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Use the knowledge you have accrued in this unit to write a reflective essay on the following topic:

What, in your opinion, is the importance of disequilibrium and how would the knowledge you have gained about disequilibrium and other key concepts in this unit help you in your career as an entrepreneur?

Length requirement: minimum of 1000 words.

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Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

If you are using assistive technology and are having difficulty accessing these sample questions

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

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A Life in Traffic

A subway system is expanded to provide service to a growing suburb. A bike-sharing program is adopted to encourage nonmotorized transportation. 1 To alleviate rush hour traffic jams in a congested downtown area, stoplight timing is coordinated. When any one of these changes 2 occur, it is likely the result of careful analysis conducted by transportation planners.

The work of transportation planners generally includes evaluating current transportation needs, assessing the effectiveness of existing facilities, and improving those facilities or 3 they design new ones. Most transportation planners work in or near cities, 4 but some are employed in rural areas. Say, for example, a large factory is built on the outskirts of a small town. Traffic to and from that location would increase at the beginning and end of work shifts. The transportation 5 planner’s job, might involve conducting a traffic count to determine the daily number of vehicles traveling on the road to the new factory. If analysis of the traffic count indicates that there is more traffic than the 6 current road as it is designed at this time can efficiently accommodate, the transportation planner might recommend widening the road to add another lane.

Transportation planners work closely with a number of community stakeholders, such as government officials and other interested organizations and individuals. 7 Next, representatives from the local public health department might provide input in designing a network of trails and sidewalks to encourage people to walk more. 8 According to the American Heart Association, walking provides numerous benefits related to health and well-being. Members of the Chamber of Commerce might share suggestions about designing transportation and parking facilities to support local businesses.

People who pursue careers in transportation planning have a wide variety of educational backgrounds. A two-year degree in transportation technology may be sufficient for some entry-level jobs in the field. Most jobs, however, require at least a bachelor’s degree; majors of transportation planners are 10 varied, including fields such as urban studies, civil engineering, geography, or transportation and logistics management. For many positions in the field, a master’s degree is required.

Transportation planners perform critical work within the broader field of urban and regional planning. As of 2010, there were approximately 40,300 urban and regional planners employed in the United States. The United States Bureau of Labor Statistics forecasts steady job growth in this field, 11 projecting that 16 percent of new jobs in all occupations will be related to urban and regional planning. Population growth and concerns about environmental sustainability are expected to spur the need for transportation planning professionals.

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Adapted from United States Bureau of Labor Statistics, Employment Projections Program. “All Occpuations” includes all occupations in the United States economy.

This research assignment requires students to explore background information for their project.

This assignment was provided by an AUS Psychology professor.

 Hypothesis Generation and Background Research

1) Generate a hypothesis describing behavior of some group or people in some context

2) Cite 3 empirical Journal articles that are relevant to your hypothesis:

The background research does not need to directly test your hypothesis (in fact, it’s better if it doesn’t), but it should have some implications for your hypothesis.

For each reference, use correct APA style and relevance of study to your hypothesis. Ensure that all references are empirical papers from peer-reviewed journals.

APA style takes the form:

Author, A. A., Author, B. B., & Author, C. C. (YEAR). Title of article. Title of Periodical, Vol, pp-pp.

Lawrie, Z., Sullivan, E. A., Davies, P. S. W., Hill, R. J. (2007). Body change strategies in children: Relations to age and gender. Eating Behaviors, 8,357-363.

Be sure to attend to capitalization, punctuation, and general form (the second line is indented, the journal title and volume number are italicized)

 

3) Generate a hypothesis predicting behavior

4) Cite 3 empirical Journal articles that are relevant to your hypothesis

The background research does not need to directly test your hypothesis (in fact, it’s better if it doesn’t), but it should have some implications for your hypothesis.

For each reference, 1 point for correct APA style and relevance of study to your hypothesis. Ensure that all references are empirical papers from peer-reviewed journals.

 

Assignment Notes:

Use APA style, and indicate clearly whether the library has access to the article. Be sure to check both PsycInfo and Journal finder to determine whether the library has either electronic or hardcopy access to each article.

Articles must be directly relevant to your topic and to one another. Be sure you conduct several searches and read, at a minimum, paper abstracts to ensure that articles are related to one another. Sets of articles which are not cohesive will be returned for additional research, and this will slow the process of locating any papers which require interlibrary loan. *DO NOT* simply conduct one search and list the first five articles listed.

This assignment is worth 5% of your paper grade. For the first five articles that you list, you will earn ½ point for proper APA style, and ½ point for relevance to your topic. You will lose ½ point for failing to correctly indicate whether the library has access to an article.

Please list your papers in order of interest/relevance to you as you will only be graded on the first 5 listed (this means that the reference do not need to be in alphabetical order, although they will be in the reference list you include at the end of your paper). If you include more than 5 articles, I can provide feedback on the likely relevance of each additional paper, although you will not earn points for them (in other words, I can help you choose the 5 papers most directly related to your topic).

 

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For an empirical, peer-reviewed article, APA style takes the form:

Author, F. M., Coauthor, F. M., & Collaborator, F. M. (Date). Title of the article in sentence
caps without quotation marks. Name of the Journal, Newspaper, or Other Periodical in
     Heading Caps and Italics, Volume in Italics
(issue number), page numbers.
doi:12.3456/abcd.123.45.6789

Gilbert, D. T., Pelham, B. W., & Krull, D. S. (1988). On cognitive busyness: When person
perceivers meet persons perceived. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 54
     (5), 733-740.

Weber, W., Vander Stoep, A., McCarty, R. L., Weiss, N. S., Biederman, J., &
McClellan, J. (2008). Hypericum perforatum (St. John’s Wort) for attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder in children and adolescents. JAMA, 299, 2633-2641.
doi:10.1001/jama.299.22.2633

 

Text is single spaced, double-space between references. Use a hanging indent. Attend carefully to the punctuation as well as the content. Older papers may not have a DOI (especially if you locate a print copy of the article), but most new articles will have one.

 

ASSIGNMENT : Architect Profile

Write 1000 word document presenting your selected architect.  Start with preliminary research from Course Text Book and References listed on page 2 of syllabus. Minimum requirements are:

o Cover Page: This should include:

o Student Name, Major, & ID Number

o Course Number, Name & Semester

o Architect name

o Architect portrait

o Architect Background: country of origin & practice, education & work experience

o Architect’s philosophy: architectural language, vocabulary, design process & practice, and design issue

o Definition of an architectural movement that best exemplifies your architect’s work

o Quotation by your selected architect that reflects his/her affiliation to a particular architectural movement

o Identification of Built work

o Name of project

o Location

o Dates of design/construction

o Brief description of physical attributes, character & features

o References (Endnotes, Footnotes, or Parenthetical citations)

o Bibliography (use any style consistently)

 

STEP 1: To pursue preliminary research and make an informed selection, review different sections in your Course text book and References on Reserve in the library (listed on page 2) that discuss the listed architects of your interest.

 

STEP 2: Locate (and then read) relevant books/ articles on your architect through rigorous library search (conduct thorough research using material in the library as well as the DATABASES that our library subscribes to).

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STEP 3: Develop a list of issues (social, economic, political, etc.) that concerned your architect and select representative works by your architect that reflect these concerns and identify the particular approach or “movement/s” pursued by the architect. In this step, you should formulate the origin of your movement, the context in which it took place, the movement’s focus, and provide an overview of its philosophy and primary participants, who were contemporary to your selected architect.

Assignment: Annotated Bibliography

As the authors of your book note, “A working bibliography is a list of the sources you are collecting and evaluating for your research paper” (Arkin & Macheski, 2006, p. 142).  You may or may not use all of the sources in your paper but it is helpful to keep a record of all of the sources you consult.

This assignment requires you to present your sources in APA style and then to list the ideas and or points from your sources that you will be using to either support your argument or to explain your topic. The purpose is NOT to summarize your sources but rather to clearly state how information, i.e., direct quotes or paraphrases, will be used by you in your paper.

You must annotate at least four of your sources, but depending on the length of the sources and how much information you take from them, you may need to annotate more. This assignment is to help you organize your sources and the more work you put into this assignment, the less you will have to do for the next one. How long should the annotated bibliography be? This will depend on the length of your sources and how many points you use from each source. You should work towards a minimum of two to three pages.

This assignment must be typed and double-spaced in size 12 New Times Roman Font. Please do not prepare a separate cover sheet.

The expectations of an “A” paper for this assignment are below:

  • Sources presented in APA style.
  • Direct quotations properly introduced and referenced.
  • Paraphrased points properly introduced and referenced.
  • How the points will be used by the researcher clearly explained, i.e, you have not just summarized the author’s ideas but have told the reader how you think the points will be used in your paper. For example, you tell the reader whether you will use the information to support your argument, explain your topic, or as a point of concession / refutation.
  • Grammar, spelling, formatting of paper, etc. are appropriate for ENG 204.

 

 

Assignment: Tentative Topic Decision & Indentifying Resources

You will now work on your formal research proposals. I have given feedback to those of you who handed in the topic guidelines worksheet and it is now time to TRY and settle on one topic and you need to focus on which side of the argument you are taking. Please complete and hand in this sheet in-class.

The topic for my research project is:____________________________

My point of argument is:_____________________________

I have located the following three print sources for my research:

Author(s): ____________________________

Publication date: ______

Book _____ Article _________ Other (please describe) ___________

Title ______________________

Title of Journal/Newspaper/Magazine (if article) _______________________

Number of pages _______________

 

Author(s): ____________________________

Publication date: ______

Book _____ Article _________ Other (please describe) ___________

Title ______________________

Title of Journal/Newspaper/Magazine (if article) _______________________

Number of pages _______________

 

Author(s): ____________________________

Publication date: ______

Book _____ Article _________ Other (please describe) ___________

Title ______________________

Title of Journal/Newspaper/Magazine (if article) _______________________

Number of pages _______________

 

Is there anything else you want to tell me about your topic? _______________________

 

 

Assignment: Explanatory Synthesis

This assignment is worth 10% of your grade. You are required to write an explanatory synthesis essay based on at least two, but no more than four, of your sources related to your research project.  You MUST include the sources with the final draft which must be typed in size 12 New Times Roman font and double spaced. This paper should be three or four pages long, not including the reference page. Your reference page must be prepared according to the APA style guidelines.

Please remember that the purpose of an explanatory synthesis “is not to argue a particular point, but rather to present the facts in a reasonably objective manner” (Behrens, et. al, 2007, p. 90, italics in original). You are expected to explain to the reader the connections you have identified about the topic of your choice from the material you have read. The synthesis is an opportunity for you to make sense of the research relevant to your topic by picking your most significant scholarly sources and articulating the relationships amongst and between them. (Please note that a synthesis is not a case of summarizing each source one after the other in separate paragraphs.) It is the next step following on from your annotated bibliography assignment. If possible, pick sources that differ from each other in some significant way (though they do not necessarily have to be completely opposed to each other). Think about what the sources have in common, how they differ, and how they are in conversation with one another. The synthesis will help evaluate the credibility of the available research and establish your own credibility as a researcher. When done correctly, with just a few modifications, this synthesis paper can generally be used in the first half of your research paper.

Your synthesis will be an explanatory or informative one, not an argumentative one. It will not have the same arguable thesis that your research paper will. However, it should have an organizing thesis statement that specifically states the explanatory purpose of the paper. Your introduction needs to create a context for the reader to understand what will follow. Your additional goals for this paper will be to incorporate direct quotations when relevant and to work onorganization and transitions as you move from one idea to the next to cue your reader about their connection.

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The grading sheet for this essay is below:

Content (40 points):

Introduction well developed: context established for readers.

Explanatory thesis clear and easy to find in paper.

Purpose well supported with quotes and paraphrases from at least two sources.

Reasonably objective.

Information synthesized not summarized.

Overall coherent and well-developed (no stand alone quotes, out of place information, etc).

Topic well explained based on facts and evident from reliable sources.

 

Mechanics (10 points):

Grammar, punctuation, spelling, word choice all appropriate

Formatted correctly (title centered, size 12 font, double spaced, page numbers, no spaces between paragraphs)

Proper APA reference page.

In-text citations APA style for direct quotes, summaries and paraphrases.

 

Question

Indigenous Suicide 

You are a counselor in a local community health centre. A member of the local Aboriginal community has approached you because she is worried about her 17-year-old son who has been feeling ‘winyarn’ (sad) for a long time. Over the past month she has noticed a marked change in her son’s behaviour. She says he has been ‘flying off the handle’ over minor frustrations and become aggressive towards her when she has tried to ask him ‘what’s wrong?’ She has contacted you now because he has begun talking about killing himself over the past few days.

Answer the following questions:

  1. How would you go about engaging with this family?
  2. What would you need to consider when assessing his level of risk?
  3. Who would you consult when developing a plan of action?

Research indicates that suicide was a rare occurrence amongst Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Australians in pre-colonial times; however, it has become increasingly prevalent for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples, since the late 1970s (Silburn et al., 2010). TheAustralian Bureau of Statistics (2007) reports suicide as the sixth leading cause of death for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Australians, with approximately 3.7 per centof all deaths for these populations due to suicide.

How would you go about engaging with this family?

Research suggests that Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander young people are not only less likely than non-Indigenous young people to engage with mental health professionals or services, they are also likely to engage at a more chronic level and for shorter durations of time (Vicary & Andrews, 2001; Westerman, 2010). Reasons for this include the use of culturally inappropriate processes by professionals when engaging with Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander young people, their families and their communities (Hunter, 2007; Westerman, 2003).

What would you need to consider when assessing his level of risk?

Hunter and colleagues (2006) propose that suicidal behaviour among Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people is the product of a complex set of risk factors that may be interrelated and cumulative in effect. Silburn and associates (2010) suggest that there are two types of risk factors:

  • proximal or immediate risk factors, such as the individual’s mental and emotional state, precipitating circumstances or events, previous suicide attempts, substance misuse in the weeks leading up to the individual’s suicidal thoughts or behaviours, and knowing someone who has died by suicide; and
  • distal or longer-term risk factors, which may have a cumulative effect from early childhood through out the individual’s life.

Whilst acknowledging that risk factors identified in mainstream literature have some relevance for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people, Westerman (2003) states that there are social and environmental risk factors that affect Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people uniquely. The findings of the National Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Social Survey (2002) and the National Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Health Survey(2004-05) identified the following risk factors, as having a significant impact on the social and emotional well being of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people:

  • widespread grief and loss due to the high number of deaths within many communities
  • unresolved trauma as a result of the removal of children from communities, both past and present (i.e. the Stolen Generations, child protection intervention, and juvenile justice supervision)
  • identity issues due to cultural dislocation
  • economic and social disadvantage
  • ongoing and persistent health problems
  • incarceration of the individual or a family member

Solution

Indigenous Suicide

The increased suicide rate among the aboriginal youth is an indication of ‘youth crying for help’. The indigenous youth is not open to understanding ‘what is more to life’ and they have closed doors to a ‘therapy culture’. We all live in a ‘therapy culture’. If parents can’t help, then help should be taken from a professional psychotherapist. (Altman, 2008)
There is more to learn and appreciate about the culture of humanity and the way it has developed over the years. Hence, rather than blindly believing in culture, we are better off knowing more about it. Firstly, one should not try to define a culture because it will never define us and secondly, one should not limit their existence by living within the boundaries of a culture. (American Psychiatric Association, 2000)

 

 

Question

What are the different transitions associated with the human life stages? What are there association with the different phases of a human life cycle?

Solution

Introduction

When one considers the different transitions associated with the human life stages, many of them are associated with childhood, youth and middle age and are talked about and studied more than the life transitions that happen during old age. One such transition in the last decades of human life is becoming a grandparent. In this essay we are going to look at the elements of this transition and its impact on relationships and concepts of self as well as what the literature has to say about this stage of life.
Many of us dream and prepare for being parents from when we are children and often have an idea of what kind of parent we would like to be. Sometimes reality is the same as our ideas and sometimes parenting turns out to be different, more difficult or more rewarding, but in any case, parenthood is often anticipated and planned more than grandparenthood.

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Let us now look at some predictable and unpredictable elements of becoming agrandparent. The first unpredictable element of being a grandparent is that unlike choosing to become a parent, becoming a grandparent depends on the choice made by another individual – a son or daughter, to become a parent.
The first time one hears the news about becoming a grandparent can be a delightful or a stressful event (Cunningham-Burley, 1986). To some prospective grandparents, having grandchildren comes as a sign that old age has arrived and can become a cause of stress. In today’s society, grandparents are increasingly assuming the role of caretakers for their grandchildren (Bert Hayslip Jr, 2005) and the anticipated changes in lifestyle and also the changing perception of themselves as now officially entering old age can be a cause for stress for many people who become grandparents for the first time in a society where youth is valued over old age. (John Bond, 2007)
In relation to the concept of self, of an aged person, grandparenthood is being presented as a way of bringing “agefulness” into old age in a society which values youth over old age. (Gerben J Westerhoff, 2007). While the nature of grandparenting can vary depending on age, socioeconomic factors, sex and the ethnicity of the person involved (Erber, 2011), we live in a society where older people who have to deal with the loss of many of their physical faculties due to ageing are finding it difficult to be accepted for their wider experience of life and the wisdom they bring to various life situations. (John Bond, 2007). In such a scenario, grandparenthood becomes a way of passing on their skills and life experiences as well as being a meaningful contributor to the family and society, inspite of their reduced physical faculties and earning capacity. Thus grandparenthood can lead to an increased concept of self for an aged person, making them feel that they are contributing to family life in a meaningful way.
Research findings show that the stress factor in becoming a grandparent has decreased over the last couple of decades and many grandparents report an increase in their sense of being well connected with becoming a grandparent. (Donald C. Reitzes, 2004) In fact, in the same research many people report more satisfaction in their grandparent identities when compared to their other adult identities (Donald C. Reitzes, 2004). This is a significant finding from which I would like to infer that grandparenting is less stressful than parenting, which could be an area of future study. The increased sense of well being in becoming a grandparent could be because of the less active role of parenting required in becoming a grandparent (Jetse Spray, 1982)
When the expectations and experiences of grandparenthood were compared using sex of grandparents and lineage as criteria, it was found that the experience of grandparenthood was different for men and women. Grandmothers reported more satisfaction in being a grandparent than grandfathers and maternal grandparents were more satisfied with their experience of being grandparents. (Karen Somary, 1998) An interesting work on the influence of grandparents speaks of the role of grandparents as rescuers during family crisis in a society with an increasing number of teenage pregnancies, single parents and working parents. (Szinovácz, 1998)
The study of grandparenthood has changed over the decades to include various dimensions. The developmental gains for children due to the influence of grandparents and the major influence of grandparents on grandchildren’s socialisation as well as their vital role in family life has received a lot of attention in recent years. (Szinovácz, 1998) High levels of youth achievement are expected when there is an incidence of higher education among grandparents combined with high levels of youth-grandparent interaction (Karen Albright, 2004).

For complete solution please download from the link below.

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Question

Does reduction of play in childhood hampers a kids psychological stability and balance?

 

 

Question

Assessment of the impact of thinking skills, teaching training course for secondary school teachers based on student classroom assessment scores.

Solution

The impact of ‘thinking skills teaching training course’ for secondary school teachers based on student classroom assessment scores

Introduction

Classroom teaching requires using up to date methods to deal with the students and paying a lot of attention to the students. Maintaining a record of all the students along with their achievement levels also help with the understanding of their learning curve as well as where they need help.

The better half of Saudi Arabia depends on traditional methods of assessing students. Teachers are not approachable after class. In the class the students are taught what the syllabus mandates and certain difficult doubts are cleared. There is less room for the student to approach the teacher with doubts after class or even in the class. The teachers gather very less information about the way students understand the subject except for the exams at the end of the terms. On the other hand, there are a few international schools in Saudi Arabia, which engage with the student assessment systems which need the teacher to mark the all-round activities of a student and a system of cumulative marking is used to grade the student. The teacher gets ample information about the student performance, strengths and weaknesses. The students also get to give a feedback of the teaching styles to their teachers. Hence there are two groups of teachers; one group teaches the students without any prior teacher’s training and another group which teaches the student with teaching expertise. (Bank, 2008)

Purpose of the study

The education system in Saudi Arabia needs some major policy changes regarding the way student assessment is done; except for a few places where international policies are being implemented now. Proper assessment of the students is needed to know the strengths and the weaknesses of the teacher training programs. To improve the student’s performance the teacher training programs need to be designed properly. A teacher also needs to understand their own strengths and weaknesses and if in any way their teaching styles can change the way students perform to the best in class. Similarly, even the teacher needs good training to be able to be successful in teaching the students.

 

 

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Behavioral economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Budget constraint

The limited amount of income available to consumers to spend on goods and services.

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Endowment effect

The tendency of people to be unwilling to sell a good they already own even if they are offered a price that is greater than the price they would be willing to pay to buy the good if they didn’t already own it.

Income effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Indifference curve

A curve that shows the combinations of consumption bundles that give the consumer the same utility.

Law of diminishing marginal utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a given period of time.

Marginal rate of substitution (MRS)

The rate at which a consumer would be willing to trade off one good for another.

Marginal utility (MU)

The change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service.

Network externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it.

Opportunity cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Substitution effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from a change in price making the good more or less expensive relative to other goods, holding constant the effect of the price change on consumer purchasing power.

Sunk cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered.

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Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming goods and services.

Average fixed cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average product of labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

Average total cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average variable cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Constant returns to scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

Diseconomies of scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Economies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Expansion path

A curve that shows a firm’s cost-minimizing combination of inputs for every level of output.

Explicit cost

A cost that involves spending money.

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Fixed costs

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

Implicit cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Isocost line

All the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that have the same total cost.

Isoquant

A curve that shows all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that will produce the same level of output.

Law of diminishing returns

The principle that, at some point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline.

Long run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Long-run average cost curve

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

Marginal cost

The additional cost to a firm of producing one more unit of a good or service.

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Marginal product of labor

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

Marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS)

The rate at which a firm is able to substitute one input for another while keeping the level of output constant.

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Minimum efficient scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted.

Opportunity cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Production function

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Short run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Technological change

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Technology

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Total cost

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production.

Variable costs

Costs that change as output changes.

Allocative efficiency

A state of the economy in which production is in accordance with consumer preferences; in particular, every good or service is produced up to the point where the last unit provides a marginal benefit to society equal to the marginal cost of producing it.

Average revenue (AR)

Total revenue divided by the quantity of the product sold.

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Economic loss

The situation in which a firm’s total revenue is less than its total cost, including all implicit costs.

Economic profit

A firm’s revenues minus all of its implicit and explicit costs.

Long-run competitive equilibrium

The situation in which the entry and exit of firms has resulted in the typical firm breaking even.

Long-run supply curve

A curve that shows the relationship in the long run between market price and the quantity supplied.

Marginal revenue (MR)

The change in total revenue from selling one more unit of a product.

Perfectly competitive market

A market that meets the conditions of having (1) many buyers and sellers, (2) all firms selling identical products, and (3) no barriers to new firms entering the market.

Price taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

Productive efficiency

The situation in which a good or service is produced at the lowest possible cost.

Profit

Total revenue minus total cost.

Shutdown point

The minimum point on a firm’s average variable cost curve; if the price falls below this point, the firm shuts down production in the short run.

Brand management

The actions of a firm intended to maintain the differentiation of a product over time.

Marketing

All the activities necessary for a firm to sell a product to a consumer.

Monopolistic competition

A market structure in which barriers to entry are low and many firms compete by selling similar, but not identical, products.

 

Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming goods or services.

Marginal Utility (MU)

The change in total utility a person received from consuming one more additional unit of a good or service.

Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a period of time.

Budget Constraint

The limited amount of income available to consumers to spend on goods and services.

Income Effect

The change in quantity demanded of a good that results from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Substitution Effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from a change in price making the good more or less expensive relative to other goods, holding constant the effect of the price change on consumer purchasing power.

Negative Externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it.

Behavioral Economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Opportunity Cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Endowment Effect

The tendency of people to be unwilling to sell a good they already own even if they are offered a price that is greater than the price they would be willing to pay to buy the good if they didn’t already own it.

Sunk Cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered.

Technology

Processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Technological Change

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Short Run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Long Run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Total Cost

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in a production.

Variable Costs

Costs that change as output changes. *tech and plant sized can change

Fixed Costs

Costs that remain constant as output changes. *tech and plant size usually don’t change

Explicit Cost

A cost that involves spending money.

Implicit Cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Production Function

The relationship between inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Average Total Cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Marginal Product of Labor

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

Law of Diminishing Returns

The principle that, at some point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause marginal product of labor to decline.

Average Product of Labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers. *the average of the marginal products of labor

Marginal Cost

The change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.

Average Fixed Cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Variable Cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Long-Run Average Cost Curve

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

Economies of Scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Constant Returns to Scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

Minimum Efficient Scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted.

Diseconomies of Scale

The situation in which a firm’s long run-average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Perfectly Competitive Market

1) many buyers and sellers
2) all firms sell identical products
3) no barriers to new firms entering the market

Price Taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

Profit

Total revenue minus cost.

Average Revenue

Total revenue divided by the quantity of the product sold.

Marginal Revenue

The change in total revenue from selling one more unit of a good.

Sunk Cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered.

Shutdown Point

The minimum point of a firm’s average variable cost curve; if the price falls below this point, the firm shuts down production in the short run.

Economic Profit

A firm’s revenues minus costs, implicit and explicit.

Economic Loss

The situation in which a firm’s total revenue is less than its total cost, including all implicit costs.

Long-Run Competitive Equilibrium

The situation in which the entry and exit of firms has resulted in the typical firm breaking even.

Long-Run Supply Curve

A curve that shows the relationship in the long run between market price and the quantity supplied.

Monopolistic Competition

A market structure in which barriers to entry are low and many firm compete by selling similar, but not identical, products.

Brand Management

The actions of a firm intended to maintain the differentiation of a product over time.

Marketing

All the activities necessary for a firm to sell a product to a consumer.

Oligopoly

A market structure in which a small number of interdependent firms compete.

Barrier to Entry

Anything that keeps new firms from entering an industry in which firms are earning economic profits.

Dominant Strategy

A strategy that is best for a firm, no matter what strategies other firms use.

Nash Equilibrium

A situation in which each firm chooses the best strategy, given the strategies chosen by other firms.

Cooperative Equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players cooperate to increase their mutual payoff.

Noncooperative Equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players do not cooperate but pursue their own self-interests.

Prisoner’s Dilemma

A game in which pursuing dominant strategies results in noncooperation that leaves everyone worse off.

Game Theory

The study of how people make decisions in situations in which attaining their goals depends on their interactions with others; in economics, the study of decisions of firms in industries where the profits of a firm depend on its interactions with other firms.

Business Strategy

Actions that a firm takes to achieve a goal, such as maximizing profits.

Payoff Matrix

A table that shows the payoffs that each firm earns from every combination of strategies by the firms.

Price Leadership

A form of implicit collusion in which one firm in an oligopoly announces a price change and the other firms in the industry match the change.

Cartel

A group of firms that collude by agreeing to restrict output to increases prices and profits.

Transaction Costs

The costs in time and other resources that parties incur in the process of agreeing to and carrying out an exchange of goods or services.

Arbitrage

Buying a good at a low price and reselling it in a market for a higher price.

Price Discrimination

Charging different prices to different customers for the same product when the price differences are not due to differences in cost.

Two-Part Tarriff

A situation in which consumers pay one price (or tariff) for the right to buy as much of a related good as they want at a second price.

 

 

The Economic Model of Consumer Behavior

The economic model of consumer behavior predicts that consumers will choose to buy the combination of goods and services that makes them as well off as possible from among all the combinations that their budgets allow them to buy.

Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming goods and services.

Marginal utility (MU)

The change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service.

Law of diminishing marginal utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a given period of time.

budget constraint

The limited amount of income available to consumers to spend on goods and services.

Income effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Substitution effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from a change in price making the good more or less expensive relative to other goods, holding constant the effect of the price change on consumer purchasing power.

network externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it.

behavioral economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Consumers commonly commit the following three “mistakes” when making decisions:

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They take into account monetary costs but ignore nonmonetary opportunity costs.
They fail to ignore sunk costs.
They are unrealistic about their future behavior

endowment effect

The tendency of people to be unwilling to sell a good they already own even if they are offered a price that is greater than the price they would be willing to pay to buy the good if they didn’t already own it.

sunk cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered

Being Unrealistic about Future Behavior

If you are unrealistic about your future behavior, you underestimate the costs of choices that you make today.

marginal utility (mu)

the change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service

technology

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services

Technological change

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

short run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

long run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

total cost

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production
tc=vc+fc

variable cost

Costs that change as output changes.

fixed cost

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

oppurtunity cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity

explicit cost

A cost that involves spending money.

implicit cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Production function

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

avg total cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

marginal product of labor

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

law of diminishing returns

The principle that, at some point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline.

average product of labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

marginal cost

The change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.
mc=change in total cost/change in quanity

average fixed cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

average variable cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

long run average cost curve

A curve showing the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

economies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases output.

constant returns to scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

miniumum efficient scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted

diseconomies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

monomolistic competition

A market structure in which barriers to entry are low
and
many firms compete by selling similar, but not identical, products.

marketing

All the activities necessary for a firm to sell a product to a consumer.

brand management

The actions of a firm intended to maintain the differentiation of a product over time.

oligopoly

A market structure in which:
a small number of interdependent firms compete
and
barriers to entry are high.

barrier to entry

Anything that keeps new firms from entering an industry in which firms are earning economic profits.

economies of scale

scale The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases output

government imposed barriers

Government-imposed barriers such as patents, licencing requirements, tariffs, and quotas

ownership of key input

If production of a good requires a particular input, then control of that input can be a barrier to entry.

game theory

The study of how people make decisions in situations in which attaining their goals depends on their interactions with others;
in economics, the study of the decisions of firms in industries where the profits of each firm depend on its interactions with other firms.

payoff matrix

A table that shows the payoffs that each firm earns from every combination of strategies by the firms.

collusion

An agreement among firms to charge the same price or otherwise not to compete.

dominant strategy

A strategy that is the best for a firm, no matter what strategies other firms use.

nash equilibrium

A situation in which each firm chooses the best strategy, given the strategies chosen by other firms.

cooperative equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players cooperate to increase their mutual payoff.

noncooperative equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players do not cooperate but pursue their own self-interest.

prisoners dilema

A game in which pursuing dominant strategies results in noncooperation that leaves everyone worse off.

price leadership

A form of implicit collusion in which one firm in an oligopoly announces a price change and the other firms in the industry match the change.

cartel

A formal organization of producers that agree to coordinate prices and production

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perfectly competitive market

A market that meets the conditions of:
many buyers and sellers,
all firms selling identical products, and
no barriers to new firms entering the market

price taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

profit

Profit Total revenue minus total cost.

average revenue

Total revenue divided by the quantity of the product sold.

marginal revenue

Marginal revenue (MR) The change in total revenue from selling one more unit of a product.

marginal revenue equation

change in total revenue/ change in quantity

profit maximizing level

The profit-maximizing level of output is where the difference between total revenue and total cost is the greatest.

economic loss

The situation in which a firm’s total revenue is less than its total cost, including all implicit costs.

long run competitive equilibrium

The situation in which the entry and exit of firms has resulted in the typical firm breaking even.

monopoly

A firm that is the only seller

of a good or service that does not have a close substitute.

natural monopoly

A situation in which economies of scale are so large that one firm can supply the entire market at a lower average total cost than can two or more firms

 

 

Technology

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Technological Change

A Change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Short Run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Long Run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs,adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Total Cost

The Cost of all inputs a firm uses in production.

Variable Cost

Costs that change as output changes.

Fixed Cost

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

Opportunity Cost

The highest valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Explicit Cost

A cost that involves spending money. I.e Hiring workers or purchasing production equipment.

Implicit Cost

A non-monetary (not involving spending) opportunity cost.I.e A new business owner not collecting a salary in order to push her business forward. its a sacrifice.

Production Function

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Average Total Cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Marginal Product of Labor

The additional output a firm uses as a result of hiring one more worker.

Law of diminishing returns

The principle that at some point,adding more of a variable input,such as labor,to the same amount of a fixed input,such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline.

Average Product of labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

Marginal Cost

The Change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.

Average Fixed Cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Variable Cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced

Long Run Average curve

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run,when no inputs are fixed.

Economies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Constant return to scale

The situation in which a firm’s Long-run average costs remain unchanged as output increases.

Minimum Efficient Scale

The level of output at which all economies scale are exhausted

Diseconomies of Scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming good and services

Marginal Utility

The change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service.

Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a given period of ttime

Budget Restraint

The limited amount of income a consumer has to spend on a good or service.

Marginal Utility per Dollar spent

Marginal Utility divided by price

Income Effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Substitution effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from a change in price making that good more or less expensive relative to other goods, holding constant the effect of the price change on consumer purchasing power.

Network Externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it. I.e the more users an IPad has, the more apps being made for it, therefore its more useful.

3 common mistakes made by consumers when making decisions.

1.They take into account monetary cost but ignore nonmonetary opportunity cost.
2.They Fail to ignore sunk cost
3.They are unrealistic about their future behavior

Behavioral Economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Endowment affect

The tendency of people to be unwilling to sell a good they already own even if they are offered a price that is greater than the price they would be willing to pay to buy the good if they didnt already own it.

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Sunk Cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered. (costs that should be ignored)

Price Taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

Profit

Total revenue minus total cost.

Average revenue

Total revenue divided by the quantity of product sold.

Marginal Revenue

The change in revenue from selling one more unit of a product.

Economic Profit

Revenue minus all costs (implicit and explicit)

Accounting Profit

Revenue minus explicit cost

True

Firms in a perfectly competitive market earn accounting profit but not economic profit. (True or False)

The cost of raw materials

What is an example of variable cost?

Increase

As long as marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost, profits_________.

The slope of an indifference curve

Marginal rate of substitution is

AVC+AFC

ATC=____+______

Consumer Budget Constraint

The limited income that a consumer has to spend on goods and services.

The Long Run

A Time period long enough for a firm to vary all of its inputs, to adopt new technology and change the size of its physical plant.

Profit

To find ______ we calculate (P x Q)-TC

price exceeds average total cost.

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If price = marginal cost at the output produced by a perfectly competitive firm and the firm is earning an economic profit, then

Maximize Profit

In order to _____________ a firm should produce the quantity of output that results in the greatest difference between total revenue and total cost.

False

An explicit cost is a nonmonetary opportunity cost. (true or false)

Total Utility

Which of the following is held constant along bundles on an indifference curve?

lower; higher

In long-run equilibrium, compared to a perfectly competitive market, a monopolistically competitive industry produces a ________ level of output and charges a ________ price.

True

All consumption bundles along a given indifference curve are equally desirable. (true or false)

Less Elastic

Compared to a perfectly competitive firm, the demand curve facing a monopolistically competitive firm is___________ because monopolistically competitive firms produce similar, but not identical, products.

True

The average product of labor is at its maximum when the average product of labor equals the marginal product of labor. (True or False)

The marginal product of labor rises, then falls.

Why does the marginal cost curve has a U shape?

Excess Capacity

It means that firms do not produce the output level that corresponds to the minimum point on their average total cost curves.

Allocative, Productive

____________ efficiency is achieved in the short run and the long run. _____________ efficiency is achieved only in the long run.

 

 

 

Define technology and give examples of technological change

The basic activity of a firm is to use
inputs, such as workers, machines, and natural resources, to produce goods and services. The firm’s
technology is the processes it uses to turn inputs into goods and services. Technological change refers to
a change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs

Distinguish between the economic short run and the economic long run

In the short run, a firm’s technology and the size of its factory, store, or office are fixed. In the long run, a firm is able to adopt
new technology and to increase or decrease the size of its physical plant. Total cost is the cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production. Variable costs are costs that change as output changes. Fixed costs are costs that remain constant as output changes. Opportunity cost is the highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity. An explicit cost is a cost that involves spending money. An implicit
cost is a nonmonetary opportunity cost. The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs is called the firm’s production function.

Understand the relationship between the marginal product of labor and the average product of labor

The marginal product of labor is the additional output produced by a firm as a result of hiring one more
worker. average product of labor is the total amount of output produced by a firm divided by the
quantity of workers hired

Explain and illustrate the relationship between marginal cost and average total cost

The marginal cost
of production is the increase in total cost resulting from producing another unit of output. The marginal
cost curve has a U shape because when the marginal product of labor is rising, the marginal cost of output
is falling. When the marginal product of labor is falling, the marginal cost of output is rising. When
marginal cost is less than average total cost, average total cost falls. When marginal cost is greater than
average total cost, average total cost rises.

Graph average total cost, average variable cost, average fixed cost, and marginal cost

Average fixed
cost is equal to total fixed cost divided by the level of output. Average variable cost is equal to total
variable cost divided by the level of output

Understand how firms use the long-run average cost curve in their planning.

The long-run average
cost curve shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given level of output in the long run.
For many firms, the long-run average cost curve falls as output expands because of economies of scale.
Minimum efficient scale is the level of output at which all economies of scale have been exhausted.
After economies of scale have been exhausted, firms experience constant returns to scale, where their
long-run average cost curve is flat. At high levels of output, the long-run average cost curve turns up as
the firm experiences diseconomies of scale.

Distinguish between the economic short run and the economic long
run.

Total Cost (TC ) = Fixed Cost (FC ) + Variable Cost ( VC) Total cost is the cost of all the inputs a firm uses in
production. Variable costs are costs that change as output changes. Fixed costs are costs that remain constant as output changes.

explicit cost

is a cost that involves
spending money

implicit cost

nonmonetary opportunity cost

average total cost

total cost divided by the quantity of output produced. The average total cost
curve often has a U shape.

marginal product of labor

additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

law of
diminishing returns.

 

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At some
point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline

average product of labor

the total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers. When the marginal product of labor is greater than the average product of labor, the average product of
labor must be increasing. When the marginal product of labor is less than the average product of labor, the
average product of labor must be decreasing. The marginal product of labor equals the average product of
labor for the quantity of workers where the average product of labor is at a maximum.

Marginal cost

the change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a
good or service. The U shape of the average total cost curve is determined by the shape of the marginal
cost curve. MC= change in TC/ change in Q (output)

Average fixed cost

FC/ output

Average Total cost

TC/ output

Average variable cost

total variable cost divided by the quantity of output produce

MC, ATC, AVC curves

All u-shaped.
The MC curve intersects the AVC and ATC curves at their minimum points.
When MC is below AVC or ATC, it causes them to decrease, and when MC is above AVC or ATC, it causes them to increase.
As output increases, the difference between ATC and AVC (this is equal to AFC) gets smaller
because AFC gets smaller and smaller as output increases.

long-run average cost curve

shows the lowest cost at which the firm is able to produce a given
quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed

Economies of scale

is the situation when a firm’s long-run average total costs fall as it increases output

Constant returns to scale

the situation
when a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output

Minimum efficient scale

is the level of output at which all economies of scale have been exhausted

Diseconomies of scale

is the
situation when a firm’s long-run average costs rise as it increases output.

Isoquants

curve showing all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that will
produce the same level of output. The farther an isoquant is from the origin—the farther to the right on
the graph—the more output the firm is producing

marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS)

rate at which a firm is able to substitute one input for another while keeping the level of output constant. The slope of an isoquant becomes less steep as one moves downward along the isoquant. This is a consequence of diminishing returns

isocost line.

shows all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that have
the same total cost. An isocost line intersects the vertical axis at the maximum amount of an input (for
example, capital) that can be purchased with a given budget, or total cost. The same isocost line intersects
the horizontal axis at the maximum amount of another input (for example, labor) that can be purchased
with the same budget.

slope of isocost line

constant and equals the change in the
quantity of one input (capital) divided by the change in the quantity of the other input (labor). The slope
of an isocost line is equal to the ratio of the price of the input on the horizontal axis divided by the price
of the input on the vertical axis, multiplied by -1. A change in the price of an input causes the slope to
change, which is a rotation of the isocost line. Higher levels of total cost shift the isocost line outward,
and lower levels of cost shift the isocost line inward.

cost-minimizing choice of inputs

determined jointly by available production technology and input
prices. A change in technology affects the position of isoquants and may affect the choice of inputs. If
input prices change, then the position of isocost lines will change and the choice of inputs may also
change.

Moving along an isoquant,

the output is constant while the amounts of two inputs change. The marginal
product of capital (MPK) equals the change in output from using an additional unit of capital. The
marginal product of labor (MPL) equals the change in output from using an additional unit of labor.

Expansion path

A curve that shows a firm’s
cost-minimizing combination of inputs for every
level of output.

Constant returns to scale

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Technology

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Technological Change

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Short Run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Long Run

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production.

Total Cost

Costs that change as output changes.

Variable Cost

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

Fixed Cost

Fixed cost + Variable cost

=Total Cost

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The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Opportunity cost

A cost that involves spending money.

Explicit cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Implicit cost

is the difference between the amount paid for capital at the beginning of the year and the amount it could be sold for at the end of the year.

Economic depreciation

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Production function

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

Marginal product of labor

The principle that, at some point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline.

Law of diminishing returns

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

Average product of labor

The change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.

Marginal cost

When the marginal product of labor is ______ , the marginal cost of output is falling.

When the marginal product of labor is ______ , the marginal cost of production is rising.

rising; falling

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Fixed Cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Variable Cost

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

Long-run average cost curve

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Economies of scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

Constant returns to scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted.

Minimum efficient scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Diseconomies of scale

A curve that shows all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that will produce the same level of output.

Isoquant

The rate at which a firm is able to substitute one input for another while keeping the level of output constant.

Marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS)

All the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that have the same total cost.

Isocost line

 

 

 

 

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Question 1: Business

 

Discussion Topic:

Discuss TWO positive economic effects and TWO negative economic effects on the U.S. economy when the U.S. imposes tariffs on importation of foreign goods. – Only ONE discussion post is required. – Discussion must be elaborate and well-written to earn full points — minimum of 1-page length expected.

 

 

Question 2: Health Care

 

1.list four or more of the most important facts, strategies, ideas, or perspectives to keep in mind for future practice. 2. How does this information connect with other courses you’re taking now, have taken previously, or with other life experiences? 3. How can you continue to build skills for tailoring your communication to support diverse types of clients? 4. Describe how your background shaped your health-related attitudes and behaviors and how this might help and hinder your efforts to help others. 5. Pretend you are counseling someone who is very low income and was raised by very low-income parents. Name three hidden rules that might affect their food and nutrition perspectives and describe how would you tailor your communication with them to adjust for those perspectives? 6. Define racial and ethnic health disparity. 7.Outline 3 or more possible causes of health-care provider biases. 8. Name two or more reasons reducing health disparities is important. 9. Name three or more ways clinical dietitians might help reduce health disparities. (see the article and know that this question and the next 2 are on the practical final) 10. Name three or more ways foodservice dietitians might help reduce health disparities. 11. Name three or more ways public health dietitians might help reduce health disparities. 12.Using the case study in the Academy article and assuming you have graduated and are now a nutrition professional, outline three ways you would help James Vaughan. (see the cases study at the end of the article) 13. Warm-Up Question – Module 7: What are the fundamental counseling skills and how do you plan to build skill for applying them? attachment

 

Question 3: Engineering

 

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Satellite Communications. Refer to the following potential transmitter configurations and calculate the overall reliability of each configuration. There is an additional cross-strapping switch in the second configuration. Does this improve the reliability? First diagram: TWTA R-0.85 EPC R-0.9 SWITCH R=0.99 TWTA R=0.85 R=0.9 Second diagram: TWTA R-0.85 R-0.9 SWITCH R=0.99 SWITCH R-0.99 TWTA R-0.85 はt:  R=0.9

 

Question 4: Statistics

 

You have been granted with a chance of profit. Someone from your family lent you $100,000 without any interest rate, for one year. You have two options to invest this capital, so that when you pay your debt back next year, the earnings from the investments would be your profit. You can either invest in a government bond, or a risky stock. Return and risk score of the bond and the stock are shown below.

Return

Bond – 3%

Stock – 8%

Risk Score

Bond – 2

Stock – 5

The average risk score of your portfolio cannot exceed 3.2. On the other hand, the same relative asked you to decide your portfolio such that the amount you invested in the bond cannot exceed the amount you invested in stock by more than $40,000.

  1. )  Formulate an LP model that solves for the portfolio with maximum return without

exceeding an average risk score of 3.2 and the amount you invest in bonds can be at

most $40,000 more than the amount you invest in stock. (4 points)

  1. )  Solve your model using graphical method. (4 points

 

Question 5: Business   

 

 400-500 words. 

The internet is a disruptive innovation that has facilitated online retailing. It also, however, has presented challenges to brick-and-mortar retailers. How might retailers such as Nordstrom, Neiman Marcus, or Macy’s change their in-store experience in order to (a) continue to attract a flow of customers into their stores; (b) expand sales using direct selling and store displays of the actual merchandise? If the Internet continues to grow and sales of brick-and-mortar retailers decline, how might the retailers attract, train, and retain high-quality employees if the industry is perceived as declining?

 

 

 

 

Question 6: Accounting

 

The trial balance of Bellemy Fashion Center contained the following accounts at November 30, the end of the company’s fiscal year.

BELLEMY FASHION CENTER
Trial Balance
November 30, 2010

Debit Credit
Cash $28,700
Accounts Receivable 33,700
Merchandise Inventory 45,000
Store Supplies 5,500
Store Equipment 85,000
Acc. Depreciation – Store Equipment $18,000
Delivery Equipment 48,000
Acc. Depreciation – Delivery Equipment 6,000
Notes Payable 51,000
Accounts Payable 48,500
Common Stock 90,000
Retained Earnings 8,000
Sales 757,200
Sales Returns and Allowances 4,200
Cost of Goods Sold 495,400
Salaries Expense 140,000
Advertising Expense 26,400
Utilities Expense 14,000
Repair Expense 12,100
Delivery Expense 16,700
Rent Expense 24,000

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$978,700
$978,700

Adjustment data:

Store supplies on hand totaled $1,500.
Depreciation is $9,000 on the store equipment and $6,000 on the delivery equipment.
Interest of $11,000 is accrued on notes payable at November 30.
Other data:
Salaries expense is 70% selling and 30% administrative.
Rent expense and utilities expense are 80% selling and 20% administrative.
$30,000 of notes payable are due for payment next year.
Repair expense is 100% administrative.

Journalize the adjusting entries.

Prepare an adjusted trial balance

Prepare a multiple-step income statement and retained earnings statement for the year and a classified balance sheet as of November 30, 2010.
Journalize the closing entries
Prepare a post-closing trial balance

 

Question 7: Health Care

 

You are to observe a child between the ages of birth and 24-months old for at least 20 minutes. Take notes on what you see and hear the child doing. Make sure you comment (with examples) on his/her language development, motor development (fine and gross), social/emotional development, and cognitive development. IMPORTANT:  Each domain (cognitive, social/emotional, motor, and language) must have its own paragraph with information relevant to the three questions listed below:

Questions to answer when observing the child’s development from the perspective of each of the four domains listed above:

  1. What did s/he do in this domain? 2. What did I expect an infant at this age to do? 3. Is s/he on target developmentally in this domain? What evidence did I observe to support my opinion?

Early in your paper, be sure to include the age and gender of the infant as well as the day/time and location of your observation.

CRITICAL INSTRUCTION: You may NOT observe your own child.

PART TWO: THE PAPER

The paper must be done using Microsoft Office.  No exceptions!  Do NOT use the “Write Submission” tool inside the Dropbox link.

It must at least 1+1/2 pages in length but no more than 2 pages in length.

 

Question 8: Sociology

 

Joseph Kony was the leader of a Ugandan resistance group namely Lord’s Resistance Army – The three theories I have chosen should be defined and explained with clarity – THE THEORIES ARE RATIONAL CHOICE THEORY, Agnew’s Strain Theory AND Merton’s Strain Theory ( Merton’s Typology of Adaptions)

Instruction

-Pick a group or individual involved in a transnational or international crime. Joseph Kony is the individual -The paper must go into depth about the person or group’s actions and directly relate them to 3 criminological theories. You must explain: – Background information on the group/individual (upbringing, location, formation of group, activities individual/group, etc.) – The three theories you have chosen should be defined and explained with clarity – Explain how specific actions taken by the group/individual are explained by each of the three theories you have chosen. – The limitations of each of your theories in their applicability to the individual/group 5 pages, singled spaced, Times New Roman, 12 pt. font, 1 inch margins, APA Format, academic sources (journals)

 

Question 9: Business

 

Please perform a Digital Audit of Fox Quilt and its marketing strategy, SEO, SEM, Social Channels, Audit of Website. Basically everything outlined here: https://www.startupgrind.com/blog/the-why-and-how-of-a-digital-marketing-audit/ The company website and detail can be found here: https://www.foxquilt.com/ Please provide the finding in a POWERPOINT Presentation

 

Question 10:        Business

 

  • Create a project charter and identify the key constraints of the project (scope, budget, timeline, quality, people resources, etc.).
  • Using the scenario from this unit, create a spreadsheet that lists all the project risks you see based on what you currently know about the project. List at least 15 risks. For each project risk, provide a:
    • Detailed description
    • Category (schedule, strategy, people, etc.)

Note: This list will be used in later activities throughout the course.

Your submitted assignment (250 points) must include the following:

  • A 2-4 page typed document that includes:
    • A project charter and identification of key constraints
    • At least 15 risks listed in a spreadsheet with a detailed description and the category of each

 

 

 

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Question 11:        Economics

 

  • There are five buyers and five sellers in a perfectly competitive market. Each buyer wishes to purchase one single unit of the good. The willingness to pay displayed by these buyers is presented in the following table:

2

 

Buyer 12345 Willingness to Pay $4 $8 $2 $5 $7

Each firm sells also only one unit of the good. The cost of producing that unit for these firms is denoted by the following table:

Seller 12345 Production Cost $7 $2 $3 $5 $4

  • a)  Suppose that the price for this good is set as P = 3. Is there excess demand or supply in this market? Explain.
  • b)  Assumethatincaseofindifferencebothsellersandbuyersproceedtosupplyand demand in this market. What is the equilibrium quantity we will observe in this market and the range of prices that would support that quantity? Explain.
  • c)  Determine the value of the maximum total surplus that we can observe in this market. Explain.

A perfectly competitive market where the laws of demand and supply hold is in equilibrium. Answer the following questions.

  1. c)  Suppose finally that less buyers take part in this market. The price elasticity of supply is estimated to be εQs,P = 1/4. What happens to the total revenues earned by sellers? Explain and illustrate the change occurring in those revenues on a graph.
  2. b)  Supposenowthatproductioncostsincreaseinthismarket.Thepriceelasticityof demand is still estimated to be εQd,P = 3/2. What happens to the total expenditures incurred by consumers? Explain and illustrate the change occurring in those expenditures on a graph.

 

Question 12:        Linguistics

  1. For each set of data below, choose the cognate from the daughter language which most closely resembles the original form in the parent language based on the general guidelines for applying the comparative method as presented in Chapter 5 and on class handouts. (6 x 3 points each = 18 points)

Example:

Answer: The language A cognate “septam” is closest to the original form in the parent language. Directionality suggests that the initial consonant is s since many languages have s > h, an example of lenition. Further, word-final deletion whereby m > Ø is more phonetically more plausible than word- final consonant insertion; we are given no indication of a morpheme boundary in septam so we assume that this is the bare root). Although the guideline of “majority wins” might suggest we choose a form with a as the first vowel, this guideline is overruled because there is evidence to the contrary in the form of two phonological rules which allow us to derive the forms in Language B and Language C.

Language A Language B Language C
septam sɑpta hɑpta
Language A Language B Language C
ek eka ak
Language A Language B Language C
rɑdə radis ratis
Language A Language B Language C
estema steŋ steŋa
Language A Language B Language C
naqa na:qa na:ka
Language A Language B Language C
preklis prellis prɛllis
Language A Language B Language C
ki či či

1

  1. Reconstruct Proto-Language Z, which has daughter languages A, B and C, on the basis of the data below. Provide the proto-form for each set of cognates and give the sound changes which occurred in each daughter language, noting any rule ordering requirements. (11.5 points for proto-forms; 14.5 points for rules)
Data Number Proto-Form Language A Language B Language C Gloss
1. * sipak sifah hibak hand
2. * biraŋ biraŋ bilaŋ foot
3. * unus unus unuh knee
4. * pusut fusut puhud elbow
5. * uvi ubi ubi head
6. * tukal tuhal tugal hair
7. * rasam rasam laham eye
8. * kalup halup kalub nose
9. * duŋu duŋu duŋu ear
10. * iruk iduh iduk mouth
11. * surup suruf hulup tooth
12. * baŋit baŋit baŋit tongue
13. * dilap dilaf dilap skin
14. * puri fudi pudi breast
15. * atap ataf adap liver
16. * lavu labu labu blood
17. * bukas buhas bugah water
18. * barak badak badag earth
19. * damar damar damal stone
20. * arat arat alat river
21. * lipit lifit libid mountain
22. * nalip nalip nalib sky
23. * davak dabak dabag sun

2

Question 13:        English

 

Paper #1 Guide:(USE THESE AS A TOPIC TO DISCUSS WHEN TYPING THIS PAPER) Why do companies conduct cybersecurity risk assessments? What do they find out from these assessments? Why should companies increase cybersecurity awareness among their employees? How can they do this? What are the benefits of regularly updating applications (apps), of password control, and of VPNs? What are the benefits to a company and to individual employees of creating a culture of cybersecurity, where employees continue to use best practices outside of the office?

 

Paper #2 Guide: YOU MUST TYPE A PAPER ANSWERING THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS BUT TRANSITION INTO EACH QUESTION; MY MBTI TYPE IS: EXTROVERT; MY HOLLAND TYPE SUGGEST I SHOULD BE IN THE WORK FIELD OF BUILDING What is the difference between a job and a career? How does this relate to your own career plans? What values do you believe are the most important for your overall career satisfaction? What is your MBTI type and how does this relate to your career? What is your Holland type and how does this relate to your career? What skills would you most like to use in your future career? Which of these skills do you need to develop? How will you develop these skills? What areas have you identified for future exploration and research What are your current thoughts about work and career at this point in the class?

 

 

Question 14:                 History

 

Answer in detail one of the following three questions in a 2,500-3,000 word essay.  Be sure to answer each part of the question.  If you consult any outside sources, please use footnotes and attach a “Sources Cited” final page to your exam.

 

In your answer, the first paragraph should sum up your main points and include a one-sentence thesis statement.  Your answer should be submitted as a .docx file

 

  1. What were the most important technological development and the most important strategic change in the U.S. Navy (and Marines) 1890-1945? Why were they the most significant?
  2. Choose just one technological development as well as just one strategic change as the basis for your essay.
  3. In your answer, discuss the changes in technology and strategy that the Navy/Marines went through during this period, making certain to describe how Mahan affected the Navy especially.
  4. Discuss as well the effects that wars and combat had on the Navy/Marines and these issues during this period.
  5. Support your answer with facts: do not just assert.

 

 

 

Question 15:                 General

 

4CCS1PPA Programming Practice and Applications

Coursework 3: Predator/Prey Simulation

Michael K ̈olling, Josh Murphy, Jeffery Raphael Questions? programming@kcl.ac.uk

Your task is to extend a predator/prey simulation. You should use the foxes-and-rabbits-handout project (available for download from KEATS) as a basis for your own project, and modify and extend it to make it more interesting. Note that this is slightly different from the book project, so please use the version from KEATS, not from the book projects.

You must replace the Fox and Rabbit classes with different kinds of predator and prey to simulate a different habitat (for example, under water, in a jungle, or in a fantasy world). You may add additional classes to those included in the existing project.

This project is a pair programming task. You must work in pairs. Information about pair pro- gramming is provided separately. We will not accept submissions by individuals.

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1 Core tasks

You should aim at completing all core tasks. They are as follows.

  • Your simulation should have at least five different kinds of acting species. At least two of these should be predators (they eat another species), and at least two of them should not be predators (they may eat plants). Plants can either be assumed to always be available (as in the original project), or they can be simulated (see below).
  • At least two predators should compete for the same food source.
  • Some or all of the species should distinguish male and female individuals. For these, the creatures can only propagate when a male and female individual meet. (“Meet” means they need to be within a specified distance to each other, for example in a neighbouring cell.) You will need to experiment with the parameters for breeding probability to create a stable population.
  • You should keep track of the time of day. At least some creatures should exhibit different behaviour at some time of the day (for example: they may sleep at night and not move during that time).

You should implement the core tasks first before you move on to the extension tasks.

1

2 Challenge tasks

Once you have finished the core tasks, implement one or more extension tasks. You can either choose from the following suggestions, or invent your own. You will be graded on a maximum of four extensions.

  • Add plants. Plants grow at a given rate, but they do not move. Some creatures eat plants. They will die if they do not find their food plant.
  • Add weather. Weather can change, and it influences the behaviour of some simulated aspects. For example, grass may not grow without rain, or predators cannot see well in fog.
  • Add disease. Some animals are occasionally infected. Infection can spread to other animals when they meet.

If you invent your own extension tasks, check with your class supervisor before implementing them. You can get their comments to ensure they your idea is not too simple or too difficult.

To get full marks on this assignment you must demonstrate exceptional technical aptitude with the challenge tasks you implement.

3 Submission and Deadline

The submission consists of two parts: your code and a report documenting it. The code and report must be submitted before the deadline, by both members of your pair. Both the source code and the report should clearly state the names of both authors.

The Code

You have to submit a Jar of your project to the “Assignment 3: Code Submission” link in the assignment 3 section on the PPA KEATS page, before the due date. The Jar file must contain your source code, i.e., the *.java files. Your code will be assessed for:

  1. Program Correctness —The application meets all of the program specifications, i.e., the student has completed all of the base tasks including following submission instructions (e.g., the student submitted a Jar file of their BlueJ project).
  2. Code Elegance —The application is written in such a way that the code is reusable and efficient (i.e., memory usage and complexity). The application appropriately uses loops and functions to reduce code complexity and/or repeated code. The application does not have hard-coded solutions or poorly designed solutions. A poorly designed solution is overly complicated, utilises excessive amounts of memory or utilises a slower approach to a problem.
  3. Documentation —The application is sufficiently documented. Good documentation/comments should explain what the code does and how it does it. Comments can also be used to highlight nuances in your solution, e.g., a segment of code that only works under certain conditions.
  4. Readability —The application is easy to understand and uses good programming practices.

The report

The report must be submitted to the “Assignment 3: Report Submission” link in the assignment 3 section on the PPA KEATS page, before the deadline. The report should be no more than four pages long. Marking the assignment will involve an interview in your lab class. More detail about the interview will be provided separately. The report must clearly state the names and student numbers of all students who worked on the submission. The report should also contain the following :

2

  • A description of your simulation, including the types of species that you are simulating, their behaviour and interactions.
  • A list and description of all extension tasks you have implemented.
  • Code limitations/problems, e.g., code segment that uses a hard coded solution.

The report will be marked out of 100. Additional details on how marks are given can be found in the Marking Rubric. Once your submission is marked and written feedback has been returned to you, you will have the opportunity to get additional verbal feedback on your submission from your lab TAs.

4 Deadline

After submitting your work on KEATS, check that (1) your Jar file and report (pdf) has been successfully uploaded and (2) that the Jar file contains all of your source files.

3

 

Question 16:                 Business

 

Leveraging Search Technologies -Identify an organization that is using at least one online search technology. You may use an organization you know from your personal experience or one that you discover while doing research. Briefly describe the organization, and then answer the following questions: -Of the various types of search technologies, which ones is the organization utilizing? -Why is the organization using these technologies? What are the benefits? -What are some metrics the organization could use to evaluate how effective these technologies are in supporting organizational objectives? Explain. -Identify areas in which the organization could expand or improve upon using the search technology. Explain what they could do and why they should do it.

 

Instruction

4 – 5 pages not including the following: Title Page Abstract Page Reference Page

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 17:        Health Care

 

Article Review: Each student is required to submit five (5), typed, one (1) page summary of a professional, peer-reviewed journal article. The article review should address the following topics: • Article Review #1 – One Health • Article Review #2 – Pesticides OR Toxic Metals • Article Review #3 – Radiation OR Water Pollution • Article Review #4 – Air pollution OR Food Safety • Article Review #5 – Solid Waste Management or Occupational Health Only one article review may be submitted on each topic. Recent (published within the last five years) professional peer-reviewed journal articles must be used. Please indicate the topic addressed in the upper right-hand corner of each abstract submitted along with your name and include a complete citation. Grade will be based on content, format, timeliness, citations, and grammar.

 

Question 18:        Business

 

Peter and Andrew are brothers. Since childhood, they have wanted to convert a barn on their grandfather’s farm into a hunting and fishing lodge that would provide modest but comfortable accommodations for sportspersons using nearby recreational lands. Andrew has suggested that they bring his friend, Paul, into the business, as well. While Peter and Andrew would develop the property, Paul has experience in the hospitality industry and could manage the day-to-day operations. Peter and Andrew would also want to make the lodge available to local church groups for worship retreats. They haven’t yet discussed this with Paul, because they know he is not comfortable with most churches and their positions on social issues. The men are now discussing how to form the new business, and have narrowed their choices to a general partnership or a limited liability company (LLC). What would you advise, and why? Consider and discuss issues such as:

  • What personal liability will the owners have for the obligations of the business (contracts, debts, lawsuit judgments, etc.)
  • Should Paul be included as a co-owner, or in some other role? On what do you base that decision?
  • How would contributions to the new business be valued?
  • How would profits and losses be distributed?

Refer to the Assignment Instructions folder of the course for general directions and grading rubrics for Discussion Boards, including requirements for word length, scholarly sources, and integration of a Biblical worldview.

Identify your conclusion in the subject line of your post (General Partnership, LLC, etc.). Do not use attachments, as these are cumbersome and inhibit the discussion process.

Suggested Readings:

2 Corinthians 6:14–18 (For this passage, you should consult some trusted exegetical commentaries, many of which may be found on www.ccel.org.)

 

 

 

Discussion Board Forum Instructions

There are 3 Discussion Board (DB) Forum assignments in this course. Each DB Forum will be completed in 2 parts: 1) a minimum 300-word thread in response to the presented case study, and 2) minimum 100-word replies to the threads of 2 classmates. All posts must be supported by research and Biblical worldview sources.

Thread

To begin a discussion assignment, review the case study presented in the forum and consider the questions at the end. Research sources in support of your answers. At least 2 sources, cited in-text and in a reference list, in current APA format, must be used, and can include the Bible. Then, compose a post that addresses those questions and incorporates your research as well as Biblical integration. (Note that the reference list does not count toward the word count requirements.) The purpose of this research criterion is to encourage you to contribute academic content to the course; failure to do so will result in a substantial deduction from your grade. First-person voice is allowed, but your writing must otherwise be as professional as possible. It must be free of spelling, punctuation, usage, citation, and grammar errors.

When you have finished composing your post in a word processor, create a thread in the forum and copy and paste your content into the thread.

Replies

Read the threads posted by your classmates. Choose 2 threads, selecting at least 1 that presents the opposite conclusion of your thread. Compose a reply for each using a word processor. Each response must incorporate at least 1 scholarly source to support your conclusions and ideas, as well as Biblical application. Note that “I like what you said,” “that’s a good comment,” and “I disagree with your comment” do not count as a complete reply. State reasons that support your conclusions, adding additional ideas/thoughts, or providing alternative ideas/thoughts. Communication must follow Student Expectations.

With a thread opened on your computer screen, click on “Reply” and then copy and paste your reply into the message box. To enhance the dynamic nature of discussion, replies must be posted on different days (as stated above).

NOTE: Attachments must not be used for posts or replies because they inhibit the flow of discussion. Accordingly, posts and replies posted as attachments will be given a grade of 0.

Post-First

This course utilizes the Post-First feature in all Discussion Board Forums. This means you will only be able to read and interact with your classmates’ threads after you have submitted your thread in response to the provided prompt. For additional information on Post-First, click here for a tutorial.

Each forum discussion takes place over a period of 2 module/weeks:

 

 

Question 19:                 Business

 

Please assign the following parameters

  1. 1)  Requires separation of business and personal finances
  2. 2)  Flexible on the Tax Reporting
  3. 3)  Shareholders
  4. 4)  Ownership is in %
  5. 5)  Allowable in all US States
  6. 6)  Preferred by VCs
  7. 7)  Recognized Internationally
  8. 8)  More flexible in terms of management ownerships
  9. 9)  Business Pays Corporate Income Tax
  • 10)  Shareholders Must be US citizens
  • 11)  Can have unlimited amount of shareholders
  • 12)  Limited to 100 shareholders
  • 13)  Pass-Through taxes to the personal ones
  • 14)  Does not require filing paperwork with the State
  • 15)  Does not protect you from personal liability
  • 16)  Need a DBA (“Doing Business As”) if you are using a different name than incorporated while doing business

Possible Answers:



  1. LLC
  2. S-Corp
  3. C-Corp
  4. Sole Proprietorship
  5. LLC AND C-CORP
  6. LLC or S-Corp
  7. LLC or S-Corp or C-Corp

2- Fill the Blanks:

The total amount of shares the company is allowed to issue are [ ].

The number of shares that are issued or sold is called [ ] (or also referred to as [ ]) .

[ ] are not counted as part of the alloted shares because they represent a future right to purchase.

However, one must ensure that the sum of outstanding [ [ ].

Answers:

  • Outstanding
  • Allotted
  • Outstanding Options
  • Options + Shares
  • Authorized Shares
  • Authorized

3- To get a true picture of how many shares the company may have, if all goes well, one needs to use the concept of Full Dilution.

] do not exceed the total number of

To figure that, one needs to add:

Choose from the following:



Allocated Shares
Shares resulting from Convertible Preferred Stock Outstanding Options
Authorized Shares
Warrants
Preferred Stock

the largest to the smallest:

4- Order the amount of shares from

Possible Answers

  • Alloted Shares
  • Authorized Shares
  • Outstanding Shares
  • Issued Shares

————————————————————————————————————–

5- Using FlatIron (A company ) as an example, please fill in the blanks.
(feel free to use whatever search tools you my find, from CrunchBase to the company’s web site to general search and SEC/EDGAR website:

 

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The company was incorporated in (2 letter acronym for the State) the State of [ ] in the year (YYYY) [ ] and is HQ in the Great State of [ ].

———————————————————————————————————— ————

Using FlatIron (A company some of you cited in week-2) as an example, please fill in the blanks

Lead Round A investor was [ ] (2 letter acronym) and the total round was for $[ ]M (just the number, no decimals)

Lead Round C was [ ] for $[ ]M

Lead Round B investor was [ ] (2 letter acronym) and the total round was for $[ ]M (just

the number, no decimals)

 

 

 

Question 20:                 General Question

 

The CEO has asked you and Jane to create a chart that he might use as part of his decision process in deciding what countries in which to locate overseas factories. He also wants an accompanying recommendation summary from an HR perspective.

 

Question  21:                Health Care

 

Reflect back over the past eight weeks and describe how the achievement of the course outcomes in this course have prepared you to meet the MSN program outcome #, MSN Essential VIII, and Nurse Practitioner Core Competencies # 1 Scientific Foundation Competencies Professor and class, Program Outcome #4: Evaluate the design, implementation, and outcomes of strategies developed to meet healthcare needs (MSN Essentials III, IV, VIII). MSN Essential VIII: Clinical Prevention and Population Health for Improving Health •Recognizes that the master’s-prepared nurse applies and integrates broad, organizational, client-centered, and culturally appropriate concepts in the planning, delivery, management, and evaluation of evidence-based clinical prevention and population care and services to individuals, families, and aggregates/identified populations. Nurse Practitioner Core Competencies # 1 Scientific Foundation Competencies 1. Critically analyzes data and evidence for improving advanced nursing practice. 2. Integrates knowledge from the humanities and sciences within the context of nursing science. 3. Translates research and other forms of knowledge to improve practice processes and outcomes. 4. Develops new practice approaches based on the integration of research, theory, and practice knowledge.

 

Question 22:                 English

 

GILGAMESH & LIKE WATER FOR CHOCOLATE EXAM

MANDATORY QUESTION – Answer the following question for 20 points. Explain your response as completely as possible. Be sure to develop your answer with supporting details and examples from the readings.

Examine and evaluate the validity of Campbell’s three phases of the journey in Like Water for Chocolate and Gilgamesh: departure, fulfillment & return. Are all three parts necessary to complete the hero’s journey? Explain.

CHOOSE TWO GILGAMESH QUESTIONS – Answer any two of the following questions. Explain each answer as completely as possible. Be sure to develop each response with as many details as you can use for support. (20 points each)

  1. How are Enkidu and Gilgamesh characterized at the beginning of the story? How is Enkidu changed? How does he, in turn, affect Gilgamesh? What does this change for both characters symbolize?
  2. Even though the relationship between Gilgamesh and Enkidu is central to the text, there are a number of female characters. These include Shamhat (the “prostitute”), Rimat-Ninsun (Gilgamesh’s mother), Ishtar (Queen of Heaven, goddess of love and war), Siduri (the tavern keeper), and Utnapishtim’s wife. How are these women portrayed? What notions about the “nature” of women are embodied in the text?
  3. Washing, purifying, and changes of clothes often play important roles in rites of passage. Where do these activities occur in the Gilgamesh? What significance do you think they have?

CHOOSE TWO LIKE WATER FOR CHOCOLATE QUESTIONS – Answer any two of the following questions. Explain each answer as completely as possible. Be sure to develop each response with as many details as you can use for support. (20 points each)

  1. Discuss the magical properties of food and cooking in this book. In what way is food a central metaphor in the novel—what does it represent?
  2. Discuss the images of heat and fire (as a symbol of desire) found throughout the novel. How does heat affect different characters? Are heat and fire sources of strength, or destruction?
  3. Compare the two male figures—Pedro and John Brown. What is each of the men’s relationship with Tita? Why does she make the choice she does?

BONUS QUESTION – Answer the following bonus question for 5 additional points. Explain your response as completely as possible. Be sure to develop your answer with supporting details and examples from the play.

What do both Gilgamesh and Like Water for Chocolate portray about the nature of men and women? What does this suggest about the nature of men and women today?

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Question 23:                 Other

 

Instruction

In a 2-3-page reflection essay, 12 font double spaced, do not need to cite outside resources, why do you think that avoiding unwanted thoughts, feelings, and memories increases or sustains pain, symptoms, and distress? How do you think directly experiencing and engaging in pain helps reduce it? What does it mean to “experience and process small increments of non-overwhelming traumatic memory? ( Briere &Scott 103) can send pages from book as it should reflect book and personal opinions.

 

Question 24:        Chemistry

 

Solve the following problems, showing your work for all steps involved.

  1. Write the balanced equation for the positron emission from the Technetium-95 radioisotope.
  2. What are the five common types of radioactive decay? Detail the differences between them.
  3. What are the two types of nuclear reactions? Give an example of a balanced nuclear reaction for each type.

Use these questions as subheadings followed by your answers. This is not an APA paper, and as such, the title and reference pages are not required

 

Question 25:              Chemistry

 

Chapter 18: Amino Acids, Peptides, and Proteins

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The isoelectric point of an amino acid or protein is defined as the:

a.

ability of the amino acid or protein to carry both positive and negative charges.

b.

pH at which the amino acid or protein has a negative charge.

c.

pH at which the amino acid or protein has no net charge.

d.

folded structure of two or more peptides.

 

 

  1. C-reactive protein (CRP) is considered an acute phase protein (APP) because its concentration in blood is increased quickly during inflammation. An example of a negative APP would be:

a.

haptoglobin.

b.

alpha1-antitrypsin.

c.

fibrinogen.

d.

albumin.

 

 

 

  1. The acid-base properties of amino acids are important in their function. Amino acids and proteins are both referred to as ampholytes. This means:

a.

that these must be supplied by dietary intake.

b.

at neutral pH, they have balanced positive and negative charges.

c.

they have side chains.

d.

they are filtered by the kidney glomerulus and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules.

 

 

 

  1. The quaternary structure of a protein is the:

a.

arrangement in space of the primary structure.

b.

association of other peptide chains with the main protein.

c.

three-dimensional shape of the polypeptide chain.

d.

order of the amino acids linked by peptide bonds.

 

  1. The plasma protein that demonstrates a decreased serum concentration during an intravascular hemolytic disorder and is used to identify this occurrence is:

a.

haptoglobin.

b.

ceruloplasmin.

c.

albumin.

d.

alpha1-fetoprotein.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following proteins is the most abundant plasma protein in early embryonic life and is also measured to assess hepatocellular carcinoma in adults?

a.

Alpha-fetoprotein

b.

Transferrin

c.

a1-Antitrypsin

d.

Ceruloplasmin

 

 

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  1. Hyperproteinemia is caused by:

a.

gastrointestinal disease.

b.

liver disease.

c.

kidney disease.

d.

dehydration.

 

 

 

  1. An increase in Bence-Jones protein in urine typically indicates the presence of paraproteins. What is Bence-Jones protein?

a.

An alpha2-globulin similar to C-reactive protein

b.

Immunoglobulin light chain fragments

c.

An acute phase reactant protein that appears during an infection

d.

Another name for IgM that activates complement

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following statements concerning albumin is not correct?

a.

Albumin is the most abundant protein in plasma.

b.

Albumin transports many substances in plasma.

c.

Albumin is a negative acute phase protein.

d.

Albumin is involved in plasma reduction and oxidation reactions.

 

 

  1. Known functions of proteins normally present in plasma include all of the following except:

a.

buffering.

b.

emulsification of fat.

c.

transport of iron and copper.

d.

oxygen transport.

 

 

  1. The serum protein that is analyzed to determine the presence of emphysema is:

a.

alpha1-antitrypsin.

b.

ceruloplasmin.

c.

alpha fetoprotein.

d.

haptoglobin.

 

 

 

  1. Which of the following proteins are important in the regulation of circulating iron?

a.

Haptoglobin

b.

Ceruloplasmin

c.

Transferrin

d.

Both b and c

 

 

 

  1. You operate a laboratory that receives many patient samples from the renal clinic next door. These patients have serious kidney problems, with causes that range from diabetes and IgA nephropathy to Fanconi syndrome. Would you expect to see elevated or decreased total urine protein from the patients that go to this clinic?

a.

Elevated

b.

Decreased

 

 

 

  1. Albumin concentration in blood can be analyzed in an empty blood collection tube containing no anticoagulant. This means that you are analyzing:

a.

serum that has been obtained when no anticoagulants are mixed with whole blood and then centrifuged.

b.

plasma that has been obtained when no anticoagulants are mixed with whole blood and then centrifuged.

c.

serum that has been obtained by mixing anticoagulants with whole blood and then centrifuged.

d.

plasma obtained by mixing anticoagulants with whole blood and then centrifuging the sample.

 

 

 

  1. Serum proteins or protein complexes that precipitate at temperatures lower than normal core body temperature and that, if precipitated in tissues, result in vasculitis and ischemic injury to peripheral tissues are referred to as:

a.

essential amino acids.

b.

paraproteins.

c.

amyloids.

d.

cryoglobulins.

 

 

 

  1. At a physiological pH of 7.4, most amino acids:

a.

are positively charged.

b.

have no net charge.

c.

are negatively charged.

d.

precipitate out of solution.

 

 

 

  1. At a pH of 4.0, the:

a.

carboxyl and amino groups of an amino acid become unprotonated, causing the amino acid to have a net negative charge.

b.

carboxyl and amino groups of an amino acid become protonated, causing the amino acid to have a net positive charge.

c.

carboxyl group of an amino acid is dissociated and the amino group is protonated, giving the amino acid no net charge.

d.

amino group of an amino acid is dissociated and the carboxyl group is protonated, giving the amino acid no net charge.

 

 

 

  1. The element of protein structure that involves the folding of the polypeptide in three dimensions and the formation of disulfide bonds between cysteines is the _____ structure.

a.

primary

b.

secondary

c.

tertiary

d.

quaternary

 

 

  1. Refractometry is a rapid, semiquantitative method of total protein determination. Which of the following will lead to a faulty interpretation of protein values obtained by refractometry?

a.

Serum protein less that 3.5 g/dL

b.

Lipemia

c.

Bilirubinemia

d.

All of the above

 

 

 

  1. Immunofixation electrophoresis:

a.

combines the techniques of zone electrophoresis, isotachophoresis, isoelectric focusing, and gel electrophoresis in small-bore fused silica capillary tubes.

b.

involves exposure of electrophoresed proteins to antisera against different immunoglobulin heavy and light chains with resultant precipitation.

c.

involves transfer of separated proteins to a strip of nitrocellulose by electroblotting followed by an immunochemical reaction with a specific antibody.

d.

uses electrophoresis in two dimensions to assess global changes in protein expression.

 

 

 

  1. A malignant neoplasm that is composed of plasma cells that exhibit monoclonality and are diffusely present in the bone marrow is referred to as:

a.

multiple sclerosis.

b.

monoclonal immunoglobulinemia.

c.

multiple myeloma.

d.

plasmacytoma.

 

 

  1. The addition of sulfosalicylic acid for a qualitative turbidimetric protein determination of a urine specimen is done to:

a.

dilute the protein in the specimen, because it is typically high and beyond the range of standards.

b.

remove interfering substances from the specimen.

c.

increase the volume of the specimen, because it is difficult to obtain adequate volume.

d.

precipitate a protein in the specimen that might be missed by albumin urine dipstick methods.

 

 

 

  1. Analyses of free light chains, particularly immunoassays that measure the ratio of free k- to free l-light chains, are sensitive indicators of:

a.

disorders of immunoglobulin synthesis such as multiple myeloma.

b.

albumin increase such as that observed in dehydration.

c.

b-globulin disorders such as decreased LDL.

d.

increased C-reactive protein such as that observed following myocardial infarction.

 

 

 

  1. The reference method for protein determination that converts nitrogen to ammonium ions by acid digestion is the:

a.

biuret method.

b.

refractometry method.

c.

Kjeldahl method.

d.

absorption of light at 280 nm.

 

 

 

  1. The proteins that are deposited in tissues as aggregates and that form b-sheet structures with eventual damage to the tissues are referred to as:

a.

paraproteins.

b.

complement proteins.

c.

amyloid.

d.

Bence-Jones protein.

 

 

 

  1. A healthy 27-year-old pregnant woman in the second trimester sees her obstetrician for a routine visit. Blood and urine samples are obtained. Total serum protein and protein electrophoresis are performed on the blood sample and total urine protein is also analyzed. The results of the serum protein electrophoresis indicate a substantial increase in the a-globulin region of the electrophoretogram. Which of the a-globulins might this be and why?

a.

It is likely alpha1-antitrypsin because of the presence of increased surfactant.

b.

It is likely alpha2-macroglobulin because of decreased serum estrogen.

c.

It is likely alpha1-acid glycoprotein because of the presence of progesterone.

d.

It is likely alpha1-fetoprotein due to fetal development.

 

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  1. A tumor of plasmacytoid cells that is diagnosed as Waldenström macroglobulinemia produces a paraprotein that is an:

a.

IgA.

b.

IgE.

c.

IgG.

d.

IgM.

 

 

 

  1. The most abundant complement protein component that is common to all three pathways of complement is:

a.

C1.

b.

C3.

c.

C5.

d.

C7.

 

 

 

  1. What is the globulin concentration of a specimen given the following information: total protein, 6.5 g/dL, and albumin, 3.8 g/dL?

a.

2.7 g/dL

b.

10.3 g/dL

c.

1.7 g/dL

d.

You cannot determine the globulin concentration from the information given here.

 

 

 

MATCHING

 

Using each answer only once, match the metabolic disorder with the related plasma protein abnormality.

a.

Wilson disease

b.

Intravascular hemolysis

c.

Inflammation

d.

Chronic renal disease

 

 

  1. Elevated serum C-reactive protein

 

  1. Elevated retinol-binding protein

 

  1. Decreased serum ceruloplasmin

 

  1. Decreased haptoglobin

 

 

 

Question 26:                 Chemistry

 

Chapter 14: Enzyme and Rate Analyses

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In regard to the expression of enzyme activity, a katal is:

a.

a unit that describes the amount of substrate in moles converted to product in 1 minute.

b.

a unit that describes the amount of enzyme that is consumed in 1 minute.

c.

a unit that describes the amount of enzyme that will catalyze a mole of substrate in 1 second.

d.

the substrate concentration at which the enzyme yields half the maximum velocity of the reaction.

 

 

 

  1. When a coenzyme binds to an enzyme, the enzyme portion of the resulting molecule is referred to as the:

a.

activator.

b.

holoenzyme.

c.

apoenzyme.

d.

prosthetic group.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following is a correct statement describing a property of an enzyme?

a.

Enzyme activity is not altered by heat denaturation.

b.

Enzymes affect the rate of a chemical reaction by being altered to fit into the active site of a substrate.

c.

Enzymes are protein catalysts that decrease the activation energy of a chemical reaction.

d.

Enzymes contain a site to which the product binds during an enzymatic reaction.

 

 

 

  1. Statin drugs lower cholesterol by competitive inhibition of the cholesterol-synthesizing enzyme HMG-CoA reductase. A competitive inhibitor binds:

a.

the enzyme at a site other than the active center, thereby decreasing the Vmax of the reaction.

b.

to the active center of the enzyme, with no effect on the Vmax of the reaction.

c.

to the entire enzyme-substrate complex, thereby decreasing the Km.

d.

to the active center of the enzyme, thereby causing the Km to increase.

 

 

  1. How does pH alter an enzymatic reaction rate?

a.

By affecting key amino acids in the enzyme protein at the active center and other sites

b.

By causing thermal inactivation through reconfiguration of the prosthetic group

c.

By promoting the formation of the most active state of the enzyme

d.

By decreasing the Km needed for maximum velocity to be reached

 

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  1. Regarding enzyme kinetics, the substrate concentration at which the reaction velocity is equal to 0.5 Vmax is referred to as:

a.

Km.

b.

Vmax association constant.

c.

1/n.

d.

first order concentration.

 

 

ANS:  A

Km, the Michaelis-Menten constant, is the experimentally determined substrate concentration at which v = 0.5 Vmax.

 

DIF:    1                    REF:   Page 224-225                                 OBJ:   1 | 10

 

  1. Zero-order kinetics occurs during the beginning of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction when a substrate concentration is high and the rate of the reaction is _____ on the _____ concentration.

a.

dependent; substrate

b.

dependent; coenzyme

c.

independent; substrate

d.

independent; enzyme

 

 

 

  1. True isoenzymes, which are multiple forms of an enzyme that possesses the ability to catalyze an enzyme’s characteristic reaction, are formed by:

a.

alteration of a carbohydrate side chain.

b.

the existence of more than one gene locus coding for the structure of the enzyme protein.

c.

association with other proteins and cofactors.

d.

changes in the phosphorylation pattern of associated proteins.

 

 

  1. During embryonic and fetal development, changes in isoenzyme distribution patterns are common. These changes are thought to result from:

a.

mutation-driven gene expression that reoccurs in adult malignancies.

b.

altered production due to a genetic defect.

c.

increased production and secretion from all undifferentiated proliferating cells.

d.

differential expression and changes in the relative activities of gene loci within developing cells.

 

 

 

  1. Regarding enzyme kinetics, the Michaelis-Menten plot of the relationship between reaction velocity and substrate concentration is correctly expressed as which one of the following formulae?

a.

n = Vmax[S]/Km + [S]

b.

n = Km[S]/Vmax + [S]

c.

n = Vmax + [S]/Km[S]

d.

n = Km + [S]/Vmax[S]

 

 

 

  1. Activators increase the rates of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. In some cases, these activators interact with the nonenzymatic component of the reaction such as the substrate. However, in most cases the activator:

a.

acts as an uncompetitive inhibitor by binding to the product.

b.

binds to the enzyme similar to the enzyme/substrate combination.

c.

alters the enzyme’s chemical properties to produce an altered product.

d.

destroys enzyme activity by denaturing the protein.

 

 

 

  1. In a continuous-monitoring assessment of an enzyme reaction rate, which one of the following is the preferable measurement?

a.

Measurement of the decreasing concentration of substrate

b.

Measurement of the increasing concentration of product

c.

Direct measurement of enzyme protein

d.

Calculation of Km and Vmax

 

 

 

  1. When determining the activity of an enzyme in serum as in a bisubstrate reaction, measurement of two different substances can be made. One measurement determines the decrease in substrate concentration acted upon by the enzyme and the other:

a.

analyzes the disappearance of enzyme used in the reaction.

b.

measures the increase in the concentration of a second substrate.

c.

measures the increase in the concentration of the second product formed.

d.

measures the amount of enzyme/substrate complex formed.

 

 

 

  1. In the reciprocal plot pictured below, the solid line indicates a normal enzyme reaction with no inhibition, and the dotted line indicates a decrease in Vmaxand no change in Km. This plot is an example of which type of inhibition?

a.

Competitive

b.

Noncompetitive

c.

Uncompetitive

d.

The type of inhibition cannot be determined with this information.

 

 

 

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  1. The reciprocal plot pictured below indicates a decrease in Vmax and a decrease in Km. The solid line indicates a normal enzymatic reaction. What type of enzymatic inhibition is this?

a.

Competitive

b.

Noncompetitive

c.

Uncompetitive

d.

The type of inhibition cannot be determined with this information.

 

 

 

  1. Regarding measurement of a property related to substrate concentration such as fluorescence production, the assay that, although more technically demanding, theoretically provides the most accurate measurement of enzyme activity is the:

a.

fixed-time assay.

b.

equilibrium method.

c.

discontinuous-monitoring assay.

d.

two-point kinetic method.

 

 

 

  1. An example of a posttranslational modification of an enzyme that produces an enzyme isoform would be:

a.

association of different types of subunits in various combinations in an oligomer.

b.

modification of genes at different loci.

c.

alteration of carbohydrate side chains.

d.

the existence of different allelic genes.

 

 

 

  1. Immobilized enzymes are used analytically in various electrochemical techniques. The use of an ion-selective electrode that is coated with an enzyme that produces ions when placed in a substrate solution is a type of:

a.

potentiometric measurement.

b.

immunoassay.

c.

equilibrium method.

d.

consecutive enzymatic reaction.

 

 

 

  1. Any condition, such as extreme temperature or extremes of pH, which changes the shape of the enzyme protein structure generally causes loss of enzymatic activity. This is referred to as:

a.

activation.

b.

inhibition.

c.

denaturation.

d.

optimization.

 

 

 

  1. In regard to factors that govern the rate of an enzymatic reaction, first-order reaction kinetics occur at that part of the reaction during which the rate of the reaction is:

a.

directly proportional to the substrate concentration.

b.

proportional to the concentration of the enzyme present.

c.

independent of either the enzyme or substrate concentration.

d.

dependent upon the pH and temperature of the system.

 

 

 

  1. The use of several enzymatic reactions linked together to provide a means of measuring the activity of the first enzyme or the concentration of the initial substrate is referred to as a(n):

a.

equilibrium reaction.

b.

consecutive enzymatic reaction.

c.

self-indicating reaction.

d.

enzyme immunoassay.

 

 

  1. The interaction of the amino acid side chains with the arrangement of the a-helices and b-sheets to form a three-dimensional protein structure is called the _____ structure of the protein.

a.

primary

b.

secondary

c.

tertiary

d.

quaternary

 

 

 

  1. All enzymes are classified to one of six classes based on the reaction they catalyze. Based on this classification, creatine kinase is a member of which one of the following enzyme classes?

a.

Hydrolase

b.

Oxidoreductase

c.

Ligase

d.

Transferase

 

 

 

  1. Varying different factors and studying their effects on an enzymatic reaction rate in the assessment of most favorable reaction conditions for an enzyme assay is referred to as:

a.

optimization.

b.

standardization.

c.

quality control.

d.

variable control.

 

 

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. In an enzyme immunoassay such as ELISA, the specificity of the labeled enzyme is the most important aspect of the measurement.

 

 

Question 27:                 Chemistry

 

Chapter 06: Specimen Collection, Processing, and Other Preanalytical Variables

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. When a coagulated blood sample is separated by centrifugation, the liquid component is separated from the cells. This “serum” is the:

a.

liquid component with all clotting factors present in it.

b.

liquid component with no clotting factors in it.

c.

unclotted cellular component.

d.

clot.

 

 

 

  1. An example of an uncontrollable preanalytical variable would be:

a.

improper specimen collection.

b.

preanalytical errors.

c.

prolonged bed rest.

d.

an individual’s age.

 

 

 

  1. The best use of a saliva specimen would be for which one of the following analyses?

a.

Measurement of blood group substances to determine secretor status and genotype

b.

Determination of whether the specimen is an effusion or an exudate

c.

Early gestational age diagnosis of inherited genetic disorders

d.

Characterization of the type of arthritis present in an individual

 

 

  1. Hemolysis will cause potassium _____ when analyzed.

a.

and lactate dehydrogenase (LD) values to appear increased

b.

value to appear increased and LD value to appear decreased

c.

value to appear decreased and LD value to appear increased

d.

and LD values to appear decreased

 

 

  1. The type of urine specimen that is best for detection of abnormal amounts of certain analytes such as chorionic gonadotropin for pregnancy testing is a:

a.

random and untimed specimen.

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24-hour collection.

c.

clean, early morning, fasting specimen.

d.

catheter specimen.

 

 

 

  1. Arthrocentesis is a technique used to collect:

a.

pleural fluid.

b.

blood.

c.

synovial fluid.

d.

amniotic fluid.

 

 

 

  1. An amniotic fluid specimen for bilirubin analysis is received in the laboratory in a clear plastic collection tube. How will this affect the results of the bilirubin analysis?

a.

There will be no effect on the bilirubin analysis results, because this specimen is properly collected.

b.

Because the tube is not darkened, light will cause the bilirubin to be photo-degraded and the results will be falsely decreased.

c.

Because there is no additive in the tube, the amniotic fluid cells will hemolyze, leading to a false increase in bilirubin.

d.

Because the tube is made of plastic, the amniotic fluid will clot, and no analysis can be performed on a clotted sample.

 

 

 

  1. As an anticoagulant, heparin acts to:

a.

chelate calcium.

b.

inhibit platelet aggregation.

c.

antagonize vitamin K.

d.

activate antithrombin.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following anticoagulants is considered unacceptable for a blood sample that will be used for DNA amplification in the polymerase chain reaction?

a.

Heparin

b.

EDTA

c.

Iodoacetate

d.

Acid citrate dextrose

 

 

 

  1. An individual has several laboratory tests ordered and is having blood collected. After applying the tourniquet, the phlebotomist has to answer the phone and write down a message, leaving the tourniquet in place for approximately 3 minutes. How will this affect this individual’s serum composition of total protein and potassium?

a.

Both will be increased.

b.

Total protein will be increased and potassium will be decreased.

c.

Total protein will be decreased and potassium will be increased.

d.

Both will be decreased.

 

 

 

  1. An individual has several laboratory tests ordered and is having blood collected. After applying the tourniquet, the phlebotomist has to answer the phone and write down a message, leaving the tourniquet in place for approximately 3 minutes. How will this affect this individual’s serum composition of bilirubin?

a.

It will be increased.

b.

It will be decreased

c.

It will not be affected.

 

 

 

  1. Which one of the following analytes shows no difference in composition between a serum and a plasma specimen?

a.

Lactate dehydrogenase

b.

Potassium

c.

Cholesterol

d.

Total protein

 

 

  1. A blood collection tube containing a specific amount of additive is only half filled with blood instead of being completely filled. Will this collection affect laboratory test results?

a.

There will be no effect on the results because the additive is “calibrated” for any amount of blood in the tube.

b.

There will be a significant effect on the test results because the additive must be mixed with a full tube of blood to achieve its appropriate effect.

 

 

 

  1. When collecting a timed urine specimen for laboratory analysis:

a.

all of the urine must be collected at once into one large container instead of using smaller separate containers that are emptied into the large container.

b.

the container used for collection must be maintained at room temperature throughout the entire collection period.

c.

it is acceptable and best practice to collect the urine into one container containing two different mixed preservatives if more than one test is ordered.

d.

the individual’s bladder must be emptied first at the beginning of the time of collection, and this urine is discarded.

 

 

 

  1. A skin puncture of an individual’s finger is ordered for hematocrit analysis and is to be collected into a capillary tube. It is cold in the phlebotomy area, and the phlebotomist notices that the individual appears cold and pale. What should the phlebotomist do to stimulate blood circulation to the finger so an acceptable finger stick specimen will be obtained?

a.

Slap the individual’s hand to warm it up.

b.

Tie a tourniquet around the individual’s finger.

c.

Warm the finger for 3 minutes using a warming device.

d.

Massage the finger and hand.

 

 

 

  1. An example of a preanalytical error would be:

a.

mislabeling a tube of blood with an incorrect name.

b.

using expired reagents in an analysis.

c.

sending the test results to the incorrect physician.

d.

failing to run controls with unknown samples.

 

 

 

  1. The best additive in a collection tube for enhancing the vitality and recovery of white blood cells for isolation of genomic DNA is:

a.

sodium citrate.

b.

heparin.

c.

oxalate.

d.

acid citrate dextrose.

 

 

 

MATCHING

 

Using each answer only once, match the color of the evacuated blood collection tube stopper with the additive in that tube.

a.

Yellow

b.

Lavender

c.

Gray

d.

Green

 

 

 

 

 

Question 28:                 Law

 

25 out of 25 points

Explain in your own words the purpose for Rule 7.6 and give an example of the specific type of conduct that is prohibited by the rule.

 

25 out of 25 points

Select three scriptures that support the purpose and prohibitions contained in Rule 7. Explain the moral principles contained in the scriptures selected that support the ethical principles contained in Chapter 7.

 

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 7.4 prohibits a lawyer from stating or implying that the lawyer is certified as a specialist in a particular field of law in which no certification has been issued. How is this rule different from rule 7.1? According to this rule explain whether a lawyer is prohibited from advertising that the lawyer has expertise in a certain field when there is no certifying agency?

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 7.1 reads, “A lawyer shall not make a false or misleading communication about the lawyer or the lawyer’s services. A communication is false or misleading if it contains a material misrepresentation of fact or law, or omits a fact necessary to make the statement considered as a whole not materially misleading.” Explain in your own words the purpose of this rule. Also, explain the purpose and meaning of the last phrase “A communication is false or misleading if it contains a material misrepresentation of fact or law, or omits a fact necessary to make the statement considered as a whole not materially misleading.”

 

Question 29:                 Law

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 4.3, in part, declaims “The lawyer shall not give legal advice to an unrepresented person, other than the advice to secure counsel, if the lawyer knows or reasonably should know that the interests of such a person are or have a reasonable possibility of being in conflict with the interests of the client.” What is the duty of a lawyer towards unrepresented persons? To what extent may a lawyer advise an unrepresented person? At what point is a lawyer-client relationship formed?

 

 

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 4.2 says “In representing a client, a lawyer shall not communicate about the subject of the representation with a person the lawyer knows to be represented by another lawyer in the matter, unless the lawyer has the consent of the other lawyer or is authorized to do so by law or a court order.” What is meant by “authorized to do so by law or a court order?” What are some examples of this authorization? Furthermore, list several examples of what would constitute forbidden communication with a represented party. Detail why this rule is required.

 

 

15 out of 25 points

In your own words, explain the purpose for the rules governing “Transactions with Persons Other Than Clients.” Select two scriptures that support the ethical principles contained in this section explaining how the scriptures support the specific ethical principles.

 

 

 

25 out of 25 points

Rule 4.1b states that “a lawyer shall not knowingly: fail to disclose a material fact to a third person when discourse is necessary to avoid assisting a criminal or fraudulent act by a client, unless disclosure is prohibited by Rule 1.6.” What is meant by a material fact? What is the intent and purpose of this rule? How does this rule correlate with scriptural commands towards interactions with each other?

 

 

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Question 30:        Law

 

State the general purpose for the Model Rules contained in the reading and study materials. Then analyze the specific rules governing “Meritorious Claims and Contentions,” “Expediting Litigation,” and “Candor toward the Tribunal.” Include the purpose for each rule, specific examples of when the rules are violated, and the biblical principles that coincide with the prohibitions that are contained in the rules.

 

 

Question 31:        Political Science

 

Topic – Public Housing

Objectives:

  • To learn to find and analyze research to assist in examination of critical social problems.
  • To learn to apply research to the development of responses to critical social problems.
  • To learn and develop skills for writing scholarly papers in the APA style.

Article:

  • These papers will be written on an article of your choosing on the assigned topic.
  • Must be from a Peer Reviewed Journal (research).
  • Research* what is considered a “Peer Reviewed Journal”.
  • Article must present a research study with findings applicable to your topic.

*There are several search engines that focus on academic (scholarly) writing –I like “Google Scholar”

Find 5 articles from your research that fit the requirements of the short paper above.

  • You will list the articles in the bibliography of your Short Paper using the appropriate APA style.
  • Select one of these articles about which you write you Short Paper for submission.
  • Follow the Short Paper Instructions in the “Writing Tools” module.

Paper:

  • 2 pages in length–the goal is to be clear and concise.
  • 1 inch margins –top, bottom, left, and right
  • 5 spacing
  • 11 point
  • Calibri font

 

Question 32:                 Business

 

GROUP PROJECT

 

Scenario:  Your team has been hired to provide financial analysis for a start-up company, Bobble in Style, which produces customized bobble heads. The bobble heads are made out of less rigid materials and are more true to life than those of competitors. The company inventors, Mr. and Mrs. Lee, are going to pitch their idea to Shark Tank in a few months, but first they need to have a better understanding of the business financials. The Lee’s are already creating and selling their product from their home-based office and work area. They know what costs are involved with making the bobble heads on a small scale, but they don’t have an understanding of financial figures beyond basic costs. They need you to make sense of various financial figures for them.

The Project:  There are several financial analysis tasks involved with this project, which are outlined below (#1-8). Once you have worked through each task, you will need to produce a PowerPoint presentation to introduce and highlight your findings. Your PowerPoint presentation should include a title slide, an executive summary slide(s), subsequent slides that illustrate your findings, any additional recommendations that you would like to make, and a conclusion slide. The PowerPoint presentation should be approximately 15-25 slides in length. Include notes in the presentation as needed.  You will also need to create a written executive summary (one page in length). Your final submission will include the PowerPoint presentation, the executive summary, and an Excel file with relevant calculations. The specific financial analysis tasks and related information are listed below (#1-8).

Working in a Group:  Your instructor will assign you into a group during Week 4. This allows time for students to drop/add during the first 3 weeks of the course. Starting early will allow for adequate time to develop timelines and assign responsibilities as a team. Group Projects provide the opportunity to work with your classmates and are a necessary part of the Financial Management workforce. Please use this occasion to demonstrate your strengths and allow group members to do the same. Critically thinking and creativity are vital to your success in the work place and this project is a great chance to build those talents.

It is a group project so you will need to coordinate with various members of your group on how to progress with the project. Often students are reluctant to work in groups, but as you have experienced in the workplace, working in a group will not be an option. You will learn together and find out more about flexibility and sharing of responsibilities with the project. All team members should contribute to the financial analysis tasks. A timeline for completion of these tasks should be determined by the team. The completed PowerPoint presentation should be cohesive and professional in appearance. You may decide to split the Executive Summary and PowerPoint presentations between all members, or you may decide to have 2 students focus on the Executive Summary Word document and content for the associated PowerPoint slide while the rest of the team members focus on the PowerPoint presentation. The decision should be based on what works best for your team. Also determine a timeline for this portion of the assignment. Consider how editing will be done within your team. Use the grading rubric to help guide your work!

 

  1. Financial Statements: Develop an Income Statement for 20XX, Cash Flow Statement for 20XX, and Balance Sheet as of the end of 20XX based on the data provided below for year 20XX. All sales are collected when the sale is made and all expenses are paid when the expense is incurred. Explain the purpose of each financial statement.
    1. Income Statement Data for 20XX:
      • Units produced and sold = 420
      • Sales ($80 per unit selling price) = $33600
      • Cost of goods sold ($30 per unit, all variable costs) = $12600
      • Labor = $0 (Mr. and Mr. Lee were the only ones working and did not pay themselves)
      • Advertising fees =$2000
      • Bank fees = $150
      • Phone/internet = $1200
      • Shipping ($3 per unit) = $1260
      • Utilities = $900
      • Office supplies = $800
      • Interest expense on note payable = $350
      • Depreciation expense (straight line) = $800
      • Income tax rate = 26 %
    2. Other Financial Data for 20XX:
      • Proceeds from sale of equipment = $3000. The equipment originally cost $1000 and had accumulated depreciation of $200.
      • Purchase of equipment = $1600 (The machine is purchased on the last day of 20XX so no depreciation expense is recorded.)
      • Repayment of note payable = $5000
      • Consider any data relevant from the income statement.
    3. Balance Sheet Data for Beginning of 20XX:
      • Cash and cash equivalents = $10000
      • Accounts receivable = $0 (Cash is received at time of sale)
      • Raw materials inventory = $10500
      • Equipment = $5000 (This includes the $1000 cost of the equipment sold in 20XX).
      • Accumulated depreciation = $1,000 (This includes the accumulated depreciation of 200 for the equipment sold in 20XX.
      • Accounts payable = $0 (Cash is paid at the time of purchase.)
      • Note payable = $5000 (This is the note payable which is repaid in 20XX)
      • Common stock = $15000
      • Retained earnings = $4500

 

 

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  1. Financial Ratios: Calculate the following financial ratios and explain the meaning of the results.
    1. Net Profit Margin
    2. Quick Ratio
    3. Debt-to-Equity Ratio
  2. Cost Classification: The Lee’s have provided you with the following costs and relevant information that are assumed for year 20XY.
  3. Classify each of the costs (a. through j.) below under C. as a variable cost or a fixed cost.
  4. Explain the importance of distinguishing between variable and fixed costs.
  5. Prepare a budgeted income statement, assuming 600 units to be produced and sold, a per unit selling price of $85, an income tax rate of 28% and the following information.
    1. Cost of goods sold of $35 per unit
    2. Labor = $400/month
      • One part-time employee will be hired to take care of packaging and shipping. This employee will be paid $10 per hour. He or she is estimated to work 40 hours total per month.
    3. Advertising fees = $3,000
    4. Bank fees = $200
    5. Phone/internet = $150 per month
    6. Shipping = $3 per unit
    7. Utilities = $100 per month
    8. Office Supplies = $900
    9. Conference Exhibitor Fee = $3000
    10. Travel Expenses for Conference (e.g. airfare, meals, taxi) = $1200
  6. Net Present Value: The Lees are considering adding a new piece of equipment that will speed up the process of building the bobble heads. The cost of the piece of equipment is $42000. It is expected that the new piece of equipment will lead to cash flows of $17000, $29000, and $40000 over the next 3 years. If the appropriate discount rate is 12%, what is the NPV of this investment? Explain the findings.
  7. Budget Preparation: The Lees believe that production and sales could double after being on Shark Tank which is scheduled in December of 20XY. They want to be prepared for this. Based on the budgeted income statement calculated above for 20XY, create a new budgeted income for 20XZ assuming that the production and sales is double the level of 20XY.
  8. Incremental Analysis: If production does increase dramatically after their presentation on Shark Tank, the Lees will need more space for production. They have two options. Option 1 is to rent out a spacious warehouse nearby. If they pursue this option, there rent will be $1200 per month and utilities are estimated to cost an additional $350 per month. Their second option, Option 2, is to rent a smaller storefront space that is also nearby. The storefront rent is $1350 per month. However, utilities will likely only cost an additional $150 per month. They want to compare their options over one year’s time (since each rental contract is a 1 year commitment). What is the incremental analysis if the Lees choose Option 1 over Option 2?
  9. Break-Even Analysis: You have been asked to calculate how many units need to be sold to break even, based on the costs provided in task #3. Assume that only one conference will be attended and the estimated expenses associated with this conference are on target. Use the information in task #3 except do not consider taxes.)
  10. Contribution Margin: Based on the Break-Even Analysis just performed, what is the contribution margin per unit and the total contribution margin?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 33:        Mathematics

 

Must complete all the parts to this problem: PART 1: Output the table from Excel, copy and paste the table into your word document. PART 2: State the Null and Alternative Hypothesis for the one-way ANOVA. PART 3: What is your decision for the test? State if the Null Hypothesis is rejected or not, then write 1 concluding sentence why using the p-value. PART 4: A ta 5% significance level, Is Earnings Per Share significantly different for chemical and petroleum companies? To get full credit for this question, you must give the value of the LSD along with the mean difference. Then write 1 – 2 sentences answering the question.

 

 

NURSING QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

 

Which of the following is considered a component of lipids?
A. Plasma cells
B. Fatty acids
C. Nucleic acids
D. Zinc

  1. Fatty acids

Down’s syndrome affects chromosome ____.

chromosome 21

Blood enters the lungs from which chamber of the heart?

Right ventricle

Excessive consumption of alcohol is most likely to damage which organ of the body over a long period of time?

Liver

Which of the following is not considered a type of radiation ray?
A. Gamma
B. Beta
C. Alpha
D. Infrared

  1. Infrared

A molecule of hemoglobin can hold how many molecules of oxygen in the blood for transport?

 

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4

Which of the following best describes the biomechanics of breathing?
A. Pump handle motion
B. Lever action
C. Inspiration
D. Expiration

  1. Pump handle motion

Animals that eat meat almost exclusively are known as:

Carnivores

The physical expressions of a gene are known as an organism’s:

Phenotype

Neurons connect together at a ______.

Synapse

. Which of the following is another word for the kneecap in the human body?
A. Pisiform
B. Meniscus
C. Popliteal bursa
D. Patella

  1. Patella

Which of the following describes the shoulder joint
A. Ball and socket joint
B. Saddle joint
C. Hinge joint
D. Pivot joint

  1. Ball and socket joint

The organ of Corti is found in what area of the body?

Ear

The condition of rickets is associated with a deficiency in which vitamin?

Vit. D

A steroid is considered a ______.

Lipid

The X cranial nerve is the ____ nerve.

Vagus

Which of the following pH ranges is a strong base?
A. 1.3-2.0
B. 4.5-5.2
C. 7.1-9.0
D. 11.2-12.0

  1. 11.2-12.0

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the systemic circulation?

Left Ventricle

The movement of food through the intestines is known as:

Peristalsis

The enzyme maltase does the following:
A. Breaks down lactose to glucose
B. Turns glucose into maltose
C. Breaks down maltose to glucose
D. Turns glucose into lactose

  1. Breaks down maltose to glucose

High levels of bilirubin in the blood stream can result in:

Jaundice

The symbol B on the periodic table stands for:

Boron

The symbol Mn on the periodic table stands for:

Manganese

The symbol Ca on the periodic table stands for:

Calcium

Vinegar is also known as:

Acetic acid

_____ reactions produce heat.

Exothermic

Which of the following match the definition: The pressure (P) is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of a gas.
A. Archimedes’ principle
B. Charles’ law
C. Boyle’s law
D. Anderson’s principle

  1. Boyle’s law

The combination of sodium and chlorine to form NaCL is considered a/an ___ bond.

Ionic

Outer shell electrons are known as ______ electrons.

Valence

P1V1 = P2V2 represents:

Boyle’s law

Which of the following is not considered a primary color of light?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Yellow

  1. Yellow

The two bones found in the area between the knee and ankle in humans are known as:

Fibula and Tibia

When the chromosomes line up in mitosis this is known as which phase?

Metaphase

Which cellular organelle contains enzymes that are considered digestive?

Lysosomes

Organs repair themselves through a process of?

Mitosis

Which of the following is considered a model for enzyme action?

Lock and Key model

Which of the following statements about enzymes is not true?
A. Enzymes are catalysts.
B. Almost all enzymes are proteins.
C. Enzymes operate most efficiently at optimum pH.
D. Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions.

  1. Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions.

Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is not true?
A. Prostaglandins promote inflammation.
B. Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels.
C. Prostaglandins are made in the renal medulla.
D. Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever.

  1. Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels.

Prostaglandins :

When tissues are damaged, white blood cells flood the site to try to minimize tissue destruction. Prostaglandins are produced as a result.PGE2 causes uterine contractions and has been used to induce labour.

Hardening of the arteries is known as:

Atheriosclerosis

The top number on a blood pressure reading indicates:

Systolic pressure : The first number is called the systolic pressure and is the pressure when your heart is pumping out blood. The second lower number is called the diastolic pressure and is the pressure when the heart is resting.

Litmus paper that is blue will turn/stay _____ in the presence of a strong base.

Blue

Breathing properly requires the presence of what compound that affects surface tension of alveoli in the lungs?

Surfactant

Which of the following is not considered a function of the kidneys?
A. Secretion
B. Reabsorption
C. Transport
D. Filtration

  1. Transport

The functional unit of the kidney is known as?

Nephron

Which of the following is not considered a characteristic or property of a gas?
A. Volume
B. Mass
C. Pressure
D. Particles

  1. Particles

Liquids that evaporate quickly are known as _____ liquids.

Volatile

What anatomical structure connects the stomach and the mouth?

Esophagus

Vacuole :

Provides storage space for cell

Ribosome :

Site of protein synthesis

Cell membrane :

Is selectively permeable

Mitochondrion :

Site of energy production

Nucleus :

Holds the DNA of the cell

Enzymes :

are made of proteins and can speed up reactions.

A cell is in a solution in which the concentration of solutes is higher inside the cell than outside the cell. The cell will likely :

swell up and possibly burst. Hypotonic

Yeast is used to make bread rise because :

the yeast carries out fermentation, which produces ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Which statement below does not have the same truth value as the others?
(A) RNA is single-stranded.
(B) RNA contains uracil.
(C) DNA codes for proteins.
(D) DNA cannot be altered.

(D) DNA cannot be altered.

Which of the following is a way in which mitosis differs from meiosis?
(A) Mitosis takes place to form sex cells.
(B) Meiosis creates cells with half the number of chromosomes than the original cell.
(C) Telophase does not take place in mitosis.
(D) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis occur via mitosis.

(B) Meiosis creates cells with half the number of chromosomes than the original cell.

The ribs are _____________ to the lungs in the human body.

anterior

Which of the following statements is true?
(A) The digestive system can do its job without the use of accessory organs.
(B) The digestive system uses sphincters to contain substances being digested at certain points of the digestive tract.
(C) Mechanical digestion is more important than chemical digestion.
(D) The juices that are used to digest food can be effective at any point along the digestive tract.

(B) The digestive system uses sphincters to contain substances being digested at certain points tract.

The heart and veins have valves to ensure that :

blood flows in only one direction.

Of the processes below, which one is a different level of defense from the other three?
(A) a low pH in the stomach
(B) cilia present in the trachea
(C) cells within the body recognizing a pathogen
(D) mucus present in the nasal cavity

(C) cells within the body recognizing a pathogen

The movement of air through the respiratory system depends on :

the movements of the diaphragm.

Which pathway/order is correct?
(A) sperm: testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra
(B) egg: vagina, uterus, ovary, fallopian tube
(C) development: morula, blastula, zygote, egg
(D) development: fertilization, ovulation, ejaculation

(A) sperm: testes, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra

Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Vitamin D and calcium are needed for strong healthy bones.
(B) Ligaments keep bones joined together.
(C) Skeletal muscle is needed for voluntary movements.
(D) Cartilage’s rigidity helps maintain structure.

(D) Cartilage’s rigidity helps maintain structure.

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Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The autonomic nervous system allows humans to decide how to use involuntary muscles.
(B) The brain and the spinal cord are part of the central nervous system.
(C) Nerve impulses can send signals faster than chemical signals traveling through the blood.
(D) Neurotransmitters are needed to help send signals between nerves.

(A) The autonomic nervous system allows humans to decide how to use involuntary muscles

Inside the kidney one does find :

glomeruli and nephrons

The purpose of the endocrine system is to :

release chemical signals into the body as to regulate functions.

How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 3 than an acid with a pH of 6?

A pH of 3 is one thousand times as strong.

Plant cells are different from animal cells because plant cells :

have a cell wall.

Two organisms live in a symbiotic relationship from which both benefit.This is best described as :

mutualism.

The scientific name for a house cat is Felis catus. This indicates the house cat’s :

genus and species.

What is the apex (heart)?

The inferior point and points towards the hip

What is a sulcus?

depression or fissure in the surface of an organ (brain or heart)

epicardium :

the outer most layer of the heart

myocardium :

middle layer of the heart

Describe cardiac muscle cells :

branched, unicellular, contain intercalated discs, linked by gap junctions.

What causes striations in cardiac muscle cells?

contains thick and thin filaments (actin and myosin) which are banded

Why do cardiac muscles appear red in color ?

rich in mitochondria and oxy.

What are intercalated disks?

interlocking adjacent cells and linked together by a gap junctions which help action potential and help transfer force from cell to cell

Where is the Interatrial septum?

between the left and right atrium

What connects the atria to the ventricles?

The tricuspid atrioventricular valve and bicuspid atrioventricular valve

What veins empty blood into the right atrium?

Superior Vena Cava (SVC), Inferior Vena Cava (IVC), Coronary Sinus (CS)

papillary muscles :

project from the inner surface of the ventricles to help the valves close to prevent back flow

What happens to the AV valves when the ventricles begin to contract?

They will close prevent back flow into the left atrium

What are the ridges and grooves in the wall of the ventricles called?

Trabeculae Carneae

 Test your knowledge with this preview of 5 practice questions

  1. Which of the following is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer?
    1. Smoking
    2. Chlamydia infection
    3. Family history of cervical cancer
    4. Human papillomavirus
  2. A 36-year-old woman who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes daily seeks advice about contraception. Which of the following contraceptive methods should she avoid? Select all that apply.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Vaginal ring
  2. Combined hormone pills
  3. Intrauterine device
  4. Progestogen-only pill
  5. All contraceptives except condoms and diaphragms
  1. A schizophrenic client has frequent hallucinations and is becoming increasingly withdrawn. Which of the following are appropriate interventions for hallucinations? Select all that apply.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Communicate frequently with the client to help present reality.
  2. Use distracting techniques.
  3. Ask client to describe the hallucinations.
  4. Encourage client to participate in reality-based activities, such as playing cards.
  5. Tell client to ignore the hallucinations.
  1. A client with asthma is to be discharged and must take nebulizer treatments at home. Which of the following is the best method to ensure that the client understands how to use and clean the equipment after the nurse completes a demonstration?
    1. Provide the client with written instructions
    2. Provide the client with a telephone number to call if questions arise
    3. Ask the client if he has any questions.
    4. Ask the client to do a return demonstration
  2. When conducting a physical examination of a 62-year-old female, the nurse notes nodules on the dorsolateral aspects of the distal interphalangeal joints (Heberden’s nodes) of the right hand. Which of the following diseases does this finding suggest?
    1. Acute tenosynovitis
    2. Gout
    3. Rheumatoid arthritis
    4. Osteoarthritis

MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS

 

An expectation that team members are responsible for their activities and must report outcomes transparently

Accountability

The implicit and explicit power that a manager or employee has to fulfill an organizational function or role

Authority

The level of individual discretion that an employee has to make decisions

Autonomy

A trusted intermediary that facilitates mutually agreed upon outcomes for two or more parties

Broker

A design structure that relies on senior-level managers to collect information broadly, in order to make decisions on behalf of the entire company

Centralized Organization

A predefined structure order of authority that determines how decisions are made and communicated

Chain of Command

The synchronization of an organization’s functions to ensure efficient use of resources in pursuit of goals and objectives

Coordination

A compendium of policies intended to ensure transparency and fulfillment of duties to stakeholders

Corporate Governance

A design structure that relies on all employees to collect and communicate information, in order to make decisions and recommend changes

Decentralized Structure

When a manager grants power and authority to another team member

Delegation

A design structure that groups together processes and jobs based on functions, products, or customers

Departmentalization

The process through which managers divide labor based on tasks and functions

Differentiation

A design structure that groups processes and jobs based on clearly defined market segments or geography

Divisional Organization

The degree of which policies and procedures determine specific jobs and functions

Formalization

Independent workers that supply organizations with talent for projects or time-bound objectives

Free Agents

A hierarchical structure where employees are managed through clear levels of authority

Functional Organization

A vertically organized structure of power relationships, where the top level holds clear levels of authority.

Unites the different parts of the company, brings units in tune w/ company’s underlying principles, core purposes, goals, and objectives

Hierarchy

Horizontal coordination between functions, departments, and organizational activities

Integration

A design structure that facilitates horizontal integration and collaboration

Matrix Organization

A group of independent companies that organize themselves to appear as a larger entity

Network Organization

A visual document that communicates how a company is organized

Organizational Chart

A highly adaptive structure defined by horizontal integration, distributed decision making, and employees with a high degree of generalization

Organic Organization

The optimum number of direct reports that a person can manage effectively

Span of Control

Focusing a group or individual’s activities based on strengths, aptitudes, or skills

Specialization

A performance context where policies and procedures seek to create uniform results

Standardization

A work arrangement in which an employee is given flexibility in terms of work location; and often hours as well

Telecommuting

A philosophy that each employee is given reports to and is accountable to only one manager

Unity-of-Command Principle

A structure, characterized by hierarchical authority and communication channels

Vertical Organization Structure

A group of employees who work across barriers consisting of time, distance, and organizational boundaries, while being linked together by information and communication technologies

Virtual Team

*What is the opposite of ORGANIC?

Mechanistic

*Example of Vertical Approach

Chief of Police–>Captain–>branches off into three different divisions–>each division branches off into more specific roles

*Authority, Chain of Command, Corporate Governance, Broker, Organization Chart, Network Organization, Unity-of-Command Principle—>These all relate to what approach???

*Vertical approach

*Decentralized Structure, Departmentalization, Functional Organization, Autonomy, Divisional Organization, Matrix Organization—>These are relate to what approach??

*Horizontal approach

*____________ is a system of tasks, reporting relationships, and communication that links people and positions within an organization

Organizational Structure

*____________ describes the ___________ __________ of how an org should ideally work as designed

Organizational chart, formal structure

*1. Division of work
2. Supervisory relationships
3. Span of control
4. Communication channels
5. Major sub units
6. Staff positions
7. Levels of management

7 Parts of an Organizational Chart

*______________ _____________ group people with similar skills into the same department. (Also known as departmentalization)

Functional Structures

*________________ _______________ group together people who work on similar products, work in same geographical region, serve same customers, or perform same process.

Divisional Structures

*Focus/purpose of Functional Structures?

Cost EFFICIENCY

*Focus/purpose of Divisional Structures?

EFFECTIVENESS

*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of–>
1. Expertise focused on division (products, customers, regions, process)
2. Coordination across functions within divisions
3. Problem solving for product or service delivery

Advantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these ADVANTAGES of—>
1. Expertise focused functional skills (accounting, HR, etc.)
2. Training within functions promotes skill development
3. Efficient use of human resources

Advantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Inefficiencies from duplication of resources
2. Poor communication across divisions
3. Achieve divisional goals instead of organizational goals

Disadvantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Poor communication across departments
2. Poor problem solving for product or service delivery

Disadvantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

*What type of decision making is characterized by top management keeping strong control w/ formal authority and formal rules?

Centralized Decision-Making

*What type of decision making is characterized by being distributed throughout the organization using informal authority and informal rules?

 

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Decentralized Decision-Making

*What type of org is characterized by formal authority and mechanistic design?

Vertical/Rigid Organization

*What type of org is characterized by informal authority and organic design?

Horizontal/Adaptive Organization

^Traditionally, organizational power structures were…. democratic, horizontal, autocratic, or collaborative?

Autocratic

^Why must orgs strike a balance between differentiation and integration in creating an org structure…… to ensure managers have absolute control/responsibility, to allow the organization to adapt to changing environments, to spread responsibility among all employees regardless of rank, or to facilitate positive relations between workers/managers?

To allow the organization to adapt to changing environments

^The degree of integration in an org structure directly corresponds to the degree of ___________ in it. Efficiency, unity, autonomy, or coordination?

Coordination

^As a company grows/branches into divisions, what should be ensured for a successful transition of its org structure to compensate for continued unity?….. Delegation of power and authority to staff, formalization of specific jobs/functions, coordination of a company’s functions/operations, or standardization of policies and procedures?

Standardization of policies and procedures

^A managers span of control concerns…. their hierarchical rank within the org, the number of subordinates that report to a manager, the duties a manager is delegated, or the overall time the manager has been at the company?

The number of subordinates that report to a manager

^Which describes a vertical org structure…. Balanced, decentralized, diffuse, hierarchical?

Hierarchical

^Good corporate governance…. promotes good relations w/ management and subordinates, prevents power from being too centralized, ensures the chain of command is respected, or ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled?

Ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled

^What the Unity-of-Command Principle prevent…. accountability/transparency, disorganization/confusion, centralization of authority, or ethical breakdowns/lapses?

Disorganization and confusion

^Network organizations allow for…

Independent companies to more easily work with each other

^How does a decentralized structure differ from a centralized structure?…. There are no chains of command for employees to follow, all employees are expected to collect/communicate info, org structures change frequently to meet emerging needs, or all employees share equal power and authority in decision making?

All employees are expected to collect/communicate info

^Departmentalization aims to group processes and jobs based most on…. efficiency, authority, similarity, or productivity?

Similarity

^What type of organization would benefit a company that seeks high levels of collaboration between departments but w/ clear chains of command?…. Bureaucratic, divisional, matrix, or functional?

Matrix

^In a divisional org, decision-making authority is typically ___________ than in a function organization. Less autonomous, more diffuse, more centralized, or less shared?

More diffuse

^What benefit do adaptive approaches provide organizations?… They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works,
they allow for considerable autonomy among diff divisions while providing high levels of accountability,
they provide significant centralization of authority while diffusing responsibility,
or they provide orgs w/ the ability to rapidly transform their chain of command while retaining high degree of authority?

They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works

^Accountability depends on ___________. Leadership, transparency, skill, or autonomy?

Transparency

^Primary benefit of a company that allows employee telecommuting?… Prevents ethical breakdowns, provides high degree of flexibility, reinforces transparency, or increases profits by reducing worker costs?

Telecommuting provides a high degree of flexibility

^Free agents are _________ workers. Salaried, permanent, contract, or part-time?

Contract

^Which of these should the manager of a virtual team do to reduce barriers?…. Carefully select team members that are social and extroverted, organize team by setting defined goals for each member and allowing them to work autonomously, use information and communication technology, or plan face-to-face team-building meetings?

Use information and

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