via electronic means, e.g. insert line feature in Word or Acrobat, or through printout, drawing, and scanning methods.)

 

 

 

From: Dole, C. E. & Lewis, J. E. (2000). Flight Theory and Aerodynamics. New York, NY: John Wiley & Sons Inc.

 

 

Example Problems Module 8

GIVEN:

W= 25,000lb

Stall Speed @1G Level Flight = 125 KEAS= V_s1

S= 314.5 ft²

C_Lmax = 1.5

Sea Level Standard Day (σ = 1.0)

Utility Certification (+4.4G to -2.0G)

 

Find stall speed (KEAS) at 4.0 G (V_s2)

From the Lecture Notes and Dole & Lewis-page 222

Vs_KEAS =  =  =250 KEAS

or

Equation 14.5  V_s2 = V_s1   = 125 KEAS   = 250 KEAS

 

 

 

Find V_a (Maneuvering Speed) (KEAS)

Equation 14.9  V_a = V_s   = 125 KEAS   = 262 KEAS

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS), level flight  at 0.5 G

Equation 14.5  V_a = V_s   = 125 KEAS   = 88.4 KEAS

 

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS) , level flight 60 deg bank angle

 

Equation 14.6  V_s2 = V_s1   = 125  = 176.8 KEAS

 

 

Find turn radius (r) and Rate of Turn (ROT) at 250KEAS and 70 deg bank angle level turn

 

Equation 14.15            r =    =  == 2020 ft

 

Equation 14.16            ROT() =     =  = 11.98 deg/sec

or approximated graphically using Figure 14.10

(Note: The figure has two scales for Bank Angle.  One you use for Rate of Turn (ROT) and the other you use for Radius of Turn (r).The example lines are for 70 degrees bank angle

 

 

Q7. Pecha Kucha Presentation on aging aircraft inspection and documentation

 

Please find the attachment for an abstract for your research paper on aging aircraft inspection and documentation. In this activity, you will prepare a Pecha Kucha presentation based on your topic proposal. Provide 10 slides, with a 20 second presentation for each slide, either in audio or caption format.

Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Make sure it is own work not from other sources.

Refer to the  Pecha Kucha Presentation Guidelines  for content and delivery format and guidelines.

Content Format Guidelines

This course uses a modified Pecha Kucha approach, in which each of the three Pecha Kucha Presentation activities require a varying number of slides presented in varying time frames. See each activity for specific content format guidelines. Discussion may be in either audio or caption format for the activities, with audio formats requiring an accompanying transcript.

• Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Review the evaluation rubric to make sure that your presentation aligns to the grading standard.

Delivery Format Guidelines

The recommended presentation format for Pecha Kucha presentations in this course is a screencast, which records your slides and audio together in a single video file. However, you may also use a lower-tech approach, such as a traditional Microsoft® Office PowerPoint or Apple Keynote, combined with captions to convey your message. There are a variety of presentation software and authoring tools available online for you to develop your presentation. Review the document linked below for a list of some of the more popular tools. All of these tools offer either a free version or free 30-day trial. Examples/tutorials are often included on the product websites. Note: ERAU does not provide technical support on any products external to the Canvas learning management system.

• Presentation Tools List (PDF)

Again, there is no specific presentation format requirement other than the guidelines outlined above. Think outside the box and be creative in your presentation!

Note: View the evaluation rubric in the each Pecha Kucha activity. Please read these instructions for information on accessing the rubric.Links to an external site.

Tips: Since this may be your first Pecha Kucha, ensure you understand what the concept is and how it works, then build your presentation and practice presenting it before recording, should you plan to create a screencast. When available, please also use streaming video links for any video recordings, as opposed to uploading complete video files to the course which are usually very large.

Accessibility Support: If your presentation uses audio, please include a written transcript. Some of the presentation authoring tools, such as Camtasia, affords the opportunity to convert its transcription files to Microsoft® Office Word format.

 

ABSTRACT

This paper is going to discuss about aging aircraft inspection and what documentation is required of aircraft in the general aviation industry that are past two decades. It would start out with the publication of the FAA produced entitled “Best Practices for Aging General Aviation Airplanes.” (Federal Aviation Administration, 2003).  This article published by the FAA was endorsed by three non-government aircraft organizations. This paper will get the source from the Hunt Library, internet researches, and utilize those sources to present information. Also would include feedbacks from pilots that operate and maintenance crews on the Civil Air Patrol Aircraft.

And some of the questions that will be brought up in this research paper would be what inspection approach existed before the Aging Aircraft Inspection criteria established by the FAA? What differences in approach did the international aviation community take and what are the differences from the domestic industry? Are they more or less comprehensive and if so how? If I would not be able to get the answer to the questions, I would focus on the requirements of the aging aircraft maintenance documentation.

 

Reference

Federal Aviation Administration (01/09/2015). Advisory Circular 120-84 Aging Aircraft Inspections and Record Reviews. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from www.faa.gov/documentLibrary/media/Advisory_Circular/AC_120-84.pdf

Parr, N. (1970, January 01). Aging Aircraft. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from http://parr-agingaircraft.blogspot.com/2014/07/documentation-for-aging-aircraft.html

Q8. Drag Exercise (Answer the questions on word file)

Complete the Drag Exercise with showing work. Need to be answered on the attached word file.

Make sure its own work and with showing work for the solution.

 

Exercise 4: Drag and Applications

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to revisit our reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft from last week.

 

1. Selected Aircraft (from last week’s module):

 

 

Make sure to review your data and results from last week and any feedback that you may have received on your work, in order to prevent continuing with faulty data.

 

 

 

2. Main Wing Airfoil type & on-line database designator (from last week’s module):

 

 

3. Aircraft Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] (from last week’s module):

 

 

4. Wing Span [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

5. Average Chord Length [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

6. Wing Area ‘S’ [ft²] (from last week’s module):

 

 

7. Find the Aspect Ratio ‘AR’ for your selected aircraft wing. (Use the wing span and average chord length from last week’s module/from above. See also page 63 in your textbook.):

 

 

8. C_Lmax for your airfoil (from last week’s module):

 

 

9. Standard sea level Stall Speed ‘V_s’ for your aircraft [kts] (from last week’s calculation):

 

 

Find the appropriate drag polar curve for your airfoil selection (2. above; from last week’s module). You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use again the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search .

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/Cd (coefficient of lift vs coefficient of drag) plot, i.e. the so called drag polar. Use again only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (R_e) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

10. From the polar plot, find the C_Dmin value for your airfoil, i.e. the lowest value that the coefficient of drag ‘Cd’ (bottom scale in the online tool depiction) reaches. (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can again select the “Details” link and directly read the lowest C_D value in the table – third column, labeled “CD”):

 

What we’ve just found (…with some degree of simplification…) is the parasite drag coefficient for our airfoil, i.e. the drag that exists due to skin friction and the shape of our airfoil, even when little or no lift is produced. However, this value will only represent the airfoil, i.e. main wing portion of our aircraft; therefore, let us for the remainder of our calculations assume that our aircraft is a Flying Wing type design and the total C_DP for the aircraft is the same as the C_Dmin that we’ve just found.

 

Let us also assume that we are at standard sea level atmospheric conditions and that our wing has an efficiency factor of e = 0.82.

 

1. Prepare and complete the following table for your aircraft (with the data from 1. through 8. above). Start your first row with the Stall Speed ‘V_s’ (from 7. above) and start the second row from the top with the next higher full twenty knots above that stall speed. Then increase speed with every subsequent row by another 20 knots until reaching 300 kts. You are again encouraged to utilize MS^® Excel as shown in the tutorial video and can also increase your table detail. However, the below depicted, and above described, interval is the minimum required for this assignment.

 

V (KTAS)	q (psf)	CL	CDP	CDI	CD	CL / CD	DP (lb)	DI (lb)	DT (lb)
VS
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
300

 

Equations for Table:

 

q =                                    C_L =                   C_Di =[1/ (πeAR)] C_L ²                      

C_D = C_DP + C_Di                       C_D = C_DP + [1/ (e AR)] C_L ²                                  Dp = C_Dp q S

Di = C_Di q S = [1/ (e AR)] C_L² q S                                   Dt = Di + Dp = C_D q S

 

Answer the following questions from your table.

 

1. I) Determine the minimum total drag ‘D_min’ [lbs] (i.e. the minimum value in the total drag ‘D_T’ column):

 

 

1. II) Determine the airspeed at which this minimum drag occurs ‘V_Dmin’ [kts] (i.e. the speed associated with the row in which ‘D_min’ was found):

 

 

III) Compare parasitic ‘D_P’ and induced ‘D_I’ drag at V_Dmin. What is special about this point          in your table?

 

 

1. IV) Determine the maximum C_L/C_D value in your table (i.e. the maximum value in the C_L/C_D column) and the speed at which it occurs.

 

 

1. V) Compare your results in IV) with II) and comment on your findings.

 

 

1. VI) Explain which values in your table will directly allow glide performance prediction and how (Tip: Reference again the textbook discussion pp. 61-63).

 

1. If the gross weight of your aircraft is decreased by 10% (e.g. due to fuel burn), how would the stall speed change? Support you answer with calculation as well as written assessment. (Remember, stall speed references and discussions can be found pp. 43-45 in your textbook.)

 

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use the given figure below (Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators [1965]) to answer the following questions. (This assignment is designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your midterm exam; therefore, please make sure to fully understand all the diagram information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials if necessary.):

 

Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators (1965).

1. What is the Angle of Attack at Stall for the aircraft in Figure 1.13?

 

 

1. What Angle of Attack is associated with Best L/D?

 

 

1. What would be the best Glide Ratio for this aircraft?

 

 

1. What is the maximum coefficient of lift (C_Lmax) value?

 

Q9. Lift and Airfoils Exercise

Complete the Lift and Airfoils Exercise linked below. This exercise requires you to complete some on-line research on airfoil profiles and lift curves, which will familiarize you with another type of data depiction: charts and graphs.

Must show work and references.

Answers need to be added in the attached word file

Exercise 3: Lift and Airfoils

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to choose and research a reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft. You will further use your selected aircraft in subsequent assignments, so be specific and make sure to stay relatively conventional with your choice in order to prevent having trouble finding the required data during your later research. Also, if you find multiple numbers (e.g. for different aircraft series, different configurations, and/or different operating conditions), please pick only one for your further work, but make sure to detail your choice in your answer (i.e. comment on the condition) and stay consistent with that choice throughout subsequent work.

 

In contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

1. Selected Aircraft:

 

For the following part of your research, you can utilize David Lednicer’s (2010) Incomplete Guide to Airfoil Usage at http://m-selig.ae.illinois.edu/ads/aircraft.html or any other reliable source for research on your aircraft.

 

2. Main Wing Airfoil (if more than one airfoil is used in the wing design, e.g. different between root and tip, pick the predominant profile and, as always, stay consistent):

Please note also the database designator in the following on-line tool (see picture below):

 

Find the appropriate lift curve for your Airfoil from 4. You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search and text search for NACA or other designations, search your aircraft, or use the library links to the left of the screen. Once the proper airfoil is displayed and identified, select the “Airfoil details” link to the right, which will bring up detailed plots for your airfoil similar to the ones in your textbook.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/alpha (coefficient of lift vs angle of attack) plot. Start by de-cluttering the plot and leaving only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (R_e) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3. From the plot, find the C_Lmax for your airfoil (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can select the “Details” link and directly read the highest C_L value, i.e. the highest number within the second column, and associated AOA in the table, i.e. the associated number in the first column):

 

 

4. Find the Stall AOA of your airfoil (i.e. the AOA associated with C_Lmax in 3.):

 

 

5. Find the C_L value for an AOA of 5° for your selected airfoil:

 

 

6. Find the Zero-Lift AOA for your airfoil (again, the numerical table values can be used to more precisely interpolate Zero-Lift AOA, i.e. the AOA value for which C_L in the second column becomes exactly 0):
7. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the given plot of NACA 4412 (http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=naca4412-il).

 

1. a) How do the two C_Lmax compare to each other? Describe the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412,            and how those differences affect C_Lmax. (Use your knowledge about airfoil designation          together with the airfoil drawings and details in the on-line tool to make conclusions about )

                                                         

 

1. b) How do the two Stall AOA compare to each other? Explain how the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA           4412 affect Stall AOA.

 

 

1. c) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

8. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the NACA 0012 plot.

 

1. a) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 0012 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

1. b) What is special about the design characteristics of NACA 0012? How and where could this airfoil design type be utilized on your selected aircraft? Describe possible additional       uses of such airfoil in aviation.

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use your knowledge of the atmosphere and the Density Ratio, (sigma), together with Table 2.1 and the Lift Equation, Equation 4.1, in your textbook (remember that the presented equation already contains a conversion factor, the 295, and speeds should be directly entered in knots; results for lift will be in lbs):

 

L = C_L *  * S * V² / 295

 

Additionally, for your selected aircraft use the following data when applying Equation 4.1:

 

9. Research the Wing Span [ft]:
10. Find the Average Chord Length [ft]:

      Note: Average Chord = (Root Chord + Tip Chord) / 2          (if no Average Chord is directly found                                                                                         in your research)

 

11. Find the Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] for your selected aircraft:

 

9. Calculate the Wing Area ‘S’ [ft²] based on your aircraft’s Wing Span (from 9.) and Average Chord Length (from 10.):

 

12. Use the C_L value for an AOA of 5° for your airfoil found in 5. above to simulate cruise conditions in the following exercise B. (Note it here for easier reference):

 

1. Prepare and complete a table of Lift vs. Airspeed at different Pressure Altitudes utilizing the given Lift Equation and your previous data. (For the calculation of Density Ratio ‘’ you can assume standard temperatures and neglect humidity.)

You can utilize MS^® Excel (ideal for repetitive application of the same formula) to populate table fields and examine additional speeds and altitudes, but as a minimum, include six speeds (0, 40, 80, 120, 160, & 200 KTAS) at three different altitudes (Sea Level, 10000, 40000 ft), as shown below:

 

Calculate LIFT (lb)	Pressure Altitude (PA) ft
Airspeed:	0	10,000	40,000
0 KTAS
40 KTAS
80 KTAS
120 KTAS
160 KTAS
200 KTAS

 

 

1. I) What is the relationship between Airspeed and Lift at a constant Pressure Altitude? Evaluate each Altitude column of your table individually and describe how changes in       Airspeed affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support   your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

1. II) What is the relationship between Altitude and Lift at a constant Airspeed? Evaluate each Airspeed row of your table individually and describe how changes in         Altitude affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support       your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

III) Estimate the Airspeed required to support the Maximum Gross Weight of your           selected airplane (from 11. above) at an Altitude of 10000 ft and flying at the given AOA    of 5°. (As initially indicated, a   more detailed table/Excel worksheet is beneficial to     precision for this task. To support the Weight of any aircraft in level flight, an equal    amount of Lift has to be generated – therefore, you can also algebraically develop the lift equation to yield a precise Airspeed result, i.e. substituting L=W and solving for V in the lift equation. Remember that conditions in this question are not at sea level.)

 

 

11. In B.III) above, we noted that lift has to equal weight in order to sustain level flight. Using the same Maximum Gross Weight (from 11.), and the same Wing Area (from A.), calculate required AOA for level flight at the different airspeeds in your table under standard, sea level conditions (i.e. =1). You can start a new table or expand your existing one. (See also step by step instructions below the table.):

 

Airspeed (KTAS)	Required Lift = Weight	Required CL	Corresponding AOA for your airfoil
0
40
80
120
160
200

 

First and similar to the note in B.III) above, develop the lift equation algebraically to yield C_L results based on Airspeed inputs (i.e. substitute Lift with the aircraft Weight and solve the Lift Equation for the Coefficient C_L; then insert the different Airspeeds into V, calculate the corresponding C_L values, and note them in your table).

 

Finally, use your researched airfoil Cl/alpha plot (from 3. through 8.) to find corresponding AOA to your calculated C_L values (enter the plot in the left scale with each calculated CL value, trace horizontally to intercept the graph for that CL value, then move down vertically to find the corresponding AOA and note it in your table (alternatively, you can also look up values in the detailed table):

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3. I) Comment on your results. Are there airspeeds for which you could not find useful results? Describe where in the step by step process you’ve got stuck and why. Explain     what it aerodynamically means for your airfoil if a required C_L value is greater than the          C_Lmax that you found in 3.

 

 

1. II) What is the standard sea level Stall Speed for your selected aircraft at its Maximum Gross Weight? (Utilize above data and the Stall Speed Equation on page 44 of “Flight   Theory and Aerodynamics”).

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method

 

Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
The scientific method is useful in problem solving and decision-making in a wide variety of fields. In this assignment, you will demonstrate how to use the scientific method to make decisions and solve problems in your field of study or everyday life.

Identify a specific problem often faced in your field of study or everyday life. Research your problem and assess your data / research. Examples of such problems could be:

1. Business
2. Developing a new product that is superior to competitor’s brands; or
3. Establishing a price for a new product using the law of supply and demand;
4. Information Systems and Technology
5. The use of personal electronic devices for work purpose, or
6. Determining in the most cost-effective computer for your business;
7. Criminal Justice
8. The reliability of eyewitness testimony, or
9. Determining what evidence reveals to you about a crime;
10. Everyday Life
11. Selecting a particular brand of detergent, or
12. Determining the most cost-efficient transportation / route for your commute.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

1. Explain the scientific method and describe the overall manner in which you would apply it in your field of study or everyday life.
2. Propose one (1) testable hypothesis to explain / solve the problem you have selected. State the expected outcomes of your actions and include criteria for determining whether or not these actions would succeed. Note:Your hypothesis should be stated very precisely.
3. Describe the main actions that you intend to put into place to test the hypothesis that you proposed in Question 2. Describe the way in which you would evaluate the success of your program. Include the results that you would deem as a success and the results that would be considered a failure.
4. Discuss the wisdom behind the strategy you would use to test the hypothesis from Question 3, and describe the additional steps you might take, depending on the results of your test. Note:These additional steps might be to revise your original hypothesis (if the results were unsatisfactory) or to propose new hypotheses. The goal is to continuously improve your understanding of the factors influencing your outcomes, to be able to achieve greater results over time.
5. Use at least two (2) quality resources / references in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and personal blogs do not qualify as quality resources.

Your report must follow these formatting requirements:

• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

• Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
• Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
• Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics.

 

MUSIC

 

Q1. Music homework assignment A grade

Until this January, few researchers did, either. In the largest-ever study of how parental involvement affects academic achievement, Keith Robinson, a sociology professor at the University of Texas at Austin, and Angel L. Harris, a sociology professor at Duke, mostly found that it doesn’t. The researchers combed through nearly three decades’ worth of longitudinal surveys of American parents and tracked 63 different measures of parental participation in kids’ academic lives, from helping them with homework, to talking with them about college plans, to volunteering at their schools. In an attempt to show whether the kids of more-involved parents improved over time, the researchers indexed these measures to children’s academic performance, including test scores in reading and math.

 

 

Q2. Using Music to Manage Duties

“pretend you are a pediatrican, a pre game football coach, and the owner of an expensive and sophisticated restaurant. Choose music for each of these duties keeping the role of music as physical and emotional stimulus in mind. Give detailed reasons why you programmed what you did for each and list your objectives”

 

 

Q3. Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy

Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy (1965) (dir. Carol Reed)

link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-LnVqkwSRbc

Finish the following questions

1. The “Prologue”: Although the opening 12-13 minutes of the film appear to simply give a biographical account of Michelangelo’s life and a kind of inventory of his work, please consider why this feature film bio-pic opens with a kind of documentary-type introduction to the man – and to his (sculptural) work. Who is the target audience of this opening sequence? Is there any kind of rivalry or tension between the story of Michelangelo the man and Michelangelo the artist mapped out here, and how does the opening sequence either anticipate or differ from the shape of the rest of the film in this respect? How does the film art / the film as art compete with the ‘real’ art that is showcased in the “Prologue”? How does Michelangelo’s art in the film(the Sistine Chapel frescoes) compare to Michelangelo’s art as it appears in the “Prologue”?

 

2. Charlton Heston and Rex Harrison were major mid-twentieth century actors. (Please note that they nevertheless appear not to have been the first casting choices for this film!). As it turns out, they did not get along during the making of the film. Think about the film as a star vehicle and the need for there to be (plot-driven) tension between the characters of Michelangelo and Pope Julius II, but also eventual resolution. Do you think the two men’s actual dislike for one another helped the character development in the film? How does Rex Harrison represent Julius II – as generous, as militaristic, as proud, as a believer? How does Charlton Heston portray Michelangelo – as proud, driven, a loner, a believer? How does the cinematography capture these traits in both cases? (HINT: Harrison as Julius II on his horse and the Papal throne vs. Heston as Michelangelo silhouetted against the sky in the mountains around Carrara (at 59 minutes). Finally: What do you make of the camera angle and sweeping view of the completed Sistine Chapel at 2 hours, 9 min.? Does the ceiling – rather than the actors – end up being the star of the show?

 

3. The post-“Prologue” parts of Reed’s film are elaborately ‘choreographed’; its two parts (before and after the “Intermission”) contain multiple parallel scenes that ask the viewer to assess what kinds of developments occur as the story unfolds. Please consider the following patterns:
4. The opening sequence of Part I in the quarry (carving out the marble that is headed for Rome to become a sculpture by Michelangelo) that then erupts into a battle scene vs. / and the opening sequence of Part II as Michelangelo (the artist) bursting into Julius II’s camp. Has anything changed in the status of the art object? What about the sequence near the end of the film when Michelangelo seeks out the (defeated) Pope in a military camp to as to be able to finish the ceiling? Or the very brief scene of cannons firing just before the final scene of the crowds gathered in the completed Sistine Chapel (at 2 hours, 7 min.). What is the relation between war / military activity and art in this film?
5. The two entries of the Pope into Rome in Parts I and II – once in triumph, the second time in defeat.
6. The multiple scenes when Pope Julius II is celebrating mass in the Sistine Chapel with negotiations about the ceiling / the actual painting of the ceiling interrupting the religious services. What is the relation between religious belief / faith, religious ritual, and art in this film?
7. The multiple scenes between Michelangelo and the Contessina de Medici. Is there a development in their relationship? NB: Please note that it was and is well known that Michelangelo was homosexual. Why does Reed emphasize the relationship with the Contessina the way he does? Is there any subtle / indirect evidence of Michelangelo’s homosexuality in the film? (HINT: The scene in the brothel when the Pope’s men are searching for Michelangelo and the dark-haired young male apprentice who seems to be ever present in Part II…).
8. The multiple scenes of direct conflict, but then also clever manipulation of Michelangelo by Julius II and vice versa. How does Julius II succeed in getting Michelangelo to go back to work after he has fallen from the scaffolding? How does Michelangelo provoke Julius II to recover from what appears to be his near death after his defeat in battle in Part II? Consider carefully the scene in Part II when the two of them meet up on the scaffolding and discuss the central fresco of the Creation of Adam (1 hour, 57 min. to 2 hours, 2 min.). What does Julius II see in Michelangelo’s depiction of God and Adam? Does he believe what Michelangelo believes? How does their final conversation in the Sistine Chapel relate to the conversation on the scaffolding? Is this some kind of buddy film?

 

4. There are two main locations of the action of this film: the city of Florence and the city of Rome. Who and what are the main focus of attention in the respective cities? Who (what classes and / or institutions) sponsor art in these two locations? There are of course other unnamed cities in the film, and the quarry at Carrara; what do these locations represent? Consider especially the class politics of the quarry and the workers’ support of Michelangelo vs. the skepticism – at least in Part I – of the people of Rome vis-à-vis the Pope.

 

5. Pay careful attention to the politics of the film – which are pretty accurate! What / against whom is Pope Julius II fighting and why? Who are his “enemies” (both locally in Italy and in the rest of Europe) and what countries / leaders are characterized as his friends. Why is he concerned to get the Papal States back under his control? NB: The clearest statement of the politics that Reed would have us think were at stake for Julius II are voiced by the Medici duke at 2 hours, 3 min. to 2 hours, 7 minutes.

 

5. We see three of Renaissance Italy’s most famous artists depicted in this film: Bramante, Michelangelo, and Raphael. What pieces / kinds of art is each man most clearly identified with in the film? Where does Michelangelo stand on the matter of the relation of ‘modern’ Renaissance art to the art of the ancient Greeks (at 1 hour, 20 minutes to 1 hour, 24 min.)? What about Raphael (please note that what we see Raphael painting is his famous “School of Athens” in the Vatican Stanze at 1 hour, 31 min.)? Are there rivalries between the various artists? Do we see these artists producing alone (as great geniuses) or are they part of a team? Consider Raphael’s speech about patronage at 1 hour, 45 min. Does he accurately describe the situations of patronage depicted in / referred to in the film? Consider the ways that Julius II and Michelangelo constantly bicker about money.

 

Some more specific questions:

 

• What was the original design for the Sistine Chapel ceiling, and what is the overall story of the final design? Why does Michelangelo destroy the first version?
• What is the difference between Bramante’s scaffolding and Michelangelo’s scaffolding?
• Describe what is (more or less accurately) shown to be the way that frescoes are designed and painted (at 43 minutes and at 1 hour, 9 minutes).
• Where is Michelangelo considering fleeing to – and to do what – after he destroys the first version of the Sistine frescos?
• Why does Michelangelo fall from the scaffolding?
• Why does Julius II order the scaffolding taken down at 1 hour, 40 min.?
• How does Julius II eventually pay for Michelangelo to finish the Sistine Chapel ceiling (at 1 hour, 55 min.)?

 

Q4. A Man for all Seasons

A Man for all Seasons all thing is available character and all scene describe 

 

Q5. The movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

the movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

Q1. SOC 205 Week 9 Case Study 2 I Pledge Allegiance To The Flag(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Case Study 2: I Pledge Allegiance to the Flag

Due Week 9 and worth 200 points

Religion and Politics have traditionally been highly debated topics in our society. Recently, the Pledge of Allegiance has added to this debate.

American citizens have generally recited the Pledge of Allegiance at important ceremonies ranging from presidential inaugurations to the beginning of the school day. The pledge has a great deal of sentimental value to many Americans, but also creates a great deal of controversy for others.

Review the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, which highlights the debate.

Write a five to eight (5-8) page paper in which you:

1. Summarize the salient points of the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow.
2. Discuss the levels of the court through which the case evolved before it reached the Supreme Court.
3. Explain the decision of the Supreme Court in this case in brief.
4. Explain the fundamental impact that the court decision in question has had on American society in general and on ethics in American society in particular. Provide a rationale for the response.
5. Discuss whether you believe that the recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance is a religious issue or a sign of respect for the United States.
6. Discuss whether or not you think public schools should be allowed to recite the pledge.
7. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources. Note:Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

• This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

• Examine the current ethical issues inherent throughout the criminal and civil justice systems.
• Describe the dispensation of justice through the criminal and civil justice systems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in the criminal court and the judicial process in America.
• Write clearly and concisely about the American court system using proper writing mechanics and SWS style conventions.

 

Q2. POLI 330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

Question 1

 

(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?

 

Communities where some possess much

 

Communities where some have nothing

 

All of the above

 

None of the above

 

Question 2

 

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

 

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

 

Life is nasty and brutish.

 

Power resided with the proletariat.

 

Empirical research is important.

 

Question 3

 

3 / 3 pts

 

(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.

 

the contractualists

 

Marxists

 

behavioralism

 

systems theory

 

Question 4

 

(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.

 

the social contract

 

institutions

 

behavioralism

 

superstructure

 

Question 5

 

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

 

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

 

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

 

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

 

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

 

Question 6

 

(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?

 

Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.

 

Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.

 

Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.

 

Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.

 

Chapter 3, page 37

 

Question 7

 

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

 

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

 

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

 

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

 

Markets regulate themselves.

 

Question 8

 

(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?

 

Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.

 

Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.

 

Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.

 

Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.

 

Question 9

 

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

 

Liberals

 

Conservatives

 

Marxists

 

Libertarians

 

Question 10

 

(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.

 

Liberalism

 

Conservatism

 

Socialism

 

Fascism

 

Q3. PAD 515 Assignment 1 Theories Of Leadership(USE AS A GUIDE)

Assignment 1: Theories of Leadership
Due Week 4 and worth 150 points

For all assignments, assume that the City Manager has hired you as the Chief of Staff for your local government. The City Manager has tasked you with developing and implementing the government’s new million dollar grant funded Public Leadership Academy. The mission of the Public Leadership Academy is to provide ongoing training and development of the local government’s current and prospective public leaders. This program was developed in an effort to build and sustain world class public leadership that exemplifies exceptional leadership traits and skills, while fostering long-term relationships internal and external stakeholders and constituents. In the upcoming weeks, you will deliver your first presentation to the government’s local councilpersons, in which you address the type of public leadership model(s) that is both needed within the local government for its public leaders and required to fulfil the mission of the Public Leadership Academy.

After careful review and analysis of the steps needed to meet your goal, your first assignment is to revisit the theories and styles of leadership. You will examine the theories and styles that support the role of the public leader.

You may use the Internet and / or Strayer databases to complete any additional research.

Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.

Use the basic outline below to draft your paper. Organize your responses to each question (except Question 4) under the following section headings:

• Defining The Public Leader (for Question 1)
• Leadership Theories (for Question 2)
• Leadership Styles (for Question 3)

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

1. Determine two (2) leadership theories and two (2) leadership styles that support the definition of a public leader. Provide a rationale for your response.
2. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership theories from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership theory.
3. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership styles from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership style.
4. Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites. Wikipedia, other wikis, and any other websites ending in anything other than “.gov” do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

• Evaluate the theories and models of public leadership.
• Differentiate among the styles of public leadership.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in public leadership and conflict resolution.
• Write clearly and concisely about issues in public leadership and conflict resolution using proper writing mechanics.

 

Q4. Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the USA

Third Party Candidates – Please respond to the following:

• Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the United States has on the political interests of American citizens. Suggest one reason or strategy used by the two-party system to keep third party candidates from successfully running for president.

 

 

2pgs

 

Q5. SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause And Mitigation(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause and Mitigation(6 pages word paper)

 

Q6. SEJPME Final Exam (Already graded A+)

 

SEJPME Final Exam

1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially       atomic                        battlefield?    [objective81]              vertical           envelopment beachhead    assault            tentative         landings        fleet dispersion

 

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper         Fideles”
“Semper         Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

 

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force   development
force   planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

 

Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver

 

Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment

3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information

economics

diplomacy

the military

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force

subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about

acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational

intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

maritime security

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members

media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service

Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

when directed by the President

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”

Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct

network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent

60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine

Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities

major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects

assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True

False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador

Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience

opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment

beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort

command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit

effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)

Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries

cyberspace operations
major combat operations

humanitarian assistance

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II

Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation

situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic

ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.

Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”

 

Q7. POLI 330 Final Exam (Already graded A+)

POLI 330 Final Exam 

1. (TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists? (Points : 2)

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)

Political scientists often train politicians.
Politicians often train political scientists.
Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter.
Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____. (Points : 2)

irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 1) A political leader’s ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____. (Points : 2)

sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____. (Points : 2)

charisma
control
legitimacy
sovereignty

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____ building. (Points : 2)

scholarship
theory
power
culture

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence. (Points : 2)

quantification
hypothesis
qualification
empirical

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 4) Unlike natural law, positive law uses _____. (Points : 2)

the spirit of the law to make determinations
books to reach conclusions
judicial sentencing to determine case outcomes
jury selection to manipulate judgment

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 4) Under which of the following circumstances might a case be pursued as both a criminal and a civil case? (Points : 2)

The federal government accuses investment houses of wrongdoing and investors who lost money sue them.
Drug traffickers violate property and federal law by moving drugs across state borders.
Burglars violate federal property and the state sues them for damages.
A state accuses banks of mortgage fraud in mortgages sold to investors elsewhere in the nation.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison. (Points : 2)

The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges? (Points : 2)

Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 4) When was judicial review granted to the Supreme Court within the United States? (Points : 2)

It was granted during the Constitution Convention of 1787.
It was granted in the Bill of Rights.
It was the result of the Marbury v. Madison decision of 1803.
It was never officially adopted but is an unofficial practice.
 

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 4) Which of the following best articulates the stance of judicial restraint advocates? (Points : 2)

Judicial review is the best and only true method of checking legislative power.
The court should practice restraint in cases in which legislative acts are presented for interpretation.
Only the executive branch can restrain the court, keeping the power of judicial review in balance with the other governing branches.
Only Congress should make public policy and, unless a legislative act clearly violates the Constitution, the law should stand.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 4) The Supreme Court’s decision in _____ (1954) triggered a revolution in American race relations, an area Congress had been unwilling to touch. (Points : 2)

Miranda v. Arizona
Dred Scott v. Sandford
Brown v. Board of Education
Gibbons v. Ogden

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 5) Which systems demonstrate the clearest separation of power between the executive and legislative branches? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential
Monarchies
Ministerial

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)

Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 5) Voters receive the most direct representation in which system? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential

Electoral
Coalition

 

Question 18. 18. (TCO 5) The head of ministry is equivalent to the _____ in the United States. (Points : 2)

chief of government
head of state
departmental secretary
premier

 

Page 2 – Multiple Choice

1. (TCO 5) The only political system that could guarantee the cooperation between the legislative and executive branches is _____. (Points : 2)

a monarchy
a dictatorship
a democracy
an oligarchy

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 5) In the case of both parliamentary and presidential systems, examine the reason democracies will not vanish, even though the executive seems to be receiving more and more power. (Points : 2)

Checks and balances keep the chief executive from gaining too much power.
Chief executives will eventually have to face reelection, which depends greatly on the approval of voting citizens.
Both systems have methods by which to oust chief executives.
Subordinates carry out some of the workload of the chief executive.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 5) Explain which type of candidate parliamentary systems seek out to become ministers. (Points : 2)

Those who have experience winning elections and serving on a parliamentary committee
Newcomers who can bring in a fresh perspective to the ministry
Individuals who possess a great knowledge of the specific ministry’s area
Those who have political experience regardless of whether or not they have been elected in the past

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____,”which is a hard sell these days. (Points : 2)

late capitalism
Marxism
pure market system
utilitarianism

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 7) Early 20th-century European governments subscribed to _____ doctrines, generally keeping their hands away from the economy. (Points : 2)

classic liberal
inflationary
neoclassical
Smithian

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____. (Points : 2)

doubled
greatly decreased
slightly increased
rapidly increased

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)

The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily.
Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class.
Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others.
Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system.

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)

Many would be left without enough to support them.
Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.
It can cost them votes.
Both are primary social safety nets.
 

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)

Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points : 2)

Citizens will default on their mortgages.
Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest.
Ultimately, the government will profit.
Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 9) _____ is a small or moderate change that essentially leaves the system intact. (Points : 2)

Mass discontent
Reform
Dramatic system change
A coup d’etat

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 9) Describe what can often happen in a changing society when, during times of prosperity, some people get rich faster than others. (Points : 2)

Jealousy is aroused.
Politicians pay more attention to poverty.
The very poor revolt.
Economists become confused.

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)

They will almost surely turn to violence.
Not much will happen.
The people will organize themselves, regardless.
They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)

They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism.
They are poorly funded.
They have a great deal of red tape to get through in order to be able to communicate.
They are often unwilling to communicate with each other.

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____. (Points : 2)

because it alone ended with democratic institutions.
because it became an example for other nations.
because it managed to route what was then the great world power.
because it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions.

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)

Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage? (Points : 2)

The low level of education in developing nations
The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations
The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations
The massive corruption now found in developing lands

 

 Page 3 – Essay

 

1.  Evaluate Aristotle’s six types of government. In doing so, please be sure to list and define the categorizations. Please then assess how these classifications can be useful today to someone analyzing current governmental structures. (Points : 40)
2. Explain the relationship between electoral systems and party systems. Answers should be sure to assess this question from the perspective of both proportional representation and single-member districts and provide examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
3. The United States has utilized multiple forms of liberalism throughout its history. Please distinguish the specific characteristics of classical and modern liberalism and outline the evolution of these forms of liberalism within the United States. Please be sure to include specific historic examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
4. Today’s world seems to be moving beyond sovereignty and toward supranational leadership to cooperate on issues of global importance. What are some of these issues? How might they be solved through supranational cooperation? Does such cooperation impede the sovereignty of independent nations? Please sure to include specific examples in supporting your points. (Points : 40)

 

 

 

Q8. POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation

Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process.  Address the following in your multimedia presentation:

• Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
• What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
• What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
• Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
• What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
• What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?

 

Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.

Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.

Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.

Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab

• For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
• For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document.

 

Q9. POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.

Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.

Electoral College Simulation Exercise

Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election.  Based on information contained in the chart determine the following

1. The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
2. Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis

Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?

Alabama91,159,245749,948

Alaska3195,227112,878

Arizona111,089,449975,674

Arkansas6554,724478,912

California555,976,0486,350,244

Colorado91,076,1241,055,465

Connecticut7714,368824,202

Delaware3184,348190,229

District of Columbia390,108125,978

Florida294,129,9973,784,259

Georgia161,740,7761,508,254

Hawaii4200,454224,728

Idaho4376,989245,774

Illinois202,529,4272,615,226

Indiana111,257,0701,148,334

Iowa6740,291752,882

Kansas6645,822512,678

Kentucky8997,244878,421

Louisiana81,002,124924,855

Maine4332,427368,399

Maryland101,029,2781,257,722

Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331

Michigan162,414,7772,391,872

Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624

Mississippi6649,442502,292

Missouri101,245,9781,440,356

Montana3259,129174,434

Nebraska5499,927276,321

Nevada6398,727412,012

New Hampshire4340,492332,638

New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209

New Mexico5369,284370,544

New York293,688,4213,828,477

North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476

North Dakota3197,245110,289

Ohio182,829,6872,777,421

Oklahoma7845,779624,552

Oregon7901,244904,100

Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542

Rhode Island4200,440210,402

South Carolina9850,050714,846

South Dakota3230,727154,786

Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385

Texas383,789,4593,598,334

Utah6500,450401,290

Vermont3122,774182,104

Virginia131,547,9941,607,747

Washington121,390,2241,420,462

West Virginia5364,449367,429

Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202

Wyoming3130,757100,527

 

 

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________

 

 

Q10. Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

1. click “View in Browser.”

Click the link above to submit your assignment.

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:

1. Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):

• Facts of the case
• Issues
• Rule

2. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
3. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
4. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
5. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
6. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
7. Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.

Your assignment must:

• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

• Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
• Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
• Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
• Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
• Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.

 

Rubric:

Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

• Grid View
• List View

 

Unacceptable Below 70% F

Fair 70-79% C

Proficient 80-89% B

Exemplary 90-100% A

PAD525-A3-1
1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-2
2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-3
3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

PAD525-A3-4
4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

PAD525-A3-5
5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

PAD525-A3-6
6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)

Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

PAD525-A3-7
7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

PAD525-A3-8
8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)

More than 6 errors present

Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)

5-6 errors present

Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)

3-4 errors present

Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)

0-2 errors present

PAD525-A3-9
9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)

Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)

Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)

Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)

Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.

Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

LAW

 

Q1. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Q2. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

 

 

Q3. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

 

 

Q4. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

 

Q5. Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search

Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Sign in to the Lexis Uni website and navigate to the Criminal Justice Home page. Under “Recent Supreme Court Decisions”, click on “View all Supreme Court Decisions for Criminal Justice”. Then, narrow your search by “violent crimes”
Locate two U.S. Supreme Court cases that discuss various types of criminal defenses.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word case analysis in which you identify and examine the types of criminal defenses that were used. Include the following:
Explain the nature and types of defenses used in the cases. What evidence was used to demonstrate the defense?
Explain the similarities and differences between justification and excuse. Describe how justification and excuse play a role in the cases.
Describe the outcome of each case.
Format your case analysis consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. The significant role of agencies in the budget process in 813 words with APA Style

Question: Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?

 

Q7. The significant roles that agency play in rulemaking in 553 words APA

Question: “Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.

 

Q8. CJS 241 Week 3 Individual Assignment Police Personnel and the Community Paper(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you address the following:  •  How do police agencies at the local, state, and federal level recruit, hire, and train employees?

?

• How can agencies ensure they are promoting diversity by hiring women and minorities?
• How significant is stress in police training? Why should it be included in training programs?
• How does proper recruitment and selection assist with implementation of community policing by local agencies?
• Include a summary of the discussion on the improper hiring practices article located by your collaborative group.
• A minimum of three (3) references are required Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

 

Q9. CPSS 210 Week 3 Correctional Support Staff Response Paper

Assume the role of correctional support staff dedicated to assisting prisoners with reaching personal goals for probation and inclusion into society. A university counseling professor has asked you to speak to her class about your experiences. To prepare for the visit, she has sent you the questions that the students will ask you.

Write a 750- to 1,050-word response paper in which you answer the following questions:

Describe the different types of cultures and subcultures you might face in prison.
Does the prison cultural influence the prison management culture?
Does the prison culture influence the way you determine treatment in prison?
How are mental health programs delivered in prison?
In your opinion, does prison help prepare prisoners to become law-abiding citizens?
List each question and your response to the question. Your paper’s format does not need to be consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q10. LAW 531 Final Exam…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?

1. Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
2. The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code
3. An appeal process
4. The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent

2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?

1. Vicarious authority
2. Express and obvious authority
3. Implied and apparent authority only
4. Express, implied, and apparent authority

3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?

1. Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.
2. All members will lose their limited liability.
3. This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.
4. Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.

4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?

1. Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.
2. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.
3. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.
4. Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship; the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000

5) Partners of a general partnership

1. Are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute
2. Are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions
3. Do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them
4. Are liable for all the obligations of their partnership

6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?

1. Negotiated settlement
2. Mini-trial
3. Mediation
4. Conciliation

7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment

1. Fact-finder
2. Arbitrator
3. Judicial referee
4. Negotiator

8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?

1. Arbitration
2. Fact-finding
3. Mini-trial
4. Conciliation

9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?

1. A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time
2. A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.
3. A mediator does not make a decision or award
4. If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator

10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. Law 531 final exam. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is

1. Violating a duty of loyalty
2. Violating a duty to exercise due care
3. Violating the business judgment rule
4. Not violating any duty

11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as

1. A breach of a director’s duty of notification
2. A breach of a director’s duty of care
3. A breach of the Business Judgment Rule
4. There was no breach of duty

12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer or director’s duty of care?

1. Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product
2. Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts
3. Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor
4. Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate

13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?

1. The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.
2. Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors
3. Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability
4. Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate

14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?

1. Contributory negligence
2. Defendant was negligent per se
3. Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine
4. Comparative negligence

15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Law/531 week 5 final. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of

1. Due care
2. Obedience
3. Loyalty
4. Good business judgment

16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling; visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will

1. Win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity
2. Win on the basis of design defect
3. Win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body
4. Lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear

17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?

1. The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.
2. The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement
3. The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing
4. The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case

18) What does the parole evidence rule do?

1. It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.
2. It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term
3. It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions
4. It determines which contracts are required to be in writing

19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?

1. Pleadings
2. Motion for summary judgment
3. Discovery
4. Trial

20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest

1. Within 10 years
2. By the time of the employee’s retirement
3. In total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years
4. Only as provided in the pension plan

21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?

1. The Norris-LaGuardia Act
2. The National Labor Relations Act
3. The Labor-Management Relations Act
4. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is

1. Not prohibited under federal law
2. A violation of Title VII
3. A violation of the Equal Pay Act
4. A violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act

23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will LAW/531 not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?

1. Quid pro quo
2. Hostile work environment
3. Gender discrimination
4. Pregnancy discrimination

24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?

1. The Freedom of Information Act
2. The Government Compensation Act
3. The Administrative Procedure Act
4. The Equal Access to Justice Act

25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?

1. The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land
2. The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there
3. The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission
4. The person was the only person who lived on the land in question

26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?

1. A freestanding desk
2. Built-in cabinets in an office
3. A copyright to a literary work
4. A field of corn

27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, LAW/531 final exams your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?

1. Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you
2. Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets
3. Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings
4. Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need

28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?

1. Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls
2. Ensuring companies are profitable
3. Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee
4. Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation

29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is. Law 531 final exam answer

1. No more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both
2. No more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both
3. No more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both
4. No more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both

30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

1. High salaries for corporate executives
2. Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes
3. Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives
4. Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis

ANTHROPOLOGY.

 

Q1. ACBS 160D section 1: Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D section 1:Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D: Human and Animal Interrelationships

 

Term Paper Topics

 

Select one of these questions to answer:

1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
2. Should animals be kept in factory farms for human consumption?
3. Should it matter how animals are housed and treated if they are going to be killed for consumption later? (e.g., Should it matter how animals are treated in slaughterhouses before they are killed for consumption? Should it matter how chickens or pigs are kept in factory farms if they are going to be killed for meat? )
4. Should wildlife protection have a higher priority than commercial interests (e.g., Should the pygmy owl have a higher priority than the development of housing and businesses around Tucson?  Should wildlife be protected and hinder logging or oil pipelines?)
5. Should animals be kept for human food consumption (i.e., should humans eat other animals)?
6. Should animals be kept in zoos or aquaria?
7. Should animals be used in circuses?
8. Should horses be used for the sport of racing?
9. Should animals be used for the sport(s) in rodeo (e.g., bull riding, bronc riding, calf roping)?
10. Should animals be hunted (e.g., commercial big game hunting, state license hunting)?
11. Should animals be used in modern warfare?
12. Should children/adolescents raise animals for slaughter in youth programs such as 4H or FFA? (Is this desensitization or education?)
13. Should elderly care facilities be requiredto allow the residents to keep pets?
14. Should animals be used in religion?

 

 

Think of all the possible perspectives that might answer the question in different ways. Put yourself in their shoes of different people and answer the topic question. Examples of different perspectives:

 

o    Animal welfare proponents

o    Animal rights advocates

o    Food security proponents

o    Ethicists, philosophers

o    National and local economic / employment interests

o    Educators

o    Medical researchers

o    Parents

o    Small business owners

o    Family ranchers or farmers

o    Large-scale agriculturalists /factory farmers

o    Wildlife managers

o    Conservationists

 

EXAMPLE:

 

The question I selected is:

 

1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)? 

 

My Thesis statement might be:

 

In this paper I will present alternative position on the topic of animal use for medical research, considering a variety of perspectives, and concluding with a position on animal testing that seems most justifiable.

 

The body of my paper would include these sections:

 

PRO: PERSPECTIVES IN FAVOR:

Yes- animals should be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

• Some Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

• Some Parents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

• Some Animal welfare proponents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

• Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

 

CON: PERSPECTIVES AGAINST: 

No- animals should not be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

• Animal rights advocates hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

• Other Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

• Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

Q2. AnthropologyWhy is it inappropriate tKINDLY BE BRIEF AND STRAIGHT FOWARD IN YOUR ANSWER

WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?

 

Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.

Include the following in your paper:

• Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
  • How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
  • How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?

Q3. The red carpet cleaning

This is a bank statement of the evidence is well taken care of. I ensured that the drive would not be scratched, bent or even slightly destroyed. the container in which I placed the evidence was well labelled. the hand drive should be cushioned from any potential shock Potential Use of the Evidence This kind.

 

Q4. ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

ANT208H5S  FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

 

Final exam is scheduled for April 20^th from 1-4 pm in Gym A/B. Please check the Registrar website for updates or changes, and for which ROOM you will write in. If there is a room split, you must write the exam in the room location you have been assigned based on your last name.

 

These are SHORT ANSWER questions, which means about a paragraph or half a page, at most. Each questions is different, and some answers require more detail than others. Thus, read each question carefully so you understand the components of the question, and make sure to answer fully (all parts). Be concise but clear.

To help you study for the exam, it is a good idea to answer these questions completely in full, as you would on the final exam. However, it is suggested that you then come up key points or words to help you remember each answer, rather than try to memorize an answer in its entirely.  Good luck!

 

 

1. What is popular culture? Define the concept in detail, and list two examples of popular culture.

 

2. What is cultural anthropology and two of its guiding principles? Based on the reading and lecture (week 2), also provide two detailed examples of how cultural anthropologists are represented in horror films.

 

3. Define semiotics and hermeneutics. Using one example from the Cormack article, explain how Tim Horton’s coffee (through its commercials) is a symbol of Canadian identity.

 

4. Define discourse and colonial discourse. Provideone example of a colonial discourse and briefly describe what that discourse consists of.

 

5. According to the readings and lecture (week 4), what is the national discourse produced at the Vancouver Olympics and why is this problematic? Please describe and explain your answer clearly and succinctly.

 

6. Drawing from the “What is a Nation? The Appropriation of First Nations as Canadian” readings and/or lecture, provide an example of how either First Nations and other marginal members of society contested power (representations and discourses) at the Vancouver Olympics. Explain your example in some detail.

 

7. Some scholars argue that the spread of Hollywood films globally is a form of cultural imperialism. What does cultural imperialism mean? Define and explain the concept in detail. 

 

8. While Bollywood has achieved international success, many filmmakers wish to expand their market globally (i.e. to the U.S, Canada, and Britain). Briefly discuss two of the issues surrounding the question “can Bollywood go global?”

 

9. How is managing your facebook profile like neoliberalism (use a neoliberalism logic)? Explain and provide two examples (week 5)

 

10. Based on the article by Gershon (2011) or lecture (week 5), describe two ways facebook influences social relationships.

 

11. Soap operas such asForbidden Love produce hegemonic discourses and reproduce societal norms. However, fans have edited and remade this soap into ‘webisodes,’ Christian & Oliver, as a form of resistance. Describe the changes made and how these changes subvert dominant norms.

 

12. The lifestyle reality television show What Not to Wear (WNTW) is a space where identity is produced and remade. The authors argued that this is achieved through governmentality. Define governmentatity and explain how it works in the show WNTW to remake identity. 

 

13. In his article about blackness in science fiction films, Russell (week 7) argues that blackness appears as avatarism. Define avatarism and provide two examples of avatarism in film. Describe your examples.

 

14. In her article (week 8), Abu-Lughod (2002) discusses how Egyptian melodramatic serials are embedded with political and moral messages. What are these messages and how are these messages received by the lower economic classes? Explain in detail.

 

15. Stuart Hall (week 8) argues that audiences read, rather than passively consume, popular culture. Although audiences actively construct meaning and interpret messages, this does not mean that they can construct ANY meaning. Identify and define the three possible reading positions.

 

16. Based on the article Luo and Sun (2015) and lecture in week 10, explain two ways in which the Chinese dating showFei Cheng Wu Rao (“If You the One?”) produces sociocultural gender norms. In your answer, identify what gender norm is being produced.

 

17. Jhally (2002) writes that we live in an “image based culture,” which has skewed our views of gender. According to his article, how can society reveal more of the “real world of substance?” Outline his four points and explain you answer using the Dove Campaign as an example (film: The Beauty Backlash, reading and film from week 11).

 

 

 

Q5. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN

PART I

Directions: Read the questions below and formulate a response to each that is at least one hundred words in length.  Please cite the textbook and external resources to support your answer (Wikipedia sources are not permitted).  List each resource used at the end of paper in the reference list section.  Please remember that you may utilize LIRN to help you search for resources.  You can visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize LIRN successfully
PART II: Journal

Using a minimum of three resources (Wikipedia.com is not an option) write a 1 to 2 page paper in APA format to discuss and review your own work, school, and life experiences in which the use of participant observation to gather data would have provided unique insights.  Identify the sides in the conflict.  Where did the “data” or information used by each side in the situation originate?  How, specifically, might the data gathered by a trained anthropologist, who adheres to the anthropological code of ethics, help each side understand the other?

 

 

Q6. Hlt 362v Exercise 36 The researchers

The researchers found a significant difference between the two groups (control and treatment) for change in mobility of the women with osteoarthritis (OA) over 12 weeks with the results of F(1, 22) = 9.619, p = 0.005. Discuss each aspect of these results.

The F-value is high enough at the 5% level of significance to suggest a significant difference between the control and treatment groups. The p-value 0.005 < 0.05, so this recommends a rejection of the null hypothesis, meaning that the control and treatment groups are found to be different.

State the null hypothesis for the Baird and Sands

 

Q7. Article The Real Legacy of Steve Jo

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

Q8. CJA 344 Police Influence on Society W

Public Opinions of Police and the Justice System Police Influence on Society Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that describes how the historical development of policing in the United States relates to the current relationship between police and different
ethnic groups and social classes. • Support your discussion with examples from law enforcement practices, court procedures, corrections populations, or all three. • Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Please note that utilizing popular internet

Q9. How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

Week 2 DQ1

How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

 

 

 

ASTRONOMY.

 

Q1. Self-esteem in the work environment is

Unit II PowerPoint Presentation

 

Self-esteem in the work environment is crucial to the overall success of everyday business operations and functions for the employee and employer; therefore, it is important to identify healthy self-esteem development and how to overcome communication barriers.

Create a PowerPoint presentation (minimum of 10 slides) on how to overcome communication barriers—verbal and nonverbal (identify and explain with supported data and illustrations). You must use at least two sources with one being the textbook. Be sure to cite any sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. The cover and reference slides do not count toward the total slide requirement. Also, use the speaker notes function to explain the content in detail for each of the slides.

Note: Keep in mind the 6×6 PowerPoint rule: slides should only include six to seven lines of content with no more than six to seven words per line. Also, illustrations should relate to the content being discussed—be creative.

Refer to the following tutorial from the Success Center on developing good PowerPoint presentations:

https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/_a1174888831/powerpointbestpractices/

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

 

This Unit covers Chapters 3, 4, & 5 in the textbook on “Building Self-Esteem & Self-Confidence, Interpersonal Communications, & Interpersonal Skills for the Digital World”.   There is a PowerPoint presentation paper due and a Journal entry that centers on self-esteem and ways to improve it in the workplace.   The PowerPoint presentation is on communications flow and barriers that get in the way of quality communications.  Keep in mind that just providing slides with bullets and data doesn’t demonstrate that the student actually understands the information in the bullets so approach this assignment from the perspective that you and I are in the classroom alone and you are doing this presentation for me knowing that I have zero knowledge of the topics addressed on the slides.   Read the syllabus instructions carefully and be sure to comply with all the requirements.  Keep in mind that originality, presentation, graphics, and quality will be part of the grade along with your speaker notes.  This unit is a good next step from what was covered in unit one because interacting with employees and interpersonal skills require high self-esteem and confidence as well as good communications flow that are the focus of this unit.  In Unit three we will focus on developing quality teams and decision-making skills all of which are tied to what was covered in the first two units.

Let me know if you have a question.

 

DuBrin, A. J. (2015). Human relations: Interpersonal job-oriented skills (12th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.

 

 

Q2. What kind of information do you think

Based on Walmart’s success in the United States, many expected the company to quickly dominate the British market after it bought the Asda grocery chain in 1999. That did not happen; Walmart’s market share in groceries grew to a little more than half that of its biggest competitor, Tesco. Initially, Tesco’s sales and net income rose significantly while Walmart’s sales and net income increased at a much slower rate. More recently, Walmart has made small gains in market share, and Tesco has had small decreases. Walmart found out that Tesco is a formidable worldwide competitor. Tesco operates almost 2,400 stores in Britain in four different formats. It has a very successful operation in Central Europe, and it expanded to the United States with Fresh & Easy stores. In Korea, Tesco’s 174 stores thrived while Walmart gave up after an eight-year effort to succeed and sold its 16 stores. One of the biggest reasons for Tesco’s success is its use of technology. In 1995, Tesco started a loyalty card program, called Clubcard, and over 80% of its shoppers are members. Shoppers fill out an application in the store and receive a plastic card and a key fob in the mail that is scanned before they make a purchase. Tesco gathers massive amounts of data about its customers’ 15 million purchases each week. Sales data are analyzed and turned into information that provides Tesco with a significant competitive advantage. As traditional advertising loses effectiveness, these large stores of data allow Tesco to find new and creative ways to market its products.

REQUIRED • a.What kind of information do you think Tesco gathers .How do you think Tesco has motivated over 22 million customers to sign up for its Clubcard program? • c.What can Tesco accomplish with the Clubcard data it collects? Think in terms of strategy and competitive advantage. • d.What are some of the disadvantages to the Clubcard program? • e.Do an Internet search to find out how Tesco is doing in comparison to Walmart and other grocers and retailers. Write a few paragraphs explaining your findings.

 

Q3. Being a small-business owner such a

Being a small-business owner such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your choice, apply the basic supply management principles to the acquisition of services.

• Discuss the trade-offs of quantity, quality, and cost in a small business such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
• Planning systems such as MRP and CRP might be overkills for a small-business owner. Devise a simplified version of an MRP and/or CRP such as a supply planning chart or a supply planning template for a small local business. A local small business could be a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.

 

Q4. Internet Research: Cabin Environmental Control Systems

In this second Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on cabin environmental control systems. Some examples of topics that could be used in your search would be aircraft pressurization systems, oxygen systems, air conditioning systems, and aircraft heating systems. Explain the design of the cabin environmental system, how it affects human physiology, and what would happen if the system malfunctioned. This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of cabin environmental control systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

• General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://generalaviationnews.com/
• Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://aviationweek.com/
• AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://www.avm-mag.com/
• DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.dommagazine.com/
• Hunt Library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page.  Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

Q5. Review Questions

These review questions will broaden your application of a few key topics from the chapters and the Module 3 objectives . Answer all four questions. All references are required to be in current APA format.

1. Discuss the importance of integrating the voice of the customer into all decisions under the concept of Quality Function Deployment (QFD).
2. Describe service process design and the service encounter design.
3. What is Design for Reliability?  Why is reliability important? Describe series and parallel systems?
4. Describe Throughput and explain why the identification and elimination of bottlenecks are key to improving productivity.

Module Report Guidelines

• 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
• Current APA format
• Double Spaced
• A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

Module Review Guidelines

• Current APA format

 

Q6. Airline Service Delivery

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

Requirements

Discussion Board Posting Requirements

• Create a primary response on the discussion topic. This response should be 400 words minimumfor each question and with a minimum of two references. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted. It is highly recommended that you post your initial responses no later than the fourth night of the module week so that your classmates have a good chance to read and reply before the end of the week.
• Respond to at least twoof your peers. Provide cogent responses by either supporting or debating your fellow students’ posts, and explain your viewpoint(s) clearly. Be sure to justify your responses. Your responses should be at least 100 words each. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted.
• All references must be in current APA format.

 

Below are the two peers postings

 

There are two main “servicescapes” in the aviation world (Collier & Evans, 2015). Those of us who have flown/worked with cargo on a regular basis know that doing so is a lot easier than dealing with customers and human lives all day. The cargo world operates on the “lean servicescape” which basically means that it requires less human (and financial) input to operate efficiently. Although there are still deadlines for cargo and a lot of logistics that go into flight planning, cargo involves less work and less planning to ensure a successful, profitable and safe flight. Cargo airlines don’t need to spend extra money and time to deck their aircraft out with creature comforts, put good-looking customer service staff out at the check-in’s in the terminals, or maintain a corporate social presence like passenger airlines do. Passenger airlines operate on the “elaborate servicescape”, which, in essence, means that they have to do a lot more to maintain their business and keep customers happy. While passenger airlines have to deal with ticketing, meals, accommodations for disabled passengers, planning recurring flights, angry passengers when flights are canceled or delayed, and all of the other things that come with providing a service to humans over inanimate objects, cargo airlines just have to make sure that their flights are safe, on-time, and able to generate a profit. They still have a human operating component (employees such as load masters, pilots, managers, flight planners, MX personnel, etc) but it doesn’t need to be anywhere near as developed as a passenger airline’s.

 

Collier, D. A., & Evans, J. R. (2015). OM5 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

 

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

The biggest difference, in my opinion, is that for all the people who fly for fun or business it’s that they will never get to see the cargo operations side.  Spending my entire military career in and around passenger and cargo aviation I have much experience dealing with both.  For example, Lockheed Martin developed the C-5 Galaxy and its primary mission is moving cargo, people, and equipment on a global scale.  Or it can be converted into one huge passenger jet by palletizing airline seats to the cargo floor.  In its “air-bus configuration the C-5 can carry 270 passengers” (Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy, 2017).

So quite frankly the simplest answers are passenger aircraft move people and cargo aircraft move cargo.  However, there are air carriers which have aircraft that move people and cargo as a combination.  As we compare the two, cargo and people air carriers our textbook says that “integrating all of the elements (for both) is necessary to design a service that provides value to customers and can create a competitive advantage” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121).  In your spare time, if you have any, look up an airline, any airline and they will most likely have passenger flights and cargo flights with aircraft designated to each.

For example, I have researched a United States air carrier by simply searching U.S. Airlines cargo and came up with American Airlines.  Punch up the website and it states that “American Airlines provides more than 100 million pounds of weekly cargo lift to major cities in the United States, Europe, Canada, Mexico, the Caribbean, Latin America and Asia Pacific” (About AACargo, 2016).  The website also discusses facilities, services, and processes.

On the other hand, at the American Airlines passenger travel site, it is geared towards personal travel, vacation packages and incentives to fly with American Airlines.  The travel site supports passenger travel such as “Black Friday Savings, Connect Your World, and Relax Before the Runway” (Plan Travel, 2017).  Both websites however different are basically the same type of layout and relatively easy to use in my opinion.  They both provide their own unique “service-delivery system design” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121) by focusing on the customer’s wants and needs.

Cargo air services provide cargo space to customers for personal and business applications to deliver goods and products to destinations where needed. Additionally, cargo air carriers utilize technology to track freight and provide customers tracking information as a service to follow their products throughout the shipping process.  Passenger air services deliver people from one place to another.  They also provide online service to plan, make, and purchase a person’s travel arrangements.

v/R

Ken

References

About AACargo. (2016). Retrieved from American Airlines Cargo: https://www.aacargo.com/about/aacargo.html

Collier D., Evans J. (2015). Operations Management. Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy. (2017). Retrieved from The Aviation Zone: http://www.theaviationzone.com/factsheets/c5.asp

Plan Travel. (2017). Retrieved from American Airlines: https://www.aa.com/homePage.do

 

Q7. You Tube Video Analysis Report

You Tube Video Analysis Report

Must be own works and with references

Please go to YouTube Video site and find a video that pertains to one of the following topics:

• Computer Aided Design (CAD)
• Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
• Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
• Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)

In your paper write the following:

• Describe the topic and specify what you learned from the video
• Explain the pros and cons of this approach
• Compare manual operations vs. the new computer-aided technology
• Find at least two additional references to support your paper

 

 

Q8. Pecha Kucha Presentation: Aircraft Instrument

Every instrument has two parts, the sensing mechanism and the display mechanism. For this activity, choose one instrument from the three basic instrument classifications. The three classifications are the: flight instrument, engine instrument, and navigation instrument. Explain how the instrument works, what flight input it measures and is a glass cockpit (digital flight instrument display) beneficial, why or why not? Your Pecha Kucha should be no more than 15 slides of 20 seconds each. Be creative and think how you can incorporate other visual aids to add to your presentation!

 

Q9. Fuel System internet research paper

For this first Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on an aircraft fuel system or subsystem. Explain the design of the fuel system or subsystem and how it affected the aircraft and any type of problems associated with this fuel system (e.g. fuel imbalance). This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of aircraft fuel systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

• General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.https://generalaviationnews.com/
• Aviation Week  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://aviationweek.com/
• AVM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.avm-mag.com/
• DOM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://www.dommagazine.com/
• Hunt library  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. document. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Make sure it is your own works and with references. 

Evaluate the two requirements for understanding your customers’ requirements:

Order Qualifiers:

• Why must companies understand this requirement?
• What can you do as an operations manager to improve this requirement?

Order Winners:

• What is the main definition and why is it different than Order Qualifiers?
• As a professional operations manager, what can you do to differentiate your company from the competition? Please provide examples.

Module Report Guidelines

• 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
• Current APA format
• Double Spaced
• A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

 

GENERAL QUESTIONS

 

Q1. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q2. HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q3. HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

 

Q4. PSYC305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

 

Q5. HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

 

Q6. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

 

Q7. HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

 

Q8. South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

 

 

Q9. South university nsg5003 midterm exam 2019

Why is nasal congestion a serious threat young infants

How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?a.An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.b.An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.c.An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.d.An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s

 

Q10. South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

 

 

 

MATHEMATICS.

 

1. Need help in Acct 211

 

I need some assistance with several of my accounting assignments.  Is anyone available to assist me with this?

Q2. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

• Your work must be organized neatly and typed
• Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
• Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
• You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
• However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

• No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

2. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

3. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

4. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

5. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

6. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number	Name	Position	Weight	Line
97	Branch, Alan	NT	325	Defensive Line
99	Buchanan, Michael	DE	255	Defensive Line
74	Easley, Dominique	DE	290	Defensive Line
98	Forston, Marcus	DT	305	Defensive Line
95	Jones, Chandler	DE	265	Defensive Line
94	Jones, Chris	DT	309	Defensive Line
90	Moore, Zach	DE	275	Defensive Line
50	Ninkovich, Rob	DE	260	Defensive Line
96	Siliga, Sealver	DT	325	Defensive Line
90	Smith, Will	DE	282	Defensive Line
72	Vellano, Joe	DT	300	Defensive Line
75	Wilfork, Vince	DT	325	Defensive Line
61	Cannon, Marcus	G	335	Offensive Line
63	Connolly, Dan	G	305	Offensive Line
65	Devey, Jordan	G	317	Offensive Line
71	Fleming, Cameron	G	325	Offensive Line
67	Kline, Josh	G	295	Offensive Line
77	Solder, Nate	T	320	Offensive Line
66	Stork, Bryan	C	310	Offensive Line
76	Vollmer, Sebastian	T	320	Offensive Line
62	Wendell, Ryan	G	300	Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Name

Course

Professor

Date

QUESTION 1

Differences as normally distributed.

	Dominant	Non dominant	d
1	0.177	0.179	-0.002
2	0.21	0.202	0.008
3	0.186	0.208	-0.022
4	0.189	0.184	0.005
5	0.198	0.215	-0.017
6	0.194	0.193	0.001
7	0.16	0.194	-0.034
8	0.163	0.16	0.003
9	0.166	0.209	-0.043
10	0.152	0.164	-0.012
11	0.19	0.21	-0.02
12	0.172	0.197	-0.025
		d-bar	-0.0132
		sd=	0.0164

Paired t test:

Let d =dominant-non dominant

Test statistic:

t=(-0.0132-0)/(0.0164/SQRT(12))

t=-2.78

df=12-1=11

p-value=tdist(2.78,11,1)=0.0090

As,p-value<0.05,we reject the null hypothesis.

There is sufficient evidence to support the claim that reaction time for dominant hand is less than non dominant hand.

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 2

The test statistic and critical point has been found by running the following R code:

off <- c(335,305,317,325,295,320,310,320,300)
def <-c(325,255,290,305,265,309,275,260,325,282,300,325)t.test(off,def,alternative=”greater”,var.equal=TRUE)
qt(0.95,19)

QUESTION 3
Hypotheses. The first step is to state the null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.

Null hypothesis: u_Stress> u_{No Stress}
Alternative hypothesis: u_Stress < u_{No Stress}

An analysis plan: The significance level is 0.10. Using sample data, we will conduct a two-sample t-test of the null hypothesis.

Analyze sample data. Using sample data, we compute the standard error (SE), degrees of freedom (DF), and the t statistic test statistic (t).

SE = sqrt[(s₁²/n₁) + (s₂²/n₂)]
SE = 3.6342
DF = 69

t = [ (x₁ – x₂) – d ] / SE

t = – 1.65

where s₁ is the standard deviation of sample 1, s₂ is the standard deviation of sample 2, n₁ is thesize of sample 1, n₂ is the size of sample 2, x₁ is the mean of sample 1, x₂ is the mean of sample 2, d is the hypothesized difference between population means, and SE is the standard error.

The observed difference in sample means produced a t statistic of – 1.65.

P-value is 0.052

Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.052) is less than the significance level (0.10), we have to reject the null hypothesis.

From the above test we have sufficient evidence in the favor of the claim that stress effects weight.

 

QUESTION 4

QUESTION 5

QUESTION 6

 

 

 

Before	After
6.6	6.8
6.5	2.4
9	7.4
10.3	8.5
11.3	8.1
8.1	6.1
6.3	3.4
11.6	2

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Student	Dominant Hand	Non-dominant Hand
1	0.177	0.179
2	0.21	0.202
3	0.186	0.208
4	0.189	0.184
5	0.198	0.215
6	0.194	0.193
7	0.16	0.194
8	0.163	0.16
9	0.166	0.209
10	0.152	0.164
11	0.19	0.21
12	0.172	0.197

 

 

 

Q3. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

See Attachments

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

 

 

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

• Your work must be organized neatly and typed
• Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
• Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
• You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
• However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

• No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

2. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

3. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

4. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

5. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

6. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number	Name	Position	Weight	Line
97	Branch, Alan	NT	325	Defensive Line
99	Buchanan, Michael	DE	255	Defensive Line
74	Easley, Dominique	DE	290	Defensive Line
98	Forston, Marcus	DT	305	Defensive Line
95	Jones, Chandler	DE	265	Defensive Line
94	Jones, Chris	DT	309	Defensive Line
90	Moore, Zach	DE	275	Defensive Line
50	Ninkovich, Rob	DE	260	Defensive Line
96	Siliga, Sealver	DT	325	Defensive Line
90	Smith, Will	DE	282	Defensive Line
72	Vellano, Joe	DT	300	Defensive Line
75	Wilfork, Vince	DT	325	Defensive Line
61	Cannon, Marcus	G	335	Offensive Line
63	Connolly, Dan	G	305	Offensive Line
65	Devey, Jordan	G	317	Offensive Line
71	Fleming, Cameron	G	325	Offensive Line
67	Kline, Josh	G	295	Offensive Line
77	Solder, Nate	T	320	Offensive Line
66	Stork, Bryan	C	310	Offensive Line
76	Vollmer, Sebastian	T	320	Offensive Line
62	Wendell, Ryan	G	300	Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Before	After
6.6	6.8
6.5	2.4
9	7.4
10.3	8.5
11.3	8.1
8.1	6.1
6.3	3.4
11.6	2

 

 

Student	Dominant Hand	Non-dominant Hand
1	0.177	0.179
2	0.21	0.202
3	0.186	0.208
4	0.189	0.184
5	0.198	0.215
6	0.194	0.193
7	0.16	0.194
8	0.163	0.16
9	0.166	0.209
10	0.152	0.164
11	0.19	0.21
12	0.172	0.197

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. MATH Week 5 CI One Mean & Proportion

 

See attachment.

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

Guidelines

• Your work must be organized neatly and typed
• Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
• Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
• You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
• However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

• No late assignments will be accepted

Example Solution

You measure the weights of a random sample of 24 male runners 18 to 24 years old. The sample

mean is 60kg and sample standard deviation is 5kg. A local gym advertises that the mean weight

for this group of men is 62kg. Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the mean weight for male

runners 18 to 24 years old.

WORK YOU NEED TO SUBMIT:

I am 95% confident that the true mean weight for male runners 18 to 24 years old is between

57.9 and 62.1 kgs.

1) (5 points) The increasing cost of health care is an important issue today. Suppose that a

random sample of 36 small companies that offer paid health insurance as a benefit was

selected. The mean health insurance cost per worker per month was $124 with a

standard deviation of $32. Construct a 99% confidence interval for the average health

cost per worker per month for all small companies.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

2) (5 points) Salmon Farming. Researchers tested 150 farm-raised salmon for organic

contaminants. They found the mean concentration of the carcinogenic insecticide mirex to

be 0.0913 parts per million, with standard deviation 0.0495 ppm. As a safety

recommendation to recreational fishers, the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA)

recommended “screening value” for mirex is 0.08 ppm. Calculate a 99% confidence interval

for the mean concentration of mirex. Based upon your confidence interval, are farmed

salmon contaminated beyond the level permitted by the EPA? Justify your answer.

3) (5 points) In a survey of 284 smokers, 197 smokers reported that they wanted to quit smoking.

Compute a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of smokers that want to quit smoking.

(Adapted from the American Lung Association)

4) (5 points) When 460 junior college students were surveyed, 100 said they have a passport. Construct

a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of junior college students that have a passport. Round

to the nearest thousandth.

5) Housing Starts The attached data set represents the number of housing starts predicted for the

2nd quarter of 2014 for a random sample of 40 economists.

1. a) Draw a histogram of the data. Comment on the shape of the distribution.
2. b) Draw a boxplot of the data. Are there any outliers?
3. c) Discuss the need for a large sample size in order to use the Student’s t-distribution to obtain a

confidence interval for the population mean forecast of the number of housing starts in the

second quarter of 2014.

 

 

 

Housing Starts
984
1260
1009
992
975
993
1025
1164
1060
992
1100
942
1050
1047
1000
938
1035
1030
964
970
1061
1067
1100
1095
976
1012
1038
929
920
996
990
1095
1178
1017
980
1125
964
888
946
1004

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q5. Math Week 8 Assignment

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)

1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
   The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
   mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
   B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
   a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
2. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
   to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
   10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
3. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
   15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
   will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
   is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
   of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
   (Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
   have the disease?)
4. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
   per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
   the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
   the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean, St. Dev,  n
1 no pesticide        3.47, 1.21, 13
2 malathion           1.36, 0.52, 14

5. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
   ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
   content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
   the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
   milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
   fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
   Health.)
   6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
   47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
   confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
   alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
   7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
   run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
   randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
   mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
   suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
   Gas Mileage (mpg)
   Premium, Regular, Difference
   Vehicle 1: 19, 20, -1
   Vehicle 2: 35, 32, 3
   Vehicle 3: 34, 33, 1
   Vehicle 4: 18, 19, -1
   Vehicle 5: 40, 37, 3
   Vehicle 6: 26, 27, -1
   Vehicle 7: 36, 33, 3
   Vehicle 8: 28, 29, -1
   Vehicle 9: 34, 31, 3
   Mean:      30, 29, 1
   St Dev: 7.7, 6.1, 2.0
6. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
   full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
   that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Elementary Statistics

Week 08 – Part 2 of the Final Exam

Each question is worth 13.75 points.

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion

in the context of the problem.)

On your written assignment copy and paste the following statement. Please state that you agree with the

following academic honesty statement.

I pledge that all of the following work is my own and I am following the rules of conduct

consistent with Norwich University’s Academic Honesty Policy stated in the Student’s

Academic Regulations.

I have not and will not receive help from any outside source on this final exam. I have not

and will not use any resources such as classroom notes, previous quizzes, or any other course

material, other than a calculator, the hypothesis testing flow chart provided, the normal

table, and Minitab Express.

I will not aid any other student on this exam. I am aware that it is a violation of academic

honesty to share or receive any information about the exam with any other student.

1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.

The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the

mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet

B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At

a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?

2. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction

to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a

10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?

3. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in

15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope

will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer

is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level

of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?

(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually

have the disease?)

4. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae

per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at

the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for

the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean St. Dev n

1 no pesticide 3.47 1.21 13

2 malathion 1.36 0.52 14

5. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5

ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine

content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found

the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25

milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s

fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good

Health.)

6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and

47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%

confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume

alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?

7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can

run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was

randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The

mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to

suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)

Gas Mileage (mpg)

Premium Regular

Difference

Vehicle 1 19 20 -1

Vehicle 2 35 32 3

Vehicle 3 34 33 1

Vehicle 4 18 19 -1

Vehicle 5 40 37 3

Vehicle 6 26 27 -1

Vehicle 7 36 33 3

Vehicle 8 28 29 -1

Vehicle 9 34 31 3

Mean 30 29 1

St Dev 7.7 6.1 2.0

8. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15

full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded

that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

Q6. Statistics Review

These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –

Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).

Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).

(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.

Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation

Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart

 

 

Q7 Derive the formula to find sums of integers, squares, cubes, fourth power of integers

Derive or Evaluate the formula for

• the sum of ‘n’ positive integers
• the sum of the squares of ‘n’ positive integers
• the sum of the cubes of ‘n’ positive integers
• the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
• the sum of consecutive even numbers
• the sum of consecutive odd integers

 

 

 

Q8. Derive the formula for the sum of positive integers and sum of the square of positive integers

Explain/ walk through the concept by deriving the formula for

• The sum of positive integers
• the sum of the square of positive integers

 

Q9. Derive the formula for Sum of cubes and the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers

Evaluate the sum of the square of positive integers

Evaluate the sum of ‘n’ positive integers of the fourth power.

 

 

Q10. Stats of Psyc help needed

 

 

 

Please see the attached file with my assigement. This for Statistics of Psychology. Thank you!

 

SPSS HOMEWORK 1

 

40 POINTS

 

 

Factual Informative Scenario	Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25 10 25 15 10 20 32 15	10 15 15 35 30 50 45 30

 

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

 

Cooperation		Competition
88 91 73.5 82 84 92.5 76 95 98 81.5		92 87 85 79 91 95.5 72.5 74 63

 

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 1.

 

SOCIOLOGY

Q1. 1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley

Write a 4-6 page essay on two of the following questions. Your total assignment should be 4-6 pages long, plus an additional bibliography page. Please be very careful to cite your resources, including the textbook and/or films carefully and correctly.

1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley text, people have less connection and trust in their neighbors and communities today than in the past, resulting in a decline in civic (public) engagement. Conduct research on his claim. Based on data you locate from academic sources, explain how and why people are being less engaged with their communities OR conversely argue that Putnam is incorrect and that civic engagement is occurring in other spaces (the internet for example). Avoid using anecdotal or personal experience for this essay and focus on and creating a persuasive academic argument.
2. The United States has the highest incarceration rate in the world and about 1 in 34 Americans is under correctional supervision. Based on the theories and data presented in Chapter 6 of the Conley text, consider why this might be the case. What is causing the high incarceration rate? What role does racism, poverty, and masculinity play in this pattern? Next, evaluate the rehabilitative vs. punishment approach to crime reduction. Which one does the US employ? How effective is this approach and why might this be the case?
3. Pascoe identifies a number of social issues or problems in her book, including, gender inequality, masculine dominance and violence/homophobia in schools. Choose an issue or concern that Pascoe raises and discuss her analysis of the issue.

o    Why is it a problem?

o    Where does the problem or issue come from?

o    How have those issues been discussed in our other readings?

o    What are some possible solutions?

 

Q2. SOC 110 Week 2 Creating an Agenda

Instructions:

Resource: Ch. 11 & 12 of Working in Groups

Create an agenda for a virtual team meeting on a topic of your choice.

Draw from your own experience working within a group with the goal of achieving a specific task. You may use your experience as a student working in a group, or develop a plan for a future learning team. Your agenda should include specific items requiring group discussion and

Consensus.

In addition to the agenda, write a 200- to 350-word summary of the following:

• In a virtual meeting, how can you ensure a group is communicating effectively?
• How can you ensure that each team member understands what the next steps are required to achieve the meeting’s goals?

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your agenda and summary.

 

Q3. Caste systems in India

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system

 

Q4. Programs to counter teen age smoking

What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?

 

 

 

Q5. What is the story of social mobility in your family?

What is the story of social mobility in your family? To what extent have there been shifts both across and within generations? What factors, such as family connections or historical events, contributed to the occurrence of your social mobility? Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

220 words

 

think as american

 

Q6. SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity In America(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)

 

Q7. Comparing Factors that Lead to Underdevelopment

This assignment calls for you to select two Less Developed Countries (LDCs) and assess if there are any factors that are common to both as far as their development is concerned. Your two countries must come from the following list:

Burundi

Benin

Cameroon

Nigeria

Nicaragua

Guatemala

Central African Republic

North Korea

Angola

Ghana

Chad

Yemen

Eritrea

Cuba

Congo

Thailand

Egypt

Iran

Equatorial Guinea

Zimbabwe

Zambia

Oman

Ethiopia

Philippines

Congo

Liberia

Gabon

Bahrain

Tanzania

India

Guyana

Mexico

El Salvador

Lebanon

Honduras

Pakistan

Syria

Guinea

Kenya

Sri Lanka

Algeria

Gambia

Mozambique

Senegal

Malawi

Indonesia

Namibia

Vietnam

Morocco

Myanmar

Rwanda

Haiti

Sudan

Bolivia

Somalia

Kuwait

Mauritania

Mali

South Africa

Iraq

Botswana

Bangladesh

Tunisia

Niger

Libya

Malaysia

Uganda

Panama

 

Source: United Nations, 2014

It may help you to be familiar with the concept of poor governance, because this often plays a significant part in why a country is underdeveloped. According to the World Bank, governance is defined as how power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development. Therefore, if good governance is synonymous with sound development management, then poor governance means a government has failed to deliver desirable outcomes for its people. This could mean that officials are corrupt, not transparent with their decisions, unqualified to make decisions in the first place, or prone to make decisions based on racism, tribalism or ethnicity — all of which are very common practices in LCDs.

The most common factor used to decide whether countries are underdeveloped nations is through the Human Development Index. Countries that are underdeveloped in nature offer poor health care, few educational opportunities, a low average life expectancy, a low number of job opportunities, few recreational facilities, poor economic growth, a low standard of living and a poverty-stricken life.

Instructions:

Write at least a six-page paper, in which you:

1. Identify the two LDCs (from the list above), which you will compare and assess. Explain why you chose these two countries.
2. Analyze the features that the LDCs have in common using at least five of the following nine factors(clearly label the five factors using headings):
3. geography
4. extractive institutions
5. governmental corruption
6. internal or external conflicts
7. shaky financial systems
8. unfair judicial systems
9. ethnic, racial or tribal disparities
10. lack or misuse of natural resources
11. closed (statist) economies
12. Use at least seven credible sources. Wikipedia, encyclopedias, dictionaries, blogs and other material that does not qualify as reputable academic source work at the college level. Do not use sources that are older than seven years.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

• Be typed, double-spaced (no extra spacing between paragraphs), using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
• Citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date (do not include an abstract).
• The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. Graphs, tables and photographs are notcounted toward the length of the paper; only what you have written as text itself.

 

 

Q8. SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz (Already graded A+)

SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Swedish Attorney, Bjorn Liar has been asked to lead a group that will decide which of his firm’s associates will be offered partner status. He’s been asked to be more expressive and to include everyone in the decision-making process. What leadership style should Bjorn use?

 

Authoritarian

 

 

Democratic

 

Laissez-faire

 

Bureaucratic

 

Political

Chapter 5

 

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Select the appropriate conclusion from Stanley Milgram’s experiment on authority and the infliction of suffering.

 

The results of sociological investigation can be shocking.

 

Thresholds of physical pain differ substantially.

 

 

People are surprisingly likely to follow not only the directions of legitimate authority figures, but also groups of “ordinary individuals.”

 

The conclusions from Solomon Asch’s study of conformity were incorrect.

 

During times of war, values toward authorities and violence change markedly.

Chapter 5

 

Question 3

0 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) A group of businesswomen meet on a monthly basis to assist one another in advancing their careers. They give each other job leads and advice. This group is an example of _____.

You Answered

 

a role connection

 

impression management

 

status assistance

 

a network

 

LinkedIn individuals

Chapter 5

 

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) By working at a specific task, people are more likely to become highly skilled and carry out a job with maximum efficiency. This is the rationale for the bureaucratic characteristic of _____.

 

employment based on technical qualifications

 

hierarchy of positions

 

 

specialization

 

rules and regulations

 

impersonality

Chapter 5

 

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Which statement is true concerning intersexual people?

 

They are sexually attracted to both sexes.

 

They are attracted to neither sex.

 

 

They have both female and male characteristics.

 

They have no gender.

 

They are in the middle of gender reassignment surgery.

Chapter 6

 

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Pat Rearc argues that without norms controlling sexual behavior and thus giving the forces of sexual passion free reign, family life and the raising of children would be threatened. To which paradigm would Pat be aligned?

 

 

Structural Functional Theory

 

Symbolic Interaction Theory

 

Social Conflict Theory

 

Queer Theory

 

Exchange Theory

Chapter 6

 

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Emile Durkheim proposed several functions of deviance. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

 

Deviance affirms cultural values and norms.

 

 

Deviance provides employment for a large segment of the work force.

 

Responding to deviance clarifies moral boundaries.

 

Deviance encourages social change.

 

Deviance promotes social unity.

Chapter 7

 

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Travis Hirschi’s approach to deviance and control proposes that

 

Hirschi is a deviant spelling of Hershey.

 

deviance results from differential access to wealth.

 

deviance is a frustration of ambition.

 

individualism inhibits the deviance.

 

 

everyone finds at least some deviance tempting.

Chapter 7

 

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following is NOT a reason researchers have given for decline in violent crime?

 

 

Increased use of the death penalty

 

Reduction in the youth population

 

Changes in policing

 

Better economy

 

Declining drug trade

Chapter 7

 

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 3) While a _____ system is social stratification based on ascription; a _____ system is social stratification based on both birth and individual achievement.

 

caste; crass

 

caste; classless

 

cask; class

 

mobility; closed

 

 

caste; class

Chapter 8

 

Question 11

0 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) According to the Davis-Moore thesis:

You Answered

 

Equality is functional for society.

 

World inequality results from the activities of global multinationals.

 

The greater the functional importance of a position, the more rewards a society attaches to it.

 

Stratification ultimately will be eliminated in the U.S., due to our meritocracy.

 

Viola Davis and Demi Moore are same actress.

Chapter 8

 

Question 12

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ is the term for earnings from work or investments and _____ is the term for the total value of money and other assets, minus outstanding debts.

 

Income; personal property

 

Profit; income

 

Wealth; income

 

 

Income; wealth

 

Rent; net worth

Chapter 8

 

Question 13

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ refers to the deprivation of some people in relation to those who have more, while _____ refers to a deprivation of resources that is life-threatening.

 

 

Relative poverty; absolute poverty

 

Absolute poverty; comparative poverty

 

Normative deprivation; non-normative deprivation

 

Comparative deprivation; incomparable deprivation

 

Absolute poverty; relative poverty

Chapter 8

 

Question 14

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Marx claimed social stratification would end with the creation of a socialist economy. What was Weber’s view?

 

 

Weber thought socialism would reduce economic differences but also create a political elite, increasing differences in power.

 

Weber thought capitalism could not be changed.

 

Weber thought socialism would create a new high-prestige nobility.

 

Weber agreed with Marx.

 

Weber thought social stratification would only increase as the world became more industrialized.

Chapter 8

 

Question 15

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Accounts Payable Administrator Imelda Czechs works for a small international corporation. This category of work can be described as _____

 

blue-collar work.

 

 

white-collar work.

 

pink-collar work.

 

fur collar work.

 

no-collar work.

Chapter 8

 

Question 16

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which type of slavery consists of employers holding workers by paying them too little to cover their debts?

 

Chattel slavery

 

Child slavery

 

 

Debt bondage

 

Debit slavery

 

Revolving credit slavery

Chapter 9

 

Question 17

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which of the following gives the correct order of stages of modernization according to W. W. Rostow?

 

High mass consumption, traditional, drive to technological maturity, and take-off

 

Traditional, drive to technological maturity, take-off, and high mass consumption

 

High mass consumption, traditional, take-off, and drive to technological maturity

 

 

Traditional, take-off, drive to technological maturity, and high mass consumption

 

Take-off, drive to traditional maturity, technological, and consume mass quantities

Chapter 9

 

Question 18

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) A social theorist who contributed to the development of dependency theory by tracing the growth of the capitalist world economy is

 

Max Weber.

 

Emile Durkheim.

 

Walt Rostow.

 

Oliver Clozov

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein.

Chapter 9

 

Question 19

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) The model of the capitalist world economy is

 

Karl Marx’s view that the bourgeois nations, such as England, would dominate the proletarian nations, such as India.

 

Erving Goffman’s view that world peace would result from many types of nations interacting with one another.

 

Talcott Parsons’s view that the inequality that exists among nations is necessary for world stability.

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein’s view of the global economic system as divided between certain industrialized nations that control wealth, and developing countries that are controlled and exploited.

 

Gerhard Lenski’s view that, as countries gain more technology, they move through levels of development.

Chapter 9

 

Question 20

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of technological and cultural differences between nations and _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of the historic exploitation of poor nations by rich ones.

 

Dependency theory; modernization theory

 

Destiny; manifest destiny

 

Neocolonialism; colonialism

 

 

Modernization theory; dependency theory

 

Colonialism; neocolonialism