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Question 1: Health Care

DPH 655 Environmental Health Law Assignment
This is an individual assignment whereby you will identify a US law related to environmental health policy and explore its history and purpose. The paper should be 3 pages’ double spaced, 12 pt Times New Roman font, 1 inch margins. You should make sure your paper answers the questions below. Use professional voice. You should include scholarly citations in your paper (no Wikipedia, web MD, or the like). Answer the questions in paragraph form (do not simply list the questions and answer them).
1. What is the full name of the law?
2. What is the common name that the law is known by?
3. When was the law passed?
4. Describe any significant amendments.
5. What event or circumstances prompted the law’s passing?
6. What is the law’s impact on the environment? That is did it function as it was intended to?
7. In plain language, describe what the law does. Don’t get bogged down in the provisions and sections, highlight and summarize the main point of the law in your own words.
8. What is the state of the law today? Is it working as intended? Is it playing a key role in current environmental issues? Has it been involved in any interesting legal or policy battles? If so, describe that.
Use your own words. Cite references in APA style. Theowl@Purdue is a wonderful resource for proper APA citation. Papers will be analyzed for plagiarism through TurnItIn.
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Question 2: English

Norovirus in Vermont
PART I. OUTBREAK DETECTION

On the morning of February 5, the mother of a young child called the Vermont Department of Health (VDH) to report a possible foodborne outbreak. The woman’s child, age 5 years, and two neighborhood children, ages 7 and 10 years, had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea within 12 hours of each other. The child aged 5-years had become so sick that her mother had taken her to the emergency department at the local hospital.
The mother reported that her child initially complained of nausea around 10:00 a.m. on Monday, February 2. The nausea was followed by vomiting and multiple episodes of diarrhea. The child was unable to eat or drink anything without vomiting. Toward evening, the child became listless. The woman took the child to the emergency department where she was noted to be dehydrated and that she had a fever. Stool and blood specimens were collected, and the child was treated with intravenous fluids and released.
The mother called the emergency department the following day to receive the test results for her child. A nurse told her that preliminary stool culture results were “negative for the usual bacteria.”
The two neighborhood children had had similar symptoms (i.e., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever) but had not become as ill as the woman’s child. Their symptoms started a few hours earlier than her child’s. Both had returned to school the day after becoming ill.
The three children usually did not play together but had attended a birthday party on the morning of Sunday, February 1. The mother was concerned about homemade ice cream that was served at the party because she had heard it had been prepared using raw eggs.
After confirming the mother’s information with the emergency department physician, VDH staff called the mother who had organized the February 1 birthday party. The woman reported that her own child was well (except for a cold). Other parents had called her, however, saying that their children had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea.
The woman reported that her son’s birthday party had occurred at a private indoor swim club in Essex, Vermont, close to Burlington. Approximately 30 children and adults were in attendance. The children ranged in age from 5 to 10 years. Not all of the children attended the same school.
Cake, ice cream, and canned drinks had been served at the party. All refreshments had been commercially prepared. The ice cream had not contained raw eggs.
The majority of children had played in the pool at the swim club before presents were opened and cake and ice cream were served. Two children who later became ill had left the party before cake and ice cream were served to attend another birthday party.
The mother provided a list of party attendees, indicating which ones she knew had been ill, and their telephone numbers. She also provided the name and telephone number for the swim club manager.
PART II. HYPOTHESIS GENERATION
VDH investigators notified the district health department of the problem and then contacted the manager of the private swim club. The manager stated that he was dealing with a “problem” and refused to talk with health department investigators. He suggested that they leave their telephone number and he would call them back if he had time.
After VDH investigators stated the reason for their call and reassured the swim club manager that the health department needed to investigate the reported illnesses so that the source could be found and actions could be taken to prevent others from becoming ill, the manager spoke with investigators.
The manager had not heard about the illnesses associated with the February 1 birthday party, but had received reports of illness among other persons who had used the pool during the weekend. Rumors were circulating that participants in the infant-mother swim class (that last met on Saturday, January 31) were sick with “stomach flu.”

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The manager provided VDH investigators with the names and contact information for persons who had complained to him about being ill and for members of the infant-mother swim class.
VDH investigators, with the assistance of district health department staff, contacted households of persons who had visited the swim club and reported illness since January 27 to VDH, the mother organizing the February 1 birthday party, or the swim club manager. Investigators asked about specific symptoms, the date of illness onset, and the most recent date the ill person had visited the swim club.

On the basis of these calls, 21 persons were identified as having attended the swim club and having reported being ill (Table 1). Signs and symptoms included vomiting (90%), nausea (81%), abdominal cramps (67%), diarrhea (48%), fever (48%), and headache (43%). Symptoms began a median of 30 hours (range: 8−62 hours) after visiting the swim club.

During the calls, multiple parents, who had been at the pool on January 31 noted that the water in the pool had been cloudy. One parent had reported the pool’s condition to the lifeguard and was told that the cloudiness resulted from chemicals added to the water. The parent later saw another swim club staff member collecting water from the pool for testing. No one reported having seen a fecal incident or vomiting while they were at the pool.
On the basis of the initial findings, VDH investigators believed that the gastrointestinal illness was consistent with norovirus infection. They hypothesized that the virus was spread by exposure to the pool at the private swim club on Saturday, January 31, or Sunday, February 1. The district health department arranged collection of stool specimens from 10 patients for norovirus testing at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), using reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR).

PART III. ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES AND WATER QUALITY INVESTIGATION
On the afternoon of February 5, VDH environmental health investigators undertook a comprehensive evaluation of the private swim club associated with the gastroenteritis outbreak. Investigators met with the swim club manager, the pool operator, and staff on duty during the outbreak period.
The goal of the evaluation was to gain a thorough understanding of the design features of the swim club and its operations so that investigators could explore the suspected source of the outbreak and assess factors that might have contributed to its occurrence.

VDH environmental health investigators learned the following information about the swim club and its operations. The club actually had two indoor swimming pools: a smaller activity pool and a lap pool. The smaller activity pool had been used for the February 1 birthday party and the infant-mother swimming class. The club also had a hot tub, men’s and women’s locker rooms, a sauna, and a party room where food was served for private events (Figure 2).

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The lap pool, activity pool, and hot tub were situated close to each other (Figure 2). The men’s and women’s locker rooms were adjacent to the pools. Each locker room had a diaper-changing station. Hand-washing signs were posted throughout the club.

The swim club was popular for children’s parties because the activity pool had a slide. Swim classes were also held at the club; classes for children and infants-mothers were held in the activity pool. The club did not have a snack bar. Food for private parties was brought in by event organizers. Pool staff did not help prepare or distribute food for these special events.
Municipal public water was used to fill the pools. The water in the three pools circulated separately for treatment, moving first through a hair and lint strainer (where the larger debris in the water was removed) and then to a pump. From the pump, the water was forced through a rapid sand filter, where it was then disinfected. After disinfection, the water was heated and returned to the pool through a series of inlets in the pool wall.
Water recirculated continuously in all three pools. State law required turnover rates of 6 hours for the lap pool, 2 hours for the activity pool, and 1 hour for the hot tub. Flow meters measured the flow rate for filtration of the water from each pool.
Liquid sodium hypochlorite was used to disinfect the pools at the swim club. An automated disinfectant feeder was attached to the filtration system, helping to mix the disinfectant with the water. A device operating in conjunction with the disinfectant feeder automatically adjusted the pH of filtered and chlorinated water.
Pool operations at the private swim club were performed by lifeguards. However, they received no standardized training or certification in pool maintenance but took instructions from the pool operator who serviced the pool equipment and made decisions regarding water treatment. Staff reported that they tested the water from each pool twice daily; but no records of the results were maintained.

Because no records of water chemistry were maintained at the swim club, aquatic staff were asked to recall water conditions during the weekend and the quantity, time, and type of chemical solutions they had added to each pool. Staff were also asked about any unusual occurrences (e.g., fecal incidents, vomiting, or deviations from normal operating procedures).
On Friday, January 30, no abnormalities in pool water appearance were noted by staff, and testing of water from all three pools was reported as being “normal”. Staff had reported a marked cloudiness of the water in the activity pool on Saturday and that patrons had complained about the cloudiness. No action was taken, despite complaints from patrons concerning water quality, because the pool operator was off-duty.
The cloudiness of the activity pool persisted through Sunday morning, February 1. Chlorine and pH readings taken by staff at that time were “below acceptable standards.” The pool operator was called, and staff were instructed to superchlorinate the pool with several cups of 65% calcium hypochlorite granules.

On Monday morning, the pool operator returned to duty at the swim club and tested a water sample from the activity pool. The sample revealed a total chlorine of 1.5 parts per million (ppm), a free available chlorine of 0.5 ppm, and a pH of 6.8.

Upon his return to the swim club, the pool operator found a kink in the chemical feed pump tube that supplied sodium hypochlorite to the activity pool water. The kink was repaired and the pool was super chlorinated again Monday night (February 2). The pool operator reported that the chlorine and pH were within normal limits when tested Tuesday morning, February 3. These findings were confirmed by VDH investigators.

The swim club did not have standard operating procedures detailing how to respond to abnormal pool chemistries; how to handle water quality complaints; or how to respond to fecal incidents, vomiting, or problems when the pool operator was off-duty. Because aquatic staff turnover at the pool was high, the swim club manager believed that the pool operator should make decisions about pool problems on a case-by-case basis.

PART IV. EPIDEMIOLOGIC STUDY TO TEST THE HYPOTHESIS
After the environmental health assessment of the private swim club, VDH investigators conducted an epidemiologic study to confirm suspicions regarding the source of the outbreak and to identify risk factors for infection.
The swim club manager estimated that 250 persons had visited the club from Friday, January 30−Monday, February 2. Pool attendance records and contact information were available for swim club members. The club manager also provided contact names for group events held at the pool during this time period.
VDH investigators decided to undertake a cohort study because the outbreak was confined to a well-defined group of persons (i.e., those individuals who had visited the pool during January 30–February 2) and the exposure of interest was known. A cohort study also permitted investigators to identify all cases and calculate attack rates.
Investigators planned to contact swim club members who had been at the club during the outbreak period and persons who had attended the special events during that weekend. Each person (or his or her parent) was to be asked about recent gastrointestinal illnesses; onset of symptoms; specific swimming pool exposures; food and water consumption while at the swim club; use of locker rooms, showers, and toilets; and whether they witnessed anyone vomiting or any fecal incidents at the pool. A VDH epidemiologist developed a questionnaire to collect the information.

VDH and district health department staff members were trained to administer the questionnaire by telephone for the cohort study. Interviews were conducted during February 12−22. Information was collected for 189 (74%) of the 255 persons who had visited the swim club during the period of interest.
A case was defined as vomiting or diarrhea (i.e., three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period) in a person who had gone to the swim club during the outbreak period and who experienced symptoms within 72 hours of visiting the facility. Investigators calculated attack rates and relative risks for different exposures at the club and set a P value of 0.05 as the cut-off for statistical significance.
Fifty-two (33%) of the 160 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool met the case definition. Only one (4%) of the 28 persons who only used other parts of the facility (e.g., lap pool, hot tub, or locker rooms) met the case definition. Because of these findings, further analyses were restricted to the 157 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool and who provided investigators complete information.
Attack rates were 0% (0/21) for persons who used the activity pool on January 30; 57% (25/44) for persons who used the pool on January 31; 29% (22/75) for persons who used the pool on February 1; and 12% (2/17) for persons who used the pool on February 2. Six persons, including three who were ill, had exposures to the pool on multiple days. Attack rates also varied by other exposures in and around the activity pool (Table 2).

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In the cohort study, going into the activity pool at the private swim club was significantly associated with illness. Among persons who went into the activity pool, getting water in the mouth and getting splashed in the face were significantly associated with illness. Neither swimming (versus wading) nor using the slide was associated with illness.

Use of the locker rooms or showers at the swim club was not significantly associated with illness. However, eating and drinking at the swim club were significantly associated with illness.

Eating and drinking at the facility accounted for only 18 (35%) of the 52 cases of gastrointestinal illness. Furthermore, investigators noted that persons who ate and drank at the facility were largely limited to children attending the birthday party on the morning of February 1, when the water in the activity pool was highly suspect in terms of maintenance failures and contamination.

When analyses were stratified by date of exposure to the swim club, persons eating at the facility or drinking at the facility were at no greater risk for illness than other persons attending the club on the same day. In addition, multivariate logistic regression analysis identified the date of attendance at the facility and getting water in the mouth were the only factors significantly associated with illness. Investigators concluded that food and drinks were not independent risk factors for illness.

PART V. CONTROL AND PREVENTION MEASURES
The cohort study confirmed suspicions that the outbreak was spread by exposure to water in the activity pool at the private swim club and likely resulted from a fecal incident in the pool when the chlorinator was not functioning properly.

Five of 10 stool specimens collected from ill persons and submitted to CDC tested positive for norovirus by RT-PCR testing. The nucleotide sequences of the amplified RT-PCR products were identical, indicating a single contamination event at the activity pool.
The chlorinator was fixed and, at the time of the pool evaluation, pool chlorine and pH were consistent with recommended national standards.

VDH investigators believed that a lack of pool staff training, inadequate record-keeping, and lack of standard operating procedures contributed to the outbreak. Consequently, VDH investigators recommended that all pool staff at the club be trained in water testing and basic pool maintenance and that the pool operator remain onsite or be readily available for consultation during weekends, when pool usage was usually highest. Investigators also recommended that the club keep records of routine pool chemistries and pool maintenance.

In addition, investigators recommended that the swim club develop written standard operating procedures and emergency response plans detailing how water-quality complaints should be handled, the correct response, and lines of communication to the pool operator. In particular, VDH investigators recommended the development of a fecal incident response policy.

VDH investigators helped the swim club manager and pool operator develop a written policy for responding to fecal incidents. As part of the policy, staff were to document each fecal incident by recording the date and time of the event, whether it involved a formed or diarrheal stool, and the free chlorine levels and pH at the time the event was detected.

Pool management distributed the fecal incident response policy to all swim club staff and held special classes to review the approach to a fecal incident. New staff members received the policy and viewed a short video about the steps necessary to respond to a fecal incident.
After the investigation, members of the private swim club voiced concern about the adequacy of actions taken to prevent future waterborne outbreaks at the club. The club manager asked VDH staff to meet with interested club members.

EPILOGUE

The number of recreational water-associated outbreaks in the United States has increased substantially since 1978 when CDC first began collecting reports.3 The increase has been caused by outbreaks of gastroenteritis (Figure 3) and likely results from a combination of factors, including the emergence of chlorine-resistant pathogens (e.g., Cryptosporidium), increased participation in aquatic activities by the public, and an increased number and variety of aquatic venues.

Source: CDC Waterborne Disease and Outbreak Surveillance System
During 2005−2006, a total of 78 recreational water-associated outbreaks were reported in the United States, resulting in 4,412 cases of illness. Fifty-eight (74%) of the outbreaks occurred at treated water venues, resulting in 94% of the cases of illness.
As experienced in Vermont, problems contributing to outbreaks associated with treated recreational water in 2005-2006 include low disinfectant levels, inadequate water-quality monitoring, breakdowns of equipment and lengthy detection times, inadequately trained aquatic staff, and unclear chains of communication for resolving problems. Unfortunately, these problems are not limited to facilities associated with waterborne outbreaks. In a study of pool inspections at six sites across the United States, over half of all pools had at least one violation. Water-chemistry violations comprised 38.7% of total violations, followed by violations of the filtration and recirculation system (38.6%), and policy and management violations (22.7%). Approximately 8% of pools were closed immediately because of public health concerns.4

Prevention of outbreaks in treated recreational water venues is likely to be accomplished only through concerted efforts by pool operators, the public, and public health professionals.

• Pool operators should employ multiple mechanisms to prevent contamination of pools and transmission of pathogenic agents, including effective facility design and pool maintenance. Operators should implement diarrhea-exclusion policies and disinfection guidelines after fecal incidents. In addition, staff should be trained to perform pool operations, enforce policies, and educate young bathers and their parents about healthy swimming practices.

• The public should follow basic guidelines for healthy swimming. They should avoid swallowing water and stay out of the pool when they have diarrhea. Because fecal shedding of pathogens is common, bathers should use appropriate hygienic measures around pools (e.g., showering before swimming, taking children on frequent bathroom breaks, and changing diapers in the bathroom instead of at the poolside). Pool policies and design should support these efforts by the public. Increased public awareness of pool safety issues and action can promote better maintenance of pools by operators.

• Public health professionals should lead prevention efforts that include surveillance, health education, epidemiologic and laboratory studies, and environmental health research. Public health professionals should (1) require and improve training for pool inspectors, (2) update pool codes to stay current with changing pool designs and needs, and (3) lead efforts to educate aquatic staff and the public. They should also work with industry representatives in developing easier, more effective methods for treating pool water. In addition, because the majority of gastrointestinal illnesses can be spread by water, food, person-to-person contact, and animal-to-person contact, investigators should keep an open mind when investigating such cases and consider all possible sources of transmission during the investigation of an outbreak.

Improved pool operator and public education combined with more effective methods of water treatment should increase swimming safety and reduce the risk for waterborne diseases associated with recreational water facilities.

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REFERENCES
1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). An outbreak of norovirus gastroenteritis at a swimming club—Vermont, 2004. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2004; 53:793−5. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5334a5.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

2. Podewils LJ, Blevins L, Hagenbuch M, et al. Outbreak of norovirus illness associated with a swimming pool. Epidemiol Infect 2007; 135:827−33.

3. Yoder JS, Hlavsa M, Craun GF, et al. Surveillance for waterborne disease and outbreaks associated with recreational water use and other aquatic facility-associated health events—United States, 2005–2006. MMWR Surveill Sum 2008;57(No. SS-09);1−29. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/ss5709a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

4. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Surveillance data from swimming pool inspections—selected states and counties, United States, May−September 2002. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2003; 52:513−16. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5222a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.
1. Describe the event.
2. Which individuals experienced the event?
3. When did they experience the event?
4. Where are the individuals who have experienced the event?
5. What environmental factors are associated with the event?
6. Given the differences in resources, how well were available resources used?
7. Evaluate the process; describe how you would have done things differently given the location, resources, and particular event.
8. Going forward, what screening mechanisms should be put in place to detect these conditions early?

Question 3: English

Instruction
To begin this assignment, you will examine the case study, “Missed Pickup Means a Missed Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship,” provided in this week’s resources. Then, to complete this Assignment, review the Learning Resources below, and respond to the following bullets in a 3- to 5-page paper, which will include 2 Appendices. Begin your paper with an introduction and then provide a summary of the case study (Missed Pickup). Prepare a needs assessment to analyze both employees’ skill levels identified in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, prepare an analysis of what should have happened, and what actually did happen, in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, evaluate the appropriateness among possible choices of action (strategies), including discipline, development, improvement, or termination for the two employees. As a Human Resources professional, create a performance improvement plan for each employee that outlines the following: Expected behaviors; Metrics for improvement; Required action steps; Consequences for not meeting the plan’s expected outcomes; Their manager’s role. Prepare instructions for the manager on how to conduct a meeting with each employee about improvements and consequences. Your Assignment must include 3–5 references to support your thinking. USE THE TEMPLATE BELOW, MUST USE SUPPORTING EVIDENCE, USE RESOURCES BELOW https://www.shrm.org/ResourcesAndTools/hr-topics/employee-relations/Pages/performance-improvement-plans.aspx https://www.thebalancecareers.com/performance-improvement-plan-contents-and-sample-form-1918850

U.S.
Missed Pickup Means a Missed
Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship
By DEAN E. MURPHY FEB. 5, 2004
A missed courier pickup, an honest clerk and an unyielding federal bureaucracy have conspired to deny 30 college students here the chance to compete for a prestigious Fulbright research grant.
”It seems surreal to me,” said Mary Ann Mason, dean of the graduate division at the University of California, Berkeley. ”It is an unnecessary, foolish, tragic incident.”
The students, all enrolled in doctoral studies, got the news on Tuesday night from the university’s chancellor, Robert M. Berdahl, that their applications were disqualified because they were late. Dr. Berdahl had earlier flown to Washington in a failed bid to persuade education officials in the Bush administration to change their minds.
”For these students to lose out on the opportunity to compete for the Fulbright award in this way is outrageous,” Dr. Berdahl said. ”No one could have imagined the Department of Education could have reacted the way it did.”
The department, which administers the Fulbright-Hays Doctoral Dissertation Research Abroad Fellowship Program, rejected the applications because they were not mailed by the Oct. 20 deadline, according to a letter to Dr. Berdahl from Sally L.
Stroup, an assistant secretary of education.
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On that day, the applications were in an envelope at the university’s Sproul Hall for pickup by Federal Express. But the courier did not come until the next morning because of a ”software glitch,” said Sandra Munoz, a FedEx spokeswoman.
The company provided the university with two letters acknowledging the mix-up and accepting blame for the late delivery. It also backdated the shipment’s air bill to reflect the intended Oct. 20 pickup date.
”We realize how serious this is, and the inconvenience we are causing everyone,” Ms. Munoz said. ”We certainly apologize.”
Late in the day on Oct. 20, an employee with the university’s graduate division sent an explanation by e-mail to the Education Department, which told the university to send the applications with the explanation from FedEx, university officials said.
For months, the university officials assumed the problem had been worked out. But the e-mail exchange, Dr. Mason said, came back to haunt them. It was cited last month by lawyers for the department as grounds for rejecting the applications, she said. Since the air bill had been backdated, the correspondence was apparently the only evidence that the applications had not been sent on time.
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”The final terrible remark of the lawyers was, ‘If you hadn’t e-mailed Washington, we would have let it go because we wouldn’t have known there was a problem,’ ” Dr. Mason said.
The implicit message, she said, was, ”Honesty is not the best policy.”
A spokeswoman for the Department of Education did not respond to several telephone messages seeking comment. In a statement released Wednesday, Assistant Secretary Stroup defended the decision.
”Although we are very sorry for UC Berkeley’s graduate students who had hopes of Fulbright-Hays doctoral fellowships, the facts are indisputable: UC Berkeley was negligent in failing to mail its application on time, despite the fact that for years the
university has applied for this program each fall,” she said.
”When it became apparent that Federal Express would not arrive in time, a simple trip to the post office would have ensured that the university’s application met the deadline,” she said. ”Sixty other institutions met the application deadline.”
Last year, 15 of the 30 applicants from Berkeley were awarded Fulbright fellowships, ranging from $20,000 to $64,000.
In retrospect, the officials said, it would have been prudent to take the package to a nearby FedEx office or the post office, but no one had envisioned a delivery error would have such consequences. Now, officials are looking to FedEx to bring about some sort of happy ending.
Dr. Mason said lawyers for the university were ”talking with FedEx about sharing some responsibility.” She said one idea was that FedEx would provide some doctoral research grant money.
Ms. Munoz said FedEx was eager to resolve the situation.
”Obviously,” she said, ”our goal is always 100 percent customer satisfaction.”
Jason Seawright, one of the applicants, said that while he would appreciate any help, it would be hard for any other grant to match the résumé-building force of a Fulbright.
”In addition to the money, this is something that opens doors in your career,” he said. ”Right, I’ll put that on my résumé: the FedEx fellowship.”
© 2016 The New York Times Company

Title of Your Paper, Centered, and Using Both Upper and Lowercase Letters
Your Name Here
Walden University

Instructor’s Name
Course Title and Number
Date:

Center the Title of Your Paper Here
Please regard this APA document as providing a template for most of your written paper assignments. If you read this essay carefully and print a copy for your use, it will be a great help as you create your assignments. We ask you to write most of your written paper assignments in with opening and closing paragraphs, a clear purpose that is accomplished in the course of the essay, and logically organized paragraphs that develop your ideas. Please notice what this introductory paragraph accomplishes. As you construct your introductory paragraph, remember to engage the reader and to express the purpose you hope to fulfill in the paper. In addition, the introduction may offer a roadmap or a plan for the paper as a whole.
This template generally follows APA formatting, but there are exceptions. A number of features appropriate for a long manuscript or for a dissertation are not necessary for relatively brief assignments. For example, you do not need an abstract for every assignment.
Throughout your paper, consider the way a paragraph looks on the page. The indentation and length of a paragraph convey a message to the reader, suggesting a brief or extensively developed unity of an idea. Two naturally emphatic places in any paragraph are the opening sentence and the closing sentence. Take advantage of these positions in a paragraph; use them for emphasis and for guiding your reader.
The opening sentence of any paragraph provides a natural opportunity to direct the reader from one idea to another. The sentence may function as a combination topic and transition device, suggesting to the reader where this particular section is headed. You may also use single words or phrases to connect your ideas to one another. Think of transitional expressions such as the following as glue or signposts: also, in addition, moreover, therefore, similarly, in contrast, although, or however. (You will find many more transitional expressions and the punctuation they require in any grammar book or on the Walden Writing Center website). It is your responsibility to demonstrate for the reader the relationship between one idea and another so that the reader never has to guess at the logical organization of your ideas.
Another way that you might wish to indicate organization to your reader is the use of headings. However, in your written paper assignments, no headings are required. If your paper exceeds five pages, or if you think that headings will help to convey the organization and clarity of a particularly complex paper, consult the Walden Writing Center for the correct formatting of the various levels of headings. Remember that headings alone will not accomplish what your writing should accomplish. In other words, your heading may announce “Conclusion,” but if a number of paragraphs introducing new ideas follow that heading, it is rather like a false advertisement and will confuse the reader.
Because this is a graduate program, your writing is expected to reflect Standard Edited English. That is, it is to be grammatically correct, formal, written English intended for silent reading. We do not usually speak in (or listen to) Standard Edited English; in our oral dialect, we naturally use contractions, slang, repetition, and all kinds of interpersonal oral signals to one another. In a rather formal writing context, however, none of those elements of speech are particularly useful or appropriate. In particular, APA style does not allow for the use of contractions (e.g., write it is instead of it’s) or informal slang (e.g., use learners or students instead of kids). Admittedly, the writing that you are submitting for a grade in your master’s courses is more formal than that to which you may be accustomed. Take the time to read your writing aloud; to consult a grammar source regarding some stylistic elements you might have forgotten over the years; to avoid contractions and the use of underlining; and to be sure that your sentences are clear to your reader. Write in your authentic voice but in your most intelligent and interesting voice as well. Imagine what questions your reader might ask you, and then provide your reader with well-developed, detailed, specific ideas rather than vague generalizations.
One essential way to develop your ideas is to ground them in the course materials you have been reading or in additional sources that you discover in the course of your studies. When you refer to the author of a required reading or to a statement by an expert on a video, you are offering a context for your idea that stems from the published research by experts in your field. Conversely, if your thinking remains vague and general and you do not ground your ideas in published references, your ideas are likely to be underdeveloped. Let your readers know that you have read (or viewed) and learned from the writings of education experts by either paraphrasing their ideas or quoting their language and following either the quote or a paraphrase with an in-text citation. For example, if you wanted to quote an extensive passage from Gardner’s The Unschooled Mind, the block quotation format as outlined would be:
We are able to know the world through language, logical-mathematical analysis, special representation, musical thinking, the use of the body to solve problems or to make things, an understanding of other individuals, and an understanding of ourselves. Where individuals differ is in the strength of these intelligences—the so-called profile of intelligences—and in the ways in which such intelligences are invoked and combined to carry out different tasks, solve diverse problems, and progress in various domains. (Gardner, 2004, p. 12)
Note that the block quotation as shown above is double-spaced. When you end your quotation, make sure the next paragraph transitions from that information so your reader can follow you. You might additionally want to include other theorists’ ideas to substantiate the above information. You can insert shorter quotations (fewer than 40 words) by using the format in the following sentence: Knowles (1998), an authority on adult learning theory, most likely described (use past tense for reporting research) adults as “motivated to learn to the extent that they perceive that learning will help them perform tasks or deal with problems that they confront in their life situations” (p. 67). The reader may be so intrigued with this allusion to Knowles’s idea that he or she may wish to follow up by consulting the same reference.
Note that if you are citing information from Laureate multimedia files, you will cite as (Laureate Education, 2016). The year may change depending on the multimedia file. The complete bibliographic information for the cited reference is available in the reference list for your reader to further investigate if he or she chooses. Full guidelines for citing Laureate multimedia files in current APA format appear on the Writing Center website at http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm. It is important to know that APA formatting does not support quoting directly from multimedia files. If you use any multimedia as support for your thinking, you must paraphrase and include the cited reference.
A third option open to you is to cite a fellow student’s discussion posting or other shared course work in your assignments to substantiate your own perspective. Citing other students is a way to use all resources available to you, and it demonstrates your willingness to give credit to your online colleagues. For example, in a critical analysis of a source, you might remark that a fellow student named Alex Jones identified an author’s study as “interesting but lacking in practical application to the classroom” (Jones, 2012) to indicate how your views harmonized with those of other classmates. Information on how to cite discussion posts and other more unique references in APA are found at the Writing Center’s citations web page.
Now, glance back over this essay to note that it is a well-developed piece of writing and not merely a five-paragraph, perfunctory essay. Notice the transitional expressions that allow your mind to move smoothly from one idea to the next. Not all paragraphs are the same length, suggesting that the author is able to develop ideas in various ways. Try to determine what single topic unifies each paragraph. Ask yourself, “What question does this paragraph attempt to answer?” All sentences do not look or sound alike either: Some are brief and direct, while others are more complex and flowing. With practice and a bit of extra time, you can create an assignment that not only looks professional but also conveys your ideas powerfully and earns you the grade you seek.
Some program tools can assist you in creating documents with a professional appearance. The MS Word Troubleshooting site can be a helpful resource. If you have Office 365, go to Tools and then Spelling and Grammar down at the bottom of the box. Alternatively, you may use another resource to check your documents by going to Review and then select Spelling and Grammar. When a green squiggle line (indicating potential grammatical error) or a red squiggle line (indicating potential spelling error) appears, right click on the line and you will get a message about the possible error. However, remember that this is just a computer program and therefore not as wise as the judgment of the author who has consulted a grammar or usage dictionary. You might also consider using Grammar, a more comprehensive, free grammar revision tool available through the Walden Writing Center website.
Finally, just before submitting your work to your faculty member, ask yourself, “Have I fully addressed the complete assignment?” Then in your concluding paragraph, end your essay, rather like the last gesture of tying the ribbon on a present. Some writers close an essay with a concise summary of key ideas because there is no need for unnecessary repetition in a brief essay as in the following sentence. In this essay, we have identified, modeled, and directed you to the key requirements. Others like to offer an idea that takes the reader beyond the implications of this particular treatment of the topic. However, you choose to close your essay, do close the door firmly, thereby giving the reader a satisfying sense of completion.
References
Note: For additional information regarding APA formatting, consult

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http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Fisher, D. (2004). Setting the “opportunity to read” standard: Resuscitating the SSR program in an urban high school. Journal of Adolescent and Adult Literacy, 48, 138-150. doi:10.1598/JAAL.48.2.5 When a DOI is available for documents you retrieve from a library database, such as EBSCOHost or ProQuest, use the DOI. Often, the DOI is printed directly on the first page of the article. Never use the URL from the library database because it is a password-protected site.
Frey, N., & Allen, A. (2008). Retelling informational text to improve reports of information. The California Reader, 41(2), 12-15. Retrieved from http://www.californiareads.org/california_reader.htm When no DOI is available, use the home page of the journal and “retrieved from” even though you obtained the article from a database (e.g., ProQuest) or other electronic source. You may need to use a search engine (e.g., Google or Yahoo) to find the homepage. If you used a copy on paper, there is no need to include a DOI or journal homepage.
Gardner, H. (1999). Intelligence reframed: Multiple intelligences for the 21st century. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Gardner, H. (2004). The unschooled mind: How children think and how schools should teach. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Knowles, M. (1998). The adult learner. Woburn, MA: Butterworth-Heinemann.
Swan, D. (2006, September 22). Learning styles. Message posted to EDUC 6610 discussion board, Week 3.

Appendix: Guidelines for Formatting Multimedia Files

Note: Walden’s guidelines for citing multimedia files can be found here:
http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Across the courses, the in-text citation is (Laureate Education, date)
Note: The publishing date for multimedia files are found in the Course Syllabus under Course Materials. This is the date you will use in the in-text citation and in the reference entry.

1. If you are using the Multimedia file, the correct formatting is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (2015). Voices from the field: The 21st century
[Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author

Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.
2. How do you tell if the multimedia file is in a series or a single source?
Multimedia files that are part of a series will usually be listed as Part 1, Part 2, or Program 1, Program 2, etc. Some multimedia files are clearly labeled as being excerpts from a series.
3. If you are viewing the multimedia files in the Resource section of 6610, the correct reference entry is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (year). Name of program [Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD Author.
Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.

Note: Use the above for stand-alone multimedia that are (a), not part of a series and (b), are viewed via a media. The title of the multimedia file is in italics. In the case of a multimedia file that is part of a series, the individual program is not in italics, but the series title is italicized instead.

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Question 4: Business

conduct an Internet search on the following topics: “History of Hospitals” “Hospitals of the Early Christian Era” “Hospitals in the Renaissance” “Medieval Hospitals” “Health Care and Hospitals in the Twenty-first Century” Utilizing the above information, develop an outline that identify the key turning points in the historical development of the hospital concept, including the evolution of ethical and legal issues related to health care. The outline should be in the form of bulleted information – sentences or paragraphs are not needed. Then, consider and briefly explain the following in preparation of your outline: How the development of the hospital has been a difficult process, legally and ethically. How time and public enlightenment were necessary to overcome major barriers of ignorance and prejudice. Support your outline with a minimum of three scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-pages, not including title and reference pages

Question 5: Health Care

Write 12 pages, APA format and include a cover page, reference page, and any applicable tables or appendices. Research proposal should have a nursing theoretical foundation

Your research proposal must include the following sections: Background and rationale for the study Review of the relevant literature Design and methodology You must include the following components: Section One: Introduction The research proposal should: Start with a statement of the problem and objective for the study, which articulates the main objectives that the study desires to achieve. Include a description of the theoretical framework to be utilized and a rationale for choosing a framework. Describe the significance and relevance of the problem. Why is this particular study needed? How will findings contribute to the field of advanced practice nursing? Why is this research needed? Section Two: Literature Review The literature review should: Be a synthesis of the major concepts from recently published research findings. Be organized by themes and not just a report about what each author discovered in his or her research findings. Identify no fewer than six relevant research articles. Synthesize the literature in relation to where the study fits within the context of the proposed study. Section Three: Design and Methodology In this section, what is to be done, and who, what, how, and where are all to be included in your proposal. The methods should be relevant to the question that is to be answered as a result of the research study. There should be information included about the study design, the setting and sample, data collection methods, and data collection analysis procedures. Ethical considerations should also be addressed in this area. Limitations and a plan for communicating the research findings should also be included in this section. All critical elements of design and methods should be detailed, including: Definitions of the variables Identification of the population and sample Procedures for sampling Processes for obtaining consent to do the study Informed consent form to be given to research participants Data collection procedures A clearly stated method of data analysis An explanation on why your data analysis method is appropriate for your research Issues related to validity and reliability Ethical considerations (including plans for the protection of human subjects as appropriate)

Question 6: English

Write a 3-4 page extra credit essay of how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.

Digital Project: Food Culture
For this optional, extra credit assignment, you will be tasked with researching food and food culture via various digital channels and using your findings to carve out your own role in the world of digital food culture. The purpose of this assignment is for you to explore how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.
The assignment will be in 3 parts, each of which has its own point value (listed below).
Part 1: For the first part of this assignment, you will do what I like to call “light research” (i.e., informal, without need for MLA formatted citations) on food culture in digital media. In your research, you will spend some time looking through at least three of the following channels: food magazines (online), food blogs (websites), food “influencers” (Instagram, YouTube, etc.), and food television (Netflix, cable, etc.). Make a list of the shows, influencers, magazines, and/or blogs you come across, highlighting specific details about each. Consider making a list/chart/etc. to outline these similarities/differences you see.
Part 2: After you do your research, you will construct an explanation of your findings that is 1-2 pages in length (roughly 300-500 words). This will be a coherent response that utilizes complete sentences and appropriate academic language. Your response will detail what research you did and, more specifically, what factors stood out in your research. Such factors include but are not limited to: the similarities/differences in presentation, major themes, significant flaws, etc. You will, essentially, explain and expand upon the notes you took throughout the research portion (Part 1). Don’t forget to draw conclusions about what this all means!
Part 3: Finally, after you’ve (1) done your research and (2) drawn up conclusions about your research, you will (3) consider what role you play in all of this. In a short response of 100-150 words (a few sentences), you will identify the role you play in the realm of digital food culture. Are you a creator, viewer, or something else? Why/how? To what extent? Identify and explain why and how you play the role you do, and any other relevant details about your engagement with digital food culture.
Again, this is an optional, extra credit assignment. Adhere to the rules above, but have fun with it! Find below the point values for each portion of the assignment:
1. Part 1: 20 points possible
2. Part 2: 25 points possible
3. Part 3: 5 points possible
4. Total: 50 points possible
Question 7: Mathematics

Sample Final Exam 1 Part A
James is taking a computer science course. The mark breakdown is as follows:
• Midterm Exam 1 – 20% • Midterm Exam 2 – 30% • Final Exam – 50%
All exams are out of 100 marks. James received scores of 70 on Midterm Exam 1 and 60 on Midterm Exam 2. To receive a final grade of B+ in the course, a student requires a final grade of 75% or higher. What is the minimum score James must get on the final exam in order to receive a final grade of B+?
(A) 78 (B) 83 (C) 86 (D) 90 (E) 95
A researcher is studying how the height of children during early adolescence is affected by milk consumption. She plots the heights (in inches) and the milk consumption (in cups per day) for a sample of children and wants to fit a least squares regression line to the data. She calculates the following for this sample of children:
• The correlation between milk consumption and height is 0.4.
• The mean milk consumption is 4.0 cups per day.
• The mean height is 60.0 inches.
• The standard deviation of milk consumption is 1.5 cups per day. • The standard deviation of heights is 3.0 inches.
What is the predicted height of a child who consumes 5 cups of milk per day?
(A) 60.4 inches (B) 60.8 inches (C) 61.2 inches (D) 61.6 inches (E) 62.0 inches
3. A biologist is studying the mercury levels in fish from three different lakes in the area. She selects random samples of ten fish from each lake. The sample of 30 fish is a:
(A) stratified sample.
(B) simple random sample. (C) convenience sample. (D) multistage sample.
(E) systematic sample.
4. The head of the Department of Mathematics would like to determine whether student performance in an introductory math course differs depending on the professor of the course and the time of day the course is offered. Two math professors, Dr. Smith and Dr. Johnson, are each teaching two sections of the same introductory math course this semester. Dr. Smith teaches sections A01 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A03 (at 1:30 p.m.) and Dr. Johnson teaches sections A02 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A04 (at 1:30 p.m.). At the end of the semester, the department head will compare the average grades of the students in the four sections.
This is an example of:
(A) a completely randomized design with four treatments.
(B) a randomized block design with two blocks and two treatments. (C) a randomized block design with four blocks and four treatments. (D) a matched pairs design with two treatments.
(E) an observational study.
2

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The next two questions (5 and 6) refer to the following:
The following five games are scheduled to be played at the World Curling Championships one morning. The values in parentheses are the probabilities of each team winning their respective game.
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3: Game 4: Game 5:
Finland (0.43) USA (0.28) Japan (0.11) Denmark (0.33) France (0.18)
vs. Germany (0.57) vs. Switzerland (0.72) vs. Canada (0.89)
vs. Sweden (0.67)
vs. Scotland (0.82)
The outcome of interest is the set of winners for each of the five games. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 25 (D) 32 (E) 64
In a sports game, the “favourite” is the team with the higher probability of winning and the “underdog” is the team that is less likely to win. What is the probability that at least one underdog wins their game?
(A) 0.93 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.67 (E) 0.59
The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Suppose we have the following facts about customers buying alcohol at the Liquor Mart:
• 55% buy wine (W).
• 40% buy beer (B).
• 22% buy wine and beer.
• 6% buy wine and vodka (V ).
• 5% buy beer and vodka.
• 50% buy beer or vodka.
• 2% buy wine and beer and vodka.
7. If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys vodka? (A) 0.10 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.19 (D) 0.25 (E) 0.28
3
8. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events W and B are independent.
(B) Events W and B are mutually exclusive. (C) Events W and V are independent.
(D) Events W and V are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and V are independent.
If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys only wine? (A) 0.14 (B) 0.17 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.29 (E) 0.34
In a random sample of 17 customers, what is the probability that exactly 10 of them buy wine?
(A) 0.1153 (B) 0.1367 (C) 0.1495 (D) 0.1629 (E) 0.1841
In a random sample of 300 customers, what is the approximate probability that less than 38% of them buy beer?
(A) 0.0808 (B) 0.1492 (C) 0.1736 (D) 0.2389 (E) 0.2929
In a particular election, 40% of voters voted for the NDP, 35% voted for the Liberals and 25% voted for the Conservatives. If we take a random sample of two voters, what is the probability that they voted for different parties?
(A) 0.765 (B) 0.345 (C) 0.525 (D) 0.655 (E) 0.485
There are four patients on the neonatal ward of a local hospital who are monitored by two nurses. Suppose the probability (at any one time) of a patient requiring attention by a nurse is 0.3. Assuming the patients behave independently, what is the probability at any one time that there will not be enough nurses to attend to all patients who need them? (i.e., what is the probability that at least three patients require attention at the same time?)
(A) 0.0756 (B) 0.1104 (C) 0.0837 (D) 0.0463 (E) 0.2646
4
14. The yearly rainfall in Vancouver, B.C. follows a normal distribution with standard
deviation 172 mm. In 20% of years, the city gets over 1200 mm of rain. What is the mean annual rainfall in Vancouver (in mm)?
(A) 1055.5 (B) 1165.6 (C) 982.6 (D) 1344.5 (E) 1234.4 The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
The time X taken by a cashier in a grocery store express lane to complete a transaction follows a normal distribution with mean 90 seconds and standard deviation 20 seconds.
What is the first quartile of the distribution of X (in seconds)?
(A) 73.8 (B) 85.0 (C) 69.4 (D) 81.2 (E) 76.6
What is the probability that the average service time for the next three customers is between 80 and 100 seconds?
(A) 0.6156
(B) 0.4893
(C) 0.7212
(D) 0.5559
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
5
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
The amount X spent (in $) by customers in the grocery store express lane follows some
right-skewed distribution with mean $24 and standard deviation $15.
17. What is the probability that the average amount spent by the next three customers is more than $20?
(A) 0.4619
(B) 0.6772
(C) 0.8186
(D) 0.7673
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
What is the approximate probability that the next 40 customers spend less than $1,000 in total?
(A) 0.5199 (B) 0.6064 (C) 0.6628 (D) 0.5784 (E) 0.6331
An economist calculates that, in order to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $60 with 95% confidence, she requires a sample of 90 Canadians. What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $20 with 95% confidence?
(A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 156 (D) 270 (E) 810
The breaking strength of yarn used in the production of woven carpet material is normally distributed with standard deviation 2.4 psi. A random sample of 4 specimens of yarn from a production run is measured for breaking strength, and a confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (128.609, 134.191). What is the confidence level for this interval?
(A) 0.90 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.96 (D) 0.98 (E) 0.99
6
21. A variable X is described by a semi-circular density curve with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4, as shown below:
We take a simple random sample of 100 individuals from the semi-circular distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004. (B) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
(C) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4. (D) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004.
(E) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
22. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to examine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount spent on textbooks by U of M students in one semester is greater than $400. A random sample of 50 students is selected and the mean amount spent on textbooks for one semester is calculated to be $430. Assume the population standard deviation is known to be $165. What is the P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0985 (B) 0.0409 (C) 0.0764 (D) 0.1112 (E) 0.0630
7
23. A man accused of committing a crime is taking a polygraph (lie detector) test. The polygraph is essentially testing the hypotheses
H0: The man is telling the truth. vs. Ha: The man is lying.
Suppose we use a 5% level of significance. Based on the man’s responses to the questions
asked, the polygraph determines a P-value of 0.08. We conclude that:
(A) there is insufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (B) there is sufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (C) there is insufficient evidence that the man is lying.
(D) the probability that the man is lying is 0.08.
(E) the probability that the man is telling the truth is 0.08.
A statistician conducted a test of H0: μ = 10 vs. Ha: μ > 10 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. Based on the gathered data, the statistician calculated a sample mean of x ̄ = 12 and concluded that H0 could be rejected at the 5% level of significance. Using the same data, which of the following statements must be true?
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ>10atthe1%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=9vs. Ha: μ>9atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ̸=10atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II (E) II and III
A sample of 30 vehicles is outfitted with snow tires. The vehicles travel 80 km/h in winter driving conditions and apply the brakes. The sample mean and standard deviation of stopping distances for these 30 vehicles are calculated to be 162 metres and 35 metres, respectively. We would like to test whether the true mean stopping distance differs from 150 metres. At the 1% level of significance, we should:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.02 and 0.025.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05.
(D) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10.
8
The next two questions (26 and 27) refer to the following:
Researchers are studying the impact of alcohol consumption on a person’s ability to perform a simple task. Five subjects complete a small puzzle while sober, and then again after drinking three glasses of wine. The times (in seconds) are shown below, as well as some summary statistics:
Subject Sober (S) After Wine (AW)
1
2
3
4
5 mean 169.2 198.6
std. dev. 55.9 72.5
109 132 248 155 202 141 128 290 174 260
Diff.(d=S−AW) −32 4 −42 −19 −58 −29.4 23.5
Assume that all necessary normality conditions are satisfied. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean time to complete a puzzle is longer after consuming three glasses of wine.
26. What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0
(B) H0: μS =μAW vs.Ha: μS >μAW (C) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0
(D) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd >0
(E) H0: X ̄S = X ̄AW vs. Ha: X ̄S < X ̄AW
27. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
28. You want to estimate the proportion of Canadians who would support a merger of the federal NDP and Liberal parties to within 0.035 with 92% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 625 (B) 784 (C) 466 (D) 816 (E) 553
9
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Manitobans who are bilingual (fluent in two languages). We take a random sample of 200 Manitobans and find that 42 of them are bilingual. What is the margin of error for a 95% confidence interval for p?
(A) 0.0565 (B) 0.0353 (C) 0.0693 (D) 0.0288 (E) 0.0404
The Acme Car Company claims that less than 8% of its new cars have a manufacturing defect. A quality control inspector randomly selects 300 new cars and finds that 15 have a defect. He conducts a hypothesis test to examine the significance of the car company’s claim. What is the P-value of the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0359 (B) 0.0485 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0571 (E) 0.0274
10
Sample Final Exam 1 Part B
The shower flow rates (in L/min) for a sample of 30 houses are ordered and shown below:
2.2 2.8 3.8 4.2 4.6 5.0 5.7 6.0 6.2 6.2 6.5 6.5 6.7 6.8 7.0 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.4 7.6 7.7 7.9 8.0 8.1 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.8 11.4
(a) Find the five-number summary for this data set.
(b) Construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. Show any necessary calculations. What is the shape of the distribution, excluding outliers?
We would like to examine how the age X of a certain model of car affects its selling price Y . The age (in years) and price (in $) for a sample of 10 cars of the same make and model are recorded from the classified ads in the newspaper one weekend. The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 18, 600 − 1, 700x. It is also determined that 81% of the variation in a car’s price can be accounted for by its regression on age.
(a) Provide an interpretation of the slope of the least squares regression line in this example.
(b) What is the value of the correlation between age and price for these cars?
(c) One car in the sample is 5 years old and has a price of $15,500. Calculate the value of the residual for this car.
Three hats each contain ten coins. Hat 1 contains two gold coins, five silver coins and three copper coins. Hat 2 contains four gold coins and six silver coins. Hat 3 contains three gold coins and seven copper coins. We randomly select one coin from each hat.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the three selected coins. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of gold coins selected. Find the probability distribution of X.
State the Central Limit Theorem.
We take a random sample of 27 trees in a large forest and measure their heights. The sample mean is calculated to be 28.4 feet and the sample standard deviation is calculated to be 5.3 feet. Heights of trees in the forest are known to follow a normal distribution.
(a) Construct a 98% confidence interval for the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 2% level of significance to determine if there is evidence that the true mean height of all trees in the forest is less than 30 feet. Show all of your steps, including the hypotheses, test statistic, P-value and a properly- worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
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Sample Final Exam 2 Part A
1. The receipt totals (rounded to the nearest dollar) for a sample of 25 customers in the express lane at a supermarket are ordered and shown below:
5 8 9 13 16 18 19 19 21 23 24 26 30 34 35 37 42 45 48 50 56 56 62 64 73
What is the interquartile range for this data set?
(A) 29 (B) 29.5 (C) 30.5 (D) 31 (E) 32
2. The table below displays the number of pass completions X and the number of passing yards Y for six Winnipeg Blue Bomber quarterbacks during the 2015 football season:
Quarterback 1 2 3 4 5 6
Completions 107 34 16 51 149 1 Passing Yards 1434 346 169 453 1757 6
The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = −53.51 + 12.53x. What is the value of the residual for Quarterback 5 (Matt Nichols)?
(A) −109.97 (B) −56.46 (C) −14.46 (D) 14.46 (E) 56.46
A farmer grows pumpkins, whose weights follow a normal distribution with mean 18 pounds and standard deviation 3 pounds. A supermarket will only buy those pumpkins that weigh between 15 and 25 pounds. What proportion of the farmer’s pumpkins will the supermarket buy?
(A) 0.7850 (B) 0.8314 (C) 0.8876 (D) 0.9772 (E) 0.9996
The yearly rainfall in Regina, Saskatchewan follows a normal distribution with mean 384 mm and standard deviation σ. In 10% of years, the city gets less than 320 mm of rain. What is the standard deviation of the amount of annual rainfall in Regina?
(A) 40mm (B) 50mm (C) 60mm (D) 70mm (E) 80mm
From past records, the professor of a large university course has established the following distribution of grades received by students in the course (with some values missing):
Grade A+ A B+ B C+ C D F Probability 0.08 0.17??? 0.13??? 0.22 0.09 0.07
A student requires a grade of C or better to pass the course. What is the probability that a randomly selected student passes the course?
(A) 0.76
(B) 0.62
(C) 0.84
(D) impossible to calculate without at least one of the missing probabilities (E) impossible to calculate without both of the missing probabilities
Over the last year, suppose it is known that 32% of Winnipeggers have been to a Jets hockey game, 25% of Winnipeggers have been to a Blue Bombers football game, and 63% of Winnipeggers have been to neither a Jets game nor a Bombers game. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipegger has been to both a Jets game and a Bombers game over the last year?
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.12 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.18 (E) 0.20
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7. A recently married couple plans to have two children. The outcome of interest is the gender of each of the two children. Consider the event that exactly one of the couple’s children will be a boy. Which of the following is the complement of this event?
(A) two boys
(B) two girls
(C) one girl
(D) at least one girl (E) zero or two girls
The next three questions (8 to 10) refer to the following:
We have a small deck of ten cards. Five of the cards are red, three are blue and two are green. We randomly select four cards from the deck with replacement. That is, after we select a card and record the colour, we replace the card in the deck and thoroughly shuffle it before we select another card.
8. Let X be the number of blue cards that are selected. The distribution of X is:
(A) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.1. (B) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.3. (C) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.4. (D) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.3. (E) not binomial.
9. Let A be the event that the first selected card is the only red card in our four selections. Which of the following events is mutually exclusive of the event A?
(A) second card selected is blue
(B) no green cards are selected
(C) third selected card is the only green card
(D) same number of red and blue cards are selected (E) same number of blue and green cards are selected
10. Now suppose that, instead of selecting four cards, we repeatedly select cards with re- placement (replacing the card and shuffling the deck after each draw) until we draw a green card for the first time. What is the probability that we draw our first green card on the fifth draw?
(A) 0.0819 (B) 0.4096 (C) 0.1342 (D) 0.0554 (E) 0.1746
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A backpacking party carries five emergency flares, each of which will light with a probability of 0.93. What is the probability that exactly four of the flares will light?
(A) 0.1271 (B) 0.0524 (C) 0.2947 (D) 0.2618 (E) 0.1835
Suppose it is known that 11% of students at a large university live in dorms. In a random sample of 500 students at the university, what is the approximate probability that at least 14% of them live in dorms?
(A) 0.0735 (B) 0.0418 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0028 (E) 0.0968
A variable X follows some left-skewed distribution with mean 100 and standard deviation 50. We take a random sample of 2,500 observations from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect the histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1. (B) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1.
(C) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50. (D) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50.
(E) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 0.02.
A manufacturer of automobile batteries claims that the distribution of battery lifetimes has a mean of 54 months and a variance of 36 months squared. A consumer group decides to check the claim by purchasing a sample of 50 of these batteries and subjecting them to tests to determine their lifetime. Assuming the manufacturer’s claim is true, what is the probability that the sample has a mean lifetime less than 52 months?
(A) 0.1292 (B) 0.3707 (C) 0.0091 (D) 0.4909 (E) 0.3483
A recycling plant compresses aluminum cans into bales. The weights of the bales are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 100 pounds standard deviation 8 pounds. What is the probability that a random sample of 64 bales has a mean weight between 99 and 101 pounds?
(A) 0.3413 (B) 0.4772 (C) 0.5561 (D) 0.6826 (E) 0.7485
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16. We would like to estimate the value of the mean μ of some population. Ten statisticians each take a separate random sample of 100 individuals from the population, and each of them calculates a 90% confidence interval for μ. What is the probability that exactly eight of their confidence intervals will contain the value of μ?
(A) 0.1445
(B) 0.1937
(C) 0.2324
(D) 0.2891
(E) depends on the value of μ
We would like to construct a confidence interval to estimate the true mean systolic blood pressure of all healthy adults to within 4 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury). We have a sample of 25 adults available. Systolic blood pressures of healthy adults are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 8.6 mm Hg. What is the maximum confidence level that can be attained for our interval?
(A) 80% (B) 90% (C) 95% (D) 96% (E) 98%
Lumberintendedforbuildinghousesandotherstructuresmustbemonitoredforstrength. A random sample of 25 specimens of Southern Pine is selected, and the mean strength is calculated to be 3700 pounds per square inch. Strengths are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 500 pounds per square inch. An 85% confidence interval for the true mean strength of Southern Pine is:
(A) (3615, 3785) (B) (3671, 3729) (C) (3556, 3844) (D) (3544, 3856) (E) (3596, 3804)
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The University of Manitoba uses thousands of fluorescent light bulbs each year. The brand of bulb it currently uses has a mean lifetime of 900 hours. A manufacturer claims that its new brand of bulbs, which cost the same as those the university currently uses, has a mean lifetime of more than 900 hours. It is known that the standard deviation of lifetimes of the new brand of bulb is 80 hours. The university has decided to purchase the new brand of bulb if a hypothesis test gives significant evidence supporting the manufacturer’s claim at the 3% level of significance. A random sample of 64 bulbs were tested and their mean lifetime was 920 hours. Based on these findings:
(A) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228. (B) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456. (C) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.9772. (D) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228.
(E) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456.
We would like to determine whether the true mean pH level of a lake differs from 7.0. Lake pH levels are known to follow a normal distribution. We select a sample of ten water specimens from random locations in the lake. The sample mean pH level is calculated to be 6.8. A 98% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (6.5, 7.1). Based on this confidence interval, our conclusion is to:
(A) fail to reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(B) fail to reject H0 at the 1% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(C) fail to reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(D) reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(E) reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
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21. We select a random sample of ten oranges from trees grown in a large orchard. The standard deviation of the weights of these ten oranges is calculated to be 19 grams. Based on this sample, a confidence interval for the true mean weight of all oranges grown in the orchard is calculated to be (126.41, 153.59). What is the confidence level of this interval?
(A) 90% (B) 95% (C) 96% (D) 98% (E) 99%
The next two questions (22 and 23) refer to the following:
Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colourless and odourless gas. Even at low levels of exposure, carbon monoxide can cause serious health problems. A home is considered safe if the mean CO concentration is 4.8 parts per million (ppm) or lower. We take a random sample of eight readings in various locations of a home. These readings have a mean of 5.0 ppm and a standard deviation of 0.5 ppm. Assume that CO readings follow a normal distribution. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether the home is unsafe.
22. The P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test is:
(A) between 0.02 and 0.025. (B) between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) between 0.05 and 0.10. (D) between 0.10 and 0.15. (E) between 0.15 and 0.20.
23. We conclude that:
(A) there is proof that the home is safe.
(B) there is sufficient evidence that the home is safe.
(C) there is insufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (D) there is sufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (E) there is insufficient evidence that the home is safe.
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24. The heights (in inches) of all 24 players on the Winnipeg Jets hockey team are ordered and shown below:
69 70 70 71 72 72 73 73 73 74 74 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 76 77 77 77 80
We would like to determine if the true mean height of Winnipeg Jets hockey players differs from 75 inches. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) We should conduct a z test, as it is reasonable to assume heights follow a normal distribution.
(B) We should conduct a t test, as we have no idea of the form of the distribution of heights.
(C) We should conduct a z test, as the sample size is fairly high, so X ̄ will have an approximate normal distribution.
(D) We should conduct a t test, as the population standard deviation is unknown.
(E) A hypothesis test is unnecessary in this situation.
The next three questions (25 to 27) refer to the following:
The high school and university GPAs for random samples of students from two
universities are shown below:
University A
Student 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 x ̄ s
High School (H) University (U) Diff. (d =H−U)
0.02
−0.66
0.06
0.17
0.74
0.19
3.87 0.26
3.70 0.44 0.67 0.17 0.47
3.76 3.64 4.15 4.07 4.20 3.56 3.71 3.74 4.30 4.09 3.90 3.46 3.37 3.04
University B
Student
High School (H) University (U)
Diff. (d = H−U) 0.58
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 x ̄ s 3.54 0.64 3.28 0.69 0.14 0.26 0.33
3.60 2.79 4.21 3.75 2.58 4.00 4.25 3.14 3.02 2.42 4.23 3.87 2.52 3.15 4.03 3.00
0.37
−0.02
−0.12
0.06
0.85
0.22
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25. We would like to construct a 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference μd in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A. Which of the following statements are true?
(I)
(II) (III)
(IV)
For any University A student, high school GPA and university GPA are independent.
For any two University A students, high school GPAs are independent.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that differences in high school GPA and university GPA follow a normal distribution.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that high school GPAs and university GPAs both follow normal distributions.
(A) I
(B) I
(C) II and III only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and III only
26. Refer to the previous question. Assuming the necessary normality conditions are satis- fied, the 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A is:
(A) (−0.12, 0.46) (B) (−0.47, 0.81) (C) (−0.03, 0.37) (D) (−0.26, 0.60) (E) (−0.38, 0.72)
27. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether high school GPAs differ on average from university GPAs for all students at University B. Assuming the proper normality conditions are satisfied, the P-value for the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
and III only and IV only
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28. The North Dakota Department of Tourism is interested in estimating the true proportion p of Manitobans visit the state in any given year. What sample size is required in order to estimate p to within 0.06 with 95% confidence?
(A) 234 (B) 245 (C) 256 (D) 267 (E) 278
29. In a random sample of 1,000 university students, 837 of them say they have a Facebook account. A 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of all university students who have a Facebook account is:
(A) (0.818, 0.856) (B) (0.783, 0.891) (C) (0.829, 0.845) (D) (0.794, 0.880) (E) (0.806, 0.868)
30. In a random sample of 175 university students, 70 have student loans. We would like to test the claim that more than 30% of all university students have student loans. The test statistic for the appropriate test of significance is:
0.30 − 0.40 (A) (0.30) (0.70)
0.40 − 0.30 (D) (0.40) (0.60)
175 0.40 − 0.30
175 0.30 − 0.40
(B) (0.30) (0.70) 175
(E) (0.30) (0.40) 175
0.40 − 0.30
(C) (0.35) (0.65) 175
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Sample Final Exam 2 Part B
1. A dentist would like to conduct an experiment to determine the effect of the brand of toothpaste (Crest or Colgate) and the type of toothbrush (regular or electric) his patients use on the health of their teeth. The dentist has 240 patients (80 children and 160 adults) who volunteer to participate in the experiment. The treatments will be randomly assigned to the subjects. The dentist believes the effect of the treatments will differ for children and adults, so she conducts a randomized block design.
(a) Identify the following in this experiment: i. factors
ii. factor levels
iii. treatments
iv. response variable
v. blocking variable
(b) How is control achieved in this experiment?
(c) Suppose at the end of the experiment that it is determined that subjects who used Crest toothpaste and an electric toothbrush had significantly healthier teeth than subjects in the other treatment groups. Can we conclude that the treatment was likely the cause?
2. The
probabilities that each team will win their respective game, as determined by odds- makers. Note that tied games are not possible. We will assume the outcome of one game is independent of any other.
Winnipeg Jets’ next three scheduled games are shown below, together with the
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3:
Winnipeg Jets (0.6) Winnipeg Jets (0.7) Winnipeg Jets (0.8)
vs. Pittsburgh Penguins (0.4) vs. Montreal Canadiens (0.3) vs. Buffalo Sabres (0.2)
(a) The outcome of interest is the set of winners of each of the three games. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of games the Winnipeg Jets win. Find the probability distribution of X.
3. The weights of adobe bricks used for construction follow a normal distribution with mean 5.0 pounds and standard deviation 0.2 pounds.
(a) Only 12% of bricks are heavier than what weight?
(b) We take a random sample of four bricks. Can you calculate the probability that the average weight of these four bricks is greater than 5.1 pounds? If so, calculate the probability. If not, explain why not.
(c) What is the probability that the total weight of a random sample of 50 bricks is less than 248 pounds?
(d) Is the probability you calculated in (c) exact or approximate? Explain.
4. A random sample of 20 students at a large university has a mean GPA of 3.12. GPAs at the university are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 0.47.
(a) Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean GPA of students at the university differs from 3.00. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
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Sample Final Exam 3 Part A
1. The five-number summary for the heights (in cm) of the players on a men’s hockey team is as follows:
162 174 176 181 194
The three goalies on the hockey team are Darren, who is 191 cm tall, Brandon, who is 165 cm tall, and Kyle, who is 193 cm tall. If an outlier boxplot for the heights of the hockey team was constructed, which of these players’ heights would be labelled as outliers?
(A) only Brandon
(B) only Kyle
(C) Darren and Kyle, but not Brandon (D) Brandon and Kyle, but not Darren (E) Darren, Brandon and Kyle
2. Researchers want to determine how the height of a mountain can help explain the temperature at the top of the mountain. The two variables were measured for a sample of mountains and the least squares regression line was calculated. It was also reported that 58% of the variation in temperature at the top of a mountain can be explained by its regression on the mountain’s height. What is the value of the correlation between the two variables?
(A) 0.76 (B) 0.58 (C) −0.34 (D) −0.76 (E) −0.58
3. How fast do icicles grow? Researchers measured the growth rate of icicles in a cold chamber subjected to different temperatures (−20◦C or −30◦C) and different wind speeds (30, or 40 km/h). What is/are the factor level(s) in this experiment?
(A) length of the icicles
(B) growth rate of the icicles
(C) temperature and wind speed
(D) −20◦C, −30◦C, 30 km/h, 40 km/h
(E) −20◦C/30 km/h, −20◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h
There are three coloured coins in a hat – one gold coin, one silver coin and one copper coin. You will randomly select coins from the hat, one at a time without replacement, until the gold coin is selected, and then you will stop. The outcome of interest is the sequence of colours that are selected during this process. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 9
Consider two events A and B. We know P(A) = 0.37 and P(A∪B) = 0.7354. If A and B are independent, then what is P(B)?
(A) 0.47 (B) 0.39 (C) 0.62 (D) 0.44 (E) 0.58
A six-sided die has faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Suppose the die is “loaded”, so that any particular even-numbered face is twice as likely to land face up as any particular odd-numbered face. If we roll this die once, what is the probability that the number showing is greater than 3?
(A)1 (B)2 (C)5 (D) 7 (E) 9 2 3 9 12 16
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7. Two friends are playing a game of Rock, Paper, Scissors. To play this game, each player simultaneously and independently selects one of the three items. From prior experience, it is known that each of the two friends will select the items with the following probabilities:
Player Rock Paper Scissors Joe 0.4 0.2 0.4 Tom 0.5 0.2 0.3
In this game, rock beats scissors, scissors beats paper and paper beats rock. The two friends will play one game. What is the probability Joe wins against Tom?
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
8. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) If the probability of A is 0.6 and the probability of B is 0.5, then A and B cannot
be mutually exclusive.
(B) If the probability of A is 0.4 and the probability of B is 0.6, and if A and B are
independent, then P (A ∩ B) must be equal to 0.24.
(C) If P(A)=0.3,P(B)=0.6,andP(A∪B)=0.72,thenAandBmustbeindepen-
dent.
(D) If A and B are mutually exclusive, and if A and C are mutually exclusive, then B
and C must be mutually exclusive.
(E) Two events that are mutually exclusive cannot be independent.
9. Which of the following variables has a binomial distribution?
(A) You roll five fair dice, each with face values of 1 through 6.
X = total number of dots facing up on the five dice
(B) You monitor the weather statistics every Saturday in Winnipeg for a year.
X = number of Saturdays during the year that it snows
(C) A paper boy delivers the newspaper to every house on your block.
X = number of houses that get their newspaper on time tomorrow morning
(D) You repeatedly flip two quarters simultaneously until both quarters land on Heads.
X = number of flips required for both quarters to land on Heads
(E) An unprepared student randomly guesses the answer to each of the 30 multiple- choice questions on the final exam.
X = number of multiple-choice answers the student gets correct
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10. During Tim Hortons’ annual “Roll Up the Rim to Win” promotion, customers who purchase a cup of coffee check under the rim of the cup to see if they have won a prize. It is known that 16.7% of all cups are winners. If you buy one cup of coffee every day for a week (7 days), what is the probability you win at least two times?
(A) 0.1892 (B) 0.2349 (C) 0.2857 (D) 0.3311 (E) 0.3836
The next three questions (11 to 13) refer to the following:
The amount of soap per bottle for a particular brand of dish soap follows a normal
distribution with mean 828 ml and standard deviation 4 ml.
What is the probability that a random sample of 10 bottles of dish soap contain a mean amount greater than 830 ml?
(A) 0.3085 (B) 0.1539 (C) 0.9429 (D) 0.2296 (E) 0.0571
There is an approximate 99.7% chance that a random sample of 16 bottles of dish soap will contain an average fill volume between:
(A) 825 and 831 ml. (B) 824 and 832 ml. (C) 826 and 830 ml. (D) 816 and 840 ml. (E) 820 and 836 ml.
13. What amount should be placed on the label of the bottles so that only 4% of bottles contain less than that amount?
(A) 820ml (B) 821ml (C) 822ml (D) 828ml (E) 829ml
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14. When an archer shoots her arrow, she hits the bullseye on the target 78% of the time. The result of each of her shots is independent of any other. If she shoots 300 arrows, what is the approximate probability she hits the bullseye at least 240 times?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0436 (C) 0.0719 (D) 0.1401 (E) 0.2005
15. The Central Limit Theorem states that:
(A) when n gets large, the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and closer to the population
mean μ.
(B) if a variable X has a normal distribution, then for any sample size n, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is also normal.
(C) if a variable X follows a normal distribution, then when n gets large, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is exactly normal.
(D) when n gets large, the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and
closer to σ/√n.
(E) regardless of the population distribution of a variable X, when n gets large, the
sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal. The next two questions (16 and 17) refer to the following:
The fill volume per bottle for a certain brand of beer follows a normal distribution with mean 341 ml and standard deviation 3 ml.
If you buy a case of 24 bottles of beer, what is the probability that the bottles will contain an average of exactly 339.5 ml?
(A) 0.0034 (B) 0.0207 (C) 0.0000 (D) 0.0071 (E) 0.0122
If you buy a twelve-pack of beer, what is the probability that the total volume of beer will exceed 4.1 litres?
(A) 0.0838 (B) 0.2206 (C) 0.1397 (D) 0.4443 (E) 0.3632
29
18. Weights of loaves of bread made at a bakery follow a normal distribution with a mean of 450 grams and standard deviation 12 grams. A random sample of five loaves of bread is selected. There is only a 2.5% chance that the average weight of the sample will be below:
(A) 439.48 grams. (B) 441.20 grams. (C) 442.54 grams. (D) 438.62 grams. (E) 440.76 grams.
19. Sizes of apartments in a large city follow a normal distribution with mean 846 square feet and standard deviation 160 square feet. We will take a simple random sample of four apartments in the city and calculate their average size x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40. (B) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40.
(C) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80. (D) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80.
(E) impossible to determine with the information given.
20. Consider two Canadian universities. University A has a student population of 10,000 and University B has a student population of 30,000. A statistician, interested in the average age of first-year students, collects the general records of samples of 500 first-year students from University A and 600 first-year students from University B. She assumes the standard deviations of ages are equal for the two universities. Based on her samples, she constructs a 95% confidence interval for the true mean age of first-year students at each university. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The interval for University A will be narrower, as a higher percentage of students was sampled from University A.
(II) The interval for University B will be narrower, as a higher number of students was sampled from University B.
(III) If the statistician calculated 90% intervals instead, the intervals would be wider.
(IV) If the statistician doubled her sample sizes, the lengths of her intervals would
be reduced by half.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III (D) I and IV (E) II and IV
30
The next two questions (21 and 22) refer to the following:
City engineers in Hamilton, Ontario would like to estimate the true mean commuting distance of all workers in the city between home and their principal place of business. They calculate that, in order to estimate this mean to within ±1 kilometer with 99% confidence, they require a sample of 120 workers.
What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean commuting distance for all workers in Hamilton to within ±2 kilometres with 99% confidence?
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 85 (D) 240 (E) 480
The city of Montreal has a population five times greater than that of Hamilton (and so it would be logical to assume that it has five times as many workers). Suppose we wanted to estimate the true mean commuting distance between home and work for all workers in Montreal to within ±1 kilometre with 99% confidence. Assuming equal standard deviations for the two cities, we would require a sample of how many Montreal workers?
(A) 24 (B) 120 (C) 269 (D) 600 (E) 3000
We take a random sample of n individuals and measure the value of some variable X. We conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 30 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 5% level of significance. We calculate a sample mean of x ̄ = 33 and we reject the null hypothesis. Which of the following must be true?
(I) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 10% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(II) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ > 30 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(III) AtestofH0: μ=31vs.Ha: μ ̸= 31 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III
31
Prior to distributing a large shipment of bottled water, a beverage company would like to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean fill volume of all bottles differs from 600 ml, which is the amount printed on the labels. Fill volumes are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.0 ml. A random sample of 25 bottles is selected. The sample has a mean fill volume of 598.8 ml and a standard deviation of 3.0 ml. What is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) t=−0.50 (B) z=−2.00 (C) t=−2.00 (D) z=−3.00 (E) t=−3.00
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount of jam per jar for a certain brand of jam differs from 350 ml, the amount stated on the label. We take a simple random sample of 16 jars and measure the amount of jam in each of them. The sample mean is calculated to be 348.7 ml. Suppose it is known that the amount of jam per jar follows a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.8 ml. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0157.
(B) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314.
(C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 50 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 50 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. A random sample of 25 observations is taken from the population. A 90% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (44.46, 49.58). A 96% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (43.82,50.22). The P-value of the appropriate test of significance must be:
(A) less than 0.04.
(B) greater than 0.10.
(C) between 0.02 and 0.05. (D) between 0.04 and 0.10. (E) equal to 0.06.
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The next three questions (27 to 29) refer to the following:
Coke and Pepsi are the two most popular colas on the market. Do consumers prefer either one of the two brands of cola over the other? We conduct a matched pairs experiment as follows: 20 volunteers participate in a blind taste test. Each volunteer tastes both Coke and Pepsi (in random order) and scores the taste of each cola on a scale from 0 to 100. Some information that may be helpful is shown in the table below:
Scores for Coke mean = 78 std. dev. = 27
Scores for Pepsi mean = 83 std. dev. = 24
Difference (d = Coke − Pepsi) mean = −5
std. dev. = 13
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are independent.
(II) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are dependent.
(III) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that scores for Coke and scores for Pepsi both follow normal distributions.
(IV) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that differences in scores (Coke − Pepsi) follow a normal distribution.
(A) I only (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) II and III (E) II and IV
What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0 (B) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d ̸=0 (C) H0: μC =μP vs. Ha: μC <μP (D) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0 (E) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd ̸=0
29. Assuming the appropriate assumptions are satisfied, what is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) −0.38 (B) −7.69 (C) −2.85 (D) −1.72 (E) −0.88
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30. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The P-value in a hypothesis test is calculated under the assumption that the null
hypothesis is true.
(B) The lower the P-value of a hypothesis test, the greater the strength of evidence against the null hypothesis.
(C) The level of significance in a hypothesis test is the highest P-value for which the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) A hypothesis test is designed to assess the evidence in favour of the null hypothesis.
(E) For normally distributed populations, the most important assumption in a hypothesis test for μ is that the sample is a simple random sample.
34
Sample Final Exam 3 Part B
Researchers are studying the effect of alcohol consumption on a person’s short-term memory. Six volunteer subjects are assigned to consume a certain number of drinks X. A short time later, the subjects are given a memory test, and their score Y on the test is recorded. The data are shown below, together with the means and standard deviations:
Subject 1 2 3 4 5 6 mean std. dev. No. of Drinks 4 2 8 3 1 6 4 2.61 Test Score 81 90 22 58 80 53 64 25.07

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The correlation between number of drinks and test score is calculated to be r = −0.869.
(a) What fraction of the variation in test score can be accounted for by its regression
on number of drinks consumed?
(b) Find the equation of the least squares regression line.
(c) Find the predicted test scores for a subject who consumes 5 drinks and for a subject who consumes 11 drinks.
(d) Is one of your predictions in (c) more reliable than the other? Explain.
Consider the following information about three events A, B and C:
• P(A)=0.43
• P(C)=0.28
• P(A∩B)=0.19 • P(B∩C)=0.12 • P(A∪B)=0.61 • P(A∪C)=0.71
(a) What is P(B)?
(b) Are any two of the three events mutually exclusive?
(c) Are any two of the three events independent?
(d) What is the probability that exactly one of the three events occurs?
We would like to estimate the true mean size μ (in square feet) of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg. A random sample of 30 two-bedroom apartments in the city is selected, and the mean size of these apartments is calculated to be 1000 square feet. Suppose it is known that sizes of two-bedroom apartments in the city follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 200 square feet.
(a) Calculate a 93% confidence interval for the true mean size of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
(b) Interpret the meaning of the interval you calculated in (a).
An apple grower selects a random sample of 30 apples from this year’s crop. The mean and standard deviation of weights of these apples are calculated to be 156 grams and 14 grams, respectively. Weights of apples are known to follow a normal distribution.
The apple grower suspects that the true mean weight of apples from this year’s crop differs from that of last year’s crop, when the true mean weight was 150 grams. Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to investigate the grower’s suspicion. Show all of your steps.
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Canadians who support Donald Trump. In a random sample of 400 Canadians, 80 of them say they support the American president.
(a) Calculate a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of Canadians who sup- port Donald Trump.
(b) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true proportion of Canadians who support Donald Trump is less than 0.25.
(c) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (b).
36
Sample Final Exam 4 Part A
The average height of all 23 students in a class is 132.5 cm. The average height of the 14 boys in the class is 135.2 cm. What is the average height of the girls in the class?
(A) 129.1 cm (B) 128.6 cm (C) 129.8 cm (D) 127.9 cm (E) 128.3 cm
The batting averages of 34 Major League Baseball players are ordered and shown below:
0.178 0.202 0.210 0.219 0.222 0.237 0.245 0.250 0.256 0.258 0.258 0.260 0.261 0.263 0.267 0.268 0.271 0.275 0.277 0.279 0.279 0.281 0.283 0.284 0.286 0.288 0.294 0.299 0.305 0.311 0.313 0.327 0.338 0.340
The five-number summary is: 0.178 0.256 0.273 0.288 0.340
We construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. To what values do the lines coming out from the box (i.e., the whiskers) extend?
(A) 0.202 and 0.338 (B) 0.210 and 0.327 (C) 0.208 and 0.336 (D) 0.237 and 0.313 (E) 0.178 and 0.340
A police officer would like to determine how the number of alcoholic beverages consumed by a person can predict his or her blood alcohol level. The officer measures the values of both variables on a sample of people leaving a bar one night. The correlation between the two variables is calculated to be 0.88 and the equation of the least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 0.003 + 0.012x. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) 88% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(B) 77% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(C) 94% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(D) 88% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(E) 77% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
An experiment is being conducted to study the effectiveness of different brands of sun- screen and SPF (sun protection factor) levels. Volunteers will be randomly assigned to apply either Coppertone or Ombrelle sunscreen, with an SPF level of either 30 or 60. Subjects will spend eight hours outside in the sun, and the degree of sunburn (if any) will be compared for all treatments. What is/are the treatment(s) in this experiment?
(A) degree of sunburn
(B) sunscreen brand and SPF level
(C) sunscreen brand, SPF level and degree of sunburn
(D) Coppertone, Ombrelle, SPF 30, SPF 60
(E) Coppertone/SPF 30, Ombrelle/SPF 30, Coppertone/SPF 60, Ombrelle/SPF 60
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The professor of a large class decides to grade the final exam on a curve. He will use the following criteria:
• 15% of students will get a grade of A+. • 17% of students will get a grade of A. • 11% of students will get a grade of B+. • 18% of students will get a grade of B. • 9% of students will get a grade of C+. • 12% of students will get a grade of C. • 10% of students will get a grade of D. • 8% of students will get a grade of F.
Scores on the exam are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 67 and standard deviation 11. What is the minimum score required to obtain a grade of C?
(A) 56.88 (B) 57.26 (C) 58.90 (D) 59.32 (E) 60.44
Labels on the boxes for a certain brand of soap claim the bars of soap weigh 150 grams. Weights of bars of soap are in fact known to be normally distributed with a standard deviation of 4 grams. What should be the mean weight of all bars of soap if we want only 7% of bars to weigh less than the amount stated on the label?
(A) 144.08 grams (B) 145.83 grams (C) 153.28 grams (D) 154.75 grams (E) 155.92 grams
39
The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Winnipeg has three professional sports teams – the Winnipeg Jets hockey team, the
Winnipeg Blue Bombers football team and the Winnipeg Goldeyes baseball team. Suppose we have the following information about Winnipeg residents:
• 55% are Jets fans (J).
• 20% are Goldeyes fans (G).
• 50% are Bombers fans (B) or Goldeyes fans. • 27% are Jets fans and Bombers fans.
• 11% are Jets fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 10% are Bombers fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 6% are fans of all three teams.
What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a Bombers fan? (A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events J and B are independent.
(B) Events J and G are mutually exclusive. (C) Events J and G are independent.
(D) Events B and G are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and G are independent.
9. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a fan of none of the three teams?
(A) 0.21 (B) 0.23 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.27 (E) 0.29
10. If we take a random sample of 12 Winnipeg residents, what is the probability that exactly three of them are Goldeyes fans?
(A) 0.2084 (B) 0.2137 (C) 0.2256 (D) 0.2362 (E) 0.2419
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11. If we take a random sample of 500 Winnipeg residents, what is the approximate probability that less than half of them are Jets fans?
(A) 0.0122 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0351 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0594
The next three questions (12 to 14) refer to the following:
We have four boxes, each of which contains 10 coloured balls:
• Box 1 contains 4 red balls, 5 green balls and 1 yellow ball. • Box 2 contains 3 red balls, 5 green balls and 2 yellow balls. • Box 3 contains 2 red balls, 5 green balls and 3 yellow balls. • Box 4 contains 1 red ball, 5 green balls and 4 yellow balls.
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting exactly one yellow ball?
(A) 0.44 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.36 (D) 0.48 (E) 0.32
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting at least one yellow ball?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8 (E) 0.9
14. Which of the following variables have a binomial distribution?
(I) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 with replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(II) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of yellow balls selected
(III) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 without replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(IV) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of green balls selected
(A) I only
(B) I and III only (C) I and IV only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and IV only
41
The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
A variable X follows a uniform distribution, as shown below:
The mean and standard deviation of this distribution are 3.5 and 2, respectively.
15. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect this histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (B) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2. (C) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.005. (D) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (E) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2.
16. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and calculate the value of the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1. (B) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
(C) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.005. (D) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1.
(E) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
42
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
Credit card balances for the I. O. U. Credit Corporation follow a normal distribution
with mean $800 and the standard deviation is $200.
What is the probability that the mean balance for a random sample of 100 customers is greater than $780?
(A) 0.7157 (B) 0.5793 (C) 0.9484 (D) 0.8413 (E) 0.6368
What is the probability that the total balance for a random sample of 40 customers is less than $30,000?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0336 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0571
A variable X follows a normal distribution with mean 43 and variance 144. We take a random sample of n individuals from this distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. What must the sample size be so that the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ is equal to 0.8?
(A) 15 (B) 64 (C) 120 (D) 180 (E) 225
The number of undergraduate students at the University of Winnipeg is approximately 9,000, while the University of Manitoba has approximately 27,000 undergraduate students. Suppose that, at each university, a simple random sample of 3% of the undergraduate students is selected and the following question is asked: “Do you approve of the provincial government’s decision to lift the tuition freeze?”. Suppose that, within each university, approximately 20% of undergraduate students favour this decision. What can be said about the sampling variability associated with the two sample proportions?
(A) The sample proportion for the U of W has less sampling variability than that for the U of M.
(B) The sample proportion for the U of W has more sampling variability that that for the U of M.
(C) The sample proportion for the U of W has approximately the same sampling variability as that for the U of M.
(D) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions without taking many samples.
(E) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions because the population sizes are different.
43
The sizes of farms in a U.S. state follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 30 acres. We would like to take a sample of farms large enough to estimate the true mean size of all farms in the state to within 5 acres with 94% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 126 (B) 128 (C) 130 (D) 132 (E) 134
A researcher would like to estimate the true mean daily water intake μ for all Canadians. She measures the daily water intake (in ml) for a sample of Canadians and calculates a 95% confidence interval for μ to be (1771.6, 1928.4). Daily water intake for Canadians is known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 280 ml. What sample size did the researcher take?
(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 36 (D) 49 (E) 64
We would like to test whether the true mean IQ of all adult Canadians is less than 110. Suppose that IQs of adult Canadians follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 17. A random sample of 30 adult Canadians has a mean IQ of 108. What is the P-value for the appropriate test of H0: μ = 110 vs. Ha: μ < 110?
(A) 0.6444
(B) 0.2090
(C) 0.3556
(D) 0.2611
(E) impossible to determine because the level of significance was not given
24. Which of the following statements comparing the standard normal distribution and the t distributions is false?
(A) The density curve for Z is taller at the Centre than the density curve for T.
(B) Thetdistributionshavemoreareainthetailsthanthestandardnormaldistribution.
(C) In tests of significance for μ, Z should be used as the test statistic when the distribution of X is normal, and T should be used in other cases.
(D) As the sample size increases, the t distributions approach the standard normal distribution.
(E) In tests of significance for μ, T should be used as the test statistic when the population standard deviation is unknown.
44
25. A sample of five Major League Baseball games has a mean duration of 168 minutes and a standard deviation of 17 minutes. Game durations are known to follow a normal distribution. A 90% confidence interval for the true mean duration of all Major League baseball games is:
(A) (155.49, 180.51) (B) (154.18, 181.82) (C) (153.10, 182.90) (D) (152.68, 183.32) (E) (151.79, 184.21)
26. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether the true mean score of all players in a bowling league differs from 150. The mean and standard deviation of the scores of 12 randomly selected players are calculated to be 170 and 16, respectively. Scores of all players in the league are known to follow a normal distribution. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.0005 and 0.001. (B) between 0.001 and 0.002. (C) between 0.0025 and 0.005. (D) between 0.005 and 0.01. (E) between 0.01 and 0.02.
27. For which of the following situations is a matched pairs t test appropriate? (Assume all appropriate normality conditions are satisfied.) A researcher wants to know:
(I) whether hypnosis reduces pain. 20 volunteers place their hand in ice water and the time until the pain is unbearable is recorded. They are hypnotized and the exercise is repeated.
(II) whether Shell sells more gasoline than Petro Canada. The weekly gas sales are recorded for samples of 5 Shell gas stations and 5 Petro Canada gas stations.
(III) whether husbands spend more household money than wives on average. The amount spent on the husband’s credit card and wife’s credit card are compared for a sample of 10 married couples.
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II (D) I and III (E) II and III
45
On the evening news, a reporter states, “In a recent poll of likely voters, 50% of respondents indicated that they plan to support the Conservative Party in the upcoming provincial election. The results are accurate to within 3.1%, 19 times out of 20”. What sample size was used for the survey?
(A) 600 (B) 800 (C) 1,000 (D) 1,200 (E) 1,400
We would like to estimate some population proportion p. We take a random sample of n individuals and calculate an 80% confidence interval for p to be (0.33, 0.37). Using the same sample, which of the following could be a 99% confidence interval for p?
(A) (0.36, 0.38) (B) (0.32, 0.40) (C) (0.34, 0.36) (D) (0.36, 0.44) (E) (0.31, 0.39)
30. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether the true proportion of Canadians who support Prime Minister Justin Trudeau differs from 0.50. In a random sample of 300 Canadians, 165 of them say they support the prime minister. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836. (C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.9582. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
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Sample Final Exam 4 Part B
1. A student driving to university must pass through two sets of traffic lights. The first set of lights is green 50% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 40% of the time. The second set of lights is green 60% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 30% of the time. It is also known that the lights function independently.
2.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the two lights when the student ar- rives at the intersections. List the complete sample space of outcomes, and calculate the probability of each.
(b) What is the probability that both sets of lights are the same colour when the student arrives at the respective intersections?
(c) What is the probability that the first light is green or the second light is red?
(d) Let X be the number of red lights encountered by the student on her way to
university. Find the probability distribution of X.
(a) List the four conditions of the binomial setting.
(b) Heights of professional basketball players follow a normal distribution with mean 196 cm and standard deviation 8 cm. What proportion of professional basketball players are taller than 200 cm?
(c) If we take a random sample of ten professional basketball players, what is the probability that exactly four of them are taller than 200 cm?
(a) Give the definition of a lurking variable.
(b) Give the definition of a simple random sample.
(c) Explain the difference between a statistic and a parameter. Give three examples of each.
(d) Explain the difference between two events being mutually exclusive and two events being independent.
(e) Explain what it means for a result to be statistically significant.
3.
One measure of the quality of education provided by a university is the number of students per class. A random sample of 30 third-year classes is selected at a large university. The number of students in each of the classes are ordered and shown below:
10 11 14 14 15 17 18 20 22 22 22 23 26 26 27 28 31 33 34 34 36 42 44 49 50 55 62 68 77 82
From these data, the sample mean is calculated to be 33.73. The population standard deviation of class sizes is known to be 18.50.
(a) Construct a histogram for this data set. What is the shape of the distribution of class sizes for this sample?
(b) We would like to estimate and conduct a hypothesis test for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university. Despite the fact that class size does not appear to follow a normal distribution, explain why it is nevertheless appropriate to use inference methods which rely on the assumption of normality.
(c) Construct a 99% confidence interval for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at this university.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (c).
(e) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean third-year class size at this university differs from the national average of 40. Show all of your steps.
Sixteen people (eight males and eight females) volunteered to be part of an experiment. All 16 people were between the ages of 25 and 35. The question of interest in this experiment was whether females receive faster service at nightclubs than males. Each of the eight male participants was randomly assigned a bar, and each of the eight females was randomly assigned to one of these same eight bars. One Friday night, all 16 people went out to the bar. The male and female assigned to the same bar would arrive within five minutes of each other. Each person then waited at the bar and ordered a similar drink. The time (in seconds) until the drink was served was recorded. Some information that may be helpful is shown below:
Females mean = 275 std. dev. = 37
Males mean = 302 std. dev. = 48
Difference (d = F−M) mean =−27
std. dev. = 29
(a) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test, at the 1% level of significance. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (a).
48
Sample Final Exam Answers Part A
Question Sample Final 1 Sample Final 2 Sample Final 3 Sample Final 4
1 C C B E
2 B B D B
3 A B D E
4 E B C E
5 D C E A
6 C E C E
7 B E A C
8 A D D C
9 D E E D
10 E A D D
11 D D E A
12 D C A A
13 C D B C
14 A C E C
15 E D E B
16 A B C A
17 E E B D
18 C C A E
19 E D D E
20 D A B B
21 E B A B
22 A D B D
23 C C B D
24 B E D C
25 D C E E
26 A D D B
27 B D E D
28 A D E C
29 A A D E
30 E B D B
1. (a)
Sample Final 1 Part B Solutions
The minimum is 2.2 and the maximum is 11.4.
The median is in position (n + 1)/2 = (30 + 1)/2 = 15.5, so the median is the
average of the 15th and 16th ordered data values, i.e., (7.0+7.2)/2 = 7.1.
The first quartile is the median of all data values lower in position than the median,
so Q1 is in position (15 + 1)/2 = 8. Therefore, Q1 = 6.0.
The third quartile is in position 8 above the median (or equivalently, 8 positions
down from the maximum), and so Q3 = 8.0.
The five-number summary is: 2.2 6.0 7.1 8.0 11.4
(b) We calculate the fences:
LF =Q1−1.5IQR=6.0−1.5(8.0−6.0)=6.0−3.0=3.0
UF =Q3+1.5IQR=8.0+1.5(8.0−6.0) =8.0+3.0=11.0
There are two values less than the lower fence (2.2 and 2.8) and one value greater than the upper fence (11.4). These outliers will be plotted as points on the outlier boxplot.
The whiskers extend to the lowest and highest data values that are not outliers (the “new minimum” and “new maximum”), i.e., 3.8 and 8.8.
The outlier boxplot is shown below:
Excluding outliers, the distribution is skewed to the left. 50
(a) (b)
(c)
(a) (b)
When the age of a car increases by one year, we predict its selling price to decrease by $1,700.
We know that 81% of the variation in a car’s selling price can be accounted for by its regression on the age of a car. This is the definition of r2, so we know r2 = 0.81. The correlation is therefore
√√
r=− r2 =− 0.81=−0.90
Note that we take the negative square root of r2, since there is a negative association between the two variables.
The residual for this car is
yi − yˆi = 15500 − (18600 − 1700(5)) = 5400
S = {GGG, GGC, GSG, GSC, SGG, SGC, SSG, SSC, CGG, CGC, CSG, CSC} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
x0123 P (X = x) 0.336 0.452 0.188 0.024
4. The
variable X, when the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal.
5. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(25.87, 30.93)
If we took repeated samples of 27 trees and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 98% of all such intervals would contain the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
t = −1.57, 0.05 < P-value < 0.10, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean height of all trees in the forest was 30 feet, the probability of observing a sample mean at least as low as 28.4 feet would be between 0.05 and 0.10.
No
Central Limit Theorem states that, regardless of the population distribution of a
51
1. (a)
Sample Final 2 Part B Solutions
i. The factors in an experiment are the explanatory variables. There are two factors in this experiment – brand of toothpaste and type of toothbrush.
ii. Brand of toothpaste has two factor levels – Crest and Colgate. Type of toothbrush has two factor levels – regular and electric.

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iii. There are 2 x 2 = 4 treatments – Crest/regular, Crest/electric, Colgate/regular and Colgate/electric.
iv. The response variable is the health of the patients’ teeth.
v. The blocking variable is age (one block consisting of the children and the other block consisting of the adults).
Control is achieved by the comparison of the four treatment groups in each block. (Note that blocking is also another form of control. In this case, by using a random- ized block design, we eliminate the possibility of age becoming a lurking variable.)
Yes. Since this was a properly designed experiment using the principles of randomization, replication and control, we can conclude that the treatment was likely the cause of the observed difference in the response.
S = {WWW, WWB, WMW, WMB, PWW, PWB, PMW, PMB} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
(b)
(c)
2. (a) (b)
3. (a) (b) (c) (d)
x0123 P (X = x) 0.024 0.188 0.452 0.336
5.235 0.1587 0.0793 exact
52
4. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(2.91, 3.33)
If we took repeated samples of 20 students at the university and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 95% of such intervals would contain the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
z = 1.14, P-value = 0.2542, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean GPA of all students at the university was 3.00, the probability of
observing a sample mean at least as extreme as 3.12 would be 0.2542. Yes. Fail to reject H0.
53
1. (a)
Sample Final 3 Part B Solutions
The fraction of the variation in test score that can be accounted for by its regression on number of drinks consumed is, by definition, r2. Here, r2 = (−0.869)2 = 0.755.
(b) The slope of the least squares regression line is
sy 25.07
b1 =rs =−0.869 2.61 =−8.347
x
The intercept of the least squares regression line is
b0 = y ̄ − b1x ̄ = 64 − (−8.347)(4) = 97.388
The equation of the least squares regression line is yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347x. (c) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 5 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(5) = 55.653
(d) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 11 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(11) = 5.571
(e) The prediction for the subject who consumed 5 drinks is more reliable, since the value x = 11 falls outside the range of x-values in our sample. Predicting the test score for the subject who consumed 11 drinks is extrapolating.
54
2. (a) (b)
(c)
(d)
3. (a) (b)
0.37
A and B are not mutually exclusive. B and C are not mutually exclusive. A and C are mutually exclusive.
A and B are not independent. A and C are not independent. B and C are not independent.
0.46
(933.9, 1066.1)
If we took repeated samples of size 30 and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 93% of all such intervals would contain the true mean size of all two- bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
4. t = 2.35, 0.02 < P-value < 0.04, reject H0.
5. (a) (b) (c)
(0.1671, 0.2329)
z = −2.31, P-value = 0.0104, reject H0.
If the true proportion of Canadians who supported Donald Trump was 0.25, the probability of observing a sample proportion at least as low as 0.20 would be 0.0104.
55
1. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a)
(b) (c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Sample Final 4 Part B Solutions
S= {GG, GY, GR, YG, YY, YR, RG, RY, RR}
0.43
0.65
The probability distribution of X is as follows: x012
P (X = x) 0.42 0.46 0.12
A binomial experiment is one for which the following four conditions are satisfied:
There is a fixed number of trials n.
There are only two possible outcomes of interest for each trial – a success or a failure.
The outcome of one trial is independent of any other.
The probability of success p is constant from trial to trial.
0.3085 0.2080
A lurking variable is one that explains the relationship between variables in a study, but is not included in the study itself.
A simple random sample of size n is one that is chosen in such a way that all possible groups of n individuals have the same chance of being chosen.
A statistic is a number that describes a sample. Examples of statistics include the sample mean x ̄, the sample standard deviation s and a sample proportion pˆ. A parameter is a number that describes an entire population. Examples of parameters include the population mean μ, the population standard deviation σ and a population proportion p.
56
4. (a)
From a histogram of the data, we see the distribution of class sizes for this sample is skewed to the right.
5. (a)
t = −2.63, 0.01 < P-value < 0.02, fail to reject H0.
Note that n = 8 (and not 16), as n is the number of pairs.
(d) Two events that are mutually exclusive have no outcomes in common (i.e., they cannot both occur at the same time). Two events that are independent can both occur at the same time, but the outcome of one does not affect the outcome of the other.
(e) Statistical significance is a difference so large that it would rarely be observed by chance alone. We say that the results of a hypothesis test are statistically significant when the P-value ≤ α and we reject H0.
(b) Although it does not appear that the population distribution of class sizes is normally distributed, the Central Limit Theorem tells us that since the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of the sample mean X ̄ is approximately normal.
(c) (25.03, 42.43)
(d) If we took repeated samples of 30 classes and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 99% of such intervals would contain the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university.
(e) z = −1.86, P-value = 0.0628, fail to reject H0.
(b) If the service time in nightclubs was the same on average for males and females, the probability of observing a sample mean difference at least as low as −27 would be between 0.01 and 0.02.

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Question 8: Science

UNIT 1.0: Human-Environment Interactions 1
Introduction: Human-Environment Interactions 1.1 The Environment and Environmental Sciences 1.2 Over-Population and Over-Consumption As Central Themes in Human Resource Demands 1.3 Sustainable Development 1.4 Using Science to Describe and Evaluate the Environment Conclusions UNIT 2.0: Ecosystem Dynamics 2 Introduction: Ecosystem Dynamics 2.1 Ecology and Ecosystems 2.2 Systems Theory and Feedback 2.3 Energy Flow in Ecosystems 2.4 Material Cycling in Ecosystems – Biogeochemical Cycles 2.5 Biotic Interactions and Their Influences on the Ecosystem 2.6 Population Dynamics Conclusions UNIT 3.0: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3 Introduction: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3.1 Ecosystem Management 3.2 Parks and Protected Areas 3.3 Sustainable Forestry 3.4 Biodiversity – Alien Invasive Species and Species at Risk 3.5 Sustainable Agriculture and Soil Conservation Conclusions UNIT 4.0: Water Resources and Their Management 4 Introduction: Water Resources and Their Management 4.1 Properties of Water 4.2 Water Quantity and Conservation 4.3 Water Quality 4.4 Water Treatment and Pollution Prevention Conclusions UNIT 5.0: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5 Introduction: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5.1 Earth’s Climate System and Energy Budget 5.2 Arctic Amplification and Climate Change in Canada 5.3 Canada’s Climate Change Plan Conclusions UNIT 6.0: Ecotoxicology 6 Introduction: Ecotoxicology 6.1 What is Ecotoxicology? 6.2 Features and Fate of Toxins 6.3 Toxins and Pest Management 6.4 Risk Assessment 6.5 Case Studies in Ecotoxicology Conclusions

Question 9: Health Care

For this assessment, you will report on the information that you collected in your interview, analyzing the interview data and identifying a past or current issue that would benefit from an interdisciplinary approach. This could be an issue that has not been addressed by an interdisciplinary approach or one that could benefit from improvements related to the interdisciplinary approach currently being used. Additionally, you will start laying the foundation for your Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal (Assessment 3) by researching potential change theories, leadership strategies, and collaboration approaches that could be relevant to issue you have identified. Additionally, be sure to address the following, which corresponds to the grading criteria in the scoring guide. Please study the scoring guide carefully so you understand what is needed for a distinguished score. Summarize an interview focused on past or current issues at a health care organization. Identify an issue from an interview for which an evidence-based interdisciplinary approach would be appropriate. Describe potential change theories and a leadership strategy that could inform an interdisciplinary solution to an organizational issue. Describe collaboration approaches from the literature that could facilitate establishing or improving an interdisciplinary team to address an organizational issue.

Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal
Write a brief introduction (2 to 3 sentences) to your proposal that outlines the issue you are attempting to solve, the part of the organization in which the plan would be carried out, and the desired outcome. This will set the stage for the sections below.
Objective
Describe what your plan will do and what you hope it will accomplish in one or two succinct sentences. Also, comment on how the objective, if achieved, will improve organizational or patient outcomes. For example:
Test a double-loop feedback model for evaluating new product risk with a small group of project managers with the goal of reducing the number of new products that fail to launch. This objective is aligned to the broader organizational goal of becoming more efficient taking products to market and, if successful, should improve outcomes by reducing waste.
Questions and Predictions
For this section ask yourself 3 to 5 questions about your objective and your overall plan. Make a prediction for each question by answering the question you posed. This helps you to define the important aspects of your plan as well as limit the scope and check its ability to be implemented.
For example:
1. How much time will using a double-loop feedback model add to a project manager’s workload?
a. At first, it will likely increase their workloads by 5 to 10 percent. However, as the process is refined and project managers become more familiar and efficient, that percentage will decrease.
Change Theories and Leadership Strategies
For this section, you may wish to draw upon the research you did regarding change theories and leadership for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. The focus of this section is how those best practices will create buy-in for the project from an interdisciplinary team, improve their collaboration, and/or foster the team’s ability to implement the plan. Be sure that you are including at least one change theory and at least one leadership strategy in your explanation. Always remember to cite your sources; direct quotes require quotation marks and a page or paragraph number to be included in the citation.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the theory or strategy?
• How will it likely help an interdisciplinary team to collaborate, implement, and/or buy in to the project plan?
o Make sure to frame this explanation within the organizational context of the proposed plan, that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Team Collaboration Strategy
In this section, begin by further defining the responsibilities and actions that represent the implementation of the plan. One strategy to defining this is to take a “who, what, where, and when” approach for each team member.
For example:
• Project Manager A will apply the double-loop feedback model on one new product project for a single quarter.
• Project Manager B will apply the double-loop feedback model on all new product projects for a quarter.
Vice President A will review the workloads of project managers using the double-loop feedback model every Thursday for one quarter.
After you have roughly outlined the roles and responsibilities of team members, you will explain one or more collaborative approaches that will enable the team to work efficiently to achieve the plan’s objective. As with the change theories and leadership strategies, you may draw on the research you conducted for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. However, you are being asked to give a more in-depth explanation of the collaboration approaches and look at how they will help the theoretical interdisciplinary team in your plan proposal.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the collaboration approach?
• What types of collaboration and teamwork will best help the interdisciplinary team be successful?
• How is the collaboration approach relevant to the team’s needs and will it help drive success?
o Make sure to frame this explanation in terms of the subject of the plan proposal; that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Required Organizational Resources
For this section, you will be making rough estimates of the resources needed for your plan proposal to be successful. This section does not have to be exact but the estimates should be realistic for the chosen organization.
Items you should include or address in this section:
• What are the staffing needs for your plan proposal?
• What equipment or supplies are needed for your plan proposal?
o Does the organization already have these?
 If so, what is the cost associated with using these resources?
 If not, what is the cost of acquiring these resources?
• What access (to patients, departments, and so forth) is needed?
o Are there any costs associated with these?
• What is the overall financial budget request for the plan proposal?
o Staff time, resource use, resource acquisition, and access charged?
 Remember to include a specific dollar amount in your request.
After you have detailed your budget, make sure that you explain any impacts on organizational resources that could happen if your plan is not undertaken and successful. In other words, if the issue you are try to solve through your plan proposal persists or gets worse, what will be the potential costs to the organization?

Question 10: Science

Write about one of the following subjects: – intellectual property related to information technology OR – computer crime The paper should have an introduction, good and bad sides, conclusion. If you have an opinion about the subject, write about it. You can study a case to better describe the subject of your paper. Also if you have recommendations to fix any problems with the subject of the paper, include them. Avoid blogs because in most cases they are people’s opinions without supporting sources/references. Cite at least 3 different sources. Assume you are writing the paper for college students who don’t have a technical background.

Question 11: Biology

Choose a topic and write a brief (4-5 pages) review (formal essay format) of some scientific articles that relate to a topic covered in the human nutrition curriculum of Biology 102 *note the topic must be somehow related to human nutritional science – if you want to choose a research topic that involves research outside of humans – you must relate it to human biology in some sense.

This must include references to scientifically sound sources (peer reviewed journal articles), and these references must be cited in the correct scientific format.

* no data base links – (do not copy and paste from pub-med)
* web pages can be used as “supportive references” and must also be referenced correctly

Your analysis should include a summary of the hypotheses of the experiments, the results and discussion of the results and most importantly – your opinion of the study. Why did you find it interesting and what did you learn about the topic?

Use the knowledge that you have gained from Chapter 1 to convey the information in a way a scientist would understand.

Marking Rubric:

1. At least 3 scientific journal article references (other resources can be used to support your ideas) that convey different conclusions related to your topic. (1 mark)

2. A brief but well thought out description of the experiments and the results and conclusions (2 marks)

3. Your personal opinion about what the results mean, and why you chose to research this topic. (1 mark)

4. References are correctly formatted (both the embedded references in the text, and the full reference in the Bibliography) (1 mark)

Total = 5 marks

Chapter 1 in your textbook gives you information related to how science is done and how to think critically to evaluate scientific claims. Incorporate this material into your assignment and convince me that the information you are conveying is scientifically sound and comes from a peer reviewed source. An example of a database that will allow you to access these articles is:

(www.pubmed.com)

Your paper must be referenced in a scientifically accepted format (APA) – for an example: look at the format of the references included in the papers you have chosen, or the “endnotes” provided at the end of every chapter in your textbook.

Question 12: Biology

How do seniors with compromised sight/hearing navigate the city?] Describe the mechanics of normally functioning eyes… How does one see? (Biology) Describe the mechanics of normally functioning ears… How does one hear? (Biology) Describe (for your reader) how one uses sound and sight to navigate the streets of NYC. It may help to walk us through a route that’s familiar to you: like traveling from home to school. Explain how someone with limited sight/hearing could navigate that same route (Include your research) Conclusion

Question 13: Religious Studies

1. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 6:45-52 contrasted with Matthew 14:25-27,32-33? 2. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 9:2-10 contrasted with Matthew 17:1-13? Be sure to distinguish between paraphrase and direct quotes. Type a 350-750-word paper using MLA formatting. Make sure to use and cite these sources below: The Gospels by Barton and Muddiman (2010), p. 56 New Testament History and Literature by Martin (2012), pp. 106-108 Accurate use of English including careful documentation (including the ability to paraphrase and use quotations) and good organizational plan. 40 pts Adequate research. 20 pts Accurate and complete reflection of material read for the assignment. 40 pts

Question 14: Mathematics

Find the derivative and simplify completely.
1. 𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥3−7𝑥+6
2. 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑒sec 2𝑥
3. 𝑦=𝑙𝑛(3𝑥+𝑒−𝑥)4
4. h(𝑥)=𝑐𝑜𝑠4 7𝑥 √
5. 𝑦=cot(−2𝑥+𝑥4)
6. 𝑦=−2𝑥4𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑥

𝒙 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑓′(𝑥) 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑔′(𝑥)
1 -1 -3 2 4
0 3 7 1 -3
7. 𝑑 (𝑓∙𝑔)2, Evaluate when𝑥=1 𝑑𝑥
8. 𝑑 (1), Evaluate when𝑥=0 𝑑𝑥 𝑓3

Derivatives Part 3

Select the best answer and place the letter in the space provided.
_________ 1. If 𝑓(𝑥) = csc(4𝑥) − sec(3𝑥2), then f ‘(x) =
_________ 2. If f (x) = sin2 x, then 𝑓′ (𝜋) = 3
_________ 3. What is the derivative of 𝑦 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1(cos 𝑥)?
1 _________4. If𝑦=(9−𝑥2)3, what is the
equation of the normal line at (1,2)?
Differentiate the following. Simplify as best you can.
5.𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑐𝑜𝑠(3𝑥) 6.𝑔(𝑥)=𝑙𝑜𝑔6(2𝑥4 +5)3
7.𝑦=𝑐𝑜𝑠−1(6𝑥2) 8.14𝑥+8𝑦2 +𝑥5 =12−𝑦
9. Consider the equation 4𝑦2 − 3𝑥𝑦 = −2
a) Find the derivative for the function above.
b) Find the equation of the normal line to the curve at the point (1,3).
c) Find d2 y at (1,3) dx2

Directions: use the space provided to answer the following questions. Be sure to show all work to be awarded partial credit.
1. Suppose the position equation for a moving object is given by 𝑠(𝑡) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑡 + 3𝑡 where 𝑠(𝑡) is
measured in meters and t is measured in seconds. Find the velocity of the object when 𝑡 = 𝜋. 3
Find the derivatives of the following. Simplify as best as you can.
2.𝑦= 2𝑥 𝑥3−3𝑥2 3. h(𝑥) = 𝑥3−1 3√𝑥
4. 𝑦 = −𝑥3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 5.𝑦= 5𝑒𝑥 2𝑥2−1
6. 𝑓(𝑥) = 3 sec 𝑥 sin 𝑥 7. h(𝑥) = (2𝑥4 − 1) (𝑥2 − 𝑥3) 𝑥4
8. Find𝑑3𝑦given𝑦=3𝑥4−5𝑥3+8𝑥−10. 𝑑𝑥3
9. Find the fourth derivative when 𝑓(𝑥) = 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥.
10.Find𝑓”(𝑥)when𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥12 −𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥−4

Question 15: Economics
Industrial Organization Econ 304
Problem Set 3
1. Assume that there are two hair salons located on Main Street which is 1 mile in length. Salon A which is located at the east end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $5and Salon B which is located at the west end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $10. There are 1000 potential customers who live along the street and they are uniformly spread out along the street. Customers are willing to pay $40 for a hair-cut that is done at their home. If a customer has to travel to get a hair-cut, then a there and back travel cost of $5 per mile is incurred. Suppose that each salon wants to set a price for a hair-cut that maximizes salon’s profit.
1. a- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon A chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?
2. b- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon B chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?

Question 16: Psychology

Instruction
• Choose 1 specific stage of the family life cycle and apply it to a specific family challenge.
• Next chose 1 type of family challenge/crisis and describe in detail how it will impact the normal development of the family life cycle in general and then for the majority of the paper drill down into how that 1 specific challenge/crisis will impact 1 particular stage of the family life cycle.
• You will research both the challenge and the life cycle stage and then report out on best practices and evidence based social work interventions with families.
• Finally, you will design a family therapy treatment plan (see syllabus page 11) and discuss the treatment goals, objectives, and techniques used in treatment if it helps develop a mini case scenario with a presenting problem related to the family challenge/crisis
• Some examples of family challenges/crises include but are not limited to: substance abuse of a parent or other family member, infertility, incarceration, re-entry into society/community from incarceration, terminal illness diagnosis, chronic illness, unemployment, natural disaster, death of grandparent, death of child, suicide of a family member, chronic persistent mental illness of a family member, immigration/deportation/detainment, relocation to another city/state/country, returning war veteran, active deployment, juvenile delinquency, disability new onset, child with physical or mental or cognitive/developmental disability etc.
*It must be written using APA format, 6-8 pages in length, and with a minimum of 6 references. GRADING RUBRIC FOR RESEARCH-BASED PAPER APA Format 10 points Use of scholarly sources (less than 10 years old) 10 points Proper length and number of references 10 points Clearly and thoroughly identifies the challenge area being explored 10 points Clearly and thoroughly explores each stage of family development and impact of challenge area 40 points Clearly and thoroughly describes treatment in specific stage 20 points Violations such as the absence of or minimal use of citations in the paper (a form of plagiarism) or in-body citations in the paper not found on the reference page or vice versa, etc. or any indication of plagiarism. Automatic “0” for the paper
Below here are the stages to choose from: The stages of family life
Stage 1: Family of origin experiences · During this phase the main tasks are: o Maintaining relationships with parents, siblings and peers
*Completing education o Developing the foundations of a model of family life
Stage 2: Leaving home · During this phase the main tasks are: o Differentiation of self from family of origin and parents and developing adult to adult relationships with parents *Developing intimate peer relationships. o Beginning work, developing work identity and financial independence.
Stage 3: Premarriage stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Selecting partners’ o Developing a relationship o Deciding to establish own home with someone.
Stage 4: Childless couple stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Developing a way to live together both practically and emotionally o Adjusting relationships with families of origin and peers to include partner
Stage 5: Family with young children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Realigning family system to make space for children o Adopting and developing parenting roles o Realigning relationships with families of origin to include parenting and grand parenting roles o Facilitating children to develop peer relationships
Stage 6. Family with adolescents · During this phase the main tasks are: o Adjusting parent-child relationships to allow adolescents more autonomy o Adjusting family relationships to focus on midlife relationship and career issues o Taking on responsibility of caring for families of origin
Stage 7: Launching children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Resolving midlife issues o Negotiating adult to adult relationships with children o Adjusting to living as a couple again o Adjusting to including in-laws and grandchildren within the family circle o Dealing with disabilities and death in the family of origin
Stage 8: Later family life · During this phase the main tasks are: o Coping with physiological decline in self and others o Adjusting to children taking a more central role in family maintenance o Valuing the wisdom and experience of the elderly o Dealing with loss of spouse and peers o Preparation for death, life review, reminiscence and integration

Question 17: History

250 Word Discussion Post on the Transition of Rome from Republic to Empire. Must be cited using Chicago style format, please see rubric before starting. 6. Discuss the transition of Rome from a Republic to an Empire. Is it even accurate to call Rome a Republic before the reign of Augustus? Or is it an empire in every way except for name? Hint: A Roman Empire is different than The Roman Empire.

Question 18: Sociology

In the first part of the term we went through the various perspectives on what the self/individual is and what society/culture is and the relationship between self and society (the individual and culture). We concluded that all the perspectives believe that we are a product of culture (they, of course, had differing views on the individual’s capacity to create society, etc..). 1)So start by simply summarizing this. Explain what culture is (define it and explain it. Use my notes and the textbook. 2) Next, explain how we are a product of our culture. Again, refer to my notes and the textbook. Here introduce your choice of the influencer. Briefly explain cultural values and norms that the influencer embodies. Depending on your choice, you may want to explain the culture industry and its ability to produce human commodities that others consume, etc… 3) If you are dealing with an activist you might want to discuss the political discourses that this person’s identity embodies. 4) Next, from the Foucault lecture on discourse and Mead and Cooley’s lecture, we looked more deeply at how the self is formed. I explained the I-Other relationship and how we need others to emerge as a self. So explain this. In other words, explain how we require others to mirror back to us who we are extra… 5) Next, once you have explained what culture is and how the self is formed…and you have introduced your choice of influencer, you need to begin to answer my questions. What values does the person embody? What do they represent? Etc… And explain who their followers are? Who is the audience and what are they embracing about this person? Who are the haters? 6) The next part is about globalization and the postmodern world. I posted some notes but will lecture on this with reference to your essays tomorrow. Basically, Postmodernity allows us more freedom in becoming our own unique selves. We interact with multiple cultures and multiple discourses and from these interactions, we create a unique self and are thus a complex configuration of identities. Here you will bring in your influencer and build your analysis. It is said that in the postmodern world cultural products, which include human beings, are a complex configuration of identities–a hybrid or fusion of multiple identities–and this has given people more freedom to become what we want to be. But we still have to appeal to the greater of society in order to be accepted or included. So you need to explore your influencer and come up with a conclusion of who they are and how they are an expression or reflection of the postmodern world.

Question 19: English

CG Assignment 2
Student’s name: Academic no:
A/Complete the sentences using must, mustn’t, can’t, could, might, have to, need to, needn’t (4marks)

1 We’re absolutely sure they’ve got our money. They ______________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2 Perhaps she’ll arrive this afternoon. She _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
3 It’s impossible that they are brother and sister. They _____________________________________ .
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. We don’t have plenty of time. We ___________________________________________ hurry up.
5. You must keep it a secret. You______________________________________________ tell anybody.
6. I’ll be all right. You _______________________________________________ worry about me.
7. I__________________________________________ have bought eggs. We had some already.
8. He works away from home. He___________________________ drive 80 miles every day.

B/Respond to the statements or questions using the words in brackets. (3 marks)
1. I have just seen a bank robbery. (must, be frightened
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2. She walked straight past me without saying hello. (can’t, see) ________________________________________________________________________________________
3. The team lost 5–0. (must, play badly)
________________________________________________________________________________________

What would you say in these situations? (3 marks)
You have booked a seat on a train. You find that someone is sitting in your seat. Explain politely that the seat is yours.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
You are in a hotel and you want to write a letter but there’s no writing paper in your room. You want Reception to provide you with some. ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________
Your friend feels he isn’t making much progress with his English. Make a suggestion to help him.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 20: Gender Studies

All papers need to have an abstract included

Based upon your research in this module and additional research you conduct:

1) what specific training relating to YOUTH in gangs is available to law enforcement or corrections officers? Present an overview of currently available training designed to teach law enforcement officers about youth in gangs (NOTE: G.R.E.A.T. is NOT gang officer training; it is a training for youth led by officers and should NOT be referred to). Listing names of training courses is insufficient; you must explain the contents of the training. HINT: search in government publications and state and national gang training organization web sites that list training conferences.

2) using theories and concepts examined in this module and your own research propose at least two (2) specific improvements to training police or corrections officers could use to better work with youth in gangs (more of the same training is not an improvement),

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3) explain how and why the improvements you proposed in 2) above can help officers work safer and more effectively with youth drawn to or in gangs, and

4) specifically explain in one paragraph how our university’s core value of RESPECT applies to specific contents of the textbook readings for this module and include a citation and page number.

Respect
Animated in the spirit of Jesus Christ, we value all individuals’ unique talents, respect their dignity, and strive to foster their commitment to excellence in our work. Our community’s strength depends on the unity and diversity of our people, on the free exchange of ideas, and on learning, living, and working harmoniously.

Your response should go beyond the obvious and be written at a graduate level. Your answer must be no less than 1500 words and you must use at least three authoritative sources to support your position. NOTE: the use of only three (3) authoritative sources demonstrates a minimum level of acceptable graduate level work and is not exemplary nor necessarily proficient.
YOU MUST ALSO ADD THE URL (Uniform Resource Locator) OR the DOI (Digital Object Identifier) to the end of EVERY APA reference found on the internet.

Question 21: English

Instruction
A poem consists of at least twenty lines. The longer the better (but not too long) The topic is on “ignorance is bliss”. It must cover how ignorance is bliss. I want as many allusions of current or historical social issues that touch upon the topic. plenty of poetic devices need to be incorporated into the piece. Also, the poem must be insightful and complex with a lot of ambiguity that can be deciphered.

Question 22: Religious Studies

Write four summaries of the reading from any four of the following chapters in Everyday Bible Study:
15. Observe: How to Make Accurate Observations
16. How to Use Multiple Translations of the Bible
17. How to Ask Key Questions
28. Interpret: How to Find the Meaning of the Bible
29. Correlate: How to Connect Scripture to Other Scriptures
30. Correlate: How to See Jesus in the Bible
31. Apply: How to Live Out What You Learn
32. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 1: Law
33. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 2:
Narrative 34. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 3: Wisdom and Poetry
35. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 4: Prophetic Literature
This means that in this assignment you are developing four summaries of 120 words each (one for each of the four chapters you selected). You should aim to create four summaries where each summary is between 100-120 words. Each of your summaries should not exceed the 120-word or $12 limit.

Question 23: Law

Essay on Biometrics and intersection with technology and law. Follow the outline and please should be well foot-noted!

Biometrics Now/Future/Ethics/Law
Introduction: Fingerprint recognition, voice identification, facial recognition, DNA matching, and signature matching are all forms of Biometric technology. These technologies aim to identify a person’s identity through unique traits and characteristics. Since biometric characteristics cannot be conjectured or stolen, biometric systems present a superior level of security than usual means of authentication such as passwords or pins.
1. Background
a. Timeline and brief history of biometrics – A.K. Jain, A. Ross, S. Prabhakar (2004), An
introduction to biometric recognition, IEEE Transactions on Circuits and Systems for Video Technology 14 (1) 4–20
2. Biometrics Today
1. Biometric technologies
2. Biometric applications
3. Recent advancements in emerging biometrics
i. Biometrics based on brain and heart signals – Vascular pattern based biometrics – Kauba C., Prommegger B., Uhl A. (2020) OpenVein—An Open-Source Modular Multipurpose Finger Vein Scanner Design.
3. Future of Biometrics
a. Second generation biometrical systems aims to scan intent – Sutrop, M. and Laas-Mikko,
K. (2012), From Identity Verification to Behavior Prediction: Ethical Implications of Second Generation Biometrics. Review of Policy Research, 29: 21-36.
4. Implications of current and future Biometric technology a. Threat to individuals and organizations
i. Dangers to owners of secured items
ii. Threat of privacy invasion
iii. Identity theft – Park, Eunice, Your Biometrics: Private or Not? (December 31, 2019). Orange County Lawyer Magazine, Vol. 62, No. 1, February 2020, at 32.
iv. Threat to companies for compliance
v. Wrongful accusations and threat of civil liberties if Biometrics mapped intent
5. Ethical Discussion of Biometrics
a. Possible Effects on Human Dignity – Alterman, A. (2003). “A piece of yourself”: Ethical
issues in biometric identification. Ethics and Information Technology , 5, 139– 150.
6. Legal Ramifications
1. Constitutional Law Considerations
i. Right to Privacy – Woodward J.D. (2008) The Law and the Use of Biometrics . In: Jain A.K., Flynn P., Ross A.A. (eds) Handbook of Biometrics . Springer, Boston, MA
ii. 4th and 5th Amendments
2. Laws Regulating Biometric Data
i. BIPA
ii. California Statutes
1. CCPA
3. The need for a global standard of laws that regulate biometrics – Pope, C. (2018).
Biometric data collection in an unprotected world: Exploring the need for federal legislation protecting biometric data . Journal of Law and Policy, 26(2), 769-804.
7. Conclusion
Question 24: Education

Mini Case International Financial Management Fifth Edition Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mini Case
International Financial Management Fifth Edition
Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mexico experienced larger scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings, and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.
Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject.
· Mexico’s key economic indicators; BOP, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994-1995
· Causes of Mexico’s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation
· Policy actions for prevent and mitigate the balance of payment problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso
· Lesson from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries

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Question 25: Sociology
1.
a. What is the difference between the free exercise clause and the establishment clause?

b. What limitations exists on religious practices?

2.
a. What are three types of speech not protected by the First Amendment?

b. Why do you think the Supreme Court limits student speech more than the speech of adults?

3.
a. What are the requirements for a lawful assembly on private property?

b. For what reasons might the right to assemble be limited on public property

4.What kinds of clubs are not allowed in school?

a. Why do school officials have the right to limit students’ rights of assembly?

1. Is a trained dogs sniff of someone or something a search of that person or thing? Explain why or why not.
2. Do you agree with the majority of the Court in the Caballes case or with the dissenting opinions? Explain why.

3. Would your opinion in the Caballes case be different if it had involved a bomb-sniffing dog instead? Explain.

1.
a. What is the plain view doctrine?
b. In what situations can police conduct a search warrant?
c. Should searches of motor vehicles require police to have a warrant?
2.
a. What is cyber-surveillance?

b. What do you think is the most important factor in deciding whether a search is reasonable?
3.
a. Why is it possible for people to agree on a fundamental value such as the right to privacy but disagree over the meaning of that right in specific situations?

Question 26: Law

This is an exercise in legal problem solving. This assessment task covers material taught in Contracts I and II only.

Assessment tasks exist to help students learn and apply their knowledge. Grades exist to show how fully this goal is attained.
This assessment task must be the student’s own understanding and effort. If the words or ideas used are not your own, then you must correctly reference them using the Harvard/WesternSydU referencing style.
Requests for extensions will only be considered in the most extraordinary circumstances. If you make such a request, you must attach all work done to date on this task to your email, otherwise it will be automatically declined and you will then need to file an application for special consideration. Late penalties will apply to a submission made after the due date without an extension – 10% of total marks per day or part thereof. You should upload your completed work as soon as you are able, without waiting for an email from the unit coordinator granting or declining an extension or for an outcome on your special consideration application, as the Easter public holidays will occur just after submission so your request will not be dealt with until the Tuesday, some 4 days after the due time for submission, or even later.

A deferred assessment task might be granted as a result of your application for special consideration. If so, it will take the form of a 2 hour open book online exam. This will be held after the teaching is finished but before the final exam.

This assessment task is designed to address student learning outcomes 1–4 for the unit:

INSTRUCTIONS:

· Before submitting your Essay, it should be spell-checked and read aloud to check for grammatical errors and/or run through the grammar-checking tool in MS Word.
• Answer all questions.
• Word limit: 1500 words for the entire task, excluding your Reference List. This is a strict word count, you cannot exceed this count, therefore no +10% permitted. The penalty for exceeding the word limit is 1 mark per 100 words or part thereof.
· Do not attach a cover sheet, as this is built into the Turnitin system. If you do this will impact upon your Originality Report, your word count, and your privacy.
• Format: Double spaced, Arial 12 point, MS Word document. If you do not use a Word document we will not be able to view and mark it. Please note you can download the MSWord App for iPads free via App Store.
• If you have a question about this assessment task, please read the Learning Guide and these instructions, before posting a question to the Discussion Board on vUWS. Do not email the unit coordinator unless your enquiry is of a personal nature. Using the Discussion Board means that every student has the benefit of access to the answers to questions about the assessment task, which is a fairer system for everyone. Do NOT post your actual responses to any of the questions, as this may involve you in possible academic misconduct. Also do not ask for help in identifying how to answer a problem.

QUESTIONS:
There are three questions in this assessment task. Students must answer all questions.

Question 1: 8 marks
Graham wishing to impress his friend Stacey, goes with Stacey to an antique shop. He inspects an antique dining table and asks the shop assistant the price. The shop assistant tells him that the price is $5,000. Graham says to the shop assistant that he will take it and gives his address to the shop assistant to deliver it to his home. Payment will be on delivery.
When the table arrives, Graham telephones the shop and tells the shop assistant that he was only pretending to buy the table and that he had no intention of going through with the purchase. The shop assistant tells him that Graham must pay for the table.
Is there a binding contract between Graham and the shop? Discuss this situation using case law to support any argument you may make.
Question 2: 5 marks
Andrew and Susan married in 2015 and lived together until they separated in 2018. After 12 months of living apart, they came to an agreement in relation to maintenance and property matters. The agreement was that Susan would pay Andrew $250,000 for his interest in their matrimonial home, and that Andrew would pay Susan $1000 per month to contribute to the mortgage payments on this home. Susan paid to Andrew $250,000 but Andrew refuses to make maintenance payments to Susan. Andrew argues that their agreement is not enforceable because it was made in a domestic context. Is Andrew correct? Explain your answer and indicate relevant authority where appropriate.

Question 3: 5 marks
Chris owned and raced some greyhound dogs, who were very successful on the track. Bruce wanted to buy one of them and breed with it. However, when Bruce approached Chris, Chris told him his dogs were not for sale. Bruce increased the price he was offering but Chris continued to say no.
After several attempts Bruce finally said to Chris that he was being a stubborn ox and that dogs can easily die if one was not too careful with what they fed them.
Chris started to fear for the safety of his beloved animals and himself, so he approached another dog owner, George, and offered to sell all his dogs quite cheaply provided it was a quick sale. George agreed to the sale and now has the dogs.
Chris regrets his hasty decision and wishes to set aside the contract for the sale of his dogs. What legal argument could Chris make to set aside the contract for sale? Is it likely he will be successful?

Two marks are specifically set aside for English expression and referencing in your answer. This is negatively marked, that is you will lose ½ mark for each error up to a maximum loss of 2 marks.
The marking guidelines are as set out in the Learning Guide: Students are assessed against those standards.

Question 27: Business
The final consists of 5 essay questions from Chapters 11-15. Each response should be 150-200 content words and include references.

Question 1 of 5
Differentiate between the three types of bonds.

Question 2 of 5
Describe the five as they apply to human resource management.

Question 3 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between transaction and translation risks. Explain how these risks affect firms and investors.

Question 4 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between standardization, adaptation, and globalization. Provide an example of each.

Reference:

Question 5 of 5
20.0 Points
Describe and differentiate between the US GAAP and the International GAAP.

Question 28: Business

Introduction
½ a page. Introduce the small business (the name, main operations, target market)
P 1. Analyse key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify these considerations within an organizational context.
You should include an analysis of key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify them within the organization’s context. SWOT analysis; evaluating performance; business model canvas; Mckinsey 7S Framework.
P2 Evaluate the opportunities for growth applying Ansoff’s growth vector matrix.
Within the chosen small business, the risks of each option and how they can be mitigated.

P3 Assess the potential sources of funding available to businesses and discuss benefits and drawbacks of each source.
Talk about the long term (2 examples) and short term sources (2 examples), advantages and disadvantages of each source.

P4 Design a business plan for growth that includes financial information and strategic objectives for scaling up a business.
Must be detailed enough to show plans for growth and securing funding, set out strategic objectives, strategies and appropriate frameworks for achieving objectives.
P5 Assess exit or succession options for a small business explaining the benefits and drawbacks of each option.
Compare and contrast the options and make valid recommendations.
Decide appropriate course of action with justified recommendations.
Planning for Growth

You will prepare a report of a business plan for the growth of your simulated small business.
Use a standard report word-process and use a normal script of font size 10 to 11. Line spacing 1.5

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Question 29: Economics

Q.1 Why do national income accountants compare the market value of the total outputs in various years rather than actual physical volumes of production? What problem is posed by any comparison over time of the market values of various total outputs? How is this problem resolved?

Q.2 Why are only final goods counted in measuring GDP for a particular year? Why is the value of used furniture that’s bought and sold not counted?
Answer:

Q.3 What are the three main types of consumption expenditures? Why are purchases of new houses considered to be investment expenditures rather than consumption expenditures?
Answer:

Q.6 Which of the following are included in this year’s GDP? Explain your answer in each case.
a. The services of a commercial painter in painting the family home.
b. An auto dealer’s sale of a new car to a nonbusiness customer.
c. The money received by Smith when she sells her biology textbook to a used-book buyer.
d. The publication and sale of a new economics textbook.
e. A $2 billion increase in business inventories.
f. Government purchases of newly produced aircraft.

Question 30: Chemistry
1. Which is true regarding the seven crystal systems?
A) they completely define a crystal structure
B) they describe the shape of the unit cell.
C) there are 7 shapes that can completely fill 3D space through translational symmetry
D) all of the above.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 crystal systems?
A) Tetragonal
B) Rhombohedral
C) Trigonal
D) Face centered cubic

3. Elemental metals do not commonly crystallize in which of the following lattices
A) simple cubic
B) face centered cubic
C) hexagonal close packed
D) body centered cubic.

4. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Cu that crystallizes in the fcc? A) [100]
B) [110]
C) [111]
D) (110)

5. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Na that crystallizes in the bcc? A) [110]
B) [100]
C) [111]
D) (111)

6. In a BCC metal, the plane with the highest planer density is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

7. The closest packed plane in a metal FCC structure is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

8. Which is TRUE about Bragg’s Law?
A) It defines conditions necessary for diffraction in primitive cells
B) It is insufficient to predict diffraction in non¬primitive cells
C) It relates the path length difference between to diffracted beams to the lattice d¬spacing
D) All of the above

9. Which plane will show a peak on a diffraction pattern for alpha¬Fe (metal bcc structure)? A) (100)
B) (220)
C) (210)
D) (221)

10. Which of the following statements about vacancies is true?
A) vacancies are always present in materials
B) as temperature increases, the number of vacancies will increase
C) as temperature decreases, the number of vacancies will increase
D) vacancies are considered linear defects

11. The Hume¬Rothery rules give the conditions to be met for
A) Mixing between two elements
B) Assignment of coordination number
C) The existence of an impurity
D) Complete solid solubility

12.
Which of the following describe the defect represented by AlMg•

A) Aluminum vacancy on a magnesium site
B) Magnesium vacancy on an aluminum site
C) Aluminum substitution on a magnesium site
D) Magnesium substitution on an aluminum site

13. Which of the following could be used to maintain electroneutrality for the substitution of an aluminum atom into a magnesium lattice point?
A) For every two aluminum substitutions, create one oxygen vacancy
B) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium vacancy
C) Electroneutrality is maintained for this substitution
D) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium interstitial

14. Which is true regarding dislocations in crystals?
A) they are categorized as being two¬ dimensional defects
B) they occur only in metals
C) they can be described quantitatively by their Burger’s vector
D) cannot be readily detected because they are too small.

15. Twin boundaries, grain boundaries, and stacking faults all represent which kind of defect?
A) Types of dislocations
B) Two dimensional defects
C) Linear defects
D) Point defects

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16. Which of the following statements describes Fick’s first law?
A) the diffusivity is proportional to the concentration gradient
B) the net mass flux is proportional to the diffusivity
C) the flux is described by the error function
D) the diffusivity is thermally activated

17. Diffusion in a solid
A) is facilitated by point defects such as vacancies
B) is a function of temperature
C) requires a concentration gradient,
D) all of the above.

18. A condition of non¬steady state diffusion (i.e. the net flux is varying with time) can be described by
A) Fick’s Second law,
B) the Avrami equation
C) an Arrhenius relationship
D) none of the above.

19. Diffusivity has units of
A) mass/time2
B) length2/time
C) mass/length2•time
D) mass length/time

20. Which of the following statements about diffusion is TRUE?
A) As the bond strength is increased, the diffusion coefficient increases
B) The smaller the diffusing species the smaller the diffusivity
C) As atomic packing factor increases, diffusivity increases
D) As bond energy increases, the activation energy for diffusion increases

21.

NaCl crystallizes in the Rock salt structure illustrated above. (the figure shows multiple unit cells together). Its x-ray diffraction pattern for lamda = 0.154 nm is also shown. The table attached shows relevant data for atoms and ions which you may find useful to answer the questions, 21¬24, below.
21. Consider NaCl as well as the compounds MgO, MgS, and KBr which also crystal in the same Rock salt structure. Which shows the ranking order these compounds from lowest to highest melting point?

A) MgS < MgO < KBr < NaCl
B) MgO < MgS < KBr < NaCl
C) NaCl < KBr < MgS < MgO
D) NaCl < KBr < MgO < MgS

22.
Refer to the picture in question 21. The peak for the (220) takes place at a 2¬theta value of 45 degrees. Calculate the lattice parameter for NaCl. The value of the lattice parameter is
A) 0.201 nm
B) 0.569 nm
C) 0.109 nm
D) 0.308 nm

23. Refer to the figure in question 21. The calculated the theoretical density of NaCl is A) 13.29 g/cm3
B) 1.05 g/cm3
C) 2.11 g/cm3
D) 0.527 g/cm3

24.
Refer to the figure in question 21. For a similar XRD pattern for MgS (with lamda=0.154 nm) at what diffraction angle (2¬theta) would you expect the first peak to appear?
A) 30.2 degrees
B) 15.1 degrees
C) 17.9 degrees
D) 35.8 degrees

25.

Refer to figures (i) – (ii) to answer questions 25 – 26 about the specific directions and planes depicted below using proper Miller (or Miller¬Bravais) indices.
25. Which choice indicates the three directions shown in Figure i?
A) (101), (111), (010)
B) [101], [111], [010]
C) [110], [010], [011]
D) None of the above

26. Which choice indicates the plane shown in Figure ii, in question 25? A) [101]
B) (110)
C) [110]
D) (101)
27.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, Which of the following choices describes a Frenkel defect reaction in this material?
A) Null → VMg″ + VCl•
B) MgCl2 → VMg″ + 2Cli•
C)
Cl

MgCl2 → VMg″ + Mgi•• +2Cl x

D) Null → VMg″ + 2VCl•

28.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites in this crystal is 2.3 x10¬13 at 500°C and the activation energy for this vacancy formation is Ev = 2.3 eV, calculate the fraction of Mg vacancies expected to exist at 800°C.
A) 3.6 x10¬9
B) 1.1 x10¬4
C) 1.4 x10¬17
D) 4.6 x10¬22

29.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the compound was MgBr2, how would you expect the slope of the curve to change in a plot of ln (fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites) as a function of 1/T?
A) Slope of curve would become positive
B) Slope of the curve would decrease
C) Slope of the curve would increase
D) Slope would stay the same

30.
Using a hydrocarbon gas to carburize the surface of a steel, we obtain a surface carbon content of 1.0 wt%. The initial carbon content of the steel is 0.2 wt%. How long would take at 1000˚C to obtain a carbon concentration of 0.6 wt% at a distance 1mm from the surface? Given: Do = 20 x 10¬6 m2/S; Q = 142 kJ/mol
A) 1.52 x10¬5 hours
B) 1.02 x107 hours
C) 15.2 hours
D) 10.2 hours

Question 31: Health Care

NUTRI 101 FINAL EXAM
Question1 What is the major monosaccharide found in the human body?
Select one:
a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
d. galactose
Question2 Which of these is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be broken down by the human digestive process?
Select one:
a. amino acid
b. simple sugar
c. starch
d. fiber
Question3 What is the purpose of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 2010?
Select one:
a. to help people with specific diseases requiring special diet information
b. to provide dietary guidelines for Americans from birth to old age
c. to support the premise that nutrients should come primarily from supplements
d. to help Americans choose an overall healthful diet
Question4 How much moderate-intensity exercise is recommended in order to decrease an individual’s risk of chronic disease?
Select one:
a. 30 minutes per day
b. 45 minutes per day
c. 60 minutes per day
d. 90 minutes per day

Question5 What is an advantage of fat as a source of fuel for exercise?
Select one:
a. It can be utilized during intense, short-term exercise.
b. It is the most efficient fuel source for anaerobic exercise.
c. The body can utilize it quickly and efficiently.
d. It supplies more than twice the energy of carbohydrates.
Question6 In the human body, when is glycogen synthesis greatest?
Select one:
a. during sleep
b. upon rising in the morning
c. preceding strenuous activity
d. immediately following exercise
Question7 What is the first step in the production of energy from food?
Select one:
a. anaerobic breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm
b. conversion of food energy to ATP
c. aerobic breakdown of nutrients in the mitochondria
d. anabolic metabolism of vitamins and minerals
Question8 A cell’s genetic material is contained in its
Select one:
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
b. nucleus.
c. mitochondria.
d. Golgi complex.
Question9 The primary functions of epithelial tissue in the lining of the respiratory tract are to
Select one:
a. facilitate communication with the brain and other organs.
b. support and protect the lungs, store fat, and produce blood cells.
c. hold internal structures together and facilitate movement.
d. secrete important substances, absorb nutrients, and excrete waste.

Question10 What happens in the human body when too much Vitamin C is consumed via supplements?
Select one:
a. It is stored in muscle and liver.
b. The body converts it to its active form.
c. It will all be used for metabolic processes.
d. It is excreted in the feces and urine.
Question11 What substances manufactured by the endocrine glands act as chemical messengers in the body? Select one:
a. enzymes
b. genes
c. hormones
d. proteases
Question12 What is the term for the partially digested food mixture as it leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine?
Select one:
a. chyme
b. bile
c. mucus
d. chyle
Question13 How does the body regulate blood glucose levels after a meal?
Select one:
a. Glycogen is released from muscles.
b. Epinephrine is released by the adrenal glands.
c. Insulin is released from the pancreas.
d. Glucagon is released from the pancreas.
Question14 Which of these is the only animal-derived food that contains a significant amount of carbohydrates? Select one:
a. beef
b. eggs
c. milk
d. poultry
Question15 Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrate?
Select one:
a. lipase
b. protease
c. amylase
d. dextrose
Question16 What product is formed as a result of the incomplete breakdown of fat when carbohydrates are not available to the body?
Select one:
a. glycogen
b. ketones
c. insulin
d. cholesterol
Question17 Which type of fats can raise the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level in the blood?
Select one:
a. saturated
b. monounsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. essential
Question18 Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. HDL > 40 mg/dl
b. LDL < 200 mg/dl
c. total cholesterol > 150 mg/dl
d. blood pressure >139/89 mg HG
Question19 If a 100-calorie serving of food has 10 grams of fat, what percentage of the calories in that food is fat? Select one:
a. 90%
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 10%
Question20 Plant proteins are considered incomplete when they are missing which of these?
Select one:
a. peptide bonds
b. gelatin
c. branch chained amino acids
d. essential amino acids
Question21 Edema can be caused by a lack of which substance in the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. cholesterol
b. triglycerides
c. protein
d. glucose
Question22 The enzymatic digestion of protein begins in the
Select one:
a. mouth.
b. esophagus.
c. stomach.
d. small intestine.
Question23 Based on the RDA, how many grams of protein would a healthy 125-pound woman need daily?
Select one:
a. 46
b. 56
c. 66
d. 76
Question24 Which of the following is closely correlated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. being a female
b. having a smaller body surface area per body volume
c. having greater lean body mass
d. undergoing an extreme dieting regime
Question25 Joe is 25 years old and weighs 154 pounds. What would be Joe’s 24-hour estimated basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. 70 kcal/24 hours
b. 1680 kcal/24 hours
c. 1848 kcal/24 hours
d. 3696 kcal/24 hours
Question26 Which term refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest?
Select one:
a. basal metabolism
b. physical activity caloric expenditure
c. thermic effect of food
d. thermogenesis
Question27 What theory proposes that everyone has a genetically determined body weight that is maintained through internal controls?
Select one:
a. environmental theory
b. external cue theory
c. internal cue theory
d. set point theory
Question28 In which list are all of the vitamins fat-soluble?
Select one:
a. Vitamins A, B, C, D
b. Vitamins A, D, E, K
c. Vitamins B, C, D, E
d. Vitamins B, D, E, K
Question29 What is the primary role of Vitamin D in the body?
Select one:
a. to carry oxygen in the blood to the cells
b. to help regulate calcium and bone metabolism
c. to help regulate the heart beat
d. to act as an antioxidant
Question30 Where is most Vitamin A stored in the body?
Select one:
a. liver
b. kidneys
c. heart
d. small intestine
Question31 Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin with exposure to UVB rays?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B-6
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Question32 Iron absorption is enhanced by the consumption of
Select one:
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a. eggs.
b. chicken.
c. peas.
d. oranges.
Question33 Why does an increase in energy expenditure require an increase in B complex vitamins?
Select one:
a. They provide minimal calories.
b. They are involved in carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism.
c. They have a high bioavailability.
d. They regulate calcium absorption.
Question34 What compound is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B-12?
Select one:
a. intrinsic factor
b. insulin
c. Vitamin D
d. calcium

Question35 How does sodium maintain appropriate fluid balance in the body?
Select one:
a. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the extracellular fluid.
b. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the extracellular fluid.
c. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the intracellular fluid.
d. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the intracellular fluid.
Question36 Which mineral is important in regulating the human heartbeat?
Select one:
a. iron
b. potassium
c. sodium
d. zinc
Question37 Goiter is caused by a deficiency of
Select one:
a. fluoride.
b. iodine.
c. magnesium.
d. sodium.
Question38 While Jim was running a marathon he lost 2.5 pounds. How much fluid should Jim have consumed to prevent dehydration?
Select one:
a. 10-19 ounces
b. 20-39 ounces
c. 40-49 ounces
d. 50-60 ounces

Question39 Why does excessive intake of alcohol result in dehydration?
Select one:
a. Alcohol is high in calories.
b. Antidiuretic hormone is inhibited by alcohol.
c. Antidiuretic hormone is stimulated by alcohol.
d. There is a decrease in urinary output.
Question40 A decrease in urine output would likely be the result of a diet that is
Select one:
a. high in carbohydrates.
b. high in protein and sodium.
c. low in carbohydrates.
d. low in protein and sodium.
Question41 Which pituitary hormone signals the kidneys to conserve water by conserving sodium?
Select one:
a. aldosterone
b. antidiuretic hormone
c. glucagon
d. insulin
Question42 During which stage of the lifecycle can a prolonged deficiency in iron result in impaired cognitive development?
Select one:
a. early infancy
b. early adulthood
c. late adulthood
d. pregnancy
Question43 Which government program provides supplemental food vouchers specifically for low-income pregnant women and children?
Select one:
a. Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP)
b. Commodity Supplemental Food Program (CSFP)
c. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)
d. Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

Question44 Which is a symptom of anorexia?
Select one:
a. shame or embarrassment
b. fluctuating weight of ±10 pounds
c. erosion of tooth enamel
d. rituals involving food and exercise
Question45 Which statement describes a consequence of anorexia?
Select one:
a. The white blood cell count increases, leading to a higher number of infections.
b. Body temperature is lowered, which results in decreased metabolism.
c. The body conserves energy to combat semi-starvation.
d. Heart rate increases to make up for other metabolic changes.
Question46 Which of these is an effective means to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses?
Select one:
a. Increase the use of antibiotics in animal feed.
b. Keep cold foods between 42-50 degrees F.
c. Keep hot foods between 90-100 degrees F.
d. Thaw foods in the refrigerator.
Question47 According to the Environmental Protection Agency, which of the following is a useful strategy for reducing the intake of pesticide residue from foods?
Select one:
a. Thoroughly scrub, rinse, and peel fruits and vegetables.
b. Limit the variety of foods eaten to avoid overexposure to chemicals.
c. Consume only larger, more mature fish and not smaller, younger ones.
d. Eat the outer leaves of compact leafy vegetables and discard the remainder.
Question48 It is unlawful to add any amount of a cancer-causing substance to food, according to the
Select one:
a. GRAS list.
b. USDA.
c. Delaney Clause.
d. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
Question49 Which of the following is an unintended effect of the use of pesticides in food production?
Select one:
a. decreased food production
b. shortened storage life of harvested crops
c. destruction of natural predators of plant eating insects
d. increased food costs
Question50 Which food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. pickled vegetables
b. shellfish
c. fried foods
d. swordfish
Question51 Which of these actions helps to decrease the risk of pesticide exposure?
Select one:
a. Remove skin from poultry and fish.
b. Store food at proper temperatures.
c. Use ground meat within 1 to 2 days after purchase.
d. Cook meats thoroughly.
Question52 Which of these pregnancy complications can be reduced by 50% if a woman is physically active during pregnancy?
Select one:
a. low birth weight baby
b. premature labor
c. gestational diabetes
d. cesarean section
Question53 The body’s need for iron increases during pregnancy because of the need to
Select one:
a. increase absorption of Vitamin C.
b. reduce nausea.
c. increase appetite.
d. synthesize additional hemoglobin.
Question54 It is recommended that a healthy woman of food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. up to 15
b. 16 to 25
c. 26 to 35
d. 36 to 45
Question55 After about six months, which mineral stores have been depleted in breast-fed babies?
Select one:
a. calcium
b. iron
c. magnesium
d. iodine
Question56 Why is it recommended that solids foods be introduced after six months of age?
Select one:
a. to prevent risk of choking
b. to decrease risk of food allergies
c. to meet increased caloric needs
d. to meet increased calcium needs
Question57 Which of the following can increase the risk of osteoporosis?
Select one:
a. higher lactase production
b. increased absorption of calcium
c. inadequate exposure to sunlight
d. increased vitamin D synthesis

Question58 What is one of the basic premises of the USDA/HHS Dietary Guidelines for Americans,2010?
Select one:
a. Most Americans can best meet their nutrient needs by taking supplements.
b. Adults should consume 8 to 10 glasses of water every day.
c. Nutrient needs should be met primarily through food consumption.
d. Weight loss is best achieved with a low-carbohydrate diet.
Question59 How does an active lifestyle help to slow some of the physiological changes that occur during aging?
Select one:
a. maintains muscle mass
b. decreases body water
c. decreases muscle elasticity
d. increases fat stores
Question60 Charlie is 75 years old and is complaining of problems with constipation. Which dietary recommendation may be appropriate to help Charlie establish more regular bowel habits?
Select one:
a. Decrease intake of sweets.
b. Increase intake of calcium-rich foods.
c. Increase intake of whole grains and water.
d. Decrease intake of fat.

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Question 32: Health Care

NUTRI 101 MIDTERM EXAM

1. Healthy People 2020 was designed to

Select one:
a. eliminate health disparities, improve access to health education and quality health care, and strengthen public health services.
b. disclose dietary practices that best support health.
c. prevent chronic disease.
d. eliminate dietary inadequacies and excesses, and to encourage healthful practices.

2. A ______ is generally a fake medicine used to disguise the treatments of participants in an experiment.

Select one:
a. placebo
b. control
c. case
d. Hypothesis

3. Which of the following are substances in plant foods that are not digested in the stomach or small intestine?

Select one:
a. Dextrose
b. Disaccharides
c. Dietary fiber
d. Simple sugars

4. A kilocalorie is a measure of

Select one:
a. heat energy.
b. fat in food.
c. nutrients in food.
d. sugar and fat in food.

5. According to MyPlate, consumption of foods from the Grains group should include

Select one:
a. an equal amount of whole grain and refined grain products.
b. at least half of the grain servings as whole grain cereals, breads, crackers, rice, or pasta every day.
c. only whole grain products.
d. a serving of grain products at each meal.

6. Which of the following is true about the way we should eat to achieve good nutritional status?

Select one:
a. Eat fruits and vegetables because we can get all the nutrients we need from these.
b. Do the best we can but take supplements to fill in the deficient areas.
c. Eat a wide variety of foods because no single natural food meets all human nutrient needs.
d. Eat only plant products because animal products are bad and generally filled with hormones for animal growth.

7. Compare the following menu to MyPlate and answer the subsequent questions.
Picture Using MyPlate’s Daily Food Plan for 2000 kilocalories as a reference, the Grains are

Select one:
a. adequate in number of servings but lacking fiber.
b. adequate in number of servings and fiber.
c. inadequate in number of servings.
d. inadequate in number of servings and fiber.

8. One cup of apple juice has 111 kilocalories and 1.4 mg of vitamin C. The same serving size of orange juice has 112 kilocalories and 124 mg of vitamin C. Which of the following is true regarding their nutrient density?

Select one:
a. Apple juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than orange juice.
b. To get adequate vitamin C while watching kilocalorie intake, it would be better to consume apple juice than orange juice.
c. Apple juice provides more vitamin C per kilocalorie than orange juice.
d. Orange juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than apple juice.

9. A compound that allows for communication between one cell and the next is a

Select one:
a. neurotransmitter.
b. neuron.
c. nephron.
d. Synapse.

10. ______ tissue is part of rigid body structures, such as bone and cartilage.

Select one:
a. Connective
b. Epithelial
c. Nervous
d. Muscle
11. A function of the large intestine is to absorb

Select one:
a. fats and proteins.
b. dietary fiber.
c. water and minerals.
d. proteins and carbohydrates.

12. Which of the following hormones corrects a hyperglycemic state?

Select one:
a. Insulin
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Glucagon

13. Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose?

Select one:
a. Alcohol
b. Fruits
c. Grains
d. Sugar cane

14. The most important long-term strategy for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to

Select one:
a. lose body fat.
b. eat regular meals.
c. maintains a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day.
d. avoid sugar.

15. “Hidden” fat includes

Select one:
a. butter.
b. fat in crackers and other grain products.
c. fat around the edges of meats.
d. mayonnaise in potato salad.

16. Sometimes phospholipids are used in commercial salad dressings to suspend vegetable oil in water. In this case, phospholipids are serving as _______________.

Select one:
a. fat replacers
b. emulsifiers
c. thickeners
d. homogenizers

17. All of the following describe the characteristics of fat cells except

Select one:
a. the number of fat cells decreases when fat is lost from the body.
b. the storage capacity for fat depends on both fat cell number and fat cell size.
c. the number increases when storage capacity has reached its limit.
d. the body’s ability to store fat is limitless.

18. The child with kwashiorkor has all the following conditions except

Select one:
a. moderate weight deficit.
b. some visible fat stores.
c. edema in the abdomen and legs.
d. a skin-and-bones appearance.

19. An illness that results from a malfunction of the red blood cell because of an incorrect structure in parts of the hemoglobin protein chain is called _______________.

Select one:
a. marasmus
b. kwashiorkor
c. sickle cell anemia
d. megaloblastic anemia

20. The basic building block of a protein is called a(n)

Select one:
a. fatty acid.
b. monosaccharide.
c. amino acid.
d. keto acid.

21. A _________________________ is usually more accurate at estimating the number of calories you burn during a workout than are calorie estimators on cardio machines.

Select one:
a. bathroom scale
b. body fat monitor
c. step monitor
d. heart rate monitor

22. Which of the following is true about basal metabolism?

Select one:
a. It represents about 30 percent of total energy expenditure.
b. It is energy expenditure to maintain heartbeat, respiration, other basic functions, and daily activities.
c. It represents about 60 percent to 75 percent of total calories used by a sedentary person during each day.
d. It includes the energy used to digest food.

23. The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that adults should engage in the equivalent of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity each week for substantial health benefits. Which of the following statements accurately describes the physical activity required to lose excess body weight and maintain weight loss?

Select one:
a. Weight loss and weight maintenance will likely require more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week.
b. Engaging in 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week is adequate for weight loss and weight maintenance for most adults.
c. During a weight-loss program, physical activity should be restricted to no more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week to prevent increases in appetite.
d. Moderate-intensity aerobic activities are not adequate for weight loss or weight maintenance; intense activity is necessary to boost basal metabolic rate.

24. Beta-carotene is a precursor to

Select one:
a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin D.

25. High doses of vitamin D may cause

Select one:
a. excessive acne.
b. calcium deposits in the kidneys and other organs.
c. limb paralysis.
d. a flaky skin rash.

26. Soybeans, egg yolks, meats, and lecithin are sources of ______.

Select one:
a. riboflavin
b. choline
c. chromium
d. iodide

27. A niacin deficiency causes the disease _______________.

Select one:
a. anemia
b. beriberi
c. cheilosis
d. Pellegra

28.Some niacin is formed in the body from

Select one:
a. phenylalanine.
b. tyrosine.
c. tryptophan.
d. lysine.

29. A pantothenic acid deficiency

Select one:
a. is very unlikely because of its widespread availability.
b. is very likely.
c. occurs commonly in children.
d. occurs commonly in the elderly.

30. Which of the following is an example of a vitamin that is more bioavailable in its synthetic form?

Select one:
a. folate
b. vitamin B-6
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin A

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Question 1:       Finance

 

Assume that the costs associated with the purchase of EHR software are as follows:

Purchase price: $25,000 per provider

One time implementation fee: $10,000 per provider

Annual maintenance fee: 18% of the purchase price applied after the first year

Estimate the ROI (%) at the end of five years for a group of 15 providers. Assume that the only monetary benefit considered is that each physician will earn $44,000 as incentive (one time only).

 

Question 2:           Psychology

 

 

Capstone Quiz

 

Answer the following multiple choice questions by highlighting the answer. There is one correct answer per question.

 

  1. Which historical perspective stated that psychologists should study the different components of the mind independently, because to understand how the conscious mind works, we must understand all of its individual parts completely?

 

  1. Structuralism
  2. Functionalism
  3. Behaviorism
  4. Gestalt
  5. Psychodynamic

 

  1. Edward Titchener used a method for studying the mind that became popular during the Structuralist period. The method, called _____, required trained participants to report their conscious mental experiences to the investigator. For example, if a person was angry, they would report all of their experiences during the time they were angry.

 

  1. empiricism
  2. functionalism
  3. contemplation
  4. introspection
  5. conscientiousness

 

  1. A potential problem with ___________ research is _____________.

 

  1. longitudinal; cohort differences
  2. cross-sectional; subject attrition
  3. cross-sectional; cohort differences
  4. longitudinal; random assignment
  5. cross-sectional; maturation

 

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  2. Research by _____________ legitimized psychological science when it became the first psychological research presented as evidence to the United States Supreme Court.

 

  1. Muzafer Sherif
  2. Irving Janis
  3. Mamie Clark
  4. Phillip Zimbardo
  5. Kurt Lewin

 

  1. To determine whether changing one variable like education will produce changes in another like income, we must conduct _____________________ research.

 

  1. survey
  2. correlational
  3. experimental
  4. statistical
  5. basic

 

  1. Mary is studying the effect of high blood sugar on intelligence test performance. Which of these might be her hypothesis?

 

  1. People should not eat high sugar foods prior to IQ testing.
  2. High sugar foods increase energy and improve IQ test performance.
  3. People who eat high sugar foods before testing will have lower scores on an IQ test than people who do not.
  4. Roughly 75% of people had lower IQ test scores after eating high sugar snacks right before testing.
  5. Individuals should not be given high sugar snacks prior to IQ testing.

 

  1. Which of the following research methods would be most effective in demonstrating whether the presence of others improves our performance of a task?

 

  1. An experiment
  2. A correlational study
  3. A survey
  4. A field study
  5. An historical study

 

  1. Which of the following psychological studies would you expect to have similar results cross-culturally?

 

  1. Milgram’s study of obedience to authority
  2. Asch’s conformity study
  3. Study of the symptoms of mental illness
  4. Study of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
  5. Study of parenting styles

 

  1. According to the APA Ethical Standards, psychologists must inform participants of the nature of the research; and that they are free to participate, decline to participate, or withdraw from the research at any time. These requirements, among others, are necessary to ensure the participants’ ______.

 

  1. anonymity
  2. risk level
  3. informed consent
  4. debriefing
  5. risk/benefit ratio

 

  1. Making an ethical decision involves

 

  1. simply applying a clear and definitive set of guidelines for ethical research
  2. deciding that an ethical decision is effective if it makes you happy
  3. identifying what ethical guidelines are relevant in a situation and what is at stake for all parties involved
  4. maintaining the anonymity of the researchers
  5. maintaining the anonymity of the participants

 

  1. According to the APA Ethical Standards, who is ultimately responsible for the ethical conduct of research done in psychology?

 

  1. The Institutional Review Board
  2. The individual researchers
  3. The sponsoring institution, such as the university
  4. The assistants who test the participants
  5. The funding agency

 

 

 

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Question 3:           Psychology

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words to either prompt 1 or 2:

 

Prompt 1:

Identify a current social problem. If you had unlimited resources, how would you go about studying that problem?

 

Prompt 2:

Congratulations! You’ve made it to week 6, which means that you’ve successfully submitted your research proposal. I hope that you all feel a sense of accomplishment as that is no easy task (but you already know this, right?).

 

For this discussion question, I’d like for all of you to share what you found to be the most challenging part of the proposal and to discuss how you overcame it.

 

 

Question 4:           Sociology

 

Scholarly Book Review – The final component of this course is for you to read one of the assigned books, Out-of-Control Criminal Justice, and write a scholarly book review. For this assignment, you must cite at least five peer-reviewed articles, not books, in your review. The articles students cite should be relevant and timely (e.g. no older than say 2010, unless they are considered to ‘classics’). Your scholarly book review must be between 2,250 to 2,700 words. For this assignment, you need to do more than merely provide merely provide a synopsis of the book. Rather, provide a scholarly analysis of the book and explain what, if anything, it contributes to our understanding of criminal justice policy.

 

Question 5:           Marketing

 

Give step by step instructions on creating a sales pipeline. Include different categories of pipeline, how they are measured and levels of involvement for each. 1 or 1 1/2 page without the reference page. APA times new roman #12

 

Question 6:           Sociology

 

Using the textbook and the South University Online Library, write a 1500-word paper using APA standards that focuses on the following: Interview two different individuals regarding their positions in society. Analyze their responses regarding: Identify each person’s class, race, and gender, supporting your work with the text and/or outside resources. What role has class, race, and gender played in their lives? How do you see these stratifies as playing a role, even if the interviewee is unaware of it? Apply one of the sociological perspectives to the individuals’ lives. Why did you choose this particular perspective? How does it explain each person’s life and life choices? What are some of the benefits and limitations to using interview as a research methodology? Analyze each person’s specific components of culture and relate them to his/her stratified position in society.

 

Question 7:           History

 

1.After reading the Four Roles in Social Movement handout, identify which of the four roles best describes you and your involvement in social movement/change and why. 250 words 2.after reading the 8 Stages of Successful Social Movements handout, identify how each of these 8 stages will be or have been incorporated into your social movement/change. This should not exceed 2 pages in length. 3.Create a 1 page infographic which will describe how to increase social awareness for your identified movement/change. Explain and evaluate social, political and historical milestones for this social movement/change that reinforce trends as they relate to human services’ role in advocating for individuals, families and communities in need. Make sure your infographic is informative and visually appealing. (SLO 4) 4. Conduct research using scholarly resources Database and/or other outside resources to answer the following questions: Compare and contrast the Mexican American/Chicano Movement, the African Hire an online tutor Spring 2020? https://homeworknest.com/  has all the answers. Online Professional tutoring tailored for college students studying online. 2020 spring revision materials , Timed quizzes, biology quizzes, Us History assignment help. Dissertation, thesis help at cheap prices. Give your online courses grade A boost. Homework nest is the ultimate answer. register today. https://www.homeworknest.com/ and get all types of assignment help today. Our Expert tutors are waiting for you. The cheapest essay writing service in 2020. Ace my Homework is a question asked by many college and university students. we got them all answers at Homework Nest

American Civil Rights Movement, and the Stonewall Movement. Discuss the effectiveness of each movement, its current status, and future goals and initiatives. Additionally, choose one of the movements above and identify strategies to address marginalization and social stratification for the identified population in support of social change and social justice initiatives. (SLO 3) This assignment should include a minimum of 2 related scholarly resources. This essay should not exceed 4 pages in length. 5.Historical Perspective Part 4 will be the historical overview of your Social Movement/Change guided project. In this section, provide a timeline of at least 3 and a maximum of 5 significant events associated with the implementation of the movement/change. Part 5: Annotated Bibliography Begin your annotated bibliography and include three scholarly resources related to your social movement/change. Conduct research from the Springfield College Library Database and/or other outside sources.

 

Question 8:           Education

 

pick one of the 8 levels of psychosocial development. Upload a PowerPoint containing a movie clip from 20 seconds to 120 second Demonstrating your chosen level of psychosocial development. 3-4 slides only

 

Question 9:           English

 

https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/ca94/5980c84bf0d041180f4bcbc53acfec953d86.pdf?_ga=2.181180903.1552378089.1582118538-163449460.1582118538

 

Read this article .

 

Answer these two Questions:

1-What is the main topic of this research?why was this worth investigating?

 

2- how were data analyzed?what finding were produced .

 

Pleased put the question and answer below it . Keep it very short , as long as you answer no words limit.

Question 10:         Health Care

 

Create a newsletter to the “parents” in your classroom highlighting the important aspects of the health lesson you are preparing to present to their children.  IMPORTANT:  This newsletter is announcing to the parents the upcoming lesson you are going to give to their children BASED ON THE HEALTH LESSON PLAN YOU CREATED EARLIER IN THIS MODULE. This must be done in Microsoft WORD.  Include in your newsletter:

  1. The topic
  2. Why this topic is important enough for you to create a lesson on it and deliver it to their children
  3. The classroom policy that is either being reinforced through the lesson or is being created from the lesson
  4. How you hope the parents will reinforce the policy in their home environment

 

Create YOUR newsletter using Microsoft WORD.  Remember, this newsletter relates to the Health Lesson Plan you have already created!

 

Question 11:         Science

 

Explain where in the Citric Acid Cycle a hypothetical defect of an enzyme could occur that would decrease the overall ATP production.

Pick a specific enzyme in the citric acid cycle and discuss what would happen if it could not do its job – focusing on atp production. If this enzyme is defective, what happens to the levels of that enzyme’s product(s)? How does this impact the cycle as a whole? Can the cycle continue or does it stop? What happens to etc and at production.

 

 

 

Question 12:         Finance

 

To be completed in excel file with all questions answered with showing work.

Sandomir and Rasia Kolbe

1.Sandomir and Rasia Kolbe, ages fifty eight and fifty seven respectively, and their three grown children, recently attended Sandomir’s father’s funeral in Poland. They realized that they did not know the effect of federal estate tax on their own estate, nor did they have any legal documentation supporting end-of-life medical or financial decisions. So, upon returning home, Rasia called her mother for a recommendation regarding estate planning help. Rasia’s mother suggested an attorney for the legal documents and her own financial planner for other estate planning needs. For the purposes of this problem, assume all family members are citizens of the United States. Financial information for the Kolbe family follows:

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Based on the Kolbes’ financial information, the lawyer and the financial planner jointly made the following recommendations:

Recommendation 1: Establish testamentary trusts for both Sandomir and Rasia.

Recommendation 2: Retitle assets in preparation of funding trusts.

Recommendation 3: Transfer life insurance ownership to the three children.

To assist the Kolbes with their estate planning, answer the following questions.

a.What type of trust(s) might be recommended in keeping with the clients’ desires of minimizing estate taxes, maximizing privacy, and easing asset ownership transfers?

b.How might the assets be retitled to ensure that all trusts can be adequately funded?

c.What are some of the challenges associated with transferring ownership of the insurance policies to the children? Describe some of the problems with the current life insurance designations. What other strategies can also be considered to alleviate any potential estate, gift, or income tax issues?

d.Besides completing wills and trust documents, what other legal documents should the Kolbes consider?

 

Jane and John Williams

2.Assume the following estate planning information for Jane and her spouse John.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

a.If Jane were to pass away first, what is her tax liability before the marital deduction?

b.If John were to pass away first, what is his tax liability before the marital deduction?

c.Using the portable estate exemption, how much of their combined estate is taxable today?

d.If Jane and John fail to take advantage of the portable estate exemption by forgetting to file IRS Form 706 at the death of the first spouse, will there be a tax liability this year, assuming the second spouse also passes shortly thereafter? Describe an estate planning strategy that can be used to minimize any estate tax liability in this situation.

Brenda Chatterjee

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3.Brenda Chatterjee is wealthy, single, and generous. During the previous year she made the following gifts:

  • Gift of stock to the local art museum (a 501(c)(3) nonprofit organization): $245,000
  • College tuition payment for niece: $29,000 made directly to the institution
  • Medical bills for elderly neighbor: $18,000 paid directly to the hospital
  • Home down payment gift to daughter: $30,000 paid directly to the mortgage lender
  • Cash gift to son: $17,000
  • Use the gift tax rates shown below as a guide to answer the following questions:

a.What is the total amount of taxable gifts in 2018?

b.What is Brenda’s gift tax liability in 2018?

c.Assuming a unified credit of $4,425,800, what alternative does Brenda have in terms of paying the gift tax liability?

 

Malek and Nelda Goetz

4.Malek and Nelda Goetz live in Nevada. They are working with you to deal with several estate planning questions and concerns. Use your estate planning skills to answer the following questions:

a.Nelda read that it is a good idea to have a power of attorney in place to help deal with incapacitation issues. She is worried, however, that providing someone power over the family’s financial situation now could lead to unnecessary problems and confusion. What type of POA can Malek and Nelda establish that will address her worries? What needs to occur to trigger this type of POA?

b.Malek and Nelda were married in Nevada. In fact, they have lived their entire life in Nevada. If Malek were to pass away, with the family home valued at $500,000 at Malek’s death, what will be Nelda’s new basis in the property? Assume the basis in the home is $100,000.

c.Avoiding probate is a primary concern for Malek. Which of the following assets will be subject to probate?

  • A personal residence owned JTWROS with a child.
  • Life insurance proceeds paid to a non-insured beneficiary.
  • Property titled as tenants in common.
  • Brokerage account.

d.Malek would like to reduce the value of the family gross estate by transferring ownership of the family’s second home to his daughter; however, he is worried that he and Nelda may need to live in the house in the event they sell their primary residence (the primary residence is under contract for sale). Malek and Nelda should consider establishing what type of trust to deal with this potentiality?

e.Nelda owns a small business with three other individuals. The business is growing and profitable. Nelda would like to establish a buy-sell agreement to ensure business continuity. What type of agreement should she establish, with her business partners, if she hope that each business owner will purchase life insurance on the life of each other business owner?

f.At what age can Malek’s son elect to access assets held in a Section 2503(b) trust (the son is named as the beneficiary)?

 

 

 

Question 13:         Psychology

 

Are you able to do the online quiz? Click on the link below. Use the table below as a resource to complete the Research Multimedia Activity. Send a screen shot of the results to me.

 

Are you able to do this or no?

https://ecampus.phoenix.edu/secure/aapd/materials/ip/curriculum/social-sciences/psych665/week-1-activity/story.html

Use the table below as a resource to complete the Research Multimedia Activity.

 

 

Number High Quality Research Attributes
1 The research is based on the work of others.
2 The research can be replicated.
3 The research is generalizable to other settings.
4 The research is based on some logical rationale and tied to theory.
5 The research is doable.
6 The research generates new questions or is cyclical in nature.
7 The research is incremental.

 

8 The research is an apolitical activity that should be undertaken for the betterment of society.

 

 

Reference

 

Salkind, N. J. (2012). Exploring research (8th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.

 

 

Question 14:            General Question

Part 1 Due Week 7 and worth 100 points Imagine that you are a financial manager researching investments for your client. Think of a friend or a family member as a client. Define her or his characteris

Part 1 Due Week 7 and worth 100 points

Imagine that you are a financial manager researching investments for your client. Think of a friend or a family member as a client. Define her or his characteristics and goals such as an employee or employer, relatively young (less than 40 years) or close to retirement, having some savings/property, a risk taker or risk averter, etc. Next, use Nexis Uni at the Strayer University library, located at Nexis Uni, click on “Company Dossier” to research the stock of any U.S. publicly traded company that you may consider as an investment opportunity for your client. Your investment should align with your client’s investment goals. (Note: Please ensure that you are able to find enough information about this company in order to complete this assignment. You will create an appendix, in which you will insert related information.)

Your final financial research report will be 6 to 8 pages long and be completed in two parts as noted below. This assignment requires you to use at least five quality academic resources and cover the following topics:

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  • Rationale for choosing the company in which to invest
  • Ratio analysis
  • Stock price analysis
  • Recommendations

Refer to the following resources to assist with completing your assignment:

Stock Selection

  • Forbes: “Six rules to follow when picking stocks”
  • CNN Money: “Stocks: Investing in stocks”
  • The Motley Fool: “13 steps to investing foolishly”
  • Seeking Alpha: “The Graham And Dodd Method For Valuing Stocks”
  • Investopedia: “Guide to Stock-Picking Strategies”
  • Seeking Alpha: “Get Your Smart Beta Here! Dividend Growth Stocks As ‘Strategic Beta’ Investments”

Market and Company Information

  • S. Securities and Exchange Commission: “Market structure”
  • Yahoo! Finance
  • Mergent Online (Note: This resource is also available through the Strayer Learning Resource Center.)
  • Seeking Alpha (Note: This is also available through the Android or iTunes App store.)
  • Morningstar (Note: You can create a no-cost Basic Access account.)
  • Research Hub, located in the left menu of your course in Blackboard

Part 1 Due Week 7 (1 to 2 pages)

  1. Provide a rationale for the stock that you selected, indicating the significant economic, financial, and other factors that led you to consider this stock.
  2. Suggest the primary reasons why the selected stock is a suitable investment for your client. Include a description of your client’s profile.
  3. Just list five resources you’ll use to complete this assignment and begin to build your reference list. Remember you must use at least five quality academic resources for the final assignment.

Part 2 Due Week 9 (6 to 8 pages including #1 and #2 from Part 1)

  1. Include your rationale, primary reasons for stock selection, and client’s profile from Part 1, making any revisions based upon Part 1 feedback if applicable.
  2. Select any five financial ratios that you have learned about in the text. Analyze the past 3 years of the selected financial ratios for the company; you may obtain this information from the company’s financial statements. Determine the company’s financial health. (Note: Suggested ratios include, but are not limited to, current ratio, quick ratio, earnings per share, and price earnings ratio.)
  3. Based on your financial review, determine the risk level of the stock from your investor’s point of view. Indicate key strategies that you may use in order to minimize these perceived risks.
  4. Provide your recommendations of this stock as an investment opportunity. Support your rationale with resources, such as peer-reviewed articles, material from the Strayer University Library, and reviews by market analysts.

 

Question 15:         Physics

 

PSY 635 Week 4 Quiz

Qualitative Research Quiz

 

A person through whom a researcher gains access to a group, community, or organization is known as a(n) _____.

A defining feature of _____ is that this method always aims to uncover previously unquestioned assumptions about the nature of the world and reality and to consider the possible consequences of these assumptions.

Discourse analysis is a _____ approach, which means that it works on the premise that the use of language allows people to negotiate meanings and bring concepts into reality.

Using more than one method to verify findings is called _____.

Grounded theory studies often use a sampling strategy that continues to develop throughout the analysis, which is called _____.

A characteristic of _____ is resistance to pre-existing knowledge.

 

Qualitative researchers use _____ to capture ideas, interpretations, and responses to the data during the study.

 

Grounded theory uses data collection techniques from another qualitative research method, _____.

 

The sampling strategy in which the researcher recruits people who are easy to reach is called _____.

 

The _____ approach to narrative analysis uses rich descriptions of people in their accustomed surroundings.

 

Question 16:         Health Care

 

Pediatric week 4 Discussion 1

Do you recommend a limited or an involved use of antibiotics in treatment of these diseases and other unconfirmed bacterial illnesses and why? What are the standards regarding the use of antibiotics in pediatric population, and what assessment findings would warrant prescribing an antibiotic for Asthma symptoms?

Do the etiology, diagnosis, and management of a child who is wheezing vary according to the child’s age? Why or why not? Which objective of the clinical findings will guide your diagnosis? Why? When is a chest x-ray indicated in this case?

 

 

 

Question 17:         Health Care

 

Potential Matches:
1 :  Foundational science for informatics that looks at how the human mind works
2 :  Emerging field of study that focuses upon how information is processed both in the human mind and the computer
3 :  Knowledge applied in a practical manner
4 :  Field or application that attempts to capture human thought processes and intelligence
5 :  Longitudinal record of one’s health and treatment interventions
6 :  Foundational science for informatics that looks at the application and use of information and knowledge in organizations and the interface between people, organizations, and information systems
7 : An initiative to improve healthcare quality, efficiency, and effectiveness by making healthcare information available when and where it is needed through technology, standards, interoperability, governance, and cooperation
Answer:
3     : Wisdom
1     : Cognitive science
5    : Electronic health record
7     : National Health Information Infrastructure
2     : Cognitive informatics
6     : Information science

 

Question 18:         Health Care

Question 1

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What   is         Data?

Processed information which places relationships in context

Correct!

Raw     fact      without            meaning in itself

Process which uses information to make decisions electronically

Unit of memory equal to one keystroke

Question 2

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is an Electronic Medical Record?
Correct!

An online record of treatment, typically limited to one episode, whether that might be an emergency room or clinic visit or a hospital stay

Longitudinal record of one’s health and treatment interventions

Using software to sort through data to discover patterns and establish relationships

Web browser-based login accessible data, software, and hardware

Question 3

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is Knowledge Work?
Correct Answer

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Process that generates information and knowledge as a product

You Answered

Foundational science for informatics that looks at the application and use of information and knowledge in organizations and the interface between people, organizations, and information systems

Foundational science for informatics that looks at how the human mind works

Process by which clinical data is used to help make decisions and develop predictive analytics

Question 4

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is Health Information Exchange?

An initiative to improve healthcare quality, efficiency, and effectiveness by making healthcare information available when and where it is needed through technology, standards, interoperability, governance, and cooperation

A computer-based program designed to assist clinicians in making clinical decisions

Process by which clinical data is used to make decisions

Correct!

The process of electronic transmission or sharing of healthcare information or an organization that organizes and oversees the transmission process

Question 5

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is an Information System?

Emerging field of study that focuses upon how information is processed both in the human mind and the computer

. Process that generates information and knowledge as a product

Correct!

 

Question 19:         Health Care

 

NR 531 WEEK 5 OBESITY QUIZ

Question 1

Your 7-year-old patient arrives to clinic complaining of pain in bilateral knees and is diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease. You notice that the patient has a BMI that no longer plots on the CDC BMI graph. What anticipatory guidance will you give the parents of this child?

Diet and nutrition advice, lab testing, motivational interviewing with a 24- hour diet recall along with monthly weight checks

Question 2

Your adult patient has a BMI of 50.1 along with HTN, diabetes and dyslipidemia. What would be the best recommended avenue of weight loss for this patient?

Diet and exercise along with a referral to bariatric management

 

 

Question 20:         Gender Studies

 

Respond to the following 4 questions (250 words per question double space 12 font) using the framework of critical media studies. Citations are APA format.

Instruction

  1. Sut Jhally traces the history of advertising from text-based to the image-system that we have today. Briefly outline the key elements of the shift from “rational” text-based advertising to the “emotional” image-based system that we have today. How do contemporary advertisers associate their products with our most cherished emotions? According to Jhally,what is the correlation between buying thins and having a satisfying life? 2. What is the political economy of media and, briefly, why is it important to critical media studies? How does the context of production influence the text? This type of research comes up in Dines and Humez, Kellner, Croteau et al., Jenner, Foster and McChesney, Be as thorough as possible. 3. In Wang’s article on Top Chef, a Vietnamese -American contestant, Hung Huynh excels at French cuisine and is praised for his technical perfection, yet the judges critique him week after week for lacking what? According to the judges, how should Huynh intangible quality? With reference to the stereotype of the “technical buy unfeeling Asian” and the ” perpetually ‘foreign’ status that Asian Americans hold in the U.S. racial imaginary (537), how can they judges’ expectations of Huynh be interpreted as racialized? 4. Drawing on Balance and Hall, outline the following ambivalent figures: the model minority; the slave-figure; the “native” and the “clown”.

 

Question 21:         Business Finance

 

Identify 2 ways in which human service practice is different in the mental health setting versus the criminal justice setting (you may use any venue in the criminal justice setting for comparison, such as prison, jail, juvenile detention, pretrial diversion, parole, probation, etc.)

 

Question 22:         Mathematics

The table lists the average annual cost of tuition and fees at private 4-year colleges for selected years.

Year Tuition and Fees (in dollars)

1994 11,719

1996 13,994

1998 17,709

2000 16,233

2002 21,116

2004 24,101

2006 32,218

  1. Given any two data points with each consisting of the year and its corresponding tuition and fees, describe in detail how you would find a linear function that models the data shown in the table. Be sure to clearly define and interpret all components involved in your model.
  2. Determine a linear function that models the data, where 0 x= represents 1994, and 1 x= represents 1995, and so on. Use the points ( ) 0,11719 and( ) 12,32218 . Choose two more combinations of points and use them to create two additional linear functions that model the data. Record the three linear functions below.

Function 1:

Function 2:

Function 3:

  1. How would you go about using these functions to predict the average annual cost of tuition and fees for a future year? Suppose you are in the marketing department for a college and you are trying to determine which function to use to encourage future students attend your college. Explore and state the messages that can be sent to prospective students by each function.
  2. Use all three functions to approximate tuition and fees in 2035. State your results below. Next, choose the function you would use to encourage prospective students and explain the reasoning behind your choice.

Function 1:

Function 2:

Function 3:

Function of choice:

Explanation:

 

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Question 23:         Other

 

Hourigan, Settipani, Southam-Gerow, & Kendall (2012) explain, “Childhood anxiety disorders are among the most common childhood disorders” (p.104).  Review the case example of Evan in Chapter 7 and based on Evan’s Fear Ladder, what plans would you make to involve Evan’s teachers.  What strategies could be used in an educational setting to help Evan overcome his disorder?  What instructional or classroom management practices might the teacher need to modify to accommodate Evan’s need?

 

Question 24:         Science

Question 1 (4 points)

According to the National Institute for Health Care Management: Understanding U.S. Health Care Spending article, which of the following are correlated with the rising obesity rates in the U.S.? (Select all that apply)

Question 1 options:

Increase in other chronic health conditions
Increase in the determinants of health
Increase in health spending
Decrease in provider visits

Question 2 (4 points)

 

As of 2009, national health expenditures in the U.S. were approximately what percentage of the Gross Domestic Product?

Question 2 options:

14.9%
16.0%
17.6%
19.2%

Question 3 (4 points)

 

According to figures from the National Health Expenditure Accounts (NHEA), how much was spent on health care in the U.S. in 2009?

Question 3 options:

$1.25 trillion
$2.5 trillion
$3.75 trillion
$5.0 trillion

Question 4 (4 points)

 

Which of the following have contributed to the increases in the cost of health care? (select all that apply)

Question 4 options:

New medical technology
Growing rates of obesity
Perverse provider reimbursement mechanisms (i.e. fee-for-service)
Expanded insurance coverage
The practice of defensive medicine

Question 5 (4 points)

 

Comorbidities require less sophisticated coordination of care.

Question 5 options:

True
False

Question 6 (4 points)

 

According to “Crossing the Quality Chasm,” redesigning the healthcare system involves which of the following:

Question 6 options:

Evidence-based care
Effective use of information technology
Paying higher salaries to clinicians
All of the above
None of the above
Both a and b

Question 7 (4 points)

 

The Institute of Medicine Committee specified a blueprint for a health care delivery systems in the 21st century that will result in an ideal system if followed.

Question 7 options:

True
False

Question 8 (4 points)

 

According to the Institute of Medicine, Coverage Matters: Insurance and Health Care article, historically, some of the factors that influenced whether someone was uninsured included:

Question 8 options:

Gender
Ethnicity
Marriage status
All of the above
None of the above
Both a and b

Question 9 (4 points)

 

Historically, most of the uninsured in the U.S. have been illegal immigrants.

Question 9 options:

True
False

Question 10 (4 points)

 

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Medicaid fills in the gaps in the availability of health insurance by:

Question 10 options:

Covering all people below the poverty line
Covering just low-income children
Covering certain groups of low-income people
All of the above

Question 11 (4 points)

 

According to the Kaiser Family Foundation, which group accounts for the most Medicaid spending?

Question 11 options:

Children under the age of 19
Unemployed adults
Elderly and disabled adults
Dual-eligibles over the age of 65

Question 12 (4 points)

 

Meaningful Use sets the specific objectives that eligible professionals and hospitals must achieve to participate in the EHR Incentive Programs.

Question 12 options:

True
False

Question 13 (4 points)

 

Providers who prove compliant with meaningful use regulations will receive what tangible benefit?

Question 13 options:

A meaningful use compliance certification
Decreased government regulation
Government incentive payments
Acceptance onto the stage 3 rules committee

Question 14 (4 points)

 

In comparison to the general population, patients receiving Long-Term and Post-Acute Care services typically:

Question 14 options:

Have a smaller range of conditions
Have less complex conditions
Have a wider range of conditions that are more complex
Have less complex conditions that are wider in range

Question 15 (4 points)

 

According to the Long-Term and Post-Acute Care (LTPAC) Roundtable Summary Report of Findings (Anderson), what are the two ways to capture data discussed in the article?

Question 15 options:

ERH and HIE
EHR and IHE
HER and HEI
EHR and HIE

Question 16 (4 points)

 

The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” stated that there are eight barriers to adoption of Electronic Health Records. Specifically, the article mentions the barrier of “Time” and stated that productivity is initially reduced when caregivers start using the EHR’s. This is due to:

Question 16 options:

The Lack Curve
The Learning Curve
The Boonstra Effect
The Interconnect Effect

Question 17 (4 points)

 

The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” discusses government incentives related to reform to adopt information technology in meaningful ways. The ____________ Act includes spending to create a network of Electronic Health Records.

Question 17 options:

HIPAA
HITECH
TECH-Health
Health Outcomes

Question 18 (4 points)

 

The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” stated that in order to be considered multifunctional, Electronic Health Records need to have at least two of the following capabilities:

Question 18 options:

Generation of patient information, generation of patience, order exit management, decision support
Generation of patient registry, generation of healthy outcomes, order entry management and character support
Generation of patient information, generation of patient registry and panel information, order entry management and decision support
Generation of patient information, generation of registry and panel information, order entry management and healthy outcomes

Question 19 (4 points)

 

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The Chief Medical Information Officer is a physician who bridges the process of information management and medical practice. This position is usually seen as:

Question 19 options:

More administrative than clinical
Equally administrative and clinical
More clinical than administrative
All clinical and no administrative responsibilities–it’s a symbolic position

Question 20 (4 points)

 

The initiation of the electronic medical record is a new strategy in today’s healthcare environment but actually began as far back as:

Question 20 options:

1970’s
1990’s
1960’s
2009

Question 21 (4 points)

 

As described in the Health Affairs article, “Strategic Action in Health Information Technology: Why the Obvious has Taken So Long,” we have come a long way in healthcare IT over the past thirty-five years. However, observers have expressed repeated concerns since it’s inception. Of those concerns the most prevalent is:

Question 21 options:

The amount of data being collected
The effects on the physician/patient relationship
The accuracy of the patient data being collected
The ability to train users to be proficient in data management

Question 22 (4 points)

 

The National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics (NCVHS) was established by Congress more than fifty years ago to serve as a public advisory body to HHS on health data, statistics, and national health information policy. They have been extremely influential over the years in establishing standards for health data, health data systems and patient record systems. One of the most important and influential pieces of legislation the NCVHS developed is:

Question 22 options:

The Affordable Care Act
The Social Security Act
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
None of the above

Question 23 (4 points)

 

States have the flexibility to design their own Medicaid programs within federal guidelines.

Question 23 options:

True
False

 

Question 25:         Humanities

QUESTION 1

Describe and discuss what cultural issues may impact on you as an ICT professional if your organisation merges with another. Try to think deeply about some of the possible impacts on you and your career path that could result from an organisation merger or restructure.

Write 100-200 words in answer to this.

QUESTION 2

From your readings this week, especially in Part 3 of this week’s seminar, which framework are you going to use to analyze the scenarios in Assignment 1? Choose either MacDonald or White. Provide reasons to support why have you chosen this one.

Write 100-200 words to explain your choice. There is no need for discussion with your classmates of this question.

QUESTION 3

You are faced with a situation you feel may be unethical. How would you set about analyzing the situation? Think carefully about the ethical analysis process, not the potential ethical dilemma. That is to say, try not to get caught up in developing and describing a scenario that is unethical. Rather, your focus is on the procedural aspect of dealing with a situation you feel may be unethical.

What questions do you need to ask yourself to determine whether this is an unethical situation? What facts or data do you need to consider and why? What, or who – might help you in your analysis? Use the Ethical Framework provided by White’s 3-step method to frame your responses to Question 3.

Write 150-250 words, to answer this question.

If you wish, choose a specific example of an unethical situation; either fictional, or that you have actually experienced. Discuss with your classmates the different approaches you each have taken and try to explain why there are differences, but once again, try not to get caught up in describing every detail of the situation but instead get to the heart of what makes it unethical, unprofessional or possibly risky in the context of the professional workplace.

QUESTION 4

Where you are working in your internship, locate your company’s Values statement or Code of Ethics, and ask your supervisor if you can either link to it from the company website in the discussion forum or reproduce it in the forum. If your supervisor refuses permission, or there is no Values statement or Code of Ethics, prepare one for their use based on the reading you have done. You might model it on one you have come across. If you need, look at the Western as a guide.

Write 100-200 words to evaluate the code of ethics or values statement, whichever you are working with, against this week’s readings. Discuss what is good about it, what might be missing and how it could be improved.

 

Question 26:         Humanities

Which of these statements reflect reasons Thomas Paine gave for declaring independence from British rule? Check all that apply.

a.The king was unable to act efficiently due to checks on his power.

b.King George’s reign was colored by abusive uses of power.

c.King George lacked the education to make wise policy decisions.

d.The king was envious of the colonies’ prosperity.

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Question 27:         Marketing

 

Give step by step instructions on creating a sales pipeline. Include different categories of pipeline, how they are measured and levels of involvement for each. 1 or 1 1/2 page without the reference page. APA times new roman #12

 

Question 28:         Other

 

Purpose of Assignment

The purpose of this assignment is to evaluate the inventory section of two companies using basic comparative analysis, and to interpret the data to gain insight about the company’s inventory management.

Assignment Steps

Resources: Financial Accounting: Tools for Business Decision Making

Write a 1,050-word comparative analysis using the financial statements of Amazon.com, Inc. presented in Appendix D, and the financial statements for Wal-Mart Stores, Inc., presented in Appendix E, including the following:

  • Compute these 2014 values for each company based on the information in the financial statements:
    • Inventory turnover (Use cost of sales and inventories)
    • Days of inventory
  • Conclusions concerning the management of the inventory can you draw from this data. 

Show work on Excel® spreadsheet and submit with analysis.

 

 

Question 29:         Business Finance

 

As a consultant hired by the Hotel Escargo management team, you have been asked to collect data on the three main areas of focus (check-in, check-out, and hotel offerings) and graph the data to identify any issue occurrences. Use the hotel information provided.(attachment) unit 3 attachmnet.pdf  Collect the data, create graphs and/or tables, and describe any work measurement and time study analysis you would do. Then, from this analysis, select one main area of focus and create a fishbone diagram that captures all potential root causes. Provide a brief analysis of descriptive text on the identified items. Also describe how work sampling and time study assist in analysis.

3 to 4 pages, references, own words

Question 30:         Political Science

1)Read the news article

https://www.npr.org/2018/06/18/617874348/bureaucra…

2)Write a short commentary on the article regarding bureaucracy.

3)Responding thoughtfully and informally, MLA format. ( 2 paragraphs)

4)Reference Page

 

MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

An expectation that team members are responsible for their activities and must report outcomes transparently

Accountability

The implicit and explicit power that a manager or employee has to fulfill an organizational function or role

Authority

The level of individual discretion that an employee has to make decisions

Autonomy

A trusted intermediary that facilitates mutually agreed upon outcomes for two or more parties

Broker

A design structure that relies on senior-level managers to collect information broadly, in order to make decisions on behalf of the entire company

Centralized Organization

A predefined structure order of authority that determines how decisions are made and communicated

Chain of Command

The synchronization of an organization’s functions to ensure efficient use of resources in pursuit of goals and objectives

Coordination

A compendium of policies intended to ensure transparency and fulfillment of duties to stakeholders

Corporate Governance

A design structure that relies on all employees to collect and communicate information, in order to make decisions and recommend changes

Decentralized Structure

When a manager grants power and authority to another team member

Delegation

A design structure that groups together processes and jobs based on functions, products, or customers

Departmentalization

The process through which managers divide labor based on tasks and functions

Differentiation

A design structure that groups processes and jobs based on clearly defined market segments or geography

Divisional Organization

The degree of which policies and procedures determine specific jobs and functions

Formalization

Independent workers that supply organizations with talent for projects or time-bound objectives

Free Agents

A hierarchical structure where employees are managed through clear levels of authority

Functional Organization

A vertically organized structure of power relationships, where the top level holds clear levels of authority.

Unites the different parts of the company, brings units in tune w/ company’s underlying principles, core purposes, goals, and objectives

Hierarchy

Horizontal coordination between functions, departments, and organizational activities

Integration

A design structure that facilitates horizontal integration and collaboration

Matrix Organization

A group of independent companies that organize themselves to appear as a larger entity

Network Organization

A visual document that communicates how a company is organized

Organizational Chart

A highly adaptive structure defined by horizontal integration, distributed decision making, and employees with a high degree of generalization

Organic Organization

The optimum number of direct reports that a person can manage effectively

Span of Control

Focusing a group or individual’s activities based on strengths, aptitudes, or skills

Specialization

A performance context where policies and procedures seek to create uniform results

Standardization

A work arrangement in which an employee is given flexibility in terms of work location; and often hours as well

Telecommuting

A philosophy that each employee is given reports to and is accountable to only one manager

Unity-of-Command Principle

A structure, characterized by hierarchical authority and communication channels

Vertical Organization Structure

A group of employees who work across barriers consisting of time, distance, and organizational boundaries, while being linked together by information and communication technologies

Virtual Team

*What is the opposite of ORGANIC?

Mechanistic

*Example of Vertical Approach

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Chief of Police–>Captain–>branches off into three different divisions–>each division branches off into more specific roles

*Authority, Chain of Command, Corporate Governance, Broker, Organization Chart, Network Organization, Unity-of-Command Principle—>These all relate to what approach???

*Vertical approach

*Decentralized Structure, Departmentalization, Functional Organization, Autonomy, Divisional Organization, Matrix Organization—>These are relate to what approach??

*Horizontal approach

*____________ is a system of tasks, reporting relationships, and communication that links people and positions within an organization

Organizational Structure

*____________ describes the ___________ __________ of how an org should ideally work as designed

Organizational chart, formal structure

*1. Division of work
2. Supervisory relationships
3. Span of control
4. Communication channels
5. Major sub units
6. Staff positions
7. Levels of management

7 Parts of an Organizational Chart

*______________ _____________ group people with similar skills into the same department. (Also known as departmentalization)

Functional Structures

*________________ _______________ group together people who work on similar products, work in same geographical region, serve same customers, or perform same process.

Divisional Structures

*Focus/purpose of Functional Structures?

Cost EFFICIENCY

*Focus/purpose of Divisional Structures?

EFFECTIVENESS

*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of–>
1. Expertise focused on division (products, customers, regions, process)
2. Coordination across functions within divisions
3. Problem solving for product or service delivery

Advantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of—>
1. Expertise focused functional skills (accounting, HR, etc.)
2. Training within functions promotes skill development
3. Efficient use of human resources

Advantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Inefficiencies from duplication of resources
2. Poor communication across divisions
3. Achieve divisional goals instead of organizational goals

Disadvantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Poor communication across departments
2. Poor problem solving for product or service delivery

Disadvantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

*What type of decision making is characterized by top management keeping strong control w/ formal authority and formal rules?

Centralized Decision-Making

*What type of decision making is characterized by being distributed throughout the organization using informal authority and informal rules?

Decentralized Decision-Making

*What type of org is characterized by formal authority and mechanistic design?

Vertical/Rigid Organization

*What type of org is characterized by informal authority and organic design?

Horizontal/Adaptive Organization

^Traditionally, organizational power structures were…. democratic, horizontal, autocratic, or collaborative?

Autocratic

^Why must orgs strike a balance between differentiation and integration in creating an org structure…… to ensure managers have absolute control/responsibility, to allow the organization to adapt to changing environments, to spread responsibility among all employees regardless of rank, or to facilitate positive relations between workers/managers?

To allow the organization to adapt to changing environments

^The degree of integration in an org structure directly corresponds to the degree of ___________ in it. Efficiency, unity, autonomy, or coordination?

Coordination

^As a company grows/branches into divisions, what should be ensured for a successful transition of its org structure to compensate for continued unity?….. Delegation of power and authority to staff, formalization of specific jobs/functions, coordination of a company’s functions/operations, or standardization of policies and procedures?

Standardization of policies and procedures

^A managers span of control concerns…. their hierarchical rank within the org, the number of subordinates that report to a manager, the duties a manager is delegated, or the overall time the manager has been at the company?

The number of subordinates that report to a manager

^Which describes a vertical org structure…. Balanced, decentralized, diffuse, hierarchical?

Hierarchical

^Good corporate governance…. promotes good relations w/ management and subordinates, prevents power from being too centralized, ensures the chain of command is respected, or ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled?

Ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled

^What the Unity-of-Command Principle prevent…. accountability/transparency, disorganization/confusion, centralization of authority, or ethical breakdowns/lapses?

Disorganization and confusion

^Network organizations allow for…

Independent companies to more easily work with each other

^How does a decentralized structure differ from a centralized structure?…. There are no chains of command for employees to follow, all employees are expected to collect/communicate info, org structures change frequently to meet emerging needs, or all employees share equal power and authority in decision making?

All employees are expected to collect/communicate info

^Departmentalization aims to group processes and jobs based most on…. efficiency, authority, similarity, or productivity?

Similarity

^What type of organization would benefit a company that seeks high levels of collaboration between departments but w/ clear chains of command?…. Bureaucratic, divisional, matrix, or functional?

Matrix

^In a divisional org, decision-making authority is typically ___________ than in a function organization. Less autonomous, more diffuse, more centralized, or less shared?

More diffuse

^What benefit do adaptive approaches provide organizations?… They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works,
they allow for considerable autonomy among diff divisions while providing high levels of accountability,
they provide significant centralization of authority while diffusing responsibility,
or they provide orgs w/ the ability to rapidly transform their chain of command while retaining high degree of authority?

They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works

^Accountability depends on ___________. Leadership, transparency, skill, or autonomy?

Transparency

^Primary benefit of a company that allows employee telecommuting?… Prevents ethical breakdowns, provides high degree of flexibility, reinforces transparency, or increases profits by reducing worker costs?

Telecommuting provides a high degree of flexibility

^Free agents are _________ workers. Salaried, permanent, contract, or part-time?

Contract

^Which of these should the manager of a virtual team do to reduce barriers?…. Carefully select team members that are social and extroverted, organize team by setting defined goals for each member and allowing them to work autonomously, use information and communication technology, or plan face-to-face team-building meetings?

Use information and communication technology

 

Which of the following is NOT a part of planning?

Conducting Meetings

PERT is an acronym for what?

Program evaluation and review technique

Which of the following is NOT a part of the PERT chart?

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NOTA – PERT includes a most pessimistic time, a most optimistic time, time expected, and a most probable time.

What theory states ” organizational change is inevitable and that organizations and people within the organization have no other choice except following natural law?”

The Mechanistic theory

Which of the following theories argues that the effect of studying something/someone changes the effects of the study.

Hawthorne effect theory

Which of the following theories determines interdependence of variables

The systems theory. The systems theory deals with interdependence instead of independence of variables and their interactions.

Which is the second stage of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

Safety

When something is measurable in number it is…

Quantitative

Who is considered to be the father of modern management?

Peter Drucker

Who completed a study on the fastest and most efficient way to do a job?

Frank Gilbreth. Frank and Lillian Gillbreth did a study on the most efficient way to do a job.

________________ is a way to show a time needed to complete a long or complicated project.

Gantt chart. A Gantt chart is used to show who will be working on or different stages of a project and the time each step takes.

Which person created the five management functions?

Henry Fayol – 1. Planning 2. Organizing 3. Commanding 4. Coordinating 5. Controlling

LPC stands for…

Least preferred co-worker (Fiedler’s contingency theory)

Which of the following are the levels of management?

Technical, interpersonal and conceptual

Your company needs to hire more people. Using the Affirmative action program who is your priority.

Hire towards the quota determined by your HR department.

Which of the following is considered a pioneer in management theory?

Mary Parker Follet. This woman from the late 1800’s wrote many books on management theory, and human relations. She also worked as a speaker and volunteer social worker.

Which of the following terms illustrates the order of authority in an organization?

Chain of command

In Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory, the hygiene refers to what?

Dissatisfiers.

When you find the answer to your problem but settle for something else is an example of the

Bounded rationality model

When you choose the solution that has the greatest benefit for you

Econological model

Which of the following people was associated with the Hawthorne Effect Study?

Elton Mayo. Elton Mayo is also considered the founder of the Human Relations Movement.

If you are an authoritarian, you ascribe to

Theory X

Which of the following is considered the father of strategic planning?

Chester Barnard

Which of the following developed the Acceptance theory?

Chester Barnard

A manager who believes that all people are valuable and want to contribute to their best ability you ascribe to which theory…

Theory Y

Which of the following is NOT a contributor to an employee’s attitude?

Education – generally not considered a contributor to an employee’s attitude.

When someone is producing at standard it is called

Norm

Who created the contingency theory?

Fred Fiedler

What standard is the following ” Giving monetary values to realized sales? ”

Revenue standard

What standard is the following “monetary value for the cost of operations, such as machine-hour-cost, cost of material per unit, cost of labor per unit, cost per unit of sales, etc…

Cost standard

What standard is the following “quantified standards at the operating level. Products produced in numbers, in value, material used in weightage and value, labor employed in house and in value, services rendered in value, etc…

Physical standard

What are Henry Mintzberg’s four classifications of organization?

Simple – complex – stable – dynamic

A good TQM program does NOT include…

A method with alternatives to solutions.

What is NOT a protected Title VII class?

Sexual preference

What is NOT an example of traditional authority?

Secretary

Which of following is responsible for ensuring employee safety?

OSHA

Which of the following is NOT a way to deal with risk?

Deflecting

Which of the following is an example of environmental stress?

Construction noise

Which of the following is an example of Maslow’s first level of needs?

Food

Which is the second stage of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

Safety needs

When you choose the best action for each situation

Situational leadership

When a supervisor asks for opinions in making decisions

Participative leadership

What is a function of the Worker Unions

Negotiate pay

Which of the following is an example of Maslow’s third level of needs?

Love

What is NOT a part of a training program?

Promotion

Which of the following is an industry commonly known to have line employees?

Automotive

Hands off leadership is also called…

Laissez faire leadership

Which of the following tells employees and others what is the main purpose of the company is…

Mission statement

A policy can be defined as a _________________ action course that serves as a guide for the identified and accepted objectives and goals.

Predefined

A totalitarian leader

Autocratic leadership

The way that people communicate with each other using their bodies…

Body language

Leadership characteristics that inspire employees is called

Charisma

Agreement of members of a group on a decision is called

Consensus

Leaders that use a group ideas to make decisions

Trait

Which is NOT a factor that influences the favorableness of a leader?

Charisma level

A billboard is an example of…

One-way communication

Leaders that give the group total freedom

Laissez-faire

Which of the following is NOT a communication pattern?

Arc

When someone receives too much information and cannot tell what is important from what is not it is called…

Overload

When someone deliberately tampers with a message, leaving out information, it is called…

Omitting

Which of the following is NOT a supervisory function?

Marketing

Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic reward?

Raise

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If a plant manager is tasked to reduce costs by 10% this is an example of what kind of goal?

Operational

Which of the following shows the relationship between employees and their peers?

Organizational chart

Which of the following shows alternate paths for decision making?

Decision tree

when a supervisor administers a questionnaire among participants that have never met it is called…

Delphi technique

Which of the following shows timelines for projects?

Gantt chart

Who created Theory X and Theory Y

Douglas McGregor

When two groups of individuals work together to resolve a problem it is called

Negotiation

What is it called when a third party is facilitating negotiations?

Mediation

An employee that works on an assembly line performing the same task again and again is an example of

Job specialization

Two receptionists work at Widget Inc; one in the morning and one in the afternoon. they are an example of….

Job sharing

When a person acts as expected as part of the group they are portraying their…

Role

Who first studied job motions with bricklayers, studying how fewer hand motions made the work faster?

Frank Bilbreth

What is it called when a third party is empowered to resolve a disagreement…

Arbitration

Who was a proponent of bureaucracy?

Max Weber

Which of the following can NOT be discussed in a job interview?

Children

Which of the following was NOT one of Edward Deming’s suggestions?

Decrease the number of employees. Deming believed that most production problems stemmed from inefficient management practices, not employee problems.

The grapevine of the organization is everything BUT…

Formal

What does ERG stand for

Existence Relatedness Growth – The ERG theory is so named for its three levels.

When a supervisor believes that all employees like work it is called….

Theory Y

Which of the following describes the break even point?

Expenses – profits = 0

This scientific study originally tested worker’s output and light, later revealing unintended consequences.

Hawthorne effect

Which of the following types of discrimination does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 NOT ban?

Religion – Race – Nationality – Gender : All of these are addressed by the Civil Rights Act of 1964

Referent power is the same as

Charismatic leadership

Which of the following describes chain of command?

The hierarchy through which decisions are made, responsibility lie, and power flows. The chain of command emphasizes the vertical structure of an organization, or in other words the relationships between leaders and subordinate.

Legitimate power is the same as…

Traditional leadership

What is meant by the statement “you can delegate authority but not responsibility?”

Managers have the right to delegate assignments and projects to other people, but the responsibility will always lie with them.

Regarding sexual harassment which of the following is NOT true

Harasser must be a superior employee

Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of managerial roles?

Conceptual roles.

Who created a system of human needs and motivations

Abraham Maslow

Which of the following describes management information systems?

Programs which are used to help managers work and organize more efficiently

Long term success through customer satisfaction

TQM

Which of the following is NOT a step in the decision making process according to Hebert Simon?

Identify. Identification of the problem occurs in the intelligence stage.

Who was responsible for developing the 14 principles of management.

Henry Fayol

Which of the following does the Upstream Capital Costs Index NOT track

Opportunities. However this is a factor of SWOT analysis.

Which of the following are barriers to making decisions?

Statistics – Lack of statistics – Emotions

An employee knows that if they do well on a presentation they will receive a promotion which they want more than anything else. They believe that there is an 85% chance that they will do well on the presentation. According to Vroom’s Expectancy Thoery, what is their motivation level?

.85

Which of the following is NOT a type of resistance

Biological

What is a correct interpretation of the two factor model in context.

A person becomes happy with their job when they feel responsibility and accomplishment.

The organizational structure where organizations are divided by products or divisions

Product

Who does performance appraisals?

Managers or supervisors. Performance appraisals are used to determine an employee’s efficiency and abilities. It may result in a raise if the employee is doing well, or being fired or sent to additional training if they do poorly.

Who believed that managers make decisions based on their assumptions of human nature?

McGregor

Which of the following is a job description?

A listing of what a job includes such as tasks, duties and responsibilities.

When an interest in the people’s problems affects the outcome, not the changes themselves, it is known as…

Hawthorne effect

What are the six level of management according to Henri Fayol?

Forecasting – Planning – Organizing – Commanding – Coordinating – Controlling

Factor that always stays the same

Constant

Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualities a good manager should possess?

Diagnostic skills are not necessary. However Conceptual – Technical – Interpersonal are important.

Information that is difficult to measure is called

Qualitative

A flat organization is an organization with

A low number ( if any ) of mid level management positions. this way the top level management comes into direct contact with the low level employees.

If you believe that all people are good – you ascribe to this school of thought

Humanistic

Which of the following describes the difference between line and staff positions?

Line positions are directly involved in creating profit, whereas staff positions do the maintenance or supporting jobs. Line positions would be involved in manufacturing the sales, whereas staff positions involve payrolls or other supporting types of jobs.

Standards or principles

Values

Which of the following describes budget?

A plan for how money will be used effectively. A budget helps to organize and track the flow of money in a company.

Which of the following is NOT a factor with job satisfaction?

Vacation location

Which of the following is an open system

A clothing store which operates in a busy mall

An advertisement company

Both of these companies must directly interact and respond to occurrences in the market.

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When a person responds to a neutral stimulus __________ _______________is being used.

Classical conditioning

Which theory advocates increasing production by breaking down production into simplified processes?

Taylorism. Taylor encouraged breaking jobs from complex processes into step-by-step patterns of production.

Clayton Alderfer created his ERG theory based on the work of which theorist?

Abraham Maslow. Alderfer wanted to revise Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to match empirical research.

Which of the following acts guarantees the right of workers to form unions?

National Labor Relations Act. The formation of unions also allows workers to engage in collective bargaining.

When you are a secretary and there are seven levels between your role and the CEO, your organization is considered to be.

Tall

Which of the following best describes the glass ceiling

A theoretical barrier which stops women and minorities from advancing in business areas. For example, statistics show that even when women and men have equal qualifications, it is more often the man who receives the job.

The CEO of a major corporation giving a talk show interview is an example of…

Public Relations

Management Theory: Empirical/Case Approach

The experience of past situations guide the present. Find out why an action succeeded or failed by analyzing the basic reasons.

Management Theory: Interpersonal Behavior Approach

Understanding people and relationships. If people were understood perfectly, reaching organizational goals would not be difficult.

Management Theory: Group Behavior Approach

Work in groups rather than in isolation. The study of how behavior patterns in groups affect production.

Management Theory: Cooperative Social Systems Approach

Propounded by Christian Barnard, it is the cooperative interaction of thoughts, ideas, wants, and desires of two or more people.

Management Theory: Sociotechnical Systems Approach

Credited to E.L. Trist, this approach seeks to emphasize the systems aspect of group behavior.

Management Theory: Decision Theory Approach

A manager’s most important function is decision making and therefore decisions should be the central focus. All other functions of a manager are built around decisions.

Management Theory: Systems Approach

Management is a system, which envelops within itself many subsystems, all operating within the total environment.

Management Theory: Mathematical or Management Science Approach

Mathematical models forms part of this theory. Each situation is fraught in terms of available mathematical models and then analyzes the situation thereby arriving at a mathematically correct decision.

Management Theory: Contingency or Situational Approach

Any manager’s performance is directly related to a set of given circumstance or contingency. Some theorist also feel that it takes into account not only situations but also on the behavior.

Management Theory: Managerial Roles Approach

Propounded by Professor Henry Mintzberg. Observing what other managers do, then using such observations as a platform for analyzing and concluding on the basis of such analysis.

Management Theory: Operational Approach

Imparting knowledge from every other field of knowledge such as sociology, mathematics, economics, psychology etc…

Economic Environment

Availability of capital, rate of interest, labor availability and how well things are organized, general price levels, the degree of productivity, the willingness of entrepreneurs and availability of managerial skills.

Technological Environment

How good the available knowledge is used through technology is a factor to reckon with. How to conceive ideas, how to design, how to produce optimally, how to effect efficient distribution and how well marketing is done, are technology oriented.

Social Environment

Value systems unique to particular group of people or society. The value system consists of attitudes, behavior patterns, needs, wants, expectations, level of education, the degree of intelligence, general beliefs, customs and traditions.

Political and Legal Environment

Laws, rules, regulations, governmental policies that affect an organization.

Ethical Environment

Holding on to moral principles of what is right and what is wrong, guided by value systems prevalent in society and generally behaving in a responsible way.

 

 

Management Theories

Scientific management theory
(Adam Smith; Frederick W. Taylor; Gilbreths)
Administrative management theory
(Max Weber; Henri Fayol)
Behavioral management theory
(Mary Parker Follett)
Management science theory
Organizational environment theory

Scientific Management Theory

popular theory in the early 1900s, concerned primarily with the “best” method and “right” wage for a job
Adam Smith: found that the performance of the factories in which workers specialized in only one or a few tasks was much greater than the performance of the factory in which each worker performed all pin-making task.
Job specialization and the division of labor

Job Specialization

The process by which a division of labor occurs as different workers specialize in different tasks over time

Job specialization and the division of labor

Separation of activities into distinct tasks and assigning these to different people.

Scientific Management

The systematic study of relationships between people and tasks for the purpose of
redesigning the work progress to increase efficiency.

Scientific management 4 principles

Study the way workers perform their tasks, gather all the informal job knowledge that workers posses, and experiment with ways of improving how tasks are performed.
Codify the new methods of performing tasks into written rules and standard operating procedures
Carefully select workers who posses skills and abilities that match the needs of the task, and train them to perform the task according to the established rules and procedures
Establish a fair or acceptable level of performance for a task, and then develop a pay system that rewards performance above the acceptable level.

Scientific management Problems

Managers frequently implemented only the
increased output side of Taylor’s plan
(Workers did not participate in the increased output;Managers increased the amount of work that each worker has to do)
Simplified jobs were often monotonous and repetitive , and many workers became dissatisfied with their jobs
Workers learned that performance increases often resulted in fewer jobs and layoffs. Workers slowed their pace of work.
Moving conveyor belts controls the pace of work.

Scientific management
Lillian and Frank Gilbreth

Aims
analyze every individual action necessary to perform a particular task and break it into
each of its component actions
find better ways to perform each component action
reorganize each of the component actions so that the action as a whole could be performed more efficiently
Findings
Often the management of work setting became a game between workers an managers: mangers tried to increase performance and workers tried to hide the true potential efficiency.

Administrative management theory

the study of how to create an organizational structure and control system that leads to high efficiency and effectiveness

Principles of Bureaucracy

hierarchical authority, job specialization, formalized rules
Max Weber (1864 – 1920)
a system of organization and administration designed to ensure efficiency and effectiveness

Weber’s principles of bureaucracy

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In a bureaucracy, a manager’s formal authority derives from the position he or she holds in the organization
In a bureaucracy, people should occupy positions because of their performance, not because of their social standing or personal contacts
The extent of each position’s formal authority and task responsibilities, and its relationship to other positions in an organization, should be clearly specified
Authority can be exercised effectively in an organization when positions are arranged hierarchically, so employees know whom to report to and who reports to them
Managers must create a well-defined system of
rules, standard operating procedures (SOP), and norms so they can effectively control behavior within an organization

Rules

formal written instructions that specify actions to be taken under different circumstances to achieve specific goals

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

specific sets of written instructions about how to perform a certain aspect of a task

Norms

Unwritten, informal codes of conduct that prescribe how people should act in particular situations and are considered important by most members of a group or an organization

Fayol’s Principles of Management

Division of labor, authority and responsibility, unity of command, line of authority, centralization, unity of direction, equity, order, initiative, discipline, remuneration of personnel, stability of tenure of personnel, subordination of individual interest to the common interest, esprit de corps

Behavioral Management Theory

the study of how managers should behave to motivate employees and encourage them to perform at high levels and be committed to the achievement of organizational goals

Focus of Scientific Management

the relationship between worker and task to increase efficiency

Focus of Administrative Management

to create an organizational structure and control system that leads to efficiency and effectiveness

The focus of of behavioral management

how managers should behave to motivate employees and encourage them to perform at high levels and be committed to the achievement of organizational goals

Mary Parker Follett (1868 – 1933) Concerns

She was concerned that Taylor ignored the
human side of the organization.
Taylor never proposed that managers
should involve workers in analyzing their
jobs to identify better ways to perform.

Human Relations Movement The Hawthorne Studies

a management approach that advocates the idea that supervisors should receive behavioral training to manage subordinates in ways that elicit their cooperation and increase their productivity

Mary Parker Follett (1868 – 1933)
radical propositions:

Authority should go with knowledge. If workers have the relevant knowledge of a task, then they should control the task.
Managers in different departments communicate directly with each other (cross-functioning).
The power is fluid and should flow to the person who can best help the organization achieve its goals (horizontal view of authority)

Elton Mayo (1880 – 1949) –
The Hawthorne Studies

Many factors such as level of illumination, wall
color etc. influence workers behavior and
resulted to increased workers performance.
Just because workers joined increased
management attention their work performance
increased.
Manager’s behavior or leadership approach can
affect workers’ level of performance (Hawthorne
effect)

Implication of the studies The Hawthorne Studies

The studies demonstrated the importance of understanding how the feeling, thoughts and behavior of work-group member and
managers affect performance.
Behavior of managers and workers in the work setting is as important in explaining the level of performance as the technical aspects of the tasks

Theory X and Theory Y (Douglas McGregor)

  1. X: assumes people do not like to work and want to be led
    ii. Y: assumes people are willing to work and can be creative
    iii. If a manager holds to one or the other approaches – X or Y – then a self-fulfilling
    prophecy can occur: people will do what the boss wants them to do

Management Science Theory e.g.

An approach to management that uses rigorous quantitative techniques to help managers make maximum use of organizational resources.
Quantitative management
Operations management
Total quality management (TQM)
Management information systems (MIS)

Quantitative Management

utilizes mathematical techniques, like linear programming, modeling, simulation and chaos theory

Management Information Systems (MIS)

Help managers design systems that provide information that is vital for effective decision making

Operations Management (OM)

Provides managers a set of techniques they can use to analyze any aspect of an organization’s production system to increase efficiency

Total Quality Management (TQM)

Focuses on analyzing an organization’s input, conversion, and output activities to increase product quality.

Organizational environment theory

the set of forces and conditions that operate beyond an organization’s boundaries but affect a manager’s ability to acquire and utilize resources

Open Systems Theory

the assumption that organizations are systems that interact with their environments to obtain esources or inputs and transform them into outputs returned to the environment for consumption

input stage: obtain input from environment
conversion stage: transform input and add value
output stage: release output to environment

Contingency Theory

based on the premise that a leader’s effectiveness is contingent on the extent to which a leader’s style fits or matches characteristics of the situation at hand

Characteristics of environment determine the design of an organizational structure and control systems

mechanistic vs organic structure

mechanistic structure

An organizational structure in which authority is centralized, tasks and rules are clearly specified, and employees are closely supervised.

organic structure

an organizational structure in which authority is decentralized to middle and first-line managers and tasks and roles are left ambiguous to encourage employees to cooperate and respond quickly to the unexpected

Characteristics of management
Organizations

Collections of people who work
together and coordinate their
actions to achieve a wide variety of
goals or desired future outcomes.

Managers

The people responsible for supervising and making the most of an organization’s human and other resources to achieve its goals.

What is management?

The planning, organizing, leading, and controlling of human and other resources to achieve organizational goals effectively and efficiently

Henri Fayol (1841 – 1925)

Mangement consist of five functions:
organizing, commanding, coordinating and controlling

Mary Parker Follett (1868 – 1933)

The art of getting things done through people

Planning

determining organizational goals and a means for achieving them
Deciding which goals the organization will achieve
Deciding what strategies to adopt to attain those
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goals
Deciding how to allocate organizational resources
to pursue the strategies that attain those goals

planning result

Strategy, a cluster of decisions about what goal(s)
to pursue, what actions to take and how to use
resources to achieve goals

Organizing

Structuring working relationships in a way that allows organizational members to work together to achieve oganizational goals
It involves grouping people into departments
according to the kinds of job-specific tasks they
perform
Lays out the lines of authority and responsibility
between individuals and groups
Decide how to organize resources, particulary human resources

organizing result

Organization structure, a formal system of
task and reporting relationships, that coordinates
members to achieve goals

Leading

Articulating a clear vision and energizing and enabling organizational members so they understand the partthey play in achieving organizational goals
Leadership involves manager using their power,
personality, influence, persuasion, and communication skills to coordinate people and groups so their activities and efforts are in harmony
It revolves around encouraging all employees to perform at a high level to help the organization achieve its vision and goals

leading result

Highly motivated and committed workforce

Controlling

Evaluating how well an organization is achieving its
goals and taking action to maintain or improve
performance

Controlling how to?

To exercise control, mangers must decide which
goals to measure and then the must design control
systems that will provide the information necessary to assess performance

Controlling result

the ability to measure performance accurately and regulate organizational efficiency and effectiveness.

Performing managerial tasks: Mintzberg’s typology

Decisional: Interpersonal: Informational:

Decisional Mintzberg’s typology

entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, negotiator

Interpersonal Mintzberg’s typology

concerning or involving relationships between people;
Figurehead; leader; liaison

Informational Mintzberg’s typology

monitor, disseminator, spokesperson

Organizational performance

A measure of how efficiently and effectively a manager uses resources to satisfy customers and achieve organizational goals.

efficiency and effectiveness

  1. Efficiency has to do with costs
    2. Effectiveness is synonymous with goal
    attainment

TERM

Efficiency

DEFINITION

using resources in such a way as to maximize the production of goods and services

A measure of how productively resources are used to achieve a companies goals

doing things right

LOCATION

TERM

Effectiveness

DEFINITION

A measure of the appropriateness of the goals an organization is pursuing and the degree to which the organization achieves those goals.

doing the right things

LOCATION

Middle Managers

implement the policies and plans of the top managers above them and supervise and coordinate the activities of the first-line managers below them

First-line managers (supervisors)

Responsible for the daily supervision of non-managerial employees

Three managerial skills

conceptual, human, technical

Conceptual skills needed by managers include

The ability to understand how parts of the organization work together.

The ability to analyze and diagonise a situation and to distinguish between cause and effect

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Human skills needed by managers include

The ability to understand, alter, lead and control the behavior of other individuals and groups

Technical skills needed by managers include

The job-specific knowledge and techniques required to perform an organizational role

core competency

a set of knowledge and skills that make the organization superior to competitors and create value for customers

Building blocks of competitive advantage

efficiency, innovation, quality, responsiveness to customers create a competitive advantage

Scientific Management Theory SMT

popular theory in the early 1900s, concerned primarily with the “best” method and “right” wage for a job

heads of Scientific management theory SMT

Adam Smith; Frederick W. Taylor; Gilbreths

heads of Administrative management theory

Max Weber; Henri Fayol

heads of Behavioral management theory

Mary Parker Follett

Management Science Theory

Emphasizes rigorous quantitative techniques to help managers make maximum use of organizational resources to produce goods and services

What is the global environment?

Set of forces and conditions in the world outside the organization’s boundaries that affect the way it operates and shapes its behavior

-Changes over time
-Presents managers with opportunities and threats

Global organization

An organization that operates and competes in many different countries.
Operating i is uncertain and upredictable
because it is complex and changes constantly.

Task Environment

The set of forces and conditions that originate with suppliers, distributors, customers, and competitors and affect an organization’s ability to obtain inputs and dispose of its outputs because they influence managers daily.

General environment

The wide-ranging global, economic, technological, sociocultural, demographic, political, and legal forces that affect an organization and its task environment.

Suppliers

individuals and organizations that provide an organization with the input resources it needs to produce goods and services

Input Resources

Human: labor and skills
Materials: food and supplies
Facilities: space and equipment
Operational: money, time, utilities, and information

Global outsourcing

The purchase or production of inputs or final products from overseas suppliers to lower costs and improve product quality or design.

Task Environment includes

includes entities that directly affect a firm on a constant basis and include competitors, suppliers, distributers and customers

Distributors

Organizations that help other organizations sell their goods or services to customers

Distributers threats

Powerful distributors can limit access to markets through its control of customers in those
markets.

Customers

Individuals and groups that buy the goods and services an organization produces

Competitors

companies in the same industry that sell similar products or services to customers

Forces in the global environment*

-the organization
-task environment
-general environment

Competitors
Barriers to entry

Factors that make it difficult and costly for an organization to enter a particular task environment of industry.

barriers to entry

Economies of scale (EOS); Brand loyalty; Government regulations

Economies of scale (EOS)

Economies of scale exist if average costs decrease as the size (scale) of the firm increases.
Cost advantages associated with large operations.

Government regulations

Government policies that create barriers to entry and limit imports of goods from companies abroad.

Michael Porter’s Five Forces Model

analyzes an organization, its position in the marketplace, and how information systems could be used to make it more competitive

The task environment
Possible opportunities and threats

Change in nature, number or type of suppliers (supplier as sole source? Supplier’s
input is key?)

General Environment

composed of dimensions in the broader society that influence an industry and the firms within it

Economic Forces (General Environment)

General economic conditions and trends: unemployment, inflation, interest rates, economic growth. This may affect an organization’s growth.

Technological Forces

outcomes of changes in the technology managers use to design, produce, or distribute goods and services

sociocultural forces

Pressures emanating from the social structure of a country or society or from the national culture

social structure

a pattern of organized relationships among groups of people within a society

National culture

the set of values that a society considers important and the norms of behavior that are approved or sanctioned in that society

Demographic forces

Outcomes of change in, or changing attitudes toward, the characteristics of a population, such as age, gender, ethnic origin, race, sexual orientation, and social class

Political and legal forces

Outcomes of changes in laws and regulations, such as deregulation of industries, privatization of organizations, and increased emphasis on environmental protection.

political and legal forces samples

Deregulation, privatization, and the removal of legal barriers to trade and many others are examples.

Brand loyalty

a favorable attitude toward and consistent purchase of a single brand over time
Customers’ preference for the products of organizations currently existing in the task
environment.

Globalization

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The set of specific and general forces that work together to integrate and connect economic, political, and social systems across countries,
cultures, or geographical regions so that nations become increasingly independent and similar

Michael Porter’s Five Forces*

Bargaining power of customers, threat of substitutions, bargaining power of suppliers, threat of new entrants, rivalry

The Changing Global Environment

In recent years there has been a marked shift toward a more open global environment in which capital flows more freely as people and companies search for new opportunities to create profit and wealth. This has hastened the process of globalization. Globalization is the set of specific and general forces that work together to integrate and connect economic, political, and social systems across countries, cultures, or geographic regions so that nations become increasingly interdependent and similar. The process of globalization has been furthered by declining barriers to international trade and investment and declining barriers of distance and culture.

Global Environment

The set of global forces and conditions that operates beyond an organization’s boundaries but affects a manager’s ability to acquire and utilize resources.

Global Environment eg

Human capital; Financial capital; Resource capital; Political capital

Human capital (changing global environment)

The flow of people around the world
through immigration, migration and emigration.

Resource capital (changing global environment)

The flow of natural resources, parts, and components between companies and countries, such as metals, minerals, lumber, energy, food
productions,microprocessors and
auto parts.

Political capital (changing global environment)

The flow of power and influence around the world using diplomacy, persuasion, aggression and force of arms to protect the right or access of a country, world region, or political bloc to the other forms of capital.

Free-Trade Doctrine

The idea that if each country specializes in the production of the goods and services that it can produce most efficiently, this will make the best use of global resources

GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade)

Member countries accept the free-trade doctrine with the goal of the removal of barriers to
the free flow of goods, services and capital between countries.

Effects of free trade on managers(the changing global environment)

opened enormous opportunities for managers to expand the market for their goods and services.

Allowed mangers to buy and sell goods and services globally.

Increased intensity of global competition can result to a more dynamic and complex manager job.

National Culture

the set of shared values and beliefs that affects the perceptions, decisions, and behavior of the people from a particular country
National culture shapes individual behavior by specifying appropriate in and inappropriate behavior and interaction with others

building blocks of national culture

Values and Norms

Values:

Ideas of what a society believes to be good, right, desirable or beautiful. Values are more than a abstract concpets. People argue, fight or even die over values such as freedom or dignity.

Norms:

rules and expectations by which a society guides the behavior of its members Unwritten, informal codes of conduct that prescribes how people should act in particular situations and are considered important by most members of a group or organization

Individualism

A worldview that values individual freedom and self-expression and adherence to the principle that people should be judged by their individual achievements rather than by their social background.

Collectivism

A worldview that values subordination of the individual to the goals of the group and adherence to the principle that people should be judged by their contribution to the group.

Power distance

Degree to which societies accept the idea that inequalities in the power and well-being of their citizens are due to differences in individuals’ physical and intellectual capabilities and heritage

Financial capital (changing global environment)

The flow of money capital across world markets through overseas investments, credit, lending
and aid.

Achievement orientation

A worldview that values assertiveness, performance, success, and competition

Nurturing orientation

A worldview that values the quality of life, warm personal friendships, and services and care for the weak.

Uncertainty avoidance

the degree to which societies are willing to tolerate uncertainty and risk

Low uncertainty avoidance

cultures are easygoing, value diversity, and tolerate differences in personal beliefs and actions

High uncertainty avoidance

societies are more rigid and expect high conformity in their citizens’ beliefs and norms of behavior

Long-term orientation

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a worldview that values thrift and persistence in achieving goals

Short-term orientation

A worldview that values personal stability or happiness and living for the present.

Hofstede’s Model

Individualism/collectivism, distance, orientation, avoidance, time orientation

Decision Making Process

the process of making a choice or finding a solution

The process by which managers respond to
opportunities and threats by analyzing options and making determinations about specific organizational goals and course of action.

Decision making is central to being a manager,
and whenever managers engage in planning,
organizing, leading and controlling – their four
principles tasks – they are constantly making
decisions.

THE NATURE OF MANAGERIAL DECISION MAKING

Regardless of the specific decision a manager makes, the decision-making process is either
programmed or nonprogrammed

Programmed Decision Making

Routine, virtually automatic decision making that follows established rules or guidelines.
Rules or guidelines to be applied when certain situations occur.

nonprogrammed decision making

Nonroutine decision making that occurs in response to unusual, unpredictable opportunities and threats

Rules do not exist because the situation is unexpected or uncertain and managers lack the information they would need to develop rules to cover it

nonprogrammed decision making includes:

In the absence of decision rules mangers rely on their intuition or their make reasoned judgments
.

intuition

Feelings, beliefs, and hunches that come readily to mind, require little effort and information gathering and result in on-the-spot decisions.

Reasoned judgment

A decision that requires time and effort and results from careful information gathering, generation of alternatives, and evaluation of alternatives.

Classical Model of Decision Making

A prescriptive model of decision making that assumes the decision maker can identify and evaluate all possible alternatives and their consequences and rationally choose the most appropriate course of action.

Optimum decision

the most appropriate decision in light of what managers believe to be the most desirable consequences for the organization

Classical Model of Decision Making

A prescriptive approach – asserting that managers are logical, rational individuals who make decisions that are in the best interests of the organization – that outlines how managers should make decisions; also known as the rational model.

The administrative model of decision making

An approach to decision making that explains why decision making is inherently uncertain and risky and why managers usually make satisfactory rather than optimum decisions.

why information is incomplete

uncertainty and risk, ambiguous information, time constraints and information costs

Bounded Rationality Decision Making

Cognitive limitations that constrain one’s ability to interpret, process and act on information.

Decision made in the context of the environment- Need to gather enough information relevant to the problem context – may not be able to get all info

risk

The degree of probability that the possible outcomes of a particular course of action will occur.

Degree of uncertainty of return on an asset; in business, the likelihood of loss or reduced profit.

uncertainty

Unpredictability.

The probabilities of alternative outcomes cannot be determined and future outcomes are unknown.

Ambiguous Information

information that can be interpreted in multiple and often conflicting ways

satisfying model

Searching for and choosing an acceptable, or satisfactory, response to problems and opportunities, rather than trying to make
the best decision.

Six Steps in Decision Making

  1. Recognize the need for a decision
    2. Generate alternatives
    3. Assess alternatives
    4. Choose among alternatives
    5. Implement the chosen alternative
    6. Learn from feedback

Recognize the need for a decision

Sparked by an event such as environment changes.
Managers must first realize that a decision must be made.

generate alternatives

Managers must develop feasible alternative courses of action.

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If good alternatives are missed, the resulting decision is poor.
It is hard to develop creative alternatives, so managers need to look for new ideas.

Assess alternatives

consider all possible actions that can be taken to respond to the situation- including those that may seem difficult
What are the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative? Managers should specify
criteria, then evaluate.

Choose among alternatives

Rank the various alternatives and make a decision
Tendency is for managers to ignore critical information, even when available

Managers must be sure all the information available is brought to bear on the problem or issue at hand.

Implement Chosen Alternative

Managers must now carry out the alternative
Often a decision is made and not implemented

learn from feedback

Compare what happened to what was expected to happen. Explore why any expectations for the decision were not met. Derive guidelines that will help in future decision making.
Managers should consider what went right and wrong with the decision and learn for the future.
Without feedback, managers do not learn from experience and will repeat the same mistake over.

General criteria for evaluating possible courses of action

Cognitive Biases and Decision Making

Because of cognitive biases managers are caused by systematic errors.
Heuristics, Systematic errors

Heuristics in problem solving

-“rule of thumb”
– a rule that is generally, but not always, true that we can use to make a judgement in a situation

Rules of thumb that simplify decision making.

Systematic errors

errors that people make over and over and that result in poor decision making

Cognitive Biases and Decision Making

Prior hypothesis bias
Representativeness bias
Illusion of control
Escalating commitment

Managers must become aware of biases and their effects, and they must identify their own personal style of making decisions.

prior hypothesis bias

A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to base decisions on strong prior beliefs even if evidence shows that those beliefs are wrong.

representativeness bias

A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to generalize inappropriately from a small sample or from a single vivid event or episode.

Illusion of Control Bias

A source of cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to overestimate one’s own ability to control activities and events.

Escalating Commitment Bias

A source of cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to commit additional resources to a project even if evidence shows that the project is failing.

Group Decision Making

Because of the biases important organizational decisions are made by groups or teams of managers rather than by individuals.

Group Decision Making Advantages

Choices less likely to fall victim to biases.
Able to drawn on the combined skills, competencies and accumulated knowledge of
group members.
Improve ability to generate feasible alternatives.
Manager agree to cooperate
Higher probability that the implementation is successful.

Group decision making Disadvantages

Slow.
To achieve cooperation can be
difficult, due to different
interests and preferences.
Can be undermined by biases.

Groupthink

A pattern of faulty and biased decision making that occurs in groups whose members strive for agreement among themselves at the expense of accurately accessing information relevant to a
decision.

Usually occurs when group members rally around a central manager’s idea, and become blindly commit to the idea without considering alternatives. The group’s influence tends to convince each member that the idea must go forward

Devil’s advocacy and dialectical inquiry

devil’s advocacy:
present solution, critique solution, reassess solution (accept, modify, reject)

dialectical inquiry:
present two solutions, debate between two solutions, reassess (accept a or b, combine a and b)

Organizational learning

The process through which managers seek to improve employees’ desire and ability to understand and manage the organization and its task environment.

Learning organization (management sight)

An organization in which managers try to maximize the ability of individuals and groups to think and behave creatively and thus maximize the potential for organizational learning to take place.

learning organization (definition)

An organization skilled at creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge, and at modifying its behavior to reflect new knowledge and insights.

Senge’s five principles for creating a learning organization

develop personal mastery
build complex challenging mental models
promote team learning
build shared vision
encourage systems thinking

creativity

The ability to make or bring a new concept or idea into existence; marked by the ability or power to create.

individual creativity

Creativity results when employees have an opportunity to experiment, to take risk, and to make mistakes and learn from them

Group Creativity

Group-solving techniques that promote creative ideas and innovative solutions can be used:
brainstorming, nominal group technique
and the Delphi technique.

brainstorming and nominal group technique

A decision-making technique in which group members write down ideas and solutions, read their suggestions to the whole group, and
discuss and then rank the alternatives.

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Useful when an issue is controversial and
when different managers might be expected to champion different courses of action.

Delphi Technique

A decision-making technique in which group members do not meet face-to-face but respond in writing to questions posed by the group leader.

Written approach to creative problem solving.
Group leader writes a statement of the problem to which managers respond.

Questionnaire is sent to managers to generate solutions.

Team of managers summarizes the responses and results are sent back to the participants.

Process is repeated until a consensus is reached.

Entrepreneur

An individual who notices opportunities and decides how to mobilize the resources necessary to produce new and improved goods and services.

social entrepreneur

An individual who pursues initiatives and opportunities and mobilizes resources to address social problems and needs in order to improve society and well-being through creative solutions.

Characteristics of entrepreneurs

open to experience:
they are original thinkers and take risks
internal locus of control:
they take responsibility for their own actions
high self-esteem:
they feel competent and capable.
high need for achievement
they have a strong desire to perform challenging tasks and meet high personal standards of excellence.

Organizational Hierarchy R

Different approaches to selection are generally taken for filling positions at different levels in the organization

Intrapreneur

A manager, scientist, or researcher who works inside an organization and notices opportunities to develop new or improved products and better ways to make them.

Entrepreneurship and management

Frequently, founding entrepreneur lacks the skills, patience, and experience to engage in the difficult and challenging work of management

product champion

A manager who takes “ownership” of a project and provides the leadership and vision that take a product from the idea stage to the final customer.

Skunkworks

a group of intrapreneurs who are deliberately separated from the normal operation of an organization to encourage them to devote all their attention to developing new products

Employee Selection R

Goal is to match people with jobs and the company

properly done, selection can lead to improved productivity

Mismatches (under- or over-qualified persons) will likely lead to ineffective performance and turnover

Selection R

Process of choosing the individual best suited for particular position and organization from a group of applicants
Goal is to properly match people with jobs and organization
Selecting wrong person for any job can be costly

Selection Process Steps R

  1. screening applications and resumes
    2. testing and reviewing work samples
    3. interviewing candidates
    4. checking references and background
    5. making a selection

Preliminary Screening R

Removes obviously unqualified individuals
Benefit: Applicant may be qualified for another position with the firm

in employee selection, a review to eliminate those who obviously do not meet the position’s requirements

Review of Applications R

-Essential information is included and presented in a standardized format
-Application form must reflect firm’s informational needs and EEO requirements.
-Preprinted statements are usually included:
Certifies that information provided is accurate
Should state position is employment at will
Gives permission for background check

Review of resumes R

Résumé: Goal-directed summary of a person’s experience, education, and training developed for use in the selection process

Professional/managerial applicants often begin selection process by submitting résumé

Concept of relevancy is crucial in selling the applicant to the company

Résumés and Keywords R

Most large companies now use automated tracking systems

Résumés deviating from required style are ignored

Keywords: Job-related words or phrases used to search databases

Keyword résumé: Adequate description of job seeker’s characteristics and industry-specific experience using keyword terms

Selection Tests R

Reliable and accurate means of selecting qualified candidates

Cost is small in comparison

Identify attitudes and job-related skills that interviews cannot recognize

Potential Problems of Using Selection Tests R

Can do versus will do
Test anxiety
Legal liabilities

Characteristics of Properly Designed Selection Tests 1 R

Standardization: Uniformity of procedures and conditions of administering test

Objectivity: Everyone scoring a test obtains same results

Norms: Frame of reference for comparing applicant’s performance with that of others

Characteristics of Properly Designed Selection Tests 2 R

Reliability: Provides consistent results

Validity: Measures what it is supposed to measure (basic requirement)

Requirement for job relatedness: Must not have adverse impact on minorities, females, and individuals with backgrounds or characteristics protected under law

Test Validation Approaches R

Criterion-related validity: Comparing scores on selection tests to some aspect of job performance

Content validity: Includes certain tasks actually required by job

Construct validity: Measures certain traits or qualities important in performing job

employment tests 1 R

Achievement test: A test of current knowledge and skills

Cognitive Ability test: A test that determines general reasoning ability, memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability

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Aptitude test: A test of how well a person can learn or acquire skills or abilities

employment tests 2 R

Cognitive ability
Psychomotor abilities
Personality
Job knowledge
Work-sample
Unique types
genetic
graphoanalysis
polygraphs

Cognitive Ability Tests R

Measures individual’s ability to learn, as well as to perform a job

Form of IQ test

Helpful in identifying job candidates who have extensive knowledge bases

Psychomotor Abilities Tests R

Strength
Coordination
Dexterity
Miniaturization in assembly operations

personality tests R

Self-reported measure of:
Traits
Temperaments
Dispositions
Tap into softer areas, such as leadership, teamwork, and personal assertiveness

measure various aspects of personality, including motives, interests, values, and attitudes

Job Knowledge Tests R

Tests designed to measure a candidate’s knowledge of the duties of the job for which he or she is applying

Are commercially available

work sample testing R

Perform set of tasks representative of job
Job related
Produces high validity
Reduces adverse impact
More acceptable to applicants

Online Assessment R

Organizations increasingly are using the Internet to test applicants
Makes it faster and easier to process applications
Can check job applicants on their alleged
technical abilities

Assessment Centers R

Require candidates to perform activities similar to those on the job
Examples:
In-basket exercises
Management games
Leaderless discussion groups
Mock interviews

Unique Forms of Testing—Genetic Testing R

Tests performed to identify predisposition to inherited diseases, including cancer, heart disease, neurological disorders, and congenital diseases

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008—Designed to prohibit improper use of genetic information in health insurance and employment

Unique Forms of Testing—Graphoanalysis R

Many people view handwriting analysis in same context as psychic readings or astrology

In Europe, many employers use it to screen and place job applicants

Unique Forms of Testing—
Polygraph Tests R

Can confirm or refute application information

Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 severely limited use in private sector

employment interview R

Goal-oriented conversation where interviewer and applicant exchange information

Continues to be primary method used to evaluate applicants

At this point, candidates are assumed to be qualified

Interview Planning R

Physical location of the interview should be both pleasant and private
Develop a job profile based on job description/specification
Questions should be prepared that relate to the qualities needed

Content of the Interview R

Seek additional job-related information and examples of past job-related behaviors:
Occupational experience
Academic achievement
Interpersonal skills
Personal qualities

Provide information about:
Company
Job
Expectations

Types of Interviews R

structured and unstructured

Behavioral
Situational

unstructured interview R

An interview in which the question-answer sequence is spontaneous, open-ended, and flexible.

Encourages applicant to do much of the talking
Is often time consuming
Potential legal issues

structured interview R

involves asking each applicant the same job-related questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers

Increases reliability and accuracy by reducing subjectivity and inconsistency of unstructured interviews

behavioral interview R

Behavioral questions prompt applicants to relate actual incidents relevant to target job
Look for three main things:
Description of a challenging situation
What the candidate did about it
Measurable results
Example: Describe a situation where you were responsible for motivating others

situational interview R

a structured interview in which the interviewer describes a situation likely to arise on the job, then asks the candidate what he or she would do in that situation

Example: One of your employees has shown a significant decline in productivity. How would you handle it?

Methods of Interviewing 1 R

One-on-one interview: Applicant meets one-on-one with interviewer

Group interview: Several applicants interact in presence of one or more interviewers

Board interview: Several firm representatives interview candidate at same time

Multiple interviews: Applicants typically interviewed one-on-one by peers, subordinates, and supervisors

Methods of Interviewing 2 R

Video Interview: Involves an applicant being interviewed with both individuals being in different locations
Stress interview: Interviewer intentionally creates anxiety

Realistic Job Previews R

Provide both positive and negative job information to applicant in unbiased manner

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Convey information about tasks person would perform and behavior required to fit into organization’s culture

Potential Interviewing Problems R

Inappropriate questions
Permitting non-job-related information
Interviewer bias
Interviewer domination
Lack of training
Nonverbal communication

inappropriate questions R

Basic rule: Ask only job-related questions

Interview is a “test,” subject to same validity requirements as any other step in the selection process

Historically, interview has been more vulnerable to charges of discrimination than any other tool used in the selection process

Permitting Non-Job-Related Information R

If candidate begins volunteering personal information not related to job, interviewer should steer conversation back on course

Engaging in friendly chitchat with candidates might be pleasant

In our litigious society, it may be the most dangerous thing interviewer can do

interviewer bias 1 R

Interviewer makes assumptions about interviewee which may be incorrect and lets these biases influence the selection decision

Stereotyping bias: Occurs when interviewer assumes that applicant has certain traits because they are members of a certain class

Positive halo bias: Occurs when interviewer generalizes one positive impression feature of the candidate

interviewer bias 2 R

Horn error bias: Occurs where interviewer’s first impression of candidate creates a negative first impression that exists throughout interview

Contrast bias: Occurs when, for example, interviewer meets with several poorly qualified applicants and then confronts a mediocre candidate

Premature judgment bias: Interviewer makes judgment about candidates in first few minutes of interview

Interview illusion bias: Belief in ability was exaggerated

Interviewer Domination R

Relevant information must flow both ways

Interviewers must learn to be good listeners as well as suppliers of information

Lack of training R

Interview is much more than carrying on conversation with another person

Expense of training employees in interviewing skills can be easily justified

What does “Tell me about yourself” mean to a trained interviewer?

nonverbal communication R

Body language is nonverbal communication in which physical actions, such as gestures and facial expressions, convey thoughts and emotions

Avoid sending inappropriate or unintended nonverbal signals

concluding the interview R

When interviewer has obtained necessary information and answered applicant’s questions, he or she should conclude the interview

Tell applicant he or she will be notified of the selection decision shortly

Management must then determine whether candidate is suitable for the open position and organization

Pre-Employment Screening: Background Checks R

Determine accuracy of information submitted or determine if vital information was not submitted

Principal reason is to hire better workers
Background investigations involve obtaining data from various sources

Intensity of background investigations depends on the nature of the open position

Continuous Background Investigation R

Some employers are screening their employees on an ongoing basis

Financial devastation, marital collapse, or a medical crisis can send a person with a clean record over the edge

Continuous Background Investigation R

Background Investigation with Social Networking R

Increasingly being used to conduct background investigations

Use an applicant’s Facebook, LinkedIn, and postings made on an industry blog to find out about individuals they are considering hiring

Hiring Standards to Avoid R

Some standards used in background investigation have potential to violate equal employment opportunity and affirmative action laws
When HR management practices eliminate substantial numbers of minority or women applicants (prima facie evidence), the burden of proof is on the employer to show that the practice is job related
Examples: Criminal conviction and credit checks

Reference Checks R

Information from individuals who know applicant
Provide additional insight into information furnished by applicant
Verify accuracy of information
Possible flaw: Virtually everyone can name three or four individuals willing to make favorable statements
Many state laws shield employers from liability for harm to an ex-employee based on job references.
Two schools of thought:
Don’t tell them anything
Honesty is the best policy

Negligent Hiring R

Liability company incurs when it fails to conduct reasonable investigation of applicant’s background, and then assigns potentially dangerous person to position where he or she can inflict harm
Risk of harm to third parties requires a higher standard of care

Selection Decision R

Most critical step
Person whose qualifications most closely conform to requirements of open position and organization should be selected

Medical Examination R

Americans with Disabilities Act does not prohibit pre-employment medical examinations
Determines point at which they may be administered during selection process
Determines whether applicant is physically capable of performing the work

Notification to Candidates R

Results should be made known to candidates as soon as possible
Delay may result in firm losing prime candidate
Unsuccessful candidates should also be promptly notified

Environmental Factors Affecting the Selection Process R

Other HR functions
Legal considerations
Decision-making speed
Organizational hierarchy
Applicant pool
Type of organization
Probationary period
Organizational fit

Legal Considerations R

Greatly influenced by legislation, executive orders, and court decisions
Guiding principle: Why am I asking this question?
If information is job related, usually asking for the information is appropriate

Speed of Decision Making R

Time available to make the selection decision can have major effect on selection process
Conditions also can impact the needed speed of decision making

Applicant Pool and Selection Ratio R

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Applicant pool: Number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job
Selection ratio: Number of people hired for a particular job compared to number of people in the applicant pool

Type of Organization R

Private sector: Screen applicants with regard to how they can help achieve profit goals
Government civil service systems: Identify qualified applicants through competitive examinations
Not-for-profit organizations: Applicants must be qualified and dedicated to work

Probationary Period R

Period that permits evaluating an employee’s ability based upon performance
May be a substitute for certain phases of the selection process
Must be job related

Organizational Fit R

Management’s perception of the degree to which the prospective employee will fit in with the firm’s culture or value system
Poor fit—The chemistry was just not right

Selection Technology—
Applicant Tracking Systems R

Software application designed to help an enterprise select employees more efficiently
Permits managers to oversee the entire selection process
Compile job applications electronically
Quickly amass candidates
Set up interviews
Get new hires on board

Selection Technology:
Candidate Relationship Management R

Help manage potential and actual applicants in an organized manner
Capability to search the Internet, and then adds and catalogues resumes and other information to the database
Ability to link with other applicant tracking systems and any Web site

Selection in the Global Environment R

Country’s culture plays a major role in determining whether an executive will be successful or not
Majority of firms are deeply rooted in the culture of their home countries

Planning

Identifying and selecting appropriate goals and courses of action; one of the four principal tasks of management.

strategy

A cluster of decisions about what goals to pursue, what actions to take, and how to use resources to achieve goals.

Mission Statement

A broad declaration of an organization’s purpose that identifies the organization’s products and customers and distinguishes the organization from its competitors.

Three Steps in Planning

  1. determining the organization’s mission and goals
    2. formulating strategy
    3. implementing strategy

To perform the planning task, managers (3):

(1) Establish and discover where an organization is at the present time;
(2) Determine where it should be in the future, its desired future state;
(3) Decide how to move it forward to reach that future state.

Why planning is important

  1. Necessary to give the organization a sense of direction and purpose.
    2. Planning is a useful way of getting managers to participate in decision making about the appropriate goals and strategies for an organization.
    3. A plan helps coordinate managers of the different functions and divisions of an organization to ensure that they all pull in the same direction and work to achieve its desired future state.
    4. A plan can be used as a device for controlling managers within an organization.

An effective plan should have four qualities:

Unity
Continuity
Accuracy
Flexibility

Unity

means that at any time only one central, guiding plan is put into operation to achieve an organizational goal.

Continuity

means that planning is an ongoing process in which managers build and refine previous plans and continually modify plans at all levels – corporate, business, and functional – so they fit together in one broad framework

Accuracy

means that mangers need to make every attempt to collect and use all available information in the planning process.

Flexibility

the planning process should be flexible enough so plans can be altered and changed if the situation changes; managers must not be bound to a static plan.

division

business unit that has its own set of managers and departments and competes in a distinct industry.

Divisional managers

managers who control the planning and strategy for their particular divisions or unit.

Levels and Types of Planning

Corporate Level
Goal setting: Corporate Mission and Goals
Strategy Formulation: Corporate Level Strategy
Strategy Implementation: Design of Corporate structure control

Business Level
Goal setting Divisional Goals
Strategy Formulation: Business Level Strategy
Strategy Implementation: Design of Business Unit Structure Control

Functional Level
Goal setting: Functional Goals
Strategy Formulation: Functional Level Strategy
Strategy Implementation: Design of Functional structure Control

Corporate-level plan

Top management’s decisions pertaining to the organization’s mission, overall strategy, and structure.

Provides a framework for all other planning.

corporate level strategy

A plan that indicates in which industries and national markets an organization intends to compete.

Business-Level Plan

Divisional managers’ decisions pertaining to divisions’ long-term goals, overall strategy, and structure.

business level strategy

a plan that indicates how a division intends to compete against its rivals in an industry

Functional-Level Plan

Functional managers’ decisions pertaining to the goals that they propose to pursue to help the division attain its business-level goals

Functional Strategy

A plan of action to improve the ability of each of an organization’s functions to perform its task-specific activities in ways that add value to an organization’s goods and services.

Time Horizons of Plans

Long-term plans are usually 5 years or more.
Intermediate-term plans are 1 to 5 years.
Short-term plans are less than 1 year.

standing plans

plans developed for activities that occur repeatedly over a period of time

Are used in situations in which programmed decision making is appropriate.

single-use plans

plans that are developed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeated in the future

Polices

guidelines used in making consistent decisions

general guides to action

Rules (planning)

formal written instructions that specify actions to be taken under different circumstances to achieve specific goals

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formal written specific guides to action

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

specify an exact series of action to follow

Scenario Planning (Contingency Planning)

The generation of multiple forecasts of future conditions followed by an analysis of how to effectively respond to those conditions.

Defining the Business

Who are our customers?
What customer needs are being satisfied?
How are we satisfying customer needs?

Establishing Major Goals

Provides the organization with a sense of direction
Stretches the organization to higher levels of performance.
Goals must be challenging but realistic with a definite period in which they are to be achieved.

Formulating strategy

Step 1: Setting Strategic Goals
Step 2: Analyzing the Organization and the Environment: SWOT Analysis
Step 3: Matching the Organization and Its Environment

The development of a set of corporate, business and functional strategies that allow an organization to accomplish its mission and achieve it goals.

SWOT analysis

a planning tool used to analyze an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

corporate level strategy

A plan of action to manage the growth and development of an organization so as to maximize its long-run ability to create value

business level strategy

A plan of action to take advantage of favorable opportunities and find ways to counter threats so as to compete effectively in an industry

Functional-level strategy

A plan of action to improve the ability of each of an organization’s functions to perform its task-specific activities in ways that add value to an organization’s goods and services.

Michael Porter’s Five Forces Model

Buyer power
Supplier power
Threat of substitute products or services
Threat of new entrants
Rivalry among existing competitors

Business Level Strategies

low-cost leadership, differentiation and focus.

low-cost strategy

Driving the organization’s costs down below the costs of its rivals.

differentiation strategy

Distinguishing an organization’s products from the products of competitors on dimensions such as product design, quality, or after-sales service.

stuck in the middle

Attempting to simultaneously pursue both a low cost strategy and a differentiation strategy
Difficult to achieve low cost with the added costs of differentiation

focused low-cost strategy

Serving only one segment of the overall market and trying to be the lowest-cost organization serving that segment.

focused differentiation strategy

serving only one segment of the overall market and trying to be the most differentiated organization serving that segment

Principal Corporate-Level Strategies

  1. concentration on a single industry
    2. vertical integration
    3. diversification
    4. international expansion

Concentration in single industry

Organization uses its functional skills to develop new kinds of products or expand its locations.

Appropriate when managers see the need to reduce the size of their organizations to increase performance.

Vertical Integration

A strategy that involves a company expanding its business operations either backward into a new industry that produces inputs (backward vertical integration) or forward into a new industry that uses, distributes, or sells the company’s products
(forward vertical integration).

Diversification

A strategy of expanding a company’s operations into a new industry in order to produce new kinds of valuable goods or services.

related diversification

Strategy of entering a new industry and establishing a new business division that is linked to a company’s existing divisions because they share resources that will improve the competitive position.

unrelated diversification

Firms establish divisions or buy companies in new
industries that are not linked to their current business or industry.

Portfolio strategy: Apportioning resources among divisions to increase returns or spread risks.

Principal corporate-level strategies

  1. concentration on a single industry
    2. vertical integration
    3. diversification
    4. international expansion

International Expansion

Ask the fundamental question of international business: “To what extent do we customize our products for different national cultures, versus standardizing our products worldwide for global efficiency?”

Global Strategy

Undertaking very little customization to suit the specific needs of customers in different countries.

Standardization provides for lower production cost.

Ignores national differences that local competitors can address to their advantage.

Multidomestic strategy

customizing products and marketing strategies to specific national conditions

related diversification

a growth strategy whereby the current target market and/or marketing mix shares something in common with the new opportunity

Synergy

1 + 1 = 3

Possible when the value created by two divisions cooperating is greater than the value that would be created if the two divisions operated separately and independently

Four Ways to Expand Internationally

  1. Importing and exporting
    2. Licensing and franchising
    3. Strategic alliances, joint ventures
    4. Wholly owned foreign subsidiary

Exporting

producing goods in one country and selling them in another

Importing

selling at home products that are made abroad

Licensing

allowing a foreign organization to take charge of manufacturing and distributing a product in its country or world region in return for a negotiated fee

Franchising

selling to a foreign organization the rights to use a brand name and operating know-how in return for a lump-sum payment and a share of the profits

strategic alliance

managers pool resources with those of a foreign company

Organizations agree to share risk and reward

joint venture (strategic alliance)

with a foreign company to share the risks and rewards of starting a new enterprise together in a foreign country

wholly owned foreign subsidiary

managers invest in establishing production operations in a foreign country independent of any local direct involvement

Planning and implementing strategy

 

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  1. Allocate implementation responsibility to the appropriate individuals or groups.
    2. Draft detailed action plans for implementation.
    3. Establish a timetable for implementation
    4. Allocate appropriate resources
    5. Hold specific groups or individuals responsible for the attainment of corporate, divisional, and functional goals

Organizational architecture

The organizational structure, control systems, culture, and human resource management systems that together determine how efficiently and effectively organizational resources are used.

Organizing

a management function that includes designing the structure of the organization and creating conditions and systems in which everyone and everything work together to achieve the organization’s goals and objectives

organizational structure

a formal system of task and reporting relationships that coordinates and motivates organizational members so they work together to achieve organizational goals

organizational design

The process by which managers make specific organizing choices that result in a particular kind of organizational structure.

factors affecting organizational structure

organizational environment, strategy, technology, human resources

organizational environment

the set of forces and conditions that operate beyond an organization’s boundaries but affect a manager’s ability to acquire and utilize resources

organizational environment and Organizational Structure

The quicker the environment changes, the more problems face managers.

Structure must be more flexible (i.e., decentralized authority) when environmental change is rapid.

In contrast, if the external environment is stable, resources are readily available, and uncertainty is low, then less coordination and communication among people and functions are needed to obtain resources.

Strategy and Organizational Structure

Different strategies require the use of different structures.

A differentiation strategy needs a flexible structure,
low cost strategy may need a more formal structure.

Increased vertical integration or diversification also requires a more flexible structure.

Technology and Organizational Structure

The combination of (1) skills, (2) knowledge, (3) machines and (4) computers are used to design, make and distribute goods and services.

As a rule, the more complicated the technology that an organization uses, the more difficult it is to regulate or control it because more unexpected even can arise.

Technology can be measured by

Technology can be measured by:

Task variety is the number of new or unexpected
problems or situations that a person or function encounters in performing tasks or jobs.

Task analyzability is the degree to which programmed solutions are available to people or functions to solve the problems they encounter.

High task variety and low analyzability present many unique problems to managers.

Flexible structure works best in these conditions.

Low task variety and high analyzability allow managers to rely on established procedures.

Human resources and Organizational Structure

The more highly skilled its workforce, and the greater the number of employees who work together in groups or teams, the more likely an organization is to use a flexible, decentralized structure and a professional culture based on
values and norms that foster employee autonomy and self-control.

Flexible structures, characterized by decentralized authority and empowered employees, are well suited to the needs of highly skilled people.

Designing Organizational Structure

  1. How to group tasks into individual jobs
    2. How to group jobs into functions and divisions
    3. How to allocate authority and coordinate functions and divisions

Grouping tasks into jobs: Job Design

The process by which managers decide how to divide tasks into specific jobs

The appropriate division of labor results in an effective and efficient workforce.

job simplification

the process of reducing the number of tasks a worker performs

job enlargement

increasing the number of different tasks in a given job by changing the division of labor

job enrichment

increasing the number of tasks in a particular job and giving workers the authority and control to make meaningful decisions about their work

Job Enrichment factors

(1) Empowering workers to experiment to find new or better ways of doing the job.
(2) Encouraging workers to develop new skills.
(3) Allowing workers to decide how to do the work and giving them the responsibility for deciding how to respond to unexpected
situations.
(4) Allowing workers to monitor and measure their own performance.

Job Characteristics Model

skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback

skill variety

the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities

task identity

the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work

task significance

the degree to which a job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people

autonomy

independence

Employee has freedom to schedule tasks and carry them out

Feedback

the response to a message that a receiver sends back to a source

Worker gets direct information about how well the job is done

Designing organizational structure: Grouping jobs into functions and divisions:

leads to functional structure

functional structure

An organizational structure composed of all the departments that an organization requires to produce its goods or services.

function

Group of people, working together, who possess similar skills or use the same kind of knowledge, tools, or techniques to perform their jobs.

Functional Structure

  • Pooling of specialists enhances coordination and control within functions
    •Centralized decision making with a cross-functional perspective
    •Facilitates career paths in specialized areas

Functional Structure Advantages

Encourages learning from others doing similar jobs.
Easy for managers to monitor and evaluate workers.
Allows managers to create the set of functions they need in order to scan and monitor the competitive environment

Functional Structure Disadvantages

Difficult for departments to communicate with others.
Preoccupation with own department and losing sight of organizational goals.

Types of Divisional Structures

Product
Market
Geographical

Product, market and geographical structures

 

 

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An organizational structure composed of separate business units within which are the functions that work together to produce a specific product for a specific customer

Product Structure

An organizational structure in which each product line or business is handled by a self-contained division.

product structure Advantages

Allows functional managers to specialize in one product area
Division managers become experts in their area
Removes need for direct supervision of division by corporate managers
Divisional management improves the use of resources

Global Product Structure

Each product division, not the country or regional managers, takes responsibility for deciding where to manufacture its products and how to market them in foreign countries

Geographic Structure

An organizational structure in which each region of a country or area of the world is served by a self-contained division.

Divisions are broken down by geographic location

global geographic structure

Managers locate different divisions in each of the world regions where the organization operates

Generally, occurs when managers are pursuing a multi-domestic strategy.

market structure

An organizational structure in which each kind of customer is served by a self-contained division; also called customer structure.

Market Structure Advantage

Allows managers to be responsive to the needs of their customers and act flexibly in making decisions in response to customers’ changing needs

matrix structure

an organization combines functional and divisional chains of command in a grid so that there are two command structures-vertical and horizontal

Matrix Structure Advantages

-Increases market responsiveness, collaboration & synergies
-Allows more efficient utilization of resources
-Improves flexibility, coordination & communication
-Increases professional development

Matrix Structure Disadvantages

Creates additional organizational complexity
– Can slow decision-making
– Performance appraisals more difficult
– Increases admin costs

Difficult to implement
– Employees have trouble reconciling goals
– Multiple supervisors

product team structure

An organizational structure in which employees are permanently assigned to a cross-functional team and report only to the product team manager or to one of his or her direct subordinates.

authority

Coordinating functions and divisions

the power or right to give orders, make decisions, and enforce obedience.

The power to hold people accountable for their actions and to make decisions concerning the use of organizational resources

hierarchy of authority

Coordinating functions and divisions

An organization’s chain of command, specifying the relative authority of each manager

span of control

Coordinating functions and divisions

the number of subordinates who report directly to a manager

line manager

Coordinating functions and divisions

someone in the direct line or chain of command who has formal authority over people and resources at lower levels

staff managers

Coordinating functions and divisions

use special technical expertise to advise and support line workers

Someone responsible for managing a specialist
function, such as finance or marketing.

minimum chain of command

Coordinating functions and divisions

top managers should always construct a hierarchy with the fewest levels of authority necessary to efficiently and effectively use organizational resources

Tall structures

have narrow spans of control and many hierarchical levels

Tall structures Disadvantages

As hierarchy levels increase, communication gets difficult creating delays in the time being taken to implement decisions.

Communications can also become distorted as it is repeated through the firm.

Can become expensive.

Flat structures

have wide spans of control and few hierarchical levels

Flat structures situation

Structure results in quick communications but can lead to overworked managers

decentralizing authority

giving lower-level managers and non-managerial employees the right to make important decisions about how to use organizational resources

Works best in dynamic, highly competitive environment.

Teams may begin to pursue their own goals at the expense of organizational goals

Can result in a lack of communication among divisions

Centralizing authority

exists in an organization when all or most decisions and orders come from a centralized source, usually the members from the top levels of the organizational structure.

Stable environment favor centralization of authority

Managers should carefully evaluate:

Do the organization have the right number of middle managers?

Can the structure be altered to reduce levels?

Integration and coordinating mechanisms

liasion role
Task forces
Cross functional teams
Integrating roles and departments

liasion role

the interpersonal role managers play when they deal with people outside their units

task force

a temporary team or committee formed to solve a specific short-term problem involving several departments

cross-functional team

a team composed of employees from different functional areas of the organization

integrating roles and departments

senior managers provide members of cross-functional team with relevant information from other teams and from other divisions

organizational culture

The shared set of beliefs, expectations, values, and norms that influence how members of an organization relate to one another and cooperate to achieve organizational goals.

culture is influenced by

org. ethics
characteristic of org. members
employment relationship
organizational structure

Organizational ethics

The moral values, beliefs, and rules that establish the appropriate way for an organization and its members to deal with each other and with people outside the organization.

Adaptive cultures

values and norms help an organization to build momentum and to grow and change as needed to achieve its goals and be effective

Inert cultures

Those that lead to values and norms that fail to motivate or inspire employees
Lead to stagnation and often failure over time

 

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