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Do you think that brands have a finite life, or do you believe that brands can last forever? Support your position with detailed explanations and the use of a brand example
Unit IV Essay
Marketing Plan: Part II
Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed in the Unit II assignment. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the subsequent marketing plan that you will compile. The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).
This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.
Provide a segmentation and target market analysis.
In this section of the marketing plan, you should identify the four criteria useful in segmenting the market, and apply them to your company. Explain how identifying the target market is more clearly defined once a marketer has conducted segmentation on the population. Explain several target markets for your company using detailed explanations.
Include a competitive and industry analysis.
This section of the marketing plan should identify three or four competitors of your company. These can be direct or indirect competitors. (Note: Not all companies have competitors.) Differentiate each competitor based upon multiple criteria. Additionally, conduct an industry analysis by looking at the health of the industry in which your company resides. Identify whether the industry has grown or shrunk in the last 5–10 years. Explain why understanding the competitors and the health of the industry are important elements of the marketing plan.
Provide a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis.
In this section, you will compile a SWOT analysis of your company. The internal strengths and weaknesses as well as the external opportunities and threats need to be identified and explained (include at least 2–3 elements under each area of the SWOT). The value proposition will be demonstrated through a strong showing in the strengths section of the SWOT analysis. Reference the SWOT analysis explanation in the Unit I Lesson for additional insight on how to compile this analysis.
Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).
Question 17: Accounting
The Swiss Clock Shop manufactures clocks on a highly automatedassembly line. Its costing system uses two cost categories, directmaterials and conversion costs. Each product must pass through theAssembly Department and the Testing Department. Direct materialsare added at the beginning of the production process. Conversioncosts are allocated evenly throughout production. Swiss Clock Shopuses weighted-average costing.
Data for the Assembly Department for June 2010 are:
Work in process, beginninginventory 250 units
Direct materials (100% complete)
Conversion costs (50% complete)
Units started during June 800 units
Work in process, ending inventory: 150 units
Direct materials (100% complete)
Conversion costs (75% complete)
Costs for June 2010:
Work in process, beginning inventory:
Directmaterials $180,000
Conversion costs $270,000
Direct materials costs added duringJune $1,000,000
Conversion costs added during June $1,000,000
prepare equivalent unit schedule for direct materials
prepare equivalent unit schedule for conversion costs
prepare direct materials costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transfered out and ending work in progress
prepare conversion costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transferred out) and ending
Question 18: Engineering
If the velocity of block A up the incline is increasing at the rate of 0.060 m/s each second, determine the acceleration of B.
A student, Ken, is given a mixture containing two carbonate compounds. The mixture includes MgCO3 and (NH4)2CO3. The mixture is 65.33>span class=”MJX_Assistive_MathML” role=”presentation”### CO3 is by mass. What is the mass percent of MgCO3 in the mixture?
Question 21: Business
Assignment
– Select an industry (e.g. healthcare, agriculture). Identify ONE information system (e.g. transaction processing system, business intelligence, collaboration, knowledge management etc) that is unique to this industry and supports the core business (e.g. if you choose aviation industry, explore an aviation information system) (Hint: The system should be used mainly and only in that industry. Do not choose generic IS such as accounting, payroll, email, Microsoft Office. Also do not pick up a product of an IT firm such Microsoft Sharepoint Portal; we are not interested in a branded product, the same IS can be produced by multiple IT firms. If you are not certain about the IS, email me your alternatives and we will discuss.
– Collect information on this specific IS using Internet, your textbook, other reading materials, videos, users or manufacturers / service providers.
– Prepare a report about this IS by addressing following questions (you dont have to answer one by one, your writeup should answer below questions):
What are the characteristics of this IS? What are the main functionalities / features? (Provide technical information as well). Identify couple of IT firms that produce this IS (It can be the case that there is only one IT firm that offers this IS. Then state this fact.)
Which processes are supported by this IS? Who are the users (function, title, profession etc.) Describe in detail
Which specific benefits does this IS offer for companies AND all stakeholders (including customers)? Which strategic objectives can be fulfilled using this IS?
Are there any concerns / risks about usage of this IS: privacy, security, investment, technical etc.
Rules
The educational systems that we use such as LMS, SIS are excluded.
Your report should be of 1500 words, double-spaced, 12-point Times New Roman font, with 1-inch margins on all sides. Do not include questions to the text and word count. Name, title etc should be excluded as well. Submission below that will NOT be graded.
Your report should be submitted as a Word document(.doc or .docx). Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).
The file name should contain your name and last name (e.g. First_Name_LastName_Assignment1).
Provide reference/citation for the sources that you referred (web page, textbook, person). The references are not counted towards the word limitation; you can present the list of references at the end of the report. I will deduct 5 points from submissions without references.
You should submit your assignment via LMS. E-mail and hardcopy submissions will NOT be accepted.
Late submissions will NOT be accepted. Please check the duedate and time.
Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade. I will deduct points if you don’t use proper business English.
Make sure that the report presents your original ideas. Do NOT copy paste the text from the source (e.g. Internet) or borrow lines from your friends. Your report will be checked by a plagiarism tool; identical or similar (above 50%) assignments will NOT be graded.
Question 22: Mathematics
A point estimate of a population parameter is a single value of a statistic. For example, the sample mean x is a point estimate of the population mean μ. Similarly, the sample proportion p is a point estimate of the population proportion P.
Question 23: Mathematics
If the population proportion of women carrying HPV were 19%, what is the chance that the sample proportion could exceed 20%
Question 24: English
Compare the movie, smooth talk, with the story, ”where are you going, where have you been?” or the short film, ”where are you going, where have you been?” you could also compare all three. some of the things you could discuss are: Did you think the casting was done right? what did the movie leave out? What did the film add that wasn’t in the story? the ending is different in the movie, smooth talk, than it is in the short story was scarier? which was more interesting to you? these are just ideas but you can compare them using whatever criteria you like.
Question 25: Economics
The prices of consumer goods in Los Angeles and Miami are different: some things are cheaper in Mi-ami, while others are cheaper in Los Angeles. Suppose the price of every consumer good in Houstonis exactly halfway between the Miami price of that good and the Los Angeles price. A market research firm surveys 1000 consumers, who have different preferences over consumption bundles, and differ-ent incomes. The consumers are asked to rank these three cities in terms of the consumption bundles that they could afford in each place. The result of the survey is that 450 consumers rank Los Angeles first, 350 rank Houston first and 200 rank Miami first. Do all these consumers have rational preferences?
Question 26: Business
Costs are classified according to the type of analysis that is being done. Suppose you were offered a job making $50,000 annually after you received your undergraduate degree. However, you made a decision to get your MBA in 2 years rather than taking the job. You will incur tuition, books and living costs for these 2 years.
REQUIRED:
What costs are relevant to your decision? Note that some costs relevant to a decision may not be quantitative.
What is the opportunity cost of this decision.
Comment on response of 2 classmates. Agree or disagree
Question 27: Business
Tired of the worn out carpet in her house, Lee purchased bamboo plank flooring for $2,000 from Big Floors, Inc. She agreed to pay add an extra $2,200 for Big Floor to install for a total contract price of $4200. Which law governs this transaction?
Question 28: Religious Study
Research has shown that Kenyan value system today comprises of money, glamour, power and prestige. Explain the meaning of each
Question 29: Other
Does recycling contribute to the release of greenhouse gasses?
Question 30: Psychology
Correlation is NOT the same as Causation!
In the media, correlations are often presented as if there is a causal relationship. For example, a news outlet might report: Research suggests there could be a link between dairy intake and the risk of developing prostate and ovarian cancers. Then they ask: Does milk cause cancer? As a researcher, I have been interviewed by magazines and this is really frustrating!
Class, provide an example of when a media outlet reported a correlation as if there was causation (be sure to show your source), then, explain why correlations do not show causation.
Question 31: Literary Studies
Critical Thinking/ Written Communication/ Social Responsibility
Representation in the Media and Entertainment = How our own identity (Hispanic female, black male, queen person, etc.) is presented in culture: TV, Film Literature, Magazines, etc. Psychologists, Advertisers Analysts and artists agree that representation in media and entertainment (M&E) affects and individual deeply and with long lasting effects.
Do Research on Representation in the Media and Entertainment and write a 2-page essay answering the question:
Do you think that race relations and gen der issues in this country could be improved if Media and Entertainment changed their practices to be more equitable to people of color, women and women of color?
Some Research Topics:
Equity in Casting
Equity in film
Equity in theatre
Representation in film
Hollywood Diversity Report
Effects of tv on minorities
Effects of tv race and gende
Women and advertising
How woman is portrayed in film
Masculinity in TV and Film
Homophobia and the effects on Queer youth
Question 32: Political Science
Instruction
Answer the following question in 3-5 sentences each. 17. What is the “American Dream,” according to King? 18. How does King define and defend nonviolence? 19. What is “innocence,” according to Baldwin? Why is it problematic? 20. What is Baldwin’s assessment of the Nation of Islam? 21. How does Baldwin connect love and politics? 22. What are the key elements of Malcolm X’s conception of black nationalism? 23. What is the relationship between capitalism and racism, according to the Black Panthers? The League of Revolutionary Black Workers? Angela Davis? 24. Why does Baker advocate organization, rather than mobilization? 25. How does King define Black Power, and what is his assessment of it? 26. What is the relationship between the “world house” and American democracy? 27. How does color-blind discourse affect our understanding of Hurricane Katrina? 28. Why is gender significant for understanding Hurricane Katrina? 29. What is neoliberalism? 30. How does exposure to rap affect political attitudes? 31. Why are authenticity and hyper masculinity problematic? 32. What are the three most important indicators that criminal justice today constitutes “the new Jim Crow”? 33. Why is Alexander critical of color-blindness? 34. What are the strongest arguments for and against reparations?
Course Name
Course POLS 393-01 Online
Term and Year: Fall 2019
CRN
Class Time
This class is asynchronous (students can log-in on their own terms as long as assignments are completed on time). Please pay attention to those dates on the class calendar in this syllabus. The expectation is that all work will be turned in by 11:59pm every Sunday.
Email is the best way to reach me, if you do not have a response in 48 hours, please assume that your email was not received and follow up.
Blackboard Help
For Blackboard troubleshoots dial Dr. Claiborne at 713.313.4853
Course Description
Course Purpose
This course aims to introduce you to the cannon of African American political thought. Through readings, media, and discussions, we will explore how black Americans have defined themselves, espoused their thoughts on power and subjugation. We will explore the relationship between slavery and democracy, the role of historical and collective memory, the political significance of culture, and the connections between race and nation. While underscoring the intersections of race, class, gender, and sexuality we will also exploring the construction of identity.
Learning Objectives
1) Become familiar with the foundational text of African American Political Thought
2) Understand the historical roots of different factions of African American Political Thought.
3) Form and analyze arguments centered around race and power.
Material
Textbooks
W. E. B. Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk (Bedford)
Frederick Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom (Yale)
Ida B. Wells-Barnett, On Lynchings (Humanity Books)
Marcus Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches of Marcus Garvey (Dover)
James Baldwin, The Fire Next Time (Beacon)
Martin Luther King, Jr., Where Do We Go From Here? (Beacon)
Michelle Alexander, The New Jim Crow (Open Media)
Lester Spence, Stare in the Darkness (Minnesota)
Required Software
Microsoft Word
Required Technology
Due to the nature of this course, you will need access to a computer to complete assignments for this course. There are several labs you can access to use computers on campus.
Please check their operating hours.
1. Fairchild Tiger Hub
2. Student Center Lab, 2nd Floor
3. Labs within colleges
Grading
Grading should be clear and explicit. You may include format, number, weight for assignments, descriptions, as well as a rubric. Below is just an example.
Grading Scale
A+,A, A-
B+
B
B-
C+
C
C-
D+
Ds and Fs are failing grades in this course
D
(Refer to Catalog)
D-
F
Major Assignments and Grade Distribution
Response Questions
Each week students will provide a response to a question based on the reading for the week. These essays are not summary essays but rather they must provide your own original thought supported by the readings. These are short essay questions with a maximum word limit of 500 words. Please see BlackBoard for the Response Question Rubric.
60% of grade
Final Project
Students are to identify a minimum of 5 different contemporary political leaders/thinkers and conduct a study are the writings, speeches, etc. of these individuals. Students are to trace the intellectual lineage (conservatism, black nationalism, black feminism, etc. ) , thinkers that clearly have had an influence on the individual’s political thought. Students should also identify with whom the individual is engaged in debate with, and ultimately students need to detail the main arguments the individual is making and the future implications that the arguments may have. The Rubric can be found on the assignment link of BlackBoard.
30% of grade
Class Participation
You are expected to respond to at least one of your classmate’s blogpost for every assignment ( response question).
10% Percentage/Points of Total Grade
Total:
100% or 100 Points
Course Outline
This can be in the form of a course calendar. We have included a calendar format below.
Overview / Course Responsibilities
All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.
Each week you will have three assignments due:
(1) Discussion Board Assignment
(2) One Discussion Board Response (minimum)
I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.
Course Schedule
Date
Chapter / Focus
Assignments
8/26
I. Introduction: Streams of African American Political Thought
None
09/02
II. Defining Questions: The Souls of Black Folk
Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk, Forethought-ch.3
Response question #1
Du Bois, ch. 4-6, Washington, “Atlanta Exposition Address”*
Response questions #2, 3
Responses due 09//15
09/16
Du Bois, ch. 7-10
Response question #4
Du Bois, 11-Afterthought
Response questions #5, 6
Responses Due9/22
09/23
III. American Terrors
Walker, Appeal, Preamble-Article I*
Response question #7
Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom, Editor’s Preface, Intro. (pp. 5-25),
ch. 1-14
Response question #8
Douglass, ch. 15-25, “Letter to His Old Master,” “The Nature of Slavery,” and “What to the Slave is the Fourth of July?”
Response questions #9, 10
Responses
due
09/29
09/30
Wells-Barnett, “Southern Horrors,” as far as you can get in “A Red Record”
Response questions #11, 12
Wells-Barnett, finish “A Red Record”
Response question #13
Responses Due 10/06
10/07
IV. Black Internationalism
Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches, pp.1-82
Response questions #14, 15
Garvey, pp.119-22, 138-47, 160-69, 181-94; Du Bois, “The Souls of White Folk”*
Response questions #16
Response Due 10/13
10/14
V. The Civil Rights Revolution
King, “American Dream,”* “Letter from Birmingham City Jail,”* “I Have a Dream”*
Response questions #17, 18
Baldwin, The Fire Next Time, as far as you can get.
Newton and Seale, “What We Want/What We Believe,” “Rules of the Black Panther Party”*; The League of Revolutionary Black Workers, “Our Thing Is DRUM!”*; Angela Davis, “Political Prisoners, Prisons and Black Liberation”*
Response question #23
Response Due 11/03
11/04
Charles Payne, “Ella Baker and Models of Social Change”*; King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch.1-2
Response questions #24, 25
King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch. 4-6
Response question #26
Responses Due 11/10
11/11
VI. Post-Civil Rights Challenges
Screening of Kevin Jerome Everson and Claudrena Harold, Sugar-Coated Arsenic
Bobo, “Katrina: Unmasking Race, Poverty, and Politics in the 21st Century”*; Ransby, “Katrina, Black Women, and the Deadly Discourse on Black Poverty in America”*; Frymer, et al., “New Orleans Is Not the Exception”*; Dawson, “After the Deluge”*; Harris and Carbado, “Loot or Find: Fact or Frame?”*
Response questions #27, 28
Stare in the Darkness, Intro., ch. 1-2
Response questions #29, 30
Response Due 11/17
11/18
Spence, Stare in the Darkness, ch. 3-Conc.
Response question #31
Alexander, New Jim Crow, Intro., ch. 1-3
Response question #32
: Alexander, New Jim Crow, ch. 4-6
Response question #33
Response Due 12/01
11/25
VII. Remembering the Past, Imagining the Future
Reparations: Forman, et al. “The Black Manifesto”*; Coates, “The Case for Reparations”*; Reed, “The Case Against Reparations”*; McWhorter, “Against Reparations”*; Virginia resolution expressing “regret” for slavery*
All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.
Each week you will have three assignments due:
(1) Readings
(2) Response Questions ( Posted on Blogs)
(3) Reply to at least two classmates blog post
I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.
Assignment Policies
Late Work Not accepted under any circumstances other than medical documentation
Students may may share articles, videos, audio recordings, etc on topics related to the course content with a brief summary and analysis.
Academic Misconduct Policy
Engaging in any form of academic dishonesty with respect to examinations, course assignments, research projects, grades, and/or academic records, including, but not limited to plagiarism, cheating on exams, changing grades, and taking another student’s exam. ( COC 6.2)
ADA Policy
The ADA of 1990 provides civil rights protection for individual with disabilities. It guarantees equal opportunities for “qualified individuals” with disabilities in all public facilities, educational programs, activities, services and benefits. The ADA upholds and maintains compliance standards to ensure institutions of higher education policies, procedures and practices are non-discriminatory.
Students needing academic accommodations should contact the Office of Disability Services at 713-313-7691.
Question 33: Sociology
Instruction
Guidelines for Observation Paper The object of this paper is to observe and analyze social interactions and gatherings by using sociological theory. Students are free to observe any event, gathering, interaction (parties, religious services, fraternity and sorority and other club events, athletic games, etc.). Structure: Introduction–tell the reader what you are observing and why you chose this particular event or group. This should be one paragraph. Observation– provided a detailed (“thick”) description of the event, noting its participants (ages, gender, race, ethnicity, class, etc) but most importantly the interactions and “social rituals” you witness. This should be 3 or 4 pages. Applying Theory– Apply the sociological theory we have discussed in class. Which particular theory (theories) best explains what you observed? Remember to apply theory to the actual and specific actions and behaviors that you observed (don’t just say basketball is a good example of so and so theory because the game stresses solidarity and team spirit). What was it about the particular event you observed that is best explained by the theory (or theories) that you selected? This section can be two or three pages. Conclusion– here is your chance to sum things up, speculate, and be more general. You should answer the “so what” question. What does your observation and application say about the particular slice of social life that you selected? The conclusion should be one or two paragraphs. REMEMBER TO ATTACH SOME PROOF (TICKETS, BULLETINS, PHOTOS, ETC.) THAT YOU ACTUALLY OBSERVED THIS EVENT!
Question 34: Economics
Identify a specific job within a specific company that you might be interested in applying for after you graduate from the University of Phoenix. Research the job and the field in general, as well as ethical issues managerial accountants have faced that would pertain to that field. Also, educate yourself on the basics of operations within the job and company you have selected. Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper to include the following:
Instruction
The job would be the CFO of the bank I currently work at which is BBVA and international bank Summarize the main duties of the job. Describe a specific ethical issue you might face in that position using 2 credible sources to support your description. Summarize the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide. Analyze how the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide applies to the ethical issue. Predict how you would handle the ethical issue. Hypothesize what would happen if no one in the company followed the IMA’s standards of ethical practice. Assess why it is important to follow the IMA’s stand
Question 35: Other
I need a strong American English writer to write a 20-page paper synthesizing literature information. The assignment will not be paid if it does not meet the standards of the assignment. This is a very serious and tough writing assignment. When responding please explain your understanding of synthesizing information.
PROBLEM 4S–8B Equivalent Units, Cost per Equivalent Unit, Applying Costs—FIFO Method
CHECK FIGURE
(4) Ending work in process: $40,800
Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. The following information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.
Percent Completed
Units
Materials
Conversion
Work in process, beginning…
50,000
60%
30%
Started into production………
470,000
Completed and transferred out
450,000
Work in process, ending………
60,000
70%
20%
Cost in the beginning work in process inventory and cost added during June were as follows for the Mixing Department:
Materials
Conversion
Work in process, beginning…
$24,500
$9,500
Cost added during June……….
$377,600
$274,200
The company uses the FIFO method to compute unit product costs.
Required:
Determine the equivalent units for June for the Mixing Department.
Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the Mixing Department.
Determine the total cost of ending work in process inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the next department in June.
Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the ending work in process inventory and to the units transferred out with the costs in beginning inventory and costs added during the period.
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What is an overhead cost?
Cost for the ceiling at the officeCost set aside for the distribution part of the process
Cost for everything that is not directly materials and laborThere is no such thing as an overhead cost
2. What is a cost driver?
Whatever causes a change in overhead cost
A phenomenon driving costs down for your business
An already budgeted expense
There is no such thing as a cost driver
202E04 – Problem 4-14 First Department Equivalent Units…
Problem 4-14: First Department — Equivalent Units, Cost per EU, Applying Costs — W/A Methods.Problem 4A-11 (Problem 4-14 Using FIFO Method)Given:Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. Thefollowing information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.PhysicalPercent CompletedUnits to Account For:UnitsMaterialsConversionBWIP70,000 70%40%Units Started460,000 Completed & T/O450,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%Costs to Account For:MaterialsConversionTotalBWIP$36,550 $13,500 $50,050 Cost added during period391,850 287,300 679,150 $428,400 $300,800 $729,200 Required:Assume that the company uses the WA method.1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the first process.2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the first process.3. Determine the total cost of EWIP inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the nextprocess in June.4.
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Question 1: General Question
Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)
Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)
Question 2: General Question
Question 1 A ____ has first claim on specified assets, while a ____ is a debenture that has claims against a firm’s assets that are junior to the claims of mortgage bonds and regular debentures.
Question 2 When firms issue ____, the amount of interest and principal to be paid is based on specified market conditions. The amount of the repayment may be tied to a Treasury bond price index or even to a stock index.
Question 3 Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.
Question 4 ____ bids for Treasury bonds specify a price that the bidder is willing to pay and a dollar amount of securities to be purchased.
Question 16 The actual relationship reflecting the response of a bond’s price to a change in bond yields is
Question 17 Assume a bond with a $1,000 par value and a 7 percent coupon rate, three years remaining to maturity, and a 9 percent yield to maturity. The duration of this bond is ____ years.
Question 18 The difference between the 30-year mortgage rate and the 30-year Treasury bond rate is primarily attributable to
Question 21 A __________ is a privately negotiated contract that protects investors against the risk of default on particular debt securities such as mortgage-backed securities.
Question 22 Which of the following is not a guarantor of federally insured mortgages?
Question 23 ____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase homes.
Question 24 An adjustable-rate mortgage increases interest rate risk for the ____, but reduces interest rate risk for the ____.
Question 36 The ____ index can be used to measure risk-adjusted performance of a stock while controlling for the stock’s beta.
Question 37 According to the capital asset pricing model, the required return by investors on a security is
Question 38 The demand by foreign investors for the stock of a U.S. firm sold on a U.S. exchange may be higher when the dollar is expected to ____, other things being equal. (Assume the firm’s operations are unaffected by the value of the dollar.)
Question 39 A beta of 1.1 means that for a given 1 percent change in the value of the market, the _______ is expected to change by 1.1 percent in the same direction.
Question 40 The ____ is commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate in the capital asset pricing model.
Question 41 If the standard deviation of a stock’s returns over the last 12 quarters is 4 percent, and if there is no perceived change in volatility, there is a ____ percent probability that the stock’s returns will be within ____ percentage points of the expected outcome.
Question 47 While an investor’s ability to simultaneously consider multiple markets to accommodate its orders was perceived to allow for more competitive pricing (lower transactions costs), it also led to a form of “_______________” whereby traders with relatively faster access to specific markets can use another trader’s planned orders and move ahead of that order.
Question 50 The risk of a short sale is that the stock price
Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the EWIP inventory and the unitstransferred out with the costs in BWIP and costs added during the period.Honeybutter, Inc.Mixing Department Cost of Production ReportWeighted Average and FIFO Process Costing MethodsFor the Month of JuneEquivalent UnitsPhysical FlowD/MConversionDegree of CompletionUnits to Account for:D/MConversionBWIP70%40%70,000 Started during June460,000 Total530,000 Units Accounted for:Completed Units 450,000 From BWIP30%60%70,000 21,000 42,000 Started And Completed100%100%380,000 380,000 380,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%80,000 60,000 20,000 Total530,000 Calculation of Equivalent UnitsFIFO Equivalent Units(A)461,000 442,000 Plus BWIP EU from previous period49,000 28,000 Weighted Average Equivalent Units(B)510,000 470,000
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Question
Instruction
Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements. Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS). Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response. Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment. Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.
Homeland Security Organizations and Agencies
The homeland security system in the United States is a “national” system in the sense that it includes all levels of government—federal, state, local, and tribal—as well as the private sector and volunteer organizations. It does not refer to the federal government exclusively, nor just to the U.S. Department of Homeland Security. It is a comprehensive, integrated, multidisciplinary, and multijurisdictional system including a wide variety of organizations and agencies at all levels. Organizations and agencies must work together and effectively coordinate their efforts to prevent and respond to natural and man-made disasters and hazards. Documents such as the “National Incident Management System” (NIMS), the “National Response Framework” (NRF), and the “National Preparedness Guidelines” were created to help organizations and agencies coordinate their efforts. In this Discussion, you examine how specific organizations and agencies interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to a threat to homeland security.
To prepare for this Discussion:
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Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements.
Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS).
Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response.
Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment.
Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.
Think in terms of, and in reference to, the roles and capabilities of each respective organization and/or agency you identified and how they might interact and coordinate their efforts.
Post a brief description of the threat you selected. Then describe at least two organizations and/or agencies in the national homeland security system that would respond to this threat. Include how and why they might respond. Finally, explain how the organizations and/or agencies might interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to the threat. Be specific, and use examples to illustrate your explanation.
Question 3: General Question
Question 1
6 out of 6 points
According to Higgins, nonprofit organizations have:
Question 2
6 out of 6 points
Managers of nonprofit organizations must measure their success by:
· Question 3
6 out of 6 points
This method relates to the actions necessary to implement the strategic plan.
· Question 4
6 out of 6 points
The beginning of management as a field of study dates approximately to the:
· Question 5
6 out of 6 points
La Piana Consulting defines the intensity of the commitment that two or more nonprofits must make to each other as:
· Question 6
6 out of 6 points
Most nonprofits obtain revenue from:
· Question 7
6 out of 6 points
Strive Partnership measures the partnership’s performance through the use of a(an):
· Question 8
6 out of 6 points
According to Edgar Schein, logos, ceremonies, and symbols belong to this defined category of culture.
· Question 9
6 out of 6 points
According to Collins, this type of leadership exists when the leader has the power to simply make decisions.
· Question 10
6 out of 6 points
The perception that nonprofits are less well managed than businesses is:
· Question 11
Nonprofit management literature is drawn from which of the three areas?
· Question 12
6 out of 6 points
Very high may suggest that an organization is inefficient, or even participating in unethical or fraudulent behavior.
· Question 13
6 out of 6 points
As Letts and colleagues observe, managers often face two challenges—getting the job done and:
· Question 16
6 out of 6 points
Which decade marked a turning point in public policy, with government outsourcing more of the delivery and management of social and human services to nonprofits, which resulted in the increased need for professional management in nonprofit organizations and an increased number of students interested in working for nonprofit organizations?
· Question 17
6 out of 6 points
Demands for accountability and the need for systems and procedures to comply with greater scrutiny and regulation also have contributed to the need for:
· Question 18
6 out of 6 points
Nonprofit managers should be committed to performance measurement but:
· Question 19
6 out of 6 points
One way to reduce dependency and thus maintain more autonomy is to:
· Question 20
According to the Independent Sector, one hour of volunteer time contributed to a nonprofit organization in 2013 was worth:
· Question 21
6 out of 6 points
Giving up something in return for something is referred to as a(an):
· Question 22
6 out of 6 points
A proposed merger between Operation Smile and Smile Train was cancelled due to:
· Question 23
6 out of 6 points
Roberta is participating in an interview about her nonprofit organization. The interview is being conducted by a local radio station. Roberta is communicating with the:
· Question 24
Needs Grading
Draw a diagram of Patricia Bradshow’s five board configurations.
· Question 25
Needs Grading
Explain the three basic elements that effective planning begins with?
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Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific references to the Learning Resources.
Learning Resources
Readings
Article: Kettl, D. F. (2003). Contingent coordination: Practical and theoretical puzzles for homeland security. The American Review of Public Administration, 33(3), 253–277.
Use the LegalTrac database, and search using the article’s title.
Article: Wise, C. R. (2006). Organizing for homeland security after Katrina: Is adaptive management what’s missing? Public Administration Review, 66(3), 302–318.
Use the ABI/INFORM Global database, and search using the article’s title.
Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National incident management system. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nims/NIMS_core.pdf
Note: You are only required to read pages 1–8 of this article.
Online Article: Homeland Security. (2007). National preparedness guidelines. Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=2.3.4 2.3.4.pdf
Note: You are only required to read pages 1–11 of this article.
Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National response framework. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nrf/nrf-core.pdf
Note: You are only required to read pages 1–26 of this article.
Note: You are only required to read pages 21–36 of this article.
Online Article: Emergency Management Institute. (2007). Principles of emergency management supplement. Retrieved from http://training.fema.gov/emiweb/edu/08conf/Emergency%20Management%20Principles%20Monograph%20Final.doc
Optional Resources
Online Article: Bach, R., & Kaufman, D. J. (2009). A social infrastructure for hometown security: Advancing the homeland security paradigm. Homeland Security Affairs, V(2). Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=5.2.2
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Question 2: Business questions
Business Interview Case Study
How would you work with a subordinate who is underperforming?
We experienced many new workers during my time at Chevron. I had to pick up their slack because I was in charge of training new employees. I would pull them aside after our shift and kindly talked about where they could improve. I made sure I was there to help them and we finally figured it out together.
You’re consulting with a large pharmacy with stores in multiple states. This company has improved sales but experienced a decrease in revenue. As a result, it is contemplating store closings. Explain how you’d advise this client?
You are working directly with a company’s management team. It is organizing a project designed to significantly increase revenue. If you were provided with data and asked to supervise the project, what steps would you take to ensure it’s successful?
First, I’d make the team friendly and make sure we all have the same goal. I would listen and respond appropriately to any questions or concerns they may have. I would ensure that everyone has a specific task, that deadlines are fulfilled and that control is maintained.
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Question 4: History
Why is it not appropriate to deposit non-western artifacts in the natural collection of history?
Question 5: Biology
Nsg5003 advanced pathophysiology final exam answers south university
Question 6: Mathematics
Antonio would like to replace his gold clubs with a custom-measured set. A local sporting goods megastore is advertising custom clubs for $520, including a new bag. In-store financing is available at 3.93 percent, or he can choose not to renew his $300 certificate of deposit (CD), which just matured. The advertised CD renewal rate is 5.08 percent. Antonio knows the in-store financing costs would not affect his taxes, but he knows he’ll pay taxes (25 percent federal and 5.75 percent state) on the CD interest earnings.
The after-tax CD earnings rate is %
Question 7: Sociology
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
What is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?
Question 8: Business
Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.
Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.
Address the following in your role as marketing manager:
Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.
Question 9: Business
answer survey questions only need 2 solution
SCREEING:
Have you ever done genetic testing like 23andme/Ancestry.com or plan to? (If yes, proceed with Interview)
If you have not done testing, are you familiar with these tests? (If yes, proceed with Interview. If no, move on to next person)
Age:
18-24
25-34
35-44
45-54
55-64
Over 65
Gender: Male Female
Children: If none, Do you want children?
Highest level of Education:
High School or Equivalent
Some college-no degree
Technical School
Associate’s Degree
Bachelor’s Degree
Graduate Degree
Household Income:
>$25K
$25K – $50K
$50K – $75K
$75K – $100K
$100K – $150K
$150K+
Social Media use:
Facebook
Instagram
Twitter
LinkedIn
ONLINE BEHAVIOR
Tell me about a time you purchased something directly from a social media link? Or Online?
HEALTH AND LIFESTYLE
What are the biggest issues you face with your lifestyle?
Do you have any concerns about your health?
GENETIC TESTING
Have you done genetic testing yet?
If not, why?
What would you hope to learn about yourself Medically?
What would you not want to learn about yourself?
iii. What features would you want from the process/product?
If yes, why did you get the testing?
Who did you use? Why did you decide to go with them?
What was the process for the purchase?
iii. What, if anything, would you have changed or wanted but didn’t get?
What have you done with your raw data?
Who do you know that is concerned about genetic privacy?
What kind of products would you be interested in receiving marketing for based on your genetic information?
Question 10: Business
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?
You have been assigned to work with a small company that manufactures a popular product. However, a competitor begins selling a very similar product which incorporates state of the art technology. What would you advise your client to do?
You have been assigned to advise a company with a large Western European market. Company management wants to open the Chinese market. What advice do you have for this company?
I would advise the company to conduct Chinese market research. Then, I’d ask how they think this market can be successful. Afterwards, I would assist in the development of a business plan setting goals, tasks, budget/contacts, and deadlines.
The firm has assigned you to consult a company intending to drop a product or expand into new markets in order to increase revenue. What steps would you take to help this company achieve its objective?
You have been assigned to consult a shoe retailer with stores throughout the nation. Since its revenue is dropping, the company has proposed to sell food at its stores. How would you advise this client?
I’d start by asking what their plans are and how they can succeed. I’d give feedback to the new idea. Then I’d like to ask if they know why revenue is dropping. I would advise them to look into it if they don’t know, by contacting various departments in their stores. Once we’ve addressed that, we can discuss new ideas for sneakers that can increase revenue while we’re waiting results.
Question 3: English
An English essay one topic of your choosing from the list: The importance of voting Protecting the environment Off-shore drilling Nuclear Proliferation Funding for the arts The Quaker tradition The Women’s Suffrage Movement The Women’s Suffrage movement William Lloyd Garrison John Brown
Instruction
Read through the instruction on the attachment and figure out how you would like to proceed from there. But, this must be an ESSAY.
Graded Assignment
The American Renaissance Unit Test, Part 2
Answer the questions fully, using examples from the reading selections to support your answers. You may refer to your Journeys anthology to answer these questions. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.
Total score: ____ of 55 points
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(Score for Question 1: ___ of 15 points)
Both Walt Whitman and Emily Dickinson were influenced by the Romantics. Choose one of the two poets. Provide at least three ways that he or she reflects Romantic thinking in his or her writing. Then give an example from one of the works that you studied in this unit that illustrates that characteristic.
(Score for Question 2: ___ of 15 points)
You learned a lot about Whitman and Dickinson’s writing styles during this unit. Although they both broke stylistic boundaries, their styles are different. Write a paragraph in which you explain one characteristic of either poet’s style. Name the characteristic, explain how it is used in the poetry, and then describe the effect that the characteristic produces. Support your answer with examples from the poems.
.
(Score for Question 3: ___ of 25 points)
Now return to your book, and select a poem from Whitman or Dickinson that you did not study in the unit. Explain how the poem reveals Romantic thinking. Cite examples from the poem as your support.
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Question 4: Biology.
500 words on importance of prenatal care
Question 5: Political Science
Political Science 260 INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE POLITICS Summer 2019 For this class you will write an 8-10-page (2,000 word minimum) research paper. This paper will make an argument about the nature of some aspect of politics based on an analysis of some aspect of a political system of your choice. Topics can include such things as institutional analysis (legislatures, executive branch, federalism, electoral systems), or broader issues of political behavior, such as revolutionary change, civil-military relations, gender politics, democratization, inter-ethnic relations, etc. In selecting a topic and country, keep in mind that you are going to have to research whatever it is that you select, and some topics and countries are much more easily researched than others. Under most circumstances you may not include a country that we cover in class in your paper, and should not include the United States
Question 6: Health Care
Health Information Systems Technology and Applications Due Date: Wed,6/5/19 by 11pm cst Deliverable Length: 6-8 slides
Instruction
As the manager of the CTU Health Care information systems department, you realize the need for seamless integration among all operating systems of the departments within the health care organization (HCO). Discuss the importance electronic health record (EHR) conceptual framework integration and achieving interoperability. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation for the stakeholders of the different departments that expresses the importance of the interoperability of all computing systems within the health care organization. In this presentation, you should address the ramifications of the lack of integration of the information systems among the departments.
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Question7: Other
3 page paper with NO REFERENCES
Instruction
I need a 3 page essay titled “Giving Back to My Community” – The essay should discuss how I give back and why giving back is important. Include these points: – Volunteer at local animal shelter – Starting own pet sitting business with low rates to accommodate pet owners on a low or fixed income – Member of the World Wildlife Fund – My future plans of expanding my business into a means of allowing other high school students to earn community service hours No References – Double spaced – Times New Roman – 12 font – Must use the points provided
Answer all the questions asked at the end of your chosen case study thoroughly.
Include an analysis of each of the issues you identify and the solutions you provide.
Support your responses with information from scholarly readings.
Write your answers in a Word document.
Refer to the attached document for the grading rubric. Submit your work by clicking on the SafeAssign link below. Click on the link again to view the resulting SafeAssign report.
Unit 5 – Case Study
Assignments submitted through this link will be checked using SafeAssign by Blackboard. Your work will not be used for any purpose other than preventing plagiarism in the University. Ownership of the intellectual property contained in your written work will not be transferred to any third party. Please submit your paper as a Word Document. If you have the 2010 version of Word, please save your paper in a previous version (Word 97-2003 document) as Safe Assign may not accept the most recent version.
Staffing metrics can be short-term or long-term, and efficiency- or effectiveness-oriented. Short-term metrics can be used as leading indicators to gauge a company’s ability to place the right people in the right jobs at the right time. Long-term metrics are best for evaluating the effectiveness of a staffing system because they drive the financial impact of staffing for the organization.
Choose an organization with which you are familiar.
Evaluate in 700 to 1,050 words three metrics that are – or should be – used to determine how well the staffing process meets the needs of the organization.
Describe the metrics selected for discussion.
Assess how these help the organization determine effectiveness.
Use the information available in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13, and supplement it with your own research.
Cite any sources according to APA formatting guidelines.
Question 12: Education
Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.
Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.
Address the following in your role as marketing manager:
Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.
Question 13: Health Care
In a 750-1000 word essay in APA format, critically evaluate the following scenario:
Mrs. J. is a 63-year-old married woman who has a history of hypertension, chronic heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite requiring 2L of oxygen/nasal cannula at home during activity, she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day and has done so for 40 years. Three days ago, she had sudden onset of flu-like symptoms including fever, productive cough, nausea, and malaise. Over the past 3 days, she has been unable to perform ADLs and has required assistance in walking short distances. She has not taken her antihypertensive medications or medications to control her heart failure for 3 days. Today, she has been admitted to the hospital ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and acute exacerbation of COPD.
Subjective Data
Is very anxious and asks whether she is going to die.
Denies pain but says she feels like she cannot get enough air.
Says her heart feels like it is “running away.”
Reports that she is exhausted and cannot eat or drink by herself.
Height 175 cm; Weight 95.5kg.
Vital signs: T 37.6C, HR 118 and irregular, RR 34, BP 90/58.
Cardiovascular: Distant S1, S2, S3 present; PMI at sixth ICS and faint: all peripheral pulses are 1+; bilateral jugular vein distention; initial cardiac monitoring indicates a ventricular rate of 132 and atrial fibrillation.
Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mrs. J.
Discuss whether the nursing interventions at the time of her admissions were appropriate for Mrs. J. and explain the rationale for each of the medications listed.
Describe four cardiovascular conditions that may lead to heart failure and what can be done in the form of medical/nursing interventions to prevent the development of heart failure in each condition.
Taking into consideration the fact that most mature adults take at least six prescription medications, discuss four nursing interventions that can help prevent problems caused by multiple drug interactions in older patients. Provide a rationale for each of the interventions you recommend.
Provide a health promotion and restoration teaching plan for Mrs. J., including multidisciplinary resources for rehabilitation and any modifications that may be needed. Explain how the rehabilitation resources and modifications will assist the patients’ transition to independence.
Describe a method for providing education for Mrs. J. regarding medications that need to be maintained to prevent future hospital admission. Provide rationale.
Outline COPD triggers that can increase exacerbation frequency, resulting in return visits. Considering Mrs. J.’s current and long-term tobacco use, discuss what options for smoking cessation should be offered.
Question 14: Religious Study
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:
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Question9: History
I am looking for someone to do 2 assignments both assignment follow the same requirements but two different paper. I will provide more info below. please make sure the papers are plagiarism free and I will need APA citation (reference page) and in text citation please and thank you
Instruction
the assignment (outline) is to choose a country one assignment will be focus on china and the other on will be france. In addition we will need to choose four concepts which we both choose the same we decided to do ( age of exploration 1400-1800, age of imperialism 1800-1945, industrial revolution, age of decolonization) and do some research on it and answer the question in details and make sure you include a lot if dates and connect the events that goes with it. You can download the worksheet twice so you can answer the questions because their wont let me insert it twice Thank you in advanced
Name: Guirlene Hyppolite
The location I am researching is → This must be selected from the list provided by your instructor.
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Mark the four concepts/themes that you plan to talk about in your presentation in the chart below. You should base your selections off what you have found in your research so far – this means that you should be able to identify an event or a time in your country’s history that is clearly connected to each theme you check off below:
Check off Selections
Concept/Theme
Lesson/Milestone Alignment
The significance of features of “advanced” civilizations
Week 1, Milestone 1
The significance of the Age of Exploration and Encounter (1400-1800)
Week 2, Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of the Age of Modern Imperialism (1800-1945)
Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of major religious traditions or religious conflicts
Milestone 1, touched on in multiple weeks
The significance of The Age of Atlantic Revolutions (including Enlightenment Ideas)
Week 4, Milestone 2
The significance of the Age of Decolonization (post-1945)
Week 8
The significance of the Industrial Revolution or industrialization
Week 5
The significance of Nationalism (including modern ethno-nationalism and fascism)
Week 7, Week 8
The Impact of modern warfare (WWI or later)
Week 7, Week 8, Week 9
The impact of Cold War ideological divisions
Week 8
The Impact of Modern Globalization on today’s world
Week 9
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Next, complete the research info sections below. At least one source must be a primary source.
Concept/Theme Selection #1
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
Concept/Theme Selection #2
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
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Concept/Theme Selection #3
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
Concept/Theme Selection #4
Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?
Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):
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Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:
Question 10: English
Instruction
I need an essay written on the book Charlotte Temple by Susanna Rowson. This essay is likely to be 3-4 pages, although complete instructions by my teacher has not been revealed yet. An emphasis should be placed on the questions attached. The book is about the relationship between women and men in the 18th century. Bare in mind that I will need to know where you found your material, so it is important to cite were you found everything. Please show me that you have read or will read the book in preparation of this essay. Also attached is the picture of the book.
Question 11: General
Understanding Terrorism Wk 8
Instruction
Understanding Terrorism Paper Four Criteria – Due Week Eight You now have the following: Paper One: Description and History of your selected group/individual Paper Two: Themes from Chapters 1-9 Paper Three: Strategies, Security, Individual Liberties ======================================= For Paper Four, you are going to complete your research into your selected Group/Individual. For this, you will need the concepts discussed in Chapters 14-16 of the Nacos Text: Chapter 14: Terrorist Propaganda and the Media Chapter 15: Terror and Hate in Cyberspace Chapter 16: Counter terrorism in the News Select TWO final articles (media focused) on your selected group/individual and read them thoroughly. Use the Grantham Library and EBSCO to assist. Stick to Journals and avoid relying on the Washington Post and NY Times. In a well-written paper, describe how the media has reported on your selected organization/individual and evaluate the coverage using the concepts discussed in the Nacos text. In addition, describe how your selected organization/individual used media sources, propaganda, cyberspace, and advertisement to further their ideological, social, and/or political goals. Draw some conclusions: does the media, social networking, and cyberspace impede or facilitate counterterrorism efforts? If so, then how and why? What recommendations would you provide the U.S. Government regarding media, social media, and the internet to better combat terrorism? Your submission will be a minimum of 4 pages and not to exceed 6 pages, excluding the Title Page and Reference Page. You will use APA Standard Format (1″ Margins, Times New Roman, 12-point Font, and Double Spacing. No extra space between paragraphs). You should continue to use all references you have collected so far, and ADD TWO more that are related to the Media.
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Question12: Other
Week 12: Signature Assignment
Instruction
Instructions Throughout this course, you explored different methodologies, designs, and data collection strategies. Using those experiences and feedback, you will develop a final proposal for a hypothetical study. Specifically, for this assignment, you are asked to develop an expanded proposal that incorporates the feedback you have received as well as your own supported reflections on the readings. This is not meant to be a milestone document nor will it be approved as such, but the proposal should provide an opportunity to test out a possible idea and to get feedback that would be useful as you consider possible topics and research designs for your dissertation work. Remember to use APA formatting and check for grammatical errors. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. It is also vital that you ensure there is alignment between the components of your paper; you should use Krathwohl’s Chain of Reasoning to assist. The proposal needs to include: •A statement as to the problem the research study will address as well as justification and evidence to verify that the problem exists.. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or theoretical) •A purpose statement that outlines how you will address the problem. •A list of the research questions, including hypotheses if a quantitative or mixed study. A description of the research methodology you have chosen (i.e., quantitative, qualitative, or mixed) and a justification as to why this approach is best suited to address the problem and answer the specific research questions. •A discussion on the research design you have proposed (e.g., case study, quasi-experimental, etc.) and a justification as to why this design is the best choice and aligns with other aspects of the study. •A description of the data collection process, with justifications, to include a discussion of the following: ◦Overview of the population and sampling technique, ◦Instruments used (e.g., survey, interview protocol), and ◦Overview of process for collection and any challenges you envision. •A brief discussion of the proposed analysis techniques with justification on alignment of techniques with problem, purpose, and questions. •A brief discussion of how reliability and validity (or trustworthiness) will be maintained. •A brief discussion of the limitations and ethical considerations, including how limitations, biases, and ethical considerations will be addressed. Length: 12-15 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question13: Other
Week 11: Participant Perspective and the Mixed Methods Approach
Instruction
Instructions Researchers frequently employ standardized instruments to collect data associated with a variable of interest. In such cases, it is helpful to have served in the role of participant before making research decisions relating to measurement. If researchers are able to identify with and put themselves in the place of the participant while designing research methods, the participation can have a positive impact. For example, as the researcher, it might make sense to include a lot of instruments in the same packet for participants to complete so that you can get as much data as possible. However, if you have completed instruments yourself and can put yourself in the place of the participant, you might realize that participants can become tired and pay less attention to items or even stop responding when they have to complete too many instruments. In such cases, there might be missing or misleading data, which is not helpful to you as the researcher. To gain a greater understanding of the perspective of the participant, you will complete several quantitative instruments relating to your experience as a doctoral student at Northcentral University. Please answer each completely and honestly. As you learned in this course, phenomena can be investigated using quantitative, qualitative, or mixed methodologies based on the problem under investigation, the purpose, and the corresponding research questions. Therefore, you will also answer open-ended questions that tap into the same constructs as the questionnaires that you completed. This will offer you experience as a participant in collecting qualitative data as well as demonstrate how phenomena can be explored using varied methodologies. However, it is worth noting that collecting qualitative data electronically comes with a number of limitations that should always be strongly considered when determining whether to collect qualitative data in person or not. Based on your experiences in completing this assignment, address the following: •What did you think of the length of each survey instrument? Was there a point at which you began to feel tired or paid less attention to the items? •What did you think of the open-ended questions? Were they clear? Did they seem leading? Did they seem concise or too wordy? •Did you prefer completing the closed questions (or multiple-choice questions) or the open-ended questions? Why? •Which methodology do you believe is most useful in the examination of each variable/construct? Why? •How might this experience influence you when designing your own research? Finally, write a 1-2 page reflection regarding your views on what you see would be the strengths and challenges of using a mixed method design. Consider how the two mini proposals might be combined to form a mixed method study and what would be the benefits and / or loss if a mixed methods approach was utilized. Make sure to justify your statements and use the resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question14: Other
Week 10: Build a Quantitative Proposal
Instruction
Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal (6-7 pages) that includes the following: 1. Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). 2.Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using quantitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. 3.Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). 4.Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): ◦A specific quantitative design, ◦The population and sample, ◦Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, ◦Steps for the analysis of the data, and ◦Issues of reliability and validity within a quantitative framework. 5. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the quantitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, reliability, and validity. 6. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
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Question 15: Other
Week 9: Quantitative Design and Data Collection
Instruction
Instructions For the assignment this week, please consider the topic, problem, and purpose you might choose for your Signature Assignment. You can use and revise problems, purposes, and questions from past assignments in this course with the goal of continuing to improve and refine them. Please addresses the following: •Restatement of your problem, purpose, and research question(s). •Last week you examined multiple ways to collect data to answer your research questions. Based on your analysis and feedback, choose one quantitative data collection method, describe how it would be used in your hypothetical study, and justify why this method of data collection is the best choice. •Discussion and justification of your sample and population. •Potential limitations with the chosen data collection and/or sample to consider and steps that can be taken ahead of time to help avoid these limitations. •Analysis of any strengths and weaknesses you see with your design, data collection, and/or sample. •Discuss ethical issues to consider with quantitative data collection methods. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question16: Other
Week 8: Quantitative Research Design
Instruction
Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment last week to further explore how you might examine your research problem using a quantitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: •Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. This week, be sure to also include hypotheses for each of your research questions. •How might surveys be used to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using surveys to collect data? •How might you use an experiment or quasi-experiment to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using (quasi)experiments to collect your data? •It is also important to consider how you might analyze the potential data you collect and factors that could affect those analyses. Specifically, what are Type I and Type II errors? How might these impact your study? What is statistical power? How might this impact your study? What steps can you take ahead of time to help avoid issues related to Type I & II errors as well as power? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 5 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question17: Other
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Week 7: Summarize Numerical Data
Instruction
Instructions For this assignment, think about a potential study you might want to conduct in which you would need to collect numerical data. You can use the research topic and problem you developed earlier, but make sure to modify your research questions to fit a quantitative method for this assignment. State the research problem and ensure it is supported by at least 3 to 5 scholarly resources within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Also keep in mind that your problem statement should reflect your degree (applied or PhD). Discuss whether you had to alter the problem statement to now reflect a quantitative design. How could you use quantitative methodology to address your research problem? State the purpose of the research effort. Make sure the purpose is aligned with the problem. Draft 2 to 3 research questions that would be appropriate for a quantitative study and addresses your research problem and are aligned with your purpose statement. You might choose to revise your previous qualitative research questions or develop new research questions. Either way, ensure alignment with the problem and purpose. Identify and discuss a design that is associated with quantitative methodology that you would consider to answer your research questions. You will find that some problems lend themselves to using one methodology over another. A goal of this assignment was to have you explore how a quantitative methodology might help you address your research questions. You will have an opportunity later in the course to explore mixed methodologies. Based on your analysis above, do you feel the use of a quantitative methodology and your chosen design is best suited to address your research problem and answer your questions. Why or why not? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question18: Other
Week 6: Build a Qualitative Proposal
Instruction
Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal that includes the following: Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using qualitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): A specific qualitative design, The population and sample, Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, Steps for the analysis of the data, and Issues of trustworthiness within a qualitative framework. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the qualitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, and trustworthiness. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Make sure to justify your steps and choices, using the course resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages
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Question19: Other
Week 5: Qualitative Data Collection
Instruction
Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment from last week and further explore how you might examine your research problem using a qualitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. How might fieldwork and observation be used to answer your research questions? What role would field notes play in this process? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using observation? How might interviewing be used to answer your research questions? Would you use face-to-face interviews or electronic interviews? Why or why not? Would you interview participants individually or in a group? Why or why not? What are the advantages and disadvantages to using interviews to collect your data? Discuss ethical issues to consider with these qualitative data collection methods. Reflect on how you might code the potential data you collect. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 6 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages
Question1: Finance
If you earn 5% per year on your bank account, how long will it take an account with $105 to double to $210? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Question 2: Engineering.
separate bus lane is proposed that will replace a single lane of a freeway with a capacity of 2,500 vehicles per hour per lane
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Question 3: Computer Science.
Your manager informs you that your company is going to have a new digital forensics lab built. It will have space for additional computers to perform password cracking. You’re asked to research hardware and software requirements for this task and write a one-page memo describing recommendations for a password-cracking computer running multiple GPUs in a cluster of other systems with multiple GPUs. State what OS is recommended for these clusters’ systems.
Question 4: Other
Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.
Must be in APA format and include in text citation ( ).
What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.
4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?
5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.
6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not
Question5:Finance
In 1880 five aboriginal trackers were each promised the equivalent of 50 Australian dollars for helping to capture the notorious outlaw Ned Kelley. In 1994 the granddaughters of two of the trackers claimed that this reward had not been paid. The prime minister stated that if this was true, the government would be happy to pay the $50. However, the granddaughters also claimed that they were entitled to compound interest.
How much was each granddaughter entitled to if the interest rate was 3%? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
How much was each entitled to if the interest rate was 6%?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
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Question 6: Business
Chaebol and family ownership in Korea
The word chaebol is a unique combination of the Korean words ‘chae (wealth)’ and ‘bol (clan or clique)’. South Korea’s chaebol are family-owned businesses that typically have subsidiaries across diverse industries. The top five chaebol, taken together, represent approximately half of the South Korean stock market’s value. Chaebol drive the majority of South Korea’s investment in research and development and employ people around the world. On average, the 3rd and 4th generations of the families of major shareholder in the top 30 Chaebolds become executive at the age of 31.5, only 3.5 years after they join the company (some start their career even as an executive). While some people argue that family leadership is the most suitable and efficient ownerships strategy to manage those huge business group (perspective 1), others argue that it is outdated and inefficient ownership strategy (Perspective 2).
I NEED ANSWER FOR PERSPECTIVE 1.
Question 7: Mathematics
Solve the equation for x(for a>0,aÎN)
Solve the equation a^x = x^a for x, for all positive values of a (natural numbers).
Question8: Accounting
QUESTION ONE
Kitchen Electrical Company is planning to introduce a food blender – Project A – to its line of small home appliances. Annual sales of the blender are estimated at 7,000 units at a price of $75 per unit. Variable manufacturing costs are estimated at $46 per unit, incremental fixed manufacturing costs (other than depreciation) at $35,000 annually, and incremental administration and selling expenses relating to the blenders at $37,000 annually.
To build the food blender the company must invest $250,000 in moulds, patterns and special equipment. Since the company expects to change the design of the blender every four years, this equipment will have a four-year service life with $10,000 salvage value. Depreciation will be calculated on a straight-line basis. (Note – Initial Investment is made at the start of the year when the project commences). Ignore taxation for the purposes of this question.
REQUIRED:
Provide a projected accrualincome statement calculating average per annum accounting profit for Kitchen Electrical based on the above information.
Produce a table showing projected cash inflows / outflows and net cash flows each year over the project life.
Calculate (show full workings to your answer) and interpret the meaning of:
accounting rate of return on the project
payback on the project
net present value assuming a 18% discount rate on the project.
internal rate of return on the project
The company is also considering an alternate superior blender – Project B – to manufacture and sell. The upfront capital cost to manufacture this blender is costlier at $500,000 initially. The projected life is again 4 years generating a NPV of $145,600 and an Internal Rate of Return of 32.36 percent based on a yearly year end cash inflow of $240,000.
Determine which alternative proposal the company should choosebased on increasing the net wealth of the business. (Full justify your answer – (limit 40 words))
Now assume the company has the opportunity of replicating each proposal several times (projects are no longer mutually exclusive) but also has an imposed capital constraint, limiting initial investment to $1,000,000. Does your recommendation change – Fully justifying your answer comparing total returns when utilising the $1 million in capital – (limit 80 words). (HINT: The company can do multiple projects – A and/or B up to an initial capital spend of 1,000,000)
Required:
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Question 9: Finance
Suppose Starbucks wishes to sign a 10-year contract to open a location within the Lundquist College of Business. This venture will cost $70,000, and is expected to bring in $10,000 per year.
Starbucks currently finances its operations with 50% equity and 50% debt. They face a 33% tax rate and the YTM on existing Starbucks bonds is 8%. The market expected return is 14%, the risk-free rate is 5% and Starbucks’ Beta is 0.9.
What is the NPV of this venture?
Question 10: Other
Write a self-reflection paper of approximately 250 words analyzing your own experience with teams, and your ability to lead and contribute effectively to teams.
You should use the following questions for organizing your paper, but you may wish to add additional information:
Describe your experience with workgroups and or teams in the workplace and at college
List your current strengths and weaknesses with regard to team building
Question 11: Finance
Question 12: Physics
Question 13: Psychology
Wk. 4 Team Assignment:Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project.
TOPIC Nipsey Hussle’s story
Resources: Center for Writing Excellence (CWE) Thesis Generator and Annotated Bibliography Sample.
In many cases, issues and dynamics reported in the news are also studied by researchers.
Choose one news story from the News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News assignment, due in Week Three, to use for the final team project due in Week Six.
Gain instructor approval for the selected news story.
Develop an annotated bibliography. Each team member must list a minimum of two sources from peer-reviewed journals that relate to the news story.
Write a clearly worded thesis statement of no more than 150words for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six.
Format your annotated bibliography and thesis statement according to APA guidelines.
(b) A curve is drawn to pass through the points given by the following table: x 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 y 2 2.4 2.7 2.8 3 2.6 2.1 Estimate the area bounded by the curve, the X-axis and the lines x 1 and x 4, using Simpson’s jrd rule.
Question 16: Engineering
need help with these questions. They are also found on chegg if anyone has that. Just type in the first few words of the questions in the attachments. No need to explain. Just need solutions. will pay 2.50$ per question
Question 17: Psychology
Wk 4 Discussion
Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:
Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:
Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.
Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
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Question 18: Business
Db And assignment
Unit 2 DB
In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner, one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors. Identify an organization that you have worked for or know about that has successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Alternatively, identify one that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Discuss how leaders in those businesses have or have not accomplished this initiative. Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used in APA style.
Unnit 2 assignment
Instructions
Establishing a culture of sound business ethics within an organization is challenging, to say the least. Companies that market products that are not considered to be “healthy” for consumers have additional challenges. Using the CSU online library, research a company that markets “unhealthy” products. Examples might include tobacco or alcohol companies but these examples are not all-inclusive. Respond to the following questions.
Briefly describe the company and its product and the ethical dilemma associated with the production and distribution of its products.
Describe how the perception of the product differs within cultures both within the United States and globally.
How has this company handled the ethical implications of its product with a focus on social responsibility, integrity and business ethics?
Explain how leadership within the organization can instill a culture of ethics within the marketing department as they strive to advertise a product that is not healthy for the customer.
Your response should be two double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages. You are required to use at least one peer-reviewed source. Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines.
Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.
Question 19: Business
Unit 1 Assignment
Instructions
Using the CSU Online Library, locate an article that discusses the topic of business ethics. Topic ideas might include the role of ethics in the workplace, breach of ethics, the effect of internal and external forces on ethical compliance, global ethical considerations within a business or ethics and employees.
Note these are ideas; please expand within the parameters of ethical topics as they relate to business ethics.
Respond to the following questions:
Summarize the article and align it with the author’s main point.
How does this article contribute to contemporary thinking about business ethics?
How can you apply information in this article to your field?
How did this article fit your ethical view?
Your response should be 2 pages double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages.
Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines. References should include at minimum 1) one of the required reading articles and 2) an additional scholarly reviewed article from the CSU Online Library.
Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.
Question 20: Other
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“Five Words that Best Describe You” exercise. In 250 words State the five words that best describe you and why they are so applicable. Then describe what information or knowledge you hope to gain from the course – what are your objectives? title of course (Strategic Management)
Continuation……
Question 21: Statistics
The following list gives the ages of 50 factory workers. Construct a Grouped Frequency Distribution using 7 classes.
50
63
42
28
30
37
29
61
43
43
27
50
28
28
50
62
34
53
21
32
19
41
60
57
22
35
46
32
30
25
36
52
57
29
35
42
57
35
61
46
21
49
26
40
19
18
25
23
47
28
Range:
Class Width:
Fill in the table after creating the frequency distribution on paper. rf and crf are rounded to two decimal places ( Example: .15 not 0.15). Do not worry about the sum of the column being 1.0.
Class Limits
Class Boundaries
Midpoint
f
cf
rf
crf
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
–
Question22: Germany
Name: 10. Klasse Deutsch : Woche 5
Complete the following tasks and upload this document to Managebac by the end of the second double.
Verbs and Tenses:
Give the German or English as indicated for the following phrases. Use the vocab about Düsseldorf from Zoom and Quizlet:
German
English
einen Spaziergang machen
to go for a walk
das Filmmuseum besuchen
Vist the Film Museum
to do a city tour
den Rheinturm besichtigen
Einen Einkaufsbummel machen
to go on a shopping expedition
in den Südpark gehen
To vist the rhine tower
to go to Spektakulum
eine Bratwurst auf dem Carlsplatz essen
eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen
to do a boat trip on the Rhine
zum Unterbacher See fahren
to go to a disco in the old town
das Senfmuseum besuchen
To vist the city museum
to drink a coffee on the banks of the Rhine
in die Königsallee gehen
In den Aquazoo gehen
to go to the ‘Aquazoo’
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Was kann man/können wir in Düsseldorf machen? What can you/we do in Düsseldorf?
Use the correct form of ‘können’ with the verb phrases above to create sentences. You can choose the phrases!
Man kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.
Man kann in die Altstadt gehen.
Wir kann in den Aquazoo gehen.
Ich kann ins Cafe am Rheinufer gehen.
Wir kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.
Man kann das Film Museusm besuchen
Present Tense – Choose 5 activities from the table to form sentences in the Present Tense.
das Senfmuseum besuchen – Ich besuche das Senfmuseum.
Rewrite the following in the Future Tense – werden + infinitive
Ich besuche das Filmmuseum Ich werde das Filmmuseum besuchen
Wir gehen in den Südpark Wir werden in den Sudpark gehen
Er besichtigt den Rheinturm Er werdet den Rheinturm besichtigen
Sie macht einen Einkaufsbummel Sie werdet einen Einkaufsbummel macht
Wir fahren morgen zum Unterbacher See Wir werden morgen zum Unterbacher See fahren.
Meine Freunde und ich trinken
einen Kaffee im Café. __________
Complete the following sentences in the Perfect Tense. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of haben/sein and the past participle. See the table which has been uploaded – Useful verbs in the Perfect Tense.
Am Sonntag __________wir in Düsseldorf___________. (ankommen)
Wir __________mit dem Zug __________. (fahren)
Zuerst __________wir zu Fuß zu unserer Jugendherberge __________. (gehen)
Dann __________wir zu Mittag __________. (essen)
Danach __________wir das Filmmuseum __________ (besuchen) und am Abend __________ wir Volleyball __________. (spielen)
Am nächsten Tag __________wir mit dem Bus zum Unterbacher See __________.(fahren)
Den ganzen Morgen __________wir (surfen) und __________. (segeln)
Am Nachmittag __________wir eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein __________ (machen)
Nach der Bootsfahrt __________ wir einen Kaffee in einem Café am Rheinufer __________ (trinken)
Am Abend __________wir zwei Stunden lang in einer Disco in der Altstadt __________. (tanzen)
Word order – SvTOMP/TvSOMP
Rewrite the following sentences in the correct order. Begin with the highlighted word or phrase.
Remember: the verb is the second idea in the sentence. If there are two verbs, the second verb
goes to the end of the sentence.
wohnen / in einem schὅnen Hotel/ meine Familie und ich / in Dὕsseldorf
Meine Familie und ich wohnen in einem schὅnen Hotel in Dὕsseldorf
heute / wollen / eine Bootsfahrt / wir / auf dem Rhein / machen
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ich / machen / mὅchte / eine Stadtrundfahrt / am Montag
kann / besichtigen / man / die Sehenswὕrdigkeiten der Stadt
finde / sehr interessant / ich / das
am Dienstagabend / gehen / werden / in der Altstadt / meine Freundin und ich / in die Disco
in die Stadt / mein Bruder und ich / werden / gehen / am Mittwochvormittag
werden / ins Senfmuseum / zu Fuβ / zuerst / wir / gehen.
probieren / wir / kὅnnen / viele Senfspezialitἃten / dort
ins Spektakulum / danach / gehen / werden / wir
Konzerte und Theater / es / jedenTag / gibt / fὕr Kinder und Jugendliche
werden / Meine Familie und ich / zum Unterbacher See / fahren / am Wochenende / mit dem Zug
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Practise the Quizlet List ‚Adverbs of Time‘. (5 mins)
Give the following adverbs of time in the space below:
on the weekend
first
after that
on the weekend
then
in the evening
on Friday afternoon
today
tomorrow
yesterday
next week
this morning
Choose 4 time phrases from the list above and create sentences about Düsseldorf beginning
with the time phrase. Make sure that you choose the correct tense to use. (ie tomorrow I will visit the Rhine tower – future tense)
Practise the Quizlet list – Opinions (5 mins) Write down 5 opinions about any of the sights in Düsseldorf, and give reasons for your opinion. The conjunctions ‘weil’ (verb scarer) and ‘denn’ will be useful here:
Ich finde das Senfmuseum sehr interessant, weil ich Wurst mit Senf gern esse.
Zoom Textbook. Pages 112 and 113. Read the texts through and answer the questions in the space below:
P 112 Lesen 4
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
P 113 Lesen 4
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
In the table below note down all the conjunctions (joining words) and time phrases used in the texts.
Conjunctions (with meanings)
Time Phrases
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Cases
CASES – Nominative, Accusative & Dative
Definite Article (the) & Indefinite Article (a)
Masculine
Feminine
Neuter
Plural
Nominative
der
ein
die
eine
das
ein
die
keine
Accusative
den
einen
die
eine
das
ein
die
keine
Dative
dem
einem
der
einer
dem
einem
den + n
keinen + n
* ‘kein’ is used here instead of ‘ein’ as you can’t use ‘ein’ in the plural.
* Other words can be substituted in this table instead of ‘ein’. The endings on these words will change in exactly the same way as ein & kein.
mein (my), sein (his), ihr (her), dein (your- informal), unser (our), ihr (their) euer (your- informal ) Ihr (your – formal)
Complete the following endings using the correct form of the accusative or dative case.
Note:
If there is no preposition ie ‘in’, then use the accusative case to show that the noun is the direct object. (receiving the action)
If the preposition ‘in’ is followed by a noun, then use the rule: in + acc (movement), in + dat (no movement). Where at – DAT Where to – ACCU
Wir können d____ Schlossturm (m) besichtigen.
Wir können d____ Altstadt (f) besuchen.
Man kann in____ Open – Air Kino (n) gehen.
Wir sind i____ Kino (n)
Wir können e____ Bootsfahrt (f) auf dem Rhein machen.
Können wir vielleicht in e____ Pizzeria (f) gehen?
Es war schön heute Abend in d____ Pizzeria.(f)
Ich möchte d____ Filmmuseum (n) und d____ Sϋdpark (m) bescuhen.
In Dϋsseldorf möchten wir in d____ Aquazoo (m) gehen und e____ Einkaufsbummel (m)
machen.
Man kann d____ Senfmuseum (n) und d____ Königsallee (f) besichtigen.
I____ Senfmuseum (n) kann man viele Senfspezialitäten probieren und in d____ Königsallee (f) gibt es zahlreiche Geschäfte.
Am Samstag können wir in____ Spektakulum (n) und danach in d____ Botanischen Garten (m) gehen.
Ich möchte besonders d____ Rheinturm (m) besuchen und in____ Café (n) am Rheinufer gehen.
When you have completed all the tasks, upload this booklet to ManageBac. This should be done by the end of the second double.
Any remaining time should be spent on Quizlet and on further writing practice. (ie Imagine you are writing a Blog from the perspective of a tourist in Duesseldorf and are talking about what you have done, are doing and will do. Use description and give your opinions)
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Question 23: Statistics
Compute the marginal distribution of marital status (for example, total “Never Married / Total Adult Women) for all adult women (use percent). Either draw by hand or use Excel to create a bar chart to display this distribution. Discuss the results.
Compare the conditional distributions of marital status for women aged 18 to 24 and women ages 40 to 64. Discuss the most important difference between the two age groups.
Your company is planning a magazine aimed at women who have never been married. Find the conditional distribution of age among never-married women and display it in a bar graph. Insert this graph into word. Discuss what age group or groups you would suggest to your magazine to target.
Question 24: Engineering
Solve
Question 25: Psychology
Wk 4 Individual: Multicultural Project Planning
Choose one of the following scenarios and watch the accompanying video.
You work for a refugee relief organization. You are given the job of setting up schools in Chechen refugee camps in Chechnya.
Video: “Chechen Refugee Camps”
You work for a humanitarian organization. You are asked to expand your organization into Iraq to aid in the country’s rebuilding effort.
Video: “Post War Conditions in Iraq”
Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper about the challenges of planning the project.
Include the following in your paper:
At least three topics that you would like to better understand before beginning the project.
Describe ethnocentric challenges that may arise when planning the project.
Discuss the types of questions the researcher should ask.
Include peer-reviewed sources to support your points.
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Question 26: Psychology
Ethical Guidelines in Multicultural Research
Pick an ethical guideline unique to multicultural research. What is your perspective on the chosen guideline’s purpose for student and professional research?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 27: Psychology
Ethnocentrism, Psychological Theories, and Multicultural Research
In what ways does ethnocentrism impact psychological theories and multicultural research?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
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Question 28: Statistics
A firm uses a computer-based training module to prepare 20 machinists to use new numerically controlled lathes. The module contains a test at the end of the course; X is the number who perform satisfactorily on the test.
The list of potential product testers for a new product contains 100 persons chosen at random from the adult residents of a large city. Each person on the list is asked whether he or she would participate in the study if given the chance; X is the number who say “Yes”.
Either in a job you currently have or one that you would like to have, describe a data set you could collect that would be in the binomial setting.
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Question 29: Chemistry
Complex metric Titration
A 10.00 mL of aliquot of a commercial grade algaecide containing an organ mercury compound was treated with concentrated HNO3 and diluted to 250.0 mL with water. A 50.00 mL of aliquot of this solution was treated with 20.00 mL of 0.04966 M EDTA and mixed thoroughly for 10 minutes. After adjusting to pH 10.00, the excess EDTA required 18.04 mL of 0.04711 M MgCl2 for the titration endpoint. Calculate the concentration of Hg in the original sample in units of mg Hg/mL
Question 30: Chemistry
Gravimetric Analysis
Will a precipitate form when 0.150L of 0.1000 M Pb(NO)3 and 0.100 L of 0.20 M NaCl are mixed? Ksp of PbCl2 = 1.2 x 10 ^ -5
Question 31: Computer Science
SYSC 2100 Algorithms and Data Structures Summer 2019
Assignment 3: Recursion and Stacks Due: May 31st, 2019
Name your classes and methods strictly as specified (case sensitive).
Design a class named LanguageRecognizerG to implement a language recognizer. The LanguageRecognizerG class must accept strings from the user, and determine recursively (method recursiveRecogG) whether the string is a word of the G language.
The G language has the following grammar:
<G> = empty string | <E> | <V> <E> | <E> <G> <V> <E> = & | #
<V> = W | A
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The client program (exterior to your class) will read the word from the keyboard as follows:
Enter the G-language word to check:
Suppose that the user enters the word:
###
The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered word and check with one simple call of a method. The client program should not implement any result printing at all. That is the responsibility of your class via its methods. A client program is provided on Page 4. Feel free to use it for your tests!
The output should appear as follows:
Recursion: Word “###” is NOT a word of the G language If the entered word is #A instead, the output would be:
Recursion: Word “#A” IS a word of the G language
CAUTION: If you take care of the printing inside recursiveRecogG you will run into a multiple printing problem. To eliminate this, have a second method recursivePrintG that takes care of the printing for recursion. That is the only method that the client program will call for the language check. It then becomes the job of recursivePrintG to make use of recursiveRecogG.
Bonus Question (no marks): Try solving the same problem as above non-recursively using the Java Collections Framework class Stack (method stackRecogG).
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1
Implement your own ADT-list-based stack class named StackListBased. Use the ADT LinkedList of the Java Collections Framework. Your Stack implementation should be capable of performing the operations shown in the following UML diagram.
Design another class named InfixCalculator to implement an infix calculator using your previously implemented class StackListBased. The InfixCalculator class must accept infix expressions from the user and evaluate them with method evaluateInfix. This method will first convert the infix expression to postfix expression (method convertPostfix), and then evaluate the resulting postfix expression (method getPostfix). Use only the operators +, -, *, and /. You can assume that the infix expression is syntactically correct and that the unary operators are illegal. However, the infix expression should
allow for any type of spacing between operands, operators, and parentheses
allow for multi-digit integer operands
The client program (exterior to your class) will read the infix expression to evaluate from the keyboard as follows:
Enter the infix expression to evaluate:
Suppose that the user enters the expression:
(10 + 3 * 4 / 6)
The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered expression and evaluate it the method evaluateInfix().
The output for some example infix operations should appear as follows:
infix: (10 + 3 * 4 / 6)
postfix: 10 3 4 * 6 / +
result: 12
2
infix: 12*3 – 4 + (18 / 6)
postfix: 12 3 * 4 – 18 6 / +
result: 35
infix: 35 – 42* 17 /2 + 10
postfix: 35 42 17 * 2 / – 10 +
result: -312
infix: 3 * (4 + 5)
postfix: 3 4 5 + *
result: 27
infix: 3 * ( 17 – (5+2))/(2+3)
postfix: 3 17 5 2 + – * 2 3 + /
result: 6
Submission Requirements: Submit your assignment (3 source LanguageRecognizerG.java, StackListBased.java, and InfixCalculator.java) using cuLearn. Your program should compile and run as is in the default lab environment, and the code should be well documented. Submit all the files individually without using any archive or compression.
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Marks will be based on:
Completeness of your submission
Correct solution to the problem
Following good coding style
Sufficient and high-quality in-line comments
Adhering to the submission requirements (in particular the naming convention and the
submission of uncompressed source files only)
The due date is based on the time of the cuLearn server and will be strictly enforced. If you are concerned about missing the deadline, here is a tip: multiple submissions are allowed. So you can always submit a (partial) solution early, and resubmit an improved solution later. This way, you will reduce the risk of running late, for whatever reason (slow computers/networks, unsynchronized clocks, failure of the Internet connection at home, etc.).
In cuLearn, you can manage the submission until the deadline, taking it back, deleting/adding files, etc, and resubmitting it. The system also provides online feedback whether you submitted something for an assignment. It may take a while to learn the submission process, so I would encourage you to experiment with it early and contact the TA(s) in case you have problems, as only assignments properly and timely submitted using cuLearn will be marked and will earn you assignment credits.
files:
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3
The Client Program:
4
Question 32: Business
Fourth ENT assignment.
– Go online and download the book titled CAPITALIST NIGGER by Chika Onyeani and:
1- Comment (Give 10 arguments) on why Africans do not succeed in business.
2- How can they apply the cobweb method used by Indians to succeed.
NB: Answer in at least 6 pages.
Question 33: Business
How to make $2000 from $20 in a year.
As an entrepreneur, explain in detail, a business proposal that can fetch you $2000 in one year, starting with $20. (Answer between 2-3 pages)
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Question 34: Mathematics
Probability
After his bargain with Dormammu, Dr. Strange is trying to get back to Earth from the Dark
Dimension. To this end, he manages to open three portals:
• Portal 1 can lead him directly back to Earth after 5 minutes.
• Portal 2
leads him through the Nine Realms and back to the Dark Dimension (where he
started) after 15 minutes.
• Portal 3 leads him through the perilous Quantum Realm and back to the Dark Dimension
after 25 minutes (assuming he survives the trip, of course).
Since Dr. Strange does not know which portal is the correct one to take and the portals change
positions every time he goes through one of them, he decides to pick one portal (out of three)
at random with equal probability.
What is the expected time for Dr. Strange to get back to Earth?
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Question 35: Mathematics
ROI NPV AND PLAY-BACK CALCULATION
Need ROI, Pay-Back and NPV calculation
Return on investment. Net present value
Question 36: Mathematics
Home Depot entered fiscal 2016 with a total capitalization of $27,219 million. In 2016, debt investors received interest income of $832 million. Net income to shareholders was $6,351 million. (Assume a tax rate of 35%.)
Calculate the economic value added assuming its cost of capital is 10%. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)
Question 37: Economics
How easy is it to start a business in India?
I would like to have a deep analysis on this topic within 500 words.
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Question 38: Business
Discussion 4
William Ford Jr., Chairman of Ford Motor Co. said, “A good company delivers excellent products and services, and a great company does all that and strives to make the world a better place.” Supported by evidence from your textbook, the “Starbucks” case study, and other research, describe two forces that you believe shape the relationship between business and society. Provide two examples, one for each force you select. Be specific in your answer and discuss strengths and weaknesses via examples and applications. Be certain to cite in APA format all sources used.
Discussion 5
Visit at least two different companies’ website and read about how each company explicates the working environment and its expectations of employees. In your discussion post, reference the websites you analyzed. Examples of companies include, Kraft Foods, Apple, CVS Caremark, Johnson & Johnson, and Target. Identify what your selected companies do to establish a positive working environment and committed employees. Be specific in identifying behaviors, programs, or initiatives. (Note: If a company website does not provide enough information, select another company.)
Question 39: Mathematics
Solve for x the equation 2^x+x^2=3^x-x^3, with detailed illustration and explanation.
Question 40: Physics
A physics student is sitting in a parked car just off a busy roadway. She measures the traffic noise and finds that shutting the car windows reduces the intensity of traffic sound to 1.0 % of what it would be with the car windows open. What reduction in intensity level (IL) is achieved by shutting the windows? In your response include an explanation of the underlying physics concept and follow the posted structured approach to problem solving in presenting your response.
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Question 41: Physics
Explain why warranty for many devices will be voided if the equipment is operated in a room with air temperature exceeding the limit specified by the equipment manufacturer. (2 marks)
Question 42: Statistics
Find the value of z such that 0.9722 0.9722 of the area lies between −z − z and z. Round your answer to two decimal places.
Question 43: Mathematics
A pump house is to be placed at some point X along a river. Two pipelines will then connect the
pumphouse to properties A and B. How far from M should X be in order to minimize the total length of
pipeline?
Question 47: Mathematics
Unit –Circle & line –segment intersection
Derive the formula to calculate the endpoint coordinates (x2,y2) on a unit-circle’s circumference, of a sloped line segment (slope = 1 or 2), whose origin coordinates (x1,y1) are anywhere inside of the unit-circle’s first octant. This is for a high school project.
Question 48: Psychology
Wk 3 Team Assigment:News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News
CHANGE TOPIC — Just need 2 slides
Research news stories for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six; each team member must select one news story. The stories must have occurred within the past 6 months and must illustrate the effects of multicultural conflict. The team will choose one story to complete the assignment on.
Createan 2-slide presentationthat conveys a background on the news story, and how the news story is related to multicultural conflict. Additionally, provide a resolution approach to the topic.
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TOPIC is: how the Nipsey Hussle Murder unified people of different cultures and unity
Describe how the news story illustrates the effects of multicultural conflict.
Format your document according to APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment.
Question 49: History
Major influences on development of the Renaissance
Instructions
This assignment provides you with an opportunity to practice prioritizing known major influences on development of the Renaissance and using specific data to support your choice. What shaped developments in the period 1300–1550 more—the Black Death’s emphasis on the afterlife (the hereafter) or the Renaissance’s emphasis on human achievement (the here and now)?
Lead with your judgment about the most influential viewpoint from beginning to end of the period. This is your thesis. Then, support it with specific examples covering each of the following categories:
significant individuals (e.g., political or religious leaders, innovators, explorers);
characteristics of worldview (e.g., philosophy, religion);
social institutions (e.g., social mores, practices, hierarchies);
patronage (discuss the patrons, their motives, influence, and resulting products or artifacts);
the economies (e.g., changes, different economic systems, impact); and
politics (e.g., forms of governance, power distributions, contests).
You may use specific examples that touch on several of the above categories at once. When writing your essay, use examples to prove your point rather than simply listing the examples.
Your essay must be a minimum of 500 words. Be sure to include an introduction.
You must use two sources written by historians in history books or journals from Online Libraries. All content must follow APA guidelines, including all sources used, which must be cited and referenced according to APA standards.
Details
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Question 50: Statistics
Simulation
The number of acres comprised by Cedar Bog Lake is being estimated. The lake
is shown in the accompanying sketch with the scale shown in feet. Use simulation
to estimate the size of the lake. (One-acre D 43,560 square feet).
x(from 0 to 1000)
y(from 0 to 500)
RECENT QUESTIONS.
Question 1: General.
Introduction to Economics assignment
ECN1000 – Devoir 2
Tiffanie Perrault
Université de Montréal, Département des Sciences Economiques à rendre avant le 6 juin 2019
Le marché du locatif à Montréal
Selon Statistique Canada, 522 140 logements étaient loués dans l’agglo- mération de Montréal en 2016. La même année, 4% des logements étaient inoccupés. Selon l’Union des Banques Suisses, le prix moyen du loyer pour un 3 1/2 à Montréal en 2015 était de CAD 879. On supposera qu’entre 2015 et 2016, ce prix augmente de 2%, donc passe à approximativement CAD 900.
Pour faciliter l’accès au logement, Madame Gagnon, économiste pour les services urbains de la Ville de Montréal, proposait de plafonner le prix des loyers à CAD 850 au 1er Janvier 2017.
Représentez l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016 à l’aide d’un graphique d’offre et de demande.
Sur le même graphique, représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs. Vous pouvez utiliser des lettres pour désigner les aires correspondant à ces surplus.
Sur le même graphique, représentez l’équilibre du marché des loge- ments locatifs à Montréal en 2017, après la politique de plafonnement proposée par Madame Gagnon.
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Madame Gagnon ?
1
Madame Breton est également économiste pour la ville. Elle critiquait la solution de Madame Gagnon et proposait de subventionner l’accès au logement des familles montréalaises sous la forme d’une prime de CAD 50 par mois pour les locataires aux revenus les plus bas, au 1er Janvier 2017.
Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Madame Breton pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Madame Breton.
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, est-il préférable, pour encourager l’accès au logement, de mettre en place la politique publique de Madame Breton ou celle de Madame Gagnon ? Pourquoi ?
Monsieur Tremblay propose une autre approche pour faciliter l’accès au logement et réduire le taux d’inoccupation : subventionner les propriétaires de logements locatifs, au 1er Janvier 2017.
Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Tremblay.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay en termes d’accès au logement ?
Comme Monsieur Tremblay, Monsieur Laroche pense qu’il serait préfé- rable d’envisager une politique d’offre, plutôt qu’une politique de demande. Il propose de taxer les logements inoccupés au 1er Janvier 2017.
Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
2
Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Laroche.
Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Laroche en termes d’accès au logement ?
Le résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche est-il dif- férent du résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay ?
Des quatre solutions proposées, laquelle choisiriez-vous ? Pourquoi ?
3
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Question 2: Law
Instruction
PLEASE SEE THE ATTACHED DOCUMENT FOR THE INSTRUCTIONS OF ASSIGNMENT. NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS! ALL instructions MUST be followed! ASSIGNMENT DEADLINE: 6/8/2019 DEADLINE TIME: 12:00PM M.S.T. Instructions for assignment is attached!!! Thanks!!!
Graduate Course Assignment
Assignment Deadline: 6/8/2019
Assignment Deadline Time: 12:00pm M.S.T.
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
Write a 475-word analysis that THOROUGHLY ADDRESS AND EXPLAIN methods to work around potential ethical issues in the future for an intervention program of: Reduce Firearm-Related Violence
Include at least two (2) Peer-Reviewed resource within the response.
Properly quote and cite all references used. Response MUST have direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.
Properly format your document consistent with APA guidelines. Analysis MUST be in APA FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Analysis must have a strong introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences and paragraphs.
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
NOTE: cover page and reference page are NOT included in the 475-word count for analysis. The document must have thoroughly detailed information and references to support analysis.
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Question 3: Education
literacy narrative (anecdote), five pages,
Instruction
Literacy is the development of literacy and, the ability of communication between people. I have been suffered from literacy two times of my life. First, when I was a child I suffered from the Arabic language, how can I communicate with people in Arabic. I have been extremely lucky in having a chance to learn from several fantastic sponsors. The first sponsor is my parents. My parents are the most positive literacy sponsor in my life. My parents are considered the first teacher in my life. When I had homework, they always helped me and supported me to become a better student. Further, my parents always encouraged me to become better at writing and read more by buying me a lot of books. For example, when I went to my bed my parents read a story for me. That helped me and encouraged me to be a good student who read and write a lot in a short time. Also, I will never forget my teachers who made a big effort with me throughout my education. For example, they made a competition between my classmates to enhance our education in a good way, and they always gave us a present. Second, when I was 21 years I moved to the United States, and I started to learn the English language. It is a new period in my life a new language and education. First, I was scared of how can I get better and how can I improve my English language. With the time a get better and better in English. I practice every day, when I hear a new word, I write it in my notebook. I watched movies every day and repeated. The first station was the UCF English language institution (ELI), this was my new challenge. In addition, I did do my placement test and my grade was level one. The teacher at ELI taught in a really good way. For example, they gave a lot of homework and gave good feedback that helped me to improve myself.
Question 4: Psychology
Week two class one
Assignment 1 Due June 5, 2019
Vicarious Trauma and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder are closely related because the symptoms of each condition are similar. What distinguishes each condition from one another is how the trauma was experienced. For this Discussion, you review a video of three United States military servicemen previously deployed in the Middle East. Each experienced combat in unique ways and each experienced trauma differently. As you watch the clips, pay attention to who experienced vicarious trauma and who experienced post-traumatic stress disorder. Consider how each man experienced the trauma, the symptoms of each condition, and what makes their experiences similar but also distinctively different from the others.
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Post by Day 3 a brief explanation of which individual(s) has vicarious trauma and which has post-traumatic stress disorder. Then identify the symptoms of the individual(s) with vicarious trauma and explain how each symptom informed your selection. Finally, explain any insights you gained about vicarious trauma related to the video. Be specific and use the current literature to support your response.
Video: Laureate Education, Inc. (Executive Producer). (2010). Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder in military personnel.
Only a few paragraphs needed DUE JUNE 9, 2019
Assignment 2
Application: Your Risk for Vicarious Trauma
One major risk factor for developing vicarious trauma is the consistent use of controlled empathy which is the internal control of mental states, emotions, and behaviors (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). Prolonged use of controlled empathy can take an emotional, physiological, and spiritual toll on counselors and other trauma response helping professionals which may result in the development of vicarious trauma symptoms (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). For example, counselors who listen to a client or student sharing a story of abuse often remain calm and non-reactive as part of the counseling process. It takes tremendous mental and emotional effort, however, to absorb a traumatic story knowing they must respond therapeutically. This effort can become mentally and emotionally exhausting. Counselors and other trauma response helping professionals must be cognizant of their potential risk of developing vicarious trauma and be capable of assessing their own symptoms.
For this Application Assignment you take the Professional Quality of Life Scale (ProQOL 5), a brief assessment instrument developed to promote self-awareness of vicarious trauma. It measures compassion satisfaction, which is the pleasure you derive from your profession, risks for burnout, and your exposure to extremely stressful events. Together, these three components help determine your risk for developing vicarious trauma and the impact of controlled empathy.
As you score the ProQOL 5, think about whether the results surprise you. What areas do you need to focus on to exercise strategies to prevent the development or further exacerbation of vicarious trauma?
Reference: Izzo, E. & Carpel Miller, V. (2009). Vicarious Trauma: The Impact of Empathy. Retrieved fromhttp://www.selfgrowth.com/articles/Vicarious_Trauma_The_Impact_of_Controlled_Empathy.html
The assignment: (2–3 pages)
Describe your results of the ProQOL 5.
Describe two areas you need to further develop to address or prevent vicarious trauma and explain why you selected each.
Based upon the current literature, justify two strategies you would use to develop those areas.
Explain how your use of controlled empathy might influence the development of vicarious trauma and how this might impact the counseling process.
Be specific and use examples to illustrate your points.
Question 5: Business
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Essay
Instruction
Unit V Case Study Open Instructions Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company. Read the “Franklin Electronics” case study on pages 545–546 of your textbook. As you complete the analysis, address the topics below. Explain the earned value measurement system and whether you believe that Franklin Electronics truly understands it. Analyze the cost projections completed by Franklin Electronics. Reconstruct the cost projections toward the compilation of a realistic project budget. Include a theoretical discussion around the steps involved in the budget that you built. Create a project management schedule that would be more effective than the one proposed in the case. Use scheduling techniques learned in this class to date. Include an assessment of why you selected this scheduling technique instead of others. Evaluate sources of project risk, and develop strategies that would decrease the impact of these risks. In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of two full pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations. A minimum of three in-text citations are required.
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Question 6: General
INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.
ACADEMIC SKILLS ASSESSMENT
INTRODUCTION: The following task is designed to gauge a prospective student’s academic skills in the areas of reading comprehension, content analysis, intellectual comparison, and writing abilities. It is largely based on a sample assignment for the AP Placement Test at the High School level (copyright 2017, The College Board).
TIME ALLOWED: The typical time allotted for this task on the AP test is 60 minutes in one sitting, but GCD’s Admissions Team has adapted this task in the following manner: prospective students will have 7 days to research, write, and submit their response paper.
INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.
Completed assignments should be properly formatted in one of the following styles:
– GCD expects undergraduate students to utilize Chicago style guidelines. For
students who are not familiar with any style of formatting, this may be the best option. Here is a link to a resource page on this style: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/717/01/
– High School students may be more familiar with MLA style guidelines. Here is
ACADEMIC PROMPT: Evaluate the extent to which differing ideas of national identity shaped views of United States overseas expansion in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
Assignment Component Maximum Points Possible Points Earned
Is the paper properly formatted, using proper grammar, and 3-4 pages in length? 20
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Does the paper contain an evaluative thesis that establishes the student’s argument and responds to the question? 20
Does the paper describe a broader historical context immediately relevant to the question that relates the topic of the question to historical events, developments, or processes that occur before, during, or after the time frame of the question? 20
Does the paper explain how at least one additional piece of specific historical evidence, beyond those found in the documents, relates to an argument about the question? 20
Does the paper use historical reasoning to explain relationships among the pieces of evidence provided in the response and how they corroborate, qualify, or modify the argument, made in the thesis, that addresses the entirety of the question? In addition, a good response should utilize the content of at least six documents to support an argument about the question. 20
TOTAL: 100
Question 7: Business, Accounting.
Management Discussion and Analysis
Assigned Company is Lowe’s.
Accounting CASE 1: Management Discussion and Analysis
Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of
Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix
for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.
Accounting CASE 2: Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and
Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).
Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:
Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the
chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.
Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33
Question 8: General Business
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Wk 5 Discussion – Performance Evaluation
Respond to the following in a minimum of 250 words each:
• Discuss the pros and cons of four performance appraisal approaches.
• Explain the problems to be avoided in appraising performance
Integrate theory, research, and/or professional experience
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
• Question 9: Computer Science, Learning Systems and AI
Website Migration Project
As part of your job, you must complete a 10-to-15 page paper that follows this project through the system development life cycle (SDLC). This assignment will require you to do the following:
• Discuss what it will take to build a Web architecture, move an existing Website with minimal downtime, and provide a disaster recovery solution to ensure the site is always available.
•
o The Web architecture should describe and justify operating system choices (i.e., Linux, Apache, MYSQL, PHP, Windows, IIS, SQL, etc.).
• Evaluate alternatives to the company self-hosting the site.
• Build a Gantt chart using Microsoft Project or equivalent software, showing all tasks associated with implementing the Website.
• The chart should include a minimum of five (5) tasks, each with three (3) sub-tasks.
• Explain and justify the system architecture you have selected.
• Illustrate the system architecture using Visio or equivalent software.
• Create a use case that documents the event of a customer ordering a bag of chips from the new Website.
• The use case should include a graphical representation using Visio or equivalent software and a text description of the events.
• Discuss the support operations that the internally hosted Website will require after implementation.
• Explain how you will evaluate the performance of the new site and the success of your project.
Question 10: Business, General Business
1. Prepare a simple pro forma (projected) income statement and balance sheet for the first two years of operation, using income projections and incorporating an advertising plan.
2. Outline a plan for hiring and retaining competent, motivated employees for your business.
3. Prepare an outline for a “pitch,” i.e., a short 20-30 minute business plan presentation that will be made to lenders or investors.
4. Include at least two (2) references outside the textbook.
Question 11: Mathematics.
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Question 12: Statistics
Marketing Research SPSS
Need knowledge of Marketing and SPSS(need to have access to this) to do this assignment. Use the data set attached with SPSS tool and answer the following question:
1. The researchers want to know whether there are differences in the ability of the individual memes to effect attitudinal (Conscious) and behaviour (Influence) modification change in respondent driving behaviour. Please note that only one question is required and needs to include tables etc. ANOVA and multiple comparisons method to be used.
Overview
Speeding is recognized globally as the most common contributing factor to both serious injuries and fatalities in road crashes. Young drivers are significantly more likely to be involved in road collisions than other road users, with excessive speed being the major cause of young adult fatalities. Attempts to address this issue using traditional advertising methods are repeatedly unsuccessful, as people tune out and become normalized to risk and fear appeals. Social marketers must think outside the box if they wish to effectively reach this age demographic with their campaigns to create safer roads for everyone. One technique explored recently in online anti-speeding campaigns is the use of memes. Memes are important communication tools as they can influence the behaviours of social groups on a wide scale, while spreading on a micro basis. Memes reproduce by various means of imitation, and it is extremely simple and low-cost to create a meme. As a social marketing tool, memes can be extremely impactful when compared to other means of communication. People intentionally seek out and enjoy memes. Whereas, most Australians do not take notice of advertisements on social media and intentionally tune out. Memes are particularly valuable for smaller organizations with limited resources seeking to make an impression online. Internet memes use humour to convey their message. Humour can be used as a means for gaining attention, and positively influences recall towards advertisement and educational claims. Memes are distributed and shared through social media, and have the potential to go viral through online word-of-mouth. The ‘millennial’ age bracket, which incorporates 18 – 25 yearolds, are said to be a strong target audience for promotional content that use memes. Given the resonance of memes with young adults, and the often limited success of traditional 2 communications campaigns used to modify young drivers’ speeding attitudes and behaviours, there appears value in exploring the effectiveness of this non-traditional media within this context. The aim of this research then is to analyse the characteristics and interpretations of a meme that impact young drivers’ attitudinal and behaviour responses to excessive driving speed. This study seeks to answer two research questions: (1) What characteristics and perceptions of a meme influence how it is evaluated, and (2) How do memes and other driver characteristics affect attitudinal and behavioural modification outcomes. Data was collected from eighty-five undergraduate marketing students currently driving on Australian roads to understand how young adults evaluate memes, what makes a meme more likeable and memorable, and investigate whether the memes had an effect on attitudinal and behavioural driving responses. The researchers selected ten memes sourced from existing online anti-speeding campaigns posted by Australian state police force social media pages, which were modified to fit an Australian-wide context. Each student was randomly given two memes to assess from the pool of ten. The ten memes in the study are provided in the appendix. The young drivers were asked to evaluate each meme on how easy it was to understand (Understand), whether they found the image humorous (Humorous), how trendy (Trendy) and original (Original) the meme is, and whether the features of the meme are suitable for a road safety campaign (Suitable). They were also asked how likable the image was (Like), and how easy to learn and remember is the message (Remember). Whether the meme influenced the respondent to be more conscious of their speed (Conscious) was asked to better understand attitude modification effects. Whether the image influenced the respondent to be less likely to speed while driving (Influence) was asked to better understand behaviour modification effects. Respondents were asked to indicate their agreement on a 7-point Likert-type scale where 1=strongly disagree and 7=strongly agree. Information also was provided on how long respondents had been driving on Australian roads, and whether they had ever exceeded the speed limit. The full question wording is provided in the SPSS data file under ‘label’. The researchers that collected the data have indicated a number of research questions they wish addressed in the final report. These are given below. They are also very interested in the implications of the findings for marketing and development of their meme communication campaign, and these should be included in the final report. The data for this assignment is titled ‘MKTG2305 Group Project Dataset 2019.sav’, and can be found on LMS. Values (as indicated above) and labels for the variables are provided within the data set.
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Requirements_____________________________________________________ You are to address and answer each of the research questions below. Your answer should be in the format of a written report detailing the main findings of the one research questions, including technical appendices.
Question 13: History
Rome Essay
Rome and Romanization – 500 Word Essay
This assignment gives you the opportunity to practice determining the purpose and function of artifacts in order to create your interpretation of a specific historical development—Romanization.
Discuss the impact of the process of Romanization on the Roman world. Identify at least two examples of cultural structures that were patterned across Roman-conquered cities. Cultural structures can include physical features of Roman-ruled cities, practices, policies, ideas, or any artifact that was used to shape the conquered religions.
Discuss how these structures impacted daily life, which may include politics, economics, or social roles. Describe how and with what intent these events are “memorialized” or used in our current day political and cultural arena.
Step 1: Choose two appropriate sources. Resources should be credible and peer-reviewed and cannot include Wikipedia, Biography.com, History.com, any type of message board, or other similar encyclopedias.
Step 2: Complete your research. Choose one interesting development that illustrates the main point that you want to make about your chosen physical structures, practices, or ideas. Gather details about your choice. For example, what types of buildings were first introduced in Rome, and why were they purposely replicated in other, smaller cities?
Step 3: Draw conclusions from the details you found, and prepare your thesis. A thesis is prepared after you have completed your research and gathered enough information about the chosen structures. You should sit back to think about what it means to see the influence on culture. Your thesis statement should offer your reader the overall insight into the use and impact of the structure on Roman development.
Use the following guidelines to help decide on your thesis.
• -Ask yourself about how the cultural element (idea, practice, or structure) was shaped by its time period and environment.
• -Ask yourself how the structure impacted the lives of the people around it, the general public, and the immediately following period in the history of Rome.
• -Find the perfect specific example to demonstrate the qualities of the structure you would most like to show.
Step 4: Write your essay. Your essay must be at least 2500 words in length. All sources must be referenced and cited according to APA guidelines.
Be sure to consider the following guidelines in your essay.
• -The introduction should engage the reader and clearly present the essay’s thesis and summarize the main points that clarify your point of view. The last sentence of the introductory paragraph should be your specific thesis.
• -Organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis. Paragraph order and organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis rather than to narrate the chronological story.
• -Writing should be clear and concise with no spelling, grammatical, or punctuation errors.
• -The number of sources should meet or exceed any expressed assignment requirements, and the sources should be peer-reviewed or academic in nature. At least one source must be from the CSU Online Library.
• -APA guidelines should be used for reference entries and in-text citations.
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Question 14: Computer Science
Online Survey Assignment
Objectives for the final project:
Create an online survey
Due: Friday, May 24, last day of final’s week
In more details:
Create an online survey:
The goal is to create a simple online survey and name it – survey.cgi. Allow users to choose at the very least, between two choices (yes or no) on an issue of your choice (ok to work from html pages you’ve already created). The vote will be saved to the server (code provided), and the result of all votes will be displayed on the screen. The result from the survey should show up every time, even before we fill out the survey. This project will start from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp, by making use of the class WebApps, which should already go as far as providing a dynamic array, containing the fields from a form. However, the class will be moved from the main program to it’s own file, called a header file.
Another difference from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be that an HTML form will not call the program. survey.cgi is a ‘dynamic cgi program’ (or self referential), meaning that the code has to respond from two possibilities:
the script can be called either from a link for the first time, which will cause it to produce only the survey. That state corresponds to the first level ‘else’ in the code below
or the same script can be called from the ‘submit’ button of the form it has just published. That state corresponds to the first level ‘if’ in the code provided. Here are steps to follow, in order to to convert retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp into survey.cpp:
Also, here is a video to help explain steps A through D
Each capital letter corresponds to a significant stage in the development of this program. This document may seem lengthy, but parts of it also act as a tutorial. It is recommended to save a copy of survey.cpp after completing each capital letter stage in case something goes wrong with the next one.
Duplicate retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp to survey.cpp
Note: Friday this week, a copy of retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be provided for those whose version did not work so well.
Move the struct FIELDS and class WebApps to its own header file, named WebApps.h. We are going to leave the function definitions inline within the class, for simplicity-sake (though not ultimately recommended by industry)
Read more info on Header Files. WebApps.h needs to live in the same directory as survey.cpp, so that it is available at compile time – we do not compile .h files manually.
WebApps.h should contain the same includes as survey.cpp, the ifndef/define/endif directives, as a regular header file does, the FIELDS struct, and the class, pretty much exactly as already working properly in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp.
Check out the FileApps.h header file below as an example to follow for WebApps.h.
All the main program needs now is an ‘include’ to the header file and should compile and run.
Create a temporary web_form_survey.html, based on the older web_form.html to test the program until it runs as before (in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cgi). At this point, since this program is self referential, its first state is to serve the HTML form for the survey. From here, the current code in main should be replaced completely (might be good to just comment the whole thing and leave at the bottom of the program to reuse some of the code later) and start from the following skeleton (copy from this link to survey_start.txt):
WebApps wo; // make object wo global
void build_form();
int main()
{
const int cnt = wo.get_cnt();
if (cnt != 0) {
cout << “debug with cnt != 0” << endl;
}else {
build_form();
}
return 0;
}
////////////functions/////////////
void build_form () {
//simple HTML form to get started
//use the one from survey_start.txt if you wish
}
This code is pretty self-explanatory, nothing new here, except the HTML form in survey_start.txt demonstrates the tags for inputing from buttons, which may become useful.
This code represents the main flow of this program’s execution. It does this:
Gets the count from qs, if it’s there
If the count is zero, then just a debug as a place holder for all the functions (created next), which will take care of the vote, when received.
Else, the form is presented and several other functions will follow.
The HTML, of course will be your own design, which can follow previous work, but do include an option for ‘don’t know’, just for your instructor who is quite clueless with super heroes 🙂
Note: It is recommended to keep the HTML form minimal while working out the rest of the program’s functions.
Make this work perfectly and back up!
Now that the vote is at hand, time to save it to a text file. Here are the steps:
Given is a new class, FileApps.h, which will be used to save to and read from file: FileApps.h
Remember the class needs to be in the same directory as where survey.cpp will be compiled.
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File I/O operations are not trivial, therefore, the code is provided for this project, in hope that the class can at least be used, if not completely understood. Here is a link to I/O example code if interested. Also check out online book, chapter 18, File I/O. There are other relevant tutorials if anyone is interested
The constructor for class FileApps, expects a file name for the object to work with – use this syntax for creating file object fo: FileApps fo (“survey.txt”). Place it above main, so that it is global, as done with the WebApps object.
survey.txt will be created automatically in the same directory as survey.cgi, upon first saving to the file.
Here is an updated if statement, which now contains code to retrieve the vote and save it to survey.txt upon receiving a non-blank qs
if (cnt != 0) {
cout << “debug with cnt != 0< br>” << endl;
//call function to prepare vote string data_line = prepare_vote(cnt); //to be implemented,
//explained next cout << “debug with data_line: ” << data_line << “< br>” << endl;
fo.save_data_line(data_line);
The prepare_vote(cnt) function needs to be implemented (in the main program, not the class FileApps) – here are the specs:
string prepare_vote(int f_cnt) {
//create dynamic array name_value_pairs[] from the wo object
//as done earlier
statement here
//parse qs into name_value_pairs[] array from the wo object
//as done earlier
statement here
//param the vote field value into variable ‘vote’ from the wo object
return vote + “|\n”; //the new line character will put each vote //on a new line in the file
//ex of a concatenated vote: “y|\n”
Normally, this line of data would contain more fields, which would
commonly be separated by pipes, like:
“y|Fred|Flintstone|\n” – represents data for three fields. Therefore, even if we use only one field this time, we remain consistent with the protocol.
}
Once ‘data_line’ is sent to object method fo.save_data_line(), the debug statement in FileApps.h should confirm success (of save) and survey.txt should be checked for content manually.
Complete this stage before entering the next one and don’t forget to back-up!
Now, with the assumption that survey.txt captures the votes properly, survey.cpp is ready to read all the vote data into an array (data_array[]) and pass it back to us.
This code is entirely given, so get it here from survey_cpp_state_E.txt
Again, not necessary to understand how the data is saved and retrieved from the class code – just use it as shown. What is important is that you now have the data and ready to tally and display the votes, the main course of this project.
Leave the debug statements from main and FileApps.h in the finish product!
Finally, the last part: Just a few comments, to help with the mechanics of this function:
void display_result (string f_data_array[]) {
//function flow:
// initialize a dynamic array (vote_tally_array) from function
// create_int_array() (to be created under main(), not in the
// class), which returns a pointer to an array // with number of elements equal to the number of possible
// (different) choices of votes:
// For example, Y or N will require a vote_tally_array of 2
// elements
// initialize vote_tally_array to 0’s in a loop
// In another loop, increment vote_tally_array from f_data_array[]
// Use something like this pseudocode::
// if vote == “Y|” then vote_tally_array[0]++
// else if vote == “N|” then vote_tally_array[1]++
//print the results
}
Also, at the bottom of the result page, include a link to survey.txt in order to make it available.
To complete the program flow, follow this format:
if (vote coming in)
prepare vote
save data
read data
get data_array
build form
display result
else (no vote)
build form
read data
get data_array
display result
To turn in:
Dropbox survey.cpp and WebApps.h Create a message in the discussion board providing a workable link to your
final project survey.cgi, as done before with the HTML and String Processing app.
Remember these few steps:
Firefox is the only browser, which will allow creating links in a toolkit message.
In a new message for topic named ‘survey threads’, select the
check box Enable HTML
In the body of the message, type the html ‘a’ tag (shown below) substituting
your own url information (and not using a space as it is done here):
< a href=”http://toolkit.cs.ohlone.edu/~username/survey.cgi”>Some Descriptive
Name for the Project< /a>
Take the time to participate in each others’ surveys!
Student Examples: there were some differences, such as the same user could not vote more than once, otherwise – pretty close to this semester’s format, on the outside.
Lawrence Simon
Anitha Gopalan
Thank you for all of your work!
In hope this class has met your expectations and that it has prepared you sufficiently in your continuing education, cheers :
Question 15: History
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History of Animation Thesis
As your final work, you can write an essay about an issue chosen by you from animation
history.
.
A period, a country, an artistic movement, auteur cinema, technological development or a
comparetive analysis (in the context of a specific theme) may be your subject.
The first level of your work (midterm), consists of deciding the subject, delimitation, the
first and short abstract of the research and resources (750 – 1000 words).
The completed work (final) must be between 3500-6000 words, written with Times New
Dear studetns,
Your midterm assignment must contain the subject and its delimitation , a short abstract and the resources.
You must also add that your research will be a personal process or not.
If you research as group, group members must be determined with their part and personal contribution in the process and the subject. Groups must determine also if they will make an oral presentation with a power point file; or write an essay in a doc. file.
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Question 16: Business
Risk Analysis
Complete a risk analysis for a specific Organization
• For this task, choose an organization that you are familiar with or that has a great deal of information available to you through various reliable resources. Since you will use this organization throughout the activities in the course, it is important that you can access information about the organization. Then, write a paper that addresses the following questions:
1. What are some of the natural disaster risks associated with this organization?
2. What are some of the infrastructure risks associated with this organization?
3. What are some of the risks associated with the industry in which this organization operates? Which risks do you see as potentially threatening to your selected company?
4. Has this organization performed a risk assessment before? If so, what were the outcomes of that risk assessment?
5. What other pertinent information should be included in a risk analysis specifically for this organization? Why?
Length 5-7 pages
Question 17: Accounting
Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia
In around 700 words, please provide information on Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia. Ensure that the statistics for the percentage are from within the last 3 years (2016 onwards). In case you are not able to find exact percentages for EBITDA, feel free to include a proxy company as part of your calculations, and then explain about the method you used to arrive to the answer. Finally, include citations both inside and at the end of the document in hyperlinks. Write in Intro, Body, and Conclusion as per the usual Research Format (plus a methodology section, if necessary. Thank You!
Question 18: Computer Science
Part 1. (20 pts)
Write code to create a class definition for Account. These are the needed specs for the class.
1. There is only one constructor for this class that receives two strings: firstname, and lastname. The values of these strings will be passed from the client code. See below for what to do with these strings. An account starts with a $100 balance (see Balance property below).
2. ID. During creation (inside sub new), the ID value is made of the user’s first name followed by the underscore followed by the last name, for example if passed “John” and “Smith”, the ID value is John_Smith ID is a string property that is read-only.
3. Password. During creation the value for password the same as the ID with the added string “Change”. Afterwards, the password may not be “displayed” to the client. However, client may change the password, using ChangePassword method below. This makes password aWrite-only property. To force the end user to change their password before using their account, a boolean variable, PasswordReset, is set to true under Sub New. This variable is to changed false under the ChangePassword method below.
4. An account Balance is a number with fractions: • This property is Read-only. • Amounts withdrawn or deposited into the account affect the balance, using the Deposit and Withdraw method below.
Account has the following methods:
1. Deposit which takes two arguments, an amount (to be deposited as a number with fractions), and password (a string). If PasswordReset is False, then check if the password passed matches the account password then the actions below are possible, otherwise an error message is shown. If PasswordReset is True issue an error message to change the password first. If the amount passed is > 0 then add it to the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.
2. Withdraw which takes two arguments, an amount (to be withdrawn as a number with fractions), and password (a string). The logic to withdraw is the same as the logic to Deposit, except that we must additionally check if the withdrawal will cause the balance to be negative), then no withdrawal is possible. Issue an error message (make sure the balance is not changed). Otherwise f the amount passed is > 0 then deduct from the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.
3. ChangePassword is a method that takes two string, current password and a new password, if the current password matches the account password, change the account password to the new password, and issue a message, otherwise issue an error message.
Part 2. (5 pts)
Now we work on the client code. On the user form, there are 2 textboxes txtFname, and txtLname, and a button btnCreate. There are also, a textbox, txtAmount, and 2 buttons, btnWithdraw, and btnDeposit.
Make sure your code below uses the exact control names shown above.
In all the code below, no data validation is required (i.e. assume the user will type a number when expected, and a string when expected).
Also assume in all the code below that an object named MyAccount has been declared (declared only) as an Account as a form (global) level variable.
Write the code needed so that when the user Clicks btnCreate, MyAccount is created based on account with an id whose values are passed in txtFname (for the first name), and txtLname (for the last name). Then erase the content of all textboxes.
Sub CreateAccount(…,…) Handles btnCreate.Click
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End Sub
Part 3. (5 pts)
Write code to activate the account which calls the PasswordReset method. Use the two textboxes to pass the current and new password. Assume the following button handler:
Sub ResetPass(…,…) Handles btnResetPass.Click
End Sub
Part 4. (5 pts)
Using the same form and controls, write code for btnWithdraw so when the user types a number in txtAmount and clicks btnWithdraw, the account withdraw method is called on the amount in txtAmount, and the password entered into the second textbox. Clear both textboxes.
Show the new balance in a messagebox.
Sub withdraw(…,…) Handles btnWithdraw.Click
End Sub
Part 5. (5 pts)
Same as in the previous question, write code for btnDeposit so when the user types a number in txtAmount and the password in the second textbox then clicks btnDeposit, the account Deposit method is called on the amount in txtAmount, and the password from the second textbox. Clear the textboxes. Show the new balance in a messagebox. Sub deposit(…,…) Handles btnDeposit.Click
End Sub
Part 6. (5 Pts)
Update the code you wrote for the Account class
The Account class need to issue a warning (using an Event) so that when the Balance becomes $10 or less, the client is warned. In this answer you will only write the code for the Account class. You may add comments to explain where the newly added code goes. Limit your comments to a short one line sentence.
Part 7. (5 pts)
Now (re)write the code that declares an object that will later be created to represent the account class. This object will handle event statically. Add any code and show where this code goes, so that the object is able to handle events statically. Also write an event handler for the event required in the question above, so that when the event occurs:
In one messagebox show the balance to the user and tell them they should deposit money into the account.
Question 19: Statistics
In the data given above on earnings and education, we obtained the following regression. Meanwage_i = 0.7437 + 0.6416 Education Fill in the missing numbers. How do you interpret the coefficient 0.6416? Would you reject the hypothesis that education has no effect whatsoever on wages? Which test do you use? And why?
Question 20: Other
Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.
Must be in APA format and include in text citation ( ).
1. What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
2. Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
3. Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.
4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?
5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.
6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not
Question 21: Education
need 5 page paper by Sunday at 10pm, APA format, 6th edition. On brain development
Instruction
Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to: Locate research on brain development and early childhood. Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool. Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process. Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education
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Question 23: Psychology
Diversity and Individual’s Personal Psychology
Discussion question:
Please describe how being a part of a diverse population influences your personal psychology. How might your personal psychology influence your professional career?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 24: Computer Science
Cyber Security
A man-in-the-middle attack found the following HTTP Authorization header in transit. Authorization: Digest username-“880651232”, response “63e3807ce5ddf4971a5d349c7ad67703”, realm-“Mordor”, nonce “03e2abb8a924e966bee59d41cef32851”, uri-“/Public/cs/Home.png”, opaque=”4043168947418128″ What is the password that gives rise to the above HTTP Authorization header? The password is thought to be a common dictionary word, and theretore you may wish to try some of the common English words
Question 25: English
Instruction
I need a research assignment done on the benefits of exercising and maintaining a healthy diet. Must include a full reference citation (MLA 8th edition) and 4 sentence summary referencing a book, a journal or article, and a webpage on the topic. Also, Write a formally worded email to a friend (250 words) that includes a proposed argumentative / persuasive thesis for your chosen topic Within the body of the email, paraphrase and cite two of your sources and directly quote from and cite one of your sources. This means that all three of the sources you used in Step 2 should be represented in the email.
Step One
What is your research question?
This should be one sentence long.
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Step Two
MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Book
This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.
Step Two
MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Journal
This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.
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Step Two
MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Webpage
This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.
Step Three
Email to an Interested Party
Brief Opening and Thesis
This step should be, altogether, 250 words.
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What “They” Say:
Paraphrase and cite two of your sources of information and directly quote from and cite from one
What “I” Say:
The student’s claim about the topic based on his or her research findings.
Step Four
MLA 8th edition Works Cited
This should include three full reference citations for the book, journal, and webpage.
Question 26: Science
There are 3 discussions to answer. Each discussion must be at least 100 words. Discussions need to be written in a registered nurses point of view. At least one APA citation for each post.
Instruction
#1. Review the nine provisions of the Code of Ethics for Nurses in the textbook. Select one of the nine provisions and identify how you plan to meet it in your professional career. Select another provision and provide a potential, applicable scenario that may challenge you at some point. #2. Review the Nurse Practice Act of the state you plan to practice as an RN. Identify what it states regarding RN supervision of LVNs or unlicensed assistive personnel. Identify how you intend to practice within that scope. Explain how that Nurse Practice Act differentiates independent and dependent nursing practice. #3. As a nurse, you will be asked to deal with all kinds of patient concerns and issues. Thinking back to your nursing rotations [or observations], please describe your most challenging clinical experience requiring many tasks but little time to complete the necessary work. As you prepare to interview for RN positions respond to all aspects of one of the following: What was the situation? Provide details and examples. How did you handle all of these tasks? What would you do differently if you had it to do again? What did you learn from the experience?
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Question 27: Business
Assigned Company is Lowe’s.
Accounting CASE 1: Management Discussion and Analysis
Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of
Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix
for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.
Accounting CASE 2: Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and
Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:
(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).
Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis
Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:
Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the
chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.
Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33
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Question 28: Psychology
1. How do the concepts of validity and verifiability relate to the trustworthiness of the data and emerging theory within grounded theory research? 2. What other disadvantages might exist that pertain to the use of phenomenological research design when studying any phenomena that pertain to counseling, counselor education, and supervision?
Instruction
Responses to these questions should be a minimum of 400 words. Cite all sources using proper APA format.
Question 29: English
Oral Presentation Movie District 9
Instruction
PLEASE READ THE INFORMATION IN THE ATTACHMENTS CAREFULLY AND FOLLOW THEM!!
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Question 30: General
Response paper.
Timmerman 1 Title is
focused and
Lesley Timmerman announces
Professor Jennifer Wilson the thesis.
English 102
15 August 2012 Double-space
between
An Argument for Corporate Responsibility the title and
Opponents of corporate social responsibility (CSR) argue that first para-
a company’s sole duty is to generate profits. According to them, by graph — and
acting for the public good, corporations are neglecting their primary throughout
obligation to make money. However, as people are becoming more and the essay.
more conscious of corporate impacts on society and the environment,
separating profits from company practices and ethics does not make Brief state-
sense. Employees want to work for institutions that share their values, ment of one
and consumers want to buy products from companies that are making side of the
an impact and improving people’s lives. Furthermore, businesses exist issue.
in an interdependent world where the health of the environment
and the well-being of society really do matter. For these reasons, Summary of
corporations have to take responsibility for their actions, beyond the opposing
making money for shareholders. For their own benefit as well as the view.
public’s, companies must strive to be socially responsible.
In his article “The Case against Corporate Responsibility,” Lead-in to
Wall Street Journal writer Aneel Karnani argues that CSR will never quotation.
be able to solve the world’s problems. Thinking it can, Karnani says,
is a dangerous illusion. He recommends that instead of expecting 1” margin on
corporate managers to act in the public interest, we should rely on each side
philanthropy and government regulation. Karnani maintains that and at
“Managers who sacrifice profit for the common good [. . .] are in bottom.
effect imposing a tax on their shareholders and arbitrarily deciding
how that money should be spent.” In other words, according to
Karnani, corporations should not be determining what constitutes
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AN ANNOTATED STUDENT RESEARCH PAPER IN MLA FORMAT 323
Timmerman 5
Furthermore, plenty of companies have seen what happens when they Author argues
assume that consumers do not care about CSR. For example, in 1997, that it is to
when Nike customers discovered that their shoes were manufactured the companies’
by child laborers in Indonesia, the company took a huge financial interest to
hit (Guthrie). Today, Information-Age customers are even more be socially
likely to educate themselves about companies’ labor practices and responsible.
environmental records. Smart corporations will listen to consumer
preferences, provide transparency, and commit to integrating CSR into Author’s lead-
their long-term business plans. in to the quo-
tation guides
In this increasingly interdependent world, the case against the reader’s
CSR is becoming more and more difficult to defend. Exempting response to the
corporations and relying on government to be the world’s conscience quotation.
does not make good social, environmental, or economic sense.
Contributors to a recent article in the online journal Knowledge@
Wharton, published by the Wharton School of Business, agree.
Professor Eric Orts maintains that “it is an outmoded view to say
that one must rely only on the government and regulation to police
business responsibilities. What we need is re-conception of what
the purpose of business is” (qtd. in “From Fringe to Mainstream”).
The question is, what should the purpose of a business be in today’s
world? Professor of Business Administration David Bejou of Elizabeth
City State University has a thoughtful and sensible answer to that
question. He writes,
. . . it is clear that the sole purpose of a business is not merely
that of generating profits for its owners. Instead, because
compassion provides the necessary equilibrium between
a company’s purpose and the needs of its communities, it
should be the new philosophy of business. (Bejou 1)
As Bejou implies, the days of allowing corporations to act in their
own financial self-interest with little or no regard for their effects on
324 7 / USING SOURCES
Upbeat Timmerman 6
ending.
others are over. None of us can afford such a narrow view of business.
The world is far too interconnected. A seemingly small corporate
decision — to buy coffee beans directly from local growers or to install
solar panels — can affect the lives and livelihoods of many people
and determine the environmental health of whole regions. A business,
just like a government or an individual, therefore has an ethical
responsibility to act with compassion for the public good.
Fortunately, corporations have many incentives to act
“From Fringe to Mainstream: Companies Integrate CSR Initiatives into An article on a
Everyday Business.” Knowledge@Wharton. The Wharton School blog without a
of the University of Pennsylvania, 23 May 2012. Web. 14 Aug. known author.
2012.
Guthrie, Doug. Keynote address. Promoting a Comprehensive Approach A clip from
to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). YouTube. YouTube, 22 YouTube.
May 2012. Web. 11 Aug. 2012.
Karnani, Aneel. “The Case against Corporate Social Responsibility.” The
Wall Street Journal. Dow Jones & Co., Inc., 14 June 2012. Web.
12 Aug. 2012.
Meister, Jeanne. “Corporate Social Responsibility: A Lever for Em-
ployee Attraction & Engagement.” Forbes. Forbes.com, 7 June
2012. Web. 12 Aug. 2012.
Savitz, Andrew W., with Karl Weber. The Triple Bottom Line: How
Today’s Best-Run Companies Are Achieving Economic, Social, and
Environmental Success. San Francisco: Jossey-Bass, 2006. Print.
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Question 1. Mathematics
Applied Statistics homework through SNHU.
Question 2. Finance
Instruction
This assignment consists of two questions. Each question, in turn, consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems.
International Finance – Assignment 1
General information: This assignment consists of two questions. Each question in turn consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems. You can achieve a maximum of 100 points in this assignment. The maximum points for each question are indicated in brackets. Please provide your answers on the separate answer sheet that is available on Moodle. I will only accept answers written in the indicated areas on the answer sheet. Please carefully read the following notes:
• Important: The answer sheet consists of two pages. Use a double-page printer to print on one paper sheet only (front and back side)!
• If calculations are required, round your answer to two decimals and state the corresponding units.
• You may use an electronic calculator to solve the problems.
• Of course, you can also use the lecture notes and the textbook for support. But remember that this
won’t be allowed in the exam!
• You can work in groups. But every student has to submit his own answer sheet. Also remember that
you are not allowed to work in groups during the exam so you might want to solve the problems by
yourself first.
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• Write clearly! If I cannot read your answer, I cannot give you credit for it.
Question I: Debt Sustainability Analysis
The Bureau of Economic Analysis publishes data on the net international asset position and nominal GDP for the United States. Moreover, the Congressional Budget Office (CBO) makes the forecasts for future growth rates and inflation rates, while the IMF provides estimates of future current account to GDP ratios. Here is an overview of the current data and estimates:
• Net international asset position, end of year 2018: W2018 = −9717.1 billion USD
• Nominal GDP in 2018: P Y2018 = 20494.1 billion USD
• Projected real GDP growth gt: 2.3% (2019), 1.7% (2020), 1.6% (2021), 1.7% (each year from 2022)
• Projected inflation rate πt: 2.0% (2019), 2.0% (2020), 2.0% (2021), 2.1% (each year from 2022)
• Projected current account balance (relative to GDP) cat: -2.4% (2019), -2.6% (2020), -2.7% (2021), –
2.4% (each year from 2022)
Use this data to answer the following questions.
1. Startfromtheassetaccumulationviewofthecurrentaccountandassumethattherearenovaluation effects. Show mathematically that the change in the external asset to GDP ratio wt over two years can be expressed by the following formula: (8)
2. Calculate the external asset to GDP ratio of the United States for the end of year 2018. (3)
3. Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2019. (3)
4. Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2020. (3)
5. Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2021. (3)
6. Based on the formula above, what is the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP
ratio? (3)
7. In the long run equilibrium: What is the minimum value of the real interest rate that is required for
debt sustainability (i.e. such that the transversality condition is not violated)? (3)
8. In the long run equilibrium: Calculate the current account balance that is necessary to achieve an
external asset to GDP ratio of -25%. (3)
9. Calculate the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP ratio if the projected real GDP
account deficit widens to -3.5% (all else equal). (3)
The following figure is from Gourinchas and Rey (2010) and shows the cumulated current account balances and the net international investment position (both relative to GDP) for the United States:
Based on this graph, answer the following question:
12. Explain in detail how we can interpret the difference between the two lines! How do the develop- ments in this figure affect the standard debt sustainability analysis for the United States? (12)
Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account
Consider a small economy that lasts for two periods (period 1 and period 2). In each period, households receive an exogenous endowment of the single consumption good. The endowment is given by Y1 = 100 and Y2 = 110 respectively. The initial wealth of households is zero, i.e. W0 = 0.
Households have preferences over consumption in period 1 (C1) and period 2 (C2). Their intertemporal utility function is given by:
Assume that the economy is initially closed and has no access to the international capital market. The autarky interest rate is denoted by rA.
1.2. 3
2.
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·
1..
What is the value of C1 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 2. What is the value of C2 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 3. Calculate the value of the autarky interest rate in the closed economy. (11)
Assume now that the economy opens up. Households have access to the international capital market and can borrow or lend at the world market interest rate r = 10%. The initial external wealth of households is still
zero, i.e. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
12.
W0 = 0.
Using the transversality condition: What is the value of the net external asset position W2 at the end of period 2? (3)
Calculate the optimal consumption C1 in the open economy. (3)
Calculate the optimal consumption C2 in the open economy. (3)
Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 1. (3)
Calculate the value of the current account in period 1. (3)
Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 2. (3) Calculatethevalueofthecurrentaccountinperiod2.(3) Graphicallyillustratetheoptimalconsumptiondecisionofthehouseholdintheopeneconomy. Clearly indicate (i) the initial endowment, (ii) the budget constraint, (iii) the indifference curve, (iv) the optimal consumption point, (v) the trade balance in period 1 and (vi) the trade balance in period 2. (6)
Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
6) 7) 8) 9) 10)
11)
12)
Question 3. English
Essay Compare and contrast both stories “ The tale of the three brothers” (Harry Potter) the tale of the three brothers (harry potter and the deathly hallows part 1) and “ The story of an hour” by Kate Chopin https://archive.vcu.edu/english/engweb/webtexts/hour/ . * compare and contrast using the 4 lens : Marxist criticism , gender studies , Ecocriticism , & psychoanalytic criticism . https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/subject_specific_writing/writing_in_literature/literary_theory_and_schools_of_criticism/index.html MLA format Please use 6 quotes & in text cites Intro – introducing the authors
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Question 4. Other
graphic design adobe illustrator
Instruction
Artboard Size One artboard at 17″ X 11″ inches This map must be drawn using the Pen tool in Illustrator. You do not have to recreate the whole city, just a section of the town where this hotel is (the location of the hotel is up to you) with attractions nearby. To help give you a visual idea, please google ‘city map given by hotels.’ How do I draw the map? To draw the map, I would recommend going to Google Maps and downloading or taking a screenshot of the city section you would like to recreate. You can import this map graphic into Illustrator and trace over it using the Pen tool. Your map needs to contain the following: Full color Map drawn using the Pen tool Ten icons that are created by you using the Pen and Shape tools only – no bitmap graphics From these 10 icons, you need to create the following: Three restaurants Four attractions 2 shopping locations The guest hotel A legend explaining what these 10 icons represent – You might want to break the legend up based on interest (Attractions, Shopping, Restaurants, etc… to make it easier to read) A marker to identify the current location on the map (hotel location) Text should be used for the names of the icons and major streets Submit the following: Compress the Ai and JPEG files into a single .zip file. For assistance in zipping and unzipping files, review the How to Compress Files and Save as .Zip document (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. Submit the .zip file.
Question 5. General
You have been working as a supervisor in a community service organisation for some time.
The organisation has a policy of recognising diversity—personal/ individual and cultural. The current workforce is, therefore, comprised of a number of people from different cultures, with a wide range of background experiences and skills.
Inclusivity policies are supported by the current workforce and there is very little conflict. All staff receives cross-cultural training which helps them accept workforce diversity and accommodate the diverse needs of the clients for whom they care.
Write a 2,500 word paper explaining:
• the ways in which diversity can impact on work and work relationships
• the benefits of diversity
• the need for inclusivity, cultural safety and cultural competence
• why it is necessary for staff to reflect on their own individual and cultural characteristics, biases and prejudices
• how diversity should be valued and accommodated
• how effective and mutually beneficial relationships can be built with work mates, clients and clients’ families
• how to overcome communication barriers
• how the individual and cultural needs of clients can be accommodated and respected
• the methods that might be used to prevent, overcome or manage cultural conflicts
• strategies that people can use to improve their own self and social awareness
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Question 6. English
Create a short story.
Instruction
-Your story should have ONE main character and a MAXIMUM of THREE supporting characters. -Your story must have a clear plot. -Your story could include effective dialogue. -Your story should include some type of conflict. -Length? It’s a short story…so 3 – 5 pages.
Question 7. Literary Studies
Two papers I need done. Each paper is one page each. MLA formet. Essay response on African Amercian literature. Due by 3pm.
4. Consider Frances E. W. Harper’s short story “The Two Offers” (1859) and her poem “A Double Standard” (1895). What message does Harper prioritize in the poem, and what message does she emphasize in her story? In what ways might Harper’s messages be relevant in the lives of contemporary female readers?
5. Read pages 105-107 of Alexander Crummell’s “The Black Woman of the South: Her Needs and Her Wants” (1883): https://archive.org/details/blackwomanofsout00crum. Using textual evidence, discuss how Crummell’s characterizations of Black women’s experiences relate to the experiences of other characters or authors/orators we have read? Additionally, does any other character or writer we have read present a possible remedy for the challenges Crummell identifies? If not, do not answer this question. If so, be sure to cite characters, persona, and/or speakers who proscribe solutions to the issues Crummell outlines
Question 8. Mathematics
3. information or is
“word of mouth” an acceptable practice.
Rubric
View the rubric for this assignment.
View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.
MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task
Activity 1: The Functional Fairground
Assignment Assignment 4
Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.
Courtyard of Powers: 4 ¬ Fair Pay
4. In “Fair Pay” you visit the fairground administration building as a potential employee. You decide if the salary grid is fair today and in the future.
Table of Present Hourly Wages and their Future Growth
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To keep ahead of inflation the employees will get a yearly 5% increase. The minimum and maximum hourly wages after 10, 20, and 30 years are given.
A. Graph the minimum (0 year row) salary and the maximum (10 year row) salary growth as two
B. Create separate equations for the “0 year” data and “10 year” data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form W(t) = ?, where “W” is the hourly wage in dollars and “t” is the time in years.
C. i) Identify the input variable?
ii) Identify the output variable?
iii) Is W(t) a function? State your reasoning.
iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 30, what is the range on this interval for the maximum
experience?
D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find W(40) = ?, the hourly wage for both minimum and maximum experience after 40 years of 5% increases.
ii) Divide the 30 year hourly wage by the present hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10 year” experience level.
iii) How many times bigger is the salary after 30 years?
iv) Subtract the present hourly wage from the 30 year hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10
year” experience level.
v) What is the increase in each salary after 30 years?
vi) Do you think this method of increasing the salary grid is acceptable to all employees?
Explain with reference to your calculations as well as employee quality and type of job.
Rubric
View the rubric for this assignment.
View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.
MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task
Activity 1: The Functional Fairground
Assignment Assignment 5
Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.
Courtyard of Powers: 5 ¬ Bearly Working
5. “Bearly Working” is a black bear animatronic sing¬along presentation that always seems to be breaking down. How long will it take for word to travel around the park?
To avoid people showing up to this non¬functional presentation, the presenters asked the first person that showed up to tell three other people in the park that the show will not be running. This must be done within one minute of leaving the area. Furthermore, they have asked that each of these three people pass on this information to three other people in the following minute and so on…
A. Graph the data from the table above.
B. Create an equation for the data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form P(t) = ?, where “P” is the number of people informed after “t” rounds of communication.
C. i) Identify the input variable?
ii) Identify the output variable?
iii) Is P(t) a function? State your reasoning.
iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 4, what is the range on this interval for the maximum
experience?
D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find P(8) = ?, the number of people informed of the broken presentation after 8 rounds of communication.
Table of Number of People Informed per Round of Messages
Round of messages (minutes) 0 1 2 3 4
# of people informed 1 3 9 27 81
ii) If attendance is approximately 19 000 on this day, how long will it take for everybody in the
3. iii) If the original instruction was changed so that you inform four people on each round, what
would the new equation become?
4. iv) At this different rate, approximately how long will it take to communicate with the same 19
000 people?
v) Should the fairground management be responsible for communicating this
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Question 9. Other
Instruction
In order to give direction to your preliminary ideas for your business, your business plan, especially if you do not now have a business, or you do not know what business you would start if you did go into business for yourself this assignment is to conduct a 10 question interview with someone you know who is an entrepreneur, and/or has started and manages a small business. Here is the source to use for the interview:https://www.feedster.com/wisdom-strategy/10-questions-to-ask-an-entrepreneur/ Write a thorough report of you entire interview, with the question, and the response, be as detailed as possible to dig for explanations to each question. Give name of business owner, how you chose her/him, name of business, date of interview, and details of the business
Question 10. Other.
Instruction
You will write a 1,000-word book review of The King Jesus Gospel by Scot McKnight. This review will contain a short summary of the book, a personal response, a discussion of the book’s strengths and weaknesses and an application of the book in your life. You must follow the guidelines carefully. Use the following format in preparing your Book Review: 1. Summary: Summarize what you have read into 250 words. Prove that you comprehend the readings by writing a no-nonsense summary (picture a summary similar to reading the back cover of a book to decide if you want to read it). 2. Concrete responses: In at least 250 words, relate a personal life experience that this book connected with in your own life. Relate your story in first person, describing action, and quoting sentences you remember hearing or saying. You will remember almost nothing you have read unless you make this critical, personal connection. What video memory began to roll? This is your chance to tell your story and make new ideas found in the book your own. 3. Reflection: What new questions do you have in response to what you have read? Keep a rough note sheet at hand as you read. Begin with questions like: “What would I like further information on?” “Where do I disagree/strongly agree with the author?” “What bothers me/excites me about this content?” “What are the strengths and weaknesses of this book?” This section must be at least 250 words. 4. Application: How does information in the book influence how you are going to continue your own personal growth process? What actions or changes are you going to make in your life as a result of your learning? Your response here is a matter of obedience first, questions later. Be precise in summarizing your action steps (limit these comments to about 250 words). Note: Your grade for the Book Review depends on the quality and thoroughness of your response to each of these four headings. Include each heading in the body of your paper.
Question 11. Education
Instruction
Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to: Locate research on brain development and early childhood. Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool. Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process. Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education
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to 60 African American kindergarten children, half of low-income and half of middle-income status. Tasks were selected based on neuroimaging and lesion studies so that they taxed five neurocognitive systems that are involved in academic performance. The results indicated that there were no significant differ- ences between the income groups for the visual, spatial, and memory systems. However, SES differences were especially great in the areas of language and executive function, with indica- tions that some of the difference in executive function was associated with individual differences in language ability.
In a systematic replication, Farah et al. (2006) administered cognitive tasks to 60 African American children between the ages of 10 and 13 years, half of low-income and half of middle-income status; the children in the two groups were equivalent on health measures. Tasks were designed to provide information about abilities connected with seven specific neurocogni- tive systems. The results indicated that for the visual cognition, spatial cognition, and reward processing systems there were no significant differences between the groups. However, there were large differences in the areas of language and memory, including working memory, with a smaller difference in cognitive control. An explicit goal of this research group is to design more efficient interventions for low-income preschool children by targeting the neurocognitive systems that seem to be differentially impacted by variables that make up SES. For this purpose, it is better to use measures that are more specific than IQ or achievement tests. Thus, their goals are similar to those of Diamond et al. (2007).
Hackman, Farah, and Meaney (2010) stated that neuroscience can make an important contri- bution to society and human welfare by synthesizing the information that has resulted from dec- ades of research on socioeconomic differences in mental health, emotional functioning, and cognitive functioning in children and the environmental conditions related to those differences. The three studies described above are a few of the latest examples of those that have focused on cognition. The next step would be to identify the underlying cognitive and affective brain sys- tems that are influenced by SES, as illustrated by those studies, and then to identify the biologi- cal mechanisms by which environmental circumstances affect those brain systems. Hackman et al. (2010) discussed three such mechanisms, that is, influences on prenatal development, par- ental care, and cognitive stimulation in the home. For example, SES differences in parental care have been identified in a vast social science literature that associates family stress with harsh childrearing methods, conflict, insecure attachment, and decreased parental involvement as well as in studies indicating that high-quality parenting can promote resilience
Chemistry Formal Lab REport
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Objectives: Upon successful completion of this laboratory the student will be able to:
1. 1) Perform an acid-base titration accurately to an indicator endpoint.
2. 2) Calculate moles from molarity and volume.
3. 3) Write the complete, and net ionic equation for the neutralization of an acid with a base.
4. 4) Calculate equivalent mass from total mass and moles of hydronium ion.
5. 5) Write a formal scientific communication (laboratory report).
Introduction: Titration is a simple and very frequently used technique of quantitative volumetric analysis, which is able to achieve great precision and accuracy when it is done properly. The titration apparatus is shown in Figure 1. It consists of a Burette (A), a clamp (B), a stand (C) and a container (D) in which the titration reaction occurs. The Burette has a valve (E) that allows precise control of the flow of liquid from the burette, and it has a thin tip (F) that produces small and very uniform drops.
Figure 1, Titration Apparatus
There is a solution that has a very precisely known concentration of one of the reactants in the Burette. This is called the titrant. The flask has an unknown amount of the other reactant, called the analyte. The analyte can be a known volume of a solution of unknown concentration, or it can be a carefully weighed
1
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
solid compound or mixture dissolved in a solvent. In this lab you will titrate a solid that you have weighed to the nearest 1 mg and then dissolved in water.
Notice that the burette is marked the opposite way that a graduated cylinder is marked. It has the 0 mark at the top and the 50 mark at the bottom. Rather than being how much the burette contains, these marks represent how much has been removed from the burette, if the level starts at exactly 0.00 ml. What if you start titrating at some number other than 0? Then simply subtract your initial measurement from the final measurement.
When you are reading a burette, just as with any other instrument, your measurement precision should go 1 decimal place past the smallest tic mark (Figure 2)
Figure 2 How to read a burette
The smallest tic mark on our burettes is 0.1 ml. This means that you will read the burettes to the nearest 0.01 ml.
2
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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
The number of moles of analyte present can be determined easily from the volume of the titrant, the concentration of the titrant in 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 (molarity, also abbreviated as M), and the balanced equation of the
reaction between the titrant and the analyte. This can tell you a number of things. If you know the formula and molar mass of the analyte, it can tell you how many grams are present, and the percent composition of a carefully weighed sample of the analyte material. If the volume of the analyte solution is known precisely, it can tell you the molar concentration of the analyte solution, and if you know the mass of a pure unknown compound, it can tell you the molar mass, of that compound.
The equation to obtain the moles of analyte from the volume of titrant is as follows:
To find percent composition, divide by total grams mixture:
𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 ×100%=𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑚𝑖𝑥𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒
Equation 3, Calculation of percent composition of an analyte mixture
To find the molar mass of an analyte divide the mass of the analyte by the moles of analyte
𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠⁄1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒
Equation 4 calculation af the molar mass of an analyte
Understanding the experiment: In this experiment we will perform an acid – base neutralization reaction, and use equations 1 and 4 to find the equivalent mass of an acid. Acids are broadly defined as sources of hydrogen ions, H+, also called protons. In water, acids will react with water to form hydronium ions, H3O+, by the following reaction, where HA stand for a generic acid. This reaction is also called acid dissociation.
𝐻𝐴 + 𝐻2𝑂→𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴−
Equation 5 dissociation of a monoprotic acid in water
In fact, the proton, or H+ ion, never exists alone in a water solution. It always exists as the hydronium ion, H3O+. Often people will talk about the hydrogen ion and refer to it as H+, but what they really mean is hydronium ion.
Acids can be mono-protic, di-protic, tri-protic and even poly-protic, depending on how many hydrogen ions they can donate. The stoichiometric ratio of a mono-protic acid is 1 to 1; that of a diprotic acid is 1 to 2; that of a triprotic acid is 1 to 3 and so forth. The reaction of a strong di-protic acid with water would be:
𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟
3
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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
𝐻2𝐴 + 2 𝐻2𝑂→ 2𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴2−
Equation 6, Dissociation of a diprotic acid in water
Notice the stoichiometric ratio of hydronium ion to acid is 2 to 1. The equivalent mass of the acid is the amount required to produce 1 mole of hydronium ion. It would take half as many moles of the acid in equation 2 to make a mole of hydronium ion as it would if it were a monoprotic acid.
From this, you can see that the equivalent mass of a monoprotic acid will be equal to its molar mass, while the equivalent mass of a diprotic acid will be 1⁄2 of its molar mass. For a triprotic acid it would be 1/3 and so forth. Examples of monoprotic, diprotic and triprotic organic acids are shown in Figure 3. The acidic proton is shown in bold.
Figure 3 Organic acid structures.
A base is broadly defined as a compound that absorbs hydrogen ions. Bases produce hydroxide ions, OH- , in water in one of two ways. They either dissociate in water to form hydroxide ions (These are called Arrhenius bases), or they react with water to produce hydroxide ions. The base that we will use in this laboratory, sodium hydroxide, is one of the ones that dissociates in water. The equation is below.
𝐻2𝑂− + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) →𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)
Equation 7, Dissociation of an Arrhenius base in water
Observe that sodium hydroxide will produce exactly as many moles of hydroxide ion as there are moles of sodium hydroxide that dissolve. Ammonia is an example of a base that react with water to form hydroxide ion. These bases are called Brønsted-Lowry bases. The equation for the reaction of ammonia is shown below:
𝑁𝐻 3 + 𝐻 2 𝑂→𝑂𝐻 − + 𝑁𝐻 4+
Equation 8, Dissociation of a Brønsted Lowry base in water
A major simplification that is being made in this description of acids and bases is the assumption that they dissociate or react completely with the water to form hydroxide or hydronium ions. While this is true of strong acids and bases, there are many weak acids and bases that only react a little bit before the reaction starts going in the other direction to establish what is called an equilibrium with only a very low concentration of hydronium or hydroxide ion. A complete description of weak acids and weak bases is beyond the scope of this course. You will study this and other aspects of equilibrium in grueling detail, in CHM 2046. No worries, though; you will have a whole lot more chemistry under your belt by then.
Even though all of the acids that will be used in this laboratory are considered weak acids, they will completely dissociate through the course of the titration, because the sodium hydroxide is a strong base, and it will completely react with the small amount of hydronium produced by any aqueous acid, no matter
4
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
how weak it is. This will drive more of the acid to dissociate and make more hydronium ion, which will in turn be gobbled up by the hydroxide ion, until there is no acid left. This tendency is known as Le Chatelier’s principle. It is also a topic that will be covered extensively in CHM 2046.
The equations of acid and base add together as follows
The third equation is called the net ionic equation for acid base neutralization. It can be derived by assuming that the acid and the base are present in their completely dissociated forms.
Equation 9, Total ionic equation of an acid base reaction
The ions that are crossed out are called spectator ions, because they appear on both sides of the arrow. Taking them out gives you the third equation in scheme 1.
You can Also see that the stoichiometric ratio for a dibasic acid is two to one, base to acid, and for a tribasic acid the stoichiometric ratio of base to acid is 3 to 1, as shown in equations 10 and 11.
Equation 11, reaction of a triprotic acid with sodium hydroxide
Because 1 mole sodium hydroxide reacts with 1 mole hydronium ion, the equivalent mass of the acid is the mass of the acid divided by the moles of sodium hydroxide. In other words:
𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠(𝑔⁄𝑚𝑜𝑙) = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 (𝑔) × 1000𝑚𝑙 × 1
𝑚𝑙𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 1 𝐿𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠⁄𝐿𝑠𝑜𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 h𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒
In most cases, both reactants and products of acid base reactions are colorless. It would therefore be impossible to see when the reaction is complete. To determine this we need to add an indicator dye. Indicator dyes are dyes that react with something in the reaction mixture to change color when the reaction is done. We will use dye molecule called phenolphthalein, which is a very weak acid that is much less likely to give up its protons than the acids that we are titrating. When phenolphthalein does give up its protons, it turns pink, or red. When the very last molecule of the acid reacts, there is no more hydronium ion to react. This is called the equivalence point. When the equivalence point is reached, the hydroxide ion in the next drop of titrant will react with the phenolphthalein and turn it red.
5
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Figure 4 structure of phenolphthalein acidic hydrogens are shown in bold
This marks the endpoint of the titration. At the true end point, very little phenolphthalein will have reacted, so your solution will be a very light pink. If it turns dark pink, you will have added too much base. See Figure 5. The flask on the left is a perfect endpoint. The one on the right has too much base added.
Figure 5, Good endpoint (left) overshot endpoint(right)
It is important to continuously swirl your analyte solution. If you do not, you can get a false endpoint. The color will appear, but then disappear when you stir it. As you approach the endpoint clouds of pink color will appear briefly when you add the base, then disappear (figure 6).
Figure 6, transient pink cloud near endpoint
6
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Procedure:
1. 1) Obtain a vial of unknown acid from the chemical stockroom.
2. 2) Obtain the following equipment: burette clamp, ring stand, Burette with valve and tip, burette funnel, 3
clean 250ml Erlenmeyer flasks, a 250 ml beaker, 2 or 3 little squares of white paper, a squirt bottle, and a few plastic transfer pipettes. Make sure that the valve fits snugly in the burette and that the tip fits snugly in the valve.
3. 3) Wash out the squirt bottle with deionized water and fill it with deionized water. Then wash the burette, two of the three flasks and the beaker with deionized water. Dry the beaker with a clean paper towel.
4. 4) Dispense about 150 ml of the sodium hydroxide solution from the carboy into the beaker. Write down the molar concentration of this solution.
5)
6) 7)
8) 9)
Caution! Sodium hydroxide is very caustic and it will permanently blind you if it gets in your eyes, even in low concentrations. Wear approved Safety glasses or goggles!
Assemble the burette in the burette clamp, and use a transfer pipette to run a few pipettes full of the sodium hydroxide solution down the inside walls of the burette. Put the unwashed Erlenmeyer flask under the burette, and drain out the sodium hydroxide solution into the Erlenmeyer flask. Repeat this process 2 more times.
Place the funnel in the top of the burette and carefully pour the sodium hydroxide until it reaches close to the 0.00 ml mark.
Open the valve and let a few drops of the sodium hydroxide titrant run into the waste flask. This will fill the tip of the burette with titrant.
Discard the waste solution in the sink and wash the flask thoroughly with deionized water.
Take the unknown sample of acid to the balance. Put a plastic weigh boat onto the balance and press “tare”. When the balance reads 0.000g, weigh out the amount of unknown acid that is indicated on the vial to the nearest 0.001g. Do not exceed this amount, or you might not be able to titrate it with only 1 burette full of sodium hydroxide solution. Write the mass down on your data sheet.
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10. 10) Carefully pour the acid powder into one of the flasks. Use the corner of the weigh boat to pour from. With your squirt bottle, wash any solid that remains on the weigh boat into the flask. Mark this flask “rough”
11. 11) Put about 50 ml of deionized water into the flask and then swirl the flask to dissolve as much of the acid as possible. Add a few drops of phenolphthalein solution to the flask.
12. 12) Use a ruler or the edge of a notebook as a straight edge, and draw a thick dark line horizontally across one of the small pieces of white paper. Place the other piece under the burette, and place the flask with the acid solution on top of it.
13. 13) Hold the paper with the line behind the burette, so that the line is horizontal, just underneath the meniscus. This will reflect off of the meniscus, making it easier to read (see Figure 7). With your eye at the level of the meniscus, read the burette to the nearest 0.01 ml.
14. 14) While constantly swirling the flask of analyte, open the valve and rapidly titrate until the acid solution turns pink. Be ready to stop the flow when the color change occurs.
15. 15) Write the initial volume, final volume and net volume (final – initial) in the “rough” section of the data sheet.
16. 16) Refill the burette with sodium hydroxide solution and let a little run through the pipette tip into the titrated sample if it is necessary to refill the tip of the burette.
17. 17) Repeat steps 9 through 11 with the other two flasks. Mark them “trial 1” and “trial 2”.
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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
18. 18) To help you to estimate the amount of titrant that will be needed for trials 1 and 2, you can do a proportional calculation as shown below. This will allow you to titrate quickly to just under the estimated volume, and then titrate slowly to get an accurate endpoint.
19. 19) Read the initial volume as in step 13, and add the estimated net volume for Trial 1 to the initial volume to get the estimated final volume.
20. 20) Titrate rapidly to about 5 ml before the estimated final volume for Trial 1. Then titrate the solution drop by drop, with constant swirling until it turns a very light pink.
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21. 21) Measure the final volume as in step 13, and write down the measured initial volume and final volume in the “Trial 1” column of your data sheet.
22. 22) Refill the burette and repeat steps 19 through 21 for trial 2.
23. 23) Calculate the equivalent mass of the acid for trials 1 and 2, then calculate the average value.
24. 24) Discard the titrated acid solutions and the excess sodium hydroxide solution in the sink with water.
Clean and return all the equipment. Return the acid sample to the stockroom, and clean up your work area.
Figure 7, reading the meniscus with a black line
8
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Report Sheet: Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Lab Partner(s):_____________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Data sheet: to be turned in only with full, formal lab report.
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Prelab: Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Show calculations and be mindful of significant figures for full credit.
The following data were observed in an equivalent mass of an acid experiment.
1. 1) Fill in the blanks (2 points each). Show all calculations for full credit.
2. 2) (3 points) How many moles of hydroxide ion were consumed in the titration?_________________
3. 3) (3 points) How many moles of hydronium ion were available from the acid?___________________
4. 4) (4 points) What is the equivalent molar mass of the acid? ____________
5. 5) (4 points) If it happened that the acid in this experiment was one of the ones represented
in the table below, what is the most likely identity of this acid? ___________________
NaOH molarity
Acid mass
0.2511g
Initial volume (ml)
Final volume (ml)
Net volume (ml)
0.1000 M
Numerical value:
Acid name Molar mass Number of protons
Butanoic acid 88.11 g/mol 1
Tartaric acid 150.087 g/mol 2
Citric acid 192.124 g/mol 3
10
CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid
Formal Laboratory Report
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This lab requires a formal laboratory report that will be turned in online through Turnitin. Specific guidelines for writing the report are shown below:
Section Requirements
Introduction (10 points) • • Explain the objective of the experiment and describe how the stoichiometry of the acid base reaction can be used to volumetrically determine the equivalent mass of the acid.
• • Provide an example of how titration is used in medicine, industry, or environmental protection.
• • Write in passive voice for example: “The volume and concentration of the base solution are used to find the number of moles of acid present.” not “I will use the volume and concentration of the base solution to find the number of moles of acid present.”
• • Cite any references with sufficient detail that your instructor can find them.
Procedure (20 points) • • Write the procedure in your own words. Do not copy the procedure in the lab manual
• • The procedure should contain sufficient detail that a chemist of equal experience can duplicate the experiment
• • Use passive voice past tense. For example: “The burette was filled to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.” not “Fill the burette to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.”
•Citeanyreferences
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Data and calculation (60 points) • • All quantitative results should be presented as tables or graphs, and also described in paragraph form.
• • Volumes should be recorded to the 0.01 ml place, and masses should be recorded to within 0.001g.
• • Use Passive voice past tense
• • Show the calculations for net volume, moles base, moles acid, and equivalent
mass of the acid.
Results and discussion (30 points) • • List the values obtained for the equivalent mass of the acid for all titrations, and the average values.
• • Compare the values of each titration to each other, and evaluate how closely they agree.
• • Discuss whether or not your results are reasonable. The highest equivalent masses in this experiment are about 200 g/mol, and the lowest equivalent mass organic acid is oxalic acid, with an equivalent mass of 45 g/mol. Anything much less than this is probably not reasonable, and masses of more than 500 are also not reasonable in this experiment.
• • Use passive voice in this section as well.
Conclusion (10 points) • • Discuss any experimental factors that could influence the reliability of your results
• • Given the equipment provided and your evaluation of the results of this
experiment, discuss whether or not you could perform the titration in the practical example that you provided in the introduction with sufficient precision and accuracy
Prelab
(20 points)
11
Question 15. Psychology
Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues in Psychology Week 6 Team Assignment.
Nipsey Hussel Story
Develop a 10- to 12-slide presentation that covers how to bring awareness to the conflict presented in the news story from the Week Four Learning Team assignment.
Include the following in your presentation:
• An analysis of the social psychology and multicultural psychology aspects of the news story
• Clear application of the principles of social psychology or multicultural psychology in your plan
• The principles of multicultural psychology
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•
A resolution to the conflict in your plan
Include a minimum of five references from peer-reviewed journals.
Format any citations in your presentation according to APA guidelines.
Submit your assignment.
Materials
Grading Criteria: Multiculturalism in the News
Resources
• Center for Writing Excellence
• Reference and Citation Generator
• Grammar and Writing Guides
• Learning Team Toolkit
Question 16. Psychology
Wk 6 Discussion 2.Phych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.
Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
Sociopolitical Factors, Psychological Effect, and Diverse Populations
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available throughVital Bookshelf]
Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott,B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 17. Psychology
Wk 6 Discussion Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.
Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
Pedersen (1999, p. 13) recognized the “profound consequences” for our discipline that arise from a “culture centered perspective. (Lott, 2010, p. 126).
What now? How will applying the information gained in class help with research, practice, and personal growth?
Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.
Textbook sources:
Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.
Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.
Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]
Question 18. Finance.
A supplier is offering your firm a cash discount of 2 percent if purchases are paid for within ten days; otherwise, the bill is due at the end of 60 days. Would you recommend borrowing from a bank at an 18 percent annual interest rate to take advantage of the cash discount offer? Explain your answer.
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Question 19. Psychology
PSYCH/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology week 5 discussion.
Classroom Engagement Expectations
Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:
• Discussion 1 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.
• Discussion 2 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.
• Discussion 3 will be a more open ended, standard prompt that invites students to share in 2 substantive contributions about what they learned from course materials, how they will apply learning to their career, or muddiest points for which they need/want to learn more
Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:
1. Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
2. Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
3. Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.
Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.
Question 20. Physics
Unpolarized light traveling horizontally is incident normally (at a 90 degree angle) on an ideal polarizer. At a point
beyond the polarizer, the magnetic field of the light wave oscillates along a vertical axis. What is the polarization axis of the polarizer?
Question 21. Other
How does transport create social cohesion and division?
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Q1. Workforce Planning
Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.
Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.
Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:
specific job skills and competencies
employee qualifications
the breadth of training offered and available
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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document
Q2. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.
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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.
Include the following:
Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:
How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.
Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS
Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)
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This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®.
Instructions
Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.
Write an Introduction describing your topic.
Write the Statement of the Problem section.
Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
Describe your method of sampling.
Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?
Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.
Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.
You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.
Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.
Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes
Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.
Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :
What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?
What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?
Q12. Wk 2 Discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :
What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples?
What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?
Q13. Original Work Only
Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
Industry and Market Feasibility
Product or Service Feasibility
Financial Feasibility
Entrepreneurial Readiness
Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?
Q14. Discussion question
Respond to thefollowing in a minimum of 175 words each:
What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.
Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q16.Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse
Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.
Important Concepts from Chapter 3:
Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.
Assignment:
Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
References should be provided in initial thread and replies.
Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking. Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?
Q17.Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions
Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.
Q18.The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem
Details:
The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.
Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.
Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.
Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.
The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).
Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.
Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.
Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:
Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.
To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.
Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist
List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen
Q20.week 5 Starbucks
Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.
Organization (Starbucks)
Assess the organization’s current status:
o Leadership
o Board members
o Structure
o Number of employees
Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.
Q21.role of sport in education
role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.
Q22.Strategic Choice and Evaluation
Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…
What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how? Why is this relationship important?
How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What might encourage diversification?
What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?
Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:
Infrared imaging
GPS
Water mist
Compressed air foam
Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.
Use examples to support your discussion.
Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.
Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.
Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources
Q24.Mini-Strategy Week Three
Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation
Include the following in your outline:
Organizations(Apple Inc)
Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.
Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources
Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?
Q26.MGT 279 Assignment 4
In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?
Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific
Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.
Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.
Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:
What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.
Q28.New hire for job position
You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position. Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications. However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.
The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package. The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home. The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home. Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.
Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:
Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.
As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?
Use APA format and references
Q29.Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”
Hi,
I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization” So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process
Course textbook:
Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice(4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.
Q30.For Contemporary Decision Making.
Consider how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.
consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.
Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank. Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?
Provide an example of empirical probability ?
BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.
Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.
Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;
Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.
ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions
When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)
Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?
• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?
• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.
Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,
Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.
…
I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take
…
And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end
Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
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According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
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Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
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Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
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Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points
Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
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Question 10
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According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
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Question 11
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Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
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Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
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Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
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Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which is not one of the Three Unities?
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Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
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Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
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Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
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Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points
The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
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Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
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Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
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Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
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Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
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Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
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Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The Greek play began with the parados.
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Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
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Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
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Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
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Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
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Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
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Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
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The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
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Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
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Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
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Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
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Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dionysus was the god of dance.
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Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
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Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
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Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
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Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points
According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
Selected Answer:
Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points
The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
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Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
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Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points
In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
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Question 48
0 out of 1.6 points
Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
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Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
Selected Answer:
Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.
Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab
Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****
Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
Assignment
In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.
Proposal Argument Prompt
Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).
As you compose your essay, be sure to:
• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.
IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1
Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics
Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.
Q7. Thinking Critically 1
For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.
Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.
Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE
ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument
In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).
In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.
Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)
Ethical Essay Prompt
Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).
Instructions
After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”
When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.
Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.
Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.
Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1
Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.
Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself
Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.
Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.
Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)
Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.
HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200
Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.
Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.
Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)
RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1
• Question 1
This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2
When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3
Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4
When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5
Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7
Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8
When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9
The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10
According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11
Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12
In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13
Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14
A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15
According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16
Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17
One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18
According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19
When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20
According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.
Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5
According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.
1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?
2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?
3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?
4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?
5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?
6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?
7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?
8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was
Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.
• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as
Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.
Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.
Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.
Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.
1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.
1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?
1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was
2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find
3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:
4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.
5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.
6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because
7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.
9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.
10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?
11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?
Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?
Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University
1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by
2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because
3.
Hidalgos were
4.
Convertible husbandry
5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT
6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by
7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by
8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when
9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was
10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of
11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by
12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of
13.
Francisco Pizarro was
14.
The European traffic in African slaves
15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from
16.
Enclosure was the process by which
17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it
18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain
19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period
20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that
Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University
1.
With respect to religiosity and women
2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that
3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526
4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as
5.
Catherine de’ Medici
6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT
7.
The Council of Trent met to
8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT
9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a
10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli
11.
The millenarians believed that
12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by
13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that
14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because
15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to
16.
The Huguenots
17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation
18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists
19.
The Jesuits were a
20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by
Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were
2.
In the Late Middle Ages
3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when
4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)
5.
Unam Santa (1302)
6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua
7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when
8.
The Conciliar Movement
9.
The Lollards were
10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to
11.
Feudal traditions
12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because
13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?
14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT
15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France
16.
The Great Schism came to an end
17.
Wycliffe and Hus
18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason
19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that
20.
Which of the following events occurred last?
Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?
1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that
2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at
3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?
4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:
5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?
6. The Crusades were
7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except
8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire
9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the
GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.
•
• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.
Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.
Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.
Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.
Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points
This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm
Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.
Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.
Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.
Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?
Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.
Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System
Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic
URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475
Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing
Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response
Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library
Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”
Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.
Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.
Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references
Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink
There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?
ART
Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review
For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.
Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?
Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.
Our Case Study:
The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.
Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.
Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:
Classic Interpretations:
For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:
Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?
Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.
Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report
This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?
Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.
• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?
Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)
Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.
Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned
Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.
Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?
Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics
Objective
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Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.
Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.
ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).
Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.
***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)
Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.
Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)
Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries
Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.
Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4
Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)
Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )
Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)
FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity
Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.
Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:
Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?
Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent âclocksâ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:
1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnât this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:
• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:
• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?
Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics
Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.
Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.
Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.
Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers
Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)
Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?
Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.
book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.
citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal
Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?
Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust
Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50
Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.
Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA
Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?
How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?
LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics
PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics
Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Question 5
1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.
with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.
Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma
Warp
Ship
Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense
back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:
2
5
3
none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.
They are all velar
They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar
They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.
rounded
tense
high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:
voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.
voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.
none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.
True
False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.
True
False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?
Voiceless velar oral stop
Voiceless velar nasal stop
Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.
True
False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?
Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.
None of these are false.
There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.
In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.
True
False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?
none of these answers
China
Cute
Bamboo
Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:
An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.
A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.
None of these answers.
The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Quiz 2 Phonetics
Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers
alveolar
approximant
lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.
The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.
None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.
The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.
True
False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.
True
False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?
None of these answers.
The nasal system.
The vocal tract system.
The respiratory system.
The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:
none of these answers.
/θ/
/ð/
/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.
An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.
how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.
the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:
the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.
none of these answers
fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.
True
False
Bottom of Form
Bottom of Form
Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.
If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at
Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…
PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE
, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.
Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals
Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity
Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed
Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo
The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.
Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s
Double Indmnity market scene
50:20
LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s
Kiss me deadly beach scene
Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies
Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.
PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.
Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.
Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about effect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median
Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.
SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.
2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine
8
10
5
1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)
6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)
Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS
Less likely to support No change More likely to support
25
12
9
7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE
Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30
1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers
Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers
Result A+
Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers
Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.
ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account
Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.
• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.
Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.
Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.
a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))
Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity
b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI
Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.
•
• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.
•
• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.
•
• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.
Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?
Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do
Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?
Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.
Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.
Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.
EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
Back to Status page
contains 50 Questions
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result
Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?
Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work
CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points
This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.
Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.
Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.
Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.
REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.
Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed
This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional
social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.
Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau
2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18
Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606
Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.
Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.
a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:
b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:
Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.
Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+
BIBL 104 – Quiz 7
• Question 1
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
• Question 2
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
• Question 3
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
• Question 4
In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.
• Question 5
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.
• Question 6
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
• Question 7
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.
• Question 8
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
• Question 9
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
• Question 10
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
• Question 11
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
• Question 12
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
• Question 13
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
• Question 14
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.
• Question 15
2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.
• Question 16
In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”
• Question 17
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
• Question 18
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
• Question 19
Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.
• Question 20
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
• Question 21
In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.
• Question 22
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
• Question 23
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
• Question 24
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
• Question 25
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
• Question 26
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
• Question 27
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
• Question 28
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
• Question 29
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
• Question 30
1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.
• Question 31
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.
• Question 32
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
• Question 33
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
• Question 34
In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.
• Question 35
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
• Question 36
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.
• Question 37
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
• Question 38
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
• Question 39
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
• Question 40
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
• Question 41
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
• Question 42
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
• Question 43
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
• Question 44
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
• Question 45
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
• Question 46
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
• Question 47
Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.
• Question 48
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
• Question 49
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
• Question 50
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than
one large church.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Question 5
0 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.
Question 8
0 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence
of Christ.
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by
Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual
building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.
Question 22
0 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue
Question 26
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Question 27
0 out of 1 points
In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.
Question 28
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.
Question 29
0 out of 1 points
The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by
having the young man circumcised.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.
Question 33
0 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Question 37
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise
of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.
Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim
belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Question 46
0 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Question 47
0 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Question 49
0 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in
the flesh.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He
then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have
victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Question 9
0 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that
we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence
of Christ.
Question 17
1 out of 1 points
Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first
generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue
Question 20
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when
He hung on the cross.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he
reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.
Question 44
0 out of 1 points
_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly
arrangement of the local church.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.
Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days
____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff
____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium
____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain
____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease
____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone
____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics
____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness
____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe
____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home
____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam
____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships
____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one
____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support
____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea
____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia
Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
• Question 23
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.
• Question 26
0 out of 1 points
The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a General Epistle?
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are General Epistles
• Question 41
0 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
Question 6
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following books is a General Epistle?
Question 7
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Question 9
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.
Question 10
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.
Question 11
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Question 15
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Question 17
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.
Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following books are General Epistles
Question 19
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Question 20
0 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”
Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.
Question 27
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Question 29
1 out of 1 points
A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.
Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 31
1 out of 1 points
A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”
Question 32
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 33
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
Question 34
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.
Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.
Question 36
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of
Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.
Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Question 42
0 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Question 44
1 out of 1 points
John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.
Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Question 46
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.
Question 47
1 out of 1 points
All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.
Question 48
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Question 49
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT
GENDER STUDIES.
Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.
Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.
Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below
THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.
View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.
Q5. Discussion Board Forum:
pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below
DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS
Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.
Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.
Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.
Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.
Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.
Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA
Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse
Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient
CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)
1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?
Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.
HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
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Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
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A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
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At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
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An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
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Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
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A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
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A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
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A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
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5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
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A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
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Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
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When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
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An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
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A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
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A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
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A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
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Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
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While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who
Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?
Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation
Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.
____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement
____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.
____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory
____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease
____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin
____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement
____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.
____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations
____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria
____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations
____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).
____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis
____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)
____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.
____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.
____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease
____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation
____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease
____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.
____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.
____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta
____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.
____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.
____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)
____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.
____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.
____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells
____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave
____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4
____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal
____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute
____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate
____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node
____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.
____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention
____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.
____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.
____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation
____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).
____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis
____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.
____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)
____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.
____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin
____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.
____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance
____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule
____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.
____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.
____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.
____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure
____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air
____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities
____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.
____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure
____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis
____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation
____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption
____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption
____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)
____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)
____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)
____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25
____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal
____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30
____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.
____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)
____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system
____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.
____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis
____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory
____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic
____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated
____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic
____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion
____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease
____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency
____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.
____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation
____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure
____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.
____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload
Matching
Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity
____ 198. Proto-oncogene
____ 199. Pleomorphic
____ 200. Anaplasia
____ 201. Caretaker gene
____ 202. Autocrine stimulation
Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent
____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins
____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle
____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction
____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles
____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole
Match th
Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]
Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1
Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
Assignment Criteria
Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive
Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication
Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer
Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.
Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support
Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in
Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few
Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)
NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –
Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy
____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners
____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs
____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing
____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level
Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney
____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin
____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues
____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects
____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues
____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range
____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range
____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long
____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action
____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists
____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow
____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed
____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual
____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.
____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.
____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion
____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above
____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins
____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above
____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive
____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs
____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time
____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor
____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug
____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”
____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration
____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose
____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.
____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally
____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration
____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response
Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form
____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug
____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders
____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment
____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy
____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above
____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated
____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English
____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective
____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration
____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.
Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings
____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure
____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity
____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin
____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state
____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed
____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above
____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them
____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy
____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above
Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male
____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution
____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function
____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D
____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen
____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E
____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response
____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV
____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction
____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F
____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer
____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D
____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication
____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants
____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G
____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives
____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction
____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F
Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices
____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations
____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds
____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B
____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders
____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting
____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.
____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.
____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above
____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms
____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.
____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance
____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence
____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above
Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above
____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption
____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities
____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization
____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care
____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction
____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False
____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy
____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States
Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above
____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers
____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism
____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False
____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin
____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine
____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic
____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug
____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify
Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University
An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?
A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:
A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure
Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:
A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?
A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:
A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
The DEA:
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:
A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:
A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI
The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:
A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin
Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:
A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:
A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?
A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:
A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes
First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium
Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:
A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:
A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.
Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:
A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker
Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:
A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:
A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
Infants with reflux are initially treated with:
A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:
A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:
A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:
A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:
A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:
A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?
A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.
A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)
Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?
A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:
A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:
A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:
A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.
A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
Off-Label prescribing is:
A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
One goal of asthma management in children is:
A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:
A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation
A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.
A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose
Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:
A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:
A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A. True
B. False
B. False
A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:
A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:
A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:
A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis
Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:
A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:
A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:
A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:
A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
Sitagliptin has been approved for:
A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):
A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.
Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:
A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?
A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:
A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:
A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD
To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:
A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine
The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.
A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days
A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.
A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E
The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:
A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?
A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin
What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:
A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:
A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.
A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?
A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:
A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet
Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?
A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker
Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?
A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.
Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B
Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?
A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?
A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?
A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
A woman who has migraine with aura:
A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:
A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens
…
Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…
LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist
List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen
Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948
article title
volume and issue information
journal title
author
Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?
paraphrase
hanging quote
direct quote
Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.
Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score
Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%
Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%
PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions
Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:
Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules
Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms
Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.
Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)
Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:
1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.
Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:
1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?
b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.
Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.
In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.
In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.
In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.
While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.
A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.
Questions to Consider
1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?
2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?
3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.
4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.
Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history
Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59
Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution
The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.
Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.
RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:
Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:
Q4. 2019 Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 6 complete solutions
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
______________ became the first Christian martyred for preaching the gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
0 out of 2 points
The author of Acts is clearly not an eyewitness of much of what he writes about.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the Acts of the Apostles” isn’t a survey of the ministry of all twelve disciples; rather it is about ____________ and _____________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts is filled with gospel preaching, including sermons by Peter, __________, and Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem while Paul and Barnabas went on.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at _______________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
__________, pastor of the Jerusalem church, presided over the council.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart of the Gentile world in Rome.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
0 out of 2 points
Paul begins his third missionary journey from
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
On Paul’s first missionary journey he took ___________ and ___________ with him.
Selected Answer:
Barnabas/ John Mark
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Jewish authorities finally arrested Paul at __________ where he defended himself before the Sanhedrin.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
On his second missionary journey, Paul receives a vision at ________ that encourages him to travel to Macedonia.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
In ______________ on their first missionary journey, Paul and Barnabas were mistaken for gods.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Paul asked ________________ to join him in his work at Lystra while on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
2 out of 2 points
The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name ___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
2 out of 2 points
A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in Jerusalem at _____________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
2 out of 2 points
In __________ on his second missionary journey, Paul speaks to the Areopagus.
Selected Answer:
Q5. 2019 Answer key to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 5
42 out of 50 points
Time Elapsed
55 minutes out of 1 hour and 30 minutes
Instructions
• Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
• 50 true/false and multiple-choice questions
• Open-book/open-notes
• Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the quiz.
• The timer will continue if you leave this quiz without submitting it.
Results Displayed
Submitted Answers, Feedback
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Selected Answer:
Mark
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Jesus asked James three times, “Do you love Me?” Upon Peter’s positive confession Jesus recommissioned him to service.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew is the most comprehensive of the four Gospels.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The last twelve verses of Mark are included in the KJV but modern translations like the NASB, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, and NIV usually use footnotes or a combination of footnotes and brackets to indicate that some manuscripts lack the verses.
Selected Answer:
Q6. 2019 Answers to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4 Answers 2019
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In Haggai’s final message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of Judah and a member of the house of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Lamentations, Jerusalem’s fate was worse than that of Sodom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is marked by grace and truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s message is a personal one in which the prophet laments and dialogues with the Lord over the justice of His ways in using the Babylonians to punish Judah’s sins.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day of the Lord to restore His people.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the same to them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
_________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that “They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which means chêsêd in Hebrew.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Might Savior.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They trusted in their political and military advisors for their security.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Like a con artist, Nineveh had seduced other nations into alliances and then had
betrayed them because of her greed and lust for wealth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Luke 22:37 quotes from Isa 53:12 (“And he was numbered with the transgressors”) as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In his first vision, Zechariah saw a flying scroll that measured thirty feet by fifteen feet and was covered with written curses against those who had broken God’s commandments
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Amos’ prophecies of judgment demanded a response because they were not absolute predictions of what must happen in the future as much as they were warnings of what would happen if Israel did not repent and change its ways.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the New Testament explains that John the Baptist is the fulfillment of the messenger prophesied by Malachi.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They believed their mountain fortresses made them invulnerable to enemy attack.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Malachi is structured around disputations in which the Lord dialogues with His people in a series of questions and answers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is from the throne of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Zephaniah’s ministry reminds us of the importance of preaching which confronts evil, calls for repentance, and leads to revival.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Lamentations reveals that, as the Divine Warrior, the Lord poured out His anger on the city of Jerusalem. However, He would not abandon the Temple for it was His own sanctuary.
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
The ultimate fulfillment of the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah was the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, who was literally God incarnate and who would preserve the line of David forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ confirmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew the people of Israel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as an “Everlasting Father.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Daniel was thrown into a lion’s den because he refused to stop praying.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the __________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Babylonians allowed Jeremiah to remain in the land of Judah, and he ministered there until he and his scribe Baruch were kidnapped by a faction of Jews and taken away as hostages to Egypt.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Nahum, God’s justice demanded the Assyrians experience the suffering and degradation they inflicted on others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a rebellious daughter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Zephaniah began his ministry at approximately the same time as Ezekiel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The ____________ were descendants of Esau and had a stormy relationship with Israel throughout their history.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identifies ___________ as the author of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Peter cites and quotes from Isa 53:4–5, 9, 11–12 (“He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth,” and “by his wounds you have been healed”) in 1 Peter 2:21-25 as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as a suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the personification of the city of Jerusalem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In the final section of the book of Micah, God’s relationship to His people is presented as
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The judgment of the Edomites is a reminder that God stands opposed to all forms of human arrogance and pride.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the bread of life.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s third question was:
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose reigns forever.
Selected Answer:
Q7. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Q8. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Q9. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Q10. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
CHEMISTRY.
Q1. Citric Acid Cycle
Balance Sheet for the Citric Acid Cycle The citric acid cycle has eight enzymes: citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, and malate dehydrogenase. (a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction catalyzed by each enzyme. (b) Name the cofactor(s) required by each enzyme reaction. (c) For each enzyme determine which of the following describes the type of reaction(s) catalyzed: condensation (carbon–carbon bond formation); dehydration (loss of water); hydration (addition of water); decarboxylation (loss of CO2); oxidation-reduction; substrate-level phosphorylation; isomerization. (d) Write a balanced net equation for the catabolism of acetyl-CoA to CO2
According to the Arrhenius definition, what is the substance that provides hydroxide ions in solution?
Solvent
Precipitate
Base
Acid
Salt
According to Arrhenius theory, what is an acid?
A substance that contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions with water.
A substance that will lower the hydrogen ion concentration when placed in water.
A substance that has an H in its formula.
An electron pair donor.
An electron pair acceptor.
Which of the following is not capable of acting like a Brønsted–Lowry base?
H2O()
NH4+ion
Cl–ion
HNO3(aq)
H2PO4–(aq)
Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry acid?
HCO3–(aq)
HOH()
NH3(g)
CO32–(aq)
CH3OH()
Consider the following generalized reaction.
For this reaction, which of the following is correct?
A is proton source.
B is a proton remover.
A is an electron pair donor.
B is an electron pair acceptor.
This a Lewis acid-base reaction.
Which of the following is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?
OH–
HPO42–
HCl
NH4+
Fe3+
Which one of the following pairs does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?
H3PO4 / HPO42-
H2O / OH–
HBr / Br–
NO3– / HNO3
HClO2 / ClO2–
Choose the pair that does not constitute a conjugate acid-base pair.
CH3CO2H / CH3CO2–
H3O+ / H2O
HSO4– / SO42-
H3PO4 / HPO42-
None. All of these are conjugate acid base pairs.
Which one of the following is a strong acid?
nitric acid, HNO3
phosphoric acid, H3PO4
hypobromous acid, HOBr
bromic acid, HBrO3
carbonic acid, H2CO3
Given the following relative acid strengths, starting with the weakest: HCO3– < HNO3 < HBr, what is the relative strength of each conjugate base, starting with the weakest?
CO32–< NO3–< Br–
Br–< CO32–< NO3–
NO3–< Br–< CO32–
Br–< NO3–< CO32–
CO32–< Br–< NO3–
Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between nitrous acid and hydrogen sulfide ion?
HNO2+ HS–H2NO2+ + S2–
HNO2+ HS–NO2– + H2S
HNO2+ HSO4–H2NO2+ + SO42–
HNO2+ HSO4–NO2– + H2SO4
HNO3+ HSO4–NO3– + H2SO4
Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between HC2O4– and HPO42–? (Note: H2C2O4 is a stronger acid than H2PO4–.)
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H+ + H2O42– + HPO42–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H+ + HC2O4– + PO43–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–C2O42– + H2PO4–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H2C2O4 + PO43–
HC2O4–+ HPO42–H2 + C2O42– + PO43–
Which one of the following chemical equations illustrates the ionization of perchloric acid, HClO4, when it dissolves in water?
2 HClO42 ClO4– + H2
HClO4 + H2O H3O+ + ClO4–
HClO4 + OH– H2O + ClO4–
3 HClO4 + 2 H2O 2 H2O+ + 3 HClO4–
HClO4 + H2O H2ClO4+ + OH–
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Acid-base reactions involve a transfer of protons; redox reactions involve a transfer of electrons.
In both redox and acid-base reactions, the reactants are given special names to indicate their roles in the transfer process.
Just as certain species can either donate or accept protons and thereby behave as an acid in one reaction and a base in another, certain species can either accept or donate electrons, acting as an oxidizing agent in one reaction and a reducing agent in another.
Just as acids and bases may be classified as “strong” or “weak” depending on how readily they donate or accept protons, the strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents may be compared according to their tendencies to attract or release electrons.
Unlike most acid-base reactions in solution, which reach a state of equilibrium, most aqueous redox reactions do not reach a state of equilibrium and proceed entirely either in the forward or reverse direction.
The autoionization of water, as represented by the below equation, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H2O(l) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq)
The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral.
The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral.
The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic.
The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic.
The pH of the water increases and the water remains neutral.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
i. Kw = [H+][OH–] = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C.
ii. Water or water solutions in which [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 M are neutral solutions, neither acidic nor basic.
iii. A solution in which [H+] > [OH–] is basic.
iv. A solution in which [OH–] > [H+] is acidic.
i and ii
iii and iv
ii, iii, and iv
All statements are correct.
All statements are incorrect.
At 55°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 7.05 × 10-14. The pH of pure water at 55°C is
4.384
7.000
3.804
4.484
None of these choices are correct.
Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH– concentration of a solution that is 0.15 M in Na2CO3?
2.7 × 10-6M
6.0 × 10-5M
5.6 × 10-3M
2.1 × 10–4M
2.5 × 10-4M
What is the [ OH– ] in a solution that has a pH of 10.15 ?
1.41×10-4 M
0.213 M
1.41×10-5 M
7.08×10-10 M
7.08×10-11 M
Which of the following is true for a basic solution?
[ H+ ] < [ OH– ]
Kw = [ H+ ]
[ OH– ] = [ H+ ]
[ H+ ][ OH– ] = 1
[ OH– ] < [ H+ ]
What is the pH of a solution when [OH–] = 5.0×10-2 mol/L?
12.70
7.00
13.70
0.30
1.30
What is the [ H+ ] of a solution that has a pH of 7.37?
4.27×106
2.34×10-7
4.27×10-8
2.34×107
Which one of the following is not characteristic of a acid?
Producing a solution with a pH less than 7
Tasting sour
Producing hydrogen ions in solution
Turning red litmus blue
If the pH of a solution is equal to 7.00, the solution is _____.
basic
amphoteric
neutral
acidic
The pH of a solution is 5.330. Find [OH–].
[OH–] = 2.14 × 10–9molar
[OH–] = 4.70 × 10–11molar
[OH–] = 5.33 × 10–7molar
[OH–] = 4.70 × 10–6molar
[OH–] = 5.33 molar
A solution is made by dissolving 12.50 g of NaOH, a strong base, in water to produce 2.0 liters of solution. What is the pH of this solution?
13.50
13.19
11.74
0.81
0.31
The following three equations represent equilibria that lie to the right.
HNO3(aq) + CN–(aq) HCN(aq) + NO3–(aq)
HCN(aq) + OH–(aq) H2O(l) + CN–(aq)
H2O(l) + CH3CH2O–(aq) CH3CH2OH(aq) + OH–(aq)
Identify the strongest base.
CH3CH2O–
NO3–
CN–
CH3CH2OH
H2O
Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH– concentration of a solution that is 1.15 M in Na2CO3?
7.4 × 10-6M
1.7 × 10-4M
2.1 × 10–4M
6.9 × 10-4M
1.5 × 10-2M
As water is heated, its pH decreases. This means that
the dissociation of water is an endothermic process.
the water has a lower [OH–] than cooler water.
the Kw value is decreasing.
the water is no longer neutral.
None of these choices are correct.
Calculate the pH of a 8.22×10-2 M NaF solution (Kb = 1.4 x 10-11).
11.94
2.06
5.97
3.15
8.03
At 65°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 1.20 × 10-13. The pH of pure water at 65°C is
3.727
7.000
4.307
4.407
None of these choices are correct.
Calculate the hydroxide concentration in a 3.0 M HCl aqueous solution.
3.0*10^-14 M
7.0*10^-13 M
1.0*10^-7 M
3.4*10^-15 M
3.0*10^14 M
Q3. Chapter 16 – Solutions
Chapter 16
Consider the following beaker which has had its contents (KBr and water) mixed until no further change occurs.
Which of the following best describes the contents of the beaker?
KBr – solute and water – solvent.
Saturated solution.
Addition of enough water would produce an unsaturated solution.
A heterogeneous mixture.
All of the above correctly describe the contents of the beaker.
2.
Which of the following correctly applies to the term “solution”?
heterogeneous mixture
variable composition
constant properties
dissolved particles can are usually larger than about 10–7cm
exist only in the liquid and gas state
3.
A solution that has a relatively large amount of solute dissolved in it at a particular temperature is said to be _____.
unsaturated
oversaturated
dilute
supersaturated
concentrated
4.
Suppose you are given a beaker containing a solution. None of the solute is on the bottom. You drop a small crystal of the solute into the solution, and it readily dissolves into the solution. Which one of the following terms best describes the solution?
concentrated
supersaturated
unsaturated
static
saturated
5.
Which of the following substances should be the most soluble in ethanol (CH3CH2OH)?
CH4
NaCl
Mg3(PO4)2
CH2Cl2
O2
6.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
The roles ofsoluteand solvent are not always clearly defined in the solution of one liquid in another.
When water and carbon tetrachloride are in the same test tube, a denser layer of carbon tetrachloride forms beneath a less dense layer of water. The liquids are said to be miscible.
A solution of a given concentration that is saturated at one temperature may be unsaturated at another temperature.
Dilute nitric acid and dilute sulfuric acid may or may not have the same concentration.
The concentration of solute in a supersaturated solution is greater than the normal solubility limit.
7.
“Like dissolves like” essentially means:
Solids won’t dissolve in liquids.
Ionic compounds will only dissolve in molten salts.
Ionic compounds won’t vaporize easily.
Polar solutes will dissolve in polar solvents.
8.
In carbon steel, carbon is the _____ and iron is the _______.
solute, solution
solvent, solute
solute, solvent
solution, solute
9.
dentify the incorrect statement about events that occur between the time excess solid solute is first introduced to a liquid solvent and the time when the solution becomes saturated. Assume that the surface area of the solute remains constant throughout the process.
The rate of concentration change is zero when the solution is saturated.
The net rate of concentration change is greatest at the beginning of the process.
The rate of dissolving is greater than the rate of crystallization when the solution is one-half saturated.
If temperature remains constant, the rate of dissolving is constant.
If temperature remains constant, the rate of crystallization remains constant.
10.
When a saturated solution is in equilibrium with undissolved solute, …
the solution separates into layers.
dissolving and crystallization stop.
the quantity of dissolved solute equals the quantity of undissolved solute.
the concentration of the solution remains constant.
the temperature increases until more solute dissolves.
Which of the following will always cause the greatest increase in the solubility of a gas in a liquid?
increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature
increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid with no temperature change of the liquid
decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature
Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
CH3–CH2–OH
CH3–OH
I < III < IV < II
I < II < IV < III
III < IV < II < I
I < II < III < IV
None of these is correct.
13.
The structures of cyclohexane and benzene are shown below.
cyclohexane
benzene
It is logical to expect that these liquids are…
miscible because of their similar structures and sizes.
miscible because they contain the same number of carbon atoms.
immiscible because benzene, with half as many hydrogen atoms, has less hydrogen bonding than cyclohexane.
immiscible because one molecule is polar and the other nonpolar.
immiscible because both molecules have ring structures
14.
Consider the graph shown below.
Which substance shows the smallest increase in solubility as the temperature is increased?
A
B
C
D
E
15.
To determine the mass percent of a solution’s composition, what do you need to know?
Mass of solute and mass of solution
Volume of solute and mass of solution
Volume of solute and volume of solution
Mass of solute and volume of solution
16.
Find the mass percent of CuSO4 in a solution whose density is 1.30 g/mL and whose molarity is 1.36 M.
2.66%
16.7%
1.77%
83.3%
None of these choices are correct.
17.
If 8.73 g Ca(NO3)2 is dissolved in enough water to make 0.750 L of solution, what is the molar concentration of Ca(NO3)2?
11.6 M
1.16×10-2M
7.09×10-2M
25.1 M
0.114 M
18.
What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.20 M FeCl3 solution?
6.7×10-2 M
0.80 M
0.60 M
0.20 M
0.40 M
19.
What concentration unit is necessary for the calculation of vapor pressure lowering of a solvent?
mass fraction of solvent
molarity of solute
mole fraction of solvent
molality of solvent
mole fraction of solute
20.
75.0 mL of water is added to 12.9 mL of 0.250 M KMnO4. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?
1.70 M
1.45 M
0.0581 M
0.0430 M
0.0367 M
21.
What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at STP, is produced in the reaction of excess aluminum with 50.0 mL of 0.935 M hydrochloric acid?
0.531 L
1.06 L
2.12 L
0.0474 L
0.0237 L
22.
Write the balanced equation for the reaction of aluminum chloride with silver nitrate and determine what volume of 0.107 M silver nitrate is required to precipitate all the chloride from 15.00 mL of 0.0500 M aluminum chloride.
45.0 mL
7.01 mL
21.0 mL
63.1 mL
15.0 mL
23.
Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary standard in finding the concentration of a solution of sodium hydroxide by the reaction KHC8H4O4 + NaOH → NaKC8H4O4 + H2O. What is the molarity of the base if 32.75 mL is required to titrate 1.732 g of the primary standard?
0.5189 M
0.2590 M
1.732 M
3.861 M
3.275 M
24.
The citric acid in a lemon juice sample was neutralized by titration with NaOH solution. If 5.00 mL of lemon juice required 47.8 mL of 0.121 M NaOH for neutralization, what was the molarity of the citric acid in the lemon juice? The reaction is 3 NaOH + H3C6H5O7 → 3 H2O + Na3C6H5O7.
1.16 M
3.47 M
0.110 M
0.386 M
0.329 M
25.
A 50.0 mL hydrochloric acid sample is analyzed for its concentration by titration. Determine the concentration of the sample, given that it requires 21.50 mL of 0.102 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the acid.
0.105 M
1.05 M
22.8 M
0.0439 M
0.237 M
How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?
the polarities of the solute and solvent
the densities of the solute and solvent
the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)
h
3
1
2
5
4
Which of the following statements concerning the solubility of a solute is/are correct?
(1) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.
(2) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with increasing temperature.
(3) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.
2 and 3
1 and 2
3 only
2 only
1 only
The solubility of a gas usually increases with increasing temperature.
True
False
How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?
the polarities of the solute and solvent
the densities of the solute and solvent
the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)
Q4. Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids
Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids
1.
Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that:
equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.
the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.
the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.
the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.
the rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.
2.
Hydrogen gas can be collected by water displacement when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid. When the container is filled with the hydrogen gas, which of the following is true of the total pressure (P) inside the container?
3.
What is the phase change from liquid to solid called?
Fusion
Freezing
Condensation
Sublimation
Evaporation
4.
Which of the following properties of liquids is the least affected by the strength of intermolecular forces?
vapor pressure
boiling point
heat of vaporization
density
viscosity
5.
Arrange the following molecules, CH3CHO, SO2, and H2O, in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces.
CH3CHO, SO2, H2O
SO2, CH3CHO, H2O
H2O, SO2, CH3CHO
H2O, CH3CHO, SO2
CH3CHO, H2O, SO2
6.
Which of the following statements is correct?
Intermolecular forces are weaker in liquids than in gases because the particles are closer to each other.
Smaller intermolecular distances in liquids result in stronger intermolecular forces, when compared to intermolecular distances and forces in gases.
Compared to liquids, large distances between gaseous molecules yield large intermolecular attractions.
The smaller the distance between molecules the smaller the intermolecular attractions, therefore attractions are weaker in liquids than gases.
All statements are correct.
7.
The kinetic molecular theory as applied to liquids differs in two major ways from the theory as applied to gases. One of these is that…
Matter no longer appears to be made up of discrete particles
Energy changes result from intermolecular collisions
Attractive forces between molecules are significant
Molecules are no longer in motion relative to each other
Forces between molecules are no longer electrostatic in character
8.
Considering the molecular mass and polarity influences on physical properties, which of the following predictions about the boiling points of elemental bromine and chlorine fluoride is most apt to be correct?
Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the lower boiling point.
Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the higher boiling point.
Molecular mass predicts Br2has the lower boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
Molecular mass predicts Br2has the higher boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
Molecular mass and polarity have an insignificant influence on the physical properties of these molecules.
9.
The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids at STP?
10.
The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is
11.
Which of the following molecules will have the highest boiling point?
CH4
I2
SiH4
SO2
O2
12.
Select from the following the statement that is incorrect or contrary to the generalizations that you’ve learned.
The strength of induced dipole forces depends on the ease with which electron distributions can be polarized.
Dipole forces are present in NF3, but not in CF4.
The principal intermolecular forces in a straight chain hydrocarbon such as C8H18are induced dipole forces.
Intermolecular forces are usually stronger for substances that exhibit hydrogen bonding than for otherwise similar substances lacking hydrogen bonds.
Induced dipole forces exist in both polar and nonpolar molecular substances, but they are essentially the only attractions in polar compounds.
13.
Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?
HF
NH3
CH4
H2O
all the same
14.
The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the boiling points listed below:
SbH3 –17°C, AsH3 –55°C, PH3 –87°C, NH3 –33°C
The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass decreases; however, ammonia (NH3) does not follow the trend because of:
dipole-dipole attraction.
hydrogen bonding.
metallic bonding.
London dispersion forces.
ionic bonding.
15.
Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?
NaCl(l)
N2(s)
HF(l)
H2O(l)
K(s)
16.
Draw the Lewis diagrams of CH3OH and water, then from the Lewis diagrams, identify the statement among the following that is most apt to be incorrect.
Hydrogen bonds are probably the principal intermolecular force in both compounds.
Both compounds have both hydrogen bonding and induced dipole forces.
Both molecules being polar, dipole-dipole forces are present in both compounds.
Induced dipole forces are present in CH3OH, but not water.
Induced dipole forces are probably the least significant intermolecular forces in both compounds.
17.
There is 250 mL of water stored in a 500-mL sealed container. As the temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K:
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase increases indefinitely.
the number of water molecules in the liquid phase decreases.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase remains constant.
the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases indefinitely.
18.
What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?
It would decrease.
It would double.
It would become half its value.
It would increase.
Two of these choices are correct.
19.
Among the following, identify the incorrect statement about a boiling liquid:
Boiling temperature may be increased by raising surrounding pressure.
The temperature of the liquid must be greater than that of the gas above the liquid.
Boiling in an open beaker occurs at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at boiling temperature equals, or is slightly higher than, surrounding pressure.
All statements are correct.
20.
Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:
The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
All statements are incorrect.
21.
Although both are readily soluble in water, why does table salt (NaCl) conduct an electric current when dissolved in water but table sugar (C12H22O11) does not?
Because table salt has a simpler formula than table sugar.
Because sugar contains carbon atoms which do not conduct electricity.
Because sugar has a larger mass than salt.
Because salt forms ions of Na+ and Cl– in water which are free to move about to conduct an electric current whereas sugar does not form ions in water.
22.
Why does ice float on liquid water?
It is a compound without carbon atoms that exists in the liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
The linear structure of the water molecule allows ice molecules to pack together tightly enough to allow ice to float.
Ice is structurally similar to wood, so ice floats on water in a manner similar to wooden ships where air becomes trapped in cells within the solid structure.
Oxygen’s low electronegativity leads to the collapse of the crystal structure, allowing the molecules to become closer together in water.
Water molecules in the solid form are held in a crystal pattern that has voids between the molecules.
23.
In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?
vaporization
sublimation
melting
crystallization
None of these choices are correct.
24.
Which of the following statements is correct?
There is long-range order in a crystalline solid
Graphite is an example of an amorphous solid.
Glass, rubber, and plastic are examples of crystalline solids
Particles in an amorphous solids are arranged in a distinct geometric order
In a crystalline solid particles can move past the closest neighboring particles.
25.
Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?
White phosphorus
Calcium fluoride
Sulfur hexafluoride
Carbon dioxide
Silver
26.
Which of the following substances is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?
NH3
MgCl2
Cl2
H2S
CH4
27.
The heat of fusion of gold is 63 joules per gram. Once a 25.0 g sample of gold has been heated to its melting point, 1063°C, how much additional heat is required to melt it?
89 kJ
39 kJ
2.7 kJ
2.6 kJ
1.6 kJ
28.
Calculate the heat of fusion of an unknown pure substance if 5.33 × 103 kJ of heat is required to melt a 17.2 kg sample.
1.09 × 10–5J/g
3.23 × 10–3J/g
3.10 × 102J/g
9.17 × 104J/g
3.10 × 105J/g
29.
Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of C4H10. This compound has vapor pressures of 492 mmHg and 355 mmHg at -12.0 °C and -20.0 °C, respectively. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
-81.4 kJ/mol
30.7 kJ/mol
9.73*10^3 kJ/mol
2.24*10^4 kJ/mol
22.4 kJ/mol
30.
Calculate the specific heat of an unknown metal if a 123 gram sample requires 8.8 kJ of heat to change from 16°C to 97°C.
0.88 J/g · °C
1.1 J/g · °C
5.8 × 103J/g · °C
1.3 × 104J/g · °C
8.8 × 107J/g · °C
31.
The graph below represents a temperature versus energy plot for a pure substance.
Identify the point(s) where…
(i) only gas exists
(ii) both solid and liquid exist
(i) 7 (ii) 2 and 3
(i) 7 (ii) 5 and 6
(i) 1 (ii) 2 and 3
(i) 4 (ii) 5 and 6
(i) 4 (ii) 2 and 3
What is the total heat flow if 27 grams of steam at 143°C is cooled to become water at 34°C? The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of steam is 2.0 J/g · °C. The heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 kJ/g, and the boiling point of water is 100°C.
2.3 kJ
7.4 kJ
61 kJ
71 kJ
9.8 × 103kJ
A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO2 has a total pressure of 9.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO2?
6.6 atm
With all other factors being equal, which of the following correctly lists intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength?
The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 28.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
226 torr
680 torr
760 torr
505 torr
255 torr
Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?
The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.
The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.
Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.
The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.
Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:
The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
All statements are incorrect.
What is the total heat flow if 28 grams of water at 12°C is cooled to become ice at –19°C? The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of ice is 2.1 J/g · °C. The heat of fusion of ice is 333 J/g, and the freezing point of water is 0.0°C.
1.1 kJ
1.4 kJ
9.4 kJ
10.8 kJ
11.8 kJ
The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 24.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)
543 torr
669 torr
266 torr
217 torr
760 torr
Q5. i a need diagrams
Using the notation scheme for defining manipulator configurations (Section 8.1.2), draw diagrams (similar to Figure 8.1) of the following robots: (a) TRT, (b) VVR, (c) VROT.
Q6. Non-profit organization Propose two te
Non-Profit Organizations
Please respond to the each and every single requested information following in 2-3 thorough paragraphs: (Please provide your resources)
1. Propose two (2) techniquesthat a nonprofit can use to measure management and employee efficiency within its organization.
—Speculate on the major benefitsthat these techniques may have on the organization.
2. Determine whether or not traditional financial and management evaluation ratios such as return on assets (ROA), return on equity (ROE), economic value added (EVA), and market value added (MVA)apply to nonprofits.
Q7. One argument in the debate surround
One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations. In three paragraphs
Globalization’s impact on jobs and wages is an important topic for debate. Discuss the major points for globalization in the jobs and wages debate, and describe how the actions of large multinational corporations affect the issues in the jobs and wages debate. In three paragraphs
Identify the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) three main goals and explain how the WTO differs from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
Summarize each benefit a company might obtain from the globalization of markets.
Explain globalization of production and its benefits. 3 benefits
One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations.
Q8. Stoichiometry Answer
8.39 grams of Zinc (MW=65.39 g/mole) and 12.2 grams of AgNO3 (169.87g/mol) are placed in a flask and react to form zinc (II) nitrate. how many grams of zinc nitrate will form?
Q9. The appraisal process is one step involved in i
The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?
The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?
Q10. Assess the value of branding in health
Module 3 – Case
Branding & Online Marketing
Case Assignment
Your assignment is to write a 4- to 5-page scholarly position essay in which you assess the value of branding in health care. Specifically, under what circumstances do you feel that it is beneficial for health care organizations to use branding?
Can the use of branding have unexpected negative consequences? Explain in detail.
COMMUNICATIONS.
Q1. ASSIGNMENT 8 EN360 Technical Communication
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures”on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Q2. technical commumications
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Part D: Ted Talk Lecture Evaluation
Watch a 10-20 minute TED Talks lecture online (www.ted.com). There are 27 evaluation criteria on the “Checklist for Oral Presentations” below (also found in Chapter 24 of your textbook). Select 10 among them that you believe are most salient for this speaker. Identify strong areas and areas that could have been better. Provide an example for each. (These are skilled speakers, so you’ll probably be highlighting more strengths than weaknesses.)
Grading Rubric
Please refer to the rubric below for the grading criteria for this assignment.
This is the end of Assignment 8.
Q3. EN 360 technical communications
ASSIGNMENT 8
EN360 Technical Communication
Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.
Part A: Email/Text Problems
What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.
Part B: Writing a Process Description
Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.
Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions
Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.
Q4COMS 101 Reading Analysis 3: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)
Question 1
40 out of 40 points
Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
According to one early researcher, we can recall about what percent of a speech immediately after a speech.
According to one early researcher, we recall about what percent of a speech after several days.
The first of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.
The fourth of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.
The number of decibels created by the normal speaking voice.
The phase of listening in which you attach meaning to words.
The phase of listening in which you assess the worth of the speaker’s ideas and determine their importance.
Changing an attitude or behavior to eliminate an inconsistency.
Listeners have the ability to process about this many words per minute.
Most people use about this many words per minute when talking.
Question 2
10 out of 10 points
Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
The background noise we encounter in communication situations.
The attitudes, emotions, beliefs, assumptions, and biases that, as noise, condition our responses in communication situations.
For most serious special-occasion speeches, you should use this style of language?
Speeches that honor and highlight events, institutions, and individuals.
A speech in which demonstrates interest in and enthusiasm about his or her speech.
Q5. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 2: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A
Question 1
30 out of 30 points
Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
Goals that center around specific tasks to be performed.
Goals that relate to the individual’s personal needs and ambitions.
As groups grow in number, the need for this increases.
In this small group format, group members have an informal interchange on the issues in front of an audience.
In this structured small group format, speakers who have expertise in the particular areas give prepared speeches on specified topics.
In this audience-centered small group format, group members respond to audience questions but do not interact with each other.
Making sure group members understand and agree on the problem is part of the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
The ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Proces is to analyze the problem.
Determining criteria for an acceptable solution is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Generating possible solutions is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Choosing the best solution to the problem is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Putting the best solution into effect is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
Evaluating your group’s success or the lack thereof is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.
He stated that the ideal group size is 5-7 members.
He devised a theory of reflective thinking.
Question 2
20 out of 20 points
Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.
o
Question
Selected Match
In the Johari Window, information known to self and to others.
In the Johari Window, information known to others but not to self.
In the Johari Window, information known to self but not to others.
In the Johari Window, information known neither to self nor to others.
The relational dialectic that concerns our need to relate to others yet independent.
The relational dialectic that concerns our needs to share information yet be private.
The relational dialectic that concerns our needs for excitement and uncertain yet stable.
The lose/lose approach to conflict management that is characterized by withdrawal.
The win/lose approach to conflict management in which parties strive to be on the top.
The win/win approach to conflict management in which each person leaves the conflict satisfied with the outcome.
Q6. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest)
Liberty University COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1
Question 1
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
The use of volume, pitch, tone, accent, speaking pace, and silence to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The use of gestures, facial expressions and eye contact to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The use of space to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of touch to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of time or timing to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
The sender’s use of material objects to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.
Social interaction among two or more people, usually in a face-to-face environment, but possibly also in real-time virtual environments.
Interaction among three or more people who come together for a common purpose.
When a speaker formally addresses a group of typically 10 or more individuals in a face-to-face environment where interactivity is possible but generally not practiced.
When people use a media technology to distribute information to a large group of physically detached people.
Question 2
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
A figurative form identifies one thing in a way that symbolically stands for another thing, such as when Martin Luther, in his great hymn, describes God as a mighty fortress
A figurative form explicitly compares two otherwise dissimilar things, usually via the modifiers like or as, such as when the poet Robert Burns wrote, “My love is like a red, red rose.”
A figurative form that alludes to something by either highlighting only one aspect of it or something broader that includes it, such as when journalists use the term Washington as a reference to America’s federal government.
The figurative use of a mild term in place of a harsh term to relay the same basic idea in a more tasteful form, such as when we say that someone “passed into God’s presence” rather than that this someone died.
The figurative use of a harsh term instead of a mild term for an intended effect, such as when one calls a lawyer an “ambulance chaser.”
The figurative ascription of human qualities to something that is not human, such as the Old Testament prophet Isaiah, in his book’s 55th chapter, anticipates the day when the trees of the field will clap their hands.
A statement that appears to be self-refuting but that is, in fact, true or possibly true, such as the statement, “The more things change, the more they stay the same.”
A combination of words that means something different than the words’ literal meaning, such as “You will do well if you play your cards right.”
Words that are used indirectly to signify a secondary meaning that is not patently obvious when the words are taken at face value.
Words that are used forthrightly to signify the person, place, thing, idea, action, or state of being that the words or combination of words evidently symbolize.
Question 3
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
A composite of your beliefs about human origin (where we came from), human nature (what makes us human), human purpose (why we are here), and human destiny (where we are going).
Someone who is aware of and content to live with an inconsistency between the belief system he or she professes and the one he or she practices
Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she chooses to disbelieve in its existence, even though this person has reason for believing that it does exist.
Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she has no reason to know it exists.
A person’s history of interactions with people whose input helps to shape the way he or she sees and acts toward the world.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it promotes the greatest good not for the individual, but for humanity as a whole.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it simply “works” for the person who holds it, regardless of whether it logically consists with anyone else’s experiences and standards.
Systems of belief that people develop on their own, primarily in response to what human standards have taught them to deem believable or acceptable.
Recognizes that God, the timeless, changeless source and sustainer of the universe and the source of all knowledge, discloses otherwise indiscernible foundational truths through Scripture, and that these otherwise hidden disclosures rightly frame and give direction to human questions to make sense of anything, including communication.
A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is unacceptable if it is illogical or if it is at odds with what common human observations tell us is true.
Question 4
10 out of 10 points
Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.
o
Question
Selected Match
Sees the universe as a self-created, self-sustaining machine, consisting of material processes and particles and nothing more than these, that invariably follow the course that physics has blindly programmed it to follow.
Holds that although we come to see the world as we do by the people who influence us through socialization, this neither has to be nor should be so.
Social constructionists who aim to show how social influencers can impact what people become and how privileged groups use this to promote themselves at others’ expense.
The attempt to make sense of human communicative behavior and specific human communications in the light of divine revelation.
Verbal and/or nonverbal behavior manifest God’s love to others in a way that promotes what God values in the world.
Q 7. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4
Question 1
An organizational pattern that focuses on relationships in time is referred to as:
Question 2
____________ function as a reminder of what you plan to say and the order in which you plan to say it and are used during the presentation.
Question 3
Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.
Question 4
All of the sub-points in a speech do not have to be logical extensions from preceding points.
Question 5
Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?
Question 6
“To explain to the class how participating in an athletic sport can bring psychological as well as physical benefits” is an example of a(n):
Question 7
If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?
Question 8
A speech discussing the relationship of industrial pollution to higher cancer rates in the general population would be most effective in what order?
Question 9
Mood is the emotional disposition of the speaker as the speech is being delivered whereas tone refers to the overall feeling you hope to create in your audience.
Question 10
Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the three things you need to do when you “focus attention on topic and speaker”?
Question 11
One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.
Question 12
Quotations can be interwoven into the fabric of the speech without telling your listeners that you are speaking the words of another, but it’s important that you use the quote exactly and attribute it to the writer.
Question 13
Physically involving your audience in your introduction is not an appropriate introductory technique.
Question 14
According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”
Question 15
“This morning I will discuss the scientific, therapeutic, physiological facts and myths about the effects and the effectiveness of alternative medicine” is an example of which function of a speech introduction?
Question 16
Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:
Question 17
The characteristic of spoken language that refers to how ideas are arranged in a sentence is called:
Question 18
Imagery involves creating a vivid description through the use of one or more of our five senses.
Question 19
Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?
Question 20
Often the best humor for speeches comes from your own experiences.
Question 21
Jesse Jackson’s line, “We cannot be what we ought to be if we push dope in our veins, rather than hope in our brains,” is an example of antithesis.
Question 22
The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:
Question 23
Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.
Question 24
Putting too much information on note cards can result in:
Question 25
Which of the following is a guideline for EMPHASIS?
Question 26
Which of the following IS NOT true regarding rate of speech?
Question 27
Which of the following is a guideline for physical movement?
Question 28
According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:
Question 29
Which of the following is an aspect of physical delivery?
Question 30
What should a speaker avoid doing when she or he wishes to engage in effective eye contact during a speech?
Q8. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4
Question 1
The ____________ outline is also known as the full-content outline.
Question 2
If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?
Question 3
The first step in organizing your speech is:
Question 4
Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?
Question 5
If I’m giving a speech about participating in Living History, I may talk about choosing a character, researching the person, developing the speech, and presenting to the various classrooms. The organization of this speech would be considered:
Question 6
Outlining is regarded by our authors as:
Question 7
When presenting a speech on the evaluation of jazz as a musical art form in America, Betsy first spoke about Dixieland jazz, the period of swing followed by be-bop. She concluded her remarks with comments on progressive and fusion sounds. Betsy used which organizational pattern in her speech?
Question 8
Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.
Question 9
According to your authors, the first few minutes are critical to the success of the entire speech.
Question 10
An effective speaker will quickly establish a reason for audience members to listen. This part of the introduction is referred to as:
Question 11
According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”
Question 12
One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.
Question 13
Never use your conclusion to connect your speech topic to a broader context or societal issue.
Question 14
According to your authors, which of the following is not considered a technique to use in the introduction of a speech?
Question 15
Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the ten introduction techniques?
Question 16
Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:
Question 17
The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:
Question 18
Using signals when writing is just as important as using signals in a speech.
Question 19
Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.
Question 20
Parallel structure refers to the arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form.
Question 21
Jargon can be used effectively if you are sure the members of your audience understand your references.
Question 22
If I’m talking about my cat, and instead of saying, “I have a cat,” I say, “I have a white, long-haired, 12-year-old cat that weighs 20 pounds,” I am following what guideline regarding language usage?
Question 23
Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?
Question 24
A(n) ______________ speech involves the least amount of preparation.
Question 25
The most appropriate mode of delivery for students in a public speaking class is memorization.
Question 26
According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:
Question 27
Which of the following is a characteristic of a manuscript speech?
Question 28
All of the following are relevant aspects of speech preparation. However, the key to successful manuscript speaking is ___________.
Question 29
One of the performance guidelines for memorizing speeches is to memorize small sections of your speech at a time.
Question 30
Which of the following is TRUE about gestures?.
Q9. COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2
Question 1
Which is not included in the body of the speech?
Question 2
Plagiarism involves using another’s work, words, or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.
Question 3
A _________________ expresses your speech’s main point in one complete sentence.
Question 4
Which of the following strategies will help to reduce speech tension most effectively?
Question 5
The most effective way to organize your speech is to divide your message into four parts: opening remarks, thesis, body, and conclusion.
Question 6
Jessie referred to an study, reported on ScienceDaily, in which communication professors Amy Nathanson and Eric Rasmussen found that early TV exposure harms parent-child communication. Jessie offered a quote from Nathanson and Rasmussen state this point. This is an example of which kind of support?
Question 7
Which of the following is a literal analogy?
Question 8
The specific purpose of your speech is ____________.
Question 9
Which of the following is an example of a specific purpose?
Question 10
____________ involves using other people’s works, words or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.
Question 11
Burt, attending a Midwestern university, delivered his first speech in his public speaking class on the growing numbers of automobile accidents in Italy. The problem with his speech, however, essentially was:
Question 12
“Ornate ambiguity” is the term used for a speaker who plans to be vague, sketchy, and considerably abstract.
Question 13
Which of the following IS NOT one of the types of informative speaking?
Question 14
“Show trends” is one of the suggestions provided when discussing which goal of informative speaking?
Question 15
This type of speech deals with abstract subjects such as ideas, theories, and principles.
Question 16
The notion of avoiding information overload refers to which goal of informative speaking?
Question 17
Saying “first, “second,” “third,” as you cover your three main points is an example of:
Question 18
A speech that paints a picture of an event, person, concept, and so on.
Question 19
Which of the following is the definition of a speech of description?
Question 20
Guidelines for the informative speaking goal of ____________ include questioning the source of the information, considering the timeliness of the information.
Question 21
___________________ is the process of preparing and delivering messages through verbal and nonverbal symbols to individuals or groups in order to alter, strengthen, or maintain attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors.
Question 22
The two overall persuasive goals are:
Question 23
“Consider now how you can enjoy retirement lounging in the sunshine of a warm climate, secure financially, and with both a mind and a soul for pleasure and comfort from making good investments during your working years.” This statement is found in which step in the motivated sequence?
Question 24
In the satisfaction step of the motivated sequence, you describe the problem you will address in your speech.
Question 25
In all cases of inductive reasoning, you can never be sure that your conclusions are absolutely accurate.
Question 26
Of the three parts of an argument, the most difficult part to understand is often the:
Question 27
The statement, “Malnutrition is a growing problem worldwide, especially in Asia,” is:
Question 28
Staging refers to the sequence of interlinking claims that establish the content and force of your position.
Question 29
“Dynamism” in credibility studies refers to logical precision.
Question 30
The part of an argument that links the evidence with the statement (claim) is called the:
Q10. COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3 (Already Graded A)
COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3
Question 1 Which of the following is not true regarding occupation as a demographic characteristic?
Question 2 Which of the following was not listed as one ofthe five variables related to “Who are my listeners?‘
Question 3 questions limit responses to several choices, yielding valuable information about such demographic factors a age, education, and income.
Question 4 Which question is NOT a key question the text indicates is essential in audience analysis?
Question 5 Audience expectations are rarely defined for you by the speaking invitation.
Question 6 The first step in using a questionnaire is designing specific questions that are likelyto get you the information you need.
Question 7 Attitudes are predispositions to act in a particular way that influence individuals responses to objects, events, and situations.
Question 8 Which of the following is true about “avoid the age gap” when ma kingthe speaker—audience connection?
Question 9 When trying to influence listeners, it is easier to change their attitudes than their beliefs or values.
Question 10 A spea ker must be inclusive to avoid unfairly categorizing or stereotyping members of the audience.
Question 11 If you were interested in discovering material from a comprehensive source on art and artists in your preparation for an informative speech. which of the fol lowing sou rces is most likely to provide you with the best information?
Question 12 Identifi’ the best description of what research is:
Question 13 An effective library search strategy moves you from the most specific information to be located in governmental sources to the very general information found in encyclopedias.
Question 14 A credible speaker is perceived as a fan
Question 15 lf you use a diagram, illustration, or graph from some source, you need to cite that source during your speech.
Question 16 If you decide to interview, make sure you contact the person in advance, prepare questions in advance, develop questions in a logical order, and:
Question 17 Message credibility is the extent to which a speaker is perceived as a competent spokesperson.
Question 18 Which of the following IS NOT one of the four steps in developing a research strategy?
Question 19 A website that is(has) is reliable and error-free.
Question 20 Message credibility is defined as
Question 21 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are 60 percent more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images.
Question 22 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as a function of presentational aids?
Question 23 A key advantage in using presentational aids in a speech is:
Question 24 Visual aids fall into four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?
Question 25 While other aspects of your speech should be audience-centered. the presentational aid is designed specifically to help the speaker.
Question 26 Research has shown that three days after an event, people retain ‘IU percent of what they heard from an oral presentation, but they retain 35 percent of a visual presentation. Question 27 If you see audiences looking at your presentational aid as though asking, “What does THAT mean?” then you have violated which of the criteria for a presentational aid?
Question 28 When using two-dimensional presentational aids, you want to ask yourself what its purpose is and if it will make the speech better. This question relates to which criteria for using two—dimensional presentational aids?
Question 29 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images.
Question 30 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as one ofthe general criteria for using presentational aids?
ARCHITECTURE
Q1. Architecture, Building and Planning-
Get creative. Write about what inspires you. Add photo to support your idea.
Q2. Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living
Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living in the 1930s. Your task is to go back in time and interview Elizabeth. The focus of your interview is twofold. First, you are to discern from Elizabeth what it meant to be a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s, how that shaped her worldview, and how America understood fundamentalism at the time. Second, you are to learn from Elizabeth how American religion has changed over time. How is being a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s the same and/or different from being a Puritan in the Colonial period? What, if anything, has changed? Again, your goal is to help the modern reader to understand the religious milieu and fervor that would have shaped Elizabeth’s world.
The script of your interview should be written in full; showing both the questions you would ask and the responses Elizabeth might provide. You must ask a minimum of 5 questions. Insert citations in the interview script so the modern reader might go and learn more about life as a Puritan and/or the religious setting of the period. You should list those sources at the end of your interview document. Your interview should use a minimum of 3 sources and should be between 2-3 pages long.
Q3. ACC-281-Week-5-Final-Paper
Focus of the Final Paper
Write an 8 to 10 page Case Analysis of the following article (which can be found in the Ashford Online ProQuest database):
Souza, M. & McCarty, B. (2007). From bottom to top: How one provider retooled its collections [electronic version]. Healthcare Financial Management, 61(9), 67-73.
Include the following:
1) Complete summary of the case study that identifies the key problems and issues, provides background information, relevant facts, the solution employed, and the results achieved.
2) Identify and explain the accounting practices California Sutter Health used in defining and solving its collection problems. Develop an alternative solution based on your own research using 3 to 5 academic sources from journals, professional organizations, and websites.
3) State your informed opinion of the approach used by California Sutter Health, and provide support using concepts from your research and personal experience.
Q4. BCOM 230 Week 1 Individual Assign
Reviewthe chosen organization’s philosophy, mission, vision, and values statements. This statement identifies the organization’s espoused values. Research the University Library or the Internet to locate articles about the organization’s enacted values.
Writea 350- to 700-word paper based on your review and research. Complete the following in your paper:
Describe the culture of the organization.
Discuss the types of communication this organization uses for internal and external communication.
The extent to which communication in an organization is determined by the organization’s culture.
Do the espoused values of the selected organization align with its enacted values?
Q5. Go to YouTube, and search for an epis
Go to YouTube, and search for an episode of UnderCover Boss. Imagine you are the CEO of the company in the selected episode.Compare two (2) job positions from the episode and perform a job analysis of each position.
Describe your method of collecting the information for the job analysis (i.e., one-on-one, interview, survey, etc.).
Create a job description from the job analysis.
Justify your belief that the job analysis and job description are in compliance with state and federal regulations.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Q6. Parkway Distributors is a wholesale fi
Smith Construction is building a warehouse for Raymond. The construction firm routinely leaves certain construction equipment at the building site overnight and on weekends. Late one night, Fred, age 10, began playing on some of Smith’s construction equipment. Fred accidentally released the brakes of a tractor on which he was playing, and the tractor rolled down a hill and smashed into the building under construction. Fred was severely injured in the accident. Fred’s parents sue both Smith Construction & Raymond for the injury.
What legal doctrine is applicable in this case? Explain.
–
Parkway Distributors is a wholesale firm that employs several outside salespersons. Emily, a salesperson employed by Parkway Distributors, was involved in an accident with another motorist while she was using her car to make regular sales calls for Parkway distributors. Emily and the motorist are seriously injured in the accident. The motorist sues both Emily and Parkway Distributors for the injury based on negligence.
Is there a legal basis for Parkway Distributors to be held legally liable for the injury to the motorist? Explain.
Whirlwind Mowers manufactures and sells power lawn mowers to the public and distributes the products through its own dealers. Andrew is a homeowner who has purchased a power mower from an authorized dealer on the basis of the dealer’s recommendation that “the mower is the best one available to do the job.” Andrew was cutting his lawn when the mower blade flew off and seriously injured his leg.
Andrew sues Whirlwind Mowers and asks for damages based on negligence in producing the power mower. Is Whirlwind Mowers guilty of negligence? Explain.
Q7. HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet
HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet
SYSTOLIC AND DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE OF FEMALES
The following table represents systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements of 40 females.
A) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to find the linear correlation coefficient for the systolic and diastolic measurements.
B) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to determine the linear regression equation that uses the systolic pressure to predict the diastolic pressure.
C) What is the best predicted value for diastolic pressure given that a woman has a systolic level of 100?
Q8. HLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment
HLT 310V A Spiritualit
HLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment
Q9. Hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 W
hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T score
Q10. Who is an Entrepreneur Where do
Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are? And, describe the creative destruction process.
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. (T/F, ANSWERS AT THE END OF THE PAPER)
____ 1. Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked increase in nuclear size.
____ 2. A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.
____ 3. For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.
____ 4. Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas: growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability, angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis.
____ 5. There is no current evidence that associates obesity with cancer formation.
____ 6. The term “neoplasm” can refer to a benign tumor.
____ 7. The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.
____ 8. Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.
____ 10. Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I.
____ 11. Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.
____ 12. A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves cold drinks.
____ 13. Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors.
____ 14. Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for both Graves’ disease and hypothyroidism.
____ 15. Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.
____ 16. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the glands during surgery.
____ 17. Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes.
____ 18. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
____ 19. Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS) than in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
____ 20. When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart become more extensive and numerous.
____ 21. Veins are less compliant than arteries.
____ 22. Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.
____ 23. Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.
____ 24. While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.
____ 25. Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.
____ 26. Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.
____ 27. Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.
____ 28. Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.
____ 29. Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.
____ 30. Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.
____ 31. Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake, most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.
____ 32. In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.
____ 33. When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.
____ 34. Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus.
____ 35. An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.
____ 36. Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.
____ 37. Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.
____ 38. Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 39. Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?
a.
Osteogenic sarcoma
b.
Basal cell carcinoma
c.
Multiple myeloma
d.
Adenocarcinoma
____ 40. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
a.
Blood vessels
b.
Epithelium cells
c.
Connective tissue
d.
Glandular tissue
____ 41. What are characteristics of cancer in situ?
a.
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b.
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c.
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
d.
Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.
____ 42. Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of:
a.
dysplasia.
b.
hyperplasia.
c.
myoplasia.
d.
anaplasia.
____ 43. What are tumor cell markers?
a.
Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells
b.
Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
c.
Cytokines produced against cancer cells
d.
Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy
____ 44. How are tumor cell markers used?
a.
To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer
b.
To treat certain types of cancer
c.
To predict where cancers will develop
d.
To screen individuals at high risk for cancer
____ 45. Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that:
a.
cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy.
b.
an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.
c.
tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
d.
apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.
____ 46. What is autocrine stimulation?
a.
The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply
b.
The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors
c.
The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
d.
The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use
____ 47. Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?
a.
A tumor suppressor gene
b.
A growth promoting gene
c.
An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth
d.
A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth
____ 48. What are oncogenes?
a.
Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
b.
Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue
c.
Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue
d.
Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
____ 49. Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a.
Point mutation
b.
Chromosome translocation
c.
Gene amplification
d.
Chromosome fusion
____ 50. In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a.
Point mutation
b.
Chromosome fusion
c.
Gene amplification
d.
Chromosome translocation
____ 51. What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?
a.
Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
b.
The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.
c.
Genetic amplification causes the growth.
d.
Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.
____ 52. Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes?
a.
Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent
b.
Because the first “hit” stops tissue growth and the second “hit” is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth
c.
Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two “hits” to effect carcinogenesis
d.
Because the first “hit” is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation
____ 53. By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?
a.
By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
b.
By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies
c.
By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs
d.
By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes
____ 54. What are characteristics of benign tumors?
a.
They invade local tissues.
b.
They spread through lymph.
c.
They cause systemic symptoms.
d.
They have a low mitotic index.
____ 55. Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
a.
Liposarcoma, lipoma
b.
Lipoma, liposarcoma
c.
Adisarcoma, adipoma
d.
Adipoma, adisarcoma
____ 56. Most human cancers appear to arise via:
a.
autosomal recessive gene inheritance.
b.
spontaneous gene mutations.
c.
X-linked recessive gene inheritance.
d.
autosomal dominant gene inheritance.
____ 57. Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except:
a.
lung.
b.
skin.
c.
bladder.
d.
kidney.
e.
pancreas.
____ 58. The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:
a.
herpes simplex virus type 6.
b.
herpes simplex virus type 2.
c.
human papillomavirus.
d.
human immunodeficiency virus.
____ 59. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
a.
Ovarian
b.
Uterine
c.
Cervical
d.
Vaginal
____ 60. Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
a.
Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses
b.
Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses
c.
Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses
d.
Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses
____ 61. Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?
a.
Women over 45 years
b.
Women who never had children
c.
Women who had a high body mass index
d.
Woman who smoked for more than 10 years
____ 62. Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?
a.
Skin, lung, and pancreatic
b.
Colon, liver, and lung
c.
Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic
d.
Bladder, skin, and kidney
____ 63. How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?
a.
By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage
b.
By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations
c.
By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations
d.
By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers
____ 64. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
a.
Proto-oncogenes
b.
Oncogenes
c.
Tumor suppressor genes
d.
Growth promoting genes
____ 65. Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.
a.
negative-feedback
b.
positive-feedback
c.
neural
d.
physiologic
____ 66. Hormones are effective communicators because they:
a.
are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.
b.
increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.
c.
are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.
d.
decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.
____ 67. Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?
a.
Thyroxine (T4)
b.
Aldosterone
c.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d.
Insulin
____ 68. How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?
a.
Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier
b.
Free in an unbound, water-soluble form
c.
Bound to a water-soluble binding protein
d.
Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry
____ 69. Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor?
a.
Calcium
b.
Inositol triphosphate (IP3)
c.
Diacylglycerol (DAG)
d.
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
____ 70. Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?
a.
Angiotensin II
b.
Thyroxine
c.
Estrogen
d.
Testosterone
e.
Aldosterone
____ 71. Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells. It is highly regulated because it:
a.
is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.
b.
is continuously synthesized.
c.
acts as a second messenger.
d.
carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.
____ 72. Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?
a.
When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour
b.
When serum osmolality is increased
c.
When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased
d.
When vasopressin is given pharmacologically
____ 73. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
a.
Hypothalamus
b.
Anterior pituitary
c.
Mammary glands
d.
Posterior pituitary
____ 74. Where is oxytocin synthesized?
a.
Hypothalamus
b.
Paraventricular nuclei
c.
Anterior pituitary
d.
Posterior pituitary
____ 75. Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?
a.
Thyroxine
b.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
c.
Growth hormone
d.
Insulin
____ 76. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
a.
It increases serum calcium.
b.
It decreases serum calcium.
c.
It decreases serum magnesium.
d.
It increases serum magnesium.
____ 77. Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?
a.
Potassium
b.
Calcium
c.
Sodium
d.
Magnesium
____ 78. Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?
a.
Increased triiodothyronine (T3)
b.
Increased thyroxine (T4)
c.
Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
d.
Increased calcitonin
____ 79. Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:
a.
tubules of nephrons.
b.
thyroid gland.
c.
glomeruli of nephrons.
d.
smooth and skeletal muscles.
____ 80. A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit. This patient’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?
a.
The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
b.
The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.
c.
The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.
d.
The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.
____ 81. What are actions of glucocorticoids?
a.
Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis
b.
Fat storage and glucose use
c.
Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization
d.
Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism
____ 82. What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?
a.
Hypokalemia and alkalosis
b.
Hyperkalemia and alkalosis
c.
Hyperkalemia and acidosis
d.
Hypokalemia and acidosis
____ 83. What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?
a.
It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.
b.
It directly increases calcium reabsorption.
c.
It directly increases sodium reabsorption.
d.
It directly increases water reabsorption.
____ 84. Which of the following is an expected change in an older patient?
a.
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal
b.
Triiodothyronine (T3) level below normal
c.
Cortisol level above normal
d.
Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) level above normal
____ 85. Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:
a.
G-protein–linked.
b.
ion channel.
c.
second messenger.
d.
tyrosine-kinase linked.
____ 86. What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
a.
Solute retention and water retention
b.
Solute retention and water loss
c.
Solute dilution and water retention
d.
Solute dilution and water loss
____ 87. The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?
a.
Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality
b.
Serum K+ 5 and urine hyperosmolality
c.
Serum Na+ 120 and serum hypo-osmolality
d.
Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality
____ 88. A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:
a.
neurogenic diabetes insipidus.
b.
syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
c.
psychogenic polydipsia.
d.
osmotically induced diuresis.
____ 89. Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus (DI)?
a.
Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary
b.
Organic lesion of the thalamus
c.
Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary
d.
Organic lesion of the renal tubules
____ 90. If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).
a.
neurogenic
b.
nephrogenic
c.
psychogenic
d.
ischemic
____ 91. Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?
a.
Urine specific gravity is low.
b.
Serum sodium is low.
c.
Urine protein is low.
d.
Serum total protein is low.
____ 92. The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:
a.
neurogenic.
b.
psychogenic
c.
nephrogenic.
d.
ischemic.
____ 93. Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:
a.
a pituitary adenoma.
b.
hypothalamic hyposecretion.
c.
autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.
d.
a neurohypophysial tumor.
____ 94. What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?
a.
Panhypopituitarism
b.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency
c.
Hypopituitarism
d.
Anterior pituitary failure
____ 95. How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?
a.
The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.
b.
The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.
c.
The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.
d.
The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.
____ 96. Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?
a.
Cushing syndrome
b.
Acromegaly
c.
Gigantism
d.
Myxedema
____ 97. What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia?
a.
Posterior pituitary adenoma
b.
Thymoma
c.
Prolactinoma
d.
Growth hormone adenoma
____ 98. How does Graves’ disease develop?
a.
A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
b.
A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue
c.
A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
d.
An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter
____ 99. What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?
a.
Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 5’8″
b.
Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
c.
Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs
d.
Constipation and amenorrhea
____ 100. What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?
a.
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
b.
Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
c.
Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
d.
Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin
Q2 DDBA 8151: Organizational Leadership: Doctoral Theory and Practice
To prepare for this Assignment, review this week’s Learning Resources and select four leadership theories. Search the Walden Library for additional peer-reviewed, scholarly resources about your selected leadership theories. You should use both the articles in the Learning Resources and additional scholarly resources in your evaluation.
Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:
The name of the theory
The year the theory was introduced
The theorist/author
Key components of the theory
For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.
Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment. Also, refer to the Week 3 Assignment Rubric for specific grading elements and criteria.
The assignment will be submitted to SafeAssign.
Q3. Need help with DB post
Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs
Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.
Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.
Important Concepts from Chapter 13:
Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on a postsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.
Assignment:
Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.
Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?
Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs
Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.
Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.
Important Concepts from Chapter 13:
Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of apostsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on apostsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.
Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?
Q4. PAPER ON DISEASE PROCESS MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE
PAPER CAN BE ON BREAST CANCER, LYME DIESEASE OR OVERIAN CANCER
This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org
Paper on Disease Process Instructions
The focus of this course has been the structure and function of the human body. A disease process results when there is a disorder of this structure or function.This paper will be a 900-1,200-word research-based paper in current APA format focusing on a disease process of your choice. The paper must include at least 2 scholarly references in addition to the course textbooks and materials. The disease chosen must involve at least three organ systems and the effect of the disease on these systems must be detailed in the paper. If you choose a broad disease process like cancer, you will need to specify the type, such as pancreatic cancer. The body is interrelated and the effects of a given disease will often present with common symptoms. The effect of the disease on the body’s efforts to maintain homeostasis should be addressed, as should all other given parameters.
Content and Outline
Use the following headings when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading in APA format) within your paper.
Introduction
Indicate the disease to be discussed
Indicate the organ systems affected
Provide a brief overview of disease
Description
Describe disease process
Explain disease effect on organ systems
Discuss effect on homeostasis and the body as a whole
III. Diagnosis
Outline how the disease is diagnosed
Include common symptoms
Discuss the main causes of the disease
Treatment
Discuss treatment and management of the disease
Outline steps for prevention of diseasae (if possible)
Conclusion
Provide a summary statement for your paper.
Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.
Length
This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
Format
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org
Sources
Your papaer must include at least 2 scholarly sources in addition the course textbooks and materials.
Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed.
Citation
Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is a serious academic infringement. Avoid it at all costs. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. Note that you are fully responsible for any plagiarism detected by the instructor of this course. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.
Submission
Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document.
Submit your Disease Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
Q5. Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3
Q6. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.
Question 2
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 3
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 6
Interspecific competition is defined as
Question 7
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 8
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
Question 9
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 10
The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.
Question 11
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
Question 12
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 13
An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.
Question 14
The term “systematics” refers to
Question 15
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 16
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 17
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 18
The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it
Question 19
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 20
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 21
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 22
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 23
The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it
Question 24
During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.
Question 25
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 2
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 3
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 6
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 7
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 8
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 9
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 10
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 11
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 12
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 13
The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be
Question 14
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 15
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
Question 16
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 17
Interspecific competition is defined as
Question 18
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
Question 19
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
Question 20
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 21
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Question 22
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 23
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
Question 24
The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its
Question 25
A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it
Question 2
From the species level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?
Question 3
From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?
Question 4
Which of the following choices names one of the various zones found in a lake?
Question 5
Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by
Question 6
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
Question 7
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
Question 8
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
Question 9
Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.
Question 10
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
Question 11
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
Question 12
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
Question 13
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 14
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 15
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
Question 16
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
Question 17
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
Question 18
The microbe, Pyrodictiumoccultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it
Question 19
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 20
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 21
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
Question 22
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 23
Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.
Question 24
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Question 25
In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Q7. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
Question 1
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
Question 2
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 3
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
Question 5
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
Question 6
The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.
Question 7
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
Question 8
At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?
Question 9
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
Question 10
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
Question 11
In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
Question 12
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each ot
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
·Question 13
The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be
·Question 14
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
·Question 15
Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because
·Question 16
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
·Question 17
Interspecific competition is defined as
·Question 18
When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed
·Question 19
Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?
·Question 20
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
·Question 21
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
·Question 22
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
·Question 23
Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
·Question 24
The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its
·Question 25
A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed
Q8. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University
· Question 1
Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.
· Question 2
The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
· Question 3
The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it
· Question 4
Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as
· Question 5
The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
· Question 6
Interspecific competition is defined as
· Question 7
Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by
· Question 8
The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
· Question 9
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 10
The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.
· Question 11
A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between
· Question 12
Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 13
An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.
· Question 14
The term “systematics” refers to
· Question 15
Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
· Question 16
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
· Question 17
A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
· Question 18
The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it
· Question 19
Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?
· Question 20
A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group
· Question 21
In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by
· Question 22
An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .
· Question 23
The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it
· Question 24
During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.
· Question 25
The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
Q9. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
· Question 1
The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by
· Question 2
Directional selection
· Question 3
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
· Question 4
To a Darwinist, a beneficial mutation
· Question 5
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
· Question 6
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
· Question 7
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
· Question 8
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
· Question 9
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
· Question 10
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
· Question 11
Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of
· Question 12
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
· Question 13
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
· Question 14
One popular evolutionary model for the origin of flight in vertebrates is that flight evolved in
· Question 15
The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.
· Question 16
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
· Question 17
Directional selection has been used to
· Question 18
Stabilizing selection
· Question 19
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
· Question 20
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
· Question 21
Which stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record appears least likely to involve any biological change in populations with time?
· Question 22
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
· Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
· Question 24
In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.
· Question 25
Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 2
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
·Question 3
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 4
Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that
·Question 5
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 6
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
·Question 7
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
·Question 8
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 9
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 10
Stabilizing selection
·Question 11
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 12
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 18
Directional selection has been used to
·Question 19
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
·Question 20
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 21
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 22
Directional selection
·Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 24
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 25
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 2
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 3
In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.
·Question 4
Which of the following represents three classes of mutations, each of which affects the evolutionary process differently?
·Question 5
Both the theist and the naturalist come to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 6
The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if
·Question 7
The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.
·Question 8
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 9
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 10
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 11
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 12
One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that
·Question 13
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 14
Directional selection
·Question 15
Stabilizing selection
·Question 16
The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by
·Question 17
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 18
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 19
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
·Question 20
The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be described as
·Question 21
One important value that disruptive selection can have to a natural population is that it
·Question 22
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 23
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 24
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 25
The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to
Q10. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University
·Question 1
In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
·Question 2
Charles Darwin’s view of the species was
·Question 3
Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:
·Question 4
Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that
·Question 5
One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
·Question 6
Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that
·Question 7
Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
·Question 8
Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?
·Question 9
Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed
·Question 10
Stabilizing selection
·Question 11
Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?
·Question 12
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that
·Question 13
Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
·Question 14
To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
·Question 15
In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is
·Question 16
One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA
·Question 17
Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
·Question 18
Directional selection has been used to
·Question 19
Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.
·Question 20
Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because
·Question 21
Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as
·Question 22
Directional selection
·Question 23
The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because
·Question 24
Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?
·Question 25
The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.
COMPUTER SCIENCE.
Q1. CIS 210 Assignment 2: Use Cases
Prepare a 5-6 page paper in which you:
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case, complete with typical and alternate courses, that documents the event of a bank customer withdrawing money from an ATM.
·Illustrate the use case using Visio or a similar product.
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account deposit. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.
·Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account transfer. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.
·Identify and explain at least one (1) ethical issue that the use case exposes in connection with the development or use of the ATM system.
·Research and cite at least three (3) authoritative academic sources.
Q2. Network Planning Assignment
Network Planning Assignment
Overview
The main objectives of this assignment are:
· To help students gain a good understanding of the IP (Internet Protocol), which is the major underlying technology of the Internet.
· To help students to understand the importance of subnet and routing of IP address.
· To encourage students to conduct an independent investigation into IP related topics from books, the Internet and through practical investigation.
Engagement with this assignment should help students to understand the major underlying concepts of the Internet world.
Scenario
You have been appointed as a Network System Administrator by the Australian government to allocate public IP Version 4 (IPv4) addresses and build a routing table for edge routers to connect the Australian states as shown in Figure 1.
The IPv4 is an exhaustive list of IPv4 addresses for current Internet users in the world. However, in this scenario you have the liberty to use the entire available unreserved public IPv4 addresses for the Internet users in Australia.
R2
R1
QLD
NT
WA
R4
R3
SA
NSW
R5
VIC
R6
TAS
Figure 1: Edge routers R1 – R6 connecting different Australian states.
Tasks
The major task is to allocate the unreserved public IPv4 addresses to different states in Australia based on the Internet users in those states. The number of Internet users for Australian states are given below:
New South Wales (NSW) : 6 Million
Victoria (VIC) : 4 Million
Queensland (QLD) : 3 Million
Western Australia (WA) : 2 Million
South Australia (SA) : 1 Million
Tasmania (TAS) : 300 Thousand
Northern Territory (NT) : 150 Thousand
The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:
§ Only unreserved public IPv4 address should be used for allocation.
§ Each state should have unique set of addresses – no address or set of addresses can be reassigned for any other state.
§ You should use only the classless IPv4 addressing in the assignment.
§ The number of allocated addresses for each state should not exceed by 20% of the specified Internet users for that particular state. For instance, the allocated addresses for Tasmania should not exceed 360 Thousand addresses.
§ It is allowed to use one or more subnets to achieve the number of required address for a given state.
The minor task is to create a routing table for edge routers only for the state NT, WA and SA. The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:
§ The routing table should be minimal with no redundant routes in the table.
§ Any packets from the source (NT or WA or SA) should take minimal route to reach the destination (NT or WA or SA).
§ Identify the Network Interface Card Address to connect NT, WA and SA.
Recommended Readings
The required materials for this assignment are covered from Week 4 onwards. It is highly recommended to read the following resources to complete the assignment:
§ Topic 5 – IP settings and configuration in Moodle resource
§ IP address (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address)
§ Routing concepts: How to read the Routing Table (https://www.ictshore.com/free-ccna-course/ routing-table-fundamentals/
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
· K1. Describe and explain the role and function of network connectivity in current computing.
· K2. Describe and explain the principles of communication in networks.
· K3. Describe the role and functionality of hardware and software entities that contribute to the network
communications.
· K4. Describe and explain the protocols and interactions that implement network communications.
· K6. Describe fundamental aspects of cloud computing.
· A1. Apply networking architecture knowledge to analyze the networking needs of business.
Assessment Details
All works submitted must be authored by the individual student submitting the work or where material from other sources is included it must be referenced using APA referencing.
Please note it is highly unlikely two students can have the same set of addresses allocated for a given state. Students found to have plagiarised will be dealt with according to university plagiarism policy (https://federation.edu.au/current-students/learning-and-study/online-help-with/ plagiarism).
Submission
Students are required to use the template, along with references, given in the Appendix A to complete the assignment. The completed template with your name and student number (3 pages plus reference page only) should be submitted through Turnitin in Moodle by Week 10 – refer course description for exact due date and time.
Marking Guidelines
IP address for each state (7 x 9 marks)
63 Marks
Subnet mask for each state (7 x 4 marks)
28 Marks
Allocation not more than 20% (7 x 2 marks)
14 Marks
Routing Table for each 3 edge routers (3 x 11 marks)
33 Marks
Router Link (NIC) address for 3 edge routers (12 x 1 mark)
12 Marks
Total marks
150 Marks
The total marks for this assignment is 150 (15% Weighting for the course).
The marks will be available in Moodle and in FDLMarks by the end of week 12 of the semester.
IP Address (NT)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Appendix A
IP Address (SA)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (TAS)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Page 1: Insert IP address and the Subnet Mask in the box provided for each state
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
IP Address (WA)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (QLD)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (NSW)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
IP Address (VIC)
Subnet Mask
Number of Address
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
Page 2: Insert routing table entry in the box for 3 edge routers
Routing Table for R1
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
Routing Table for R2
R1
R2
Routing Table for R3
R3
Destination Network
Interface
Next Hop
WA
NT
NSW
QLD
VIC
TAS
SA
Page 3: Insert the IP address for the Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect NT, WA and SA
Router
NIC
IP Address
R1
#5
R1
#8
R1
#6
R1
#7
R1
#7
R2
#4
R2
#2
R2
#3
R2
#1
R3
#9
R3
#10
R3
#11
R3
#12
R2
R3
R1
NIC #6
NIC #1
NIC #2
NIC #3
NIC #4
NIC #5
NIC #8
NIC #11
NIC #12
NIC #9
NIC #10
NIC #7
Q3. Application 7: Johari Window Reflection
The Johari Window is a model that we use to understand and frame some of the important skills explored in HD205, including self-disclosure, feedback, self-awareness and self-management. The ultimate goal of using this model is to appropriately enlarge the open area by disclosing information or asking for feedback. Remember that the open pane includes all information known to self and known to others. When we expand our open pane and decrease our hidden and blind panes, this allows us to make deeper connections with those around us and we will be more productive, cooperative, and effective when working together. People who have a large open pane are usually easier to talk to, practice open and honest communication and get along well with others.
The open pane expands into the hidden pane through self-disclosure about ourselves. Expansion could be through sharingThis could be one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations. Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories. Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment.
The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people.
Part 1 – Focus on Decreasing the Hidden Pane or the Blind Pane: The purpose of this stretch is for you to mindfully expand the open area of your Johari Window and thereby skillfully shrink the blind or hidden panes. You have the option to choose eitherfrom the hidden or blind pane as an area in which you wishwork.
If you wish to expand your open pane by decreasing your hidden pane, this is done through self-disclosure to another person. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and tell them something that you typically keep hidden. Expansion could be through sharing one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations. Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories. Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment; yRemember that you are at choice about the appropriate level of disclosure. Make the stretch meaningful and powerful by choosing someone to work with that deserves to know more about you.
ü The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. .
If you choose to expand your open pane through decreasing your blind pane, please fthis happens by asking for feedback. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and ask them for feedback about some aspect of yourself. This could be about your contribution to a work team, class project, study group or living situation. It could be about how you show up in a personal or professional relationship. You could choose to speak with a parent, sibling or professor or someone else. You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people. Choose someone that you really value their opinion and ask them about their perspective on some area of your life that is important for you to gain information about. When asking for feedback, use the active listening skills that have been previously discussed in class. This should be meaningful conversation rather than a quick “drive-by” feedback session.
Part 2 – Stretch Reflection: Please spend time reflecting on the questions below and answer each of the following prompts. A recommendation is that the length of your responses should be approximately 500 – 600 words in length, total.
Prompts:
In your own words define and describe the four panes of the Johari Window.
During this stretch, which pane did you choose to decrease? Describe your experience during the stretch and how it relates to that specific pane.
From the six principles of ACT (expansion, defusion, observer self, connection, committed action, and values), which one(s) supported you in expanding your open pane? How specifically did you implement this principle during the stretch and how did practicing this concept assist you?
Q4. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge
You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.
Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.
To: Replace with name
From: Replace with name
Date: Replace with date
Subject: Replace with subject of memo
Introduction
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Proposed Information System
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Figure 2. Title (Source of data citation)
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Data Management
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Data Types
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Storage Methods
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Data Quality
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Transition of System Functions
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Evidence of Feasibility
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References
American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.
Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.
Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-
Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.
Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism:Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm
Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html
Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database
Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13
Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.
Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts
Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox
Hierarchy Charts
In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.
you will create a hierarchy chart.
Creating a Hierarchy Chart
Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.
Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:
Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.
Support your responses with appropriate examples.
Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.
Submission Details
Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.
Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox
Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design
Assignment 1
2018 Sem01
Overview
You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment requires an understanding of:
Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces
Timelines and Expectations
Percentage Value of Task: 20%
Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)
Minimum time expectation: 20 hours
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system
Assessment Details
FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.
You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.
FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.
FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.
Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.
Submission
You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:
A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
Use Cases summarizing the requirements
Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
a Class Diagram of the intended system
a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.
o Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams
o Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment
Details.
Marking Criteria/Rubric
Task
Max Marks
Obtained Marks
Requirements Analysis and Design
Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program
10
A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
10
A Class Diagram of the intended system
10
A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.
10
Development of Code
A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:
Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments
5
Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.
10
A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)
5
Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available
25
Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions
5
Reflection on Learning
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.
10
Total
100
Scaled to 20
20
Feedback
Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.
Plagiarism:
This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.
It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.
Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.
Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions
Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.
Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.
Launching the HTTP Simulator
Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.
Main Commands Description
HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.
Command
Description
GET
Get data for URL
HEAD
Get header for URL
POST
Append data to URL
PUT
Send data to URL
Response Codes
HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.
Code
Description
200 OK
Command completed successfully
301 MOVED
Requested URL has moved to another location
400 ERROR
The command encountered an error
Applet Interface
The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).
The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.
The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.
Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY
This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.
Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
2. In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command
[SR1]Remove all comments in paper before submitting. One way to do this, right click on each comment, select ‘Delete Comment’.
[SR2]The CEO challenge is for an internal employee provide recommendation of new IT system to remove or bring the Shadow IT projects under the IT department.
Include how this assignment will communicate how your project proposal satisfied the CEO’s concern.
[SR3]Replace Latin text with your writing for this assignment.
[SR4]Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
[SR8]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original).
[SR9]Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
[SR10]Explain how the functions you mentioned are being handled by the old information system, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
[SR11]Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
[SR12]Reference Page Notes: Use a separate references page and double space. Note that throughout the paper and reference list, titles of non-periodicals and the names of journals, book titles, and volume are set in italics rather than being underlined. See APA Manual, pages 239-281 for examples of various references. In addition, please read pages 215-232 for basic reference guidelines.
Remove References in example that you do not use.
American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.
Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.
Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-
Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.
Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism:Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm
Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html
Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database
Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13
Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.
Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts
Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox
Hierarchy Charts
In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.
you will create a hierarchy chart.
Creating a Hierarchy Chart
Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.
Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:
Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.
Support your responses with appropriate examples.
Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.
Submission Details
Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.
Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox
Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design
Assignment 1
2018 Sem01
Overview
You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment requires an understanding of:
Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces
Timelines and Expectations
Percentage Value of Task: 20%
Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)
Minimum time expectation: 20 hours
Learning Outcomes Assessed
The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:
Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system
Assessment Details
FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.
You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.
FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.
FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.
Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.
Submission
You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:
A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
Use Cases summarizing the requirements
Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
a Class Diagram of the intended system
a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.
o Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams
o Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment
Details.
Marking Criteria/Rubric
Task
Max Marks
Obtained Marks
Requirements Analysis and Design
Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program
10
A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
10
A Class Diagram of the intended system
10
A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.
10
Development of Code
A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:
Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments
5
Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.
10
A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)
5
Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available
25
Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions
5
Reflection on Learning
A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.
10
Total
100
Scaled to 20
20
Feedback
Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.
Plagiarism:
This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.
It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.
Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.
Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions
Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.
Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.
Launching the HTTP Simulator
Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.
Main Commands Description
HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.
Command
Description
GET
Get data for URL
HEAD
Get header for URL
POST
Append data to URL
PUT
Send data to URL
Response Codes
HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.
Code
Description
200 OK
Command completed successfully
301 MOVED
Requested URL has moved to another location
400 ERROR
The command encountered an error
Applet Interface
The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).
The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.
The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.
Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY
This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.
Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command from the client to the server via the medium. Notice that the available choices in the command panel change as the request is received at the server.
Now click the Server: 200 OK(DATA1) – send requested data. Similarly the simulation view reflects the response from server to the client.
The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q1: In reality, what does the client represent? Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.
EXPERIMENT #2: UNSUCCESSFUL RETRIEVAL OF A WEB PAGE
Repeat Experiment 1 again, but this time selecting Server: 400 Error(Code) – report requested data unavailable at the last step.
The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q2: Identify a real scenario when this client and server interaction would occur.
Continue to Experiment #3 Instructions on the following page…
EXPERIMENT #3: REDIRECTION OF REQUESTED DATA
Repeat Step 1 and 2 of Experiment One, and then do the following
In command panel, select Server: 301 MOVED(URL2) – report moved URL.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q3: Observe the simulation and compare with the results in Experiment One. What is the difference in the flow, and what does it mean?
EXPERIMENT #4: POST INFORMATION TO WEB PAGES
It should be obvious that there are many types of interactions that a client might have with a web server. One such interaction is when a client appends data to the URL to be received by the server.
Start a new simulation similar to Experiment #1, but this time choose Client: POST(URL1, DATA1) for step 2.
Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.
Q4: What is the key difference that you observe in the interaction?
Q5: Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.
Submitting your work
In a new Word document, include your screenshots of the simulations for each experiment, along with your answers for each of the five questions. Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_Assignment #. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard. Any assignment with screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp or a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.
Q8. Reference Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in D
IT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT PHASE I INSTRUCTIONS
Project Background
Reference Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in DC. You have recently bought the hospital, naming it [Your Firstname Lastname] Hospital. For example, Jane Doe Hospital. Jane Doe Hospital owns a 5-story building and houses many departments that span multiple floors. Its Radiology department is spread across the first and second floors, connected by a dedicated LAN. The department has recently deployed a new “Radiology Images” application as part of their initiative to digitize patient records. However, the department staff sometimes faces long application delays during busy hours. It also experiences regular delays in Internet connectivity, FTPS services, web services, and email services.
Their original design, depicted in Figure 1, was categorized as a small network, providing services for up to 200 devices. They have well surpassed this. You, as their senior network engineer, are tasked with the job of a complete re-design. This design must support a mediumsize network for 200 to 1,000 devices.
Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital Network Design
Project Overview
This project along with the Phase II IT Infrastructure Project will help you understand how a network administrator improves network performance in wired and wireless local area and wide area networks, using the application Cisco Packet Tracer. To learn more about Packet Tracer please read the Cisco Packet Tracer DS PDF.
In this project, you will study performance improvements in a congested, wired LAN/WAN environment that can be solved to varying degrees by a new IT infrastructure design and fully functional implementation in Packet Tracer. Later, in Phase II of the project, you will scale this design to a larger enterprise IT infrastructure.
To begin the projects, you will complete a review of related literature to identify what is appropriate to improve system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery of the existing IT infrastructure and model of your hospital. Once this review of literature is complete, you will use the outcomes and research results to advance and improve the IT infrastructure. Proper data analysis, comparison, and contrast will be summarized within in-text tables and figures as well as appendixes to explain the results of the IT infrastructure re-design and improvement.
Project Requirements
Take screenshots demonstrating your network, servers, configurations, and protocols properly functioning in the new design. Screenshots must include a unique piece of information identifying the student’s computer along with a proper operating system date/time. Submit these as appendices in the Word document.
Submit a working Packet Tracer lab, typically this file has a .pkt file extension.
o This will include the fully operational new IT infrastructure design o All devices in the lab must be named with your first name and last name
Example: Jane_Doe_Router_1 o All hardware and software should be configured properly and should be able to communicate securely using optimized networking designs, configurations, and protocols
IT Infrastructure Design Requirements o You must start with a blank/new Packet Tracer file, existing labs or modified labs of existing solutions will receive a zero without exception
o Include the existing hospital services and systems but optimized/improved o Design a medium-size network for 200 to 1,000 devices
For example, an N-Tier design or superior supported by research
Add appropriate routers and switches to support this new design
Design and configure at least one appropriate networking protocol,
IPv4 or IPv6
Design IP addressing that will scale to 1,000 devices
Use proper network address translation (NAT)
o Add an Internet Service Provider (ISP) into the design o Add appropriate security into the design
o Add sufficient modularity, resiliency, and flexibility into the design
o Design and implement the following new services and servers
A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server that automatically assigns working IP addresses to new workstations that allows them to connect to all network devices properly
A name server that manages the Domain Name System (DNS) and allows workstations to communicate with a web server external to the local area network
An external web server that hosts your favorite website, accessible via the ISP
Two new user workstations in eachbuilding that uses the new services and services properly
Show these services working on each workstation in your project (e.g. a website from the web server, DHCP, etc)
Written Requirements (Introduction, Literature Review, and Conclusion) o Submit a properly formatted APA paper in Microsoft Word o Here is an example paper: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
o Table of Contents that automatically adjusts page numbers of the main headings
o Introduction
Introduce the primary goals and objectives of the project o Review of literature that supports the new system simulation, model, and design
Include appropriate IT frameworks and standards in which to design the new system
Address system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery
Include at least 10 scholarly journal articles focusing on relevant research on the problems being addressed
o Packet Tracer design explanation
Explain each of the additions and improvements
Reference the primary configurations and how these were developed
Include running configurations from routers/switches as appendices o Conclusion
Highlight any limitations, managerial implications, and conclusions of the project deliverables and outcomes
Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard.
Any assignment without working Packet Tracer files or without screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp from the operating system and a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.· To copy screenshots to Microsoft Word:
o Press the “Print Screen” key on your keyboard. The key is usually located at the upper right corner of a keyboard.
o You can also use the “snipping tool” in Windows
o For Windows users, open application “Paint” and paste the screen shot over.
“Paint” usually can be accessed this way: Start à All Programs à
Accessories. For users of other operating systems, use a similar application.
o In “Paint”, select the graph or area needed and copy it. You need to click this icon in order to be able to select an area. The icon is listed on the left side of the window.
o Paste the selected area to a word processor.
o Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI
Q9. Week 8 Assignment
Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.
a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students)to Delete the existing records.
b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.
2) You are going to create the following queries
List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition
You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,
Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)
Create at least one update query
Create at least one insert query
Create at least one delete query
Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses
Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class
Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor
3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.
Do the following tasks
The name of each Object should start with Week8
1) Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.
a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students) to Delete the existing records.
b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.
2) You are going to create the following queries
List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition
You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,
Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)
Create at least one update query
Create at least one insert query
Create at least one delete query
Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses
Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class
Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor
3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.
Q10. Network Penetration Testing (CIS or SEC 435)
Week 1 Lab 1 submission
tudents, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
If you have not logged into the iLabs environment yet, use your access code emailed to you by the bookstore when you purchased the books to register.
Lab Assignments
Submit each lab based on the following:
Log into the EC-Council iLab environment.
Complete the weekly lab assignment described below using EC-Council iLab.
Submit the screenshots for the steps specified in each lab assignment.
Write a short answer in Word format and include with the assignment submission link the following:
Summarize the technical experiences in completing the lab assignment.
Identify the commands that were of greatest benefit to you.
Provide general comments on the overall lab assignment experience. Note:This is an academic writing assignment. Correct punctuation, grammar, and spelling are necessary. Points may be deducted for poor writing.
Lab Assignment 1
Due Week 1 and worth 30 points
Complete the following EC-Council Labs.
Note: Lab 1 contains deliverables that are partially derived from the following course required textbook: EC-Council Press. (2017). Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures: Web Applications and Data Servers (2nd ed.). Cengage Learning.
Lab Version
Module Title
Location
Lab #: Title
Deliverable(s) for Submission
Strayer
SEC435
(CEHv.9)
Session Hijacking
iLab
Module 1o
Lab 1: “Session Hijacking Using Zed Attack Proxy.”
Screenshots after Steps 8 and 22.
Q1. Artificial Neural Network
1). What would happen if Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) did not have any bias (fixed input)? For instance, suppose that ‘y’ must be 5 when all inputs are 0.
2). What are the main similarities and differences between the functions ‘logsig’ and ‘tanh’?
3). Indicate whether the next statements are true or false and explain:
When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the LOGSIG function, the output values of the network cannot exceed a value of one no matter what input is applied tot he network. A value outside the range [0 1] is impossible to attain at the output of the ANN. If the required range is bigger than zero to one, then the output signal must be scaled appropriately.
When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the TANH function, it is very important to note that the output signal is limited to the range from -1 to 1. The ‘tanh’ function has a shape very similar to the shape of the ‘logsig’ function. However, the lower range for the ‘logsig’ function is zero when compared with the lower range of the ‘tanh’ which is -1.
Q2. Master-Slave J-K Flip-Flop using NAND gages with explanation of Truth Table with arbitrary clock
Question: Find the output using the input sequences of the J-K Master-Slave flipflop using NAND gates. Follow the input sequences. Observe and record the output sequences.
Q3. Frequency Modulation (FM) demodulation
Find an expression for the instantaneous frequency of FM modulation
Find the followings expression for the signals z(t), w(t), of an FM demodulation as shown in the diagram. Determine the bandwidth of the signal w(t) according to Carson’s rule.
The received signal passes through a square law device, DC blocker, again a square law device, again a DC blocker.
w(t) is the output of the final DC blocker
z(t) is the output of the first DC blocker
x(t) is the output of the first square law device and x2(t) is the output of the second square law device.
Q4. Principle and Operation of Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) receiver
The QPSK receiver, like the BPSK receiver, can create a synchronous carrier when the received signal has a phase shift. Show that even if the signal s(t) is shifted by an angle, the output of the frequency divider produces cosine and sin carrier wave synchronous to the received signal.
Q5. Electrical Hazards, potential severity, the extent of severity and consequences, Safe Practices
identify the type of hazard, the potential severity and potential consequences for the plant employee due to the application of insulating tape to the exposed high-voltage wire
Q6. Find the Standing Wave Ratio of a Transmission Line
Given a lossless Transmission line with Z0=50ohm, terminated at a resistive load RL>Z0. The plot of voltage standing wave ratio is given with vmax=6volt, vmin=2volt.
(a) Determine the standing wave ratio on the line terminated (resistive).
(b) Determine RL.
(c)Determine the voltage magnitude of the incident wave.
(d) Determine the wavelength of the line if the distance between the consecutive maxima and minima is given.
Q7. Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words)
Many theories and intervention techniques in performance psychology have a cognitive-behavioral approach. The interactional model of personality which describes behavior as the sum of personality (p), the environmental situation (s), and the interaction (i.e., Behavior = P + S + P x S) is generally a better predictor of success than the environmental situation or the personality alone. However, in many situations the environmental conditions are so influential that the stable personality characteristics will have little effect. This is known as the personality paradox. In this assignment, you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response.
General Requirements:
Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:
Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.
Directions:
Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words) in which you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response. In your paper, include the following:
An explanation of how the personality paradox might occur.
A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining the personality paradox.
A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining how the performer’s personality interacts with the environment.
Q8. Monostable or one-shot multi-vibrator
Explain the conditions that the trigger signal that you will apply at trigger input (pin No.2) should have in order to trigger the monostable multivibrator. Explain your result.
Or
Explain the principle of working of mono-stable multi-vibrator (One-shot multi-vibrator)
Or
Give the pin description of IC 555 timer or mono-stable multi-vibrator and explain its principle of operation.
Q9. Binary Phase Shift Keying
What is the need to use the synchronous carrier in BPSK demodulation?
Can a non-synchronos carrier such as cos(w0t) be used instead?
What is the use of the square-law device, the band-pass filter, and the frequency divider?
What is the function of the bit synchronizer?
How the integrate-and-dump circuit is used to recover the original signal? Show it mathematically.
Mathematically prove how the effect of 2w0 can be eliminated.
Q10. python programming
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.
Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:
Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
Datacenter Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data center using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.
The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.
Coursework Specification
Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.
PHYSICS
Q1. Calculate the magnetic field in a Toroidal ring
3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate
(a)the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b)the required coil mmf.
(c)the coil current
(d)the coil flux
(e)the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage
Q2. What are the inductive and deductive methods of science? How they are involved in technology?
Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
What is grounded theory?
The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful
Q3. PHSC 210 Comparative Essay
Comparative Essay Instructions
Selection of Topic
Choose 1 of the following topics for your Comparative Essay:
Age of the earth (radioisotope dating vs. alternative methods)
Origin of coal (swamp forests vs. marine deposition)
Dating the rock layers seen in the Grand Canyon (old earth vs. young earth)
The fossil record (evidence of: long periods of time vs. short periods of time)
Mass extinctions in the fossil record (old-earth vs. young-earth)
Content and Outline
Use the following outline when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading, as indicated) within your paper.
Introduction
Indicate which topic you chose from the list above.
Indicate the purpose of your paper (i.e., to compare old-earth and young-earth viewpoints on your chosen topic).
Old-Earth Secular View
What is the old-earth secular viewpoint and the evidence supporting that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
o Do not discuss the old-earth creationist viewpoint on your chosen topic. For a description of old-earth creationism, go to http://www.icr.org/article/4535/.
III. Young-Earth View
What is the young-earth viewpoint and the evidence for that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
Comparison of the Viewpoints
Comparison is articulating similarities between the 2 viewpoints. What are the similarities (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
Be sure to provide at least 2 similarities (comparisons) between the viewpoints.
Contrast of the Viewpoints
Contrast is articulating differences between the 2 viewpoints. What are the differences (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
Be sure to provide at least 2 differences (contrasts) between the viewpoints.
Conclusion
Provide a summary statement for your paper.
Be sure to restate your purpose.
Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.
Avoid using first person throughout the paper. Use of “I” or “we” should be avoided.
Length
This paper must be 1,000–1,500 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.
Format
You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a cover or title page with:
Ø paper title
Ø your name
Ø instructor’s name
Ø course number, section number and course name (i.e., PHSC 210 B21, Elements of Earth Science)
Ø date
There is no need to include an abstract in your paper.
Sources
Your Comparative Essay must include at least 4 scholarly sources in addition the course textbook and the Bible. Of these required sources, 2 must be from an old-earth perspective and 2 from a young-earth perspective. Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed. There are exceptions to this rule (e.g., the Institute for Creation Research site is a .org site, but it has been judged a reputable site by those in the young-earth community. Answers in Genesis is also acceptable.). In particular, avoid Wikipedia. Study Bibles are also not appropriate for this assignment.
Citation
Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is an academic infringement and a violation of Liberty’s Honor Code. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. All submitted essays are subject to a SafeAssign review. This will compare your paper against thousands of other submissions. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.
Submission
Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document. Do not submit as .pdf file.
Submit your Comparative Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
Title [This should be one of the 5 options from the instructions.)
Student name
PHSC 210-[Section]
Date
Instructor
Introduction
Old-Earth Secular View
Young-Earth View
Comparison of the Viewpoints
Contrast of the Viewpoints
Conclusion
[Content needs to be a bit more than 1,000 words and less than 1,500 words full credit. The Cover and Reference pages do not count in this word total. Delete all blank lines. Left align all text except headings and always indent the first line of each paragraph. ]
References
[At least 4 sources are required – at least 2 from each side of the debate – in the format below.]
Author(s) (year). Title. Publication. DOI or Retrieved from [url] [Use hanging indent format where the second line is indented as shown on this line and the line following. Please include an adequate number of sources for this essay other than your course texts (see assignment Instructions).]
Q4. PHSC 210 dISCUSSION 2
Discussion Board Forum 2 Prompt
Topic: Current Young-Earth Research
Thread:
In this 350 word (minimum) discussion board thread, you will choose from 1 of 10 current young-Earth Institute for Creation Research articles based on your interest. Follow these steps:
Choose ONE of the following a current young-Earth articles from the list below.
Read the article by clicking on the matching link to the article in the Reading and Study Folder > Discussion Board 2 Article Links for this module (or copy and paste a link above into your browser).
In 3 to 5 paragraphs, include the following in your thread:
The author and title of the article.
A summary the main finding(s) of the article.
A discussion the significance of the findings.
Your reasons for choosing this article.
A short concluding sentence or two.
(No bibliography is needed unless other sources are included. Cite using APA formatting. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.).
Replies: (Two 100-word replies are required)
After reading a classmate’s thread, answer the following questions in a minimum of 100 words:
What most interested you about your classmate’s thread?
Is there anything you want to add to your classmate’s thread?
Are there any unanswered questions in the thread?
Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of the Module/Week of the assignment and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.
Q5. PHSC 210 DISCUSSION 1
Discussion Board Forum 1 Prompt
Topic: Earth Science in Action
Thread:
Complete the following step-by-step process:
Watch the presentation entitled “How to Find Articles for the ‘Earth Science in Action’ Assignment” in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4.
Explore the following 3 websites which are also available in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4:
Find 1 article that interests you from 1 of the links above. Do NOT choose 1 article from each link.
Read the article and take notes.
Write a thread that addresses the following questions related to your chosen article:
What is the title of the article?
What is the web address for the article?
Who is(are) the author(s)?
What is(are) the topic(s) covered in the article?
What new information have scientists found?
Why is this new information important?
What impact will this new information have on mankind and/or on science?
What drew you to this article? That is, why did you find this article interesting?
Notes:
The article chosen must have been written within the last 5 years.
If you cannot answer all of the questions above, then you must choose another article.
Do not look for the shortest article as it will most likely not contain sufficient information for this assignment.
Be sure you do not merely list and answer the questions above. You must construct a well-written thread in narrative format with an introduction and conclusion. The following outline is recommended:
Introductory paragraph (include article title, web address, author(s), and topic(s) covered)
Paragraph discussing the new information found, why this information is important, and how this information will impact mankind and/or science
Paragraph discussing your interest in the article
Concluding paragraph
Be sure to reference your article in a bibliography using current APA format. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.
Replies:
After reading a classmate’s thread and reviewing the article at the hyperlink provided by the classmate, answer the following questions:
What most interested you about the classmate’s thread and article?
Is there anything fascinating about the article that the classmate did not identify?
Would you recommend this article to someone else? Why or why not? Provide at least 2 reasons.
Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of Module/Week 4 and your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.
Q6. Flight Performance and Compressibility Effects Exercise
Complete the Aircraft Performance Exercise linked below. Review the Examples and Tutorials before you start solving the problems. Make sure that it is your own work and show work with references.
Exercise 7: Maneuvering & High Speed Flight
For this week’s assignment you will research a historic or current fighter type aircraft of your choice (options for historic fighter jets include, but are not limited to: Me262, P-59, MiG-15, F-86, Hawker Hunter, Saab 29, F-8, Mirage III, MiG-21, MiG-23, Su-7, Electric Lightning, Electric Canberra, F-104, F-105, F-4, F-5, A-6, A-7, Saab Draken, Super Etendard, MiG-25, Saab Viggen, F-14, and many more).
As previously mentioned and in contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.
Notice also that NASA has some great additional information at: http://www.hq.nasa.gov/pao/History/SP-468/contents.htm.
Selected Aircraft:
Aircraft Gross Weight [lbs]:
Aircraft Wing Area [ft2]:
Positive Limit Load Factor (LLF – i.e. the max positive G) for your aircraft:
Negative LLF (i.e. the max negative G) for your aircraft:
Maximum Speed [kts] of your aircraft. If given as Mach number, convert by using Eq. 17.2 relationships with a sea level speed of sound of 661 kts.
For simplification, assume the CLmax for your aircraft was 1.5 (unless you can find a different CLmax in your research).
Find the Stall Speed [kts] at 1G under sea level standard conditions for your aircraft (similar to all of our previous stall speed work, simply apply the lift equation in its stall speed form from page 44 to the above data):
Find the corresponding Stall Speeds for 2G, 3G, 4G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the positive load limit from 4. above), using the relationship of Eq. 14.5. You can use the table below to track your results.
Add the corresponding Stall Speeds for -1G, -2G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the negative load limit from 5. above) to your table. Assume that your fighter wing has symmetrical airfoil characteristics, i.e. that the negative maximum CL value is equal but opposite to the positive one. (Feel free to use specific airfoil data for your aircraft, but please make sure to use the correct maximum positive and negative Lift Coefficients in the correct places, i.e. CLmax in the positive part and highest negative CL in the negative part of the table and curve, and indicate your changes to the given example.)
Explanation: Making the assumption of symmetry simplifies your work, since the stall curve in the negative part of the V-G diagram becomes a mirror image of the positive side. Notice also that the simplified form of Eq. 14.5 won’t work with negative values; however, if using the G-dependent stall equation in the middle of page 222, it becomes obvious that negative signs cancel out between the negative G and the negative CLmax, and Stall Speeds can actually be calculated in the same way as for positive G, reducing your workload on the negative side to only one calculation of the stall speed at the negative LLF, if not a whole number.)
Track your results in the V-G diagram below by properly labeling speeds at intercept points. Add also horizontal lines for positive and negative load limits on top and bottom and a vertical line on the right for the upper speed limit of your aircraft at sea level from 6. above. (Essentially you are re-constructing the V-G diagram by appropriately labeling it for your aircraft. Notice that the shape of the diagram and the G-dependent curve relationship is essentially universal and just the applicable speeds will change from aircraft to aircraft. Make sure to reference book Fig. 14.8 for comparison.)
G
VS
(kts)
PLL:
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
NLL:
Find the Ultimate Load Factor (ULF) based on your aircraft’s Positive Limiting Load Factor (LLF). (For the relationship between LLF and ULF, see book discussion p. 226 and Fig. 14.9):
Find the Positive Ultimate Limit Load [lbs] based on the ULF in E. above and the Gross Weight from 2.?
Explain how limit load factors change with changes in aircraft weight. Support your answer with formula work and/or calculation example.
What is the Maneuvering Speed [kts] for your aircraft?
At the Maneuvering Speed and associated load factor, find the Turn Radius ‘r’ [ft] and the Rate of Turn (ROT) [deg/s].
I) Use Eq. 14.3 to find bank angle ‘f’ for that load factor (i.e. G). (Remember to check that your calculator is in the proper trigonometric mode when building the arccos).
II) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.15 to find turn radius ‘r’.
III) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.16 to find ROT. (Make sure to use the formula that already utilizes speed in kts and gives results in degree per second).
For your selected aircraft, describe the different features that are incorporated into the design to allow high-speed and/or supersonic flight. Explain how those design features enhance the high-speed performance, and name additional features not incorporated in your aircraft, but available to designers of supersonic aircraft.
Using Fig. 14.10 from Flight Theory and Aerodynamics, find the Bank Angle for a standard rate (3 deg/s) turn at your aircraft’s maneuvering speed. (This last assignment is again designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your final exam; therefor, please make sure to fully understand how to extract the correct information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials as necessary. You can use the below diagram copy to visualize your solution path by adding the appropriate lines, either via electronic means, e.g. insert line feature in Word or Acrobat, or through printout, drawing, and scanning methods.)
From: Dole, C. E. & Lewis, J. E. (2000). Flight Theory and Aerodynamics. New York, NY: John Wiley & Sons Inc.
Find turn radius (r) and Rate of Turn (ROT) at 250KEAS and 70 deg bank angle level turn
Equation 14.15 r = = == 2020 ft
Equation 14.16 ROT() = = = 11.98 deg/sec
or approximated graphically using Figure 14.10
(Note: The figure has two scales for Bank Angle. One you use for Rate of Turn (ROT) and the other you use for Radius of Turn (r).The example lines are for 70 degrees bank angle
Q7. Pecha Kucha Presentation on aging aircraft inspection and documentation
Please find the attachment for an abstract for your research paper on aging aircraft inspection and documentation. In this activity, you will prepare a Pecha Kucha presentation based on your topic proposal. Provide 10 slides, with a 20 second presentation for each slide, either in audio or caption format.
Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Make sure it is own work not from other sources.
Refer to the Pecha Kucha Presentation Guidelines for content and delivery format and guidelines.
Content Format Guidelines
This course uses a modified Pecha Kucha approach, in which each of the three Pecha Kucha Presentation activities require a varying number of slides presented in varying time frames. See each activity for specific content format guidelines. Discussion may be in either audio or caption format for the activities, with audio formats requiring an accompanying transcript.
Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Review the evaluation rubric to make sure that your presentation aligns to the grading standard.
Delivery Format Guidelines
The recommended presentation format for Pecha Kucha presentations in this course is a screencast, which records your slides and audio together in a single video file. However, you may also use a lower-tech approach, such as a traditional Microsoft® Office PowerPoint or Apple Keynote, combined with captions to convey your message. There are a variety of presentation software and authoring tools available online for you to develop your presentation. Review the document linked below for a list of some of the more popular tools. All of these tools offer either a free version or free 30-day trial. Examples/tutorials are often included on the product websites. Note: ERAU does not provide technical support on any products external to the Canvas learning management system.
Again, there is no specific presentation format requirement other than the guidelines outlined above. Think outside the box and be creative in your presentation!
Tips: Since this may be your first Pecha Kucha, ensure you understand what the concept is and how it works, then build your presentation and practice presenting it before recording, should you plan to create a screencast. When available, please also use streaming video links for any video recordings, as opposed to uploading complete video files to the course which are usually very large.
Accessibility Support: If your presentation uses audio, please include a written transcript. Some of the presentation authoring tools, such as Camtasia, affords the opportunity to convert its transcription files to Microsoft® Office Word format.
ABSTRACT
This paper is going to discuss about aging aircraft inspection and what documentation is required of aircraft in the general aviation industry that are past two decades. It would start out with the publication of the FAA produced entitled “Best Practices for Aging General Aviation Airplanes.” (Federal Aviation Administration, 2003). This article published by the FAA was endorsed by three non-government aircraft organizations. This paper will get the source from the Hunt Library, internet researches, and utilize those sources to present information. Also would include feedbacks from pilots that operate and maintenance crews on the Civil Air Patrol Aircraft.
And some of the questions that will be brought up in this research paper would be what inspection approach existed before the Aging Aircraft Inspection criteria established by the FAA? What differences in approach did the international aviation community take and what are the differences from the domestic industry? Are they more or less comprehensive and if so how? If I would not be able to get the answer to the questions, I would focus on the requirements of the aging aircraft maintenance documentation.
Parr, N. (1970, January 01). Aging Aircraft. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from http://parr-agingaircraft.blogspot.com/2014/07/documentation-for-aging-aircraft.html
Q8. Drag Exercise (Answer the questions on word file)
Complete the Drag Exercise with showing work. Need to be answered on the attached word file.
Make sure its own work and with showing work for the solution.
Exercise 4: Drag and Applications
The first part of this week’s assignment is to revisit our reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft from last week.
Selected Aircraft (from last week’s module):
Make sure to review your data and results from last week and any feedback that you may have received on your work, in order to prevent continuing with faulty data.
Main Wing Airfoil type & on-line database designator (from last week’s module):
Aircraft Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] (from last week’s module):
Wing Span [ft] (from last week’s module):
Average Chord Length [ft] (from last week’s module):
Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] (from last week’s module):
Find the Aspect Ratio ‘AR’ for your selected aircraft wing. (Use the wing span and average chord length from last week’s module/from above. See also page 63 in your textbook.):
CLmax for your airfoil (from last week’s module):
Standard sea level Stall Speed ‘Vs’ for your aircraft [kts] (from last week’s calculation):
Find the appropriate drag polar curve for your airfoil selection (2. above; from last week’s module). You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use again the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search .
Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/Cd (coefficient of lift vs coefficient of drag) plot, i.e. the so called drag polar. Use again only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).
From the polar plot, find the CDmin value for your airfoil, i.e. the lowest value that the coefficient of drag ‘Cd’ (bottom scale in the online tool depiction) reaches. (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can again select the “Details” link and directly read the lowest CD value in the table – third column, labeled “CD”):
What we’ve just found (…with some degree of simplification…) is the parasite drag coefficient for our airfoil, i.e. the drag that exists due to skin friction and the shape of our airfoil, even when little or no lift is produced. However, this value will only represent the airfoil, i.e. main wing portion of our aircraft; therefore, let us for the remainder of our calculations assume that our aircraft is a Flying Wing type design and the total CDP for the aircraft is the same as the CDmin that we’ve just found.
Let us also assume that we are at standard sea level atmospheric conditions and that our wing has an efficiency factor of e = 0.82.
Prepare and complete the following table for your aircraft (with the data from 1. through 8. above). Start your first row with the Stall Speed ‘Vs’ (from 7. above) and start the second row from the top with the next higher full twenty knots above that stall speed. Then increase speed with every subsequent row by another 20 knots until reaching 300 kts. You are again encouraged to utilize MS® Excel as shown in the tutorial video and can also increase your table detail. However, the below depicted, and above described, interval is the minimum required for this assignment.
V
(KTAS)
q
(psf)
CL
CDP
CDI
CD
CL / CD
DP
(lb)
DI
(lb)
DT
(lb)
VS
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
300
Equations for Table:
q = CL = CDi =[1/ (πeAR)] CL2
CD = CDP + CDi CD = CDP + [1/ (e AR)] CL2 Dp = CDp q S
Di = CDi q S = [1/ (e AR)] CL2 q S Dt = Di + Dp = CD q S
Answer the following questions from your table.
I) Determine the minimum total drag ‘Dmin’ [lbs] (i.e. the minimum value in the total drag ‘DT’ column):
II) Determine the airspeed at which this minimum drag occurs ‘VDmin’ [kts] (i.e. the speed associated with the row in which ‘Dmin’ was found):
III) Compare parasitic ‘DP’ and induced ‘DI’ drag at VDmin. What is special about this point in your table?
IV) Determine the maximum CL/CD value in your table (i.e. the maximum value in the CL/CD column) and the speed at which it occurs.
V) Compare your results in IV) with II) and comment on your findings.
VI) Explain which values in your table will directly allow glide performance prediction and how (Tip: Reference again the textbook discussion pp. 61-63).
If the gross weight of your aircraft is decreased by 10% (e.g. due to fuel burn), how would the stall speed change? Support you answer with calculation as well as written assessment. (Remember, stall speed references and discussions can be found pp. 43-45 in your textbook.)
For the second part of this assignment use the given figure below (Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators [1965]) to answer the following questions. (This assignment is designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your midterm exam; therefore, please make sure to fully understand all the diagram information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials if necessary.):
Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators (1965).
What is the Angle of Attack at Stall for the aircraft in Figure 1.13?
What Angle of Attack is associated with Best L/D?
What would be the best Glide Ratio for this aircraft?
What is the maximum coefficient of lift (CLmax) value?
Q9. Lift and Airfoils Exercise
Complete the Lift and Airfoils Exercise linked below. This exercise requires you to complete some on-line research on airfoil profiles and lift curves, which will familiarize you with another type of data depiction: charts and graphs.
Must show work and references.
Answers need to be added in the attached word file
Exercise 3: Lift and Airfoils
The first part of this week’s assignment is to choose and research a reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft. You will further use your selected aircraft in subsequent assignments, so be specific and make sure to stay relatively conventional with your choice in order to prevent having trouble finding the required data during your later research. Also, if you find multiple numbers (e.g. for different aircraft series, different configurations, and/or different operating conditions), please pick only one for your further work, but make sure to detail your choice in your answer (i.e. comment on the condition) and stay consistent with that choice throughout subsequent work.
In contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.
Selected Aircraft:
For the following part of your research, you can utilize David Lednicer’s (2010) Incomplete Guide to Airfoil Usage at http://m-selig.ae.illinois.edu/ads/aircraft.html or any other reliable source for research on your aircraft.
Main Wing Airfoil (if more than one airfoil is used in the wing design, e.g. different between root and tip, pick the predominant profile and, as always, stay consistent):
Please note also the database designator in the following on-line tool (see picture below):
Find the appropriate lift curve for your Airfoil from 4. You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search and text search for NACA or other designations, search your aircraft, or use the library links to the left of the screen. Once the proper airfoil is displayed and identified, select the “Airfoil details” link to the right, which will bring up detailed plots for your airfoil similar to the ones in your textbook.
Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/alpha (coefficient of lift vs angle of attack) plot. Start by de-cluttering the plot and leaving only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).
From the plot, find the CLmax for your airfoil (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can select the “Details” link and directly read the highest CL value, i.e. the highest number within the second column, and associated AOA in the table, i.e. the associated number in the first column):
Find the Stall AOA of your airfoil (i.e. the AOA associated with CLmax in 3.):
Find the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your selected airfoil:
Find the Zero-Lift AOA for your airfoil (again, the numerical table values can be used to more precisely interpolate Zero-Lift AOA, i.e. the AOA value for which CL in the second column becomes exactly 0):
Compare your researched airfoil plot to the given plot of NACA 4412 (http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=naca4412-il).
a) How do the two CLmax compare to each other? Describe the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412, and how those differences affect CLmax. (Use your knowledge about airfoil designation together with the airfoil drawings and details in the on-line tool to make conclusions about )
b) How do the two Stall AOA compare to each other? Explain how the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Stall AOA.
c) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Zero-Lift AOA.
Compare your researched airfoil plot to the NACA 0012 plot.
a) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 0012 affect Zero-Lift AOA.
b) What is special about the design characteristics of NACA 0012? How and where could this airfoil design type be utilized on your selected aircraft? Describe possible additional uses of such airfoil in aviation.
For the second part of this assignment use your knowledge of the atmosphere and the Density Ratio, (sigma), together with Table 2.1 and the Lift Equation, Equation 4.1, in your textbook (remember that the presented equation already contains a conversion factor, the 295, and speeds should be directly entered in knots; results for lift will be in lbs):
L = CL * * S * V2 / 295
Additionally, for your selected aircraft use the following data when applying Equation 4.1:
Research the Wing Span [ft]:
Find the Average Chord Length [ft]:
Note: Average Chord = (Root Chord + Tip Chord) / 2 (if no Average Chord is directly found in your research)
Find the Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] for your selected aircraft:
Calculate the Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] based on your aircraft’s Wing Span (from 9.) and Average Chord Length (from 10.):
Use the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your airfoil found in 5. above to simulate cruise conditions in the following exercise B. (Note it here for easier reference):
Prepare and complete a table of Lift vs. Airspeed at different Pressure Altitudes utilizing the given Lift Equation and your previous data. (For the calculation of Density Ratio ‘’ you can assume standard temperatures and neglect humidity.)
You can utilize MS® Excel (ideal for repetitive application of the same formula) to populate table fields and examine additional speeds and altitudes, but as a minimum, include six speeds (0, 40, 80, 120, 160, & 200 KTAS) at three different altitudes (Sea Level, 10000, 40000 ft), as shown below:
Calculate LIFT (lb)
Pressure Altitude (PA) ft
Airspeed:
0
10,000
40,000
0 KTAS
40 KTAS
80 KTAS
120 KTAS
160 KTAS
200 KTAS
I) What is the relationship between Airspeed and Lift at a constant Pressure Altitude? Evaluate each Altitude column of your table individually and describe how changes in Airspeed affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.
II) What is the relationship between Altitude and Lift at a constant Airspeed? Evaluate each Airspeed row of your table individually and describe how changes in Altitude affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.
III) Estimate the Airspeed required to support the Maximum Gross Weight of your selected airplane (from 11. above) at an Altitude of 10000 ft and flying at the given AOA of 5°. (As initially indicated, a more detailed table/Excel worksheet is beneficial to precision for this task. To support the Weight of any aircraft in level flight, an equal amount of Lift has to be generated – therefore, you can also algebraically develop the lift equation to yield a precise Airspeed result, i.e. substituting L=W and solving for V in the lift equation. Remember that conditions in this question are not at sea level.)
In B.III) above, we noted that lift has to equal weight in order to sustain level flight. Using the same Maximum Gross Weight (from 11.), and the same Wing Area (from A.), calculate required AOA for level flight at the different airspeeds in your table under standard, sea level conditions (i.e. =1). You can start a new table or expand your existing one. (See also step by step instructions below the table.):
Airspeed (KTAS)
Required Lift = Weight
Required CL
Corresponding AOA for your airfoil
0
40
80
120
160
200
First and similar to the note in B.III) above, develop the lift equation algebraically to yield CL results based on Airspeed inputs (i.e. substitute Lift with the aircraft Weight and solve the Lift Equation for the Coefficient CL; then insert the different Airspeeds into V, calculate the corresponding CL values, and note them in your table).
Finally, use your researched airfoil Cl/alpha plot (from 3. through 8.) to find corresponding AOA to your calculated CL values (enter the plot in the left scale with each calculated CL value, trace horizontally to intercept the graph for that CL value, then move down vertically to find the corresponding AOA and note it in your table (alternatively, you can also look up values in the detailed table):
I) Comment on your results. Are there airspeeds for which you could not find useful results? Describe where in the step by step process you’ve got stuck and why. Explain what it aerodynamically means for your airfoil if a required CL value is greater than the CLmax that you found in 3.
II) What is the standard sea level Stall Speed for your selected aircraft at its Maximum Gross Weight? (Utilize above data and the Stall Speed Equation on page 44 of “Flight Theory and Aerodynamics”).
Q10. Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
The scientific method is useful in problem solving and decision-making in a wide variety of fields. In this assignment, you will demonstrate how to use the scientific method to make decisions and solve problems in your field of study or everyday life.
Identify a specific problem often faced in your field of study or everyday life. Research your problem and assess your data / research. Examples of such problems could be:
Business
Developing a new product that is superior to competitor’s brands; or
Establishing a price for a new product using the law of supply and demand;
Information Systems and Technology
The use of personal electronic devices for work purpose, or
Determining in the most cost-effective computer for your business;
Criminal Justice
The reliability of eyewitness testimony, or
Determining what evidence reveals to you about a crime;
Everyday Life
Selecting a particular brand of detergent, or
Determining the most cost-efficient transportation / route for your commute.
Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:
Explain the scientific method and describe the overall manner in which you would apply it in your field of study or everyday life.
Propose one (1) testable hypothesis to explain / solve the problem you have selected. State the expected outcomes of your actions and include criteria for determining whether or not these actions would succeed. Note:Your hypothesis should be stated very precisely.
Describe the main actions that you intend to put into place to test the hypothesis that you proposed in Question 2. Describe the way in which you would evaluate the success of your program. Include the results that you would deem as a success and the results that would be considered a failure.
Discuss the wisdom behind the strategy you would use to test the hypothesis from Question 3, and describe the additional steps you might take, depending on the results of your test. Note:These additional steps might be to revise your original hypothesis (if the results were unsatisfactory) or to propose new hypotheses. The goal is to continuously improve your understanding of the factors influencing your outcomes, to be able to achieve greater results over time.
Use at least two (2) quality resources / references in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and personal blogs do not qualify as quality resources.
Your report must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics.
MUSIC
Q1. Music homework assignment A grade
Until this January, few researchers did, either. In the largest-ever study of how parental involvement affects academic achievement, Keith Robinson, a sociology professor at the University of Texas at Austin, and Angel L. Harris, a sociology professor at Duke, mostly found that it doesn’t. The researchers combed through nearly three decades’ worth of longitudinal surveys of American parents and tracked 63 different measures of parental participation in kids’ academic lives, from helping them with homework, to talking with them about college plans, to volunteering at their schools. In an attempt to show whether the kids of more-involved parents improved over time, the researchers indexed these measures to children’s academic performance, including test scores in reading and math.
Q2. Using Music to Manage Duties
“pretend you are a pediatrican, a pre game football coach, and the owner of an expensive and sophisticated restaurant. Choose music for each of these duties keeping the role of music as physical and emotional stimulus in mind. Give detailed reasons why you programmed what you did for each and list your objectives”
Q3. Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy
Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy (1965) (dir. Carol Reed)
link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-LnVqkwSRbc
Finish the following questions
The “Prologue”: Although the opening 12-13 minutes of the film appear to simply give a biographical account of Michelangelo’s life and a kind of inventory of his work, please consider why this feature film bio-pic opens with a kind of documentary-type introduction to the man – and to his (sculptural) work. Who is the target audience of this opening sequence? Is there any kind of rivalry or tension between the story of Michelangelo the man and Michelangelo the artist mapped out here, and how does the opening sequence either anticipate or differ from the shape of the rest of the film in this respect? How does the film art / the film as art compete with the ‘real’ art that is showcased in the “Prologue”? How does Michelangelo’s art in the film(the Sistine Chapel frescoes) compare to Michelangelo’s art as it appears in the “Prologue”?
Charlton Heston and Rex Harrison were major mid-twentieth century actors. (Please note that they nevertheless appear not to have been the first casting choices for this film!). As it turns out, they did not get along during the making of the film. Think about the film as a star vehicle and the need for there to be (plot-driven) tension between the characters of Michelangelo and Pope Julius II, but also eventual resolution. Do you think the two men’s actual dislike for one another helped the character development in the film? How does Rex Harrison represent Julius II – as generous, as militaristic, as proud, as a believer? How does Charlton Heston portray Michelangelo – as proud, driven, a loner, a believer? How does the cinematography capture these traits in both cases? (HINT: Harrison as Julius II on his horse and the Papal throne vs. Heston as Michelangelo silhouetted against the sky in the mountains around Carrara (at 59 minutes). Finally: What do you make of the camera angle and sweeping view of the completed Sistine Chapel at 2 hours, 9 min.? Does the ceiling – rather than the actors – end up being the star of the show?
The post-“Prologue” parts of Reed’s film are elaborately ‘choreographed’; its two parts (before and after the “Intermission”) contain multiple parallel scenes that ask the viewer to assess what kinds of developments occur as the story unfolds. Please consider the following patterns:
The opening sequence of Part I in the quarry (carving out the marble that is headed for Rome to become a sculpture by Michelangelo) that then erupts into a battle scene vs. / and the opening sequence of Part II as Michelangelo (the artist) bursting into Julius II’s camp. Has anything changed in the status of the art object? What about the sequence near the end of the film when Michelangelo seeks out the (defeated) Pope in a military camp to as to be able to finish the ceiling? Or the very brief scene of cannons firing just before the final scene of the crowds gathered in the completed Sistine Chapel (at 2 hours, 7 min.). What is the relation between war / military activity and art in this film?
The two entries of the Pope into Rome in Parts I and II – once in triumph, the second time in defeat.
The multiple scenes when Pope Julius II is celebrating mass in the Sistine Chapel with negotiations about the ceiling / the actual painting of the ceiling interrupting the religious services. What is the relation between religious belief / faith, religious ritual, and art in this film?
The multiple scenes between Michelangelo and the Contessina de Medici. Is there a development in their relationship? NB: Please note that it was and is well known that Michelangelo was homosexual. Why does Reed emphasize the relationship with the Contessina the way he does? Is there any subtle / indirect evidence of Michelangelo’s homosexuality in the film? (HINT: The scene in the brothel when the Pope’s men are searching for Michelangelo and the dark-haired young male apprentice who seems to be ever present in Part II…).
The multiple scenes of direct conflict, but then also clever manipulation of Michelangelo by Julius II and vice versa. How does Julius II succeed in getting Michelangelo to go back to work after he has fallen from the scaffolding? How does Michelangelo provoke Julius II to recover from what appears to be his near death after his defeat in battle in Part II? Consider carefully the scene in Part II when the two of them meet up on the scaffolding and discuss the central fresco of the Creation of Adam (1 hour, 57 min. to 2 hours, 2 min.). What does Julius II see in Michelangelo’s depiction of God and Adam? Does he believe what Michelangelo believes? How does their final conversation in the Sistine Chapel relate to the conversation on the scaffolding? Is this some kind of buddy film?
There are two main locations of the action of this film: the city of Florence and the city of Rome. Who and what are the main focus of attention in the respective cities? Who (what classes and / or institutions) sponsor art in these two locations? There are of course other unnamed cities in the film, and the quarry at Carrara; what do these locations represent? Consider especially the class politics of the quarry and the workers’ support of Michelangelo vs. the skepticism – at least in Part I – of the people of Rome vis-à-vis the Pope.
Pay careful attention to the politics of the film – which are pretty accurate! What / against whom is Pope Julius II fighting and why? Who are his “enemies” (both locally in Italy and in the rest of Europe) and what countries / leaders are characterized as his friends. Why is he concerned to get the Papal States back under his control? NB: The clearest statement of the politics that Reed would have us think were at stake for Julius II are voiced by the Medici duke at 2 hours, 3 min. to 2 hours, 7 minutes.
We see three of Renaissance Italy’s most famous artists depicted in this film: Bramante, Michelangelo, and Raphael. What pieces / kinds of art is each man most clearly identified with in the film? Where does Michelangelo stand on the matter of the relation of ‘modern’ Renaissance art to the art of the ancient Greeks (at 1 hour, 20 minutes to 1 hour, 24 min.)? What about Raphael (please note that what we see Raphael painting is his famous “School of Athens” in the Vatican Stanze at 1 hour, 31 min.)? Are there rivalries between the various artists? Do we see these artists producing alone (as great geniuses) or are they part of a team? Consider Raphael’s speech about patronage at 1 hour, 45 min. Does he accurately describe the situations of patronage depicted in / referred to in the film? Consider the ways that Julius II and Michelangelo constantly bicker about money.
Some more specific questions:
What was the original design for the Sistine Chapel ceiling, and what is the overall story of the final design? Why does Michelangelo destroy the first version?
What is the difference between Bramante’s scaffolding and Michelangelo’s scaffolding?
Describe what is (more or less accurately) shown to be the way that frescoes are designed and painted (at 43 minutes and at 1 hour, 9 minutes).
Where is Michelangelo considering fleeing to – and to do what – after he destroys the first version of the Sistine frescos?
Why does Michelangelo fall from the scaffolding?
Why does Julius II order the scaffolding taken down at 1 hour, 40 min.?
How does Julius II eventually pay for Michelangelo to finish the Sistine Chapel ceiling (at 1 hour, 55 min.)?
Q4. A Man for all Seasons
A Man for all Seasons all thing is available character and all scene describe
Q5. The movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions
the movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions
Q1. SOC 205 Week 9 Case Study 2 I Pledge Allegiance To The Flag(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Case Study 2: I Pledge Allegiance to the Flag
Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Religion and Politics have traditionally been highly debated topics in our society. Recently, the Pledge of Allegiance has added to this debate.
American citizens have generally recited the Pledge of Allegiance at important ceremonies ranging from presidential inaugurations to the beginning of the school day. The pledge has a great deal of sentimental value to many Americans, but also creates a great deal of controversy for others.
Review the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, which highlights the debate.
Write a five to eight (5-8) page paper in which you:
Summarize the salient points of the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow.
Discuss the levels of the court through which the case evolved before it reached the Supreme Court.
Explain the decision of the Supreme Court in this case in brief.
Explain the fundamental impact that the court decision in question has had on American society in general and on ethics in American society in particular. Provide a rationale for the response.
Discuss whether you believe that the recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance is a religious issue or a sign of respect for the United States.
Discuss whether or not you think public schools should be allowed to recite the pledge.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources. Note:Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Examine the current ethical issues inherent throughout the criminal and civil justice systems.
Describe the dispensation of justice through the criminal and civil justice systems.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the criminal court and the judicial process in America.
Write clearly and concisely about the American court system using proper writing mechanics and SWS style conventions.
Q2. POLI 330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
Question 1
(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?
Communities where some possess much
Communities where some have nothing
All of the above
None of the above
Question 2
(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?
Individuals join and stay in civil society.
Life is nasty and brutish.
Power resided with the proletariat.
Empirical research is important.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.
the contractualists
Marxists
behavioralism
systems theory
Question 4
(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.
the social contract
institutions
behavioralism
superstructure
Question 5
(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?
The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.
Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.
Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.
Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.
Question 6
(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?
Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.
Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.
Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.
Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.
Chapter 3, page 37
Question 7
(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?
No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.
Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.
Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.
Markets regulate themselves.
Question 8
(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?
Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.
Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.
Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.
Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.
Question 9
(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.
Liberals
Conservatives
Marxists
Libertarians
Question 10
(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.
Liberalism
Conservatism
Socialism
Fascism
Q3. PAD 515 Assignment 1 Theories Of Leadership(USE AS A GUIDE)
Assignment 1: Theories of Leadership
Due Week 4 and worth 150 points
For all assignments, assume that the City Manager has hired you as the Chief of Staff for your local government. The City Manager has tasked you with developing and implementing the government’s new million dollar grant funded Public Leadership Academy. The mission of the Public Leadership Academy is to provide ongoing training and development of the local government’s current and prospective public leaders. This program was developed in an effort to build and sustain world class public leadership that exemplifies exceptional leadership traits and skills, while fostering long-term relationships internal and external stakeholders and constituents. In the upcoming weeks, you will deliver your first presentation to the government’s local councilpersons, in which you address the type of public leadership model(s) that is both needed within the local government for its public leaders and required to fulfil the mission of the Public Leadership Academy.
After careful review and analysis of the steps needed to meet your goal, your first assignment is to revisit the theories and styles of leadership. You will examine the theories and styles that support the role of the public leader.
You may use the Internet and / or Strayer databases to complete any additional research.
Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
Use the basic outline below to draft your paper. Organize your responses to each question (except Question 4) under the following section headings:
Defining The Public Leader (for Question 1)
Leadership Theories (for Question 2)
Leadership Styles (for Question 3)
Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:
Determine two (2) leadership theories and two (2) leadership styles that support the definition of a public leader. Provide a rationale for your response.
Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership theories from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership theory.
Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership styles from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership style.
Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites. Wikipedia, other wikis, and any other websites ending in anything other than “.gov” do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Evaluate the theories and models of public leadership.
Differentiate among the styles of public leadership.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in public leadership and conflict resolution.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in public leadership and conflict resolution using proper writing mechanics.
Q4. Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the USA
Third Party Candidates – Please respond to the following:
Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the United States has on the political interests of American citizens. Suggest one reason or strategy used by the two-party system to keep third party candidates from successfully running for president.
2pgs
Q5. SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause And Mitigation(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause and Mitigation(6 pages word paper)
Q6. SEJPME Final Exam (Already graded A+)
SEJPME Final Exam
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81] vertical envelopment beachhead assault tentative landings fleet dispersion
2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”
3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact
6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces
7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan
8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law
9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)
10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness
11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False
12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security
13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False
14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination
15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training
16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True
17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night
18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False
19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression
20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10
21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True
23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations
25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine
26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors
27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton
28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security
30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine
31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.
32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective
33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)
34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)
35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment
36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable
38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships
39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent
40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance
41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager
42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate
43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars
44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank
45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military
46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war
47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False
48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command
49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams
50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective
Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30
2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical
3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization
4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True
5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service
6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice
7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions
8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture
9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True
10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control
11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan
12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False
13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches
14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff
15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD
16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False
17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability
18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7
19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)
20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True
21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force
22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence
23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence
24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces
25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises
26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)
1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade
2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information
economics
diplomacy
the military
3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True
4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force
subordinate unified command
5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts
6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational
intermediate
7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe
maritime safety
maritime security
8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation
9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy
10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints
11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service
Bureau of Navigation
12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False
13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war
when directed by the President
14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy
15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process
16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system
17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct
18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve
19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent
20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine
Law of warfare
21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities
major combat operations
forcible entry operations
22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction
23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True
False
24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador
Secretary of State
25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage
26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience
opposition
vulnerability
indifference
27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council
28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False
29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem
30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort
command and control authority
unity of command
32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done
33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False
34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line
35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit
effort
workload
36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability
37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)
38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True
39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True
41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)
43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries
cyberspace operations
major combat operations
humanitarian assistance
44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True
45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War
46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation
situational awareness
influence
47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests
48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic
ill-prepared
segregated
49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True
50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
Q7. POLI 330 Final Exam (Already graded A+)
POLI 330 Final Exam
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists? (Points : 2)
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2. 2.(TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)
Political scientists often train politicians.
Politicians often train political scientists.
Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter.
Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable.
Question 3. 3.(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____. (Points : 2)
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4. 4.(TCO 1) A political leader’s ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____. (Points : 2)
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5. 5.(TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____. (Points : 2)
charisma
control
legitimacy
sovereignty
Question 6. 6.(TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____ building. (Points : 2)
scholarship
theory
power
culture
Question 7. 7.(TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence. (Points : 2)
the spirit of the law to make determinations
books to reach conclusions
judicial sentencing to determine case outcomes
jury selection to manipulate judgment
Question 9. 9.(TCO 4) Under which of the following circumstances might a case be pursued as both a criminal and a civil case? (Points : 2)
The federal government accuses investment houses of wrongdoing and investors who lost money sue them.
Drug traffickers violate property and federal law by moving drugs across state borders.
Burglars violate federal property and the state sues them for damages.
A state accuses banks of mortgage fraud in mortgages sold to investors elsewhere in the nation.
Question 10. 10.(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison. (Points : 2)
The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.
Question 11. 11.(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges? (Points : 2)
Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment
Question 12. 12.(TCO 4) When was judicial review granted to the Supreme Court within the United States? (Points : 2)
It was granted during the Constitution Convention of 1787.
It was granted in the Bill of Rights.
It was the result of the Marbury v. Madison decision of 1803.
It was never officially adopted but is an unofficial practice.
Question 13. 13.(TCO 4) Which of the following best articulates the stance of judicial restraint advocates? (Points : 2)
Judicial review is the best and only true method of checking legislative power.
The court should practice restraint in cases in which legislative acts are presented for interpretation.
Only the executive branch can restrain the court, keeping the power of judicial review in balance with the other governing branches.
Only Congress should make public policy and, unless a legislative act clearly violates the Constitution, the law should stand.
Question 14. 14.(TCO 4) The Supreme Court’s decision in _____ (1954) triggered a revolution in American race relations, an area Congress had been unwilling to touch. (Points : 2)
Miranda v. Arizona Dred Scott v. Sandford Brown v. Board of Education Gibbons v. Ogden
Question 15. 15.(TCO 5) Which systems demonstrate the clearest separation of power between the executive and legislative branches? (Points : 2)
Parliamentary
Presidential
Monarchies
Ministerial
Question 16. 16.(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)
Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
Question 17. 17.(TCO 5) Voters receive the most direct representation in which system? (Points : 2)
Parliamentary
Presidential
Electoral
Coalition
Question 18. 18.(TCO 5) The head of ministry is equivalent to the _____ in the United States. (Points : 2)
chief of government
head of state
departmental secretary
premier
Page 2 – Multiple Choice
(TCO 5) The only political system that could guarantee the cooperation between the legislative and executive branches is _____. (Points : 2)
a monarchy
a dictatorship
a democracy
an oligarchy
Question 2. 2.(TCO 5) In the case of both parliamentary and presidential systems, examine the reason democracies will not vanish, even though the executive seems to be receiving more and more power. (Points : 2)
Checks and balances keep the chief executive from gaining too much power.
Chief executives will eventually have to face reelection, which depends greatly on the approval of voting citizens.
Both systems have methods by which to oust chief executives.
Subordinates carry out some of the workload of the chief executive.
Question 3. 3.(TCO 5) Explain which type of candidate parliamentary systems seek out to become ministers. (Points : 2)
Those who have experience winning elections and serving on a parliamentary committee
Newcomers who can bring in a fresh perspective to the ministry
Individuals who possess a great knowledge of the specific ministry’s area
Those who have political experience regardless of whether or not they have been elected in the past
Question 4. 4.(TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____,”which is a hard sell these days. (Points : 2)
late capitalism
Marxism
pure market system
utilitarianism
Question 5. 5.(TCO 7) Early 20th-century European governments subscribed to _____ doctrines, generally keeping their hands away from the economy. (Points : 2)
classic liberal
inflationary
neoclassical
Smithian
Question 6. 6.(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____. (Points : 2)
Question 7. 7.(TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)
The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily.
Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class.
Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others.
Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system.
Question 8. 8.(TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)
Many would be left without enough to support them.
Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.
It can cost them votes.
Both are primary social safety nets.
Question 9. 9.(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)
Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.
Question 10. 10.(TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points : 2)
Citizens will default on their mortgages.
Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest.
Ultimately, the government will profit.
Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior.
Question 11. 11.(TCO 9) _____ is a small or moderate change that essentially leaves the system intact. (Points : 2)
Mass discontent
Reform
Dramatic system change
A coup d’etat
Question 12. 12.(TCO 9) Describe what can often happen in a changing society when, during times of prosperity, some people get rich faster than others. (Points : 2)
Jealousy is aroused.
Politicians pay more attention to poverty.
The very poor revolt.
Economists become confused.
Question 13. 13.(TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)
They will almost surely turn to violence.
Not much will happen.
The people will organize themselves, regardless.
They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness.
Question 14. 14.(TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)
They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism.
They are poorly funded.
They have a great deal of red tape to get through in order to be able to communicate.
They are often unwilling to communicate with each other.
Question 15. 15.(TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____. (Points : 2)
because it alone ended with democratic institutions.
because it became an example for other nations.
because it managed to route what was then the great world power.
because it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions.
Question 16. 16.(TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)
Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure
Question 17. 17.(TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage? (Points : 2)
The low level of education in developing nations
The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations
The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations
The massive corruption now found in developing lands
Page 3 – Essay
Evaluate Aristotle’s six types of government. In doing so, please be sure to list and define the categorizations. Please then assess how these classifications can be useful today to someone analyzing current governmental structures. (Points : 40)
Explain the relationship between electoral systems and party systems. Answers should be sure to assess this question from the perspective of both proportional representation and single-member districts and provide examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
The United States has utilized multiple forms of liberalism throughout its history. Please distinguish the specific characteristics of classical and modern liberalism and outline the evolution of these forms of liberalism within the United States. Please be sure to include specific historic examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
Today’s world seems to be moving beyond sovereignty and toward supranational leadership to cooperate on issues of global importance. What are some of these issues? How might they be solved through supranational cooperation? Does such cooperation impede the sovereignty of independent nations? Please sure to include specific examples in supporting your points. (Points : 40)
Q8. POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation
Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process. Address the following in your multimedia presentation:
Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?
Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.
Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.
Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.
Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab
For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document.
Q9. POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.
Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.
Electoral College Simulation Exercise
Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election. Based on information contained in the chart determine the following
The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis
Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?
Alabama91,159,245749,948
Alaska3195,227112,878
Arizona111,089,449975,674
Arkansas6554,724478,912
California555,976,0486,350,244
Colorado91,076,1241,055,465
Connecticut7714,368824,202
Delaware3184,348190,229
District of Columbia390,108125,978
Florida294,129,9973,784,259
Georgia161,740,7761,508,254
Hawaii4200,454224,728
Idaho4376,989245,774
Illinois202,529,4272,615,226
Indiana111,257,0701,148,334
Iowa6740,291752,882
Kansas6645,822512,678
Kentucky8997,244878,421
Louisiana81,002,124924,855
Maine4332,427368,399
Maryland101,029,2781,257,722
Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331
Michigan162,414,7772,391,872
Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624
Mississippi6649,442502,292
Missouri101,245,9781,440,356
Montana3259,129174,434
Nebraska5499,927276,321
Nevada6398,727412,012
New Hampshire4340,492332,638
New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209
New Mexico5369,284370,544
New York293,688,4213,828,477
North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476
North Dakota3197,245110,289
Ohio182,829,6872,777,421
Oklahoma7845,779624,552
Oregon7901,244904,100
Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542
Rhode Island4200,440210,402
South Carolina9850,050714,846
South Dakota3230,727154,786
Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385
Texas383,789,4593,598,334
Utah6500,450401,290
Vermont3122,774182,104
Virginia131,547,9941,607,747
Washington121,390,2241,420,462
West Virginia5364,449367,429
Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202
Wyoming3130,757100,527
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________
Q10. Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
click “View in Browser.”
Click the link above to submit your assignment.
Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center. Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:
Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
Facts of the case
Issues
Rule
Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.
Rubric:
Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Grid View
List View
Unacceptable Below 70% F
Fair 70-79% C
Proficient 80-89% B
Exemplary 90-100% A
PAD525-A3-1 1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-2 2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-3 3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
PAD525-A3-4 4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
PAD525-A3-5 5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.
PAD525-A3-6 6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)
Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)
Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
PAD525-A3-7 7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
PAD525-A3-8 8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)
More than 6 errors present
Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)
5-6 errors present
Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)
3-4 errors present
Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)
0-2 errors present
PAD525-A3-9 9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)
Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)
Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)
Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.
Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)
Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.
Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
LAW
Q1. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3
Q2. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4
Q3. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2
Q4. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1
Q5. Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Sign in to the Lexis Uni website and navigate to the Criminal Justice Home page. Under “Recent Supreme Court Decisions”, click on “View all Supreme Court Decisions for Criminal Justice”. Then, narrow your search by “violent crimes”
Locate two U.S. Supreme Court cases that discuss various types of criminal defenses.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word case analysis in which you identify and examine the types of criminal defenses that were used. Include the following:
Explain the nature and types of defenses used in the cases. What evidence was used to demonstrate the defense?
Explain the similarities and differences between justification and excuse. Describe how justification and excuse play a role in the cases.
Describe the outcome of each case.
Format your case analysis consistent with APA guidelines.
Q6. The significant role of agencies in the budget process in 813 words with APA Style
Question: Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?
Q7. The significant roles that agency play in rulemaking in 553 words APA
Question: “Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.
Q8. CJS 241 Week 3 Individual Assignment Police Personnel and the Community Paper(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you address the following: • How do police agencies at the local, state, and federal level recruit, hire, and train employees?
?
How can agencies ensure they are promoting diversity by hiring women and minorities?
How significant is stress in police training? Why should it be included in training programs?
How does proper recruitment and selection assist with implementation of community policing by local agencies?
Include a summary of the discussion on the improper hiring practices article located by your collaborative group.
A minimum of three (3) references are required Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. CPSS 210 Week 3 Correctional Support Staff Response Paper
Assume the role of correctional support staff dedicated to assisting prisoners with reaching personal goals for probation and inclusion into society. A university counseling professor has asked you to speak to her class about your experiences. To prepare for the visit, she has sent you the questions that the students will ask you.
Write a 750- to 1,050-word response paper in which you answer the following questions:
Describe the different types of cultures and subcultures you might face in prison.
Does the prison cultural influence the prison management culture?
Does the prison culture influence the way you determine treatment in prison?
How are mental health programs delivered in prison?
In your opinion, does prison help prepare prisoners to become law-abiding citizens?
List each question and your response to the question. Your paper’s format does not need to be consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. LAW 531 Final Exam…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?
Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code
An appeal process
The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent
2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?
Vicarious authority
Express and obvious authority
Implied and apparent authority only
Express, implied, and apparent authority
3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?
Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.
All members will lose their limited liability.
This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.
Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.
4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?
Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.
Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.
Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.
Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship; the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000
5) Partners of a general partnership
Are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute
Are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions
Do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them
Are liable for all the obligations of their partnership
6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?
Negotiated settlement
Mini-trial
Mediation
Conciliation
7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment
Fact-finder
Arbitrator
Judicial referee
Negotiator
8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?
Arbitration
Fact-finding
Mini-trial
Conciliation
9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?
A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time
A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.
A mediator does not make a decision or award
If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator
10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. Law 531 final exam. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is
Violating a duty of loyalty
Violating a duty to exercise due care
Violating the business judgment rule
Not violating any duty
11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as
A breach of a director’s duty of notification
A breach of a director’s duty of care
A breach of the Business Judgment Rule
There was no breach of duty
12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer or director’s duty of care?
Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product
Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts
Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor
Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate
13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?
The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.
Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors
Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability
Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate
14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?
Contributory negligence
Defendant was negligent per se
Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine
Comparative negligence
15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Law/531 week 5 final. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of
Due care
Obedience
Loyalty
Good business judgment
16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling; visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will
Win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity
Win on the basis of design defect
Win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body
Lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear
17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?
The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.
The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement
The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing
The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case
18) What does the parole evidence rule do?
It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.
It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term
It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions
It determines which contracts are required to be in writing
19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?
Pleadings
Motion for summary judgment
Discovery
Trial
20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest
Within 10 years
By the time of the employee’s retirement
In total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years
Only as provided in the pension plan
21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?
The Norris-LaGuardia Act
The National Labor Relations Act
The Labor-Management Relations Act
The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act
22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is
Not prohibited under federal law
A violation of Title VII
A violation of the Equal Pay Act
A violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act
23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will LAW/531 not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?
Quid pro quo
Hostile work environment
Gender discrimination
Pregnancy discrimination
24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?
The Freedom of Information Act
The Government Compensation Act
The Administrative Procedure Act
The Equal Access to Justice Act
25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?
The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land
The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there
The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission
The person was the only person who lived on the land in question
26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?
A freestanding desk
Built-in cabinets in an office
A copyright to a literary work
A field of corn
27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, LAW/531 final exams your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?
Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you
Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets
Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings
Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need
28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?
Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls
Ensuring companies are profitable
Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee
Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation
29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is. Law 531 final exam answer
No more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both
No more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both
No more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both
No more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both
30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
High salaries for corporate executives
Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes
Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives
Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis
ANTHROPOLOGY.
Q1. ACBS 160D section 1: Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A
ACBS 160D section 1:Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A
ACBS 160D: Human and Animal Interrelationships
Term Paper Topics
Select one of these questions to answer:
Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
Should animals be kept in factory farms for human consumption?
Should it matter how animals are housed and treated if they are going to be killed for consumption later? (e.g., Should it matter how animals are treated in slaughterhouses before they are killed for consumption? Should it matter how chickens or pigs are kept in factory farms if they are going to be killed for meat? )
Should wildlife protection have a higher priority than commercial interests (e.g., Should the pygmy owl have a higher priority than the development of housing and businesses around Tucson? Should wildlife be protected and hinder logging or oil pipelines?)
Should animals be kept for human food consumption (i.e., should humans eat other animals)?
Should animals be kept in zoos or aquaria?
Should animals be used in circuses?
Should horses be used for the sport of racing?
Should animals be used for the sport(s) in rodeo (e.g., bull riding, bronc riding, calf roping)?
Should animals be hunted (e.g., commercial big game hunting, state license hunting)?
Should animals be used in modern warfare?
Should children/adolescents raise animals for slaughter in youth programs such as 4H or FFA? (Is this desensitization or education?)
Should elderly care facilities be requiredto allow the residents to keep pets?
Should animals be used in religion?
Think of all the possible perspectives that might answer the question in different ways. Put yourself in their shoes of different people and answer the topic question. Examples of different perspectives:
o Animal welfare proponents
o Animal rights advocates
o Food security proponents
o Ethicists, philosophers
o National and local economic / employment interests
o Educators
o Medical researchers
o Parents
o Small business owners
o Family ranchers or farmers
o Large-scale agriculturalists /factory farmers
o Wildlife managers
o Conservationists
EXAMPLE:
The question I selected is:
Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
My Thesis statement might be:
In this paper I will present alternative position on the topic of animal use for medical research, considering a variety of perspectives, and concluding with a position on animal testing that seems most justifiable.
The body of my paper would include these sections:
PRO: PERSPECTIVES IN FAVOR:
Yes- animals should be used in medical research
(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)
Some Medical researches hold this perspective because …
o evidence, references
Some Parents may also hold this perspective because ….
o evidence, references
Some Animal welfare proponents may also hold this perspective because ….
o evidence, references
Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
CON: PERSPECTIVES AGAINST:
No- animals should not be used in medical research
(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)
Animal rights advocates hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
Other Medical researches hold this perspective because …
o evidence, references
Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…
o evidence, references
Q2. AnthropologyWhy is it inappropriate tKINDLY BE BRIEF AND STRAIGHT FOWARD IN YOUR ANSWER
WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?
Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.
Include the following in your paper:
Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?
Q3. The red carpet cleaning
This is a bank statement of the evidence is well taken care of. I ensured that the drive would not be scratched, bent or even slightly destroyed. the container in which I placed the evidence was well labelled. the hand drive should be cushioned from any potential shock Potential Use of the Evidence This kind.
Q4. ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016
ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016
Final exam is scheduled for April 20thfrom 1-4 pm in Gym A/B. Please check the Registrar website for updates or changes, and for which ROOM you will write in. If there is a room split, you must write the exam in the room location you have been assigned based on your last name.
These are SHORT ANSWER questions, which means about a paragraph or half a page, at most. Each questions is different, and some answers require more detail than others. Thus, read each question carefully so you understand the components of the question, and make sure to answer fully (all parts). Be concise but clear.
To help you study for the exam, it is a good idea to answer these questions completely in full, as you would on the final exam. However, it is suggested that you then come up key points or words to help you remember each answer, rather than try to memorize an answer in its entirely. Good luck!
What is popular culture? Define the concept in detail, and list two examples of popular culture.
What is cultural anthropology and two of its guiding principles? Based on the reading and lecture (week 2), also provide two detailed examples of how cultural anthropologists are represented in horror films.
Define semiotics and hermeneutics. Using one example from the Cormack article, explain how Tim Horton’s coffee (through its commercials) is a symbol of Canadian identity.
Define discourse and colonial discourse. Provideone example of a colonial discourse and briefly describe what that discourse consists of.
According to the readings and lecture (week 4), what is the national discourse produced at the Vancouver Olympics and why is this problematic? Please describe and explain your answer clearly and succinctly.
Drawing from the “What is a Nation? The Appropriation of First Nations as Canadian” readings and/or lecture, provide an example of how either First Nations and other marginal members of society contested power (representations and discourses) at the Vancouver Olympics. Explain your example in some detail.
Some scholars argue that the spread of Hollywood films globally is a form of cultural imperialism. What does cultural imperialism mean? Define and explain the concept in detail.
While Bollywood has achieved international success, many filmmakers wish to expand their market globally (i.e. to the U.S, Canada, and Britain). Briefly discuss two of the issues surrounding the question “can Bollywood go global?”
How is managing your facebook profile like neoliberalism (use a neoliberalism logic)? Explain and provide two examples (week 5)
Based on the article by Gershon (2011) or lecture (week 5), describe two ways facebook influences social relationships.
Soap operas such asForbidden Love produce hegemonic discourses and reproduce societal norms. However, fans have edited and remade this soap into ‘webisodes,’ Christian & Oliver, as a form of resistance. Describe the changes made and how these changes subvert dominant norms.
The lifestyle reality television showWhat Not to Wear (WNTW) is a space where identity is produced and remade. The authors argued that this is achieved through governmentality. Define governmentatity and explain how it works in the show WNTW to remake identity.
In his article about blackness in science fiction films, Russell (week 7) argues that blackness appears as avatarism. Define avatarism and provide two examples of avatarism in film. Describe your examples.
In her article (week 8), Abu-Lughod (2002) discusses how Egyptian melodramatic serials are embedded with political and moral messages. What are these messages and how are these messages received by the lower economic classes? Explain in detail.
Stuart Hall (week 8) argues that audiences read, rather than passively consume, popular culture. Although audiences actively construct meaning and interpret messages, this does not mean that they can construct ANY meaning. Identify and define the three possible reading positions.
Based on the article Luo and Sun (2015) and lecture in week 10, explain two ways in which the Chinese dating showFei Cheng Wu Rao (“If You the One?”) produces sociocultural gender norms. In your answer, identify what gender norm is being produced.
Jhally (2002) writes that we live in an “image based culture,” which has skewed our views of gender. According to his article, how can society reveal more of the “real world of substance?” Outline his four points and explain you answer using the Dove Campaign as an example (film: The Beauty Backlash, reading and film from week 11).
Q5. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN
PART I
Directions: Read the questions below and formulate a response to each that is at least one hundred words in length. Please cite the textbook and external resources to support your answer (Wikipedia sources are not permitted). List each resource used at the end of paper in the reference list section. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN to help you search for resources. You can visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize LIRN successfully
PART II: Journal
Using a minimum of three resources (Wikipedia.com is not an option) write a 1 to 2 page paper in APA format to discuss and review your own work, school, and life experiences in which the use of participant observation to gather data would have provided unique insights. Identify the sides in the conflict. Where did the “data” or information used by each side in the situation originate? How, specifically, might the data gathered by a trained anthropologist, who adheres to the anthropological code of ethics, help each side understand the other?
Q6. Hlt 362v Exercise 36 The researchers
The researchers found a significant difference between the two groups (control and treatment) for change in mobility of the women with osteoarthritis (OA) over 12 weeks with the results of F(1, 22) = 9.619, p = 0.005. Discuss each aspect of these results.
The F-value is high enough at the 5% level of significance to suggest a significant difference between the control and treatment groups. The p-value 0.005 < 0.05, so this recommends a rejection of the null hypothesis, meaning that the control and treatment groups are found to be different.
State the null hypothesis for the Baird and Sands
Q7. Article The Real Legacy of Steve Jo
article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??
Which of the five functions were his weakest??
article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??
Which of the five functions were his weakest??
Q8. CJA 344 Police Influence on Society W
Public Opinions of Police and the Justice System Police Influence on Society Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that describes how the historical development of policing in the United States relates to the current relationship between police and different
ethnic groups and social classes. • Support your discussion with examples from law enforcement practices, court procedures, corrections populations, or all three. • Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Please note that utilizing popular internet
Q9. How might you use probability theory in everyday living?
Week 2 DQ1
How might you use probability theory in everyday living?
Q10. Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints
Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints
ASTRONOMY.
Q1. Self-esteem in the work environment is
Unit II PowerPoint Presentation
Self-esteem in the work environment is crucial to the overall success of everyday business operations and functions for the employee and employer; therefore, it is important to identify healthy self-esteem development and how to overcome communication barriers.
Create a PowerPoint presentation (minimum of 10 slides) on how to overcome communication barriers—verbal and nonverbal (identify and explain with supported data and illustrations). You must use at least two sources with one being the textbook. Be sure to cite any sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. The cover and reference slides do not count toward the total slide requirement. Also, use the speaker notes function to explain the content in detail for each of the slides.
Note: Keep in mind the 6×6 PowerPoint rule: slides should only include six to seven lines of content with no more than six to seven words per line. Also, illustrations should relate to the content being discussed—be creative.
Refer to the following tutorial from the Success Center on developing good PowerPoint presentations:
Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.
This Unit covers Chapters 3, 4, & 5 in the textbook on “Building Self-Esteem & Self-Confidence, Interpersonal Communications, & Interpersonal Skills for the Digital World”. There is a PowerPoint presentation paper due and a Journal entry that centers on self-esteem and ways to improve it in the workplace. The PowerPoint presentation is on communications flow and barriers that get in the way of quality communications. Keep in mind that just providing slides with bullets and data doesn’t demonstrate that the student actually understands the information in the bullets so approach this assignment from the perspective that you and I are in the classroom alone and you are doing this presentation for me knowing that I have zero knowledge of the topics addressed on the slides. Read the syllabus instructions carefully and be sure to comply with all the requirements. Keep in mind that originality, presentation, graphics, and quality will be part of the grade along with your speaker notes. This unit is a good next step from what was covered in unit one because interacting with employees and interpersonal skills require high self-esteem and confidence as well as good communications flow that are the focus of this unit. In Unit three we will focus on developing quality teams and decision-making skills all of which are tied to what was covered in the first two units.
Let me know if you have a question.
DuBrin, A. J. (2015). Human relations: Interpersonal job-oriented skills (12th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.
Q2. What kind of information do you think
Based on Walmart’s success in the United States, many expected the company to quickly dominate the British market after it bought the Asda grocery chain in 1999. That did not happen; Walmart’s market share in groceries grew to a little more than half that of its biggest competitor, Tesco. Initially, Tesco’s sales and net income rose significantly while Walmart’s sales and net income increased at a much slower rate. More recently, Walmart has made small gains in market share, and Tesco has had small decreases. Walmart found out that Tesco is a formidable worldwide competitor. Tesco operates almost 2,400 stores in Britain in four different formats. It has a very successful operation in Central Europe, and it expanded to the United States with Fresh & Easy stores. In Korea, Tesco’s 174 stores thrived while Walmart gave up after an eight-year effort to succeed and sold its 16 stores. One of the biggest reasons for Tesco’s success is its use of technology. In 1995, Tesco started a loyalty card program, called Clubcard, and over 80% of its shoppers are members. Shoppers fill out an application in the store and receive a plastic card and a key fob in the mail that is scanned before they make a purchase. Tesco gathers massive amounts of data about its customers’ 15 million purchases each week. Sales data are analyzed and turned into information that provides Tesco with a significant competitive advantage. As traditional advertising loses effectiveness, these large stores of data allow Tesco to find new and creative ways to market its products.
REQUIRED • a.What kind of information do you think Tesco gathers .How do you think Tesco has motivated over 22 million customers to sign up for its Clubcard program? • c.What can Tesco accomplish with the Clubcard data it collects? Think in terms of strategy and competitive advantage. • d.What are some of the disadvantages to the Clubcard program? • e.Do an Internet search to find out how Tesco is doing in comparison to Walmart and other grocers and retailers. Write a few paragraphs explaining your findings.
Q3. Being a small-business owner such a
Being a small-business owner such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your choice, apply the basic supply management principles to the acquisition of services.
Discuss the trade-offs of quantity, quality, and cost in a small business such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
Planning systems such as MRP and CRP might be overkills for a small-business owner. Devise a simplified version of an MRP and/or CRP such as a supply planning chart or a supply planning template for a small local business. A local small business could be a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
Q4. Internet Research: Cabin Environmental Control Systems
In this second Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on cabin environmental control systems. Some examples of topics that could be used in your search would be aircraft pressurization systems, oxygen systems, air conditioning systems, and aircraft heating systems. Explain the design of the cabin environmental system, how it affects human physiology, and what would happen if the system malfunctioned. This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of cabin environmental control systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:
General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://generalaviationnews.com/
Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://aviationweek.com/
AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://www.avm-mag.com/
DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.dommagazine.com/
Hunt Library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.
Q5. Review Questions
These review questions will broaden your application of a few key topics from the chapters and the Module 3 objectives . Answer all four questions. All references are required to be in current APA format.
Discuss the importance of integrating the voice of the customer into all decisions under the concept of Quality Function Deployment (QFD).
Describe service process design and the service encounter design.
What is Design for Reliability? Why is reliability important? Describe series and parallel systems?
Describe Throughput and explain why the identification and elimination of bottlenecks are key to improving productivity.
Module Report Guidelines
750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
Current APA format
Double Spaced
A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.
o Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.
o One textbook reference is acceptable.
Module Review Guidelines
Current APA format
Q6. Airline Service Delivery
How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?
Requirements
Discussion Board Posting Requirements
Create a primary response on the discussion topic. This response should be 400 words minimumfor each question and with a minimum of two references. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted. It is highly recommended that you post your initial responses no later than the fourth night of the module week so that your classmates have a good chance to read and reply before the end of the week.
Respond to at least twoof your peers. Provide cogent responses by either supporting or debating your fellow students’ posts, and explain your viewpoint(s) clearly. Be sure to justify your responses. Your responses should be at least 100 words each. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted.
All references must be in current APA format.
Below are the two peers postings
There are two main “servicescapes” in the aviation world (Collier & Evans, 2015). Those of us who have flown/worked with cargo on a regular basis know that doing so is a lot easier than dealing with customers and human lives all day. The cargo world operates on the “lean servicescape” which basically means that it requires less human (and financial) input to operate efficiently. Although there are still deadlines for cargo and a lot of logistics that go into flight planning, cargo involves less work and less planning to ensure a successful, profitable and safe flight. Cargo airlines don’t need to spend extra money and time to deck their aircraft out with creature comforts, put good-looking customer service staff out at the check-in’s in the terminals, or maintain a corporate social presence like passenger airlines do. Passenger airlines operate on the “elaborate servicescape”, which, in essence, means that they have to do a lot more to maintain their business and keep customers happy. While passenger airlines have to deal with ticketing, meals, accommodations for disabled passengers, planning recurring flights, angry passengers when flights are canceled or delayed, and all of the other things that come with providing a service to humans over inanimate objects, cargo airlines just have to make sure that their flights are safe, on-time, and able to generate a profit. They still have a human operating component (employees such as load masters, pilots, managers, flight planners, MX personnel, etc) but it doesn’t need to be anywhere near as developed as a passenger airline’s.
Collier, D. A., & Evans, J. R. (2015). OM5 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?
The biggest difference, in my opinion, is that for all the people who fly for fun or business it’s that they will never get to see the cargo operations side. Spending my entire military career in and around passenger and cargo aviation I have much experience dealing with both. For example, Lockheed Martin developed the C-5 Galaxy and its primary mission is moving cargo, people, and equipment on a global scale. Or it can be converted into one huge passenger jet by palletizing airline seats to the cargo floor. In its “air-bus configuration the C-5 can carry 270 passengers” (Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy, 2017).
So quite frankly the simplest answers are passenger aircraft move people and cargo aircraft move cargo. However, there are air carriers which have aircraft that move people and cargo as a combination. As we compare the two, cargo and people air carriers our textbook says that “integrating all of the elements (for both) is necessary to design a service that provides value to customers and can create a competitive advantage” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121). In your spare time, if you have any, look up an airline, any airline and they will most likely have passenger flights and cargo flights with aircraft designated to each.
For example, I have researched a United States air carrier by simply searching U.S. Airlines cargo and came up with American Airlines. Punch up the website and it states that “American Airlines provides more than 100 million pounds of weekly cargo lift to major cities in the United States, Europe, Canada, Mexico, the Caribbean, Latin America and Asia Pacific” (About AACargo, 2016). The website also discusses facilities, services, and processes.
On the other hand, at the American Airlines passenger travel site, it is geared towards personal travel, vacation packages and incentives to fly with American Airlines. The travel site supports passenger travel such as “Black Friday Savings, Connect Your World, and Relax Before the Runway” (Plan Travel, 2017). Both websites however different are basically the same type of layout and relatively easy to use in my opinion. They both provide their own unique “service-delivery system design” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121) by focusing on the customer’s wants and needs.
Cargo air services provide cargo space to customers for personal and business applications to deliver goods and products to destinations where needed. Additionally, cargo air carriers utilize technology to track freight and provide customers tracking information as a service to follow their products throughout the shipping process. Passenger air services deliver people from one place to another. They also provide online service to plan, make, and purchase a person’s travel arrangements.
v/R
Ken
References
About AACargo. (2016). Retrieved from American Airlines Cargo: https://www.aacargo.com/about/aacargo.html
Collier D., Evans J. (2015). Operations Management. Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.
Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy. (2017). Retrieved from The Aviation Zone: http://www.theaviationzone.com/factsheets/c5.asp
Plan Travel. (2017). Retrieved from American Airlines: https://www.aa.com/homePage.do
Q7. You Tube Video Analysis Report
You Tube Video Analysis Report
Must be own works and with references
Please go to YouTube Video site and find a video that pertains to one of the following topics:
Computer Aided Design (CAD)
Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)
In your paper write the following:
Describe the topic and specify what you learned from the video
Explain the pros and cons of this approach
Compare manual operations vs. the new computer-aided technology
Find at least two additional references to support your paper
Q8. Pecha Kucha Presentation: Aircraft Instrument
Every instrument has two parts, the sensing mechanism and the display mechanism. For this activity, choose one instrument from the three basic instrument classifications. The three classifications are the: flight instrument, engine instrument, and navigation instrument. Explain how the instrument works, what flight input it measures and is a glass cockpit (digital flight instrument display) beneficial, why or why not? Your Pecha Kucha should be no more than 15 slides of 20 seconds each. Be creative and think how you can incorporate other visual aids to add to your presentation!
Q9. Fuel System internet research paper
For this first Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on an aircraft fuel system or subsystem. Explain the design of the fuel system or subsystem and how it affected the aircraft and any type of problems associated with this fuel system (e.g. fuel imbalance). This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of aircraft fuel systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:
General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.https://generalaviationnews.com/
Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://aviationweek.com/
AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.avm-mag.com/
DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://www.dommagazine.com/
Hunt library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. document. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.
Q10. Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report
Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report
Make sure it is your own works and with references.
Evaluate the two requirements for understanding your customers’ requirements:
Order Qualifiers:
Why must companies understand this requirement?
What can you do as an operations manager to improve this requirement?
Order Winners:
What is the main definition and why is it different than Order Qualifiers?
As a professional operations manager, what can you do to differentiate your company from the competition? Please provide examples.
Module Report Guidelines
750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
Current APA format
Double Spaced
A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.
o Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.
o One textbook reference is acceptable.
GENERAL QUESTIONS
Q1. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019
Q2. HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019
Q3. HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019
Q4. PSYC305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019
Q5. HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019
Q6. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019
Q7. HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019
Q8. South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)
Q9. South university nsg5003 midterm exam 2019
Why is nasal congestion a serious threat young infants
How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?a.An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.b.An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.c.An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.d.An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s
Q10. South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)
MATHEMATICS.
Need help in Acct 211
I need some assistance with several of my accounting assignments. Is anyone available to assist me with this?
Q2. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions
Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two
Populations
Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size
Patch + bupropion 87 245
Patch Only 40 244
Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion
abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%
significance level.
(4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you
favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored
capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate
95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that
favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of
males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital
punishment? Justify your answer.
Number
Name
Position
Weight
Line
97
Branch, Alan
NT
325
Defensive Line
99
Buchanan, Michael
DE
255
Defensive Line
74
Easley, Dominique
DE
290
Defensive Line
98
Forston, Marcus
DT
305
Defensive Line
95
Jones, Chandler
DE
265
Defensive Line
94
Jones, Chris
DT
309
Defensive Line
90
Moore, Zach
DE
275
Defensive Line
50
Ninkovich, Rob
DE
260
Defensive Line
96
Siliga, Sealver
DT
325
Defensive Line
90
Smith, Will
DE
282
Defensive Line
72
Vellano, Joe
DT
300
Defensive Line
75
Wilfork, Vince
DT
325
Defensive Line
61
Cannon, Marcus
G
335
Offensive Line
63
Connolly, Dan
G
305
Offensive Line
65
Devey, Jordan
G
317
Offensive Line
71
Fleming, Cameron
G
325
Offensive Line
67
Kline, Josh
G
295
Offensive Line
77
Solder, Nate
T
320
Offensive Line
66
Stork, Bryan
C
310
Offensive Line
76
Vollmer, Sebastian
T
320
Offensive Line
62
Wendell, Ryan
G
300
Offensive Line
Name
Course
Professor
Date
QUESTION 1
Differences as normally distributed.
Dominant
Non dominant
d
1
0.177
0.179
-0.002
2
0.21
0.202
0.008
3
0.186
0.208
-0.022
4
0.189
0.184
0.005
5
0.198
0.215
-0.017
6
0.194
0.193
0.001
7
0.16
0.194
-0.034
8
0.163
0.16
0.003
9
0.166
0.209
-0.043
10
0.152
0.164
-0.012
11
0.19
0.21
-0.02
12
0.172
0.197
-0.025
d-bar
-0.0132
sd=
0.0164
Paired t test:
Let d =dominant-non dominant
Test statistic:
t=(-0.0132-0)/(0.0164/SQRT(12))
t=-2.78
df=12-1=11
p-value=tdist(2.78,11,1)=0.0090
As,p-value<0.05,we reject the null hypothesis.
There is sufficient evidence to support the claim that reaction time for dominant hand is less than non dominant hand.
QUESTION 2
The test statistic and critical point has been found by running the following R code:
off <- c(335,305,317,325,295,320,310,320,300)
def <-c(325,255,290,305,265,309,275,260,325,282,300,325)t.test(off,def,alternative=”greater”,var.equal=TRUE)
qt(0.95,19)
QUESTION 3
Hypotheses. The first step is to state the null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.
Null hypothesis: uStress> uNo Stress
Alternative hypothesis: uStress < uNo Stress
An analysis plan: The significance level is 0.10. Using sample data, we will conduct a two-sample t-test of the null hypothesis.
Analyze sample data. Using sample data, we compute the standard error (SE), degrees of freedom (DF), and the t statistic test statistic (t).
SE = sqrt[(s12/n1) + (s22/n2)] SE = 3.6342 DF = 69
t = [ (x1 – x2) – d ] / SE
t = – 1.65
where s1 is the standard deviation of sample 1, s2 is the standard deviation of sample 2, n1 is thesize of sample 1, n2 is the size of sample 2, x1 is the mean of sample 1, x2 is the mean of sample 2, d is the hypothesized difference between population means, and SE is the standard error.
The observed difference in sample means produced a t statistic of – 1.65.
P-value is 0.052
Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.052) is less than the significance level (0.10), we have to reject the null hypothesis.
From the above test we have sufficient evidence in the favor of the claim that stress effects weight.
QUESTION 4
QUESTION 5
QUESTION 6
Before
After
6.6
6.8
6.5
2.4
9
7.4
10.3
8.5
11.3
8.1
8.1
6.1
6.3
3.4
11.6
2
Student
Dominant Hand
Non-dominant Hand
1
0.177
0.179
2
0.21
0.202
3
0.186
0.208
4
0.189
0.184
5
0.198
0.215
6
0.194
0.193
7
0.16
0.194
8
0.163
0.16
9
0.166
0.209
10
0.152
0.164
11
0.19
0.21
12
0.172
0.197
Q3. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions
See Attachments
Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two
Populations
Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size
Patch + bupropion 87 245
Patch Only 40 244
Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion
abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%
significance level.
(4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you
favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored
capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate
95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that
favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of
males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital
punishment? Justify your answer.
Number
Name
Position
Weight
Line
97
Branch, Alan
NT
325
Defensive Line
99
Buchanan, Michael
DE
255
Defensive Line
74
Easley, Dominique
DE
290
Defensive Line
98
Forston, Marcus
DT
305
Defensive Line
95
Jones, Chandler
DE
265
Defensive Line
94
Jones, Chris
DT
309
Defensive Line
90
Moore, Zach
DE
275
Defensive Line
50
Ninkovich, Rob
DE
260
Defensive Line
96
Siliga, Sealver
DT
325
Defensive Line
90
Smith, Will
DE
282
Defensive Line
72
Vellano, Joe
DT
300
Defensive Line
75
Wilfork, Vince
DT
325
Defensive Line
61
Cannon, Marcus
G
335
Offensive Line
63
Connolly, Dan
G
305
Offensive Line
65
Devey, Jordan
G
317
Offensive Line
71
Fleming, Cameron
G
325
Offensive Line
67
Kline, Josh
G
295
Offensive Line
77
Solder, Nate
T
320
Offensive Line
66
Stork, Bryan
C
310
Offensive Line
76
Vollmer, Sebastian
T
320
Offensive Line
62
Wendell, Ryan
G
300
Offensive Line
Before
After
6.6
6.8
6.5
2.4
9
7.4
10.3
8.5
11.3
8.1
8.1
6.1
6.3
3.4
11.6
2
Student
Dominant Hand
Non-dominant Hand
1
0.177
0.179
2
0.21
0.202
3
0.186
0.208
4
0.189
0.184
5
0.198
0.215
6
0.194
0.193
7
0.16
0.194
8
0.163
0.16
9
0.166
0.209
10
0.152
0.164
11
0.19
0.21
12
0.172
0.197
Q4. MATH Week 5 CI One Mean & Proportion
See attachment.
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
contaminants. They found the mean concentration of the carcinogenic insecticide mirex to
be 0.0913 parts per million, with standard deviation 0.0495 ppm. As a safety
recommendation to recreational fishers, the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA)
recommended “screening value” for mirex is 0.08 ppm. Calculate a 99% confidence interval
for the mean concentration of mirex. Based upon your confidence interval, are farmed
salmon contaminated beyond the level permitted by the EPA? Justify your answer.
3) (5 points) In a survey of 284 smokers, 197 smokers reported that they wanted to quit smoking.
Compute a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of smokers that want to quit smoking.
(Adapted from the American Lung Association)
4) (5 points) When 460 junior college students were surveyed, 100 said they have a passport. Construct
a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of junior college students that have a passport. Round
to the nearest thousandth.
5) Housing Starts The attached data set represents the number of housing starts predicted for the
2nd quarter of 2014 for a random sample of 40 economists.
a) Draw a histogram of the data. Comment on the shape of the distribution.
b) Draw a boxplot of the data. Are there any outliers?
c) Discuss the need for a large sample size in order to use the Student’s t-distribution to obtain a
confidence interval for the population mean forecast of the number of housing starts in the
second quarter of 2014.
Housing Starts
984
1260
1009
992
975
993
1025
1164
1060
992
1100
942
1050
1047
1000
938
1035
1030
964
970
1061
1067
1100
1095
976
1012
1038
929
920
996
990
1095
1178
1017
980
1125
964
888
946
1004
Q5. Math Week 8 Assignment
For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)
A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
have the disease?)
Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.
Group Treatment Mean, St. Dev, n
1 no pesticide 3.47, 1.21, 13
2 malathion 1.36, 0.52, 14
A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
Health.)
6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
Gas Mileage (mpg)
Premium, Regular, Difference
Vehicle 1: 19, 20, -1
Vehicle 2: 35, 32, 3
Vehicle 3: 34, 33, 1
Vehicle 4: 18, 19, -1
Vehicle 5: 40, 37, 3
Vehicle 6: 26, 27, -1
Vehicle 7: 36, 33, 3
Vehicle 8: 28, 29, -1
Vehicle 9: 34, 31, 3
Mean: 30, 29, 1
St Dev: 7.7, 6.1, 2.0
Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?
*****Notes to Tutor*****
Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.
Elementary Statistics
Week 08 – Part 2 of the Final Exam
Each question is worth 13.75 points.
For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)
On your written assignment copy and paste the following statement. Please state that you agree with the
following academic honesty statement.
I pledge that all of the following work is my own and I am following the rules of conduct
consistent with Norwich University’s Academic Honesty Policy stated in the Student’s
Academic Regulations.
I have not and will not receive help from any outside source on this final exam. I have not
and will not use any resources such as classroom notes, previous quizzes, or any other course
material, other than a calculator, the hypothesis testing flow chart provided, the normal
table, and Minitab Express.
I will not aid any other student on this exam. I am aware that it is a violation of academic
honesty to share or receive any information about the exam with any other student.
A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
have the disease?)
Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.
Group Treatment Mean St. Dev n
1 no pesticide 3.47 1.21 13
2 malathion 1.36 0.52 14
A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
Health.)
In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
Gas Mileage (mpg)
Premium Regular
Difference
Vehicle 1 19 20 -1
Vehicle 2 35 32 3
Vehicle 3 34 33 1
Vehicle 4 18 19 -1
Vehicle 5 40 37 3
Vehicle 6 26 27 -1
Vehicle 7 36 33 3
Vehicle 8 28 29 -1
Vehicle 9 34 31 3
Mean 30 29 1
St Dev 7.7 6.1 2.0
Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?
Q6. Statistics Review
These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –
Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).
Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).
(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.
Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation
Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart
Q7 Derive the formula to find sums of integers, squares, cubes, fourth power of integers
Derive or Evaluate the formula for
the sum of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the squares of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the cubes of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
the sum of consecutive even numbers
the sum of consecutive odd integers
Q8. Derive the formula for the sum of positive integers and sum of the square of positive integers
Explain/ walk through the concept by deriving the formula for
The sum of positive integers
the sum of the square of positive integers
Q9. Derive the formula for Sum of cubes and the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
Evaluate the sum of the square of positive integers
Evaluate the sum of ‘n’ positive integers of the fourth power.
Q10. Stats of Psyc help needed
Please see the attached file with my assigement. This for Statistics of Psychology. Thank you!
SPSS HOMEWORK 1
40 POINTS
Factual Informative Scenario
Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25
10
25
15
10
20
32
15
10
15
15
35
30
50
45
30
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Cooperation
Competition
88
91
73.5
82
84
92.5
76
95
98
81.5
92
87
85
79
91
95.5
72.5
74
63
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 1.
SOCIOLOGY
Q1. 1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley
Write a 4-6 page essay on two of the following questions. Your total assignment should be 4-6 pages long, plus an additional bibliography page. Please be very careful to cite your resources, including the textbook and/or films carefully and correctly.
According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley text, people have less connection and trust in their neighbors and communities today than in the past, resulting in a decline in civic (public) engagement. Conduct research on his claim. Based on data you locate from academic sources, explain how and why people are being less engaged with their communities OR conversely argue that Putnam is incorrect and that civic engagement is occurring in other spaces (the internet for example). Avoid using anecdotal or personal experience for this essay and focus on and creating a persuasive academic argument.
The United States has the highest incarceration rate in the world and about 1 in 34 Americans is under correctional supervision. Based on the theories and data presented in Chapter 6 of the Conley text, consider why this might be the case. What is causing the high incarceration rate? What role does racism, poverty, and masculinity play in this pattern? Next, evaluate the rehabilitative vs. punishment approach to crime reduction. Which one does the US employ? How effective is this approach and why might this be the case?
Pascoe identifies a number of social issues or problems in her book, including, gender inequality, masculine dominance and violence/homophobia in schools. Choose an issue or concern that Pascoe raises and discuss her analysis of the issue.
o Why is it a problem?
o Where does the problem or issue come from?
o How have those issues been discussed in our other readings?
o What are some possible solutions?
Q2. SOC 110 Week 2 Creating an Agenda
Instructions:
Resource: Ch. 11 & 12 of Working in Groups
Create an agenda for a virtual team meeting on a topic of your choice.
Draw from your own experience working within a group with the goal of achieving a specific task. You may use your experience as a student working in a group, or develop a plan for a future learning team. Your agenda should include specific items requiring group discussion and
Consensus.
In addition to the agenda, write a 200- to 350-word summary of the following:
In a virtual meeting, how can you ensure a group is communicating effectively?
How can you ensure that each team member understands what the next steps are required to achieve the meeting’s goals?
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your agenda and summary.
Q3. Caste systems in India
How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system
Q4. Programs to counter teen age smoking
What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?
Q5. What is the story of social mobility in your family?
What is the story of social mobility in your family? To what extent have there been shifts both across and within generations? What factors, such as family connections or historical events, contributed to the occurrence of your social mobility? Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.
220 words
think as american
Q6. SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity In America(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)
Q7. Comparing Factors that Lead to Underdevelopment
This assignment calls for you to select two Less Developed Countries (LDCs) and assess if there are any factors that are common to both as far as their development is concerned. Your two countries must come from the following list:
Burundi
Benin
Cameroon
Nigeria
Nicaragua
Guatemala
Central African Republic
North Korea
Angola
Ghana
Chad
Yemen
Eritrea
Cuba
Congo
Thailand
Egypt
Iran
Equatorial Guinea
Zimbabwe
Zambia
Oman
Ethiopia
Philippines
Congo
Liberia
Gabon
Bahrain
Tanzania
India
Guyana
Mexico
El Salvador
Lebanon
Honduras
Pakistan
Syria
Guinea
Kenya
Sri Lanka
Algeria
Gambia
Mozambique
Senegal
Malawi
Indonesia
Namibia
Vietnam
Morocco
Myanmar
Rwanda
Haiti
Sudan
Bolivia
Somalia
Kuwait
Mauritania
Mali
South Africa
Iraq
Botswana
Bangladesh
Tunisia
Niger
Libya
Malaysia
Uganda
Panama
Source: United Nations, 2014
It may help you to be familiar with the concept of poor governance, because this often plays a significant part in why a country is underdeveloped. According to the World Bank, governance is defined as how power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development. Therefore, if good governance is synonymous with sound development management, then poor governance means a government has failed to deliver desirable outcomes for its people. This could mean that officials are corrupt, not transparent with their decisions, unqualified to make decisions in the first place, or prone to make decisions based on racism, tribalism or ethnicity — all of which are very common practices in LCDs.
The most common factor used to decide whether countries are underdeveloped nations is through the Human Development Index. Countries that are underdeveloped in nature offer poor health care, few educational opportunities, a low average life expectancy, a low number of job opportunities, few recreational facilities, poor economic growth, a low standard of living and a poverty-stricken life.
Instructions:
Write at least a six-page paper, in which you:
Identify the two LDCs (from the list above), which you will compare and assess. Explain why you chose these two countries.
Analyze the features that the LDCs have in common using at least five of the following nine factors(clearly label the five factors using headings):
geography
extractive institutions
governmental corruption
internal or external conflicts
shaky financial systems
unfair judicial systems
ethnic, racial or tribal disparities
lack or misuse of natural resources
closed (statist) economies
Use at least seven credible sources. Wikipedia, encyclopedias, dictionaries, blogs and other material that does not qualify as reputable academic source work at the college level. Do not use sources that are older than seven years.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double-spaced (no extra spacing between paragraphs), using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
Citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date (do not include an abstract).
The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. Graphs, tables and photographs are notcounted toward the length of the paper; only what you have written as text itself.
Q8. SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz (Already graded A+)
SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz
Question 1
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Swedish Attorney, Bjorn Liar has been asked to lead a group that will decide which of his firm’s associates will be offered partner status. He’s been asked to be more expressive and to include everyone in the decision-making process. What leadership style should Bjorn use?
Authoritarian
Democratic
Laissez-faire
Bureaucratic
Political
Chapter 5
Question 2
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Select the appropriate conclusion from Stanley Milgram’s experiment on authority and the infliction of suffering.
The results of sociological investigation can be shocking.
Thresholds of physical pain differ substantially.
People are surprisingly likely to follow not only the directions of legitimate authority figures, but also groups of “ordinary individuals.”
The conclusions from Solomon Asch’s study of conformity were incorrect.
During times of war, values toward authorities and violence change markedly.
Chapter 5
Question 3
0 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) A group of businesswomen meet on a monthly basis to assist one another in advancing their careers. They give each other job leads and advice. This group is an example of _____.
You Answered
a role connection
impression management
status assistance
a network
LinkedIn individuals
Chapter 5
Question 4
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) By working at a specific task, people are more likely to become highly skilled and carry out a job with maximum efficiency. This is the rationale for the bureaucratic characteristic of _____.
employment based on technical qualifications
hierarchy of positions
specialization
rules and regulations
impersonality
Chapter 5
Question 5
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 4) Which statement is true concerning intersexual people?
They are sexually attracted to both sexes.
They are attracted to neither sex.
They have both female and male characteristics.
They have no gender.
They are in the middle of gender reassignment surgery.
Chapter 6
Question 6
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Pat Rearc argues that without norms controlling sexual behavior and thus giving the forces of sexual passion free reign, family life and the raising of children would be threatened. To which paradigm would Pat be aligned?
Structural Functional Theory
Symbolic Interaction Theory
Social Conflict Theory
Queer Theory
Exchange Theory
Chapter 6
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Emile Durkheim proposed several functions of deviance. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
Deviance affirms cultural values and norms.
Deviance provides employment for a large segment of the work force.
Responding to deviance clarifies moral boundaries.
Deviance encourages social change.
Deviance promotes social unity.
Chapter 7
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Travis Hirschi’s approach to deviance and control proposes that
Hirschi is a deviant spelling of Hershey.
deviance results from differential access to wealth.
deviance is a frustration of ambition.
individualism inhibits the deviance.
everyone finds at least some deviance tempting.
Chapter 7
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following is NOT a reason researchers have given for decline in violent crime?
Increased use of the death penalty
Reduction in the youth population
Changes in policing
Better economy
Declining drug trade
Chapter 7
Question 10
2 / 2 pts
(TCO 3) While a _____ system is social stratification based on ascription; a _____ system is social stratification based on both birth and individual achievement.
caste; crass
caste; classless
cask; class
mobility; closed
caste; class
Chapter 8
Question 11
0 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) According to the Davis-Moore thesis:
You Answered
Equality is functional for society.
World inequality results from the activities of global multinationals.
The greater the functional importance of a position, the more rewards a society attaches to it.
Stratification ultimately will be eliminated in the U.S., due to our meritocracy.
Viola Davis and Demi Moore are same actress.
Chapter 8
Question 12
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) _____ is the term for earnings from work or investments and _____ is the term for the total value of money and other assets, minus outstanding debts.
Income; personal property
Profit; income
Wealth; income
Income; wealth
Rent; net worth
Chapter 8
Question 13
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) _____ refers to the deprivation of some people in relation to those who have more, while _____ refers to a deprivation of resources that is life-threatening.
Relative poverty; absolute poverty
Absolute poverty; comparative poverty
Normative deprivation; non-normative deprivation
Comparative deprivation; incomparable deprivation
Absolute poverty; relative poverty
Chapter 8
Question 14
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Marx claimed social stratification would end with the creation of a socialist economy. What was Weber’s view?
Weber thought socialism would reduce economic differences but also create a political elite, increasing differences in power.
Weber thought capitalism could not be changed.
Weber thought socialism would create a new high-prestige nobility.
Weber agreed with Marx.
Weber thought social stratification would only increase as the world became more industrialized.
Chapter 8
Question 15
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Accounts Payable Administrator Imelda Czechs works for a small international corporation. This category of work can be described as _____
blue-collar work.
white-collar work.
pink-collar work.
fur collar work.
no-collar work.
Chapter 8
Question 16
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which type of slavery consists of employers holding workers by paying them too little to cover their debts?
Chattel slavery
Child slavery
Debt bondage
Debit slavery
Revolving credit slavery
Chapter 9
Question 17
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which of the following gives the correct order of stages of modernization according to W. W. Rostow?
High mass consumption, traditional, drive to technological maturity, and take-off
Traditional, drive to technological maturity, take-off, and high mass consumption
High mass consumption, traditional, take-off, and drive to technological maturity
Traditional, take-off, drive to technological maturity, and high mass consumption
Take-off, drive to traditional maturity, technological, and consume mass quantities
Chapter 9
Question 18
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) A social theorist who contributed to the development of dependency theory by tracing the growth of the capitalist world economy is
Max Weber.
Emile Durkheim.
Walt Rostow.
Oliver Clozov
Immanuel Wallerstein.
Chapter 9
Question 19
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) The model of the capitalist world economy is
Karl Marx’s view that the bourgeois nations, such as England, would dominate the proletarian nations, such as India.
Erving Goffman’s view that world peace would result from many types of nations interacting with one another.
Talcott Parsons’s view that the inequality that exists among nations is necessary for world stability.
Immanuel Wallerstein’s view of the global economic system as divided between certain industrialized nations that control wealth, and developing countries that are controlled and exploited.
Gerhard Lenski’s view that, as countries gain more technology, they move through levels of development.
Chapter 9
Question 20
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of technological and cultural differences between nations and _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of the historic exploitation of poor nations by rich ones.
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Consider Dell which is famous for its low inventory of parts (from Dell’s suppliers) and finished products (assembled at Dell’s manufacturing facilities). If Dell maintains low inventory of parts, and if Dell wants the suppliers to ship the parts soon after it places an order for them, does it mean that the suppliers shall maintain a high inventory of parts? And if the suppliers shall maintain a high inventory of parts, do the suppliers incur high holding costs? And if the suppliers incur high holding costs, who will eventually pay for those costs? Dell? Or its suppliers? Or ultimately the customer? If you were Dell, discuss how you would ensure that the holding costs are actually reduced, not just transferred.
Implementing Policy
Description
Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?
Rulemaking
Description
“Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.
Unit 4 Assignment
Description
Analyze the administrative process within the executive branch
Assessment: Research and develop a flow chart of your state’s own process for agency rulemaking starting with the executive branch review through to the final adoption of the rule. All the major steps and alternative steps as well as players must be identified including any relevant time lines or deadlines. Sources must be appropriately cited. Hint: Go to your own state’s website and key in appropriate search words or phrases. Start with your state’s code sections that contain its own version of the Administrative Procedures Act.
For a how-to guide on creating a PowerPoint flowchart review the resource below:
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5.Business
With the first weekend of March Madness underway, there has been plenty of talk regarding Power 5 (P5) Conferences versus non-P5 schools. Many sports analysts believe the P5 schools have an advantage in making the NCAA MBB tournament and when it comes to seeding in the tournament.
Read these articles:
http://www.newsobserver.com/sports/college/acc/article139198713.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
http://sports.yahoo.com/news/march-madness-day-2-recap-power-conference-dominance-sets-up-second-round-showdowns-042714662.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
If you are unfamiliar with the term P5, read this article to familiarize yourself. http://www.huffingtonpost.com/ken-reed/big-five-have-changed-col_b_5725772.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
The P5 schools earned $6 billion dollars last year compared to a mere $4 billon for ALL of the other schools combined.
Do you think March Madness favors P5 schools? Why or why not? If you think they do, what solutions do have to create parity for all schools? What are things FGCU can do to improve our likelihood of being selected to the NCAA tournament as an at-large bid.
6.Psychological Statistics
SPSS HOMEWORK 1
40 POINTS
Factual Informative Scenario
Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25
10
25
15
10
20
32
15
10
15
15
35
30
50
45
30
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
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Cooperation
Competition
88
91
73.5
82
84
92.5
76
95
98
81.5
92
87
85
79
91
95.5
72.5
74
63
Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)
Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)
Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question
Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.
During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.
In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:
List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.
Answer the following questions
The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.
Need help with the following questions
Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.
Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
Personal loss exposures
Property loss exposures
Liability loss exposures
With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.
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Design and analysis of algorithms
Analysis & Design of Algorithms
Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.
Question 1
Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.
Question 2
Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.
Question 3
Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.
Question 4
Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.
Question 5
Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.
Question 6
Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.
Question 7
Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.
Software design and construction quiz
Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.
QUESTION 1
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QUESTION TEXT
You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?
Select one:
TOGAF
IEEE
MICROSOFT .NET
JAVA
QUESTION 2
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QUESTION TEXT
What does the MVC pattern do?
Select one:
IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.
SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.
IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.
SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.
QUESTION 3
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QUESTION TEXT
Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?
Select one:
NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.
YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.
YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.
NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.
QUESTION 4
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QUESTION TEXT
Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?
Select one:
WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.
YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.
NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.
MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.
QUESTION 5
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QUESTION TEXT
Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?
Select one:
YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.
NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.
NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.
YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.
QUESTION 6
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?
Select one:
WELL DEFINED INTERFACES
MODULARITY
AGILITY
INFORMATION HIDING
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QUESTION 7
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is not an architectural style?
Select one:
CONNECTOR.
LAYERED.
CLIENT-SERVER
PEER-TO-PEER.
QUESTION 8
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QUESTION TEXT
Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?
Select one:
YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.
YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.
NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.
NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.
QUESTION 9
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QUESTION TEXT
Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?
Select one:
IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.
I REALLY DON’T KNOW.
YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.
NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.
QUESTION 10
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QUESTION TEXT
What is software efficiency?
Select one:
HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.
LOW COST.
HIGH OCTANE.
BEST USE OF RESOURCES.
QUESTION 11
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QUESTION TEXT
Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?
Select one:
NON-FUNCTIONAL.
NEITHER.
BOTH.
FUNCTIONAL.
QUESTION 12
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QUESTION TEXT
Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?
Select one:
THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.
YES, IT DOES.
IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?
NO, IT DOES NOT.
QUESTION 13
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QUESTION TEXT
What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?
Select one:
HIDE … POUNCE.
LISTEN … CORRECT.
WATCH …. GRAB.
TRY … CATCH.
QUESTION 14
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QUESTION TEXT
What is the role of connectors in software architecture.
Select one:
THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.
THEY HAVE NO ROLE.
THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.
THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.
QUESTION 15
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is an example of a Connector?
Select one:
REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.
BACKING UP FILES.
PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.
GRAPHICS PROCESSING.
QUESTION 16
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QUESTION TEXT
What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?
Select one:
COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS
COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.
COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.
PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.
QUESTION 17
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QUESTION TEXT
What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?
Select one:
HE INVENTED THE WEB.
HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.
WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?
HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.
QUESTION 18
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QUESTION TEXT
What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?
Select one:
HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.
HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.
HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.
HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.
QUESTION 19
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QUESTION TEXT
Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?
Select one:
ME? NO WAY.
NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.
YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.
YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.
QUESTION 20
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QUESTION TEXT
How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?
Select one:
THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.
SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.
THEY ALL LOVE IT.
MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.
Create a small GUI application
Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.
Sum of the four values
Product of the four values
The smallest value
The largest of the values
The exit button will exit the application.
Sport Management and Drugs
Sports Management:
Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)
Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!
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Capital Budgeting
Question
Regis International Corporation (RIC), a Denver based technology company, has been applying its expertise in microprocessor technology to develop a small computer specifically designed to control home appliances. Once programmed, the computer would automatically control the heating and air-conditioning system, hot water heater, and even small appliances such as coffee makers. By increasing the energy efficiency of a home, the appliance control computer can save on costs hence pay for itself in a few years. This effort has now reached the stage where a decision on whether or not to go forward with production must be made.
RIC’s marketing department plans to target sales of the appliance control computer to the owners of larger homes – the computer is cost effective only on homes with 2,000 or more square feet of heated/air-conditioned space. The marketing vice-president forecasts sales in 2018 to be $40 million and to increase by 6 percent per year. The engineering department has estimated that the firm would need a new manufacturing plant; this plant could be built and made ready for production in 1 year, once the “go” decision is made. The plant would require a 25-acre site, and RIC currently has an option to purchase a suitable tract of land for $1.2 million; the land option must be exercised on December 31, 2016. Building construction would begin in early 2017 and would continue through the end of 2017. The building, which would fall into the MACRS 39-year class (ignore any half-year convention), would cost an estimated $8 million, payable on December 31, 2017.
span class=”Apple-converted-space”> The equipment, which would fall into the MACRS 7-year class, would have a cost of $6.5 million, including transportation, plus another $500,000 for installation.
span class=”Apple-converted-space”> The initial working capital investment would be made on December 31, 2017, and on December 31 of each following year, net working capital would be increased by an amount equal to 12 percent of any sales increase expected during the coming year. The project’s estimated economic life is 6 years. At that time, the land is expected to have a market value of $1.7 million, the building a value of $1.0 million, and the equipment a value of $2 million. The production department has estimated the variable manufacturing costs would total 65 percent of dollar sales, and that fixed overhead costs, excluding depreciation, would be $8 million for the first year of operation. Fixed overhead costs, other than depreciation, are projected to increase with inflation which is expected to average 6 percent per year over the 6 year life of the project.
RIC’s marginal tax rate (federal and state) is 40 percent; its weighted average cost of capital is 15%; and the company’s policy, for capital budgeting purposes, is to assume that operating cash flows occur at the end of each year. Since the plant would begin operations on January 1, 2018, the first operating cash flows would thus occur on December 31, 2018. The capital gains tax rate is the same as the ordinary income tax rate.
As one of the company’s financial analysts, you have been assigned the task of supervising the capital budgeting analysis. For now, you may assume that the project has the same risk as the firm’s current average project, and hence you may use the corporate cost of capital, 15 percent, for this project. Calculate the NINV, NPV, IRR, and payback period for the appliance control computer project. Create Best Case and Worst Case scenarios based on the Sales number only. Assume the Best and Worst are +/- 25% for Revenues.
In addition to showing the values for the NINV, FCFs, NPV, IRR, and payback period, please provide a copy of your spreadsheet that shows your calculated values for the initial investment, the cash flows, and the salvage value.
Moment of Inertia
Question
A constant t A large wheel in the shape of a cylinder with a 0.333 m radius is free to rotate on a frictionless vertical axle. A constant tangential force of 250 N applied to the edge causes an angular acceleration of 0.94 rad/sec2. What is the moment of inertia of the wheel? What is the mass of the wheel? If the wheel starts at rest, what is its angular velocity after 5.0 sec?
Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s?
Question
Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s? Book used is an American promise with a concise history. I need question answered with a 5 paragraph summary. one introduction, 3 for body and one conclusion.
What developments in Americans society in the 1950s were at odds with prevailing norms and values?
Question
What developments in Americans society in the 1950s were at odds with prevailing norms and values? Book used an American promise with concise history. I need a simple 5 paragraph essay with key terms please.
Question from the Preston Plant Case Study
Question
What are the most significant events in the story of how the plant survived because of its adoption of quality-based principles?
Data warehouse
Question
You are a senior analyst in the IT department of a company manufacturing automobile parts. The marketing Vice President (VP) is complaining about the poor response by IT in providing strategic information.
Draft a proposal for VP to introduce the concept of business intelligence.
How data warehousing and analytics as part of business intelligence for your company would be the optimal solution
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Individual Programmatic Assessment paper
Question
Select a neurological, psychological, or neurodevelopmental disorder.
Write a 2,450- to 3,500-word paper comparing and contrasting three therapeutic interventions used to treat this disorder. Compare measures of effectiveness, such as validity, efficacy, symptom and behavior management, and recidivism. One therapy should be cognitive in nature, one should be pharmacological in nature, and the third should be an alternative therapeutic treatment.
Identify common symptoms associated with your disorder and rates of symptom reduction or management as reported with the three treatments. Based on your research, what would be your approach to treating the condition? Identify which treatments you would use. Explain why.
Analyze the neurophysiological underpinnings of diseases and disorders.
Examine contemporary attitudes toward the three treatments you selected.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Include 7 to 10 peer-reviewed sources.
Week five discussion
Question
Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!
What are some neurodevelopmental disorders resulting from toxic chemicals? Do you think these disorders can be prevented? If so, how? If not, why not?
What are effective disorders? How might they have an impact on functioning?
Homework:LCM and GCF Review
Question
Ms. James is making fruit baskets. She has 15 apples and 6 oranges. She wants to make all fruit baskets identical without having any pieces of fruit left over. What is the greatest number of fruit baskets Ms. James can make?(Hint:GCF)
Chem Help
Question
The salt sodium formate, NaCHO2(s), completely dissociates into Na+(aq) and CHO2−(aq) in an aqueous environment. The Na+ ion has no acid or base properties, but the formate ion is the conjugate base of the weak acid, formic acid.
Part a. Write a balanced chemical equation showing how the formate ion reacts with water to affect the pH of the resulting solution (you can ignore the sodium ion in your balanced equation).
Part b. Find the pH of a 0.100 M solution of sodium formate, NaCHO2. The Ka for formic acid is 1.8×10−4.
I know the equation is HCOOH(s) + H2O(l) ⇆ CHO2−(aq) + H3O+(aq) but I don’t understand how to get the pH.
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Colgate Canada
Question
Given that Colgate Canada plans to hike its marketing spend by $3 million for the toothpaste category, how would you spend it?
Information Communication Technology
Question
Subject: Information Technology.
Question: Project Work on Poultry farm monitoring using technology such as sensors and internet.
Instructions:
*Introduction
*Literature Review
*Methodology
*System Design Analysis
*Implementation and Conclusion
*Reference
*Software
What is an integrated marketing commutation?
Question
Please find at least one article which helps to define integrated marketing communication, share it with the class and use it to help provide your take on what integrated marketing communication means. Please use a credible source to locate your article. A mainstream marketing publication like Brandweek, or Adweek is fine, but an academic journal article is even better. Spend a little time describing the importance of integration and what exactly we are striving to integrate. Please source your article in your post.
Marketing
Question
Please read the ATTACHMENT (Ivey) Colgate Palmolive Canada case study. Then discuss one important issue that needs to be addressed by Colgate based on the case and why. Their are several issues just discuss one.
Write 8 complete sentences.
General Assignment
Question
In a certain community, 8 percent of all adults over 50 have diabetes. If a health service
in this community correctly diagnoses 95 percent of all persons with diabetes as having the disease and incorrectly diagnoses 2 percent of all persons without diabetes as having the disease, and the probabilities that, (a) the community health service will diagnose an adult over 50 as having diabetes. (b) a person over 50 diagnosed by the health service as having diabetes actually has the disease.
Week 6 discussion question
Question
I do not need a paper. This is discussion question. I need 8 different 150 word answers to the question below. I need to post 8 times for discussion questions below.
Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!
Do you believe that drug abuse/dependence (i.e., the tendency toward addiction) is hereditary? Why or why not?
From a psychological what do you think are the most important aspects of drug use? (e.g., reinforcement, brain regions that mediate rewarding feelings, cravings, etc). What are some areas that would be challenging from a treatment perspective?
Stats Discrete Probability Distribution Questions
Question
Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.
What is the probability that exactly 3 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C
Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.
What is the probability that at least 3 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C?
Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.
What is the probability that at most 2 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C?
Finance
Question
During a year of operation, a firm collects 175,000 in revenue and spends 80,000 on raw materials, labor expenses, utilities, and rent. The owners of the firm provided 500,000 of their own money to the firm instead of investing the money and earning a 14 percent annual rate of return
What’s the explicit cost of the firm?
What’s the implicit cost of the firm?
Total economic cost?
Total accounting cost?
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Google Internet Inc
Question
Google Internet, Inc. is evaluating its cost of capital under alternative financing arrangements. In consultation with investment bankers, the company expects to be able to issue new debt at par with a coupon rate of 8% and to issue new preferred stock with a ksh. 2.50 per share dividend at ksh. 25 a share. The common stock of the company is currently selling for ksh. 20.00 a share. Google expects to pay a dividend of ksh. 1.50 per share next year. Market analysts foresee a growth in dividends at a rate of 5% per year. Google’s corporation’s tax rate is 30%.
Required:
Calculate the component cost of capital for the three sources of finance to Google Company.
Write a 3 to 4-page essay (1 ½ spaced, one-inch margins) discussing how the use of electronic devices impacts on these three sources of philosophy: sense experience, leisure, and wonder.
How to Write a Paper
Every paper needs a title, an introductory paragraph, a body, and a concluding paragraph.
For an academic paper you want to pick a title that would allow a reader who was researching your topic to be able to find your paper on a database. If you can make the title sound intriguing so much the better; however, it is more important that the title gives the reader an accurate idea of the paper’s content. Vague titles are virtually useless. If your paper is specifically on whether squirrels remember where they hid nuts, and you entitled it “Squirrels” or “Memory in Animals” the person who wanted to know about whether squirrels remember where they hid nuts is not going to readily find your paper in a database, if he or she finds it at all.
The introductory paragraph should explain to your reader exactly what you intend to do in the paper. It should also try to gain the reader’s interest by displaying the importance of the topic. You should state in a very general way what your conclusion or conclusions are.
In the body you present your various arguments for the conclusion or conclusions that you draw. It is important to define the relevant terms. It is always useful to consider viewpoints contrary to your own, to the extent that space allows for it, and to give a reason for why you rejects them. In regard to some topics, you yourself may argue both that something is good in one way for reason X, but bad in another way for reason Y. Being one-sided is a huge flaw in a philosophy paper.
The concluding paragraph should mirror the opening paragraph, except now you can summarize why you conclude what you conclude, as your reader will now readily follow what you are talking about.
[ ] Title was missing or inappropriate
[ ] YOU DID NOT WRITE AN APPROPRIATE INTRODUCTORY PARAGRAPH – reread How to Write a Paper
[ ] YOU DID NOT WRITE AN APPROPRIATE CONCLUDING PARAGRAPH
[ ] YOU DID NOT DEFINE/DESCRIBE ONE OR MORE OF THE SOURCES IN TERMS OF IT BEING A SOURCE OF PHILOSOPHY.
[ ] YOU DID NOT STAY ON TOPIC (The paper is not about the impact of electronic devices on human life in general, but on their impact on three specific sources of philosophy.)
[ ] YOU DID NOT GIVE PROS (THE BENEFITS) of electronic devices in regard to some or all of the sources.
[ ] YOU DID NOT GIVE CONS (THE NEGATIVES) of electronic devices in regard to some or all of the sources.
[ ] YOU DID NOT SUFFICIENTLY ADDRESS ONE OR MORE OF THE BELOW:
Is the answer that comes up on a search engine always true?
Even if it is true, in the case of a philosophical question, is it an answer for the person who googled it simple b/c s/he has read what comes up?
What has to be the case in order for a philosophical question to be an answer for you?
Tie the above in with the notion of double ignorance.
[ ] Answers to philosophical questions referred to as “information.” “Information” is typically a contingent truth (one that could be other), such as where is the nearest Starbucks or how to change a print cartridge for a given printer (that Starbucks could close and that printer could have had another design). Philosophy seeks to know unchanging truths concerning the nature of things and their causes.
[ ] Paper would be improved by additional reflections.
Computer Science
Instruction
Briefly describe Windows PowerShell and Linux Shell scripts. Find or create a short PowerShell script or a Linux shell script. Briefly summarize what the script does. Then, post the script as text in your answer and a screenshot of the output after running the script. If you find it somewhere, please give the source (e.g. URL) of your finding and author name if available.
Write about 150-200 words Provide citations and references for any sources
Business
Instruction
Marketing Case Analysis Paper- This assignment requires an analysis of a case (stated in the textbook). All of the requirements on the rubric needs to be addressed in the analysis. I will provide the rubric and screenshots of the case analysis once I assignment the homework.
Religious Studies
Writing Instructions:
Your journal will have three sections:
Introduction: (about two pages/600 words). This should contain a brief description of the storyline of which this meditation is a part. Answer the five basic questions of meaning regarding your meditation experience:
Where do you come from?
Where do you want to go?
What obstacles must you overcome to get there?
What is your plan to do that?
What kind of help can you expect?
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Meditating: Ideally, you need to meditate for about 25 minutes once a day, for a period of seven days. If you miss a day, or cut short the time, you will need to add it later. You can break these up in the beginning but you need to aim for doing twenty-five minutes at one time. I do not advise doing any one sitting for longer than that. If you want to go longer, alternate the sitting meditations with walking meditations.
III. Journal Entries: Don’t wait! Immediately after every sitting, write at least two hundred words detailing your experience. All you really need to do is make some notes which you can polish later, but get them down as soon as you can!
As much as possible, just report your actions, thoughts and feelings, as clearly and as accurately as possible. Pay special attention to the physical sensations that go with the thoughts and emotions, and the thoughts and emotions that go with the physical sensations. Also note the changes in your body, mind, emotions, etc. that went on during the meditation. Until you get all these into your notes, avoid interpretation. Time spent interpreting these should be reserved for later, at least until you get the bare experience recorded in your notes.
The following questions are meant to prompt your recollection for journal entries. You need not answer all of them in every journal entry, nor to exclude other questions and concerns:
What was your state of mind to begin?
What exercises and actions did you take during the session, including changes from pervious meditations?
What did you find most difficult?
What changes took place in your mental and physical state?
To what extent was your meditation dominated by particular thoughts, images, feelings, etc?
What insights or inspirations did you experience?
What memories and associations came through your steam of consciousness?
Conclusion: (300-500 words) This section should consist of three parts:
Answer all the same questions that you did in the introduction, but now from hindsight interpreting what actually happened. Compare and contrast these two narratives.
Briefly state how this experience corresponds to anything you encountered in the readings for class.
Briefly state what you learned from meditating. What do you know now that you did not know before? With what questions did this experience leave you?
General
Instruction
In this essay, you will present your own Personal Philosophy of Success, identifying the On Course success strategies that you will use for years to come. This essay is your opportunity to write the script that will keep you on course to a rich, personally fulfilling life! (2-3 pages) An “A” paper will . . . Demonstrate the writer’s careful consideration of one or more On Course success strategies. Contain extensive support (examples, experiences, evidence, and/or explanation) for each strategy, and Show a commitment to excellence in preparation, including professional appearance and a command of Standard English.
Judicial Activism
Instruction
Judicial Activism Write a 2-3 page, APA style paper on judicial activism. Present the arguments on both sides of the question as to whether judges should interpret or simply apply the Constitution. Research and provide more current examples (the current Supreme Court docket) and predict how you think the justices will decide. Then think about the idea that if one can predict the decisions of the justices on the Supreme Court–where does that leave the idea that no case is prejudged? Please include 2-3 references. Only one reference may be from an internet source (not Wikipedia) the other references must be located in the Grantham University Online Library. Only the body of the paper will count toward the page requirement. Include a title sheet. Please see the rubric below.
Simio program
IMfgE. 565 -SYSTEMS SIMULATION
PROJECT Step 1
20 points
Objective: You are to conduct a simulation study of a system that includes one or two queues. This will include the steps in the simulation study covered in class (hand out will be provided). The goal of your study is to construct a valid simulation model of the system as it currently exists. This will include the collection of data for use as input to your simulation.
Projects will be conducted in groups of two or three. As an example, assume that we are modeling a queue(s) in the RSC bookstore and you have examined the system and chosen a queue or queues to be modeled. In your analysis of the system keep in mind:
a) The elements of a queuing system.
b) Performance measures of a queuing system described in Chapter 2 of your ARENA text.
Turn in a report that includes the following:
1) Decide on the boundaries and limits of your system. For now consider:
a) Time – We are interested in the busiest time of the day. State beginning and end points?. Is there a day of the week effect? i.e. Are some days busier than others? If so, what days will you analyze?
b) What are the physical entry and exit points to the system?
c) What is the initial state of the system?
2) How much detail will you include? Your level of detail depends upon the output. You want to capture the essence of the system. (Note: Since level of effort is a part of your grade, too little detail will result in a reduction in points)
a) Are there different kinds of customers?
b) What kinds of servers (manpower)?
c)
3) Draw a logical diagram of the system. Include:
a) What will be flowing through your system (food, customers, and money)?
b) Where are the entry and exit points?
c) Where are the servers (manpower)?
4) Construct a flow chart of the process.
5) What are the inputs to your systems (stochastic and deterministic)? List data to be collected.
6) How will you validate the system? i.e. Validation of the system will be performed using the number of customers that have gone through the system.
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IMfgE. 565 -SYSTEMS SIMULATION
PROJECT Step 1
SAMPLE
Goal: This project will model the checkout queue in the RSC bookstore.
System boundaries:
Time:
Look at one of the busiest times of the day: 4:30 – 5:30pm. The system was inspected during weekdays only. There was a day of week effect in that Fridays was least busy. This study will only consider Mon. though Thurs.
Physical entry points:
Entrance and exits to the system are the natural entrance and exit points to the bookstore.
Initial state:
After several, days of observation, the state of the system was found to be busy with a few customers in the system (in service, in queues, in store).
Detail:
There are two types of customers: customers that leave without buying anything (A), and customers that buy something (B). There are 2 banks of cash registers, but a single queue feeding all of them, so this will be modeled as a FIFO. There are 6 servers, and each customer will go to the next available server.
Logical Diagram:
RSC Book Store
Proportion of A and B customers.
Check out Queue
Time spent in system.
Processing time (time to service one customer).
6 servers
A
B
B
Inter-arrival times.
Inut:
INPUT:
Deterministic:
Number of check out clerks = 6.
Types of customers = 2 (A and B).
Stochastic (data collection)
Probability of customer type.
Time between arrivals data.
Time spent in bookstore.
Processing time at check out counter.
Time in system for Type B customers (validation data).
VALIDATION: Validation of the system will be based on the time in the system for Type B customers.
Flow Chart:
White Collar Crime
Instruction
White Collar Crime I Have to do What? This chapter discusses the differences between self-policing and traditional policing. In 1-2 pages, compare and contrast self- policing efforts with traditional policing efforts. In your opinion which model is better? Explain why.
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PHI 101 Short paper assignment
Instruction
Metaphysics, epistemology, logic, ethics, and aesthetics are the major branches of philosophy. You need to write a brief paper about one of them. You need to do a little research and then describe in your paper what the branch of philosophy is AND why it’s important. Make your paper between 400 to 500 words. You need to cite at least one book or scholarly journal. No websites, wikis, or encyclopedias!! Submitting your assignment: 1) Write your essay in a word procession program. (Word, Google Docs, whatever fake thing Apple uses, etc…) 2) Then, copy the essay from the document, and paste it into the Blackboard “Text Submission” – “Write Submission” section. 3) Make sure that you save your original document. So, if anything goes wrong, you can resubmit. 4) Check the box to allow SafeAssign to check your work.
Nursing Final Term Paper Nursing Theory Comparison (Major )Transcultural Nursing (formerly Culture-Care) – Madeleine Leininger (Middle Range)Marion Good & Shirley Moore – Acute Pain Management (Adults)
Instruction
Choose one grand nursing theory and one middle-range theory and have them approved by your instructor. Write an 10 page comparison paper based on your approved theories. Based on the reading assignment (McEwen & Wills, Theoretical Basis for Nursing, Theories, select a grand nursing theory. • After studying and analyzing the approved theory, write on this theory, which includes an overview of the theory and specific examples of how it could be applied in your own clinical setting. • After studying and analyzing the approved theory, write on this theory, which includes an overview of the theory and specific examples of how it could be applied in your own clinical setting. The following should be included: • An introduction, including an overview of both selected nursing theories • Background of the theories • Philosophical underpinnings of the theories • Major assumptions, concepts, and relationships • Clinical applications/usefulness/value to extending nursing science testability • Comparison of the use of both theories in nursing practice • Specific examples of how both theories could be applied in your specific clinical setting • Parsimony • Conclusion/Summary • References: Use the course text and a minimum of three additional sources, listed in APA (6th ed.) format The paper should be 8–10 pages long and based on instructor-approved theories. It should be typed in Times New Roman using 12-point font, and double-spaced with 1″ margins. APA format (6th ed.) must be used, including a properly formatted cover page and reference list. The proper use of headings in APA format is also required.
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General
Instruction
Module 4
For this assignment, I want you to create a Windshield survey of your community. This is to be a fun assignment and one I hope you will learn from. use your hometown! The reason for this assignment is so you can learn and show us about where you grew up and how your environment and its resources affect your daily life.
Windshield surveys are a form of direct observation that involves making visual observations of a neighborhood or community while driving—literally “looking through the windshield.”
The purpose of the windshield survey is to gain a better understanding of the environment you are studying to provide insight to the resources available in a community. Specifically, windshield surveys allow for the observation of neighborhood boundaries, housing conditions, use of open spaces, shopping areas, schools, religious facilities, human services (such as hospitals and physician offices), modes of transportation, protective services (such as fire stations), and overall neighborhood life within the community. “Windshield” surveys can even be conducted on foot if a vehicle is not available. Here is a link to help you with understanding what I am wanting:
Perform a Windshield Survey of a community you choose. With this assignment, I want you to learn more about your community, what is available and what you can give back to your community. I also hope this will let you see from a “different perspective” what your community has to offer and any opportunities that you might find that are available from a job status in your community.
After you complete your survey, you will create a presentation about your experience. So you will have at least two documents. Here are some helpful tips to creating a ‘great’ presentation:
TIPS
Ø You might want to take someone with you to be the ‘driver’ while you observe the community.
Ø Take a digital camera. You’ll want to get some photos to document what you find. The pictures will also add value to your presentation.
Ø Take a pad of paper and something to write with; you’ll want to stop and take some notes.
o Make notes, but don’t get bogged down in the ‘details.’
Ø You can interview someone in the community if you can’t find the information you want.
Ø Stop and have something to eat or drink and observe what goes on around you. Who is there? What are they talking about? What is the latest ‘buzz’ in the town?
Ø If this is a community you know well, you’ll be challenged to NOT make a biased survey. To avoid bias, you might want to go to the next town/community down the road and observe that community.
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Ø
Please use the following as criteria for both observing your “community of choice” and writing the final report. This will be a paper different from your presentation. No pictures will be in this paper only the data questioned below.
Paper: (80 points) Label the paper with the heading you are discussing.
Boundaries (5 pts.) Identify the boundaries for the entire community. You can include a map, highlighting the city limits or just describe the location.
Housing (5 pts.) How old are the houses. Are they of particular style? What materials are they made from? How well are the homes maintained? What kinds of multiple family dwellings exist (apartments, duplexes, and subsidized housing complexes)? Are there vacant houses? Is this an established community or is there a lot of new construction? Are there for-sale signs, for rent signs? What does the housing indicate about the income level of the residents?
Signs of decay and/or pollution (5 pts.) Identify if there are poorly maintained homes, trash in streets, garbage-filled vacant land, etc. Describe any evidence of water, air, and/or ground pollution.
Parks, recreational areas (5 pts.) Are there parks and/or playgrounds? Are they being used? What is their condition? What recreational areas or facilities were observed?
Transportation (5 pts.) What forms of transportation do you see people using? Is public transportation available? How well are streets and highways maintained? Is there traffic congestion?
Health and social service agencies (5 pts.) What social service agencies, including health care facilities, are in the area you surveyed? (MAP IT!) What gaps in services did you observe?
Economics (5 pts.) List the location, number, and type of industries you observe. Who are the major employers?
Protective services (5 pts.) What evidence do you see of police and fire protection; sanitation services; water treatment plants?
Faith/Religion (5 pts.) List the number and types of religious facilities.
Schools (5 pts.) List the location, type (e.g., private, public, vocational education), level (elementary, intermediate, middle school or junior high school, high school, college) and number of schools.
General (5 pts.) Is there evidence of gangs (describe how you know whether there is gang activity present.)? How do billboards/signs reflect information about character of the community (e.g., political affiliation, adult entertainment)? Describe the downtown area. What cultural and ethnic groups are represented?
Subjective feeling (5 pts.) How do you feel, being in the community? Do you feel comfortable? Are people friendly? Would this area be one in which you would live and/or work? Explain.
Problem identification/ community needs (10 pts.) Based on your observations in the Windshield Survey, comprehensively identify any presenting problems (including gaps in service) in the community you surveyed. Be sure to identify problems. You may want to talk to a few “key informants” or “gatekeepers” to help you with this. This should be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are problems in your community. Reasons for non-growth?
Community Strengths (10 pts.) Did you observe any community resources that may address identified problems? Develop a comprehensive list of all community strengths that you observed during your survey. EVERY community has strengths!! You might have to look hard, but they ARE THERE!!!This should also be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are the Strengths of your community.
Module 4 Presentation Project – 40 points
The format for your presentation slide show should be:
Introduction of your community (from Boundaries through General)
Subjective feelings
III. Community needs
Community assets/strengths – this is a great place to put in a photo of your communities point of pride! This could be a park, football field, local restaurant, etc.
Conclusions
Make sure you use a presentation software that everyone can view. .
You may make the presentation fancy or plain; you can use music or video; this is YOUR project and YOUR community of choice. Have fun and make it your own. I want to see pictures of your community and only bulleted list of topics you want to discuss.
If the presentation is too long it will not upload correctly and you will have issues. Limit the presentation to around 10-15 slides.
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General
Instructions
Leader PowerPoint Using the guidelines provided, create a leadership PowerPoint. Grading Rubric Leader Experience: Summary in PowerPoint presentation summarizes learning experience (leader interview) with chosen leader, including 3-4 slides for each concept as follows: Content • Analyze the importance of the leader’s role to the organization and the effectiveness of the individual in the role • Relate insights and knowledge gained through the Learning experience to course and address the following concepts; (1) major role responsibilities, (2) personal leadership style of the chosen leader, (3) alignment of personal values with organization.
General
Instruction
Teaching tool The Leadership Teaching Tool addresses an identified area of concern that the student has about a specific issue. Examples may include Healthy Patient Communications in the Prison System, Managing Conflict in a Critical Care Unit, Dealing with Stress while holding a Middle Management Position, Ensuring Quality Outcomes in Constrained Economic Times, etc The Teaching Tool will be in brochure format. Points will be assigned based upon the following criteria: Content • Introduce the issue being addressed, demographic data (statistics/numbers of people effected) and provide teaching information from health care providers in addressing this issue; i.e. enhancing communication, increasing quality of care, etc… (4 points) • Outline teaching interventions for this issue, the role of the healthcare provider; i.e. specific teaching interventions. (4 points) • Provide a minimum of two learning objectives at the beginning of the teaching tool
Health Care
Instruction
Write a paper with evidenced based policy and reasoning explaining whether or not you believe that nurse practitioners should work independently. This would be with no physician neither signing off on anything nor supervising any of the nurse practitioner’s functions. If the NP is independent, then what would be the difference in the skills, functions, duties of the physician? Why do you feel this way? How could the present medical system go from its current state to one that functioned as in your world? Limited to 10 pages APA format
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Algebra I
Instruction
Students need to complete one project and submit it before Friday of week 15. The official deadline for submission is Apr 12, 2019, before 9 PM. Format guidelines The project can be any topic in relation to algebra and its applications. However, it should NOT be on the material that is already covered in class. The students must select their own projects and articles. Important: No part of the project can be a copy and paste from anywhere, including the article under discussion (except the data and images, which need to be properly cited). If in doubt read https://ombud.msu.edu/academic-integrity/plagiarism-policy.html Turnitin has a built-in plagiarism tracker. Please use it to your advantage. The entire document should be written in APA format and should be between 4 to 10 pages in length not including images and the cover page. No extra wide margins are allowed. The margins should not be more than 1” in any direction. Choosing a topic Students must choose their own topics. Once the topic is chosen please post the topic in the following thread https://online.brooklinecollege.edu/mod/forum/view.php?id=539558 Start a new thread with the topic of your project as the subject line and post your topic in this thread. The same topic is not allowed for any two students. The student who posts a topic first gets it. Examples of viable projects: Mortgage rates Auto loan Compound interest Submission All papers should be submitted as a pdf file via the Turnitin module of Week 15. If any technical issues are encountered then contact your instructor asap. Rubric The following are the sections on which the project will be graded. A clear description of the objective of the article (20%) A clear description of the algebraic methods used (30%) Interpretation of the results (30%) Analysis of the conclusions of the article (20%) These 4 sections form the essential parts of any research article. The competence demonstrated in achieving the objective of each of these sections will be awarded accordingly. The rubric for each section and the article as a whole is 0 – Incoherent content, rambling on for pages, a clear indication of no work done, poorly chosen topic, a generic topic with no original content, copy paste from Wikipedia, a topic which is disallowed on grounds of being textbook material 1 – Some content, poorly researched, and hastily put together at the last minute 2 – Some research is done but the substance is still incoherent showing a lack of understanding 3 – Sufficient work is done, but the sections are not well-written and contain loose language and lack general cohesiveness 4 – Well researched and well-written. Minor typos, grammatical errors, lack of organization of the paper, too short a paper 5 – Excellent work, very well researched. Sections are clearly defined in terms of meaningful progress. The plan of the paper binds everything together in a cohesive manner This is applicable to each of the four sections and the whole article. So a total of 25 points possible. That will be scaled to 100 by multiplying by 4.
Week 8 – Assignment: Interpret the Implications of Unethical Behavior
Instruction
Now is the time to compile all the concepts you have learned in this course into a comprehensive case study analysis. Assume you are an instructor presenting an unethical case study to your graduate students. Develop a PowerPoint presentation on a business of your choice. Be sure you include clear examples to support your findings. Please discuss unethical business actions that occurred from 2015 to present. Ensure to address the following key components for your student audience: Provide a brief historical summary of the organization. Identify and explain the unethical business practice examined. Reflect on ethical standards and why this practice was a violation of ethical behavior. Determine the influence of leadership in regards to this behavior. Explain any related cultural, environmental, and legal implications related to the behavior. Interpret the impact of the behavior on individuals, the organization, and society as a whole. Explain the outcome of the event, along with a comparison of the consequences (mention legal implications for the action). Determine the fairness of punishment. Explain your rationale using an ethical theory, as found in the recommended reading, to justify your rationale for the punishment’s fairness. Explain how organizational policies and procedures could be implemented to deter future occurrences like this from happening. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with at least eight scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 15-20 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate.
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Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Week 6 – Assignment: The Organization’s Influence on Unethical Behavior
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions The assigned reading articles provide a great deal of information regarding the impact that organizational systems have on unethical behavior. For example, in the article by Kilduff et al. (2016), the researchers note that rivalry can often increase unethical behaviors. This week, you will explain how an organization’s culture (e.g., systems and practices) can unknowingly/unintentionally increase unethical behavior among employees. Explain the importance of organizational culture and codes of conduct in encouraging ethical behavior. Assess three organizational policies or practices, as found in the reading and outside research, which can increase unethical behavior among employees. Propose informal and formal system solutions to reduce unethical behavior in organizations. Explain the benefits of these system solutions, as well as possible implications for these solutions. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
Week 5 – Assignment: Critique Ethical Issues Regarding Information Technology
Instruction
You have been hired as a consultant in the IT Department at Northcentral University. One of the University’s current goals is to minimize security threats and prevent breaches. To accomplish this, you have been asked to research last year’s “major hacks” to understand technology, information security measures, and issues in security management. Prepare a report for the IT supervisor that includes the following: Select one major incident to research regarding technological breaches. Identify the company that was affected, and then describe this incident and why you selected it. Explain the implications associated with this breach, specifically in terms of privacy laws and violations of the law. Analyze the impact that these technological breaches have on consumer safety and well-being. What recommendations would you make to this organization to further protect the privacy of clients? Support your report with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic
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Computer Science
Instruction
Data Analysis and Reporting Class: / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the VMware Horizon client. You also will use Visual Studio 2017. Also, there’s reading quizzes and assignment quizzes. These class 8 weeks work, which means 8 assignments in SQL database / ERDs. 24 quizzes “I will support you will old papers for all quizzes” 2. Data Analysis/Visualization Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016. Also, there’s an assignment project om SAM project website. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. 3. Predictive Data Analysis Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016 and you will Using R programing language for Introductory Econometrics by Florian Hess. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the whole classes or not. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus 1,2,3. These classes will end on May 6. So, it’s only 2 months’ work.
53 . 300-Word Philosophy Essays
Instruction
Instruction
For every 300-400 word essay. Each essay is addressing two different questions to be answered. It should not be hard at all for someone who understands philosophy. If the essays are well written I might have some other things you could help me with for the class if you’re interested.
Health Care
Instruction
There are seven components to this paper. They follow the EBP process. You will combine all the components into one project. See attachment.
Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?
Psychology
Instruction
Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.
Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive
Economics
Instruction
You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).
Writing a Python script to implement computer animation tools within Autodesk Maya
Instruction
– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.
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Psychology Homework
Develop a research question on any of these topics only pick one of these. they are 1.attention, 2.learning, 3.memory, 4.language, or 5.decision making),
Revisit the Module One Areas of Interest and Practical Applications in Cognitive Psychology discussion topic, where you examined your interests, potential problems, and applied settings related to cognitive psychology. Building on those conversations, draft a topic suggestion by identifying your particular area of interest in cognitive psychology (attention, learning, memory, language, or decision making), select an applied setting (education, law, mental health, or technology), and describe the contemporary problem as it relates to your topic and setting. Last, draft three potential research questions that explore potential improvements related to your topic and the applied setting.
For example, if you suggested the topic of attention and online students, the applied setting would be education, and you might develop the following research questions:
How does multitasking while studying (e.g., listening to music while reading, or texting while reading) influence attention to course material?
How do individuals with ADHD perform in an online learning environment, and what strategies can help them succeed?
What strategies can teachers and students use to increase attention to relevant material in an online course?
The instructor will provide feedback on your topic submission and make recommendations as to which research question is most feasible to pursue, given the parameters of the final project.
59.Big Data
Compare and contrast five clustering algorithms on your own. Provide real-world examples to explain any one of the clustering algorithm. In other words, how is an algorithm beneficial for a process, industry or organization.
What clustering Algorithms are good for big data? Explain your rationale?
Please locate and review an article relevant to Chapter 4. The review is between 200-to-250 words and should summarize the article. Please include how it applies to our topic, and why you found it interesting.
– Please write in APA Style and include at least three (3) reputable sources. (No Plagiarism)
SWOT analysis is acronym of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. SWOT analysis reveals what factors or forces work in favor or against the company on the market. These factors can be internal or external, or both. Your assignment is to complete a SWOT of the 3 companies from your previous assignment. You should complete this assignment in Power Point. I would also like you to add a company overview slide before each company’s SWOT analysis. You can use bullets or a grid for the SWOT – do what is easy for you. I’m look for a visually appealing, but concise presentations. In the company overview cover:
Company Name
Summary of what they do
Number of Employees
Location of Company
CEO and a little of his background
Please keep this overview slide concise – I’m looking for a high-level overview followed by a SWOT analysis.
Week 1 – Assignment 2
Sustainable Living Guide Contributions, Part 1 of 4: Sustaining Biodiversity and Ecosystems
[WLO: 2] [CLOs: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]
Prior to beginning work on this assignment, read Chapters 1 and 4 in the Turk and Bensel’s Contemporary Environmental Issues textbook (2014).
The purpose of this assignment is twofold: first, to enable you to explore a term (concept, technique, place, etc.) related to this week’s theme of sustaining Earth’s biodiversity and ecosystems; second, to provide your first contribution to a collective project, the Class Sustainable Living Guide. Your work this week, and in the weeks that follow, will be gathered (along with that of your peers) into a master document you will receive a few days after the end of the course. The document will provide everyone with a variety of ideas for how we can all live more sustainably in our homes and communities.
To complete this assignment, you will
Select a term from the list of choices in the Week 1 – Term Selection. Reply to the forum with the term that you would like to research. Do not select a term that a classmate has already chosen. No two students will be researching the same topic.
Download the Week 1 Assignment Template and replace the guiding text with your own words based upon your online research. Please do not include a cover page. All references, however, should be cited in your work and listed at the end, following APA format expectations.
In the template, you will
Define the term thoroughly.
Clearly relate the term to the week’s theme.
Explain how the term affects living things and the physical world.
Relate the term to the challenge of achieving environmental sustainability.
Justify if the term represents an obstacle to that goal, or perhaps a technique or technology that might promote it.
Suggest two specific actions we can take to promote sustainability in relationship to this term.
Provide detailed examples to support your ideas.
Please do not include a cover page, or even place your name directly on the work. In addition to submitting this assignment to Waypoint, you will also be submitting it for anonymous peer review by classmates in Week 2.
The Sustaining Biodiversity and Ecosystems assignment
Must be a minimum of three paragraphs in length (not including title, any quoted text, or references) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center’s APA Style (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. resource.
Must use at least two credible and/or scholarly sources in addition to the course text. To receive optimal credit, use at least one scholarly source from a peer-reviewed academic journal. To aid you in your research, and particularly in locating scholarly sources via the Ashford Library or using Google Scholar, please review the following Ashford videos and tutorials:
Out of which 50 are exclusive dealers and sales per ecxlusive dealer is =$6.44 million
Whereas 300 are non-exclusive dealers sales per nonexclusive dealer is =$9.2k
How effectively does ABC compete in exclusive dealerships? Compare with served market data.
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IEP Lesson Development Using Evidence-Based Strategies
We have been working with Huang throughout this course. As we continue to develop his IEP, an important component of developing this plan is to identify the EBP strategies that can be used to target each goal and objective of the program. When EBP instructional strategies are determined, they can be incorporated into lesson design and planning.
Instructions:
Select one of the goals that you developed for Huang in Week Two.
Create a sample lesson plan that can be provided to Mr. Franklin that targets the selected goal for Huang and other classmates using differentiation strategies to individualize the lesson, as well as accommodations and/or modifications. You may use one of these provided formats (Lesson Plan Sample 1 or Lesson Plan Sample 2) or use a format that you are already familiar with using.
The IEP Lesson Development Using Evidence-Based Strategies paper
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Recommend using APA level headings to organize your work.
Nursing Paper
A seven (7) page APA style paper on Quality and Safety in Nursing.
Must have a minimum three (3) peer review articles Published within the last 10 years, referenced in the paper.
Must be typed and double spaced.
The main body of the paper must be a minimum 4 pages in length.
The peer review articles that are using must be attached to the paper as an appendix. And provide a reference page.
Please upload the link for the article so that I can print it out. Please do not use Wikipedia!
Nursing Paper
APA paper– 2 pages in length excluding cover page to include a minimum of one reference. Label each topic
Introduction– Define what philosophy means to you.
-Describe your personal philosophy for nursing profession.
-Describe influential experiences which impacted your decision to pursue nursing as a profession.
-Describe your professional goals
-Define what health and wellness means to you
-Conclusion
–Please make sure to include proper grammer, proper word use, punctuation, sentence composition, paragraph development, sentence clarity, spelling.logical and clear essay development: easily readable(Use heading). APA style as appropriate for referencing and format and reference.
Discussion Questions
Need the following in 150 word minimum and if references used cited in APA format.
What four criteria are used to define a trait as positive?
What differences led Lyubomirsky to conclude that happy and unhappy people live in separate worlds?
What is the value of self-esteem as a general life outlook and a coping resource?
What is the value of self-esteem as a general life outlook and a coping resource?
Relationships Brochure
Create a brochure in which you communicate the following to engaged couples:
1. The effect of intimate relationships on wellbeing
2. Strategies to maintain healthy relationships
Information Technology
The United States Supreme Court denied a petition for certiorari (refused to review the lower court’s ruling) in the case of Authors Guild v. Google, Inc., 804 F. 3d 202 – Court of Appeals, 2nd Circuit 2015.
Tell me what you would do if you were the Supreme Court.
That case let stand the ruling of the Court of Appeals which can be found at the following website:
https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=2220742578695593916&q=Authors+Guild+v.+Google+Inc&hl=en&as_sdt=4000006 last accessed February 9, 2019.
Please write a 500-word summary of fair use as this court decision says it.
Week 1 – Assignment 1
Stream Morphology Laboratory
[WLO: 1] [CLOs: 1, 3, 5]
This lab enables you to construct a physical scale model of a stream system to help you understand how streams and rivers shape the landscape, and how human actions can affect river ecosystems. This lab is done with materials that you will need to supply; the list of items you will need to obtain is in the Stream Morphology InvestigationManual.
The Process:
Take the required photos and complete all parts of the assignment (calculations, data tables, etc.). On the “Lab Worksheet,” answer all of the questions in the “Lab Questions” section. Finally, transfer all of your answers and visual elements from the “Lab Worksheet” into the “Lab Report.” You will submit both the “Lab Report” and the “Lab Worksheet” to Waypoint.
The Assignment:
Make sure to complete all of the following items before submission:
Complete Activity 1 and Activity 2 using the materials that you supply. Photograph each activity following these instructions:
When taking lab photos, you need to include in each image a strip of paper with your name and the date clearly written on it.
Complete all parts of the Week 1 Lab Worksheet and answer all of the questions in the “Lab Questions” section.
Transfer your responses to the lab questions and the data tables and your photos from the “Lab Worksheet” into the Lab Report Template.
Submit your completed “Lab Report” and “Lab Worksheet” through Waypoint.
Answer (8-9 Sentences)
Compare contrast the stages of Erikson and Piaget. How would you take these stages into consideration while doing your job as a parent or teachers?
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APA Paper
APA paper– 2 pages in length excluding cover page to include a minimum of one reference.
Label each topic (Subheadings)
Introduction: Define what philosophy means to you.
-Describe your personal philosophy for nursing profession.
-Describe influential experiences which impacted your decision to pursue nursing as a profession.
-Describe your professional goals
-Define what health and wellness means to you
-Conclusion
–Please make sure to include proper grammar, proper word use, punctuation, sentence composition, paragraph development, sentence clarity, and spelling. Logical and clear essay development: easily readable (Use heading). APA style as appropriate for referencing and format and reference.
Discussion Topic (Mapping Cloud Security Controls To Existing Frameworks Or Regulations.)
This discussion focuses on mapping cloud security controls to existing frameworks or regulations.
You will need to create 1 new thread AND post AT LEAST 2 comments on other students’ threads. Here’s how to get started:
Download the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix spreadsheet. (A quick Internet search should give you the address of the most current version for download.) Under the “Scope Applicability” heading, select a category that is applicable to the organization for which you work. For example, if your organization handle personal medical data and uses the COBIT framework, you could choose either COBIT or HIPAA/HITECH. Once you select a category, choose row from “Control Domain” (that no other student has already selected!) Then, create a new thread in this week’s discussion with the title from column B (i.e. CCM V3.0 Control ID.) Explain the control domain, how it maps to your chosen scope, and specifically what your organization does to implement the stated control.
If you don’t know which scope applies to your organization, just use the University of the Cumberlands (UC) as your organization. As a university, we are under the domain of FERPA, So, is you choose UC, you would need to choose a Control Domain and explain how it maps to FERPA, and how UC implements the controls.
So, here’s an example. Let’s suppose I work for a large on-line retailer. We handle payment cards and are therefore under PCI DSS requirements. I’ll select BCR-03 control ID (Business Continuity Planning.) So I would create a new thread in this week’s discussion with the title “BCR-03.” Then I’d explain what BCR-03 is, what it maps to in PCI DSS (4.1, 4.1.1, 9.1, 9.2), and then I’d explain what my organization does to comply with this control requirement.
Once you create your new thread, you need to find AT LEAST 2 other threads from other students and comment on their threads. Make sure your comments are more than “I agree”, or “Good post.”
Points: 3
ACCOUNTING HOMEWORK
This assessment includes two parts. Use the templates provided as you complete each part. Both of the templates are linked in the Resources under the Required Resources heading. Note that for Part 2 you will use the template for data but will create your own document to submit.
Part 1: Ratio Analysis
Making sense of accounting data on financial statements can be difficult. Thankfully, combining numbers from income statements, balance sheets, and other data provides a starting point to analyze a company’s financial results. You now have the opportunity to demonstrate your prowess by identifying and computing financial ratios.
Using the Assessment 5, Part 1 Template, analyze and compute the necessary financial ratios. The Financial Statements worksheet in the template contains the income statement, balance sheets, and additional information needed. The Ratio Analysis worksheet contains space for your calculations and answers.
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Part 2: Interpreting Financial Statement Analysis
What does the calculation of a financial statement ratio represent? How does one year compare to another? Is there a trend to the ratio data? Is the trend positive or negative? What can be done to change the trend? These are some of the questions that can be answered when the ratio data is interpreted. For this part of the assessment, demonstrate your ability to interpret the results of a multi-year financial ratio analysis.
On the Assessment 5, Part 2 Template you will find selected ratios for a company over a two-year period. Compare the ratios, and in a separate document (Word or Excel), submit your answers to the following questions:
What does the calculation of each ratio represent?
How does year one compare with year two, and what trend can be seen when you compare the two years?
Is the trend from year one to year two positive or negative?
What are the possible reasons for the trend?
What recommendations do you have for turning a negative trend to a positive trend?
Submit the completed template for Part 1 and the document you created with answers to the questions for Part 2 for this assessment.
Strategic Plan Part 3: Organizational Chart and Operations Chart
For the Strategic Plan assignment, you will work throughout the course to create a market entry plan (entrepreneurial), a market expansion plan for an existing organization, or a mergers and acquisitions plan that seeks to increase your organization’s competitive advantage.
Complete Part 3 of the Strategic Plan assignment according to the directions in the Part 3: Organizational Chart and Operations Chart section of the “Strategic Plan” resource.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
75.Social Determinants Of Health In Teenagers In Liberty City Miami,FI
Hi I need a paper on the social determinants of health in teenagers in Liberty City, Miami Florida.. the paper must talk about the social determinants of health in teenagers. this is a paper for my nursing class and the information will be used in a powerpoint. the social determinants of health that should be included in this paper include:
-neighborhood and health environment
-economic stability
– health and health care services
-education
-and others as applicable
PLEASE MAKE SURE IS BASE IN LIBERTY CITY MIAMI FLORIDA AND IS ON TEENAGERS.. ALSO PAPER MUST BE APA AND NO PLAGIARISM SHOULD BE MAX 3 PAGES MINIMUN 2. MUST HAVE THE REFERENCE PAGE.
Incidence And Health Care Access Of Teenagers In Liberty City
I need a paper on the incidence and health care access of teenagers in Liberty City Miami, Fl. This is a research that must be done so that the information can be put into a PowerPoint. I need at least 2 pages of information and it should be double spaced and follow proper apa 6th edition format. Thank you
Pathophysiology Disease Paper and Presentation Congestive Heart Failure
Here are the guidelines for the patho paper you will be writing.
Pathophysiology Disease Paper and Presentation Congestive heart failure
For this assignment you will need to write a 3-page paper (not including title page or bibliography) and give a 5-10 minute presentation to the class on your topic. Make sure to create a concept map to hand out to the class that includes the information stated below. Please add some creativity to your presentation.
In your presentation you will need to include the following and create a concept map as well:
Pathophysiology of the disease process
Etiology of the disease process
Signs and symptoms (manifestations) of the disease process
Treatment of the disease process
Diagnostic test
1-2 nursing diagnosis with interventions
One NCLEX-type question for the class
One interesting piece of information about your disease process found from a reputable source outside of your textbook (this should be included as a citation in your paper. It should also be included on your reference page at the end of your paper).
Discussion Question with 400 Words In APA Format With No Plagarism With References
Data/Information/Knowledge
Discuss the relationship between data, information, and knowledge. Support your discussion with at least 3 academically reviewed articles.
Why do organization have information deficiency problem? Suggest ways organizations can overcome information deficiency problems.
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Unit VI Scholarly Activity
In the following assignment, you will be given two different questions concerning the material covered in this unit. Each question should be answered using a minimum of 250 words. Any resources, including your textbook, that are utilized to answer the questions should be cited and referenced using APA formatting. A template has been provided here for you to use to answer the questions. Enter your answers into the template, and upload the template into the assignment area within Blackboard. The questions you will be answering are shown below (and in the template).
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) currently has a permissible exposure limit (PEL) for noise of 90 dBA at an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) exposure with an action level of 50% of that exposure. OSHA uses a 5 dB exchange rate (doubling rate); this means that if the exposure increases from 90 dBA to 95 dBA, the allowed exposure time decreases to one-half—from 8 hours to 4 hours.
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) and the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) recommend using an exposure limit of 85 dBA instead of 90 dBA and also recommend using a 3 dB exchange rate. These levels are much more protective than the levels currently used by OSHA.
Discuss the merits of each of the two methods. Provide your opinion as to which of the approaches you believe should be used. Support your answer with at least one professional/scholarly reference.
OSHA does not currently have a regulation specifically covering ergonomic issues. OSHA has issued several guidelines for some specific industries. Consider a workplace you are familiar with where there is a potential for repetitive motion injuries.
Discuss what methods you would use to identify tasks that would present the greatest risk for repetitive motion injuries. How would you establish an ergonomics program to address the issues? What would be the greatest obstacles in establishing the ergonomics program?
Entrance Essay Writing
Only imagine: hundreds of students applying to various schools where the approval committee is tired of checking the same papers! Now think a bit what can be done to make the committee regard your entrance essay as the most impressive one?
Entrance essay performs you as a person and as a student;
Entrance essay shows your writing skills: it reveals your abilities to write in a clear, concise and structured way;
Entrance essay shows how creative and inventive you are;
Entrance essay shows your burning and sincere desire to enroll to this very school, college or university;
Entrance essay informs the committee on the way their institution may benefit from you;
Entrance essay is your last resort; make sure it is memorable and impressive.
Entrance Essays: Advice to Win
Set teeth for the essay writing process;
Forget about every day problems;
Find some quiet spot;
Brainstorm ideas and approaches;
Write several drafts;
Experiment with different beginnings and conclusions;
Study the entrance essay requirements you have to follow. Make sure you meet all of them;
Study the topic suggested (as a rule, this is some question to answer), if some misunderstanding tortures you, do not hesitate to consult your committee or website that writes essays.
Focus on the topic suggested: support your ideas with concrete arguments;
Use clear transitions within the paragraphs and the entire entrance essay;
Do not lie –speak about the achievements you truly have only and give a critical evaluation of your negative traits which need improvement.
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Do not let your entrance essay be another one in the dump of papers; let it be a constituent part of your entrance success!
And:
Sample Statement of Purpose Essays: Your Best Opportunity to Prepare
What is the gist of the essay called “statement of purpose”? Why is it of great importance to every student? Well, in other words, statement of purpose essays can be defined as mere college application essays. And, you definitely know that it is a critically important part of the application process.
All students who write a statement of purpose essay have one common question “What makes statement of purpose essays effective and unique?” A good way to find this out is to put yourself into the shoes of admission officers. In their place, what would you like to see in the statement of purpose essays?
I can briefly explain you what qualities the adcom appreciates and what they want to read about in the statement of purpose essays.
Your enthusiasm about studies (sure, they do not need students who will do nothing);
Your ability to work in a team (or, your ability to communicate and cooperate with others);
Your independent thinking (they need guys with good thinking and analytical skills);
Your creativity, etc.
It is a kind of psychological portrait that an applicant should create in his/her statement of purpose essay. However, everything is not that easy with this portrait. You cannot just list your good qualities. That is why we strongly recommend you start with an analysis of the statement of purpose sample essays and check how everything works in reality. Carefully read past sample statement of purpose essays and check how successful applicants did the following:
emphasized their talents and uniqueness;
talked about their weak sides;
provided examples that supported and proved things they described.
In other words, statement of purpose essay samples will help you understand what a good application is and is not.
Discussion Board 150 To 200 Words
As discussed in the Unit VI Lesson, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) published a final ergonomics program standard on November 14, 2000, which took effect January 16, 2001. Congress passed Senate Joint Resolution 6, which rescinded the original ergonomics rule that, under the Congressional Review Act, prohibited OSHA from issuing a rule that is substantially the same as the former one. Since 2001, OSHA has issued several ergonomics guidelines for some specific industries, and OSHA can cite ergonomic hazards only under the General Duty Clause.
What are your thoughts about the way Congress rescinded the original ergonomics rule and how OSHA currently regulates ergonomic hazards in the workplace?
English homework
Provide substantive content and formatting feedback for a classmate’s expository essay. You are being asked to act as an interested reader and respond to the draft as a reader. You need to consider the following question: How can I provide quality feedback that will help my peer when he/she is making revisions?
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OPERATIONS FORCE MANAGEMENT RESTRUCTURING
IN 500 words complete a project management plan for
OPERATIONS FORCE MANAGEMENT RESTRUCTURING
Must utilize the PMPConcepts: The 5 Project ManagementSteps
Step 1: Initiation.
Step 2: Planning. ..
Step 3: Execution. …
Step 4: Monitoring and Controlling. …
Step 5: Closure.
Reference page not needed and cannot count , own words
Reading Reflection
Question:
Herman and Chomsky critique media being in too few corporate hands. Is the democratization of information offered by the internet better or worse? In what ways?
12 font single space
Up to 3/4 page but no more than one page
Information Silos
Scenario: A company called Colony Nursery and Landscaping opened a new store located a few hundred miles away from its original location. The company wants to implement an award system that awards their customers with points whenever customers make a purchase, but the two stores are not able to share information. Colony Nursery and Landscaping will need to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system that will solve the information silo problem by collecting and making this user data available. Colony Nursery and Landscaping is hoping that by providing customers with this award system, they will be able to maintain competitive advantage. Colony Nursery and Landscaping cannot afford to purchase, develop, or maintain this system on-site, so they are investigating cloud solutions.
In addition, for many organizations, Colony Nursery and Landscaping included, information silos make it difficult to tap into needed information. Discuss whether or not the problem of information silos can be solved by using the cloud. Some organizations do not have the resources to construct or maintain their computer infrastructure, so they utilize cloud services instead to reduce costs and improve scalability. In this assignment, you will discuss whether or not the cloud offers solutions for Colony Nursery and Landscaping and identify an application that the ERP system could provide. Compose an essay that includes the elements listed below.
Define what an information silo is.
Explain why information silos are a problem for organizations.
Discuss why organizations are moving to the cloud.
Determine whether or not using cloud services, such as a cloud-based host for data storage, would solve the ERP information silo problem at Colony Nursery and Landscaping.
Explain how using the ERP system and awards program would provide a competitive advantage for Colony Nursery and Landscaping.
Discuss why the implementation of an ERP system might require business process reengineering for Colony Nursery and Landscaping. Be sure to explain the business processes that will be affected (e.g., the customer awards system). Use diagrams or tables as needed, but this is not required.
Your essay must be a minimum of two pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages), and it must be formatted in APA style. You should include an introduction section that gives background and context to your reader. You must use at least two scholarly resources as references. Any information from these resources must be cited and referenced in APA format.
African Perspectives on Slavery and Freedom
Assignment 2:
African Perspectives on Slavery and Freedom: Movie and Text Review (1000 words) 6 Intro: This unit looks at African perspectives of “slavery” and “freedom” through primary sources, African film, and documentaries. It shows why historians have called for other scholars and students to understand slavery as a phenomenon shaped by time and place—whether the murkiness of categories such as “slave” and “free
” or African bonds-peoples’ contributions to economic, political, and cultural life in Atlantic and Indian Ocean worlds. In particular, the unit asks you to set your assumptions about slavery and its opposite (freedom or autonomy) aside in order to understand these terms’ ironic histories from the experiences of enslaved Africans and their descendants.
Prompt: How have primary and secondary sources from this unit challenged the way your approach histories of enslavement from you own upbringing? Your answer need not take on everything in the unit. For example, you may choose to emphasize the limits of the slave/free dichotomy for understanding texts like Bakari’s “Of Slavery” and the movie, “Adanggaman,” or you may choose to look at Africans’ contributions to the Atlantic world. Regardless of your choice, all papers must show an understanding of slavery’s variations over time and place to receive a C or above. The movie, “Adanggaman,” provides clear examples of slavery’s changing and nature, and therefore, each paper must situate it correctly in historical context.
87. Develop A Research Question On Any Of These Topics Only Pick One Of These. They Are 1.Attention, 2.Learning, 3.Memory, 4.Language, Or 5.Decision Making),
Develop a research question on any of these topics only pick one of these. they are 1.attention, 2.learning, 3.memory, 4.language, or 5.decision making),
Revisit the Module One Areas of Interest and Practical Applications in Cognitive Psychology discussion topic, where you examined your interests, potential problems, and applied settings related to cognitive psychology. Building on those conversations, draft a topic suggestion by identifying your particular area of interest in cognitive psychology (attention, learning, memory, language, or decision making), select an applied setting (education, law, mental health, or technology), and describe the contemporary problem as it relates to your topic and setting. Last, draft three potential research questions that explore potential improvements related to your topic and the applied setting.
For example, if you suggested the topic of attention and online students, the applied setting would be education, and you might develop the following research questions:
How does multitasking while studying (e.g., listening to music while reading, or texting while reading) influence attention to course material?
How do individuals with ADHD perform in an online learning environment, and what strategies can help them succeed?
What strategies can teachers and students use to increase attention to relevant material in an online course?
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The instructor will provide feedback on your topic submission and make recommendations as to which research question is most feasible to pursue, given the parameters of the final project.
88. Article Summary
Choose an article with a min. 250 words and write a summary. length should depend on length of article
89. Psychology Homework
Define the following assessments and provide an example when each should be used:
Forensic assessment
Therapeutic assessment
Psychological assessment
Personality assessment
Remember to not go over the max words. no more than 250 words.
TEXT REFERENCE CHAPTERS 11, 12, and 14 this week
Cohen, R. J.& Swerdlik,ME.(2018). Psychological testing and assessment (9th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Companies. ISBN: 9781259870507
90. Psychology Homework
#1. Why is it important for counselors and other behavioral health professionals to become familiar with the use of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)? How can use of the DSM’s cross-cutting symptom measures aid counselors in clinical diagnosing?
Remember to not go over the max words. no more than 250 words.
TEXT REFERENCE cHAPTERS 11, 12, and 14 this week
Cohen, R. J. & Swerdlik, M. E.(2018). Psychological testing and assessment (9th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Companies. ISBN: 9781259870507
91. Business Assignment
· Problem Statement
· New Product Idea
· Publically Traded Company who will own your innovation
Statement of the Problem.Identify how you arrived at the problem, taking between 300 (minimum) to 500 (maximum) words. You will address questions such as the following: Does the problem have a commonly identifiable name? Is there a root cause of the problem (i.e. obesity for type II diabetes)? How do people currently solve this problem (living with it is a solution, but generally not a pleasant one)? Are people actively seeking out solutions, and do they understand clearly the problem they have? What is it about their current solutions that are not very attractive?
Introduction of the Company.Tell us about the company that you have selected. Make sure your company is publically traded, to ensure you have sufficient information to complete the assignment moving forward. Any exceptions to using a publically traded company must be approved in advance, by the instructor. Provide a company overview (Business Source Complete). Where is the company headquartered? How many employees do they have? What is their stock market ticker symbol? Starbucks is a publically traded company on the NASDAQ Ticker SBUX.Include a SWOT analysis on the publically traded company that employs your team. The SWOT should be in a matrix format and summarized in your own words how the various parts impact your idea.
Is your team struggling with a new product/service idea?Reviewing the company’s weakness or opportunities may help you identify ideas. In Starbucks case, they are focused on a growing office coffee marketplace, looking at expansion in Asia and focusing on health and wellness foods in the U.S. Humm… you now know their problem and guessing with a team conversation you could brainstorm some ideas to solve one of their problems. Do not forget to research the company (annual report to stockholders, notes) to make sure they do not already have your idea.
New Product or Service to be Introduced. What is your product? Create a 15 word (maximum) title to your idea that gives a good clue to the new product or service. Additionally, you will describe your unique product in good detail, taking between 300 (minimum) to 500 (maximum) words. You should identify theindustry,using GICS or Global Industry Classification Standard (Standard & Poors) or NAICS (Wards) of your new innovation. What trends are taking place in this industry (IBIS World) that indicates opportunity for your product. Additionally,identify a minimum of 2 key featuresthat make your product unique from what is already available.
Explain how this product fits with the overall company strategy and answer WHY customers would want to purchase and senior management should invest resources
92. Review The PERI (Problem Etiology Recommendations Implementation) Public Health Model Described Below. Select A Communicable Public Health Disease From One Of The Health Concerns Addressed In This Week’s Learning Resources.
Write a 1- to 2-page overview of your selected public health issue, making sure to respond to each of the following prompts:
Problem: What is the health problem or issue? Use appropriate sources, including Public Health data sources (e.g., CDC, Census, etc.), to describe this problem (e.g., HIV/AIDS).
What population does it impact (e.g., Women in sub-Saharan Africa)?
Etiology: What are the contributory causes? What is the burden of disease for this health issue? Are certain populations or cultures more impacted than others?
Recommendations: What can be done to reduce the health impact of your issue?
Implementation: How can health be improved in this population? What organizations or professionals should be involved?
93. Clinical
Pedagogy is a broad term used to describe the science and art of effective teaching. Student learning is reliant upon a teacher’s ability to select specific methods and strategies that meet the needs of all students.
Allocate at least 5 hours in the field to support this field experience.
Part 1: Observation
Observe your mentor teacher in your chosen content area delivering lessons and interacting with students. While observing one specific lesson, take notes using the “Observation, Interview, and Reflection” template .
Part 2: Interview
Outside of class time, interview your mentor teacher on his or her instructional strategies. Keep in mind the most recent lesson you observed and the pedagogical approaches used during this lesson.
Include the following topics in your interview:
What effective, research-based pedagogical strategies does your mentor teacher typically use during instruction?
How does your mentor teacher connect instruction to students’ backgrounds and interests?
How does your mentor teacher differentiate instruction to meet the needs of exceptional students, including students with gifted abilities, students with disabilities, as well as English language learners?
How does your mentor teacher integrate technological tools into instructional planning and day-to-day professional practices?
You do not need to submit interview notes to the LMS, but you are strongly encouraged to take notes to inform Part 3 of the assignment.
Use any remaining field experience hours to assist the mentor teacher in providing instruction and support to the class.
Part 3: Reflection Summary
In 500-750 words, summarize your observation and interview with your mentor teacher, as well as synthesize outside research to further your understanding of best pedagogical approaches. Drawing on your observation and interview, address the following questions in your reflection:
What effective, research-based pedagogical strategies did you observe during the lesson? What strategies does your mentor teacher typically use in instruction?
How does your mentor teacher connect instruction to students’ backgrounds and interests?
How does your mentor teacher differentiate instruction to meet the needs of exceptional students?
How does your mentor teacher integrate technological tools into instructional planning and day-to-day professional practices?
What pedagogical approaches do you anticipate using in your future professional practice?
Synthesize what you experienced in your mentor teacher’s classroom or learned in your interview by drawing on outside scholarly resources to support or extend your understanding of best pedagogical approaches.
Support your reflection with 3-5 scholarly resources.
Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
W11DQ Week 11 Discussion Question Discuss the importance of guidelines and procedures for access control. Your initial response is due by Thursday 11:59PM. It must be at least 250 words and have references. Your grade will reflect both the quality of your initial post and the depth of your responses. Refer to the Discussion Forum Grading Rubric under the Settings icon above for guidance on how your discussion will be evaluated. Guided Response: Respond to at least two of your classmates’ posts. Evaluate their discussions by agreeing, disagreeing, or adding other ideas to strengthen or enhance the perspectives presented in their initial posts.
W11P Week 11 paper
Discuss the best practices for implementing an access control system. Length, 2 – 3 pages. All paper are written in APA formatting, include title and references pages (not counted). Must use at least two references and citations. Please reference the rubric for grading All paper are checked for plagiarism using SafeAssign, you can review your score.
JW11 Journal Week 11 Enter a brief paragraph of what you learned this week.
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95. Putting AutoZone into Drive
Q1. Using no more than two sentences, describe AutoZone’s strategy.
Q2. Based on Michael Porter’s discussion of the characteristics of an effective strategy, does AutoZone have a good strategy for growth? Explain.
Q3. To what extent is AutoZone following the five steps of the strategic-management process?
Q4. Conduct an environmental scan o
or SWOT analysis of AutoZone’s current reality and recommend whether the company’s current strategy is poised to succeed.
Free Sample Marketing (Briefly)
From 7 to 10 slide small presentation (briefly)
Titles :
1) what is free sample marketing ?
2)benefit of using free sample ?
3)why free samples should be part of your marketing strategy?
4) marketing plan example (sample marketing plan)
5) when using free sample affect negatively ?
Argumentive 2 Page Essay
Before you begin writing the Argument Essay, you will need to propose your treatment of the issue. This proposal is your opportunity to consider your plan for tackling the argument. You will need to figure out what about the issue you want to focus your argument on. You cannot possibly cover the whole issue in this coming essay, so plan to write about a specific aspect of that issue. Your argument will need to be proven throughout the course of your essay. In order to prove your argument, you will need to select specific topics which you will want to highlight in your thesis statement. In this proposal, you will pitch those topics and how you will discuss them. Instructions: • Create a two to three-page proposal for your Argument Essay. The Argument Essay requires that you argue your position on an issue facing your community. • Consider the following questions when starting this assignment: o What specifically is the issue you will be exploring? o What is your argument? o How do you propose handling the argument in your essay? Proposal of Content This proposal is your opportunity to pitch your instructor your plan for the essay. The structure of the Argument Essay should be discussed within the proposal. You also should propose how you intend to gather research for this argument. You do not have to include any research, but you should figure out how you want to incorporate it. You also want to tell the instructor how you plan to structure the essay. Finally, include in the proposal what will make your approach to the argument unique. Requirements: • The assignment should be two to three pages in length.
Health Management
Research and pinpoint a specific health care organization, you can use the one from Unit 3. You will be using a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis to assess the health care organization and its environment. Strengths and weaknesses are internal factors. Opportunities and threats are external factors.
You are to complete the following in your strategic action plan:
Create a SWOT analysis.
Define a strategic action plan using your SWOT analysis.
Identify the strengths of the organization’s structure. (internal)
Identify the weaknesses of the organization’s structure. (internal)
Identify the opportunities. (external)
Identify the threats. (external)
Match the internal and external environments to attain the organization’s goals.
Identify how your action plans are linked to the following:
Vision statement
Mission statement
Service strategy
Summarize your overall strategic plan, indicating its current limitations and implications for the health care industry.
Keep your SWOT analysis short and simple, and avoid complexity and over-analysis. If it helps to organize your thoughts, use a SWOT table.
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Health/Public Policy
Select your state on the County Health Rankings & Roadmaps website:
Review the most recent state Summary Report (Downloads tab)
Review the Health Gaps Report for your state, paying close attention to the Highlighted Health Gaps section that are considered to be meaningful gaps that policymakers and leaders may want to examine more closely.
Prepare a report discussing the meaningful health gaps in your state and how health policies supporting community and national health can help close those gaps. Your report should also include a discussion of differences in health outcomes and health factors between the county ranked #1 in your state and the one ranked the lowest, suggesting county health policies that could help improve the ranking of the latter. Finally, your report should conclude with a summary of how public policies support community and national health.
The body of the report should be 3-4 pages, excluding the title page and references page. The County Health Rankings and the Health Gaps Report must be listed on the references page along with any other references you use in preparing the report. Use the following format for these required references:
Robert Wood Johnson Foundation & University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute (insert copyright year). (insert state name) Health Gaps Report. Retrieved (insert date) from http://www.countyhealthrankings.org/
Robert Wood Johnson Foundation & University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute (insert copyright year). (insert state name) Summary Report. Retrieved (insert date) from http://www.countyhealthrankings.org
English Homework
As discussed throughout this novel, Christopher is a very unique character. It is important, when reading this novel that we take what we are learning about Christopher and translate it to our understanding of real individuals with disabilities. With a partner, you will construct a research-based essay on the importance of representing individuals with autism and other intellectual or physical disability. There are questions below to help guide your research and your writing.
INTRO: Three or four sentences that do the following: mention book title and author; reveal that you are taking characteristics of a fictional character and discussing how similar or other relevant characteristics are depicted in important ways within media.
BODIES: You should have a minimum of 2-body paragraphs. The organization of this essay is totally up to you, but should answer the questions below.
CONCLUSION: Your conclusion will look very similar to your intro. And should contain a restatement of your thesis. The restatement of your thesis, however, should be written in different language to avoid redundancy.
Guiding Questions:
To what degree are differently abled people represented in today’s media vs. that of ten years ago
Why is the representation of differently abled people in media important?
What is the impact of differently abled representation in the media for other differently abled
Medical Coding and Billing
Write about current procedural terminology (CPT) 4 pages with reference.
2-Please Answer Based on These Answers as They Are Listed, Each One Must Be Answered in APA form And Not Less Than 150 Words
4-The Collaborative Patient Care Management Model, which is a multi-disciplinary and a population-based case management model, was first introduced in the year 2006. The prime objective of the model was to target such patients, which could be classified as high-cost and high-risk. The nurses not only manage these patients but also play a vital in the development of inter-disciplinary care plan (Kimball, Joynt, Cherner, & O’Neil, 2007). The model allows to develop a highly potent care plan, which has 1) greater potential to produce the desired results, and 2) the ability to reduce the overall cost of the care to be provided without compromising on its quality.
Reference
Kimball, B., Joynt, J., Cherner, D., & O’Neil, E. (2007). The Quest for New Innovative. Journal of Nursing Administration, 37(9), 392-398.
5-Thank you for sharing your post. I agree that the ACO’s are beneficial in helping to streamline healthcare. I have enjoyed the creation of the EMR as it allows other doctors within the same health organization access to my record so they know what it going on with me and I do not have to remember all the details. This can be important especially in the older population as many forget to write things down. Providing coordinated care helps to ensure that patients are receiving the right care. Continuity of care is important to patients as well because they do not want to repeat everything that is going on with them when it has already been asked. I find that many patients want the same nurse back if they are going to be there for several shifts in a row as they can build a short term relationship with them.
6-Accountable Care Organizations (ACO) is a network of doctors, hospitals, care providers home care and long-term care agencies, physician group practices, and other health care entities, such as medical homes, that come together to form a network to coordinate Medicare patient care. They share financial and medical responsibility for providing coordinated care to patients in hopes of limiting unnecessary spending. ACO are beneficial to both providers and patients. Providers become eligible for bonuses if they keep their patient’s healthy, while also meeting quality targets keep a portion of the savings. Patient’s benefit from having their care coordinated instead of getting each part of their health care separately. This reduces hospital stays, emergency room visits and expensive specialist and testing services that may be repeated by multiple healthcare providers. To protect patients ACOs must meet a long list of quality measures to ensure they are not saving money by stinting on necessary care. And if a patient is unsatisfied with there ACO they can see doctors of their choice outside the network without paying more and decline to have their information shared with the ACO (KaiserHealthnews.2015).
Reference
Kaiser Health News.(2015). Accountable Care Organizations, Explained. Retrieved from https://khn.org/news/aco-accountable-care-organization-faq/
Business and Finance
Management Action Plan
An action plan is a written strategy used to achieve outlined goals. For the purposes of this assignment, the action plan will be created using PowerPoint. An action plan includes the components listed below.
State the goal, which should identify what training content will be used and how it will be used.
The goal for this action plan is to assist managers with identifying how performance appraisals are used to demonstrate the success of training efforts.
Include the strategies for reaching the goal including what the trainee must do, what resources will be needed, and the type of support from managers and peers that will be necessary.
Include the strategies for receiving the feedback, which will be used to demonstrate the success of the training efforts.
Define the expected assessment results and how the results can be used to improve training.
After the title slide, begin your action plan by stating the goal. Next, identify at least three strategies for reaching the goal. Briefly explain your chosen strategies with supporting data in the speaker notes section of the PowerPoint presentation. For the third part of the action plan, develop a 10-question survey that could be used to demonstrate the success of the plan. Conclude your action plan with a summary of the expected results and how the manager could use them to improve training.
This action plan should contain at least 12 slides.
Here are some general guidelines to follow when preparing your PowerPoint presentation.
Design your presentation with the back of the room in mind. It is important that everyone can easily see and read the content.
Select a professional-looking slide design appropriate for the presentation and audience.
White text on a dark background is the easiest for the audience to see.
Use a large font size.
Use color and graphics when appropriate. Illustrations should relate to the content being discussed. Be creative.
Follow the 6 x 6 rule (i.e., use no more than six lines per slide and no more than six words per line).
Utilize the speaker notes function to add your talking points.
Bullet points work best on the slides.
Add slide transitions to enhance the audience’s experience.
Psychology Homework
Dear Son
I have learned that various elements contribute to development over the lifespan. Furthermore, you are now aware that numerous factors that shape one’s personality are present. How can you use this newly acquired knowledge to positively shape future generations?
For this assignment, you are going to write a letter to your son or daughter that you will present to him or her on the child’s 21st birthday. If your child is already over 21, imagine back to when he or she was born. If you do not plan to have children, you may write the letter to a child who is important in your life: a niece, nephew, or friend’s child, for example. Within your letter, you must discuss the following items:
When and why did you decide to have the child? If writing to a child that is not your own, describe why the child is important to you.
What are the most important qualities for a parent to have, and why?
What personal characteristics do you hope your young adult son or daughter will possess, and why?
How did you attempt to influence the child’s physical, motor, cognitive, moral, social, personality, and sex-role development? Give specific examples in each area while detailing how each one will influence your young adult’s future actions and decision-making abilities.
Identify cultural influences that could affect your son’s or daughter’s motivation and drive.
In your letter, incorporate research from the textbook to explain how you have sought to positively influence your son or daughter’s development. 1 page minimum
Psychology Homework
I learned that certain links exist between emotions, motivation, and stress. In fact, if one does not handle his or her stress effectively, numerous health issues could arise.
For this assignment, you are to compose a reflection paper in which you examine a current or past stressful event in your life. You must embrace Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) and describe your reactions to the stressful event during each stage. You should describe the various facial expressions that you displayed as you progressed through each stage as well. Be sure also to address the following questions:
What coping strategies did you embrace to help solve the problem?
How was your professional life affected by the stressor?
How does Maslow’s hierarchy of needs relate to your stressor? What motivated you to solve the problem?
Did you experience additional conflicts with other individuals as you endured this life trial?
Tips for writing your reflection paper:
Introduction: This is meant to give a concise overview of the featured stressful event and is usually one paragraph in length. In your introduction, you will reveal the featured stressful event that you will examine for this paper.
Summary: This contains your description of the required areas listed above in the opening statement, including Selye’s GAS, your facial expressions, coping strategies, professional impact, and relationship conflicts.
Analysis: In this portion of the paper, you should provide information from the textbook to analyze the impact that the stressful event could have placed upon your health, future goals, and motivation. You may use sources identified from the CSU Online Library to assist your analysis efforts, but this is not required.
Conclusion: This summarizes your final reflections for the featured topic. For instance, what implications have you uncovered during your research that you will apply to future stressful events?
Must be at least one page in length, not counting the title and reference pages, but it can be longer if necessary to address all aspects of the assignment. It should be formatted in APA style. You are required to utilize the textbook, but other sources may be used if needed.
Psychology Homework
Wade and Tavris explain that various factors combine to influence one’s thinking patterns, intelligence, and memories. In fact, we often embrace certain biases and mental shortcuts to assist our cognitive processing. These efforts can prove both costly and beneficial.
This assignment is divided into parts, so it is suggested that you begin working on it in advance.
Find a popular press article or story from the nightly news in which someone argues a point that you disagree with. Write a paragraph agreeing with this person. Allow one day before moving on to the next part.
Make sure at least one day has passed since writing the first paragraph. Now, write another paragraph disagreeing with the person. You will include both of these paragraphs in your essay.
Discuss the differences between your arguments from the first paragraph in which you agree and the second paragraph in which you disagree. Elaborate on whether you think that your opinion has changed on this topic, particularly thinking about your initial thoughts on the topic before you wrote either paragraph.
In your discussion, incorporate research from the textbook to explain how reasoning, intelligence, and memories influenced your arguments. How did cognitive dissonance affect your reasoning abilities?
Response must be at least two pages in length, but it can be longer if necessary to address all aspects of the assignment. You must use the Wade and Tavris textbook and at least one additional source. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Psychology homework
I have learned about various psychological disorders and the complexities involved with proper diagnoses and treatment efforts. Now it is time to put your skills to the test. Choose ONE of the cases listed below and create a mental health assessment for your chosen case. In the assessment, you should address the following:
Why is your client coming for treatment?
What are his or her current symptoms?
Does he or she have a history with this problem? If so, please describe it.
How could the issue affect his or her daily life functions?
What is your client’s specific diagnosis?
What is the general class(es) of disorders to which this disorder belongs?
What are your recommendations? What specific treatment plan will you prescribe for this patient? You should use your textbook as a reference to substantiate your plan.
How could you get his or her family involved?
Choose ONE of these cases to analyze.
Tony sometimes seems very wound up. At those times, he seems full of energy, talks very rapidly, and makes very grandiose plans. Once, he gave away all of his belongings and was planning to move to Washington, D.C., so that he could advise the President. At these times, he also seems to need almost no sleep. During other periods of time Tony seems very down. During these times, he does not take care of himself. He seems to want to sleep all the time, and he often makes thinly veiled references to wanting to commit suicide.
Paula has not left her house for several months. When she tries to go out, she experiences great anxiety. She says she is afraid that if she leaves her house to go somewhere, she will not be able to get back. Before all this started, Paula seemed fairly normal except for having several episodes where, for no apparent reason, her heart started pounding, she started to sweat profusely, and she experienced all the symptoms of fear and terror. One of the reasons she is afraid to leave the house is because she is afraid she will have one of these episodes again. Hint: there are two specific diagnoses here.
Horace sleeps a lot, has great difficulty getting out of bed in the morning, and generally does not want to do anything. He has stopped seeing friends whom he used to see often and declines all invitations to do things socially. His most common response is “I just do not feel like it.” He looks sad all the time and does not seem to take pleasure in everyday activities. This has been going on for the past two months.
Patricia is a 44-year-old female who reports that she has periods of time where she cannot remember what she has done. She reports that after one such period, she received a telephone call from a man who claimed to have met her in a bar where she was “the life of the party.” She had also told the man her name was Priscilla. Patricia thinks that this is odd because she does not drink, and she is a rather shy and retiring person. However, the man had her correct telephone number and was able to give a good physical description of her.
Frank was attending college in San Francisco during a recent earthquake. He lived in the area that was hardest hit by the quake. Frank was not home when the earthquake hit and was not injured in any way, but when he returned home, he found his building demolished and his two roommates crushed to death. Frank immediately drove himself to the airport, bought a ticket to Boston, and got on the plane. His parents found him on their doorstep in Boston the next morning. Frank remembers nothing about the earthquake and nothing about going to college in San Francisco. The last thing he remembers is being a high school student and living with his parents in Boston.
INTERNET AND ICT
Explain how the internet and other ICTs has done the following:
Transformed the society
Improved mutual understanding
Eliminated power differences
Brought about realization of truly free and Democratic world society.
Week 5 Assignment
Final Paper
The Final Paper provides you with an opportunity to integrate and reflect on what you have learned during the class.
The question to address is: “What have you learned about statistics?” In developing your responses, consider—at a minimum—and discuss the application of each of the course elements in analyzing and making decisions about data (counts and/or measurements).
No directly quoted material may be used in this project paper.
Resources should be summarized or paraphrased with appropriate in-text and Resource page citations.
Write a paper comparing and contrasting the four major classifications of drug actions on the human body (stimulants, depressants, hallucinogens, and narcotics).
Select one drug from each classification for an in-depth analysis, which should include at least:
the effects of those drugs on the human body,
a discussion of the dependence aspects of the drugs, and
their interactions with other drugs
how this drug impacts crime in the US
This paper must be from three to five full pages of text, not including the cover page or the references page and a minimum of two scholarly sources.
Environmental Science Homework
Please note that these answers should be submitted on different doc and ppt
Read The Kohala Center attached and examine the Material Flows on the Island of Hawai‘i report
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper on industrial ecology.
Focus your paper on the following, based on the industrial ecological report you chose:
Explain the basic materials used.
Discuss an energy flows analysis based on the scenario.
Explain how renewable and nonrenewable sources impact the industry.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Write a conclusion based on the attached a,b,c papers attache while also considering the narrative . Not less than 500 words
What sustainable engineering role do corporations and the government play within the oil and gas industry? What is the future outlook?
What is the outlook for renewable and nonrenewable sources within the oil and gas industry?
Prepare a power point conclusion with speaker notes based on your Industrial Sector ( Oil and Gas) Ecology Paper.
Need DQ Answer 300 Words, No Plagiarism, Use 3 References And In-Text Citation And Turn It In For The Content.
Subject: Marketing and Consumer Behaviour
Reading:
Hawkins, Mothersbaugh, Chapter(s) 15, 16
Topics: Information Search; Alternative Evaluation and Selection
Discussion Question 1 – CLO 5
What are two characteristics of the source of a message that influence its ability to change attitudes? Describe each and provide with real-life examples. Provide your explanations and definitions in detail and be precise. Comment on your findings.
Provide references for content when necessary. Provide your work in detail and explain in your own words. Support your statements with peer-reviewed in-text citation(s) and reference(s).
——————————-
Need DQ Answer 300 words, no palgiarism, use 3 references and in-text citation and turn it in for the content.
113. Legal & Ethical Concepts In Management
Essay On Apple
For this assignment, the student chooses one listed company in any Stock Exchange in the world as far as the documentation filed on the company’s website is in English as well. (Apple)
Below there is an indicative guidance of information that could be collected in order to analyse your company from the point of view of its legal disclosure and liabilities:
The main points to cover when analysing your company:
Brief introduction to your company: you could include information related to the sector it operates, some financial indicators, where it is listed, its marketcap and its marketshare on its sector.
Static analysis: this is the legal picture of the company and basically it looks at the disclosure provided to investors on its website. There are two main players in the company: shareholders and directors:
Shareholders: Free float and whether there are core or dominant shareholders, type of shareholders (ordinary and/or preference), AGM (Annual General Meeting) agenda and type of items that are included over the last five years. Please note that in the US this tends to be under the heading “proxy statement”.
Directors: Board of Directors and composition including both executive and non-executive directors together with the Auditing and Compensation Committee. Regarding auditors: how are auditors appointed? Are they changing every certain number of years? Please consider any changes over the last 5 years auditors’ letters. Look at the compensation committee and investigate how the directors’ remuneration is devised. Note that there is no need to include directors’ CVs or even names, just look at a qualitative analysis unless there is other type of relevant information that needs to be included.
Dynamic analysis: Look at the litigation in which your company has been involved (probably by carrying out internet searches as companies are not very keen to disclose details on their own litigation unless they have a substantial impact on their accounts). You need to include a brief characterisation of the cases (criminal, tort, contractual) explaining whether the cases are due to the sector on which the company operates or they are indifferent for that matter. Pick up one or two examples to explain to the class in your oral presentation. If possible try to find out the outcome of the case (was it settled?)
Critical conclusion: Based on your findings, what is your view of the company regarding its corporate disclosure? Would you invest on it based on its degree of transparency and functioning? Why?
Referencing: Although you can use a variety of sources you need to include at least 4-6 academic sources as part of your assignment. Harvard referencing.
Format
Written assignment comprising 2,500 word (+10%)
Discussion
Read section 8.1. What is ‘technological inequality’ and how have you seen this inequality play out in your own life? (10 points)
Read section 8.3. What have been some global implications of technology and the role it’s had in society? Be specific. Look at section 8.4. Which theoretical perspective do you most align yourself with regarding perspectives on media & technology? (15 points)
Read section 9.4 on “Theoretical Perspectives on Social Stratification”. Which perspective do you most identify with regarding social stratification & inequality (functionalism, conflict, or symbolic interactionist)? Why? (10 pts)
In your personal opinion along with facts, is the American dream available to all people? Why or Why not? Look at section 9.2 in our text. Which class would you say you are a part of (upper-class, middle-class, or lower-class)? Why?
Synthesis Paper
Congratulations! You have just been hired by the Gainesville United Sports Association (totally fictional)! Because you are (now) an expert on social issues in youth sport, you were awarded a consulting contract to implement a parent education program for the youth sport organizations in Gainesville.
The Gainesville United Sports Association oversees and writes recommendations for “best practice” in privatized youth sport organizations (organized club/travel sports). For your parent education program, you will:
select the 3 most pressing social issues in youth sport about which you think parents MUST be informed
provide a background on each issue and justify why it is critical that the issue be addressed (benefits or consequences of the issue)
provide your recommendation for “best practice” in which parents should either be engaged, or seek out (in a coach, an organization,…) – this means you can write about what parents do (their behavior or expectations), what coaches do (behavior or programming), or what an organization does (programming), or any combination of the 3.
In the end, your Synthesis Paper is a guide for parents to know the issues, and know what should be happening in their child’s youth sport organization (in the best interest of their child).
Case Study
Read the following case study on the attachment and answer the following questions:
1- What are some aspects of this program that ensured its success?
1page
2- What are important aspects of Chagas disease that influence measures to control it?: What are the activities for Chagas control? How are these activities accomplished?
3 pages
3-how would you describe JICA’s model for working in Guatemala?: Who did JICA work in Guatemala and why? What are the advantages and disadvantages of the JICA’s cooperation model?
2pages
4-In adapting the Guatemalan project model, Dr. Zuniga and his colleagues faced challenges. What were they and did Dr. Zuniga deal with them?: There are various stakeholders in Chagas disease control in Guatemala. How did Dr. Zuniga deal with them? Dr. Zuniga and his colleagues had to modify their successful program for the surveillance phase. Why? and what were the challenges they faced? How did they establish the surveillance model?
3 pages
Industrial Espionage
Consider this hypothetical situation:
David Doe is a network administrator for the ABC Company. David is passed over for promotion three times. He is quite vocal in his dissatisfaction with this situation. In fact, he begins to express negative opinions about the organization in general. Eventually, David quits and begins his own consulting business. Six months after David’s departure, it is discovered that a good deal of the ABC Company’s research has suddenly been duplicated by a competitor. Executives at ABC suspect that David Doe has done some consulting work for this competitor and may have passed on sensitive data. However, in the interim since David left, his computer has been formatted and reassigned to another person. ABC has no evidence that David Doe did anything wrong.
What steps might have been taken to detect David’s alleged industrial espionage?
What steps might have been taken to prevent his perpetrating such an offense?
Questions
Please answer the following questions.
Early-Stage Financing and Venture Capital is the topics!
1) Can someone explain Venture Capital and Stages of Financing?
2) What are some Venture Capital Realities?
3) Lastly, lets discuss Venture Capital Investments and Economic Conditions!
Ah a great topic: Corporate Long-Term Debt!
1) Is It Debt or Equity and why?
2) Can someone explain Long-Term Debt: The Basics?
3) What is The Indenture?
Knowledge Management Systems
Choose one of the scenarios below (A or B) to complete the assignment.
Scenario AYou are the business owner of a local small engine repair shop, and you have been thinking about implementing a knowledge management system for your customer service technicians. You are thinking about this because there are times when some of your technicians know how to fix certain engine problems and others do not. Providing a central knowledge repository could help share troubleshooting and repair knowledge among your technicians.
Scenario BYou are the business owner of a local cleaning service, and you have been thinking about implementing a knowledge management system for your cleaning technicians, especially for those who troubleshoot and solve cleaning problems, such as removing certain carpet and water stains, addressing mold, and selecting the proper tools and products to use for other types of cleaning issues. You are thinking about this because there are times when some of your cleaning technicians know how to properly clean carpets and others do not. Providing a central knowledge repository could help share cleaning knowledge among your cleaning technicians.
After you chose your scenario (A or B), compose a paper that addresses the elements listed below.
Explain the role of knowledge management systems. Explain what is meant by expert systems.
Explain what is meant by content management systems.
Discuss how the business in the selected scenario could benefit from an expert system and a content management system, and provide two examples for each type of system.
Discuss how the business in the selected scenario could benefit from business intelligence, and provide two examples of these benefits.
Discuss how the business in the selected scenario can use social media to not only obtain information and knowledge but to share it as well, and provide two examples of how the business might use social media information systems.
Your paper must be at least two pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages), and you must also use at least two scholarly sources, one of which must come from the CSU Online Library. Any information from a source must be cited and referenced in APA format, and your paper must be formatted in accordance to APA guidelines.
PENETRATRATION TESTING
A
There are a lot of strategies for setting up network defense systems. Physical restrictions can be put in place, such as separating hardware, or using switches and cabling to do so. One can also use virtualized segmentation in the form of VLANs, and virtual networks (including switches). What strategy do you feel is best suited to defend against modern cyber security threats? State your opinion concerning which technologies you would deploy if you were positioned to protect the COPPIN campus from cyber security threats.
B
There are hundreds of thousands of potential cyber security attacks, which exist in the form of hackers, viruses, malware, ransomware, and other vectors. The most effective way of mitigating their effects is identifying them before they can become active. What modern security methods and tools can be used to do this? Why are they not 100% effective? Explain your rationale.
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HIUS 221 National Park Essay
Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions
Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
There are many benefits to visiting historical museums or sites via walking tours. By actually witnessing a historical site, greater understanding of the events of past can be achieved. The visual learning dynamic as well as the tour guide learning scenario can all the more make “history come alive” and provide the student with a hands-on learning experience.
Completing This Assignment:
The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
When you are finished, your assignment must be:
o In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document
o Formatted, including:
12-point Times New Roman font
double-spaced
1-inch margins
Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)
o Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level
You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
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Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center
Name of the patient: Mrs. Linde
Age: 76 years
Gender: Female
Clinical Scenario
Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center where I worked as a nurse. While attending to her, I realized that she as well as most of the patients in my surgical unit developed a high level of acuity that could easily result into severe cardiac arrest and sudden death. Mrs. Linde was therefore transferred to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following her critical condition. I decided to talk to my Nurse Manager about rapid response team and how it can be helpful in reducing increasing cases of the contraction of cardiac arrest by the in-patients and unexpected admissions to the ICU. I believed this could be of great help to the hospital. Researchable and answerable is a significant step in the Evidence Based Practice (Fineout-Overholt and Johnston, 2005). Therefore, my manger suggested that I conduct more research to find solid evidence on the contribution of rapid response team in healthcare system. This prompted me to formulate a clinical question.
Research Question
I used PICOT (Patient’s population, issue of Interest, Comparison, Outcome and Time) format to formulate a research question. My PICOT question was derived from the prevailing aspects of the clinical issue at my surgical unit. These aspects include the increased level of acuity among the hospitalized patients in the surgical unit, increased number of in-patients contracting cardiac arrest, unexpected admissions into the ICU, and the intervention by the rapid response team. Since there was no team to provide rapid response to such patients and the hospital was not planning to address the issue of patient’s acuity prior to the impending crisis, element of the comparison (C component) in the PICOT was lack of rapid response team. The outcomes or the results in the question were constant admission into the ICU and in-patients contracting cardiac arrest. Other possible outcomes included prolonged hospitalization and deaths. My proposed picot question therefore was; “Among the adult in-patients in the surgical unit, how does the presence of a rapid response team compared with the absence of rapid response team influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients hospitalized for three months? In this question, the components of PICOT include
Patient Population (P) – the adult in-patients
Issue of Interest (I) – the presence of a rapid response team
Comparison(C) – the absence of rapid response team
Outcome (O) – influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients
Time (T) – hospitalized for three months
Literature Review
According to Stillwell et al. Evidence-Based Practice involves solving a problem in the health care delivery system by integrating the available evidences from the data of the patients and studies with the expertise of medical practitioners and values. From the above scenario, it is clear that various aspects affect personal experiences of patients throughout their stay in the hospital. Additionally, social aspects may influence and surpass curative variables without necessarily involving antiretroviral measures. However, Melnyk et al. 2009 suggests that it is important for nurses and medical practitioners to understand that the formulated question influences any attempt to find evidence to achieve a desirable outcome in patients so as to support a practical change. It is also evident from the previous studies that Rapid Response Teams are the best weapon to curb cardiac arrests since they evaluate the patients at an early stage of the disease thus reducing mortality rate (Dacey et al. 2007). Another study also pointed that while therapeutic interventions have been successfully administered to the patients, such interventions may not be helpful for long-term health care processes (Cheng, 2011).
References
Dacey MJ, et al. The effect of a rapid response team on major clinical outcome measures in a community hospital. Crit Care Med 2007;35(9):2076-82
Abstract
Background: Rapid Response Teams (RRTs) assess patients during early phases of deterioration to reduce patient morbidity and mortality. Objectives: This study aimed to evaluate the ability of earlier medical intervention by an RRT prompted by clinical instability in patients to reduce the incidence of and mortality from unexpected cardiac arrest at our hospital. Patients and Methods: A nonrandomized, population-based study before 2008 and after 2010 introduction of the Rapid Response Teams in a 300-bed private hospital. All patients were admitted to the hospital in 2008 (n = 25348) and 2010 (n = 28024). RRT (One doctor, one senior intensive care nurse and one staff nurse) attended to clinically unstable patients immediately with resuscitation drugs, fluid, and equipment. Response was activated by the bedside nurse or doctor according to predefined criteria. Main outcome measures were incidence and outcome of unexpected cardiac arrest. Results: The incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest was 17 per 1000 hospital admissions (431 cases) in 2008 (before RRT intervention) and 12.45 per 1000 admissions (349 cases) in 2010 (after intervention), with mortality being 73.23% (274 patients) and 66.15% (231 patients) respectively. After adjustment for case mix the intervention was associated with a 19% reduction in the incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest (odds ratio 0.81, 95% confidence interval 0.65-0.98). Conclusions: The RRT was able to detect preventable adverse events and reduce the mortality and incidence of unexpected cardiac arrests
Stillwell SB et al, Evidence-based practice, step by step: asking the clinical question: a key step in evidence-based practice.2nd ed. Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams and Wilkins.
Abstract
The purpose of this series is to give nurses the knowledge and skills they need to implement EBP consistently, one step at a time. Articles will appear every two months to allow you time to incorporate information as you work toward implementing EBP at your institution. Also, we’ve scheduled “Ask the Authors” call-ins every few months to provide a direct line to the experts to help you resolve questions. Details about how to participate in the next call will be published with May’s Evidence-Based Practice, Step by Step
Melnyk BM, et al. Igniting a spirit of inquiry: an essential foundation for evidence-based practice. Am J Nurs2009;109(11):49-52
Abstract
This is the third article in a series from the Arizona State University College of Nursing and Health Innovation’s Center for the Advancement of Evidence-Based Practice. Evidence-based practice (EBP) is a problem-solving approach to the delivery of health care that integrates the best evidence from studies and patient care data with clinician expertise and patient preferences and values. When delivered in a context of caring and in a supportive organizational culture, the highest quality of care and best patient outcomes can be achieved.
.
Cheng, H. Y. Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM): What t Long -Term Care Providers Need to Know
Abstract
Evidence-based medicine (EBM) has been exponentially disseminated to every field of medicine over past 2 decades.1–7 EBM is now a part of postgraduate competency through practice-based learning.8 However, its potential use in the long-term care setting was only recently appreciated in the literature.1,9,10 EBM may play an important role in reforming nursing homes and improving quality care.1–5,9,10 The simple search term “EBM,” limited to English and human in Medline, generated 49,304 citations, which narrowed to only 173 when “nursing homes” was added, indicating that EBP is not rare and is being implemented in long-term care. It has been a great effort that each article in this special issue presents evidence-based recommendations to long-term care providers to guide their daily practice. In contrast to the evidence-based approach to individual geriatric conditions addressed in the other articles in this issue, this article briefly introduces the basic concept of EBM; addresses some potential benefits, harms, and challenges of its practice in a long-term care setting; and promotes its appropriate use among providers of long-term care. For those who already know the EBM basics and are interested in becoming experts, several textbooks on EBM are recommended.11–13 Attending an EBM workshop, such as one run by McMaster University,14 could also be helpful. Many Internet resources are also useful, including PIER: The Physicians’ Information and Education Resource (pier.acponline.org), Clinical Evidence.
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Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH
Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH. Through their comical depiction of these situations, the viewer might have been left with the impression that the unethical behavior was actually appropriate. Share your thoughts about what can happen to a business if ethical standards are not taken seriously.
Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.
Article Reviews Homework Help ASAP!
With the first weekend of March Madness underway, there has been plenty of talk regarding Power 5 (P5) Conferences versus non-P5 schools. Many sports analysts believe the P5 schools have an advantage in making the NCAA MBB tournament and when it comes to seeding in the tournament.
Read these articles:
http://www.newsobserver.com/sports/college/acc/article139198713.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
http://sports.yahoo.com/news/march-madness-day-2-recap-power-conference-dominance-sets-up-second-round-showdowns-042714662.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
If you are unfamiliar with the term P5, read this article to familiarize yourself. http://www.huffingtonpost.com/ken-reed/big-five-have-changed-col_b_5725772.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
The P5 schools earned $6 billion dollars last year compared to a mere $4 billon for ALL of the other schools combined.
Do you think March Madness favors P5 schools? Why or why not? If you think they do, what solutions do have to create parity for all schools? What are things FGCU can do to improve our likelihood of being selected to the NCAA tournament as an at-large bid.
For this paper, you will need two pages typed.
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In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner
n the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?
Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.
Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions
Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession? Your Response Must be over 200 words!
Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced
Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.
Directions
The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.
In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner
In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?
Batman and Commissioner Gordon constantly involved themselves with local, state, and federal regulations. Think about the regulations in your locality and specifically reflect on one regulation that could use some improvement. What could be improved regarding this regulation?
Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.
This paper is on rapid research teams, it includes reasearch critique topic one and two as well as Picot statement with final draft.
This paper is on rapid research teams, it includes reasearch critique topic one and two as well as Picot statement with final draft.
Liberty University Math 201 Project 3 brase & brase
Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced
Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.
Directions
The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.
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Analyzing Researched Information
Description
Overview
For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.
My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.
Instructions
For this assignment:
Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note:You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable.
Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment.
Conducting a Job Analysis
Description
Overview
Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.
Context
Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.
Read the scenario below.
Scenario
Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.
Requirements
You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.
Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.
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Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:
A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job.
The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required.
Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state.
Additional Requirements
Required length 3–4 pages.
Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.
Resources
Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.
U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/
Question unit 1
Description
does the class think that when looking at data and reviewing numbers, that these numbers can be used to make changes in government and its agencies, where the provisioning of services tends to remain the same, rather than what we see in the private sector with improved production and sales goals?
Explain in a paragraph
Unit 2 Role of the Governor
Description
Constitutional constraints notwithstanding, the role and power of the governor has changed over the nation’s history. The office has evolved over time based on societal, technological and political needs. Compare the role of the executive office as described in your state’s constitution with the current roles and functions that your state governor plays. Does your state constitution state or imply the roles you have described for your current governor? Hint: Check local media stories or news articles.
Unit 2 Advice about Agency Heads
Description
The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.
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Recruiting
Description
Create a 10–12 slide presentation that includes your findings about Internet recruiting and a job posting for a sales representative position.
How organizations begin transitioning from recruiting a large pool of qualified applicants to selecting the best applicant for the position is a complex process that changes over time.
Employment selection decisions are significant for managers and organizations. Poor decisions can result in a tremendous loss for the company. Employee performance is critical to organizational effectiveness because an organization will only be as productive as its workers.
The Assessment 4 Context document contains additional information about the types of assessments used to select personnel.
To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.
Have you ever taken a test in school or for a job that simply did not make sense to you? Which test would you have chosen instead?
2. Which type of hiring strategy (for example, permanent hire, using a temporary agency, et cetera) would you use for CapraTek’s new manufacturing employees? Why?
3. Which type of recruiting strategy (for example, permanent hire, contract-to-hire, et cetera) would you use to fill the four CapraTek sales positions? Why?
4. How might social media fit into your hiring plans?
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
Read Chapters 3 and 4 and review Chapters 1 and 2 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.
Read the scenario below.
Scenario
As part of CapraTek’s human resources team, you have been asked to research other employers and their Internet recruiting practices. This assessment has three parts:
Evaluate two employers’ online application processes.
2. Evaluate two general online job search sites for ease of use and information available.
3. Develop a job description for the CapraTek regional sales representative posting.
Present your information in the form of a PowerPoint presentation deck of 10–12 slides. Ensure your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.
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Requirements
Part 1: Identify two employers whose Web sites permit candidates to apply for positions online. You may choose any employer but preferably ones you might work for. Select only employers that allow online applications. Evaluate the user-friendliness of the application process and the value of the general job information found online. Consider whether the posted job information provides candidates with what they would want to know regarding the organization.
Using information from your research, create a PowerPoint slide presentation with bulleted points highlighting your key findings. Include the sites’ links. Add information in the slides’ notes section addressing the following:
* Articulate the user-friendliness of the Web sites.
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.
Part 2: Select two general job search Web sites (such as CareerBuilder, Indeed, SimplyHired, Monster). You may choose local or specific job sites. Look at the ease of use and the value of the general information provided on these Web sites.
Create additional slides for your presentation in which you include the links to the two Web sites and highlight your findings about them. Add information in the slides’ notes sections that includes the following:
* Articulate the user-friendliness of these Web sites. Would you use them to search for a job? Why or why not?
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.
* Summarize findings for or against CapraTek using these selected Web sites for posting positions and searching for applicants.
Part 3: Using your job analysis information for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives, develop a job posting for this position. Make location, salary, and working conditions assumptions as needed. Finish the presentation with slides outlining the essentials for the regional sales representative job description as follows:
* List the necessary qualifications, including educational background, technical experience, skills, and abilities.
* Describe the physical environment and working conditions.
* List the most important duties and responsibilities, with percentage of time spent on each, classifying each duty as essential or non-essential.
Resources
* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 1–4.
* Black, T. (2010). How to use social media as a recruiting tool. Retrieved from http://www.inc.com/guides/2010/04/social-media-recruiting.html
* Hartley, D. (2014). 8 findings about the impact of social media on hiring. Retrieved from http://thehiringsite.careerbuilder.com/surprising-findings-social-media-hiring/
* Heathfield, S. (2015). Recruiting stars: Top 10 ideas for recruiting great candidates. Retrieved from http://www.humanresources.about.com/cs/recruiting/a/candidatepool.htm
* JobDiva.com. (n.d.). Resume harvesting. Retrieved from http://www.jobdiva.info/transcripts/demos/harvesting.htm
* Larsen, M. (2013). The perfect recruiting email. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/the-perfect-recruiting-email/
* Recruiter.com. (n.d.). Recruitment. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/recruitment/
In the history of health care delivery, the development of various types of technologies has advanced the growth of medical care. Examples of lifesaving technology include the development of the microscope, X-rays, surgical equipment, and medications. These lifesaving technologies have contributed to increased longevity and life expectancy. These technologies have also brought with them increased cost, the emergence of health insurance, managed care, and high malpractice premiums and awards.
Has the benefit derived from these technologies outweighed the associated costs? Why or why not? To support your comments, select, state, and explain about at least two technological developments that have impacted these costs.
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The Economics of Global Health Care
Description
As the costs of health care delivery in the United States continue to soar, it has become necessary to ‘benchmark’ with other countries abroad on how they deliver health care to their citizens. Countries to consider reviewing include:
England.
Canada.
France.
Germany.
Sweden.
Japan.
Cuba.
Select two countries and evaluate how they compare and contrast to how health care is financed.
Methods of Presenting and Communicating Information
Description
Discussion Resources
The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:
Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
o Chapter 6, “Present and Communicate the Information,” pages 135–160.
o The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 6, pages 204–205.
Discussion Instructions
Graphs, charts, and dashboards are common methods of presenting and communicating information in a business environment. Marr (2010) recommends that leaders and managers keep the target audience in mind when using a four-step process to facilitate Step 4 of the EbM model: presenting and communicating information.
Research up-to-date Internet resources related to business management graphs, charts, and dashboard designs and templates.
For your initial discussion post, address the following:
Explain how a manager can be certain that a presentation focuses on the needs of the audience.
Explain how Marr’s four-step process ensures that presentations are compelling and powerful enough to engage the minds of the audience.
Identify common format choices for graphic presentations.
Discuss one of Marr’s tips for producing useful graphics. Why would this tip be effective?
Explain why dashboards are popular methods for business managers to communicate information.
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EBM Process Reflection
Description
Discussion Resource
The following multimedia presentation is provided to help you complete this discussion:
Through the successful completion of your coursework in Units 6–9, you have explained the key components of the evidence-based management process used in health care management, analyzed sources of information used in evidence-based health care management, demonstrated analytical decision-making skills through the application of an evidence-based management process, and communicated in a manner that is professional and consistent with expectations for members of the business professions. Now that you have reached the end of the course, take time to reflect on your experience and learning over the past five weeks.
Instructions
For your initial discussion post, address the following:
Briefly discuss one of the most valuable personal learning experiences you have had in the last five weeks. Why does this experience stand out for you?
Share an example of something you learned that you will be able to use in your health care management career, either now or in the future. How will it affect your role?
Share an idea, material, resource, or topic that you would like to research or use further, in either your coursework or your career.
Provide links to resources you used in Units 6–9 that you want to save for future use. Provide the APA citations for your resources, and include the URLs for any online materials.
Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations.
Knowledge-to-Action Organizational Culture
Description
Discussion Resources
The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion:
Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
o Chapter 7, “Turning Information Into Actionable Knowledge,” pages 163–188.
o The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 7, pages 206–208.
Discussion Instructions
Step 5 of the EbM model, making evidence-based decisions, involves asking two important questions:
How can we ensure that available evidence is used to make the decisions?
How do we create a knowledge-to-action culture?
For your initial discussion post, address the following:
Briefly discuss how each of these questions can be successfully answered through management or leadership style and actions.
Think about the organization where you currently work, or one where you worked in the past.
o Analyze the organization’s leadership, IT capability, and organizational culture in terms of the ability to turn information into action.
o Refer directly to Marr’s seven steps to creating a knowledge-to-action culture in your discussion post.
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Application of the EbM Steps Presentation
Description
Describe your chosen business management issue.
o Globalization and Technological Advancement
Explain the goal(s) organizational leadership would like to achieve with regard to the issue.
Describe any successes in solving the issue that have already been achieved and the improvements that are still needed.
Analyze the needs of the internal and external stakeholders with regard to the issue.
o Identify the stakeholders.
o Explain how and why they are affected by the issue.
o Explain what they already know about the issue and what they still need to know.
o Explain what the stakeholders will do with the information you are presenting.
Explaining Your Approach and Research
Provide the KPQs and/or KAQs you created for your chosen business management issue.
Describe the types of data you identified as needed to address the issue.
Explain the role of the organization’s IT department and professionals in the data collection process.
Describe the methodologies that could be used to analyze the data. Be sure to include both quantitative and qualitative methods.
Summarize the example source of data that you researched.
o Describe the source of the data.
o Identify the methodology used to collect the data.
o Share an example of actual data you have located.
o Defend the validity and reliability of both the data and its source.
Share one of the articles from a year-to-date professional, peer-reviewed journal that you chose in support of your efforts to resolve the issue.
o Analyze the value of the information found in the article in addressing the business issue.
o What insights did you gain from the article?
o How might the information be applied to the business issue?
Communicating to Stakeholders
Describe the potential types of graphs, graphics, dashboards, and narratives that would be most appropriate and effective to use when presenting and communicating this information to stakeholders.
o Why do you believe your choices would be the best methods?
Explain how your choices support your KPQs and/or KAQs, while still being appropriate for the audience.
Governor’s attempts
Description
Do you think that your Governor attempts to influence agencies to do or not do actions to protect the business climate in your state? Explain.
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Screening and Interviewing External Candidates.
Description
In a 13-slide presentation deck, develop a variety of interview questions based on the KSAs and required experience for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.
The most common applicant screening process looks something like this:
* Review of resumes/applications for basic qualifications.
* A phone interview (generally with HR).
* A screening interview with HR that may involve some initial testing, reference checking, or background screening.
* A department interview with more in-depth testing and background checking.
* Additional interviews with other stakeholders.
* A decision process.
* Offer made to selected candidate.
To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.
* Based on your own employment experiences, what seems to be the best way to screen applicants so that only qualified applicants are actually invited to be interviewed in person?
* Are background checks and reference checks good business practices? Are they legal?
* Consider an ineffective employment interview that you, a family member, or a coworker experienced. What could the interviewer have done differently to make the interview effective?
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
* Familiarize yourself with Chapters 5–14 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.
* Read Baur, Buckley, Bagdasarov, and Dharmasiri’s 2014 article, “A Historical Approach to Realistic Job Previews: An Exploration Into Their Origins, Evolution, and Recommendations for the Future,” in Journal of Management History, volume 20, issue 2, pages 200–223. This article is linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.
Scenario
In Assessment 4, you developed a job analysis for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions. Based on that job analysis, you will interview candidates. Before you can do so, you must develop interview questions based on the required knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) and required experience for the CapraTek position.
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Requirements
As a member of CapraTek’s human resources team, you believe the best way to develop the interview plan and select the best candidate is to include a variety of question types. Create a PowerPoint presentation deck containing the following elements, one question per slide. Ensure that your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.
* Explain why the questions are appropriate for CapraTek’s position and do not request illegal information. Place your explanation in the slides’ notes area.
* Describe which question type(s) relates to the KSAs or required experience for CapraTek’s position.
* Include a title slide and (if needed) a resources slide.
Resources
* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–14.
* Baur, J. E., Buckley, M. R., Bagdasarov, Z., & Dharmasiri, A. S. (2014). A historical approach to realistic job previews: An exploration into their origins, evolution, and recommendations for the future. Journal of Management History, 20(2), 200–223. doi:http://dx.doi.org/10.1108/JMH-06-2012-0046
Screening and Selecting Internal Candidates
Description
Write a 5–6 page report describing the process you used to select the best three candidates for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.
Recruiting candidates is only the first step in the hiring process. Evaluating candidates, selecting those to interview, conducting interviews and background screenings, presenting a job offer, and onboarding the new employee are subsequent tasks.
The Assessment 6 Context document provides additional information about these processes.
To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.
* Which employee development methods have you experienced in the workplace? How did these methods affect your retention and engagement? How could the manager have improved the strategies used to make them even more effective?
* What are the primary elements of an effective coaching style? How can a manager be a coach?
* How effective is a current or former manager’s coaching style and use of coaching strategies?
* What are the key steps you would include in a company’s internal recruiting and selection process manual?
* Why would an organization use a contract-to-hire approach to fill a job? How might an employee view this type of situation? Would you take a contract-to-hire job? Why or why not?
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
* Read Chapter 15 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees.
* Complete the Candidate Selection interactive media piece, linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.
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Scenario
You have written a job description for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions and determined job requirements. Now it is time to determine testing methods and choose the top three candidates to interview.
Requirements
After reviewing the CapraTek regional sales representative job description and requirements you developed for Assessment 5, use the Candidate Selection media piece to review the candidates’ resumes. In a 5–6 page report, include the following in your explanation of the candidate selection process:
* Explain why and when candidate background checks will be authorized.
– Identify pre-employment screening tests for the position being recruited.
– Articulate possible legal issues associated with candidate screenings.
* Select assessment methods to use based on the job being recruited and the budget available.
– Develop the sequence in which methods will be used to screen applicants.
– Explain how technology will impact choice of screening and selection methods.
* Design a final candidate selection process for the position being recruited.
– Describe the method you would use to make your final hiring decision (compensatory, hurdles, weighted, et cetera).
– Determine which candidates meet the basic job requirements.
– Identify the top three candidates to interview for the position.
– Explain your rationale for why the selected candidates should be interviewed.
Additional Requirements
* Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Double-spaced, typed pages.
Resources
* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 15.
* Use the transcript attached to analyze and apply initial screening methods for selecting candidates at CapraTek.
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Oversight of Executive Branch
Description
How does your state legislature maintain the review and oversight of the actions of the executive branch? What types of questions should be asked by legislators at committee hearings of agency heads, in your opinion?
Performance Based Management.
Description
Progressive states have moved to performance-based management to create transparency and public accountability. They have also provided and encouraged easy access to information on how well the government is operating. Information for the public is often posted online. For a state website that does this, see www.vaperforms.virginia.gov/. What is the impact of posting agency performance and the role the state legislature plays in its oversight duties?
Unit 3 Assignment
Description
Write a 3-4 page paper discussing the response of legislators to a proposed gubernatorial change in policy towards the state’s natural resources based on the following scenario:
Governor Goode E. Nuff was elected on a platform that promised greater protection for the state of her state’s natural resources, including a bay with diverse habitat supporting bountiful fish and shellfish.
Over the past decade, developers have been changing the shores of her state’ bay turning what was once the source of a vital and productive fishery into a haven for large homes and resorts that take advantage of the beautiful water view.
The Governor is dedicated to changing the bureaucracy and the state legislature, which have tended toward favoring developers in the past, with an eye to focusing their efforts on policies more in line with the views and priorities of those citizens who voted her into office.
To that end, she has decided to include in her legislative agenda a major push to accomplish the realignment, during the third year of her four-year term.
This agenda includes:
A proposal to give citizen groups greater power to challenge new development based on evidence of it having an adverse impact on the environment
A reorganization of the agency responsible for protecting her state’s bay with the creation of a new enforcement policy empowering the state to bring civil suits for money damages against industrial and developmental polluters
Empowering citizen groups to intervene in county zoning decisions that would encroach upon naturally open space in environmentally sensitive areas
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A substantial budget increase for the environmental enforcement agency to for the hiring of 100 additional inspectors to monitor for violations and ensure adherence to state standards for environmental protection. This legislative program requires a 14% budget increase for that agency, an amount 10% above the average 4% increase for all other state agencies.
Some members of the legislature feel that Governor Goode E. Nuff is “radical” in her approach and in her attempt to gear state policy toward protection and preservation of natural resources.
Your paper must address the following criteria:
What tactics can the Governor expect from these legislators and other interested parties as they attempt to “moderate” the Governor’s program?
On what specific points can the Governor expect direct conflict with the legislators and opposing interest groups?
Which parts of the Governor’s agenda are most vulnerable to attack by her opponents in the legislature, and therefore most likely to be modified or even defeated during the legislative process? What risks might the legislature be taking? What gains or losses might they face from the success or failure of such attacks, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
What might be the best strategy for the administration to adopt in combating and countering those attacks? What gains or losses might she face from the success or failure of that strategy, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
How might the legislative opponents attack this agenda?
In addition to fulfilling the specifics of the Assignment, a successful paper must also meet the following criteria:
Lengthshould be 3-4 pages, excluding cover page and references; in 10-12 point font (Arial, Courier, and Times New Roman are acceptable).
Assignment should follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.).
Writingshould be well ordered, logical and unified, as well as original and insightful
Your work should display superior content, organization, style,and mechanics
Appropriate citationstyle should be followed.
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Healthcare
Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.
Directions
The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.
General Questions
For this assignment, read the case study, The 1920 Farrow’s Bank failure: a case of managerial hubris. This case is located in the ABI/Inform Complete Database found in the CSU Online Library (see reference below).
Hollow, M. (2014). The 1920 farrow’s bank failure: A case of managerial hubris? Journal of Management History, 20(2), 164-178.
Thomas Farrow had been evaluated as having been inflicted by managerial hubris at the time of the bank’s collapse in 1920. With this in mind, address the following questions, with thorough explanations and well-supported rationale.
How did corporate culture, leadership, power and motivation affect Thomas’ level of managerial hubris?
Relate managerial hubris to ethical decision making and the overall impact on the business environment.
Explain the pressures associated with ethical decision making at Farrows Bank.
Evaluate whether the level of managerial hubris would have been decreased if Farrow Bank had a truly ethical business culture. Could this have affected the final outcome of Farrow Bank? Explain your position.
Your response should be a minimum of three and half double- spaced pages (not including the refernce page and title page). References should include your required reading (attached) , case study (attached) reference plus a minimum of one additional credible reference. All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.
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Business
For this assignment, you will take on the role of a Vice President of a major organization. The CEO has assigned you the responsibility of educating the leaders within the organization of the importance of maintaining an ethical culture. The tone of the presentation should be of a persuasive nature as you will also be asking these leaders to take this initiative to each of their areas. As you compile this presentation, include the following:
Explain exactly what it means to maintain an ethical culture within the organization.
Analyze the role that culture plays in global business ethics.
Describe and persuade on the importance and rationale for maintaining an ethical culture within the entire organization. Think about methods that could be used to motivate towards ethical business practices.
Recommend tactical methods that might be used within each of their areas.
Your PowerPoint presentation should be 14 slides, not including the title slide and reference slide. All sources used must be referenced and paraphrased. Directly quoted material must have accompanying citations and be cited per APA guidelines.
Use of speaker notes is required as well. In the speaker notes, you will provide what you would say if you were actually giving the presentation to an audience. Please write your notes in complete sentences and adhere to typical grammar and/or punctuation rules.
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Business
Select a significant tragic event (either domestic or global) that has occurred during the last 50 years. The interactive PowerPoint in this unit provides some ideas of historical tragic events but understand that these are just ideas. After describing the event and the post-tragedy events, discuss the ethical aspects revolving around this incident. This may require some additional research to understand the ethical situations and the impact these had on affected people being able to move on with their lives.
Describe the actions of people and organizational leaders directly and indirectly involved with the tragedy. Specifically, address the ethical issues they faced.
What were some of the actions of local, state and federal personnel with respect to dealing with this tragedy?
Explain the strategies of organizations that attempted to assist with the clean-up after the tragic event. Describe several of the pressures that influenced their strategies. Distinguish between social responsibility, integrity and simple business ethics.
How has this event affected the ethical culture here in the United States? What other affect has it had on society as a whole?
Your response should be a minimum of three double-spaced pages. References should include, at minimum, one additional credible reference beyond the required reading (attached required reading). All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.
Business
Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.
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Business
In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?
Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.
Business
Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH. Through their comical depiction of these situations, the viewer might have been left with the impression that the unethical behavior was actually appropriate. Share your thoughts about what can happen to a business if ethical standards are not taken seriously.
Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.
General Business
Batman and Commissioner Gordon constantly involved themselves with local, state, and federal regulations. Think about the regulations in your locality and specifically reflect on one regulation that could use some improvement. What could be improved regarding this regulation?
Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.
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HIUS 221 National Park Essay
I have to turn in a report on a National Park or Museum in my area and I chose Serpent Mound Park in Peebles Ohio. See the directions below
Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions
Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
There are many benefits to visiting historical museums or sites via walking tours. By actually witnessing a historical site, greater understanding of the events of past can be achieved. The visual learning dynamic as well as the tour guide learning scenario can all the more make “history come alive” and provide the student with a hands-on learning experience.
Completing This Assignment:
The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
When you are finished, your assignment must be:
o In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document
o Formatted, including:
12-point Times New Roman font
double-spaced
1-inch margins
Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)
o Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level
You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
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Accounting
What is periodicity assumption? Please explain this accounting concept and provide examples when possible. This discussion needs to be at least 300-400 words.
History
Who is Vasco Núñez de Balboa? Please give a quick overview (around 3-5 paragraphs will do) of his early life, major contributions to explorations and history in general.
Mathematics
A car is traveling at 60 mph and is tailgating another car at distance of only 30 ft. If the reaction time of the tailgater is 0.5 seconds (time between seeing the brake lights of the car ahead flash and hitting the brake), how far will his car travel during his reaction time?
Important note: Please discuss comprehensively how you got your answer.
Psychology tests: What Is Reliability?
What are the types of Reliability considered in the field of Psychology? Explain each briefly. When possible, provide samples. Cite references please.
History
Discuss the damage wrought by the Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami. Include details on death tolls, total amount of damage, effect/impact on the cities affected, etc. Essay needs to be around 300-500 words.
Question on GDP and national growth rate
How does a country’s GDP factor in determining a country’s growth rate? Explain and give an example of a country. Cite references.
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Need help with Physics word problem
A man is 2,000 m from the base of a tower and is launching a rocket in the direction of the same tower. When the rocket takes off the change in the angle between the flight path and the land is represented by Φ(t) according to time. Knowing that Φ'(t) = Π/3, determine:
The height of the rocket when Φ = Π/3 radians.
Please explain how you arrived at your answer.
Modern treatments for pre-eclampsia
Explain what preeclampsia is, symptoms, diagnosis, and the most recent treatments being offered. Cite references.
How Dialysis works as Kidney Treatment
How does the process of Dialysis work to resolve kidney problems? Please explain comprehensively how the process works and do cite medical references when possible.
Which formula should be used to determine the total cost
The wedding photographer for the Smith/Jones wedding charges $1,000 for her preparation and first 60 prints. The cost is $2.00 per photo for photos beyond the first 60. Which formula should be used to determine the total cost, C, as a function of the number of photos, p, that are purchased, assuming at least 60 are purchased?
C = 1000 p + 2
C = 1000(2p – 60)
C = 1000 + 2(p – 60)
Please explain your answer. Thanks!
Essay on Cloning morality, and its pros and cons
Why is the morality of cloning being questioned? Does the act of cloning have benefits or disadvantages? What are they? Please answer with a 500 word essay. Cite references.
Discuss the concept of Marxism
Please explain the concept of Marxism. Make sure to discuss its pros and cons in society. Give a detailed answer, cite references when possible. This has to be at least 500 words.
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Short essay on Pablo Neruda’s work
What was Pablo Neruda’s most notable work? Which one do you prefer? Explain your answers in 300-500 words.
Explain Hypothetical Syllogism
What does hypothetical syllogism mean in the field of Philosophy? Explain in 300 words, provide examples.
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What is the ‘real story’ behind the animated film Pocahontas?
From what I know this film was based on a true story. Please discuss the factual turn of events in the Pocahontas – John Smith story and provide a brief comparison of those events and the characterization made on the film.
I just need a short, around 300-500 word essay on this. Thanks!
Essay on Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”
Provide a brief summary of Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”. In addition to the book’s basic plot, discuss as well how this relate’s to society and what significant lessons can be learned from it.
Essay/answer has to be no less than 500 words. Thank you!
Need help with Carbonic acid solution
How many milliliters of 60% carbonic acid must be mixed with how many milliliters of 15% carbonic acid to make 650 milliliters of a 38% carbonic acid solution?
Please explain how you arrived at your answer.
Japan’s rise to power after World War 2
Please discuss Japan’s rise back to power as a first-world country after the Second World War. How did they do it? How far have they progressed after that time in history? This essay needs to be at least 500 words.
Question on Caste culture in India
How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? What is its good and bad sides? Please answer comprehensively and make sure to cite references. Answer must be no less than 300 words.
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Question on Adam Smith and Capitalism
Discuss Adam Smith and His Invisible Hand of Capitalism. Discuss the merits of this theory. Please cite examples or situations whenever possible. Cite references.
Discuss the story of the Yamashita’s treasure
What is the story behind the ‘controversial’ Yamashita treasure? Discuss this in no less than 300 words. Make sure to share interesting facts.
Federal vs Republican Government – which is better?
What is the difference between a Federal and Republican government? Explain the good and bad sides of each, and please provide examples of countries where these two government systems are implemented. Answer needs to be at least 500 words. Cite references please.
What is systems theory in management?
What is the systems theory used in the management setting? What is pros and cons? Give or cite a workplace situation where you think it is most effective and why?
Need help factoring polynomials
Please help factor these polynomials. I would also appreciate if you can discuss briefly how you arrived at the answer, and provide tips on how to work on similar problems in the future. Thanks
1.) x2 – 15x + 54
2.) x2 – 8x – 9
3.) x2 – 10x – 11
4) x2 – 6x – 16
Describe the role of women in US politics
Describe the role of women in US politics in recent years. Give three names of women who have played a significant role in this field usually dominated by men. Give details on their contributions to the US legislation etc.
What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate?
What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate? What do you think are his merits? What do you think are the cons of voting for him? Please present this in an essay form, college-level writing, and do include political science concepts that apply to your answer.
Health & Medical
Give five examples of strength training exercises that runners can use in their daily training. Explain the steps for each, and how the athlete can benefit. Cite medical references when possible.
Science
What is the free energy change if the ratio of the concentrations of the products to the concentrations of the reactants is 22.3, and the temperature is 37.0 °C? ΔG°\’ for the reaction is –16.7 kJ/mol. Please explain how you got your answer
History
In a short essay, about 300-400 words please describe the French Renaissance era. Make sure to cite references.
Mathematics
Please solve: Solve log ( 2x + 1 ) – log 6 = 2 for x. Please explain how you arrived at your answer.
Philosophy
Can you please tell me a bit about Existential phenomenology? Just a brief explanation of what it’s all about will do.
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What is the final temperature of the mixture?
An ice cube having a mass of 50 grams and an initial temperature of -10 degrees Celsius is placed in 400 grams of 40 degrees Celsius water. What is the final temperature of the mixture if the effects of the container can be neglected? Discuss your answer.
Help find the mean and standard deviation values
Seven samples were obtained having the values 21, 22, 26, 29, 27, 26 and 24. The mean and standard deviation values are ____________?
Economics international finance question.
Question
Assume the exchange rate is fixed (and expected to remain fixed). Using numbers and the ‘money supply-money demand and interest rate parity diagram’, explain how an increase in the U.S. interest rate from 3% to 7% affects the Mexican interest rate, foreign exchange reserves, and the money supply in the very short run. Hold domestic credit fixed. Also include the diagram that shows the flows in money and bonds.
The exchange rate is fixed. Using the two-sector model, explain how an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the traded sector affects domestic prices, wages, and the price level in the long run. Hold all other exogenous variables fixed.
Fill in the blanks. Do not explain; just fill in the blanks (put your answers in the booklet). (a) The exchange rate is fixed today. If, all of sudden, investors expect a devaluation of the domestic currency in the near future (there is an exogenous increase in the expected future exchange rate), the domestic interest rate ________ and foreign exchange reserves _________ in the very short run. (b) In the two-sector model with a fixed exchange rate, an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the non-traded sector causes the price of the non-traded good to _______ and the wage rate to _________ (hold other exogenous variables fixed). (c) In the early 1960s, the inflation rate in Japan was ___________ the inflation rate in the U.S. The last time that Canada had a fixed exchange rate was between the years 1962 and ________. (d) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, the exact equation for interest rate parity is ________________________. The approximate version of the Fisher equation is written as _____________________. (e) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, a temporary increase in the money supply results in ________ in the nominal interest rate and _________ in net exports.
(a) Draw the diagram for the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate (label the axes). Show the initial equilibrium as point A. Suppose there is a future increase in the money supply (the current-period money supply is unchanged). Show the shifts in the curves (or lines), if any, and denote the new equilibrium as point C. Just draw the diagram; do not explain. (b) Consider the three-sector model with a fixed exchange rate. Using equations, explain what determines the ‘terms of trade’ in the domestic eco
nomy (suppose the domestic economy exports the resource good and imports the manufactured good).
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Why was grassroots conservatism?
Question
1.Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s? I need this question answered in simple summary form using simple words.
Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber War and his argument
Question
Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber Warand his argument that our current Cybersecurity protection programs are inadequate, outline the sixsteps he recommends to improve America’s security as presented in his final chapter “The Agenda,” and provide your personal assessment and analysis of his recommendations.
Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the TelecommunicationsCI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, impact on other CIs, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding the future security of telecommunications.
Discuss“Cyberpeace”as a concept. Include the possible applicability of international laws, treaties, enforcement of law and possible punishments, and other aspects that would be leveraged for success such as those used for the Nuclear Non-Proliferation programs. Is this concept realistic and can the nations of the World come together and make it happen? Explain.
Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the Transportation CI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding enhanced Cybersecurity of these key national assets.
Answers must be thorough and in APA format with sources cited. Answers must be 2 pages per question.
History 111
Question
What specific gains did the civil rights movement achieve in the 1960s and how were those gains limited?
Help
Question
Your best friends invite you over for pizza and a friendly game of cards. Describe how the following parts of the brain are involved during your evening of eating pizza, socializing, and playing cards: Broca’s area, hippocampus, hypothalamus, and occipital lobe.
Targeting unhealthy foods and drinks to children
Question
Read the link below and answer the following questions
Is the FCC missing the mark on their inability to hold social media to the same standard as television and radio? Does this pose an even greater threat to our children in the long run?
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The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function
Question
The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function. If represents the original area of the wound and if A equals the area of the wound, then the formula describes the area of a wound after n days following an injury when no infection is present to retard the healing. Suppose that a wound initially had an area of 100 square millimeters.a) If healing is taking place, how large should the area of the wound be after 3 days?b) How large should it be after 10 days?c) How many days will it take before the wound is 11 square centimeters?
Business stat
Question
Michael is running for president. The proportion of voters who favor Michael is 0.8. A simple random sample of 100 voters is taken. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.
What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between .70 and .90? Answer
What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than .05 of the population proportion?
The average starting salary for this year’s graduates at a large university (LU) is $20,000 with a standard deviation of $4,000. Furthermore, it is known that the starting salaries are normally distributed. All probabilities should be to four decimal places.
What is the probability that a randomly selected LU graduate will have a starting salary of at least $30,400? Answer
Individuals with starting salaries of less than $15,600 receive a low income tax break. What percentage of the graduates will receive the tax break? (Round to two decimal places) Answer
What are the minimum and the maximum starting salaries of the middle 95% of the LU graduates? (Round to two decimal places) Minimum Answer, Maximum Answer
A department store has determined that 25% of all their sales are credit sales. A random sample of 75 sales is selected. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.
What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between 0.20 and 0.30? Answer
What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than 0.15
An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance
Question
An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance structure is optimal. Compare a pharmaceutical R&D alliance with a prescription-drug marketing agreement, and recommend a governing mechanism for each. Provide reasons for your selections.
“Should We Require Labeling of Genetically Modified Food?”
Question
What do you think we can do to get our government to follow other country and require more disclosure on our food contents?
Why isn’t US requiring the same thing? What do we, the consumers, have to do to get our government to look out for our health rather than the pockets of the food producers.
Feasibility of CSR initiatives in SMEs – benefits and challenges
Question
Recognize and identify ethical issue(s) (i.e., competing viewpoints) present; identify the social responsibility complexities present and explain how they may impact resolution of the issues.
Select an issue of corporate social responsibility beyond the assigned readings and online discussions. The research paper should be 5 full pages of substantive content, and should rely on at least 3 credible sources. (Credible sources refer to books and published articles that are respected for academic purposes, and not web articles, blogs, or Wikipedia-type sources) The report will: 1) identify the issue; 2) describe any stakeholders involved in the issue and their role(s) in addressing it; 3) information/data pertaining to the issue from your researched source materials; 4) potential solutions to the issue; 5) any challenges or impediments in implementing the solution(s); and 6) Conclusion. You should include a cover page, a reference page (Bibliography), and end-notes page; these pages are not included in the pages of content.
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Online/offline Marketing Audit
Conduct an online and offline marketing audit for a brand of your choosing. Discuss the current use of online & offline marketing techniques they use to get their marketing message out. Conduct a deep analysis of their website and the tools used to drive people to use their services and/or purchase their products.
Analyze an interactive marketing strategy for a company of your choosing.
3 full pages
Essay
Question
Summary:
Newspaper Article Assignment:
There are many critical international issues happening in the world today that are directly related to historical events or eras we’ve discussed in this class. For this assignment, you must find a recent news article (from a credible source – email me if you are unsure of a source) about a current event and write a paper about how the article relates to an event or era discussed in this class. This is not an informative paper, but rather you must use critical thinking to discuss how the current event is related to the history we’ve discussed and how it differs. Compare and contrast the present with the past using course readings, lectures, and outside sources if necessary to supplement your paper. Any supplemental sources should not be the main focus of your paper; your analysis of the newspaper article chosen is, and it should be obvious which is your main article.
Cite everything using footnotes (with full bibliographic information in them).
DO NOT PUT PARENTHESES IN YOUR TEXT.
*** Your answer must be about 5 pages (no more, no less), typed, DOUBLE SPACED, and 12-point Times New Roman font, one inch margins. You will be graded on content, grammar, punctuation, and following directions. Remember, these papers add up to 20% of your final grade; they should be a well thought out responses with a beginning, middle, and end. ***
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Guidelines:
Find an article from a credible source – avoid 24-hour news channels (Fox News, CNN, MSNBC, etc.)… If you are unsure of your source, please email me.
Be specific. I want you to really think about this article and your response to it and how it fits into our course… You MUST cite course materials (lectures, readings, etc.)
Avoid replacing arguments with examples. Use examples to illustrate a general claim, not as a replacement for them. Examples by themselves tend toward selection bias and hasty generalizations.
I am interested in content, not clever rhetorical flourish. Thus, avoid filler material… DO NOT USE BLOCK QUOTES FROM THE ARTICLES OR READINGS. Direct quotes should be no longer than 2 sentences, MAXIMUM.
If you do not cite, even when you paraphrase, it will be considered plagiarism. PLAGIARIZED PAPERS WILL BE PENALIED EITHER BY AN F ON THE PAPER OR THE COURSE AND WILL BE REPORTED TO THE DEAN.
PROOFREAD YOUR PAPER. You will be marked off for typos, punctuation errors, and/or major disorganization.
The heading of your paper should be your name ONLY.
1-inch margins all around
The paper is to be at least 5 FULL pages long, not less (No cover page).
Topics to pick from:(Pick one that’s easy to for you)
-Fin de Siècle & The Dreyfus Affair “J’Accuse” (Emile Zola’s letter)
– Russo-Japanese War and the Antecedents to the Great War “The Serbs and the Hapsburgs”
– World War I “The Night the Angels Sang” essay
-The Armenian Genocide De Waal – Armenian Genocide
– The Bolshevik Revolution & Ukraine Famine Anthem by Ayn Rand & Jones chapter
– The Origins of the Nazi Party Excerpt from The Hitler Myth
– The Rise of the Nazis & Suppression of the Jews Excerpt from Between Dignity and Despair
-The Rape of Nanking Excerpt from The Rape of Nanking
– The Politics of World War II in Europe USHMM doc
It is no secret that we have a large trade deficit
Question
Read the below link and answer the questions.
Word count 300
Arguments for protectionism would be to aide job creation or to keep wages up. This sounds great, but can all business sectors be protected or just few?
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Algebra 1
Instruction
Students need to complete one project and submit it before Friday of week 15. The official deadline for submission is Apr 12, 2019, before 9 PM. Format guidelines The project can be any topic in relation to algebra and its applications. However, it should NOT be on the material that is already covered in class. The students must select their own projects and articles. Important: No part of the project can be a copy and paste from anywhere, including the article under discussion (except the data and images, which need to be properly cited). If in doubt read https://ombud.msu.edu/academic-integrity/plagiarism-policy.html Turnitin has a built-in plagiarism tracker. Please use it to your advantage. The entire document should be written in APA format and should be between 4 to 10 pages in length not including images and the cover page. No extra wide margins are allowed. The margins should not be more than 1” in any direction. Choosing a topic Students must choose their own topics. Once the topic is chosen please post the topic in the following thread https://online.brooklinecollege.edu/mod/forum/view.php?id=539558 Start a new thread with the topic of your project as the subject line and post your topic in this thread. The same topic is not allowed for any two students. The student who posts a topic first gets it. Examples of viable projects: Mortgage rates Auto loan Compound interest Submission All papers should be submitted as a pdf file via the Turnitin module of Week 15. If any technical issues are encountered then contact your instructor asap. Rubric The following are the sections on which the project will be graded. A clear description of the objective of the article (20%) A clear description of the algebraic methods used (30%) Interpretation of the results (30%) Analysis of the conclusions of the article (20%) These 4 sections form the essential parts of any research article. The competence demonstrated in achieving the objective of each of these sections will be awarded accordingly. The rubric for each section and the article as a whole is 0 – Incoherent content, rambling on for pages, a clear indication of no work done, poorly chosen topic, a generic topic with no original content, copy paste from Wikipedia, a topic which is disallowed on grounds of being textbook material 1 – Some content, poorly researched, and hastily put together at the last minute 2 – Some research is done but the substance is still incoherent showing a lack of understanding 3 – Sufficient work is done, but the sections are not well-written and contain loose language and lack general cohesiveness 4 – Well researched and well-written. Minor typos, grammatical errors, lack of organization of the paper, too short a paper 5 – Excellent work, very well researched. Sections are clearly defined in terms of meaningful progress. The plan of the paper binds everything together in a cohesive manner This is applicable to each of the four sections and the whole article. So a total of 25 points possible. That will be scaled to 100 by multiplying by 4.
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Performing Arts
The incredible true story of how boundary-shattering New England astronomer Henrietta Leavitt trades with comforts of her rural home for a job at the Harvard Observatory in Massachusetts. Her ambition leaves both her family and her new colleagues (women knows simply as “computers”) perplexed. But with a single discovery, their views of themselves, each other, and the universe itself will be upended for all time. An incredible story of bold love, boundless determination, and the vast grandeur of the cosmos – an unparalleled treat for the heart, mind, and senses. Please write a one page review to include your opinion of the play (text), the production (lights, set, costumes, etc.), the performance (acting), and your overall experience.
Week 8 – Assignment: Interpret the Implications of Unethical Behavior
Instruction
Now is the time to compile all the concepts you have learned in this course into a comprehensive case study analysis. Assume you are an instructor presenting an unethical case study to your graduate students. Develop a PowerPoint presentation on a business of your choice. Be sure you include clear examples to support your findings. Please discuss unethical business actions that occurred from 2015 to present. Ensure to address the following key components for your student audience: Provide a brief historical summary of the organization. Identify and explain the unethical business practice examined. Reflect on ethical standards and why this practice was a violation of ethical behavior. Determine the influence of leadership in regards to this behavior. Explain any related cultural, environmental, and legal implications related to the behavior. Interpret the impact of the behavior on individuals, the organization, and society as a whole. Explain the outcome of the event, along with a comparison of the consequences (mention legal implications for the action). Determine the fairness of punishment. Explain your rationale using an ethical theory, as found in the recommended reading, to justify your rationale for the punishment’s fairness. Explain how organizational policies and procedures could be implemented to deter future occurrences like this from happening. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with at least eight scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 15-20 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate.
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Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Week 6 – Assignment: The Organization’s Influence on Unethical Behavior
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions The assigned reading articles provide a great deal of information regarding the impact that organizational systems have on unethical behavior. For example, in the article by Kilduff et al. (2016), the researchers note that rivalry can often increase unethical behaviors. This week, you will explain how an organization’s culture (e.g., systems and practices) can unknowingly/unintentionally increase unethical behavior among employees. Explain the importance of organizational culture and codes of conduct in encouraging ethical behavior. Assess three organizational policies or practices, as found in the reading and outside research, which can increase unethical behavior among employees. Propose informal and formal system solutions to reduce unethical behavior in organizations. Explain the benefits of these system solutions, as well as possible implications for these solutions. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
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Week 5 – Assignment: Critique Ethical Issues Regarding Information Technology
Instruction
You have been hired as a consultant in the IT Department at Northcentral University. One of the University’s current goals is to minimize security threats and prevent breaches. To accomplish this, you have been asked to research last year’s “major hacks” to understand technology, information security measures, and issues in security management. Prepare a report for the IT supervisor that includes the following: Select one major incident to research regarding technological breaches. Identify the company that was affected, and then describe this incident and why you selected it. Explain the implications associated with this breach, specifically in terms of privacy laws and violations of the law. Analyze the impact that these technological breaches have on consumer safety and well-being. What recommendations would you make to this organization to further protect the privacy of clients? Support your report with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
Week 4 – Assignment: Effects of Ethical/Unethical Behaviors
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions While Wal-Mart may employ a number of individuals (e.g., 2.1 million worldwide), throughout the years, the company received negative attention in terms of their business model and practices. Not only has Wal-Mart been accused of treating employees poorly, but they have also been the target of discrimination scandals. Begin by referring to the article in the resources for this week concerning Wal-Mart. Then, conduct a review of relevant research regarding Wal-Mart and its practices. In your paper, after thoroughly researching the Wal-Mart Corporation, address the following: Briefly summarize WalMart’s mission, vision, and values. Evaluate WalMart’s actions (e.g., unethical behaviors). Elaborate on whether the actions by WalMart are illegal. Justify your rationale. Determine how WalMart can improve its corporate culture and leadership. Then, suggest steps for improvement that could be taken to improve WalMart’s culture. In addition to conducting your own research regarding WalMart, you may find it advantageous, when developing your assignment, to watch the videos included in this week’s resources. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards
Week 3 – Assignment: Evaluate the Price of Unethical Behavior
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you evaluate a recent business case of unethical behavior with which you are familiar. Be sure to address the following in your paper: Briefly summarize the historical scenario surrounding your selected case. Explain how and why you believe the unethical behaviors occurred for as long as they did. Evaluate the outcome of events, including relations with internal and external stakeholders. Determine and explain if the punishment was justified. Explain if and why it is difficult for us to identify ethical breaches that we personally commit. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
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Week 2 – Assignment: Examine Notions of Ethical Leadership
Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Assume you are an instructor of a graduate-level leadership and ethics course. In this course, your students are not convinced that the actions of leaders can truly impact individuals, the organization, and society. Therefore, you need to convey how ethical behaviors do in fact impact many individuals and further reiterate the need for ethical leadership. Explain how the authors in your readings and additional research define leadership. Specifically, focus your explanation on what it means to be an ethical leader. Interpret the manner in which leaders serve as role models (better or worse) for ethical behavior. Determine the impact the concept of trustworthiness has on the level of trust in organizational leadership. Based on your research, describe the impact that leadership behavior can have on individuals, organizations, and society. Then, explain which of the articles above convinced you of the benefits of ethical leadership, as well as the role of leaders. Identify any correlations that exist between leadership, trustworthiness, and ethics. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 150-250 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate. Save the file as PPT with the correct course code information. Upload your assignment using the Upload Assignment button below.
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Week 1 – Assignment: Assessing Ethical Influences
Instruction
In 2009, an article was published by Kostigen, which highlighted the names of 10 unethical business people. While the names on similar lists change throughout the years, the names on this 2009 list often strike most recall among the business community. Examine this list, which can be found at http://www.marketwatch.com/story/the-10-most-unethical-people-in-business. Then, select one individual on this list to focus your paper on. Provide information regarding the individual’s unethical action/behavior. Based upon the research you conduct on this individual, utilize the articles by Bagdasarov et al. (2016) and Schwartz (2016) to analyze factors that might have contributed to this individual’s unethical behavior. Focus specifically on how diversity (e.g., cultural, gender, religious, etc. could have impacted/influenced the unethical behavior). Explain and justify the factors that may have influenced this individual to make the decision that he/she did. Explain how the decision made is reflective of Figure 1 (e.g., the integrated ethical decision-making model), in the research article by Schwartz (2016). Determine how this behavior could have been prevented if one or more of the factors mentioned above were removed. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Computer Science
Instruction
Hello, I’m looking for a professional in computer science majors only. I have 3 classes. I will make it very clear I’m not looking for writers. 1. Data Analysis and Reporting Class: / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the VMware Horizon client. You also will use Visual Studio 2017. Also, there’s reading quizzes and assignment quizzes. These class 8 weeks work, which means 8 assignments in SQL database / ERDs. 24 quizzes “I will support you will old papers for all quizzes” 2. Data Analysis/Visualization Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016. Also, there’s an assignment project om SAM project website. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. 3. Predictive Data Analysis Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016 and you will Using R programing language for Introductory Econometrics by Florian Hess. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the whole classes or not. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus 1,2,3. These classes will end on May 6. So, it’s only 2 months’ work.
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History
Instruction
Write an essay of 2 to 4 pages in length comparing the words used in the “U.S. Declaration of Sentiments of Seneca Fall (1848)” with “The Emancipation of Women and Resolutions of the International Congress of Women.
Finance
Convert the four financial statements by the selected company from the GAAP to IFRIS standard B. Write an analysis at the end of each financial statement that show the most important changes cause of converted. C. Answer the following question after you complete convert of all the financial statements:
Healthcare
Instruction
There are seven components to this paper. They follow the EBP process. You will combine all the components into one project.
Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time?
Article review and power point
Instruction
I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise.
Nursing Homework Help
What is the role of health care reform in shifting the focus from a disease-oriented health care system toward one of wellness and prevention, and how does nursing fit into this shift?
Nursing Homework Help
What is the impact to the nursing profession and to the public related to the projected nursing shortage? Discuss at least one way that the nursing profession is working toward a resolution of this problem.
SCI/220 Week 2 Food Intake
Record food intake and activities performed for three days. The iProfile® will be utilized to analyze the 3-day Food Intake Record. The Activities data will be analyzed during Week 4.
Enter your food intake for three full days using the food journal within iProfile®.
Follow the WileyPLUS® iProfile® instructions. Save this information.
Access the Intake Spreadsheet within the reports menu. Select start and end dates in the calendar at the top of the screen. The intake spreadsheet will calculate and display the average for the three days. Attach a screenshot of your report or export the report using Excel or PDF.
Write a paper of at least 750 words that addresses the following points about your 3-day food intake:
Recorded intake of protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
Which foods in your recorded daily intake provide protein? Which provide carbohydrates? Which provide lipids?
Review how your recorded protein, carbohydrate, and lipid intake compares with the recommendations of the dietary reference intake. If your recorded protein-carbohydrate-fat intake was too high or too low, which foods might you add or remove to achieve your goal and keep other nutrients in balance?
Is the protein in each food you ate complete or incomplete, combining to become complementary? Why is this important?
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How much of your daily recommended protein, carbohydrates, and lipid intake did you achieve? If your macronutrient intake is insufficient or excessive, what might you do to bring it into the recommended range? Provide specific recommendations.
Macronutrient intake ranges
Is macronutrient intake within the recommended range important? What are the effects of too much or too little of a macronutrient? What happens if you consistently eat too little protein? What happens if you eat too few carbohydrates? What happens if you eat too few lipids?
Fiber intake ranges
Does your fiber total meet 100% of the recommendation for you as calculated at iProfile®?
Does your diet meet the minimum number of servings of foods from each fiber-containing group? If not, which of the fiber-containing groups–fruits and vegetables–fell short of the recommended intake?
Which specific foods provide the most fiber in your meals? Which provide the least? Identify trends in your food choices that might affect your fiber intakes.
Dietary modifications
What changes might you make to increase the fiber in your diet?
How might insufficient or excessive amounts of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, or fiber contribute to health or illness? Provide examples.
What have you learned about your diet?
Cite three references other than the course text.
2 Discussion Question (Criminal Justice)
Questions:
Which model do you think contemporary American society prefers? Explain why
Are dangerous societal trends being captured in UCR/NIBRS or NCVS programs? Explain why or why not.
Reflection Paper
You have learned a great deal this term! You can now bring so much more to the table and help contribute to the success of your team and the company.
Reflect on what you have learned in this course and program.
Share with us three (3) strengthsyou can now bring to the table
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Law Homework Help
Key Assignment Draft
In those states with the three strikes laws, any person who has 2 felony strikes and commits another felony, whether it be violent or not, can be required to serve a sentence of 25 years to life.
The defendant had his third strike when he committed grand theft at a golf course in Los Angeles County. This was not a violent crime but he was subject to the three strikes laws. He appealed this case up to the United States Supreme Court—and lost.
The public has always been worried about violent crime, but just how worried are citizens about nonviolent crime? With mandatory sentencing, society will have many older inmates within the prison system. In the criminal justice community, it is known that inmates “age out of crime.” Can you imagine a 68-year-old man climbing in a window or jumping an 8-foot fence? By keeping these older inmates incarcerated, is this a disservice to society?
State prosecutors have the discretion to lower the charge so that the third offense would not be considered a third strike. For this assignment, you are a policy maker in your state legislature. You are concerned about the heavy tax burden on your constituents. The cost of the actual running of the prison and costs of personnel will rise.
You are also up for re-election, and the feedback that you have received from your constituents has shown that they are dissatisfied with the law that now stands. They are afraid of violent crimes, not just felonies, and are very aware that the last crime committed by the perpetrator does not have to be a violent crime. They are also worried about the use of their tax dollars to incarcerate nonviolent offenders.
Assignment Guidelines
Address the following in 5–7 pages:
Develop a policy regarding the three strikes laws in the State of California. Address the following in your policy:
What alternatives would be placed in the law to give the state prosecutor more freedom to manipulate the third strike?
Many prosecutors “load up” charges against defendants to force a plea bargain. What can be done to limit or prevent this practice?
Will your policy allow multiple counts arising from the same incident to count as multiple strikes? (For instance, a man arrested for aggravated robbery because of the use of a weapon is charged with aggravated robbery and a felony gun possession charge. Should that count as 1 strike or 2?)
If one of the alternatives was supervised probation, how would you convince the public that it would be more cost-effective for the person to be supervised than incarcerated?
Show the public where you would be saving money by not incarcerating the perpetrator.
If brought up in the legislature to be an amendment to the law, could this be grandfathered in to help older inmates?
Could this have a backlash from the public, or would they approve? How? Why?
Once you are finished with the policy, draft an executive summary of the policy to be used for political decision making.
Use 6–10 scholarly resources to support the provisions of your policy. Dictionaries and encyclopedias are not scholarly sources. Look at federal and state legislation and court cases.
Be sure to reference all sources using APA style.
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The Social Problems of Crime & Deviance Discussion Post
In about two paragraphs detail the relevance of Steffensmeier et al.’s findings. In other words, are there cases that you have read about that follow the sentencing trends documented in their study? Provide some details about the specific case or cases. Also, thinking about Burt et al., what are some possible solutions to the inequality in our criminal justice system?
Be sure to cite the course readings for full credit.
Literary Analysis Paper
Your task is to write will write a literary analysis of no fewer than 750 words on your chosen given topic.
Choose the topic below that corresponds with the novel you read in the novel study. The introduction should include a clear thesis (not a restatement of the prompt), which should be the claim upon which your essay will be built. Each body paragraph should begin with a strong topic sentence (an assertion), and contain evidence from the novel, as well as your own commentary, which will connect your evidence with the claim. End your essay with a strong conclusion in which you again revisit your thesis statement and give your reader “food for thought”– what didn’t you say in your essay that is relevant to the overall essay and your assertion?
ESSAY PROMPTS
Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Review the following themes of the novel:
Parents must take responsibility for their children, and creators must take responsibility for their creations.
Nature is a source of solace and inspiration.
Manipulation of nature has devastating effects.
Excessive pursuit of knowledge or ambition leads to destruction.
Human beings need love and companionship; repeated rejection and alienation leads to antisocial behavior.
Choice #1: Choose one of the above themes, and analyze how Shelley expresses the theme in the novel.
Choice #2: Analyze a key scene from the novel, discussing how this scene in particular advances one of Shelley’s major themes. In the introduction, contextualize the scene (where in the novel it is located, what characters are present). Then have a clear thesis in which you make your assertion about the scene’s importance (to plot, character, and theme).
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Unit 5 Individual Project Final Paper.
Key Assignment
You will use the new venture business plan from ENTR615 and your work from Week 4 for this assignment. The final draft should incorporate feedback provided by your instructor and peers during the course.
The new venture business plan from ENTR615 should include the following sections:
Table of Contents (TOC)
Mission Statement
Vision Statement
Product or Service
Market Opportunity
Competitive Environment
Part 1
Incorporate any new information generated during this course to the following sections of your new venture business plan from ENTR615:
Product or Service
Market Opportunity
Competitive Environment
Part 2
Generate the following new sections for your new venture business plan from ENTR615:
Facilities
Operating Plans
Legal Structure
Part 3
The main component of this part of the assignment is the inclusion of updated and detailed pro forma financial documents.
The financial documents should include the following:
Balance sheet
Income statement
Cash flow statement
Polish and strengthen your plan to improve the following:
Format
Flow
Ideas
Be sure to focus on the following:
The sections should be tightly written and professional in a business rather than academic style.
Present charts, graphs, and other visual aids as appropriate.
Changes made to any aspect of your plan should be reflected in your financial information.
Submit your business plan and financial statements in PDF format. Your most recent EZ Numbers file for the proposed new venture should be submitted in .xlsm format.
Please submit your assignment.
For assistance with your assignment, please use your text, Web resources, and all course materials.
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Personal Narrative
Your task is to write a 750-1000 wordessay about a memorable event in your life.
ESSAY PROMPT
Annie Dillard’s and Louise Erdrich’s essays are observations of animals that lead back to reflections on their own lives. Write your own personal essay, following these steps.
Write about a memorable event in your life.
Explain how this event led to an insight about your own life or about the human condition.
Organize your ideas into a unified essay.
Step Two: Prewrite
Brainstorm possible topics.
List memorable events or encounters with nature or other people that you remember. Ask yourself questions about ways in which each encounter might be emblematic of a general truth.
Your essay will progress from the personal to the universal and include specific details to help the reader understand the insights gained from the experience.
Get Organized
Decide on the structure of your narrative and create an outline or use a story map to reflect your ideas.
Look back at Living Like Weasels and Local Deer to help you. Ask yourself these questions about each one:
How does the story begin? What techniques are used to engage the audience?
How does the writer develop the narrative? What is the sequence of events? How are the main ideas organized?
How does the writer use setting, people or characters, conflict, and events to reveal a theme about experiencing the natural world?
How does the narrative end? Is there a final observation or reflection on nature?
Flesh out your narrative with descriptive details. Visualize the places and people in your narrative, and write down details about them. Be sure to include qualities and characteristics that make them unique.
Record some ideas for revealing the insight you gained from this experience.
Draft Your Essay
Use your outline to write your essay.
Remember to
Begin by introducing your readers to the setting, people, and experience that will be central to the narrative.
5 points – The introduction creates a vivid impression, clearly establishes the setting, and identifies the experience.
5 points – The narrative provides informative background to help explain events.
5 points – Descriptive details, realistic dialogue (if included), and reflection dramatically re-create the experience.
5 points – The conclusion powerfully summarizes the importance of the experience and offers an insightful observation.
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Organization (10)
4 points – The organization is effective; ideas are arranges logically and events are organized chronologically.
2 points – The pace is effective.
4 points – Well-chosen transitions clearly connect ideas and show the sequence of events.
Language (8)
2 points – A consistent, first-person point of view creates a unique voice.
2 points – Sensory language is used creatively to describe people, places, and events in vivid ways.
2 points – Sentence beginnings, lengths, and structures vary and have a rhythmic flow.
2 points – The writing demonstrates strong command of standard English writing, including spelling, capitalization, punctuation, grammar, and usage.
MLA Formatting (2)
2 points – All MLA Guidelines have been followed— margins, paragraphs indented, double-spacing, 12″ Times New Roman font, heading and title included and formatted correctly, page numbers.
Total marks = 40 points
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SCI/220 Week 2 Carbohydrate Pamphlet
Create a 2-page pamphlet/brochure using the Microsoft® Publisher, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Brochure Builder, or another brochure building tool. Include the following details:
A title.
Define carbohydrates and outline the basic functions of sugars, starches and fiber in the body.
Describe the differences between simple and complex carbohydrates, stating healthy carbohydrate sources.
Describe how sugars are broken down and used in the body.
Explain the difference between soluble and insoluble fibers, stating how the difference can be applied to food selection and consumption so as to improve health.
Include information on one of the following disorders related to carbohydrates: lactose intolerance, diabetes, or hypoglycemia.
Include a definition, how it affects the body, and some courses of action used to treat and manage the disorder.
Include a reference with citations in APA format.
Include clip art and a background image.
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American National Government Final Paper- Affordable Care Act
First Main Point (one to one and a half pages) describes the historical and Constitutional basis of American government’s structure and how this relates to the policy.
Describe the main point.
Support the main point with research.
Second Main Point (one to one and a half pages) explains how the policy is involved within the process of checks and balances.
Describe the main point.
Support the main point with research.
Third Main Point (one to one and a half pages) describes how the policy relates to public policy and elections and how the policy is portrayed by the media.
Describe the main point.
Support the main point with research.
Fourth Main Point (one to one and a half pages) explains how the policy impacts voting and the election process.
Must include a separate title page with the following:
Title of paper
Student’s name
Course name and number
Instructor’s name
Date submitted
Must use at least eight scholarly sources in addition to the course text. A minimum of five of the resources must be from peer-reviewed scholarly sources from the Ashford University Library.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
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Discussion Post
Post an analysis of sources and methods of data collection in the context of your DBA doctoral research question. In your analysis, do the following:
Explain how the “Four Principles of Data Collection” from Yin (2018) support your ability to address your DBA doctoral research question.
Explain the importance of utilizing multiple sources of evidence and triangulation within the data collection process. Be sure to address the specific types of data triangulation (data, investigation, investigator, methodological) and their relationship to data quality. Be sure to provide a scholarly example to support your explanation.
Be sure to support your work with a minimum of two specific citations from this week’s Learning Resources and one or more additional scholarly sources.
To prepare for this Discussion, review this week’s Required Readings and consider why the different sources of evidence are important to the work of a DBA doctoral researcher, including the role of triangulation within the qualitative data collection process.
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HR Director of A U.S. Based Medium-Sized Consumer Product Firm
For this written assignment you will focus on staffing.
Think about this scenario – you are the HR director of a U.S. based medium-sized consumer products firm. Your company is opening a sales office in [you choose the country]. Your job is to decide the best approach for staffing this new office.
For this assignment:
Decide what your product is.
Decide what country you will expand to.
Decide what Staffing Approach to use.
List Advantages and Disadvantages for the approach you chose.
What would be the Return on Investment for your choices?
Papers should be
3-4 pages in length (not including title and reference pages)
Reflect APA guidelines
a title page
reference page
in-text citations
A minimum of two references are required
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1.HIUS 221 American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III – Research Paper
The topic I chose for this was the Boston Massacre and the project needs to be on “Could the Boston Massacre Have Been Prevented?”
American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III Instructions
Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
The ability to perform solid research is a key to success in academics and professional life, but communicating that research in a clear and concise manner is equally as important. This part of the assignment provides you with the opportunity to develop writing skills—specifically in the areas of organization and use of proper grammar, mechanics, and style—and to show your ability to use sources with integrity.
Completing This Assignment:
For the topic selected in Module/Week 2 of the course and utilized again in Module/Week 4, you will complete in the actual body content at least an 800 word 3-page paper that presents the research conducted during the term.
The paper must be well organized and developed and provide a concise examination of the subject.
Utilizing the sources from Module/Week 4 that were closely connected to your original topic choice from Module/Week 2 give an extended paper overview of the event? Discuss your own arguments. Include opposing viewpoints you discovered in your research. As a result, did your opinions change? How?
Citations must conform to current Turabian citation style with properly formatted footnotes and bibliography for the 3 or more scholarly sources you use.
The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
When you are finished, your assignment must be:
In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document
Formatted, including:
12-point Times New Roman font
double-spaced
1-inch margins
Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)
Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level
You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.
2.Psychology
Instructions Research the psychological state of active shooters who enter an active shooter location. Research the psychological state of police officers who enter an active shooter location.
Discuss in detail (3-5 well-developed paragraphs) the psychological state of active shooters versus the police officers who enter an active shooter location to neutralize them.
3. Classical v. Bureaucratic Modles
Description
Compare and contrast the classical and the bureaucratic models of an organization. What values do they both rely on and why is this important for understanding government processes?
Does the class think that the bureaucratic model will continue to have support as, the number of agencies and services the state provides continue to grow? Explain
4. Unit 2 Discussion question
Description
The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.
5. Examining the Legal Environment
Description
Overview
Write a 4–5 page report in which you analyze data concerning CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices.
Many U.S. laws, ordinances, and guidelines directly impact the hiring and selection process.
Context
Organizations use several methods to find job candidates. The Assessment 2 Context document contains information about the complexities involved in recruiting, hiring, retaining, and promoting employees.
Questions to Consider
To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.
* How should organizations respond to allegations of workplace discrimination? * What are significant legal issues that you need to be cognizant of during the recruiting and selection process? How would these issues affect the recruiting process for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives? * As social media becomes a growing hiring influence because of its reach and information prospective applicants freely share, how can organizations protect themselves against charges of invasion of privacy?
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
Read Chapter 6 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book
Read the scenario below. Scenario While planning for expansion, CapraTek is also concerned about its hiring and promotion practices at existing facilities. Management has asked for an analysis of the workforce in its flagship manufacturing facility. As the Recruiting Director for CapraTek’s major manufacturing facility you are concerned about the company’s hiring posture relative to women and minorities. Your manufacturing plant in a nearby major city especially worries you. You recently checked the latest statistics for the SMSA the plant is in and found the following:
* Females in the labor force: 35% * Blacks in the labor force: 10% * Hispanics in the labor force: 5% * All other groups are 0%
To address your concerns you first looked at the selection statistics for the past 12 months. Note: This plant hires mostly unskilled laborers and then trains them. Here is what you found:
Hiring Statistic
Total
Females
Black
Hispanic
Number Applied
80
20
10
5
Number Hired
20
6
3
1
Next you looked at your existing work force and found the following:
Finally, you looked at how protected classes are being moved up in the plant. While workers are hired as unskilled laborers, that is not the whole story. There are two higher paying options open to them: they can become skilled machine operators (by passing an in-depth company run training program) and from there they can become line supervisors (this pays even more than the skilled jobs). You are concerned about how that program works also; the statistics are as follows:
Positions Within the Company
Total
Females
Black
Hispanic
Unskilled Workers
350
45
20
15
Skilled Operators
50
1
2
3
Line Supervisors
25
2
1
1
Note: The above totals do not add up to 450 or the work force totals because there are other jobs in the plant not used in this analysis.
Requirements
Using what you know about CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices, prepare a report for top management addressing the following:
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact using the 4/5ths rule. Consider the applicant flow. * Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact of employee utilization based on the relevant labor market for the state you chose in Assessment 1. * Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact on any protected class concentrated in lower-paying jobs. * Assess CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices to support its growth strategy.
Additional Requirements
* Write 4–5 typed, double-spaced pages (not including title page or references). * Use Times New Roman font, 12 point. * Include a title page and, if needed, a reference page.
References
* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM. Chapter 6.
* Davison, H., Maraist, C., Hamilton, R., & Bing, M. (2012). To screen or not to screen? Using the Internet for selection decisions. Employee Responsibilities & Rights Journal, 24(1), 1–21.
* Houtenville, A., & Kalargyrou, V. (2012). People with disabilities: Employers’ perspectives on recruitment practices, strategies, and challenges in leisure and hospitality. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 53(1), 40–52.
6. Health Care Analytics
Description
Discussion Resources
The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:
Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
Chapter 5, “Analyze the Data and Gain Insights,” pages 101–132.
The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 5, pages 202–204.
In 2010, Marr stated, “Most organizations are still more focused on simply collecting and distributing data than in doing any meaningful analysis” (p. 202). Since that time, technology has continued to rapidly advance. Support for health care leaders related to collection and analysis options for data and information has expanded as well.
Prepare for this discussion by researching the websites provided in the resources to increase your awareness of the current state of data collection and analysis in health care management. Then, locate and study a current article, blog, webcast, interview, or other source of information that addresses an issue, expert opinion, tool, new development, or future trend related to data analysis in the health care industry.
For your initial discussion post, address the following:
Provide the APA citation and URL (if applicable) of the source and summarize its content.
Explain how this information offers value to leaders managing in health care organizations.
Consider your investigation of the websites linked in the Resources.
Based on this research and examination of information, do you think Marr’s statement above is still valid today in the health care industry? Explain your position.
Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations
7. Analyzing Researched Information
Description
Overview
For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.
My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.
Instructions
For this assignment:
Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note: You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable.
Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment
8. Conducting a Job Analysis
Description
Overview
Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.
Context
Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.
Preparation
To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:
Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.
Read the scenario below.
Scenario Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.
Requirements
You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.
Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.
Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:
A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job. The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required. Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state. Additional Requirements
Required length is 3–4 pages. Use Times New Roman font, 12 point. Double space your memo.
Resources
Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM. Chapters 5–7.
U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/
9. Cloud Computing Security
Question
The topic I chose for my research paper is Cloud Computing Security. Cloud computing services have been provided by major vendors such as Google and Microsoft, until Apple announced iCloud for their customers. There were many issues with hackers gaining access private cloud storage of celebrities, particularly female. In my essay, I will use technology and information resources to research issues in information systems and technology. I will also focus on discussing the issues, vulnerabilities, problems, etc., and conduct an analysis, and provide recommendations.
10. Manipulating the Minitab Output
Question
Use the graphs and tables from W2 Assignment.
Create a brief Microsoft PowerPoint presentation describing your sample. Be sure to give an accurate and complete description, taking your instructor’s feedback from W2 Assignment into consideration.
Do you all feel that we should use protectionism as a foreign trade policy? How do you see it harming or benefiting our trade deficit or economy?
12. Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS
Question
Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS from initial handshake to close of the session. Create a detailed drawing of the steps and also annotate each step with additional detail.
13. How to Integrate Climate Change Risks and Opportunities into Supply Chain Management
Question
Read the link above focusing on a news article discussing supply chain issues
14. Discussion Topic need 8 different answers for post
Question
Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!
1. The visual system is very complex, as you can tell from this week’s reading! It would be great if you could discuss an element of the visual system that you find interesting and explain why (e.g., rods and cones, the retina, etc).
2. We have a few sensory systems to discuss in this chapter! Please describe a phenomenon associated with the auditory (hearing), somatosensory (touch), or gustatory (taste) system. Why is the system you choose to discuss unique?
3. As you will read, there are multiple brain regions that control sensorimotor function. What makes these regions important for how we move and balance our body?
15. In a lottery daily game, a player picks four num
Question
In a lottery daily game, a player picks four numbers from 0 to 9 without repetition. How many different does the player have
16. Creative Writing Poem
Question
ASSIGNMENT #3 DUE: Stanley Kunitz Imitation poem. Write another free-verse poem, but again with and focus on eliminating sentimentality and cliché. Try to write a poem that captures a moment, imitating Stanley Kunitz’s, “The Portrait”. The idea is to NARROW your poem down to a focused moment, or a specific experience that illustrates an emotional moment withOUT naming that emotion. Work on SHOWING through detail and imagery. But remember to ZOOM IN. Use the moment the way Kunitz does in The Portrait. Using a “WE” or “I” speaker, write about a specific shared/experience that captures the nuances of everyday relationships of loved ones. Feel free to LIE! This poem should be written in FREE VERSE (no rhyming). Try to follow the line and stanza patterns of the Kunitz poem.
17. Math question about combination safes
You are tasked with opening a safe without knowing the combination. Beginning with the dial at zero, the dial must be turned counterclockwise to the first combination number, then clockwise back to zero), and clockwise to the second combination number, (then counterclockwise back to zero), and counterclockwise again to the third and final combination number, whereupon the door will open immediately. There are 40 numbers of the dial, including the zero.
Without knowing the combination numbers, what is the maximum number of trials required to open the safe? (One trial means one attempt to dial a full three-number combination)
18. Coastline question math, hard concept
Suppose there’s a straight coastline and a lighthouse that is L=3 miles away from the coast. This light revolves at one revolution per minute. How fast is the beam of light travelling along the coastline? When the beam is 3L away from the coastal point closest to the light, how fast is the light travelling along the coast.
Explain how you got to the answer.
19. Career Planning and Management 300 words
Identify a possible entry-level or appropriate job for a career that might interest you. For example: Software Developer, Web designer, Web content writer, auto mechanic, or dental technician. Perform an Internet search for information about your career of interest.
Select several items from the search results list and go to their websites to see what you can learn about the career. Write down what you learn.
Do some research about the career including job qualifications, a typical workday, good versus challenging aspects of the job, technical skills required for the job, and the company background and culture. Summarize your findings in writing.
After your research, do you think this job is appropriate for you? Why do you think that is?
Do web research, and create a brief report showing:
Recent statistical data on identity theft
Type of identity theft
Steps than can be taken to protect yourself against identity theft
20. Defend or refute one of the following statements
1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.
Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.
21. Learning Strategies Psychology
Topic is : Human Rights
1. Define the topic
2. Why do you believe that topic is social problem in our society?
3. How are people in this group treated in our society?
4. How have government (local, state and / or federal) attempted to address this problem?
5. What can you as an individual do to have positive impact on this issue?
Paper needs to be the introduction paragraph, body paragraph, conclusion paragraph and the the reference page.
300 words or more
22. Pole and minimum number of moves
There are three poles in front of you. One pole is stacked with 64 rings ranging in weight from one ounce (at the top) to 64 ounces (at the bottom). Your task is to move all of the rings to one of the other to poles so that they end up in the same order. The rules are that you can only move one ring at a time, you can move a ring only from one pole to another, and you cannot even temporarily place a ring on top of a lighter ring.
What is the minimum number of moves you need to make to achieve the task?
Show a detailed proof and give a thorough explanation please.
23. Math help
You’re standing at the center of a circular field of radius R. The field has a low wire fence around it. Attached to the wire fence (and restricted to running around the perimeter) is a large, sharp-fanged, hungry dog who likes to eat any humans he can catch.
You can run at speed v. Unfortunately, the dog can run four times as fast, at 4v. The dog will do his best to catch you if you try to escape the field. What is your running strategy to escape the field without feeding yourself to the dog.
Please explain your solution.
24. Math Help
John is talking to Mary while working on a deal book at 2AM. Mary learns that John’s sister has three children. “How old are the children?” asks Mark. “Well,” replies John, “the product of their ages is 36.” “Hmmm, the sum of their ages is the same as this figure right here,” says John pointing at the spreadsheet. “Still not enough information,” says Mary after thinking for a minute. “The eldest is dyslexic,” says John. How old are the children?
25. Unemployment compensation
Please answer the following in connection with unemployment compensation and worker’s compensation:
Evaluate: Everyone who loses his or her job is entitled to unemployment compensation.
Analyze: It is important to know whether one is an employee or an independent contractor in case the person is injured at work.
Evaluate this statement: Workers’ compensation legislation considers fault.
Explain why someone might think this statement is true: The worker’s compensation system is not always beneficial to workers.
At least a 300 words response. APA
26. Mirror question
Please help me out with this confusing question!
Why are images in a mirror flipped horizontally and not vertically? For example, although I wear my wristwatch on my left wrist, and my reflection wears his on his right wrist, my reflection is not standing on his head.
Please explain in your own words, 200 words minimum.
27. Business question – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question:
Don is an elderly man who lives with his nephew Evan. Don is dependent upon Evan for care. Evan advises Don to “invest” in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Evan tells Don that he will no longer provide care unless Don makes the investment. Don sells all of his stocks and bonds and signs a contract with Evan investing the proceeds of his sale of the stocks and bonds in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Can Don set aside the contract? If Don is successful in setting aside the contract, what remedy should he seek in addition to setting aside the contract?
28. Business question 4 – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question # 4:
General Equity Corporation enters a contract with Nancy, a local artist, to create a mosaic of her famous painting “The Birth of Industry” to be set into the floor in the entrance hall of the new corporate headquarters. Nancy delays and then eventually refuses to perform the contract. In the meantime, General enters a contract with Ideal Investments, Inc. to sell the new building to Ideal. Before the sale of the building is complete, Jewel Funds, Inc. offers General a higher price for the new building and General refuses to honor the contract with Ideal Investments. General brings a lawsuit against Nancy for her breach of contract and seeks the remedy of specific performance. Ideal, after successfully enjoining the sale of the building to Jewel Funds, brings a lawsuit against General seeking a court order compelling General to complete the sale to Ideal. In your answer, discuss whether or not a court would grant the plaintiff’s request for the remedy of specific performance in each case. If you conclude that a court would not grant the remedy of specific performance in either case, discuss what the measure of damages might be available to the plaintiff in that action.
29. Business Question – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question: Publix Supermarkets, Inc. is a Florida Corporation with its principle offices located in Lakeland, Polk County, Florida (“Publix”). Publix’s corporate offices are located in the Tenth (10th) Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida. Publix has retail supermarket locations though out the State of Florida as well as other locations in the Southeastern part of the United States. Publix has several retail supermarket locations in Hillsborough County Florida. Hillsborough Country is in the Thirteenth (13th) Judicial District for the State of Florida. The Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida are in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida. Cases arising in the Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida that may be brought in a federal court would be heard initially in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida.
Some of the retail items sold to the public in the Publix stores located in Hillsborough County are delivered from a Publix distribution center located in Lakeland, Florida. The goods are delivered from the distribution center to the retail locations in Hillsborough County via a fleet of trucks owned by Publix and operated by Publix employees.
Sam Straight, a 30-year employee of Publix, is driving a Publix tractor trailer truck north bound on I-275 near downtown Tampa, Florida. Sam has the appropriate credentials to drive a tractor trailer truck in the State of Florida. He has been driving for Publix for 25 years of the 30 years he has been employed by Publix. Sam is driving under the posted speed limit and he is preparing to merge onto I-4 eastbound to return to the Publix distribution center in Lakeland.
Fred Fragile is a resident of the State of Georgia. His home is in DeKalb County Georgia, in the jurisdiction of the DeKalb County State Court. He is driving his motor home on the entrance ramp to northbound I-275 in downtown Tampa after a visit to the Florida Aquarium. Fred has the appropriate credentials to operate a motor home in the State of Georgia and Florida. He is driving under the posted speed limit. Fred wishes to merge onto I-275 and eventually travel northbound on I-275 to take I-75 northbound to return to his home in Georgia. When Fred merges onto I-275 northbound, he wants to move over one lane to his left to take I-275 North. When he enters I-275 North bound his vehicle is side by side with the Publix tractor trailer truck driven by Sam Straight. Sam wishes to merge one lane to his right to facilitate taking I-4 East to Lakeland. As the two vehicles negotiate the interchange, they come into contact with each other resulting in a multi-car accident closing I-275 North for several hours. Sam and Fred do not suffer any injuries because of the accident. Damage to Fred’s motor home totals $40,000. Damage to the Publix tractor trailer totals $25,000.
An extensive investigation by the Florida Highway Patrol has identified four people who were driving in the vicinity of the two vehicles at the time of the accident. One witness lives in Plant City, Florida. The second witness lives in Orlando, Florida. The third witness lives in Daytona Beach, Florida and the fourth witness lives in Toronto, Ontario.
Both Fred and Publix believe that there is evidence to suggest that either Fred or Sam is responsible for causing the accident. In answering the following questions, it is not necessary for you to discuss the potential for liability on the part of Publix and/or Fred.
A. If either Fred or Publix wishes to bring a claim to recover the damage to their respective vehicles, discuss the procedural steps that either party must take to initiate their claim. Discuss further the procedural steps the other party must take in response to a claim. Discuss what may occur in the event the defendant in the action fails to follow the required procedural steps if a claim is brought against them.
B. If Publix wishes to bring a claim against Fred for the damage to its tractor trailer, in addition to the steps discussed in your response to question 1 above, what elements must be present to bring the claim in a Florida court? What elements must be present to bring the claim in a Georgia court? Which state court, in your judgment, is mostly likely to hear the case?
C. If Fred wishes to bring a claim against Publix what elements must be present to hear the claim in a Georgia court? What elements must be present to hear the claim in a Florida Court?
D. The accident occurred in the Thirteenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Publix’s corporate headquarters are in the Tenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Assuming for the purpose of answering this question, that the litigation would be proper in either judicial district, what legal doctrine will be used to determine which district court will hear the case? If Fred’s claim is brought in the State of Florida, which district court, in your judgment, is most likely to hear the case?
E. Under what doctrine could Fred’s claim be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida? What requirements must be met in order for the claim to be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida? Are those requirements satisfied in this case?
30. Business Development
Please complete the following assignment.
You are the Business Development Manager for a microchip product manufactured by ABC Components Corporation. Please describe how your business development process and approach will change with each stage of the product life cycle. A five sentence paragraph should be sufficient to discuss your efforts in each of the stages: development, introduction, growth stage, maturity stage, decline stage (five paragraphs).
To get you started, think about the following…..in the development stage, who do you need to learn about, what kinds of information do you need marketing to generate, etc? Elaborate on this and provide more. This is relevant for the development stage. Each stage will be different, meaning, don’t just answer these questions for each stage. Think about each stage independently. There will be different approaches and considerations for each stage. Your responses should be based on concepts from the coursework, particularly the current chapter.
31. Business question 5 – 1 or 2 pages MLA
Question # 5:
Power Plus Battery Company (“PPBC”) has a production plant located in Tampa, Florida. PPBC manufactures batteries for motor vehicles. PPBC has 200 employees and sells its batteries to customers in twenty-five different states in the United States. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (“OHSA”) is a federal administrative agency that has the authority to establish safety standards, pursuant to the authority delegated to it by the United States Congress in the Occupational Safety and Health Act. These safety standards, also known as safety rules or regulations, apply to different industrial operations that have at least fifty (50) employees and are engaged in interstate commerce. OSHA proposes a new safety standard governing the handling of certain acids in the workplace. The proposed safety standard includes acids that PPBC uses in its production processes. After reviewing the proposed rule, PPBC concludes that compliance with the proposed rule will substantially increase its production costs and the proposed rule will not significantly increase worker safety. PPBC sends a letter to OSHA stating its objections and concerns to the new rule. Enclosed with the letter are independent research reports and other materials that support PPBC’s objections to the proposed rule. What procedures must OSHA follow when it adopts a new safety standard such as this one? What obligation does OSHA have to consider the objections and the materials submitted by PPBC? What options does OSHA have regarding the proposed rule? How does OSHA announce its final decision on the new rule? Once the new rule has been adopted, what source may interested parties use to find the final version of the new rule?
32. 2 Paragraphs question
Choose one article within the last 3 months about Marketing consumer behavior and write two paragraphs about it. It should include a link to the Article or the article on a different doc and give your thoughts on it. Examples and scenarios are more than welcome
MLA format.
33. Discussion Question – 2 Paragraphs
Discussion question: write 2 paragraphs with at least one reference
Now that you have completed a series of assignments that have led you into the active project planning and development stage for your project, briefly describe your proposed solution to address the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and how it has changed since you first envisioned it. What led to your current perspective and direction?
MLA format – 300 words minimum
34. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question
Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.
During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.
In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:
List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.
35. Answer the following questions
The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.
36. Business Questions
Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.
Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
Personal loss exposures
Property loss exposures
Liability loss exposures
With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.
37. Design and analysis of algorithms
Analysis & Design of Algorithms
Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.
Question
1. Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.
2. Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.
3. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.
4. Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.
5. Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.
6. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.
7. Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.
38. Web Development Exercise
Create a Movies class that determines the cost of a ticket to a cinema,
based on the moviegoer’s age. Assume that the cost of a full-price
ticket is $10. Assign the age to a private data member. Use a public
member function to determine the ticket price, based on the follow-
ing schedule:
Age Price
Under 5 Free
5 to 17 Half price
18 to 55 Full price
Over 55 $2 off
39. Software design and construction quiz
Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.
QUESTION 1
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QUESTION TEXT
You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?
Select one:
A. TOGAF
B. IEEE
C. MICROSOFT .NET
D. JAVA
QUESTION 2
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QUESTION TEXT
What does the MVC pattern do?
Select one:
A. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.
B. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.
C. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.
D. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.
QUESTION 3
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QUESTION TEXT
Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?
Select one:
A. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.
B. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.
C. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.
D. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.
QUESTION 4
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QUESTION TEXT
Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?
Select one:
A. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.
B. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.
C. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.
D. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.
QUESTION 5
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QUESTION TEXT
Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?
Select one:
A. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.
B. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.
C. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.
D. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.
QUESTION 6
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?
Select one:
A. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES
B. MODULARITY
C. AGILITY
D. INFORMATION HIDING
QUESTION 7
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is not an architectural style?
Select one:
A. CONNECTOR.
B. LAYERED.
C. CLIENT-SERVER
D. PEER-TO-PEER.
QUESTION 8
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QUESTION TEXT
Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?
Select one:
A. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.
B. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.
C. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.
D. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.
QUESTION 9
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QUESTION TEXT
Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?
Select one:
A. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.
B. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.
C. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.
D. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.
QUESTION 10
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QUESTION TEXT
What is software efficiency?
Select one:
A. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.
B. LOW COST.
C. HIGH OCTANE.
D. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.
QUESTION 11
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QUESTION TEXT
Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?
Select one:
A. NON-FUNCTIONAL.
B. NEITHER.
C. BOTH.
D. FUNCTIONAL.
QUESTION 12
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QUESTION TEXT
Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?
Select one:
A. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.
B. YES, IT DOES.
C. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?
D. NO, IT DOES NOT.
QUESTION 13
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QUESTION TEXT
What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?
Select one:
A. HIDE … POUNCE.
B. LISTEN … CORRECT.
C. WATCH …. GRAB.
D. TRY … CATCH.
QUESTION 14
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QUESTION TEXT
What is the role of connectors in software architecture.
Select one:
A. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.
B. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.
C. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.
D. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.
QUESTION 15
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QUESTION TEXT
Which of the following is an example of a Connector?
Select one:
A. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.
B. BACKING UP FILES.
C. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.
D. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.
QUESTION 16
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QUESTION TEXT
What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?
Select one:
A. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS
B. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.
C. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.
D. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.
QUESTION 17
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QUESTION TEXT
What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?
Select one:
A. HE INVENTED THE WEB.
B. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.
C. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?
D. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.
QUESTION 18
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QUESTION TEXT
What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?
Select one:
A. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.
B. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.
C. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.
D. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.
QUESTION 19
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QUESTION TEXT
Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?
Select one:
A. ME? NO WAY.
B. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.
C. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.
D. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.
QUESTION 20
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QUESTION TEXT
How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?
Select one:
A. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.
B. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.
C. THEY ALL LOVE IT.
D. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.
40. Create a small GUI application
Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.
Sum of the four values
Product of the four values
The smallest value
The largest of the values
The exit button will exit the application.
41. Sport Management and Drugs
Sports Management:
Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)
Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!
42. Budget Assignment
Instruction
For this exercise we are going to create a simple budget, and track our budget compliance over the course of a 12 month period. Although it is possible (and common) to track budget compliance on a month to month basis, to keep things simple for this exercise we are going to only examine the year end result. Start by creating a budget in Excel in the following format. The Budget Spreadsheet Image is attached… For the starting budget $ amounts you use the following logic. Determine the yearly values and enter them into your budget. Don’t forget to add the totals, and to determine the amount you are short/extra. Salary = $4,000 a month Rent = $1200 a month Car payment = $650 a month Phone = $95 a month Health Insurance = $250 a month Food = $500 a month We are now going to add the following data for the monthly amounts in out spreadsheet Salary: Your starting salary for the year is $4,000 a month. In June you get a 3% pay increase. Additionally you get a one-time bonus payout of $500 in October. Rent: Your monthly rent per your lease is $1,200 a month, with a 5% increase in November. Car: Your car is under lease at a rate of $650 a month. Phone: Your month rate for your phone is $95 a month, but you incurred overage charges of $25 each in the months of April, August, and December. Health Insurance: Your monthly installments for health insurance are $250 a month. Food: Food expense tends to be more varied than the other expenses be captured. Use the follow table to enter your food expenses. Food Expenses Spreadsheet is attached… Other: In the month of March you have a car repair bill of $750 and in August you took a $125 flight to visit your parents. Brief Write-up: Now review your actual income/expenses versus the budget that you established. Discuss in what areas you exceeded your budgetary amounts? What options do you have, and what actions would you take if your goal is to maintain your budget in all categories? Discuss how miscellaneous unexpected items can impact your budget.
43.History Assignment
Instruction
Choose an event or theme evident in U. S. History from the end of the Civil War to the near present and write a brilliant 3-5 pp. double-spaced paper based on one academic book, three scholarly journal articles, and at least two primary sources. The book must be published by a university press and the scholarly journal articles must be found on the JSTOR or America History and Life databases. The publication dates of the book and the articles must be between 1970 and 2015.
44.Healthcare
Instruction
• Name: Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool • Description: For this assignment, you will develop a Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool flyer for parents of children 5 years of age and less regarding the prevention of pediatric obesity. Pediatric obesity is a growing problem in the USA and is a major contributor to morbidity (hypertension, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, osteoarthritis) and mortality later in life. The tool should be developed according to the criteria established in the attached rubric. You are strongly urged to use the Center for Disease Control and Prevention as one reference (at least 3 references are required). References for the tool should be submitted in APA format and should be research based. Remember to use layman’s terms. Please review this rubric prior to completing this assignment
45. General Assignment
Instruction
Discussion #3: Communication & Motivation Select two of the three main topics to respond to and provide your mid-semester feedback. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tdmyoMe4iHM (Miracle, 4 min) Main Topic 3.1: Motivation Questions (2 parts) Question1) What motivates people? (See Module 6: Basic Motivation Model). Do you think it is money, Process Theory, or Content Theory? Question 2) Do you remember any particular motivational speech (graduation, sports, church, etc.) that inspired you to exceed what you thought were your capabilities? Main Topic 3.2: Path-Goal Does the Path-Goal Leadership concept fall under Content Theory or Process Theory of Motivation? Main Topic 3.3~Motivation What motivates employees to work hard and be more productive? The classic answer is — money! However, management texts tell us that motivation is not something you do to someone; motivation starts from within an individual with an unsatisfied need. Managers motivate employees by providing a means for them to satisfy that need. This is particularly challenging today as the Gen Y’ers (aka the Millenials) enter the workplace. For this discussion, in addition to the readings, visit the following three websites and address the question: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=owwM6FpWWoQ 60 minutes; Jason Dorsey; “Generation Y,” ( 3+ minutes) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=h7SnQPBC6yM Twixters; 60 minutes; “Generation Y” Jason Dorsey (4:42 min) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=erFRZimAJ0Y&feature=related Jason Dorsey~Keynote Speaker (10 min) ● Question: Do you agree with the portrayal of Gen Y, a.k.a. The Millennials? Do you fit in this category, or have children who do? Main Topic 3.4~Mid Semester Feedback If you have any comments, suggestions, complaints (compliments?) about the course to this point, please post them here. If you don’t want to go public, feel free to send me an e-mail.
46. Math Assignment
Instruction
Respond to the Main Topics, but prior to doing so, you might check out these clips: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6x0l_vkjozc (Civil Rights 3 min) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JENCxjbARFM (Sowell, 2 min) Main Topic 2.1: Affirmative Action or Diversity Management? Culture is generally defined as “the learned beliefs, values, norms, symbols, and traditions common to a group of people.” Ethnocentrism: the tendency for individuals to place their own group (ethnic, racial, or cultural) at the center of their observations of others and the world. → A tendency to think our own cultural values and ways of doing things are right and natural. [pg. 384] The ethnic mix in the U.S. has been changing since Columbus arrived in 1492. “Census projections suggest America may become a minority-majority country by the middle of the century,” according to Kenneth Johnson, a sociology professor at the University of New Hampshire. In other words, whites will make up less that 50% of the population. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (1964) prohibits discrimination by covered employers on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin. In the United States, Affirmative Action refers to equal opportunity employment measures that Federal contractors and subcontractors are legally required to adopt. These measures are intended to prevent discrimination against employees or applicants for employment, on the basis of “color, religion, sex, or national origin.” (Source = Wikipedia. Yes, I know it’s a double standard that students are not allowed to use Wikipedia, but I, as a faculty, am citing it. However, this is not a democracy; it is a benevolent dictatorship) Question: One train of thought is that “enlightened management” may be leaning toward Diversity Management, a concept which may make Affirmative Action superfluous, redundant, or obsolete. What are your thoughts on this? Main Topic 2.2: Dimensions of Difference Hofstede found that national culture explained more of the differences in work-related values and attitudes than did position within the organization, profession, age or gender. In summarizing the most important differences, Hofstede initially found that managers and employees varied on four primary dimensions:” Individualism and Collectivism; Power Distance; Uncertainty Avoidance; Career Success and Quality of Life. Later, Hofstede and his colleagues identified a fifth dimension: Confucian Dynamism. Question: Where is your culture located on Hofstede’s original four dimensions?
47. Science
1. Explain the competencies important for the role of nurse leader. 2. Report on the correlation from the text book theories. Did the nurse leader practice what was outlined in the text? Why or why not? 3. Reflect on at least four (4) insights gained from your interview and observation -There are 3 questions that need to be answered, each question requires a minimum of one paragraph.
48. Business
Instruction
The purpose of this assignment is for students to evaluate the lean techniques applied to business in today’s workforce. Assignment Steps Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains. Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency. Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques. Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean. Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project. Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.
49. Security Regulation Compliance This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a written paper and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.
Instruction
In the day-to-day operations of information security, security professionals often focus the majority of their time dealing with employee access issues, implementing security methods and measures, and other day-to-day tasks. They often neglect legal issues that affect information security. As a result, organizations often violate security-related regulations and often have to pay heavy fines for their non-compliance. Thus, as a Chief Information Officer in a government agency, you realize the need to educate for senior leadership on some of the primary regulatory requirements, and you realize the need to ensure that the employees in the agency are aware of these regulatory requirements as well. Section 1: Written Paper 1. Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you: a. Provide an overview that will be delivered to senior management of regulatory requirements the agency needs to be aware of, including: i. FISMA ii. Sarbanes-Oxley Act iii. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act iv. PCI DSS v. HIPAA vi. Intellectual Property Law b. Describe the security methods and controls that need to be implemented in order to ensure compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. c. Describe the guidance provided by the Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), and other agencies for ensuring compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. d. Use at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
50. Math help
A road divides the neighborhood park into two parts. Calvin plots one part in a coordinate plane. The part of the park shown is a reflection over the x-axis of the other part. 8.g.3
Instruction
Part A: Draw the other part of the park. Part B: Write the coordinate of the vertices of the part that you drew. Then describe the effects of a reflection across the x-axis on the coordinates.
51. Psychology week 2
Instruction
Sensations Write a 1-2 page essay explaining how our sensations, thoughts, feelings, motives, actions, memories, and all other human capacities are associated with nervous system activities and structures; and discuss the types of damage that often affect the nervous system. Proper APA formatting is a requirement for all essay assignments. Cite at least three educational sources (one source may include the course textbook) in the essay.
52. Cultures in conflict week 2
Instruction
Theoretical Approach Summarize and explain the three major theoretical approaches that were introduced in this chapter – Durkheim and human consciousness, Benedict and Patterns of Culture, and Bourdieu and the principles of culture. (750-1250 words) · Which theoretical position seems clearest to you? · What evidence do you have for this theory in your own society? · Where have you potentially seen this exhibited?
53. Website Assignment
Instruction
Assignment Instructions Learning objective: To develop and design a professional webpage. Prompt: This week you are working on creating a webpage. Instructions: Build a website. Submit as Article #4 for your portfolio. Supporting Materials: https://websitesetup.org/ https://www.wix.com/ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=M5ZG7-BlG6Q
Summary paper of program not of each term From Novice to Beginning Professional Nurse: Your nursing evolution reflects ways you have evolved in nursing school. Reflect on at least 10 BSN courses, in which you write a detailed paragraph. Provide evidence of growth in each course. Describe growth and development in becoming a professional nurse after each nursing core course. Reflect on ways courses, especially concurrent running classes, support one another. Synthesize theories and concepts into clinical settings applied to human experiences. Apply multicultural literacy. Reflect on holistic patient care. Format each course as major text headings per the APA manual. Review the rubric for more information on how your paper will be graded.
55.History
Instruction
Write a paper based of the Netflix series “Prohibition” , cite everything NO OUTSIDE SOURCES NO PLAGIARISM. Chicago format , 2 pages.
56. Science
Instruction
1. What are the functions of the nose? 2. What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses? Look up sinusitis on the Internet and tell me more about why it is such a large problem today (cite your URL). 3. What important functions are lost when you take out your tonsils?
4. What are the effects of smoking on cilia lining the trachea? Why is this unhealthy?
5. What is the Heimlich maneuver and how is it done?
6. Where are the pleura and what is their function? How does their function differ from the pericardium (in the heart)?
7. What is surfactant and what is its function? How are premature newborns that don’t have it treated?
8. What is one cause of pulmonary edema and what changes does it bring to gas exchange? From the section on pulmonary ventilation there is some interesting information regarding how we breathe and what interferes with that process. You just need to know that during inspiration in the lungs more space (volume) is created in the intrapleural space. This causes a decrease in pressure that is translated to the lungs and the decrease in pressure in them leads to air rushing in from a place of higher pressure (outside the lung) to a place of lower pressure (inside the lung). Expiration is the reverse.
9. Explain pneumothorax – use the information about pressure to explain what happens.
10. Look up asthma on the Internet. What happens during an attack? Why? What drugs widen the airway (decrease resistance) and what drugs narrow the airway (increase resistance)?
11. What types of different sounds can be heard by listening to your lungs with a stethescope? Why is this simple test useful?
12. What is meant by the term partial pressure and what do you have to do mathematically to get one (hint: multiply what times what) (from the outline given to you in lab and attached here)? Give an example of the partial pressure of oxygen in outside air at sea level.
13. What is the percent concentration of oxygen in the outside air at sea level, 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet? What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen as you go higher? At what altitude are the partial pressures of oxygen in the aveoli equal to those of the venous blood approaching the lungs (from the outline)? What problem does this cause?
14. What happens to partial pressure as you go below sea level? What problems can that cause (outline and Internet)?
15. What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning? Why does it happen? (in the book or on the Internet).
16. In what ways are carbon dioxide molecules carried? When does the CO2 content of the blood increase? Why does it need to be buffered?
17. What are other factors besides acidity that influence the rate and depth of respiration?
18. What are two examples of chronic obstructive lung disease and what are the symptoms for each?
19. Why is lung cancer so deadly? What is the effect of smoking on the lungs? Does it cause lung cancer? Why or why not?
57. Psychology
Instruction
Social Workers walk a fine line between assisting persons diagnosed with disabilities and empowering persons to think of their abilities. It is not unusual in health and mental health work for a social worker to have the task of establishing /assembling proof of disability for a client seeking financial resources and at the same time to be engaged in interventions designed to help a client seek rehabilitation/recovery. That rehabilitation/recovery may well endanger a client’s financial stability and eligibility for medical coverage. This week, write about the role of social workers in medical settings (clinical primary care, hospitals, skilled nursing homes for example) as they work with persons identified as disabled by chronic disease processes. Specifically, talk about how the biology of disorders may assist or interfere with the common advocacy role of social work staff. Also, you may wish to comment on your thoughts around the concept of “permanent disability”, educating other medical team professionals on the strengths perspective of social work, or the special concerns of social workers who may identify as disabled, themselves. You may have thoughts about client self-determination and diseases where lifestyle choices are thought to further or even initiate the disease process (diabetes, cardiac disease) as this relates to disability determinations. An excellent example is the AMA statement last year regarding obesity as a disability.
58. Other
You are going to create a one-minute dramatic script. The following is the beginning “setup,” or the start of the story, of the script: “There are six snakes trapped in a pit.” Your assignment is to create a one-minute dramatic script from this statement. First, tell me what genre you will be using. Then, create action, conflict, characters, and dialogue. Type up your “play” in dialogue format and submit. Have fun with it. Be creative!
59. Healthcare
Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?
60. Article review and power point
Instruction
I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise
61. Business
Instruction
Strategic Plan: Part 2 In this second part of the final strategic plan development assignment, you will follow up on the introductory activities that you completed during the first portion in order to further develop your strategic plan. Please be sure to make adjustments as necessary based on some of your own desired adjustments and the professor’s comments as you work through the second part. During this portion of the process, your submission, which should be at least two pages in length not including any figures/graphics and the updated first portion, should include the following components: the results of a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis or similar analysis assessing current internal and external areas of concern, strengths, and opportunities as the strategic plan progresses This cannot be the same SWOT analysis that you used for the Unit IV assignment identification of organizational stakeholders, internal and external, and how their needs and participation will likely influence and contribute to the plan’s development. Be sure that you are remaining consistent with your organization. Also, please include Part 1 with updates based on feedback from your professor and Part 2 of your plan in one document. Please include only one title page and one reference page with this assignment. References: Use these references also along with the other ones on the first part of the assignment Hull, A. (1996). Strategic Plan-making in Europe: institutional innovation. Planning Practice & Research, 11(3), 253–264. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1080/02697459616834 Patel, M. S., Phillips, C. B., Pearce, C., Kljakovic, M., Dugdale, P., & Glasgow, N. (2008). General Practice and Pandemic Influenza: A Framework for Planning and Comparison of Plans in Five Countries. PLoS ONE, 3(5), 1–9. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1371/journal.pone.0002269 Schulze, R. N., & Post, T. (2010). Individual Annuity Demand Under Aggregate Mortality Risk. Journal of Risk & Insurance, 77(2), 423–449. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/j.1539-6975.2009.01340.x Yoon, Y.-R. (2017). Strategic disclosure of meaningful information to rival. Economic Inquiry, (2). https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/ecin.12372
62. General
This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore what you believe, and based on the course readings, are necessary (requisite) knowledge, skills, abilities, (KSAs) experiences, and techniques needed to effectively lead either a human resources department or one functional area of Human Resources Management (HRM) within a public organization. By “functional area” I mean one of the segments in the ‘Life-Cycle’ of an employee as noted in the chapters in Section II of our text (e.g., recruiting, performance management, compensation, benefits, training and development, etc.). This assignment also provides opportunities to link theory with practice, apply what has been learned and/or how the necessary KSAs could be acquired to effectively lead an organization’s human resources department.I suggest the foll
I suggest the following process:
Decide if you will focus on the HRM department as a whole, or on an HRM functional area. If focusing on an HRM functional area, decide which area.
Read, and if necessary, re-read the text chapter corresponding to your chosen functional area.
Narrowly focus your selection to avoid the pitfalls of inadequate detail.
Locate at least 5 published references that are no more than 10 years old that pertain to the specific HRM function you have chosen to investigate. You must not use any of the sources used in the Research paper in this course.
OPTIONAL:Conduct an Interview. You may wish to conduct a brief an interview with a manager or HR professional who has extensive experience HRM or the functional area you have selected. I am not requiring you do this; however, if you are able to find someone who is willing to speak with you, this often can be a helpful learning experience.
Paper Format:
Your paper should be at least five (5) pages long, not including the Title Page and Reference/Bibliography
Title Page: must contain the Assignment Number, a Topic, your Name and Student ID Number
Use 12-point font, double-spaced, and one-inch margins on all 4 sides.
Use in-text citations so I can decipher where exactly in your paper you drew upon others’ work.
Provide complete reference information (author, date, title, publication, volume and page numbers; providing a URL only is insufficient) on a separate sheet.
Create a WORD document that contains complete citation information of all your print and/or electronic source material. To be considered “complete,” citation information must include author(s), title, date, and publisher plus, if a journal or magazine article, the name of the journal or magazine, volume and issue numbers, and page numbers. A reference citation containing only a URL is insufficient.
63.Healthcare
Instruction
Find a media article that reports the findings of an original empirical study on some psychology or health-related topic that is published in a newspaper, magazine, or other periodical, or on an Internet news website (CNN, Reuters, BBC, Vox, WebMD, Huffington Post, etc.). The media article should have been published in the last year. Thoroughly address the following questions (in ~ 2-3 double-spaced pages): What observation about human behavior/health is being reported? ~1-2 sentences (2.5 points) Describe the study sample (e.g., size, gender, age range, marital status, racial/ethnic group, SES). (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate sample to use for this research question?) ~3-4 sentences (5 points) What is the independent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) What is the dependent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) Are any other relevant variables discussed (e.g., moderators, mediators, covariates)? (If not discussed, what other variables do you think should be included in this study?) ~ 2 sentences (2.5 points) What type of study is being discussed: experimental vs. non-experimental, etc.? (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate type of study to use for this research question?) ~2 sentences (2.5 points) What are some limitations of the study? (e.g., methods used, conclusions drawn; you must discuss at least 2 limitations) ~4 sentences (5 points; 2.5 points per limitation) What are the implications of the study for research, practice, and/or policy? (If not discussed, what do you think the implications of the study are?) Discuss at least 2 implications (~3-4 sentences) (5 points; 2.5 points per implication) NOTES: Your assignment should be typed, 12-point font, double spaced, 1” margins. Assignments that contain grammatical, spelling, or punctuation errors will lose points. If you present in class, you will receive the full 2.5 points. The remainder of your grade is based on the extent to which you sufficiently address the above questions in writing (feedback presented in class does not reflect the grade on your assignment). Late assignments will lose 3 points per day – no exceptions. must have link to article to print out.
64. Psychology
Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive d
Instruction
Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.
65. Compare and Contrast- having two jobs
Essay 2 Directions
Choose one of the topics below and compose a 750 – 1250 word compare or contrast essay:
1. Two jobs you have had 2. Two towns, cities, or vacation spots 3. Two hobbies or activities you enjoy 4. High school and college 5. A big campus and a small college campus 6. Public school and private school 7. Playing video games and doing outdoor activities 8. Reading a book and watching television/movies 9. The Academic Success Center and the Library 10. A fast food restaurant and the Titan’s Café on Warner Robins campus 11. Two social media websites (Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Snapchat, etc.) 12. Online classes and on campus classes 13. Two movies, two television shows 14. Two characters, actors, or entertainers 15. Two cellphones 16. Smartphones and smartwatches 17. GIFs and memes/ emoji’s
You will follow the Five Steps of the Writing Process, once you have chosen a topic
66.Economics
Instruction
You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).
67.General
Epidemiology Paper (160 pts. total)
This paper is intended for you to demonstrate your analytical mind. A detailed rubric is shown below. This project
will be due in parts. Paper should be double spaced in no less than 11 pt TimesRoman.
– Each student will choose a disease or health-related condition as an epidemiology study
– Review the current descriptive and analytical data information sources for that condition,
– Write a paper (5-8 pages with references) that presents that information in a logical sequence,
– Organization of your paper should include:
I. Your title should succinct and be descriptive enough to the reader
II. Introduction:
– Introduce the topic (brief definition or description) and present it’s importance to human health status
– Explain why this condition should be studied (increasing trend, affects a large number of people, socio-
economic burden among those affected, etc)
– You might include some prevalence information here to indicate the impact
III. Descriptive Epidemiology:
– Describe and/or define the disease or condition using descriptive epidemiology references
– who tends to get this condition, where do they usually live, and at what age
IV. Rates:
– Present the most current national and local prevalence and incidence rates (when available)
V. Causes and Risk Factors
– Discuss the (presumed, known or theoretical) causes of this disease (if there are any)
– Provide the currently established risk factors associated with the disease
VI. Conclusion
– Summarize this condition and indicate any public health methods that may limit its impact
VII. Bibliography
– Reference all statements of fact.
– All citations should be referenced in the text and in a bibliography at the end of the paper
– Use the American Medical Association (AMA) 10th edition (2007) Manual of Style in your bibliography.
For examples: AMA style.
– Use of graphs or charts to explain relationships and describe the condition is strongly encouraged
– Entire paper should be submitted onto SHSU Blackboard turnitin . No exception, please.
68. Computer Science
Instruction
– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.
69. Computer Science
Instruction
I’m looking for specialized in business information systems, business analysis, and Computer science majors. I have 3 classes which are, Data Analysis and Reporting, Data Analysis/Visualization and Predictive Data Analysis. Data Analysis and Reporting Class / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the Vmware Horizon client. Data Analysis/Visualization Class / Is excel database and you will use excel 2016 inside the Vmware Horizon client. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the classes. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! I’m looking for someone and never give me good work. That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus.
70. History of Psychology
Discussion Questions
All assignments MUST be typed, double-spaced, in APA style and must be written at graduate level English. You must integrate the material presented in the text to support your discussion, citing in APA format. Outside sources may be used to support the text information, but not replace the text.
Your response to each question should be approx. 1 page per question.
Assignment should be 16 pages total plus a title and reference page 1. There are many reasons why the history of psychology is important. Pick two reasons and explain why they are important. 2. Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were important figures in Philosophy leading up to Psychology. Discuss how these three paved the way for Psychology.
3. Discuss how Augustine changed the locus of control human behavior, from forces outside the person to forces inside the person.
4. Discuss the mind-Body interaction as seen by Descartes. How did Descartes theories contribute to the beginning of Psychology?
5. Compare the roles of Locke, Berkeley, and Hume, and their importance in early Psychology.
6. Herbert was an important transitional figure between philosophy and psychology. How do his theories bring these two disciplines together?
7. Discus the commonalities and the differences between existentialism and romanticism.
8. What were Fechner’s contributions to the development of psychology as a science?
9. Compare and contrast Wundt’s view of Psychology with Titchener’s views. Which one do you agree with more? 10. There were many controversies over intelligence testing. Discuss the importance of Cattell, Binet, Spearman, Goddard, Terman and Yerkes in testing history. Briefly discuss the Bell Curve theory (without pictures), as it applies to testing IQ. 11. Discuss the difference between Structuralism and Functionalism. How were the two schools (Chicago and Columbia) similar and different? 12. Pavlov and Watson are major behaviorists. Explain William McDougall’s outlook and theories and why he is not as well known. 13. Skinner was known as the leading neobehavorist. Why were Tolman, Hull and Gutherie not as well known? Be sure to include Tolman, Hull and Gutherie’s theories. 14. Discuss the founding of Gestalt theory. What impact did it have on psychology and therapy? 15. Summarize the medical, psychological and supernatural models of mental illness and give examples of each. 16. Sigmund Freud is credited with being the Father of Psychoanalysis. Compare and contrast how Anna Freud, Carl Jung, Alfred Adler and Karen Horney morphed Freud’s original theories into working theories that we still use today.
71.Writing Essay
Prompt. In the documentary Catfish, we saw an individual create an imaginary identity as a way of dealing with her depressing offline reality. Eventually, the relationship turned into something more than a friendship although it was actually based on an elaborate lie. The articles”Love the One You’re Near” and “There Is Now Evidence That “There’s Now Evidence That Online Dating Causes Stronger, More Diverse Marriages” also address the issue of online romance. What do you think? Is the Internet a useful place to find a partner? Make an argument for or against online dating. Take a position and support it with reasons and evidence. Include a counterargument and rebuttal. You can use logical reasoning, personal examples, examples from the documentary and the articles, expert opinions, facts, and/or statistics. Also include at least one direct quote and a paraphrase with in-text citations.
72. Extra Credit: Researching Library Databases
Answer each question, the following questions for an extra Writer’s Notebook grade (this is extra credit).
Find the source that discusses police wearing body cameras by Kelly Freund. List the title of the article and summarize it (you can summarize the abstract).
Find the source that discusses transgender students’ bathroom rights from the Harvard Journal on Legislation. List the title of the article, the author, and the subject terms used to categorize it.
Find the source that discusses the sale of organs from Boston College Law Review. List the correct Works Cited entry.
Find a source that discusses raising the federal minimum wage. List the article title and author. Then describe how you searched for it and found it.
Please watch the video below over accessing the online databases. Then complete the database activity in your next Writer’s Notebook below. You will be finding sources for your annotated bibliography and your argument research paper. You will use Academic Search Complete to find them. You need to find four sources that support your claim and one that is a counterargument.
You can access the online databases from the Richland College Library homepage (there is a link on the left sidebar). Click on Databases (in the left column) and then click on Academic Search Complete at the top of the page. You will have to login with your student ID email provided by DCCCD. Your email starts with a lowercase E followed by your student ID. Here’s an example:
Login: e1234567@student.dcccd.edu
Password: eConnect password
If you do not know your eCannect password, you can try logging in on the eConnect webpage. There is a box you can check to get your password hint as well.
Whenever you search a database, always look for the “Advanced Search” feature, which allows you to combine key terms. Using key terms selectively is also important. Also, when searching for authors in a database, always place the last name first, since items in a database are alphabetized. You can also use the drop down arrow to search specific things like authors, titles, journal names, or even ISBN numbers.
73. Project Management Discussion 5
1.Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?
Total estimated repairing cost = total defective units * cost per repair = 2150*120 = $258,000
Total cost of raw materials = total units * cost per unit
= 10000 * 40
= $400,000
total cost of production for 10,000 units = $258,000 + $400,000 + 100,000
= $758,000
Estimated cost of purchasing = 10,000 *72 = $720,000
Therefore, comparing the prices for purchasing and manufacturing, it is economically better to manufacture the products.
2. Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?
The management may opt for manufacturing the product even though its costlier than purchasing the product because strategically thinking it gives them an opportunity to establish themselves in the market. By manufacturing the products in house they can look for long term solutions for future orders and they can also reduce the defective components by improving themselves and also it removes the dependency on external vendors which will make them more productive.
1. Using the expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?
Cost estimate with new high cost component:
$72×10,000=720,000
Another approach the management tried to take up was to build the component internally & setup:
Cost estimate if Teloxy builds it:
100,000+400,000= $500,000
Calculation after the defect:
0x10+0.1×20+0.2×30+0.3×25+0.4×15= 21.5 = 0.215
Total number of defective components for 10000 units=2150
Cost for defective component=$120
2150×120= $258,000
Thus, total cost If Teloxy builds it with the predicted defects= = 258,000 + 500,000 = $758,000
Coming to the difference if Teloxy builds it or buys it= 758,000-720,000 = $38,000.
Concluding to this calculation, economically it’s better for Teloxy to purchase it from the third-party vendor than building it.
2. Strategically thinking, why might the management opt for other than the most economical choice?
Utilizing the normal esteem, we see that it is financially savvy for the organization to make a segment than to get it. Be that as it may, now and again, the organization might opt to purchase the part
Despite the fact that it is increasingly costly as the organization is new to the assembling procedure and that there is an immense danger of disappointment or the harmed market esteem and the notoriety if there emerges a sudden hazard. Utilizing the normal esteem and the determined numbers above, we can see that last expense per unit is $75.8 if there should be an occurrence of make option and $77 in the event of purchasing the segment which is a less expense to the organization than the expense of building the market esteem and the notoriety once it is down a direct result of any looked for of disappointment. On the off chance that the organization thinks toward this path, then the organization might opt for purchasing the part despite the fact that it isn’t practical.
References:
1. Kerzner, H. (2017). Project management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling (12 ed.). Hoboken, NJ, USA: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
74. Assignment: Journaling
When you have a strong grasp of the basic tenets, strengths, and weaknesses of key theories of psychology, you can make an informed decision as to which theory or theories best apply in understanding a particular set of behaviors. By keeping a journal of sorts, you can document the characteristics of each theory as you learn about it. Your journaling will be a useful reference for you long after you complete this course. The Psychology Theories Template provides a matrix where you can record what you have learned about each theory.
For this Assignment, you will explore key concepts found in psychodynamic theories and begin your journaling of this week’s theories.
To complete
Begin populating the Psychology Theories Template related to this week’s theories—psychodynamic theories. As you begin populating your template, consider the following:
Identify who or what contributed to the development of the theory. Were there key researchers or seminal research that led to the theory?
Record whether the theory emphasizes nature (biology), nurture (environment), or both.
List the primary characteristics or features of the theory (its key tenets and concepts). Be sure to include if a particular period of life is emphasized.
List the noteworthy strengths and weaknesses of the theory.
(Optional) Include any notes that you find helpful in understanding and applying the theory, such as potential contemporary themes or fields of research in which the theory could be applied.
75. Term Paper
Upload your Term Project Paper here. You may write on any topic related to technology security.
You must produce a minimum of a 10 pages paper. You must use a minimum of 5 references.
– Assure you are citing in APA format
-You must use a minimum of one graphics (may use a table)
– Doublespace the paper
– You must use APA formatting (6th Edition)
76. Discussion
Cushing filed an application with the office of the Adjutant General of the State of New Hampshire for the use of the Portsmouth Armory to hold a dance on the evening of April 29. The application, made on behalf of the Portsmouth Area Clamshell Alliance, was received by the Adjutant General’s office on or about March 30. On March 31 the Adjutant General mailed a signed contract after agreeing to rent the armory for the evening requested. The agreement required acceptance by the renter affixing his signature to the agreement and then returning the copy to the Adjutant General within five days after receipt. Cushing received the contract offer, signed it on behalf of the Alliance, and placed it in the outbox for mailing on April 3. At 6:30 on the evening of April 4, Cushing received a telephone call from the Adjutant General revoking the rental offer. Cushing stated during the conversation that he had already signed and mailed the contract. The Adjutant General sent a written confirmation of the withdrawal on April 5. On April 6 the Adjutant General’s office received by mail from Cushing the signed contract dated April 3 and postmarked April 5.
a. What are the arguments that a binding contract exists?
b. What are the arguments that the contract does not exist or should not exist?
3 paragraphs with 3 references
77. Week 8- Discussion
Discussion Assignment:
Watch the following video:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1gHbwT_R9t0
Was the news segment compelling enough to convince you that the Earth could be flat? Whether we realize it or not, we are inundated with causal claims and arguments. The Flat Earth Wiki page explains that the evidence for a flat earth is derived from many different facets of science and philosophy. The world looks flat, the bottoms of clouds are flat, the movement of the Sun; these are all examples of your senses telling you that we do not live on a spherical heliocentric world. This is using what’s called an empirical approach, or an approach that relies on information from your senses.
The causes of the following events and phenomena are well known and frequently discussed. But do you understand these causes well enough to spell them out to someone else? See how well (and in how much detail) you can explain one of these events or phenomena. Post your explanation to the discussion thread. Is your explanation relatively clear, or does it seem more open to debate? earthquakes/tsunamis swelling caused by a bee sting sharp rises in reported cases of autism or asthma fake news climate change popularity of the Netflix series 13 Reasons Why increasing post-graduation debt for college students outcome of the
2016 presidential election controversies in schools and online over free speech
78. Computer Science
Question 1
Calculate the slope and intercept of the first order equation y=mx+b -> deg_c = m * deg_f + b
Write a program/project in Netbeans using the same concepts as the spreadsheet. You can copy the degrees Fahrenheit column and place in a file. Then copy the column with error values included for degree Celsius. Calculate the slope and intercept for the data using the formulas in the spreadsheet.
Question 2
Create abstract classes to inherit, show polymorphic behavior and operator overloading. I have written the .h and main.cpp files for you. Complete by writing the .cpp class files.
How does the ad’s caption “Get the Message” have a double meaning? Do you find the caption effective? Why or why not?
Briefly argue how a visual argument about texting and driving (like this one) might be more or less effective than an essay on the same subject.
80. Education Homework
Story Plot
Section 4.2 of the text discusses in detail the importance and the various types of plot we see in the stories we read. Successful stories are those that have an identifiable plot or sequence of events (Coats, 2013). Our understanding of the types of plot will help us to better identify the kinds of stories our future students gravitate towards. For this post, you will complete “The Seven Basic Plots” chart, which is available in your online course. You will choose at least two children’s books that fit into each plot category. A title may fit into more than one category, but you must choose at least two books for each plot type. Then, briefly discuss how knowing this information will help you choose literature for your classroom.
81. Education homework
Picturebooks
The introduction for Chapter 3 of the text discusses picturebooks and the important role this type of literature can have in helping children develop in their visual, spatial, and gestural literacies (Coats, 2013). Our ability as teachers to understand the basics of picturebook design will assist us in our choosing of books. For this post, you will create a picturebook of your own, implementing and discussing those elements addressed in Chapter 3. Go to Storybird (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and design a picturebook to share with your classmates. If you need assistance with how to use Storybird, it is recommended you view the Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements. Include one picture and description for each of the following:
Color
Shape, line, and texture
Characters and icons
Composition and point of view
In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.
In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.
82. Human Resource Management
Internet Search
Access the Internet and locate a health insurance company’s (e.g. UnitedHealth, Aetna, etc.) website. Write a three- to five-page double-spaced paper (excluding title and reference pages), addressing the following:
Describe member services and incentives.
Discuss new/current/upcoming technology.
Examine provider network and outreach.
Explain the insurance company’s commitment to excellence and quality.
List its accreditation and/or certification.
Generate two recommendations for improving the company’s member services and/or website.
In preparing for this discussion, read Chapter 23 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:
Describe information systems functionalities in claims management and member services maintained by Managed Care Organizations (MCOs).
Identify the significance of information systems in maintaining provider network operated by MCOs.
Discuss the changes in information systems to support consumerism that can be recognized in MCOs.
84. Human Resource Management.
Employer-Sponsored Health Insurance
In preparing for this discussion, read Chapters 16 and 22 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:
Describe the sales process in the employer-sponsored model.
Compare the differences between rating and underwriting.
Discuss the influence of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act on ONE of the four areas: (a) marketing, (b) sales, (c) rating, and (d) underwriting.
Question 1: What are the major approaches to political development? Analyze critically different approaches to political development as well as the relationship between development and post-colonialism. (300 words)
Question 2: What is the relationship between political development and democracy? What is the relationship between political development and civil rights? Are they the same? Which one constitutes a prerequisite for the other?(300 words)
86. Accounting
Describe the organizations and rules that govern accounting.
87. Writing Essay
Need to write a paper with references for implementing new stores and what are cybersecurity plans and Risks. Please go through the screen shots for more details and how to write the paper,
88.Discussion
While some similarities between management and leadership exist, there are notable differences.
In your own words, explain what you believe the difference is between management and leadership.
Conduct research on the differences between management and leadership, and post your findings. References and citations are to be formatted according to APA style and formatting guidelines.
89. Entrepreneurship Case Analysis Essay
CASE ANALYSIS GRADING
Case analysis assignments are designed to demonstrate your analytical abilities and your critical thinking skills. They are NOT summaries of the case.
For each assignment, you need to show:
– The top issues which you think prompted the case to be written
– Your consideration of each issue, including any action that must be taken to address the issue and the pros/cons of that action
THEN
– Roll the electronic die.
– Assume the perspective of the company officer indicated by the die.
– Describe your reaction to the case from that officer’s perspective
You receive no points for summarizing the case.
You can receive a maximum of 5 points for issue identification. You can receive a maximum of 15 points for your analysis of those issues. You can receive a maximum of 5 points for the company officer perspective.
In exceptional cases, the point allocation may change.
Since we will identify key issues in the case class discussion, late analysis submissions will be discounted by 50%, unless significant new ideas are presented.
90. Information Systems
Instructions
Paper D: Reflective paper on class learning.
Consider this assignment as a reflective piece on class learning as it applies to Ethics in Information Technology. It describes your Ah-haor Eureka moments. It is hoped that this course made you think about the ethical issues that occur in your personal and work lives and how to go about making ethical choices. Please use the ideas you learned from this course; how you will synthesize what you learned from your research about your topic including – over-arching issues, readings, discussion from class, and conclusions from other assignments that apply to your research.
Please address the following elements:
From a class learning perspective, what were some of your “take-aways?”
How has this impacted your understanding of the ethical issues?
What will you do differently?
How has what you have learned in this course influenced your career?
As we continue to move toward a global community, what new challenges might we see relating to ethics in IT?
You are to prepare a reflective piece of not more than 2-3 pages, double-spaced and submit it to your Assignment Folder as an attached Microsoft Word file. This paper may be subjective in nature!
(This assignment is for the ethics in technology class)
Paragraph 1: Introduction: Who are the actors in this story? What happened? How did it happen? When did it happen? Is it still happening? Where did it happen?
Paragraph 2: What are the natural elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these natural elements that the author(s) make?
Paragraph 3: What are the social elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these social elements that the author(s) makes? Are people of all genders and races represented? Whose voices are not heard that might be important to this story?
Paragraph: 4: What are the major findings of this story? What are the implications of this story?
92. Identify Variable Types And Values
In this assignment, you will be required to use the Heart Rate Dataset to complete the following:
Identify the types of data represented by variables
The range or types of values for each variable
Give a brief written description of the variables, and how they are used in the data set.
Steps
1. Open the Heart Rate Dataset in Excel
2. Identify each of the variables contained in the dataset by type
3. Identify the type of data each variable represents (e.g., qualitative or quantitative) and the possible values for each
4. Briefly describe how the variable is used in the dataset, (e.g., to identify a class, or to give a specific numeric value for an individual).
Additional Instructions:
Your assignment should be typed into a Word or other word processing document, formatted in APA style. The assignments must include
Correctly identifies all variable types
Correctly gives the range of values for each variable
Correctly describes each variable
Submitted assignment is well written and well organized demonstrating excellence in scholarly writing. Mechanics (spelling and punctuation) and grammar are excellent.
93. Applied sciences
Submit a Discussion post in which you respond to the following five questions. Be sure to support your responses with information you learned from the week’s Learning Resources.
Start your post with a brief description of a current or historical public health effort from your interactive courseware (e.g., water fluoridation) that is new or surprising.
Considering your daily activities, describe two specific instances where public health efforts such as those identified in your learning resources (e.g., immunization) may have an impact on individuals you know.
Explain how your examples might impact the burden of disease addressed in your Learning Resources this week.
How would (or do) your examples of public health affect people in other less developed countries? Provide an example to illustrate your point.
94. BYOD Is A Growing Trend In Corporate Environments
BYOD is a growing trend in corporate environments, where employees bring their own devices to work. Factors that have led to the growing popularity of BYOD include the benefits of work flexibility, increased productivity, and efficiency of employees. Despite these benefits, there are concerns over information security and privacy. Since BYOD allows employees to access organizational data anytime anywhere, it is necessary to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of organizational information resources and assets.
Discussion Questions
1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing employees to use their personal smart phones for work?
2. What people, organization, and technology factors should be addressed when deciding whether to allow employees to use their personal smart phones for work?
Provide support for your statements and references, APA formatted.
95. Literature Analysis Research
Format: This assignment must be printed out for submission, following the standard MLA format.
Details: 2 Page (600-650 words) comparison/contrast of Masque of the Red death and The Tell-Tale Heart by Edgar Allen Poe ! Include the following:
Compare/contrast three (3) literary and poetic devices between literary works ,Define the literary and poetic devices.
Answer: how does each work use them differently or the same?
Answer: what affect do the literary devices have on the reader in terms of interpretation if some or all of the literary devices are NOT included? How would their absence change the literary work?
Answer: what other devices would YOU choose if you had the power to edit the literary work? Name at least two (2) and why.
For your title, you will need to list the following choice as how you would like this grade to be counted
How basic discretion steps can help in countermeasures?
3 references with minimum of 300 words
97. Discussion Question
From the perspective of a general manager in your field, which of the organizational control methods outlined in Chapter 19 of the Management textbook do you think would be the most universal? What does organizational control look like in your sphere of influence? The book is
Daft, R. (2014). Management (11th ed.). Vanderbilt University: South-Western Cengage learning. I need at least 2 refs. 1-2 pages can do the job.
98. Monologue
Write an monologue of “mama bear from the fairy tail- goldilocks and three bear”
99. Enterprise Risk Management_ Mars And California Health System
1)Approach Mars, Incorporated used to implement ERM
2)University of California Health System’s ERM development.
Do some research on above two topics and explain In what ways are the two organization’s approaches to ERM(Enterprise Risk Management) similar? How do they differ? Choose one aspect of each ERM implementation from which the other organization would benefit and explain why.
Minimum of 300 words with three references
100. Three 550-600 Word Research Papers. APA Format.3-4 Peer Reviewed References.No Plagiarism
Three 550-600 word research papers. APA format. APA format in paragraph citations. 3-4 Peer reviewed references. No plagiarism
Topics:
Question 1) Business Bluffing
Question 2) Stakeholder theory
Question 3)Organizational Integrity
Please follow below instructions, each paper should have,
DEFINITION: a brief definition of the key term followed by the APA reference for the term;
SUMMARY: Summarize the article in your own words- this should be in the 150-200 word range. Be sure to note the article’s author, note their credentials and why we should put any weight behind his/her opinions, research or findings regarding the key term.
DISCUSSION: Using 300-350 words, write a brief discussion, in your own words of how the article relates to the selected chapter Key Term. A discussion is not rehashing what was already stated in the article, but the opportunity for you to add value by sharing your experiences, thoughts and opinions. This is the most important part of the assignment.
REFERENCES: All references must be listed at the bottom of the submission in APA format.
101.Nursing
What are some factors that make some people healthy and others ill? Healthy People 2020 identifies five determinants of health that influence the health of individuals and populations. Healthy People 2020 describes them as “a range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status” (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2018, About Determinants of Health, para. 1). Determinants fall into five categories, including (a) policy making, (b) social factors, (c) health services, (d) individual behavior, and (e) biology and genetics.
Choose one of the five determinants other than individual behavior (as we are all aware of how individual behavior impacts health). In your post, describe this determinant and its importance.
Discuss how a community health nurse (CHN) could use one of the 17 intervention categories from the Public Health Intervention Wheel to address this determinant (Nies & McEwen, 2015).
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion. (2018). Healthy People 2020: About Determinants of Health. Retrieved from https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health
102. Company Name Apple Inc:
The aim of this assignment is to provide students the opportunity to perform a thorough case analysis. Select your company and get approval from your course professor before working on it. The case analysis should include the following elements:
Title Page
Executive Summary
Background
Introduce the company and provide the reader with background information about the company.
Situation Analysis
The Environment – PESTLE Analysis
Political environment
Economic environment
Social environment
Technological environment
Legal/Regulatory environment
Environmental environment
The Industry – Porter’s Five Forces Analysis
Bargaining power of suppliers
Threat of new entrant
Rivalry among existing competitors
Bargaining power of competitors
Threat of substitutes
The Firm
What is the mission and vision of the firm?
What are the strengths of the firm?
What is the firm’s financial condition?
What are the constraints and weaknesses of the firm (i.e. financial condition, organizational conflict)?
What is the management philosophy?
What does the organizational structure tell you about how decisions are made?
The Product
What good and/or service does the organization offer?
What consumer need does the product solve?
What promotional mix, channels of distribution, and pricing strategies are being used by the organization?
What competitive advantage does the marketing strategy offer?
SWOT Analysis
Strengths
Identify strengths of the organization and answer the following questions:
How does this strength affect the operations of the organization?
How does this strength assist the company in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
Weaknesses
Identify weaknesses of the organization and answer the following questions:
How does this weakness affect the operations of the organization?
How does knowledge of this weakness assist the organization in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
Opportunities
Identify opportunities in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the following questions:
How is this opportunity related to serving the needs of our target market?
What actions must the organization take to capitalize on this opportunity?
Threats
Identify threats in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the following questions:
How is this threat related to serving the needs of our target market?
What actions must the organization take to prevent this threat from limiting the capabilities of the organization?
Problem Statement
What is the primary problem in the case? Secondary problems? What are the ramifications of these problems in the long run? Short run? Include quantitative and qualitative analysis in your response.
Strategic Plan
Based on the problem identified, develop a 5-year strategic plan for the company. This plan should include:
1. Clear vision, mission statement and core values
2. SMART objectives to solve the problem
3. Corresponding strategies for the objectives identified
4. Implementation plan
5. Key Performance Indicators to monitor progress
Summary
Conclude the paper with a summary of the major points.
References
As groups prepare the project, please attend to the following additional guidelines:
· Length: 30 pages (double-spaced)
· Sources: 15 scholarly sources and 15 sources of business data
· Format: APA
Proofread the document carefully before submission at the end of the bi-term
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EMAN 620 –
Information Technology in Emergency Management
Module # 5
Mapping
Exercise
Due
at the end of Module # 5
Goal:
The Goal of this exercise is to
familiarize the student with online tools that help organize and display
information on a map in a short time frame.
The tool I recommend you use is Google Earth. You will be creating a map after an act of
terrorism has occurred.
Objectives:
The objectives of this exercise are
to:
Explore a online mapping platform like
Google Earth
Identify Key Features for a functional
site map
Produce a map with a legend that is
clear, readable and has value to commanders and responders
Background
Scenario:
A “ Dirty bomb “ has been detonated
directly in front of the White house in Washington D.C . This occurred at 10
a.m. on 04-20-(this year). The President was not at the White House during the
blast. It is utter chaos, with DC Fire/EMS responding.
Your role is the Emergency manager for
the City of Washington D.C. Within minutes of the attack you activate all
emergency functions. At 13:00 you are expected to provide a briefing to the
Mayor of D.C., and the President of the United States at a nearby facility. You
have been asked to keep your brief short with a single map that portrays the
situation and the response effort.
Your initial assessment reveals that
there is damage to buildings within a ¼ mile.
There are currently 86 fatalities and 200+ injured.
There happens to be absolutely no wind
on the day. However you are still concerned about the potential for radiation
exposure. Your staff recommends a “ hot zone” with a mile radius. That means
everything inside that area has potential for radiation.
Your overall task is to create a
status map for the purpose of:
Assuming you watched the video and
have downloaded Google Desk Top
If you cannot access Google Maps you
can use another map making program to produce your map or you can create a
paper map.
Review the scenario. More than enough
information available.
Email or text me with any questions.
Create a status map that provides a
snapshot of the situation. A few things you should consider
The immediate impact zone
The “ hot zone” i.e. suspected
contamination zone
Points of ingress/egress for rescuers
Staging area for rescue areas
De-contamination area for
people/equipment leaving
Temporary Debris Storage area. This
should be a large area of debris from the rescue effort can be temporarily
stockpiled.
Create a legend, Title and any other
required formatting.
Deliverables:
By the end of Module # 5 you are to
submit a file (yes PDF is ok) in the assignment folder with your result. The
file should contain the Map with a legend that is clear and easy to read.
Notes:
I purposely provided sparse
information. Take as many creative and
logical liberties as like to develop the scenario on your own. The point is
that you have to produce a single map – with what you feel is the most
important info to provide a snapshot of the situation. It’s up to you decide to what should go on
there.
The
Role of Stakeholders
What
are the stakeholders?
How
do the three primary stakeholder groups influence organizations?
What
steps would you take to effectively communicate a strategic plan?
Final
Strategic Plan
Create the Final Strategic
Plan. The Final Strategic Plan contains the elements of all the previous
weeks’ components and incorporates instructor feedback. However, this is
not a compilation or “cut-n-paste” of these prior papers. This
is intended to be a stand-alone project that builds upon your earlier
learnings. The strategic recommendations will be evaluated and the best options
chosen for the recommendation. The final strategic plan contains: (JP
Morgan Chase)
Executive Summary (Word
Document – 350 to 700 words)
Company Background
Mission Statement
Vision Statement
Value Statement
Environmental Scan
Internal and External
Environmental Analysis
Strategic Recommendation
Implementation Plan
Organizational Change
Management Strategies
Risk Management Plan
Conclusion
References
Create a 25- to 35-slide
Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with
speaker notes to present the strategic plan, combining all relevant elements
from previous weeks. The objective is to sell the strategic plan to investors
or company directors.
Format the assignment
according to APA guidelines. Support your assessments. Include a minimum of four
authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the
body of your presentation/speaker’s notes as in-text citations.
For the purpose of grading the project you are
required to perform the following tasks:
Step
Instructions
Points Possible
1
Start Excel. Open the downloaded Excel file
named e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons.xlsx. Save the file with the
name e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons_LastFirstreplacing LastFirst with
your last and first name. In the Security Warning bar, click Enable Content.
0.000
2
On the StudentData worksheet, select the range
A7:K94, and then name the range Student_Data. Create a named range
for each column in the Student_Data named range, using the top row as the range
values.
2.000
3
On the DataInputs worksheet, select the range
A3:B3, and then create a named range using the left column as the name.
Select the range A6:E10, and then create a named range using Lesson_Pricing as
the name.
Select the range A13:E17, and then create a named range using Trans_Fees as
the name.
Select the range A20:G24, and then create a named range using Uniform_Fees as
the name.
Select the range H6:J7, and then create a named range using Entry_Fee as
the name.
4.000
4
On the StudentData worksheet, in cell E5, add
a COUNTIF function to count the Teacher field in the
Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell E4. Copy the formula
through cell I5.
In cell K5, add a DCOUNTA function to count the StudentID field in the Student_Data table
that meets the filter criteria in the range D1:K2.
8.000
5
In cell K8, add a VLOOKUP function nested in
an IFERROR function to retrieve the price per hour, located in column 3 in
the Lesson_Pricing named range, for each student on the basis
of the student’s skill level, located in the Skill level field. The value
should be looking for an exact match. To prevent an error from being displayed
when the skill level is not known, use the IFERROR function to leave the cell
blank.
Copy the formula through cell K94.
On the LessonData worksheet, in cell F3, add a
MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve Skill_level of each
student listed in column B (StudentID). To prevent zeros from displaying when
the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions in an IF
function to leave the cell blank when the skill level equals 0. Copy the
formula through cell F121.
8.000
7
On the LessonData worksheet, in cell G3, add a
MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the total fee located in
the Lesson Pricing table on the DataInputs worksheet for each student listed in
column B depending on their lesson length and skill level. To prevent an error
from being displayed when the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and
MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function, and display the default total fee
of $50. Copy the formula down to G121.
8.000
8
On the Report worksheet, in cell B3, add a
VLOOKUP function to look up the teacher’s name in the Student_Data table
for the student listed in cell B2. The value should be looking for an exact
match.
In cell B4, add an AVERAGEIF function to calculate the teacher’s (Teacher)
average in the Price_Per_Hour field for the teacher listed in
cell B3.
In cell B5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the student’s skill level in
the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The
value should be looking for an exact match.
8.000
9
In cell B6, add a COUNTIF function to count
the StudentID field on the LessonData worksheet that meets the filter criteria
in cell B2.
In cell B7, add a SUMIF function to sum the Total Fee field on the LessonData
worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell B2.
In cell B8, add a two nested IF function to determine how many free lessons the
student has earned. If the student has had fewer than 5 total
lessons, display 0 earned. If the student has had less than 10 lessons,
display 1 earned; otherwise, display 2 earned.
9.000
10
In cell E5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up
the student’s uniform size in the Student_Data table for the
student listed in cell B2. The function should be looking for an exact match.
In cell E7, add a HLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s registration fee
in the Entry_Fee named range for the registration type in cell
E3. The function should be looking for an exact match.
In cell I13, add a COUNTIF function to count the number of uniforms in
the Uniform_Size column of the Student Data table that meet
the filter criteria in cell H12.
8.000
11
In cell I14, add a MATCH function nested in an
INDEX function to retrieve the uniform fee located in the Uniform_Fee table on
the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cells H12 and I13.
To prevent an error from displaying when no uniforms of the size located in H12
are needed, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function to
leave the cell blank. (Hint: Set the match type to 1.)
8.000
12
In cell B12, add a VLOOKUP function to
retrieve the student’s first name in the Student_Data table
that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an
exact match.
In cell C12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s last name in
the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell
A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.
8.000
13
In cell D12, add a VLOOKUP function to
retrieve whether or not the student has a permission slip on file in the Student_Data table
that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an
exact match.
In cell E12, add a VLOOKUP function nested in an IF function to retrieve the
student’s uniform size. To prevent zeros from being displayed when the uniform
size is not known, nest the VLOOKUP function in an IF function to leave the
cell blank. The value should be looking for an exact match.
6.000
14
In cell F12, add an AND function nested in an
IF function to determine whether the student has a permission slip and a
uniform. If the student has a permission slip and the uniform size is not
blank, then display Yes in the field; otherwise, display No.
Highlight B12:F12 and then copy the formulas through cell range B38:F38.
6.000
15
In cell F39, add a COUNTIF function to
determine how many students are currently traveling to the competition as
indicated by Yes in cell range F12:F38.
In cell E8, add a MATCH function nested in an
INDEX function to retrieve the transportation fee located in the Trans_Fee
table on the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell E4 and
F39.
4.000
17
Click Save, exit Excel, and then submit your
file as directed by your instructor.
0.000
Total Points
100.000
List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen v List three prominent themes in A
Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by
Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List
three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A
Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by
Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List
three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenvvv List three prominent themes in A
Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by
Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List
three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent
themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv
Students will
write 2 analytical essays on their
chosen theme, using the primary sources and topic prompts within the additional
documents.
In Week 3,
students will submit a thesis statement for Evaluative Essay 1 to the
instructor for review. This pre-submission of the thesis statement will not be
required for Evaluative Essay 2.
Evaluative Essay
1 will cover the period from 3000 BC through AD 476. It is due in Week 4.
Evaluative Essay
2 will cover the period from 476-1640. It is due in Week 7.
Specific Requirements:
The evaluative
essay will consider assigned sources on the chosen theme, and evaluate those
sources using the topic prompt provided in the additional documents for this
assignment.
Format, Length and Organization:
Length: 750-1100 words (roughly
3-4 pages, double spaced – not counting footnotes)
Double spaced text, Times New
Roman, size 12 font, standard margins and indentation (see Turabian:
Notes-Bibliography)
The paper should have a title
page, body, and bibliography page
Using Turabian Notes-Bibliography
style, format footnotes for the paper.
Basic Organization (except literature topic, given in
literature document): The paper will consist of an introduction, body
and conclusion:
Introduction should be one
paragraph and should introduce the main argument, ending with a strong
thesis statement. The thesis statement is the ONE SENTENCE argument.
Body of the paper is a few
paragraphs (3-4) developing and supporting the argument, showing
comparison and contrast of the assigned documents, as well as further analysis and Biblical evaluation. The body
of the paper should provide specific examples and details from the
assigned sources.
Conclusion is the final
paragraph, restating the argument and summarizing the main points of the
paper, drawing conclusions for the reader. No new information.
Sources:
The textbook and lectures can be
used for basic background information, but the majority of supporting
details should be drawn from the assigned sources within each topic
document.
For Biblical analysis, you can
use your own Bible, or one of the following websites for finding and using
Scripture verses. Please note that you need to use a standard translation
(such as KJV or ESV) and not a paraphrase Bible (such as the Message).
Note
that no citation is needed for common knowledge information, but specific
examples, details, or arguments drawn from the assigned sources DO need proper
source citation.
Martin
Luther nailed the 95 Theses to the
door of the Wittenburg Church in 1517. (common knowledge, no specific citation
needed)
The
Hebrew Old Testament is considered to be a book of folklore, myths and stories
that is useful for some understanding of Hebrew history, but not always
reliable as an historical source since it was written by religious devotees
rather than historians.[1] –
citation needed because this expresses a specific view or argument.
**If you are unsure of whether or not
a citation is needed, it is better to include the citation than to leave it
out. You can also contact your instructor for assistance.
[1]
Marvin Perry, et.al., Western
Civilization Vol. 1, MindTap edition, 2-1c. (Note that this is short-form)
E
WHY IS IT NOT
APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF
HISTORY?
Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your
team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.
Include the following in your paper:
Explain what factors can play a role in
organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
How do organizational processes give
rise to potential failures?
How can certain conditions influence
errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room,
pharmacy, intensive care unit)?
Implementation,
Strategic Controls, and Contingency Plans
What
are some current and potential risks in the global environment that might
impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international
corporate-level strategies?
How
can organizations benefit from performing a political risk analysis?
Under
what conditions would it make sense to use a political weakness as an
opportunity to transfer operations in the home country to a new market?
What
are some potential advantages to implementing a cooperative strategy?
What might be some potential risks?
What
is a strategic network? What is a strategic center firm? How is a strategic
center used in business-level, corporate-level, and international cooperative strategies?
What
are the benefits of implementing International Cooperative Strategies? Why?
What
are political risks and what are economic risks? How should firms approach
dealing with these risks?
What
is a top management team, and how does it affect a firm’s performance and its
abilities to innovate and design and bring about effective strategic change?
Statistic
for business
You may use Minitab or other software for any calculations. However, you must
show your
manual calculations when asked. You may paste
your output onto your assignment to show your use of Minitab; however, this
output does not replace any of the steps outlined below. This means that
answers that are exclusively computer output may receive only one mark.
If you are performing a hypothesis test, make
sure you state the hypotheses, the level of significance, the rejection region,
the test statistic (and p-value, if requested), your decision (whether to
reject or not to reject the null hypothesis), and a conclusion that answers the
question posed or interprets the decision taken. These steps must be completed
in addition to any computer output.
The data in the Minitab data files can be
found in the file Assign1Data.xlsx.
Role of sport in
education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and
their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to
support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a
reference page. You may use APA or MLA.
Management
Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services
Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 1 (30 MARKS) Project 1
is due at the end of Week 3. It is out of 30 marks. Required: Assume the role
of a partner in Martine’s consulting business. Martine has asked you to assist
her with completing the analysis and developing a report for Gretel. Prepare a
report and supporting exhibits for Gretel, president of Holzmann Cleaning
Services (HCS), to analyze HCS’s current profitability and provide analysis of
the overhead allocations used. It should include the following: 1. Profit
analysis: Prepare a brief high-level overview of the 20X6 results in total
based on Exhibit 1 in the project details document. Your discussion should
highlight significant changes between 20X5 and 20X6 operations, and between
20X6 actual and 20X6 budgeted operations. (8 marks) 2. Costing analysis:
Prepare overall comments on the current method HCS uses to allocate its
overhead and provide further analysis on ways in which the company can improve
its costing methods in order to assess and manage its costs. Your analysis
should include the following: a) Calculate overhead applied rate per direct
labour hour (rounded to the nearest dollar), the overhead applied amount and
the resulting over- or underapplied overhead for 20X6 using the traditional
costing approach. Base this on the existing method of allocating service
overhead using direct labour hours as the allocation base. The 20X6 actual
wages and benefit rate were the same as budgeted at $13.20 per hour. (2 marks)
b) Use the regression analyses in Exhibit 3 in Project Details to determine the
viability of each cost driver to predict costs for cleaning supplies and
transportation. This should include reasons for choosing or not choosing the
regression analyses that were provided. (3 marks) c) Use the regression
analysis equation chosen in part (b) to separate the variable cost(s) from the
fixed cost(s). Only the fixed cost(s) would be categorized with the other
overhead costs. With the adjusted overhead costs, follow the traditional
costing approach to recalculate the overhead application rate using direct
labour hours as the allocation base. Calculate the over- or underapplied
overhead by applying the new overhead rate. Compare your result to part (a) and
provide an analysis of the differences between the two application rates. (4
marks) Intermediate Management Accounting Project 1 3 / 3 d) Using
activity-based costing and the information in Exhibit 2 in Project Details,
prepare a partial profit analysis for commercial and residential operations.
Use wages and benefits costs (allocated on the same basis as revenue) and all
costs from the activitybased data to prepare a partial operating statement that
includes all direct/traceable costs. Compare the segment margins between the
commercial and residential operations. (4 marks) Provide three points that
highlight the reasons for the difference between cost allocations using
activity-based costing and traditional costing. (3 marks) e) Provide overall
comments on the results of these analyses in your report. (3 marks) In addition
to the above, award 3 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report
should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively
persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded
numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar
Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 11 PROJECT DETAILS “Adding time to
your day” is the slogan of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS). The company was
started by Gretel, who began offering cleaning services to support herself
while she was in university studying for a business degree. At the age of 21
she was determined to be known as more than a simple labourer who needed to
fund her education. She researched different cleaning products and
methodologies to deliver a fast and thorough service to her clients. Ten years
later, the business has grown in size and has expanded throughout the city and
local rural areas. Gretel is the majority shareholder of the private
corporation with two other shareholders. The company consists of a full-time
staff of three operations managers (one for commercial operations and two for
residential operations), an administrative staff of three, and part-time
cleaning staff of over 200 university students, called cleaning agents. Not
only is Gretel able to provide high-quality cleaning services to her clients,
but she is also able to offer university students part-time work, reducing the
need for student loans. The company also owns a fleet of three vans that are
used to transport cleaning agents to and from work sites. A fourth van is
available for the operations managers to make site visits if necessary.
Gretel’s training regimen is thorough as potential hires are trained in the
areas of cleaning products, effective cleaning methods and acceptable
deportment when entering a client’s residence or place of business. Through
this training process, which Gretel carries out herself, she is able to hire
only those individuals she feels would provide the high-quality service that
keeps clients coming back. Recently, Gretel engaged Martine, a CPA and a local
consultant, to review the latest operating statement. Gretel is discouraged
with the 20X6 profit margin (Exhibit 1). Additionally, she is concerned with
the cash flow as there are seasonal fluctuations in the work, with more work in
the months of March and April when many homeowners request more hours for
springcleaning chores. As such, Gretel must ensure that there is enough cash on
hand to build cleaning supplies inventories and pay for training of any new
recruits required to handle the extra work. Other than springtime, cleaning
supplies inventory on hand is minimal. She is hoping that Martine will provide
some guidance that will help the company attain its profit margins. She has
called a meeting with Martine, Sam, the operations manager of commercial
operations and Ling, one of the operations managers of residential operations.
Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 3 / 11 GRETEL: I thought we
had a pretty good year; sales were up, and we’ve had great reviews. Yet when I
look at the bottom line, the profit margin is only 9%. I was hoping for at
least 12%. According to industry statistics, the profit margins should be at
least 25%. The other issue is that we were short on cash in the late summer.
MARTINE: Have there been any significant changes in the operations in the past
year? LING: I’ve noted that we’re taking on more residential clients outside
the city. I’ve had to make sure that we schedule in more travel time to reach
the destination on time. SAM: And don’t forget that at the request of a
majority of our commercial clients, we’ve included more eco-friendly cleaning
products. It helps boost their image of being socially responsible. MARTINE: I
can imagine that this has increased both your travel and cleaning supplies
costs. How do you currently cost out your services and how do you arrive at a
charge-out rate? GRETEL: We treat the wage costs of our cleaning agents as
direct costs. The cost of cleaning supplies, transportation and operations
managers’ salaries are considered overhead. We apply the overhead at $10 per
direct labour hour and add on an additional 60% to arrive at our charge-out
rate. MARTINE: Have you ever taken an activity-based approach to costing your
services? Besides the increase in cleaning supplies’ costs, are there some
other significant differences in the costs consumed by your commercial clients
versus the costs consumed by your residential clients? LING: Well, I’ve had a
bit of free time on the residential side so I’ve helped Sam out on occasion
with the commercial side. I’ve noted that most of the commercial clients are
clustered around the downtown core. So it takes less time to travel there.
GRETEL: Because our commercial clients have in-house accounts payable
departments, we usually only bill them once per month. While our more recent
residential clients are on monthly billing, we still have some that are on
weekly billing. However, you should note that we spend almost three times more
hours training cleaning agents who work for our commercial clients than
training those who work for our residential clients. Part of the reason is that
eco-friendly products require more application knowledge. MARTINE: So I
understand that the operations managers are not that busy on the residential
side? What’s the breakdown between residential and commercial clients? GRETEL:
We have about 120 regular commercial clients. They account for 60% of the
revenue, even though they amount to less than half of the clients. As for the
residential side, I’m not sure we require both full-time operations managers.
Alex has gone home early on some days because there was a shortage of work.
Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 4 / 11 MARTINE: And are your
cash disbursements pretty much in line with your revenues? GRETEL: For the most
part. Our major expenses are cleaning supplies and transportation, which mostly
fluctuate with revenues, except for annual preventive maintenance on our vans,
which takes place in the slower months of July and August. Oh, and one more
thing: I would really like a solid way of giving a potential client a quote
before we begin a contract with them. Right now, I measure the square metres
and estimate how many hours it will take to complete the work. I multiply that
by the direct labour hourly rate and then add on our $10 overhead factor per
direct labour hour and 60% for profit. Any ideas? MARTINE: Let me work on this
and get back to you with a full report. In the week following the meeting,
Martine spent time with Gretel, the operations managers and the administrative
staff. She developed the following: ·
cost pools for indirect costs related to cleaning services along with the cost
driver for each pool and activity breakdowns for residential and commercial
clients (Exhibit 2) ·
regression analyses summary results (Exhibit 3) to determine the statistical
relationship between: o direct labour hours and transportation costs o direct
labour hours and cleaning supplies costs ·
details regarding expected growth for 20X7 (Exhibit 4) · details regarding a typical commercial and
residential client that could be used to develop quotes (Exhibit 5) · details relating to cash collections and
disbursements (Exhibit 6) Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 5
/ 11 Exhibit 1 REVENUES AND EXPENSES 20X5 20X6 20X6 Budget Total revenue
728,910 819,000 778,050 90,090 12% 40,950 5% Cost of sales Wages and benefits
233,747 292,184 277,575 58,437 25% 14,609 5% Cleaning supplies 66,406 88,541
67,291 22,135 33% 21,250 32% Transportation costs (including fuel, insurance,
depreciation and maintenance) 23,619 30,281 25,890 6,662 28% 4,391 17% Salaries
of operations managers 116,000 120,000 118,000 4,000 3% 2,000 2% Cost of sales
(direct expenses) 439,772 531,006 488,756 91,234 21% 42,250 9% Gross margin
289,138 287,994 289,294 Operating expenses Administrative labour (training and
billing) 175,750 185,000 166,500 9,250 5% 18,500 11% Depreciation (excluding
transportation vehicles) 2,703 2,350 2,303 (353) (13%) 47 2% Repairs and
maintenance (excluding transportation) 881 890 872 9 1% 18 2% Utilities and
telephone/telecommunication 4,712 4,620 4,528 (92) (2%) 92 2% Rent 10,320
10,320 10,114 0 0% 206 2% Interest and bank charges 998 1,050 1,029 52 5% 21 2%
Business fees 4,200 4,200 4,116 0 0% 84 2% Advertising and promotion 1,890
2,520 2,470 630 33% 50 2% Insurance (excluding transportation) 2,594 2,730
2,675 136 5% 55 2% 204,048 213,680 194,607 9,632 5% 19,073 10% Net operating
profit/loss 85,090 74,314 94,687 (10,776) (13%) (20,373) (22%) 11.67% 9.07%
12.17% Variance from 20X5 actual Variance from 20X6 budget EXHIBIT 1 Holzmann
Cleaning Services — Report on Operations Intermediate Management Accounting
Project Details 6 / 11 Exhibit 2 Cost pools and activities for activity-based
costing analysis Cost driver Cost pool Total activity Commercial activity
Residential activity Cleaning supplies commercial Square metres $ 70,833 664,054
664,054 Cleaning supplies residential Square metres $ 17,708 442,703 442,703
Billing Number of invoices $ 129,500 3,054 1,062 1,992 Transportation Number of
kilometres $ 30,281 53,124 15,937 37,187 Training Number of hours $ 55,500 554
416 138 Operations management Number of managers $ 120,000 3 1 2 Total expenses
$ 423,822 Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 7 / 11 Exhibit 3
Summary results of regression analyses Analysis of transportation costs and
statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly
information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.370106959 R Square 0.136979161
Adjusted R Square 0.050677077 Standard Error 205.6109076 Observations 12 ANOVA
d f SS MS Regression 1 67100.46346 67100.46346 Residual 10 422758.4532
42275.84532 Total 11 489858.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept
2006.01049 414.9577567 4.8342523 Labour hours 0.280500299 0.222646934
1.25984353 TRANSPORTATION ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate Management
Accounting Project Details 8 / 11 Analysis of cleaning-supply costs and
statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly
information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.834454446 R Square 0.696314222
Adjusted R Square 0.665945644 Standard Error 152.2094937 Observations 12 ANOVA
d f SS MS Regression 1 531207.6171 531207.6171 Residual 10 231677.2996
23167.72996 Total 11 762884.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept
5922.619076 307.1846274 19.28032378 Labour hours 0.78922842 0.164820911
4.788399819 CLEANING SUPPLIES COST ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate
Management Accounting Project Details 9 / 11 Exhibit 4 20X7 expected growth
data Change in dollars: Expected revenue growth (due to increase in charge-out
rate to $39 per hour) 8% Expected increase in cleaning supplies costs due to
increase in volume (residential and commercial) 7% Expected increase in
commercial cleaning supplies costs due to price increase 9% Labour wage and
benefit rate per hour $13.46 Expected increase in transportation costs 9%
Change in activity for ABC analysis: Increase in overall square metres of
cleaning 7% Increase in number of invoices (commercial only, see option 2 below
for residential) 5% Increase total kilometres driven (30% of total kilometres
relate to commercial clients) 8% All other expenses will be unchanged. Cost
reduction options: 1. Reduce operations management staff costs by putting one
residential operations manager on half-time. This would reduce the total cost
from $120,000 to $100,000. 2. Change all residential billing to monthly. This
would reduce the number of residential invoices sent out by 10% from 20X6
activity. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 10 / 11 Exhibit 5
Client data for contract quote development According to Gretel, a cleaning
agent is able to clean approximately 50 square metres per hour, on average.
Base the annual sales amount on 50 annual visits for commercial clients and a
per-visit basis for residential clients. Use the following variable costs: · Wages and benefits — see 20X7 budget and
information in Exhibit 4 for hourly rates. ·
Cleaning-supply costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate
per square metre. ·
Transportation costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate
per kilometre. Commercial client: Typical commercial client details are as
follows: ·
square metres 1,950 ·
kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 20 Residential client: Typical
residential client details are as follows: ·
square metres 232 ·
kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 25 Intermediate Management Accounting
Project Details 11 / 11 Exhibit 6 Cash collection and disbursement activity May
June July August September October Sales revenue $85,100 $62,900 $67,155
$49,210 $50,875 $68,265 Purchases of cleaning supplies $7,664 $7,240 $7,500
$6,850 $6,900 $7,575 Transportation costs $2,022 $1,904 $2,323 $2,377 $1,327
$1,475 Direct labour wages $30,360 $22,440 $23,958 $17,556 $18,150 $24,354
Management salaries $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 General operating
expenses $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 Cash collections: Cash sales
25% Credit collections: Amount collected in month of service 50% Amount
collected in month following service 30% Amount collected in second month
following service 15% Uncollectable 5% Cash disbursements: Transportation 100%
Paid in month incurred Cleaning supplies 60% Paid in month incurred 40% Paid in
month following Direct labour 50% Paid in month incurred 50% Paid in month
following Remaining expenses 100% Paid in month incurred Additional notes:
Depreciation included in monthly general operating expenses $ 196 Annual
dividend payment to three shareholders, paid in August $8,000 Expected July 1
beginning cash balance $5,000
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Intermediate
Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 2 (40 MARKS) Project 2 consists of a second
report from Martine to Gretel, the president of Holzmann Cleaning Services
(HCS). It is due at the end of Week 5 and is out of 40 marks. 1. Prepare a
complete 20X7 operating budget for both commercial and residential operations,
based on the details provided in Exhibit 4 in Project Details. The operating
budget will require adjustments to the activity-based analysis prepared for the
direct costs in requirement 2 of Project 1. Indirect general costs should be allocated
60% to commercial and 40% to residential. (6 marks) Provide a discussion of the
results in your report. (4 marks) Note: It is important to provide the analysis
done in Project 1 so that markers don’t deduct marks for errors made in Project
1. 2. a) Revise the 20X7 operating budget statements to a contribution format.
Assume the following are variable costs: i) Wages and benefits ii) Cleaning
supplies iii) Transportation costs All remaining costs are fixed. (1 mark)
Based on the 20X7 budget: b) Calculate the break-even point in sales dollars
based on the 20X7 sales mix. (2 marks) c) Calculate the sales revenue required
to achieve a 25% profit margin. (2 marks) d) Provide comments on the results in
the report. Your discussion should also include comments on the margin of
safety (1 mark) and the limits of the CVP analysis as it pertains to HCS. (2
marks) 3. To assist Gretel in submitting bids for new work, use the 20X7
contribution margin budget to determine an average markup percentage on
variable costs for both commercial and residential cleaning services. Using the
markup percentages, calculate the sales price of a typical commercial and
residential contract (see Exhibit 5 in Project Details). (8 marks) Also provide
a short discussion of the results in your report. (2 marks) Intermediate
Management Accounting Project 2 3 / 3 4. Cash analysis: a) Prepare a cash
budget for the quarter starting July 20X6 using the information in Exhibit 6
found in Project Details. (6 marks) b) Prepare a discussion that highlights
your findings in your report. What advice can you give Gretel regarding the
handling of cash and her operations during this period? (4 marks) In addition
to the above, award 2 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report
should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively
persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded
numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar.
Strategic
Choice and Evaluation
Answer the following
questions No Intro or conclusion…
What
is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy
in terms of who, what and how? Why is this
relationship important?
How
can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative
to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn
above-average returns?
What
motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What
might encourage diversification?
What
are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of
international strategies, particularly international corporate-level
strategies?
What
are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to
successfully use international strategies?
Why
do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What
risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?
South
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South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced
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South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Examv
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How
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Define how modern fire
research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:
Infrared imaging
GPS
Water mist
Compressed air foam
Explain how each of the
above has had an impact on fire science.
Use examples to support your discussion.
Include an introductory and conclusion
paragraph.
Format your work consistent with APA
guidelines.
Include a title page and reference page and
cite all sources
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CSTU
101 learning activity 1
Go online and find some information about the
“Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the
controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership
of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own
words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the
Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You
do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment
well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This
assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses.
Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for feedback a few days
before the assignment is due.
How
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how
motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.
Define how modern fire
research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:
Infrared imaging
GPS
Water mist
Compressed air foam
Explain how each of the
above has had an impact on fire science.
Use examples to support your discussion.
Include an introductory and conclusion
paragraph.
Format your work consistent with APA
guidelines.
Include a title page and reference page and
cite all sources
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statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics
helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33
Mini-Strategy
Week Three
Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation
Include the following in your outline:
Organizations (Apple Inc)
Evaluate
the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss
the organization’s current goals and objectives.
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Strategic
Plan, Part 3
Write a 1,400-word minimum internal environmental
analysis in which you include the following:
Assess
the organization’s internal environment. ( JP Morgan Chase )
Identify
the most important strengths and weaknesses of your organization including an
assessment of the organization’s resources.
Identify
the most important internal environmental factors in the general, industry, and
external analysis in relation to the internal analysis.
Perform
competitor analysis.
Assess
the structure of the organization and the influence this has on its
performance.
Determine
the organization’s competitive position and the possibilities this
provides.
Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments with Include a minimum
of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in
the body of your paper as in-text citations.
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Internal
Capabilities and Resources
Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal
organization?
What is value chain analysis? What does the
firm gain by successfully using this tool?
What factors affect the likelihood a firm
will take a competitive action?
What factors affect the likelihood that your
organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
What is outsourcing? How do you see the
future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining
& why?
What does it mean to say that each core
competence could become a core rigidity?
How do you see the relationship between an
organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it
means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
How do firms identify internal strengths and
weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their
firm’s strengths and weaknesses?
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Week
2 General Questions/Thoughts
Why
is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
Which
are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic,
political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own
industry & firm? Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about
your firm and be as specific as possible.
What
are the differences between the general environment and the industry
environment? Why are these differences important?
What
is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm
want to learn when using this process?
Explain
the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are
these details of interest to organizations?
How
do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability
potential?
Why
is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?
MGT
279 Assignment 4
1. In summary, what does the report’s author
blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
2. As an expert, to what extent do you think
the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to
manage major programs, how would you summarize what went wrong
with this project?
3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big
Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major
programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in
trying to employ the US DoD approach?
4. What lessons can be derived from the Big
Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are
about to begin work on a major program?
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MGT
270 Assignment 6
Questions
Based on
demographic data supplied in “Our Community” (p. 3), provide a summary of some
key characteristics of the community and its members.
Beginning in
the 1990s, PWC tied its budget to achieving its strategic plan. Explain how PWC
uses the strategic plan to establish the foundation of its budget, using
specific examples from Citizens Guide.
What are the
top four sources of revenue for PWC? Do you believe the PWC revenue profile is
typical for counties in the USA? Explain your answer.
PWC divides
its budget into two categories: capital budget and operating budget. What is
the difference between the two. What is the primary source of revenue for the
capital budget? For the operating budget?
A big portion
of the PWC budget entails “transfer to schools.” What does this mean from both
the Revenue and Expenditure perspective? Supplement your answer with data
from Citizens
Guide. Be sure to look at the special character of this budget item
on p. 11.
Smart county
budgeting requires political sensitivity of elected officials. How is such
political sensitivity reflected in the PWC budget process? (Hint: See p. 14.)
The PWC
Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is reasonably typical for counties in the USA.
Why do county (and municipal) budgets distinguish between capital budgets and
operating budgets? Which three budget areas dominate anticipated capital budget
expenditures? Where do you think the money is being spent in these three areas?
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MGT
270 Assignment 7
Slann points out that two prevailing traits of today’s world are increasing
interdependence in the global economy and increased strength of ethnic and
religious forces. Your response should be 1 – 2 pages long, single spaced. Note
that the answers to these questions require thought and research on your part.
There is no cookbook answer.
What
evidence is there to back up Slann’s view?
To
what extent do these two traits reinforce each other, or work in contrary
directions?
Strategic
Plan, Part 2: Strategic Planning Process Paper
You will perform an environmental scan for
your target company.
Choose an organization according to the
following:
Organization
that you want to work for once you complete your MBA (JP Morgan Chase)
Write a 1,050-word minimum environmental analysis in
which you include the following:
Determine
how to create value and sustain competitive advantage using the environmental
scanning strategy.
Evaluate
the company’s external environment.
Identify
and assess one or more of the Five Forces that are most important in driving
competition in your organization’s external industry environment.
Assess
the company’s general environment.
Evaluate
the organization’s industry operating environment.
Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments with Include a minimum
of two authoritative references. Remember
all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text
citations.
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Qualitative
study on Autism
Prior to beginning work on this assignment, be sure to have read all the
required resources for the week.
Locate a peer-reviewed qualitative research
study in the Ashford University Library on the topic you chose in Week One for
your Final Research Proposal. You may choose to use a qualitative study that
was included in the literature review you used in the Week One assignment by
searching the reference list for qualitative research studies on the topic. It
is also acceptable to utilize a qualitative research study on your topic that
was not included in your literature review.
Once you have located an appropriate
qualitative study, identify the specific qualitative research design used.
Summarize the main points of the study including information on the research
question, sampling strategy, research design, data analysis method(s),
findings, and conclusion(s). Evaluate the published qualitative research study
focusing on and identifying the researcher’s paradigm or worldview and any
evidence of reflexivity described in the report. Explain whether or not
potential biases were adequately addressed by the researchers. Describe how the
researchers applied ethical principles in the research study.
Assignment # 1
Philosopher Report on
Edward T. Hall. research the contributions of this ethicist to communication
ethics. Detail the contributions of this writer to the understanding of
communication ethics. Write a 4-5 page report and present your findings in this
paper. The report should include: biographical information, an overview of his
philosophy (main concepts he is known for) and the connection he has to
communication ethics. Cite 5 sources.
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Assignment # 6
Instructions Choose
one of the articles below for analysis. Discuss the subject matter in the
article, and interpret the results and what the confidence interval and margin
of error mean as they apply to the specific subject matter. Bobkoff, D. (2016,
Aug 05). Hillary clinton looks like she’s about to crush donald trump — but it
might not be so simple. The News Herald Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1817877470?accountid=28180
McKnight, P. (2006, Jun 03). Understanding a poll’s margin of error: The
Vancouver Sun Retrieved from
http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/242148444?accountid=28180
Silver, N. (2013, Mar 08). A justice’s use of statistics, viewed skeptically.
New York Times Retrieved from
http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1315037352?accountid=28180
Graves, A. (2017, Jun 27). DID SOUTH ST. PETERSBURG’S POVERTY RATE FALL AS FAST
AS RICK KRISEMAN SAID? EVIDENCE THIN. Tampa Bay Times Retrieved from
http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1914205644?accountid=28180
Alternatively, you may search for an original article. If you choose this
route, locate a news article or report (in a popular news source such as Time,
Newsweek, or the Wall Street Journal) in which a population mean is estimated
from a sample. The article should include a margin of error and confidence
interval. The Northcentral Library has created a resource to aid you in finding
an appropriate article: Population in the News Assignment Guide Length: 1-2
pages not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate
thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts that are presented in the
course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.
Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.
Assignment # 4
Read the article
entitled, “Are We Smarter than Our Parents?” in chapter 5 of your textbook.
This article addresses a study by Dr. James Flynn of the rise of the IQ rate
over generations, and how statistics are involved in tracking this phenomenon,
especially with reference to the material in chapter 5. Write a paper in which
you explore some of the statistical data that has been found in this area of
study. Additionally choose and answer one of the four questions below in a
focused and clear manner. Remember to integrate the statistical data in the
article that discusses this topic. 1.Which explanation do you favor for the
Flynn effect: that people are getting smarter or that people are merely getting
more practice at the skills measured on IQ tests? Defend your opinion. 2.The
rise in performance on IQ tests contrasts sharply with a steady decline in
performance over the past few decades on many tests that measure factual
knowledge, such as the SAT. Think of several possible ways to explain these
contrasting results, and form an opinion as to the most likely explanation.
3.Results on IQ tests tend to differ among different ethnic groups. Some people
have used this fact to argue that some ethnic groups tend to be intellectually
superior to others. Can such an argument still be supported in light of the
Flynn effect? Defend your opinion. 4.Discuss some of the common uses of JQ
tests. Do you think that IQ tests should be used for these purposes? Does the
Flynn effect alter your thoughts about the uses of IQ tests? Explain. Length:
1-2 pages not including title and reference pages
Professional Portfolio Based
on ISOP
Professional
Portfolio This assignment requires you to gather a compilation of papers and
projects from this course and previous courses and add them to your
Professional Portfolio. The portfolio is designed to help you compile all you
have learned throughout your undergraduate studies with the best examples of
your work to represent what you are capable of doing when you graduate the
program. This assignment also gives you a opportunity to reflect on what you
have learned as a student of psychology, and to prepare to actualize your
post-graduation goals. It will serve as a resource as you navigate the world of
prospective employers and graduate admissions committees. The student portfolio
is also a measure of effectiveness for the Argosy University baccalaureate
program in Psychology. As you develop professionally following graduation, you
can add work samples and other pertinent materials, as well as modify existing
documents, to reflect that development. The Professional Portfolio includes two
main sections. A Professional Profile section that is completed by all students
with either an Employment focus or a Graduate School focus, depending on your
post-baccalaureate plans. The second section holds your Professional Work
Samples demonstrating your abilities, skills, and competencies across a range
of tasks and objectives. This section also includes a Final Evaluation of your
work samples, yourself, and the psychology program. The Professional Profile
section summarizes your career planning and professional goals. You have
already compiled the documents for this section in Modules 1 and 2 of this
course. It contains the following documents: A Cover Letter as a way to
introduce yourself to a potential employer This includes details about yourself
and why you feel you are qualified for the position. (Employment). OR A
Personal Statement describing your immediate and long-term career goals,
including an explanation of why these goals are appropriate in terms of your
knowledge, skills, personal characteristics, values, and experiences (Graduate
School). Note: The personal statement is attached to the Curriculum Vitae
(Graduate School), and the Cover Letter is attached to the Resume (Employment),
so take the time to be creative and not repeat yourself. A Resume with list of
References that is current, accurate, and professional in appearance.
(Employment). OR A Curriculum Vitae with list of References that is current,
accurate and professional in appearance. (Graduate School) OPTIONAL: A copy of
your Transcript(s) The Professional Work Samples section demonstrates your
performance and mastery of Argosy University’s program outcomes/competencies
for the Psychology major. Select 3-5 documents to serve as samples of your best
work in the program. Together, they should illustrate your mastery of all the 7
program outcomes listed below. Examples of the type of work that would
illustrate each outcome is provided below, as well. The 3-5 documents should be
samples of your work that you completed in previous courses as an undergraduate
student. These outcomes are listed below, along with the assignments that could
be included to demonstrate mastery of the outcome: Cognitive abilities
(critical thinking and information literacy): Assignments or projects that
demonstrate problem solving, analysis, synthesis, appropriate use of
information resources, etc. Research skills: A copy of a research proposal, a
survey developed, etc. Communication skills (written and oral): A topic paper,
presentation outline, or PowerPoint that demonstrates your written and oral
communication skills. Ethics & Diversity awareness: Papers that demonstrate
your understanding and/or analysis of ethical and diversity issues in
psychology. Knowledge of foundations of the field: Assignments, papers, or
projects that demonstrate your understanding of basic concepts, theories, and
empirical findings in one or more of the domains of psychology, including
biological, cognitive, developmental, personality, and social. Knowledge of
applied psychology: Assignments, papers, or projects from courses and/or an
internship that demonstrates your ability to apply psychology to personal,
social, and/or organizational problems. Interpersonal Effectiveness: PowerPoint
presentations, videos of your presentations that demonstrate your ability to
communicate effectively, appreciate diversity and cultural sensitivity and
awareness of your impact on others. Once you have assembled your work samples,
you will write a 700-1000 word narrative to serve as a preface to the
Professional Work Samples section. This narrative should consist of a clear and
thoughtful analysis of how each work sample reveals your strengths and areas
for improvement, according to each of the seven areas addressed in the program
outcomes/competencies (listed above). Towards this purpose, you will complete
the Student Self Appraisal of Learningfirst, and then use that to generate the
preface . Make sure you also address how you intend to strengthen your
competencies in all areas as you graduate onto the next step of your professional
career. On which areas will you focus most and why? This preface should also
include an evaluation of the Psychology program as well as suggestions for the
program that will enable it to help future Psychology majors develop these
strengths and overcome these weaknesses in the future. Enter each of these
components (Professional Profile, Professional Work Samples, with self-
evaluation) into the Professional Profile Template.
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GE’s Poor Planning Results in
Delays & Increased Costs
ASSIGNMENT-1
Principles of Management (MGT101 )
2nd Semester (2018-2019)
Assignment
Workload:
This
Assignment consists of a Mini Case.
Assignment
is to be submitted by each student individually.
Assignment
Purposes/Learning Outcomes:
After
completion of Assignment-1 students
will able to understand the
Recognize the functions of planning, organizing and controlling
and how they interrelate (Lo2.1)
Ability to carry out organization’s role in ethics, diversity, and
social responsibility. (Lo3.3)
Answer questions related to case study.
Assignment
Regulation:
All
students are encouraged to use their own words.
Student
must apply “Times New Roman Font” with 1.5 space within their reports.
A mark
of zero will be given for any submission that includes copying from other
resource without referencing it.
Assignment
-1 should be submitted on or before the end of Week-07.
If the
assignment shows more than 25% plagiarism, the students would be graded
zero.
Due
date for the submission of Assignment-1:
Assignment
-1 should be posted in the Black Board by Week-5.
The due
date for the submission of Assignment-1 is end of 7th Week.
Assignment
has to be in Word format only no PDF.
Assignment
Structure:
A.No
Type
Marks
Assignment-1
Case Study
5
Total
5
Assignment-1
Please go to Chapter
5 “Planning” available in your textbook Management: A Practical Approach 7th
edition by Kinicki, A., &
Williams, B., at the end
of the Chapter read Case: “GE’s
Poor Planning Results in Delays & Increased Costs” and answer
the following questions:
Assignment
Questions:
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Q1. Which of the
fundamentals of planning did GE execute ineffectively? Explain your rationale.
Q2. State two
SMART goals for GE based on the case. Given the political issues discussed in
the case, how might GE ensure that these goals are attainable? Discuss.
Q3.
Using Figure 5.5 “The Planning /Control Cycle”, describe what GE could
have done to improve the process of transporting the evaporator. Provide
specific recommendations.
Q4. What did you
learn about planning based on this case? Explain.
Ans:-
Graduate Course Analysis
Assignment Deadline: 2/15/2018
Assignment Deadline Time: 3:30pm M.S.T.
NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO
PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
Writea 1,750-word
essay report on perception and concept of forensic science in
21st-century criminal justice.
Be sure to THOROUGHLY ADRESS the following components in the
essay:
How important is forensic science to policing and criminal
investigations, court processes, and security efforts at various levels?
Explain your rationale in a historical approach.
How accurate is the popular media representation of forensic
science? How does this influence popular opinion on justice-related
issues?
What possible influence does the “CSI” effect have on the
judicial process?
Provide Subtitles for each section
Include at least four (4) Peer-Reviewed resources within the essay.
Properly quote and cite all references
used. Essay MUST have
direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.
Properly format your paper
consistent with APA guidelines. Paper MUST be in APA ESSAY FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Essay must have a strong
introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences
and paragraphs.
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NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO
PUNCTUATION ERRORS!
NOTE: cover page, reference page and
subtitles are NOT included
in the 1,750-word count for essay. Essay must have thoroughly detailed
information and references to support analysis.
NAME
__________________________________________
Introduction to Theatre Exam #1
List four distinguishing traits
of Ancient Greek Theatre . . .
b.
c.
d.
Shakespeare was a major
theatrical influence during the
_____________________________________
era.
What is a cyclorama?
Explain how catharsis relates to
Ancient Greek theatre.
When an audience sits on three
sides of the stage, what type of stage configuration is that called?
Name three traits that can
describe Roman Theatre.
a.
b.
c.
What is the area downstage of the
curtain line referred to as?
If you are hidden from the view
of the audience in a proscenium theatre, you are likely ______________________________________________________
. (In what area?)
List three distinguishing traits
associated with theatre during the Middle Ages.
What type of curtains are used to
hide the offstage areas from the view of the audience?
What is the stuff called that you
can put in front of a light to change its color?
List three major theatre artists from the Elizabethan era.
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Explain the difference between a
spot light and a flood light.
Give me the names of three major
figures in Greek Theatre.
What purpose did theatre serve in
the Middle Ages?
Describe to me how your experience might have been had you attended
a public showing of a piece of theatre in the Elizabethan era.
What do you call a piece of
masking that hangs vertically to hide the wing space of a proscenium
stage?
What kind of stage configuration
has audience sitting on four sides?
What’s the difference between
private theatre and public theatre during the Elizabethan era?
What is the literal translations
of tragedy according to the Ancient Greeks?
Describe what a pageant wagon
from the Middle Ages would look like.
___________________________ was the god of wine, fertility, and theatre in Ancient
Greece.
What kinds of Roman theatre are
equivalent to our modern “reality” programming?
Who wrote POETICS?
Who was the most famous actor of
the Elizabethan era?
What is the device called that
goes between the lamp and the lens of a spot light that allows a designer
to create patterns in the light?
List two distinctive traits of a
proscenium stage.
Why might have the Greeks
performed their theatre in an amphitheater?
What is a dithyramb?
Near the end of the Roman Empire,
what entity outlawed theatrical performances?
What era of theatre history most
resembles our current theatrical paradigm?
Please explain the difference
between upstage and downstage.
Please, label each area of the
stage on the plan view drawing below . . .
AUDIENCE
IS HERE
What is a satyr play?
Who did the Romans get most of
their theatrical ideas from?
What were the two possible
purposes of an “orange girl” at an Elizabethan theatre
performance?
Out of the four eras of theatre
history we studied in class, which two were considered “Golden
Ages” of theatre?
What era (of the four we studied)
of theatre is the most intriguing to you, and why?
What is the name of the masking
curtain that hangs horizontally to hide the stuff hanging above the stage
from the view of the audience?
Explain how theatre lost its
original purpose (why it was invented) throughout its history from the
Greeks to the Romans to the Middle Ages.
At a public performance at the
Globe theatre during the Elizabethan era, what choices might you have as
to where you view the performance (hint: there are three of them).
What new type of lighting
instrument allows you to use colored diodes to mix color while using a lot
less electricity?
According to Aristotle’s POETICS
what defines a play as a comedy?
What is a raked stage?
Who was employed to put on the
plays depicting stories from the Old Testament in the Middle Ages?
Tell me what Hamlet is saying in this quotation in your own words .
. .
“I have of late–but wherefore I
know not–lost all my mirth, forgone all custom of exercises; and indeed it
goes so heavily with my disposition, that this goodly frame, the earth, seems
to me a sterile promontory; this excellent canopy, the air, look you, this
brave o’erhanging firmament, this majestical roof fretted with golden fire,
why, it appeareth nothing to me but a foul and pestilent congregation of
vapors. What a piece of work is a man, how noble in reason, how infinite in
faculties, in form and moving, how express and admirable in action, how like an
angel in apprehension, how like a god! The beauty of the world; the paragon of
animals; and yet to me what is this quintessence of dust? Man delights not me.
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Follow the directions in the assignment and the instructions listed below.
Write a well formed, essay-style paper to your manager addressing all of the points requested in the activity. Include separating section headers in your paper to identify each point you are addressing. Include screenshots of your search progress/results. Use of tables, charts and lists as appropriate is encouraged and recommended. Remember to identify and cite your sources
Use proper grammar and spelling.
Describe the original data warehouse designed for Indiana University Health and its limitations. Please describe the new data warehouse and the differences between each?
Type your answer here.
Q: Identify the major differences between a traditional data warehouse and a data mart? Explain the differences between the traditional data warehousing process compared to newly designed data warehouse in less than 90 days?
Type your answer here.
Q: While this case study supports a specific data warehouse product, please locate another case study from another data warehousing software company and explain the data warehouse that was designed in that case study?
Type your answer here.
Which software-development methodology would be best if an organization needed to develop a software tool for a small group of users in the marketing department? Why? Which implementation methodology should they use? Why? Give an example of a company who uses specific software for marketing. Write a two-page APA paper, using research-based responses
This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C-suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive: WRITE A MEMO IN 4 PAGES
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business. 2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured. 3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better. 4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.
The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.
Networking Trends Paper: In this paper, you will research and report on network design and management trends over the last three years (present year minus 2) in the areas of virtualization, security, hardware, network management tools, software defined networking, and wireless. Choose, at least, three areas and explain the general trend and trends within two subsets of the area (i.e., security has subsets of physical, perimeter, monitoring) over the last three years. Use at least one figure from Google Trends showing a trend discussed in your paper. Support your information and make sure all information sources are appropriately cited. The paper must use APA 6th ed., 7th printing formatting and contain a title page, 5 to 7 pages of content, and a minimum of four peer-reviewed references. Your assignment will be graded based on the rubric, which can be viewed when clicking on the assignment submission link above
Role and Relevance of an Information System to aid in decision making
Type your answer here.
Which software-development methodology would be best if an organization needed to develop a software tool for a small group of users in the marketing department? Why? Which implementation methodology should they use? Why? Give an example of a company who uses specific software for marketing. Write a two-page APA paper, using research-based responses.
Q. Use a red colored font for you answers.
Place the answers below the questions
1.How often are network standards reviewed? The standards are reviewed and updated approximately every 5 years.
2.What category of UTP cabling is the minimum for a telephone cable? Cat 5 is used for telephone cable, before Cat 5, Cat 3 was used.
3.What category of cabling should be installed as a best practice for a telephone cable? Cat 5
4.What is the problem with leaving abandoned cable in place in a building? It creates a fire hazard because of the extra combustible material.
5.Why must the twisting in the individual wires be maintained in a UTP cable?
6.How many wires does a gigabit cable use?
7.Is the labeling standard commonly used or not used?
8. Grounding should be attached to what in the building?
9. Horizontal cabling connects what areas to each other?
10.What is a plenum rated cable?
11.What is a riser tube used for?
12.What is the code for plenum rated horizontal cable?
13.How many wires in a UTP cable does Fast Ethernet use?
14.How many inches should separate UTP cable from 120 volt electrical cable?
15.What is the reason for grounding jumpers on each connection in ladder rack?
16.Why should overfilling of a riser tube be avoided?
17.Is the grounding of equipment a safety or a performance concern?
18.What are the current recognized horizontal cabling categories?
19.May an existing Category 5 cable be used to make network connections?
20.In the example used here what does the firestop material consist of?
21.In what circumstances will poorly installed cabling still function?
22.Why should the outer cover on a UTP cable be maintained in place?
23.Does cable labeling impact network performance?
24.May CM cable be used in the plenum space?
25.Why should a plastic riser tube not be used
Q. What is the UK Gateway Protection Programme? Top of Form Bottom of FormExplain its history, purpose, and achievements. Cite references. Thanks
Q. Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War. Top of Form
Bottom of Form
Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well
I need you to build a game that will be easy for me to explain because I have to present it to my professor and he will grade it for me so please I want good and easy game that meet the requirements below. I want you to tell me what game or application you will do for me before you do it. Please don’t copy and paste any code from outside websites because this is the last project I have and don’t want to screw up the work for the whole semester.
Learner Objectives:
At the conclusion of this programming assignment, participants should be able to:
However, you may NOT develop a solution to the game of Snake or Pong!!! You must apply inheritance and polymorphism in your solution. You are also required to develop a test class and implement 5 test cases for your application.
Your goal for the assignment is build a complete graphical, and possibly networked, game or application. As a team you must ultimately decide how you will implement graphics. You have many tools and library options available to implement the graphics portion of the assignment. Some include the Unreal Engine, SFML, Qt, SDL, Allegro, DirectX, OpenGL, etc. Please be sure to also add some directions of how to play the game or use your application.
Aside from the requirements listed in the above paragraph, you are free to complete this assignment as you see fit. We will have a Gamefest! At which point you will need to allow other students in the class play your game or use your application.
Have fun with this assignment!
Submitting Assignments:
Your .zip file should contain a project workspace. Your project folder must have at least two header files (.h files), three C++ source files (which must be .cpp files), and project workspace. Delete the debug folder before you zip your project folders.
Your project must build properly. The most points an assignment can receive if it does not build properly is 200 out of 300.
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NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question
Question 1.Question : Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?
Creating a physician expert panel
Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
Conducting an external review of a guideline
Developing evidence-based tables
Question 2.Question : African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Inhaled corticosteroids
Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
Leukotriene receptor agonists
Oral corticosteroids
Question 3.Question : Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?
The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.
The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.
Question 4.Question : Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Meclizine
Diphenhydramine
Diamox
Diamox
Promethazine
Question 5.Question : Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Filiform/digitate wart
Dysplastic cervical lesion
Condyloma acuminata
Koilocytosis
Question 6.Question : Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Dementia
Alzheimer’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
Delirium
Question 7.Question : You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
“Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
“Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
“Drive to the emergency room now.”
“Call 911.”
Question 8.Question : A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question 9.Question : Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?
Fluid restriction
Hemodialysis 4 days a week
High-protein diet
Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80
Question 10.Question : Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Glaucoma
Increased sperm quality
Bladder cancer
Eczema
Question 11.Question : A chronic cough lasts longer than:
3 weeks
1 month
6 months
1 year
Question 12.Question : The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Parkinson’s disease
Alzheimer’s disease
A CVA
Bell’s palsy
Question 13.Question : When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Tension
Migraine
Cluster
Stress
Question 14.Question : Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
African American men
Scandinavian men and women
Caucasian women
Asian men
Question 15.Question : The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Pharyngitis
Allergies
Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
Perforation of the eardrum
Question 16.Question : Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Severe asthma
A common valvular lesion
Severe hypertension
A prosthetic heart valve
Question 17.Question : A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.
Increase the dose of antibiotic.
Order a cytoscopy.
Order a different antibiotic.
Question 18.Question : Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 19.Question : Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?
It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.
This condition only occurs on the face.
Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.
It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Question 20.Question : Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
“You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
“It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
“The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
“We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 21.Question : A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:
Stage 2 hypertension
Hypertensive
Normal in healthy older adults
Acceptable if the patient has DM
Question 22.Question : When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
1 month
3 months
6 months
As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 23.Question : Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
He should stop smoking today.
He should stop smoking tomorrow.
His quit date should be in 1 week.
He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 24.Question : When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 25.Question : The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
No activity at all
A blank stare
Urine is usually voided involuntarily
The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 26.Question : Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?
Permethrin cream
Lindane
Crotamiton lotion and cream
Ivermectin
Question 27.Question : The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?
Viral conjunctivitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Question 28.Question : Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 29.Question : How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Every 3 months
Every 6 months
Annually
Whenever there is a problem
Question 30.Question : Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question 31.Question : The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Repeat the test.
Refer to a nephrologist.
Measure the serum protein.
Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 32.Question : Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
CN V
CN VII
CN IX
CN X
Question 33.Question : Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
Kidneys, ureter, bladder x-ray
Cystoscopy with biopsy
Magnetic resonance imaging
Urine tumor marker (NMP22)
Question 34.Question : The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:
Biopsy
Best practice
Boundary
Border irregularity
Question 35.Question : Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 36.Question : Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Greater than 30
Greater than 40
Greater than 50
Greater than 60
Question 37.Question : The most common cause of CAP is?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Legionella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 38.Question : Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Serum calcium
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Complete blood cell count
Question 39.Question : A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 40.Question : Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
All of the above
Question 41.Question : Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
BUN and creatinine
Electrolytes
Creatinine clearance
Urinalysis
Question 42.Question : Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?
It is an old wives’ tale.
It is used as a last resort.
Salicylic acid is more effective.
It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.
Question 43.Question : What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
Penicillin
Quinolone
Cephalosporin
Macrolide
Question 44.Question : Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Perforation of the tympanic membrane
Otosclerosis
Cholesteatoma
Presbycusis
Question 45.Question : Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
An ulcer
A fissure
Lichenification
An excoriation
Question 46.Question : A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 47.Question : The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 48.Question : A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question 49.Question : Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
B-type natriuretic peptide
C-reactive protein
Serum albumin
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 50.Question : You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Baker phenomenon
Arnold reflex
Cough reflex
Tragus reflex
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
GABA
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treat
NR511 Midterm Exam
NR511 Midterm Exam 2018
Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?
Western blot
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test
Viral load
Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
White blood cell count
Polymorphonuclear cells
C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
Dogs
Cats
Humans
Rodents
Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?
Transvaginal ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
MRI
Abdominal computed tomography scan
Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
All of the above
Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Serum calcium
TSH
Electrolytes
Urine specific gravity
Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Insulin
Metformin
Glucotrol
Precose
Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
A boggy gland
Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?
Remove the insect with tweezers.
Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.
Sedate Eddie with diazepam.
Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”
Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?
Anemia of chronic disease
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
Parkinson’s disease
Prostate cancer
All of the above
Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:
Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints
Rigid joints with diminished range of motion
Joint swelling and immobility on rising
A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub
Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?
Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month
3 months
6 months
12 months
Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
The scrotum will appear milky white.
The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?
A favorable prognostic trend
Disease progression
The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s
medications
The eradication of the HIV
Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:
Erythema infectiosum
Laterothoracic exanthem
Erythema migrans
Morbilli exanthem
Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Articular
Inflammatory
Nonarticular
A and B
Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
1,200 mg/day
1,000 mg/day
1,300 mg/day
1,500 mg/day
Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?
Analysis of partner’s sperm
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Hysterosalpingogram
Estrogen level
Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?
Two
Three
Four
Five
Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Testosterone level
Prostate-specific antigen
Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
Prolactin level
Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Acetylcholine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Dopamine
Serotonin
Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?
Refer to a urologist immediately.
Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.
Prescribe ibuprofen.
Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Prednisone
Metformin
Synthroid
Cephalexin
Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?
IV
Abdomen
Upper lateral thigh
Deltoid
Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Before the initiation of treatment
1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
When switching to a different medication
1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?
Pregnancy
Pituitary dysfunction
Inadequate estrogen levels
Genetic disorders
Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Sertraline
Fluoxetine
Citoprolam
Imipramine
Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:
Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning
Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy
Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician
Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication
Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
McMurray circumduction test
Lachman test
Varus stress test
Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?
Pain
Nausea
Light-headedness
Palpitations
Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Sexually transmitted infections
Ovarian cyst
Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?
Tick
Brown recluse spider
Wasp
Stinging caterpillar
Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?
Pregnancy test
Complete blood cell count
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Urine dip for protein
Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?
Ketoacidosis
Cirrhosis
Hypoglycemic episodes
All of the above
Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than
TCAs.
SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?
Autogenic
Autologous
Allogeneic
Syngeneic
Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?
Arsenic
Lead
Carbon monoxide
Strychnine
Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:
Autonomy and feeling valued by others
Exhilaration and productivity
Spirituality
Career success and material rewards
Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?
Chelation
Dialysis
Gastric lavage
Bowel irrigation
Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Fluconazole
Estrogen vaginal cream
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?
A sprain
A strain
A partial fracture
A fracture
Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?
Heat cramps
Heat syncope
Heat exhaustion
Heat stroke
Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
CAGE
SANE
SAD PERSONAS
DIGFAST
Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Bone
Synovium
Tendons
Fascia
Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
A viral syndrome
Lyme disease
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Relapsing fever
Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?
Pregnancy
Estrogen level
Progesterone level
LH level
Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated TSH
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?
No treatment at this time
Diet and exercise for 6-week trial
Diet, exercise, and oral medication
Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin
Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?
Diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Atherosclerosis
All of the above
Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
All of the above
Question 72.Question : Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
Elevated blood urea nitrogen
Decreased urine pH
Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 73.Question : Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
Absent cremasteric reflex
Pain relieved on testicular elevation
Testicle very low in the scrotum
Swollen scrotum with “red dot sign”
Question 74.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Reduces postprandial blood glucose
Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
Reduces total cholesterol
All of the above
Question 75.Question : A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
Platelet count
Question 76.Question : What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55?
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)
Anemia
Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)
Sports-related injuries
Question 77.Question : If the international normalized ratio (INR) result is above the therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what might the clinician do?
Stop the warfarin for 1 week, and then repeat the INR.
Withhold one or more days of anticoagulant therapy.
Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately.
The prothrombin time and INR should be reevaluated within 1 month of the dosage adjustments.
Question 78.Question : A 32-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because she has been unable to get pregnant after 12 months of unprotected sex. In order to determine the cause of the infertility, the clinician should question her about which of these possible causes?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Oral contraceptive use for 15 years
Early menarche
Diet high in soy protein
Question 79.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
All of the above
Question 80.Question : The clinician should prescribe an antibiotic that covers which of these organisms for a patient with acute prostatitis?
Gram-positive cocci
Gram-negative cocci
Gram-positive bacillus
Gram-negative bacillus
Question 81.Question : Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV?
100% bleach
50% bleach and 50% vinegar
Nine parts H2O to one part bleach
The friend must have his or her own bathroom.
Question 82.Question : Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Acute myelogenous leukemia
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Question 83.Question : Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?
Ferritin
Porter’s syndrome
Hypochromasia
Pica
Question 84.Question : The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Free T4 and serum calcium
Free T3 and T4
TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 85.Question : The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
“As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
“I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
“My optometrist checks my eyes.”
“I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 86.Question : Triggering factors for acute exacerbations of which of the following conditions include exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
SLE
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question 87.Question : Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?
Bradycardia
Extreme diaphoresis
Severe bronchoconstriction
Hypotension
Question 88.Question : Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility,
minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician?
“Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful.”
“I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition.”
“I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy.”
“It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition.”
Question 89.Question : One benefit of motivational interviewing (MI) is:
It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.
It can be utilized during routine office visits.
It is a therapeutic technique which is not necessarily time intensive.
All are benefits of MI.
Question 90.Question : What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question 91.Question : Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question 92.Question : Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers is the most accurate?
PEP should be started within hours of exposure.
PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.
Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP.
PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present.
Question 93.Question : The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an xray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
All of the above
Question 94.Question : A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
Carrots
Spinach
Potatoes
Question 95.Question : A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?
CN II
CN III
CN IV
CN V
Question 96.Question : A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Pheochromocytoma
Hyperthyroidism
Cardiac arrhythmias
All of the above
Question 97.Question : Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Urinalysis
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Gram stain of urethral discharge
Complete blood cell count with differential
Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 98.Question : BATHEing the patient refers to:
A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral.
A technique used to facilitate cultural understandingc.
A technique used to perform psychotherapyd.
A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems
Question 99. Question :BATHEing the patient is an advanced practice nursingintervention that allows the practitioner to:
Develop a therapeutic relationship without “owning” the patient’s problem
Conduct psychological counseling within the context of the primary care encounter
Focus on the “process” and not the assessment
Make the patient and family happier
Question 100. Question A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with abnormaluterine bleeding and pain during intercourse. The clinicianshould consider which of the following diagnoses? Leiomyoma
Pregnancy
Ovarian cancer
All of the above
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam
Question
During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient’s vestibule and expects to see the:
A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.
B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
A) Cervix
B) Uterus
C) Ovaries
D) Fallopian tubes
The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as:
A) anteverted and anteflexed.
B) retroverted and anteflexed.
C retroverted and retroflexed.
D)superiorverted and anteflexed.
An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should:
A) use the Tanner’s table on the five stages of sexual development.
B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age.
C) use Jacobsen’s table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data.
D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step.
A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign.
A) Tanner’s; Hegar’s
B) Hegar’s; Goodell’s
C) Chadwick’s; Hegar’s
D) Goodell’s; Chadwick’s
A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal.
B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.
C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria.
D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth.
The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are:
A)aging.
B)becoming fibrous.
C)estrogen dependent.
D)able to respond to estrogen.
The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause?
A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is.”
B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”
C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned.”
D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle.”
A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening.
B) obstetric history because it is the most important information.
C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well.
D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first.
A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____.
A) 2; 2; 1
B) 3; 2; 0
C) 3; 2; 1
D) 3; 3; 1
During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion?
A)”I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed.”
B) “I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period.”
C) “I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night.”
D) “I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom.”
A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her:
A) “Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual.”
B) “Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding.”
C) “It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated.”
D)”It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week.”
A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she “wets herself a little.” She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
A) dysuria.
B) stress incontinence.
C) hematuria.
D) urge incontinence.
During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this would be:
A) “Oh, don’t worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.”
B) “Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?”
C) “I’d like some information about the discharge. What color is it?”
D) “Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?”
A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, “Have you noticed:
A) a change in your urination patterns?”
B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?”
C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?”
D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?”
Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview?
A)”Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?”
B) “Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?”
C) “Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?”
D) “Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?”
A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask:
A) “Do you have a history of heart murmurs?”
B) “Will you be in a monogamous relationship?”
C) “Have you thought this choice through carefully?”
D) “If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?”
A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility.
D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
A) “You know that it’s important to use condoms for protection, right?”
B) “Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”
C) “Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?”
D) “You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren’t you?”
When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening?
A) “Do you have any questions about growing up?”
B) “What has your mother told you about growing up?”
C) “When did you notice that your body was changing?”
D) “I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you’ll feel?”
When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement?
A) “It is okay that you have become sexually active.”
B) “Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?”
C) “If it is okay with you, I’d like to ask you some questions about your sexual history.”
D) “Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse.”
The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?
A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding.
B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions.
C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness.
D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted.
During the examination portion of a patient’s visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her?
A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head.
B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact.
C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table.
D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.
An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination.
B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing.
C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam.
D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact.
The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman’s external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits?
A) Redness of the labia majora
B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts
C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green
D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora
The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct?
A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal
B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual
C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal
D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum
During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement.
B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted.
C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view.
The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
A) Nabothian cysts are present.
B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
C) The cervical surface is granular and red.
D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present.
A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
A) “If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina.”
B) “Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”
C) “If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you.”
D) “We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office.”
During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer?
A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool
B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash
C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash
D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount (“wet prep”)
When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
A) These findings are all within normal limits.
B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm.
C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.
D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix.
The nurse is palpating a female patient’s adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse’s most appropriate course of action would be to:
A) tell the patient that her examination was normal.
B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist.
C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings.
D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.
A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit?
A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking.
B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done.
C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard.
D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination.
The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation?
A) In the parent’s lap
B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table
C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups
D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended
When assessing a newborn infant’s genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant’s mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
A) “This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.”
B “This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.”
C) “We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits.”
D) “We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.”
During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Atrophic vaginitis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
A) pediculosis pubis.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) herpes simplex virus type 2.
When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer?
A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms.
B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening.
D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years.
During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
A) an ovarian cyst.
B) endometriosis.
C) ovarian cancer.
D) an ectopic pregnancy.
A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
A) endometriosis.
B) uterine fibroids.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
A) syphilitic chancre.
B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis).
C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts.
D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice).
During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear:
A) stellate.
B) small and round.
C) as a horizontal irregular slit.
D) everted.
A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
A) uterine
B) cervical
C) ovarian
D) endometrial
During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as:
A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree.
B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree.
C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree.
D) a normal finding.
A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, “How often do I need to have this Pap test done?” Which reply by the nurse is correct?
A)”It depends. Do you smoke?”
B)”This will need to be done annually until you are 65.”
C)”If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests.”
D)”After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years.”
The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass’s characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply.
A) Heavy and solid
B) Mobile and fluctuant
C)Mobile and solid
D) Fixed
E) Smooth and round
F) Poorly defined
HealthCare Information Systems (7pgs)
Questions:
How proper use of Information Systems can enhance Health Care?
Millennium development goals report
Instructions for developing the MDGs Report HLTH 4380 Fall 2018 In this Project, we will use the United Nations Millennium Declaration document called Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by world leaders at the dawn of the 21st century as our guide. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, and subsequent adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. Although these Goals have universal appeal, they are readily applicable to mainly developing countries and Middle-income countries of the world. Of course they have some relevance to the United States, but you are not required to make any comparison with US or any other industrialized country. The idea of including this part of the project is for us to examine the global perspectives of public health and the extent to which world leaders (governments, civil society groups, NGOs) in low-resource settings are affected by the poor health vulnerabilities and efforts being made by countries to improve population health. The MDGs has eight goals with targets and indicators; and range from halving extreme poverty rates to halting the spread of HIV/AIDS and providing universal primary education by the target date of 2015. I have provided the eight goals below: 1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger 2. To achieve universal primary education 3. To promote gender equality and empower women 4. To reduce child mortality 5. To improve maternal health 6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases 7. To ensure environmental sustainability 8. To develop a global partnership for development These goals have been reviewed in July 2015, and a new development plan Agenda 2030 Sustainable Development Goals has been put in place. I have posted a copy of final review of the MDGs document on Blackboard (under MDG Assignment Resources). Your role is to select TWO GOALS from the MDGs and two specific countries outside the United States and other industrialized countries to assess the extent to which your selected countries did in achieving the goal by July 2015 (the target and indicators for that MDG goals you picked by July of 2015). You may include what the country need to do as part of your postMDG steps. The post MDG’s are Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) MDG Expectation: Visit the web link of countries you have selected for this project. You can just google by typing “your selected country and MDG report.” For example, if I selected Ghana, I will google “Ghana MDG report” and you will find all MDG reports for Ghana in different years. Select the three most current reports of the respective country selected. The link below is for the assessment of UN member’s countries progress towards achievement of MDG’s. Assess (based on your chosen goals and targets for the MDG’s) whether the country (of your interest) is likely to meet those MDG’s (for that country) by 2015 according to your specific objective /goals. Critically evaluate whether your specific community or your country of interest will meet respective goals and objectives as well as the accompanying dates. Prepare a six page comparative analytic report that includes the information below (you may additional information for extra credit): • Short definition or description of your Goals (from the MDGs) for the two countries, and a briefly descriptions of each country’s background context. The context of each country is important for understanding why or why not the results achieved in the manner in they have been reported. • Most important issue each country addressed in each Goal. • Individuals most affected by this objective (age, gender, ethnicity, etc.) and a country of your interest. • Ethnic/racial groups most affected • Value of addressing this Goal and consequences of not meeting your objective • Most interesting data to use to gain more attention to this objective or Goal • Details of community and national efforts to address this issue and any local data that you may be able to secure. There is detailed information on the MDG’s and what countries are doing to achieve a specific goal. Make sure to select a peer reviewed publication and cite appropriately. Please, refer to this website for additional information on MDGs: http://www.healthpolicyinitiative.com/index.cfm?id=onlineCDs&groupID=7 3 Note that the MDG’s are primarily United Nations target to improve health and social wellbeing of populations of the world (mainly outside the United States). The US uses the Healthy People as a national guide for improving health and social outcomes. Healthy People are a set of goals and objectives spanning a 10-year period, designed to guide national health promotion and disease prevention efforts for the population in the United States. Prepare a critical and detailed six-page report to address those issues. You will utilize and cite, according to the APA Style and Format (6th edition). Make sure that you have at least seven additional references aside the Healthy People 2020 and MDGs documents. My suggestions when writing this paper is to avoid direct quoting from any source (even those you will cite those sources). I strongly recommend that you paraphrase and cite appropriately instead of direct quoting.
BSBSUS401 Implement & monitor environmentally sustainable work practices
What is the purpose of National Greenhouse & Energy Reporting Legislation?
What is the purpose of Environment Protection & Biodiversity Conservation Legislation?
What is the Kyoto Protocol?
Who has the prime responsibility for environmental protection?
How do organisations know how to behave ethically in regards to sustainability?
Activity 2.
What process might an assessor follow when analysing procedures to ensure compliance with
environmental regulations?
How might an assessor conduct an assessment?
Activity 3.
What is resource efficiency?
What is an Environmental Management System?
How can a work group be engaged in disseminating environmental and resource efficiency information?
Activity 4.
Explain the differences between qualitative and quantitative information.
What do you think are the advantages of presenting analysed data in graphical format, rather than a written report?
Your organisation is interested in analysing and organising information about the amount of paper it uses. Convert the data provided into a format that is easily used.
Activity 5.
What are the goals of resource usage assessments? Give at least 6 examples.
List the steps (in order) that need to be taken when carrying out a resource usage assessment.
Activity 6.
Identify 5 benefits of environmental purchasing.
Activity 7.
How can organisations ensure that work processes meet environmental requirements and identify areas in which changes need to be made? Give at least 6 examples.
What is problem solving in the context of environmental work processes and what is its aim/s?
Activity 8.
List at least 5 various ways that organisations can access stakeholder input.
Activity 9.
What are the advantages of joining an industry association? List two examples.
What are the advantages of joining an environmental program? Give 2 examples.
What is the hierarchy of control?
Rearrange the controls in their correct order, as specified in the hierarchy of control:
Administration, Elimination, Engineering, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and Substitution.
Activity 11.
What are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?
What five criteria should be met when creating targets?
Identify what is wrong with the following targets and rewrite them so they conform to SMART criteria.
The Absolute Advertising Agency will reduce its paper waste.
The Fish Factory will reduce its energy consumption to zero in the next month.
Activity 12.
Identify five things a business could do to reduce its energy consumption.
Identify five things an organisation could do to reduce its waste.
Activity 13.
Identify the four steps of the continuous improvement cycle.
Identify five things an organisation can do to improve the performance of its employees.
Activity 14.
Explain why it is a good idea to integrate environmental procedures and practices with pre-existing organisation procedures and practices.
What needs to be done when existing procedures or work practices are changed or new procedures and work practices are introduced?
Activity 15.
Define the term “Engagement”.
Engagement is the emotional commitment the employee has to the organization and its goals. It relates to a state of involvement and participation.
Why is it important to ensure that employees do not become disengaged?
What are the benefits of having a diverse team?
Activity 16.
List at least six people/groups who might make up an organisations stakeholders.
Each stakeholder will have different areas of expertise. Complete the table by providing reasons that an organisation should seek suggestions & ideas about their environmental and resource efficiency management for each of the listed stakeholders.
Activity 17.
A school is thinking about installing low-flush toilets in all of its bathrooms and air hand-driers to replace paper towel dispensers. Purchasing new toilets for the entire school will cost $22,000. It will need to employ plumbers to fit the toilets at a cost of $9,500. It is estimated that this will save the school $16,000 in water consumption fees. The hand driers will cost $13,500. The cost of employing electricians to install the hand driers will come to $4,400. As the school will no longer have to purchase paper towels, it will save $7,300 per year. It also estimates it will save $1,000 a year in cleaning costs, as the bathrooms will take less time to clean, and bins will need to be emptied less frequently. The school will incur additional electricity costs of $1,700 per year, however. Calculate the combined payback period for the installation of low flush toilets and air hand driers.
Activity 18.
Determine whether the following statements are true or false.
Activity 19.
Place the steps, which need to be observed when creating an environment report in their correct order.
Communicate with the audience to understand their concerns, questions, expectations & interests.
Create performance Indicators.
Decide how you are going to publish report.
Gather the data and evaluate it.
Identify the data you will need to produce the report.
Identify key environmental aspects that need to be covered by the report.
Identify the target audience for your report.
Make improvements to reporting procedures for future reports.
Obtain Feedback.
Produce, publish and distribute the report.
Identify 5 benefits of creating and distributing an environmental report.
Activity20.
Why is it important to carry out regular evaluations of environmental management systems/ strategies and improvement plans?
Activity 21.
List 5 reasons that efficiency targets should be/ might need to be regularly reviewed.
Activity 22.
Identify the characteristics of an effective reward system. Give 4 examples.
Question 1.
What methods can be used to convey information and identify sustainability improvements?
Question 2.
What are the essential features of a non-compliance form that could be used by employees to report any non-compliance issues?
Question 3.
What is the effect of environmental regulations and legislation on business?
Question 4.
What common environmental and energy efficiency issues can you think of?
Question5.
What benchmarks might be used for environmental & resource sustainability?
List at least 8 examples of techniques or tools that can be used to achieve efficiency.
Question 6.
Define the term “Sustainability” and explain how it relates to resource usage.
Question 7.
What are the steps in creating an Environment Management System (EMS)?
Question 8.
How do sustainable businesses foster ethical behaviours in staff and management?
Summative Assessment 2
Project 1.
Essay Question –write a response to the following quote from Unlimited Sustainable Development Solutions.
Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:
“Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental, and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives”.
Your response should include a discussion of:
Complex environmental issues.
Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Project 2.
Youare the supervisor of a group of 15 workers in a business involved in an industry of your choice. You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relation to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.
Identify a minimum of 3 appropriate work group activities and provide an overview of what is involved with each activity.
Develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvements for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken by your work group.
Millennium development goals
Pick two MDGs
Evaluate the progress with a case study of two developing countries.
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities
Due Week 9 and worth 200 points
Read the case study titled “Missed Opportunities”, located in the online course shell.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
Examine the pros and cons from the perspective of Crestview Hospital of the placement of its new billboard directly adjacent to Briarwood Medical Center. Interpret the reaction of customers and other community stakeholders to the billboard postings.
Use competitive marketing entry strategies to suggest the action that Briarwood Hospital should undertake to counter the messages in the new Crestview Hospital Billboard postings.
Recommend the marketing communication strategy or strategies that both Crestview and Briarwood Hospitals should employ. Justify why the Governing Board of both hospitals should take a proactive role in promoting and implementing effective marketing strategies.
Assess the value of the various marketing research tool(s) that Briarwood and Crestview hospital could use to promote effective marketing communication strategies. Justify your response.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Evaluate marketing research tools involved in the marketing process.
Formulate competitive market entry strategies based on analysis of global markets that comply to initiatives in the health care industry.
Determine the marketing communications strategy used in health care services.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health services strategic marketing.
Write clearly and concisely about health services strategic marketing using proper writing mechanics.
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets
Read the case study titled “GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets” located in the XanEdu case pack (Link Below)
Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:
Determine two (2) emerging trends in the external environment that prompted General Electric (GE) Healthcare to develop a new strategy for the production and marketing of a low cost Electroencephalography (EEG) machine in bottom of the pyramid markets (BOP).
Examine two (2) internal barriers GE Healthcare faced when developing its BOP market in India and determine the manner in which they hindered GE Healthcare’s growth in this market segment.
Analyze two (2) of the significant external barriers that GE Healthcare faced when trying to meet its marketing goals in the Indian market. Propose two (2) ways to address these barriers.
Analyze the specific steps GE took in developing its strategy to grow its BOP market. Determine the manner in which those actions apply to the principles of strategic thinking and strategic planning.
Determine the manner in which GE Healthcare’s strategy to improve its position in BOP markets contributed to the organization’s value chain in both emerging and developed markets.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Differentiate between strategic management, strategic thinking, strategic planning, and managing strategic momentum.
Analyze the significance of the external environment’s impact on health care organizations.
Examine the role of internal environmental analysis in identifying the basis for sustained competitive advantage.
Examine the organizational value chain, including the components of the service delivery and support activities.
Examine barriers to new product development that comply with initiatives in the health care industry.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the strategic management of health care organizations.
Write clearly and concisely about strategic management of health care organizations using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.
Week 2 – Healthy People 2020
After reviewing the Healthy People 2020 website, discuss the concept of MAP-IT. Choose a health topic of your choice to briefly discuss how MAP-IT can be implemented in the community of your choice. Topic: Affordable Medication Program
Length: Minimum of two full pages of text in length. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format with a minimum of 3 references
Identify one innovation that has been developed in the past 20 years that has influenced the health care industry, such as: Telemedicine Organ transplants Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that discusses the following: Explain how evidence-based research influences the health care industry. Compare external influences on health care research. Cite 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your paper. Format your paper according to APA guidelines.
Human Resource Management Overview
Assignment 1: Human Resource Management Overview
Due Week 4 and worth 200 points
Using the course readings, articles, and your personal experiences, address the role of human resource management.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
1.Determine key roles that human resource management plays in the health care field..
2.Evaluate three to five (3-5) functions of human resource management in terms of their level of support to the health care field, and then select which one you believe is the primary function in furthering the health care field..
3.Analyze the role of human resource management in an organization’s strategic plan..
4.Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources..
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions..
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length..
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Appraise the aspects of managing human resources (HR) in health care organizations. .
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health care human resources management..
Write clearly and concisely about health care human resources management using proper writing mechanics..
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Which statement about confusion is true?
Question options:
a) Confusion is a disease process.
b) Confusion is always temporary.
c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Question options:
a) Meclizine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Diamox
d) Promethazine
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
Question options:
a) No activity at all
b) A blank stare
c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily
d) The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 4 2 / 2 points
How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Question options:
a) Every 3 months
b) Every 6 months
c) Annually
d) Whenever there is a problem
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Question options:
a) A teenage male
b) A 65-year-old male
c) A 25-year-old female
d) A 60-year-old female
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a specific test to MS?
Question options:
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) A lumbar puncture
d) There is no specific test.
Question 7 2 / 2 points
Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antidepressants
d) Atypical antipsychotics
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
Question options:
a) Epidural hematoma
b) Subdural hematoma
c) Subarachnoid hematoma
d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
Question options:
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
Question options:
a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
Question options:
a) A female in her reproductive years
b) A 40-year-old African American male
c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Question options:
a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?
Question options:
a) Purulent meningitis
b) Chronic meningitis
c) Aseptic meningitis
d) Herpes meningitis
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d) An initial lumbar puncture
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
Question options:
a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c) A pain that is worse upon awakening
d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 16 1 / 1 point
Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
Question options:
a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?
Question options:
a) Resting tremor
b) Bradykinesia
c) Rigidity
d) Postural instability
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?
Question options:
a) Light sensitivity
b) Pulsatile pain
c) Sound sensitivity
d) Experiencing an aura
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?
Question options:
a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?
Question options:
a) Greater than 25%
b) Greater than 50%
c) Greater than 75%
d) Only for 100% occlusion
Question 22 2 / 2 points
What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?
Question options:
a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogrel
d) Aspirin and clopidogrel
Question 23 2 / 2 points
Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d) EEG
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?
Question options:
a) Sam-e
b) Saint John’s Wort
c) Melatonin
d) Saw Palmetto
Question 25 0 / 2 points
Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?
Question options:
a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean
Question 26 2 / 2 points
About 90% of all headaches are?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Without pathological cause
Question 27 2 / 2 points
Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Question options:
a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
d) These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?
Question options:
a) Glatiramer acetate
b) Natalizumab
c) Fingolimod
d) Glucocorticoids
Question 29 2 / 2 points
The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Question options:
a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) A CVA
d) Bell’s palsy
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?
Question options:
a) Spinothalamic dysfunction
b) Ratcheting
c) Cogwheeling
d) Hand tremors
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Huntington’s disease
Question 32 1 / 1 point
Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:
Question options:
a) SLUMS
b) MoCA
c) FAST
d) MMSE
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?
Question options:
a) 1 hour
b) 3 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 35 2 / 2 points
When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Stress
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Question options:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 37 2 / 2 points
The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
Question 38 1 / 1 point
A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?
Question options:
a) Pheochromocytoma
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?
Question options:
a) Benzodiazepines
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
d) Cognitive behavioral therapy
Question 40 1 / 1 point
Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Question options:
a) Hypersomnolence
b) Blunted feelings
c) Loss of interest in significant activities
d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?
Question options:
a) Decrease in adrenal size
b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone
c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone
d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone
Question 42 2 / 2 points
The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?
Question options:
a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.
d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 3 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 5 weeks
Question 44 2 / 2 points
It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?
Question options:
a) Before the initiation of treatment
b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment
c) When switching to a different medication
d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications
Question 45 2 / 2 points
A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?
Question options:
a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.
b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.
c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.
d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.
Question 46 1 / 1 point
According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?
Question options:
a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance
b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression
c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?
Question options:
a) Memory impairment
b) Sexual dysfunction
c) Dry mouth
d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
Question options:
a) GABA
b) Acetylcholine
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 49 2 / 2 points
What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?
Question options:
a) 0.05
b) 0.1
c) 0.2
d) 0.3
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?
Question options:
a) Every 30 minutes
b) Every 60 minutes
c) Every 90 minutes
d) Every 180 minutes
Question 51 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?
Question options:
a) Hypercholesterolemia
b) Hypermagnesmia
c) Leukocytosis
d) Decreased TRH
Question 52 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?
Question options:
a) Sertraline
b) Fluoxetine
c) Citoprolam
d) Imipramine
Question 53 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
Question options:
a) Liver function
b) Vision
c) Growth parameters
d) Renal function
Question 54 2 / 2 points
It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c) Substance abuse
d) PTSD
Question 55 2 / 2 points
Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
Question options:
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
Question 56 2 / 2 points
Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?
Question options:
a) Depression
b) Anxiety
c) Substance-related addictions
d) Gambling
Question 57 1 / 1 point
What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?
Question options:
a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention
b) Personality or environmental problems
c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors
d) Global assessment of functioning
Question 58 2 / 2 points
Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?
Question options:
a) CAGE
b) SANE
c) SAD PERSONAS
d) DIGFAST
Question 59 2 / 2 points
Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?
Question options:
a) ADHD
b) Bipolar
c) Depression
d) Anxiety
Question 60 1 / 1 point
Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?
Question options:
a) Substance abuse and medication effects
b) Medical and neurological disorders
c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression
d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Question 61 1 / 1 point
The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 62 1 / 1 point
Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 63 1 / 1 point
Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 64 1 / 1 point
Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 65 1 / 1 point
Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 66 1 / 1 point
The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 67 1 / 1 point
A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 68 1 / 1 point
Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 69 1 / 1 point
Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 70 1 / 1 point
When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 71 1 / 1 point
A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?
Question options:
a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b) Endometrial hyperplasia
c) Vagismus
d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 72 2 / 2 points
A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?
Question options:
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Doxycycline
c) Acyclovir
d) Metronidazole
Question 73 1 / 1 point
A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) HPV
c) Chlamydia
d) Trichomonas
Question 74 1 / 1 point
A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Question options:
a) Trichomonas
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) HPV
d) Herpes simplex virus
Question 75 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Question options:
a) Metronidazole
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Diflucan
d) Doxycycline
Question 76 1 / 1 point
A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?
Question options:
a) Fluconazole
b) Estrogen vaginal cream
c) Metronidazole
d) Doxycycline
Question 77 2 / 2 points
Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
Question options:
a) Filiform/digitate wart
b) Dysplastic cervical lesion
c) Condyloma acuminata
d) Koilocytosis
Question 78 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 79 2 / 2 points
Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Periorbital cellulitis
c) Erysipelas
d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis
Question 80 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 81 2 / 2 points
The most common cause of CAP is?
Question options:
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
c) Legionella pneumoniae
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 82 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 83 2 / 2 points
The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 84 2 / 2 points
A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
Question options:
a) The scrotum will be dark.
b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c) The scrotum will appear milky white.
d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 85 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 86 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 87 1 / 1 point
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 88 1 / 1 point
A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Testicular cancer
b) Inguinal hernia
c) Varicocele
d) All of the above
Question 89 1 / 1 point
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 90 1 / 1 point
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 91 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 92 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”
Question options:
a) An ulcer
b) A fissure
c) Lichenification
d) An excoriation
Question 93 2 / 2 points
A bulla is:
Question options:
a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter
b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular
c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid
d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent
Question 94 1 / 1 point
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 95 1 / 1 point
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 96 1 / 1 point
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 97 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 98 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 99 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 100 1 / 1 point
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?
Question options:
a) Insulin
b) Metformin
c) Glucotrol
d) Precose
Question 3 2 / 2 points
After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Question options:
a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.
b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.
c) Send her for acupuncture treatments.
d) All of the above
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
Question options:
a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 5 2 / 2 points
John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Question options:
a) Valgus stress test
b) McMurray circumduction test
c) Lachman test
d) Varus stress test
Question 6 2 / 2 points
The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?
Question options:
a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”
b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”
c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”
d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?
Question options:
a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury
b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury
c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle
d) All of the above
Question 8 2 / 2 points
The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?
Question options:
a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s
b) Recent exposure to mumps
c) Vegetarian diet
d) Allergy to iodine
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Question options:
a) Rice
b) Carrots
c) Spinach
d) Potatoes
Question 10 2 / 2 points
One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:
Question options:
a) Goiter
b) Abnormal serum calcium
c) Elevated urine biochemical markers
d) Bony fracture
Question 11 2 / 2 points
After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Question options:
a) Elevated TSH
b) Normal TSH
c) Low TSH
d) Undetectable TSH
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Question options:
a) Decreased C-reactive protein
b) Hyperalbuminemia
c) Morning stiffness
d) Weight gain
Question 13 2 / 2 points
The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”
b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”
c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”
d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”
Question 14 2 / 2 points
The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?
Question options:
a) Prednisone
b) Metformin
c) Synthroid
d) Cephalexin
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Question options:
a) Gastrocnemius weakness
b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c) Numbness in the lateral foot
d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 18 2 / 2 points
You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?
Question options:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?
Question options:
a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”
b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”
c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”
d) All of the above
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
Question options:
a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion
b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions
c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia
d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?
Question options:
a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose
b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
c) Reduces total cholesterol
d) All of the above
Question 22 0 / 2 points
A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Psychosis
d) All of the above
Question 23 2 / 2 points
The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?
Question options:
a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”
b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”
c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.”
d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?
Question options:
a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.
b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.
c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.
d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?
Question options:
a) Check his blood sugar.
b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.
c) Call 911.
d) Ask him about his usual eating habits.
Question 26 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?
Question options:
a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
b) Free T4 and serum calcium
c) Free T3 and T4
d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) TSH
c) Electrolytes
d) Urine specific gravity
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis?
Question options:
a) History of hypertension
b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm.
c) Her history of diabetes mellitus
d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions.
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?
Question options:
a) 1,200 mg/day
b) 1,000 mg/day
c) 1,300 mg/day
d) 1,500 mg/day
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Question options:
a) Sinus bradycardia
b) Atrial fibrillation
c) Supraventricular tachycardia
d) U waves
Question 31 2 / 2 points
You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:
Question options:
a) Articular
b) Inflammatory
c) Nonarticular
d) A and B
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?
Question options:
a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.
b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.
c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.
d) All of the above
Question 33 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:
Question options:
a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle
b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm
c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm
d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates?
Question options:
a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs.
b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying.
c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals.
d) None of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:
Question options:
a) Apprehension sign
b) Bulge sign
c) Thumb sign
d) None of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?
Question options:
a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts
b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis
c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Bone scan
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) X-ray of the foot
d) Culture of the ulcer
Question 38 2 / 2 points
One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?
Question options:
a) Bone
b) Synovium
c) Tendons
d) Fascia
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?
Question options:
a) Elevated uric acid level
b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen
c) Decreased urine pH
d) Decreased C-reactive protein
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions?
Question options:
a) Myxedema
b) Thyrotoxicosis
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Pan-hypopituitarism
Question 42 0 / 2 points
How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Question options:
a) Once a year
b) Every 6 months
c) Every 3 months
d) Every visit
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Question options:
a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury.
d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?
Question options:
a) Low-dose aspirin
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Ethambutol
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.
b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.
c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.
d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.
Question 48 2 / 2 points
Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
Question 49 2 / 2 points
The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data?
Question options:
a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
b) RAI binds free T4.
c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue.
d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.
Question options:
a) True
b) False
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Pancreatitis
b) Peptic ulcer disease
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?
Question options:
a) Refer to a urologist for surgery.
b) Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.
c) Recommend cranberry supplements.
d) Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?
Question options:
a) Repeat the test.
b) Refer to a nephrologist.
c) Measure the serum protein.
d) Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?
Question options:
a) 0.05% liquid formulation
b) 0.1% cream
c) 1% foam
d) 0.02% cream
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?
Question options:
a) Pruritis
b) Glycosuria
c) Irritability
d) Hypotension
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?
Question options:
a) Keratosis pilaris
b) Dennie’s sign
c) Keratoconus
d) Pityriasis alba
Question 7 2 / 2 points
The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Erectile dysfunction
b) Glaucoma
c) Hypotension
d) Headache
Question 8 2 / 2 points
When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?
Question options:
a) A piece of hair or a thread
b) Hyphae
c) Leukocytes
d) Spores
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D?
Question options:
a) Vagistat vaginal cream
b) Monistat combination pack
c) Terazol vaginal cream
d) Diflucan, 150 mg
Question 10 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
Question options:
a) NSAIDs
b) Beets
c) Vitamin A
d) Red meat
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?
Question options:
a) BUN and creatinine
b) Electrolytes
c) Creatinine clearance
d) Urinalysis
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?
Question options:
a) 35
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
Question 13 0 / 2 points
When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes.What do you suspect they are?
Question options:
a) Spores
b) Leukocytes
c) Pseudohyphae
d) Epithelial cells
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a UTI?
Question options:
a) Last menstrual period
b) Method of birth control
c) Last unprotected sexual contact
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Question options:
a) Radical orchidectomy
b) Lumpectomy
c) Radiation implants
d) All of the above
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?
Question options:
a) Urinalysis
b) Gram stain of urethral discharge
c) Complete blood cell count with differential
d) Ultrasound of the scrotum
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this?
Question options:
a) Bullous impetigo
b) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)
c) Nonbullous impetigo
d) Ecthyma
Question 18 2 / 2 points
An example of ecchymosis is:
Question options:
a) A hematoma
b) A keloid
c) A bruise
d) A patch
Question 19 2 / 2 points
An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Question options:
a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Prostate cancer
d) All of the above
Question 20 0 / 2 points
A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Testosterone level
b) Prostate-specific antigen
c) Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity
d) Prolactin level
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Peyronie’s disease
b) Damage to the pudendal artery
c) Scarring of the cavernosa
d) All of the above
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?
Question options:
a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.
b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.
c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.
d) There is metastasis to distant organs.
Question 23 0 / 2 points
During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
Question options:
a) An enlarged rubbery gland
b) A hard irregular gland
c) A tender gland
d) A boggy gland
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Tinea unguium is also known as:
Question options:
a) Onychomycosis
b) Tinea versicolor
c) Tinea manuum
d) Tinea corporis
Question 25 2 / 2 points
The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?
Question options:
a) Recent heat stroke
b) Nephrolithiasis
c) Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment
d) All of the above
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?
Question options:
a) Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.
b) Pinch the skin taut together.
c) Use gel foam to control bleeding.
d) This should be performed by a dermatologist only.
Question 27 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing Detrol XL, the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication?
Question options:
a) Diarrhea
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Closed-angle glaucoma
d) Breast cancer
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
Question options:
a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”
Question 29 2 / 2 points
A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?
Question options:
a) Risk of osteoporosis
b) May have hot flushes
c) May have impotence
d) All of the above
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?
Question options:
a) There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.
b) Josh has red papules on his face.
c) There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area.
d) There are white streaks on his neck.
Question 31 2 / 2 points
The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:
Question options:
a) A skin tag
b) Actinic keratosis
c) A melanoma
d) A basal cell lesion
Question 32 2 / 2 points
Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?
Question options:
a) Telogen effluvium (TE)
b) Trichotillomania
c) Psoriasis
d) Alopecia areata
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain. He has no history of UTI. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made. Which is the appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day
b) Ice pack to the scrotal area
c) Saw palmetto 320 mg per day
d) All of the above
Question 34 2 / 2 points
A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine shows greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick is positive for nitrites. What is the probable diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Lower urinary tract infection
b) Chlamydia infection
c) Candidiasis
d) Pyelonephritis
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?
Question options:
a) Milk
b) Bananas
c) Soy sauce
d) All of the above
Question 36 2 / 2 points
An example of a primary skin lesion is a/an:
Question options:
a) Bulla
b) Scale
c) Excoriation
d) Fissure
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A 76-year-old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinician should explore which of these causes of incontinence in men?
Question options:
a) Urethral polyps
b) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
c) Anticholinergic medication
d) All of the above
Question 38 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?
Question options:
a) “Do you have a history of liver disease?”
b) “What medications are you currently taking?”
c) “Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?”
d) All of the above
Question 39 2 / 2 points
A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response?
Question options:
a) “There is no such thing as Stage D cancer.”
b) “You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue.”
c) “Your cancer has spread to other organs.”
d) “Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder.”
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?
Question options:
a) Warm sitz baths
b) Scrotal elevation
c) Masturbation
d) All of the above
Question 41 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?
Question options:
a) Hypertension
b) Constipation
c) Tubal ligation
d) Diabetes
Question 42 2 / 2 points
A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Psychogenic nocturia
b) Urethral polyp
c) Irritative posterior urethral lesion
d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Question 43 0 / 2 points
A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?
Question options:
a) Every month
b) Every 3 to 4 months
c) Every 6 to 12 months
d) Every year
Question 44 2 / 2 points
Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?
Question options:
a) Staphylococcal aureus
b) Clostridium perfringens
c) S. pyrogenes
d) Streptococcus
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation.There is some edema involved. You suspect:
Question options:
a) Necrotizing fasciitis
b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
c) Cellulitis
d) A diabetic ulcer
Question 46 2 / 2 points
Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?
Question options:
a) They have an increased number of melanocytes.
b) Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.
c) Their skin is thicker.
d) Their immune system is stronger.
Question 47 2 / 2 points
A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?
Question options:
a) Escherichia coli
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Chlamydia trachomatis
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Question 48 2 / 2 points
When instructing your elderly client about treating her xerosis, what do you tell her?
Question options:
a) A daily hot bath may help the associated pruritus.
b) Rub the skin briskly to make sure it is completely dry after bathing.
c) Only take short tepid showers.
d) Use a gel that is alcohol-based after bathing to soften the skin.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?
Question options:
a) Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.
b) Take Tums? for stomach upset.
c) Drink more black tea.
d) Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.
Question 50 2 / 2 points
The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?
Question options:
a) 3 to 7 days
b) 14 to 21 days
c) 3 to 6 weeks
d) 6 to 12 weeks
MN568 Unit 4 Exam
MN568 Unit 4 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?
Question options:
a) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.
b) Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,
c) He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.
d) All of the above
Question 2 2 / 2 points
A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?
Question options:
a) Very early
b) 3 to 4 hours after perforation
c) Late in inflammation
d) Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Gastroenteritis
b) Inflammatory bowel disease
c) Lactase deficiency
d) All of the above
Question 4 0 / 2 points
If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?
Question options:
a) Peptic ulcer
b) Hiatal hernia
c) Costochondritis
d) Pericarditis
Question 5 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?
Question options:
a) Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea
b) Wakens at night with diarrhea
c) History of international travel
d) All of the above
Question 6 2 / 2 points
In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?
Question options:
a) First-degree AV block
b) Second-degree Mobitz I AV block
c) Second-degree Mobitz II AV block
d) Third-degree AV block
Question 7 2 / 2 points
For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?
Question options:
a) 6 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 10 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?
Question options:
a) Malabsorption
b) Constipation
c) Rectal bleeding
d) Esophageal ulceration
Question 9 2 / 2 points
A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?
Question options:
a) CBC with differential
b) Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
c) Barium enema
d) Computed tomography of the abdomen
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?
Question options:
a) Greater than 30
b) Greater than 40
c) Greater than 50
d) Greater than 60
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea.Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary care physician (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Question options:
a) Feels relief after a bowel movement
b) Sometimes is constipated
c) Does not defecate in the middle of the night
d) All of the above
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?
Question options:
a) A physiologic split S2
b) A fixed split S2
c) S3
d) S4
Question 13 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?
Question options:
a) This is a premalignant tissue.
b) This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.
c) This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.
d) All of the above
Question 14 0 / 2 points
A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?
Question options:
a) Increased breakdown of red blood cells
b) Inadequate hepatocyte function
c) Biliary obstruction
d) All of the above
Question 15 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?
Question options:
a) B-type natriuretic peptide
b) C-reactive protein
c) Serum albumin
d) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Your patient with permanent afib asks when he can discontinue his warfarin. You tell him:
Question options:
a) When your internalized normalized ratio reaches 3.0, you can stop taking your warfarin permanently.
b) When you no longer feel ill
c) One month after your symptoms dissipate
d) You’ll probably be on it indefinitely.
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?
Question options:
a) Serum calcium
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
d) Complete blood cell count
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?
Question options:
a) It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.
b) Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.
c) It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.
d) None of the statements are true.
Question 19 2 / 2 points
A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be?
Question options:
a) Obtain a complete history.
b) Order a barium enema.
c) Schedule a Bernstein’s test.
d) Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical examination?
Question options:
a) Digital rectal exam
b) Pelvic exam
c) Sexual history
d) All of the above
Question 21 2 / 2 points
A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain particular with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely?
Question options:
a) Her age
b) Frequent constipation
c) Flatulence
d) Colicky abdominal pain
Question 22 2 / 2 points
Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?
Question options:
a) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.
b) One more dose of NTG may be tried.
c) The person should be given two aspirin to chew.
d) A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.
Question 23 2 / 2 points
A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain that is radiating to the middle of the back. The NP suspects acute cholelithiasis. The NP should expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Question options:
a) Decreased alanine aminotransferase and decreased aspartate aminotransferase
b) Elevated alkaline phosphatase
c) Elevated indirect bilirubin
d) Decreased white blood cells
Question 24 2 / 2 points
A patient is diagnosed with giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Question options:
a) Vancomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Metronidazole
d) Bactrim
Question 25 2 / 2 points
A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse.The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?
Question options:
a) Stool culture
b) Liver enzymes
c) Antihepatitis D virus
d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Statins are approved for which age group?
Question options:
a) Children over the age of 2
b) Children over the age of 6
c) Children over the age of 10
d) Only adolescents and adults
Question 27 2 / 2 points
When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke. Which hypertensive drug would you order for her?
Question options:
a) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
b) Calcium channel blocker
c) Angiotensin II receptor blocker
d) Beta blocker
Question 29 2 / 2 points
What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?
Question options:
a) Less than 0.25
b) Less than 0.50
c) Less than 0.90
d) Greater than 1
Question 30 2 / 2 points
Which group would most benefit from statins?
Question options:
a) Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL
b) Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease
c) Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%
d) Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours?
Question options:
a) Stable angina
b) Unstable angina
c) Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)
d) Probably not angina but hiatal hernia
Question 32 2 / 2 points
The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association states which of the following regarding the use of non-statin lipid-lowering agents?
Question options:
a) Nicotinic acid derivatives are effective for lowering LDL and triglycerides (TGs).
b) Bile acid sequestrates increase HDL.
c) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors decrease LDL.
d) There is no sufficient evidence to use non-statin lipid-drugs.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation.The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?
Question options:
a) Multivitamin
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Pepto-Bismol
d) Ibuprofen
Question 34 2 / 2 points
You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 year
Question 35 2 / 2 points
The patient with GERD should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities?
Question options:
a) Swimming
b) Weight lifting
c) Golfing
d) Walking
Question 36 2 / 2 points
A patient has acute pancreatitis with seven of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s criteria. In order to plan care, the NP must understand that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?
Question options:
a) A high mortality rate
b) An increased chance of recurrence
c) A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
d) All of the above
Question 37 2 / 2 points
A Delta wave on the ECG may be present in which condition?
Question options:
a) Prinzmetal’s angina
b) Bundle branch block
c) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
d) Aortic stenosis
Question 38 2 / 2 points
Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include:
Question options:
a) Maintaining a body mass index of 17
b) Restricting dietary sodium to 2 grams per day
c) Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day
d) Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day
Question 39 2 / 2 points
Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?
Question options:
a) Fleeting
b) Moving
c) Diffuse
d) Localized
Question 40 2 / 2 points
Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?
Question options:
a) T-wave inversion
b) ST-segment elevation
c) Significant Q wave
d) U-wave
Question 41 0 / 2 points
A 29-year-old Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?
Question options:
a) His gender
b) His age
c) His use of Alka-Seltzer
d) His ethnic origin
Question 42 2 / 2 points
Which murmurs are usually ‘watch and wait’?
Question options:
a) Systolic murmurs
b) Diastolic murmurs
c) They both are dangerous and need immediate attention.
d) You can ‘watch and wait’ for both of them.
Question 43 2 / 2 points
A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Endometriosis
b) Colon cancer
c) Diverticulitis
d) All of the above
Question 44 2 / 2 points
George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158. He is being treated for hypertension.You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?
Question options:
a) His age
b) His cholesterol level
c) His systolic BP
d) The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication
Question 45 2 / 2 points
The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?
Question options:
a) Use of NSAIDs
b) Cigarette smoker
c) Ethanol consumption
d) All of the above
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the‘A’ stands for:
Question options:
a) Anticoagulation
b) Autoimmune disease
c) Age
d) Antihypertension
Question 47 2 / 2 points
Jamie, age 55, has just started on a statin after having his liver function tests (LFTs) come back normal. He now asks you how often he has to have the LFTs repeated. What do you tell him?
Question options:
a) Initially in 6 weeks
b) Every 3 months
c) Every 6 months
d) It’s no longer necessary for his statin regimen.
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?
Question options:
a) Eliminate coffee.
b) Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.
c) Recline and rest after meals.
d) Limit the amount of antacids.
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:
Question options:
a) Severe asthma
b) A common valvular lesion
c) Severe hypertension
d) A prosthetic heart valve
Question 50 2 / 2 points
You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?
Question options:
a) Her waist is 36 inches.
b) Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.
c) Her BP is 128/84.
d) Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.
MN568 Unit 2 Exam
MN568 Unit 2 Exam latest 2017
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?
Question options:
a) 0 to 7 mm Hg
b) 8 to 21 mm Hg
c) 22 to 40 mm Hg
d) 40 to 80 mm Hg
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) COPD
Question 3 0 / 2 points
A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?
Question options:
a) The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b) The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c) Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d) Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.
Question 4 2 / 2 points
Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens?
Question options:
a) Coxsackievirus
b) Cytomegalovirus
c) Francisella tularensis
d) Group A streptococcus
Question 5 2 / 2 points
The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection?
Question options:
a) HSV type 2
b) HIV
c) Pneumonia
d) Syphilis
Question 6 0 / 2 points
Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:
Question options:
a) 0 to 5 mcg/mL
b) 5 to 10 mcg/mL
c) 5 to 15 mcg/mL
d) 10 to 20 mcg/mL
Question 7 0 / 2 points
African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroids
b) Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators
c) Leukotriene receptor agonists
d) Oral corticosteroids
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?
Question options:
a) The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.
b) Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.
c) Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.
d) Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?
Question options:
a) He should stop smoking today.
b) He should stop smoking tomorrow.
c) His quit date should be in 1 week.
d) He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.
Question 10 2 / 2 points
The forced vital capacity is decreased in:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Emphysema
d) Restrictive disease
Question 11 2 / 2 points
A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough. When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:
Question options:
a) Metoprolol
b) Clopidogrel
c) Tadalafil
d) Captopril
Question 12 0 / 2 points
You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b) “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c) “Drive to the emergency room now.”
d) “Call 911.”
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?
Question options:
a) Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.
b) Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.
c) Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.
d) There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.
Question 14 0 / 2 points
You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?
Question options:
a) Baker phenomenon
b) Arnold reflex
c) Cough reflex
d) Tragus reflex
Question 15 0 / 2 points
Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.
b) Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.
c) Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.
d) Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.
Question 16 2 / 2 points
Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis?
Question options:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?
Question options:
a) Glaucoma
b) Increased sperm quality
c) Bladder cancer
d) Eczema
Question 18 0 / 2 points
Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?
Question options:
a) African American men
b) Scandinavian men and women
c) Caucasian women
d) Asian men
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?
Question options:
a) The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.
b) Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum.
c) Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake.
d) Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy.
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Sinusitis
c) Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis
d) Influenza
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?
Question options:
a) Mild intermittent
b) Mild persistent
c) Moderate persistent
d) Severe persistent
Question 22 2 / 2 points
A chronic cough lasts longer than:
Question options:
a) 3 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 6 months
d) 8 weeks
Question 23 0 / 2 points
Severe pain associated with acute otitis media signifies perforation of the tympanic membrane.
Question options:
a) True
b) False.
Question 24 0 / 2 points
As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of ‘cotton wool’ spots can be detected. Cotton wool spots refer to:
Question options:
a) Nerve fiber layer infarctions
b) Blood vessel proliferation
c) Venous beading
d) Retinal hemorrhage
Question 25 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Increased white blood cells
c) Insulin resistance
d) Hyperactivity
Question 26 2 / 2 points
Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically. How do you instruct her to take them?
Question options:
a) Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.
b) Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.
c) Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.
d) Take them with food to prevent nausea.
Question 27 0 / 2 points
Sam, age 78, presents to the clinic with respiratory symptoms. His pulmonary function tests are as follows: a normal total lung capacity, a decreased PaO2, and an increased PaCO2. On assessment, you auscultate coarse crackles and forced expiratory wheezes. What is your diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Chronic bronchitis
d) Influenza
Question 28 0 / 2 points
Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?
Question options:
a) Nuclear cataracts
b) Cortical cataracts
c) Posterior cataracts
d) Immature cataracts
Question 29 0 / 2 points
Otitis media is considered chronic when:
Question options:
a) Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.
b) There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.
c) Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.
d) All of the above
Question 30 0 / 2 points
Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?
Question options:
a) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
b) Otosclerosis
c) Cholesteatoma
d) Presbycusis
Question 31 0 / 2 points
A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause?
Question options:
a) Gonorrhea
b) Mononucleosis
c) Influenza
d) Herpes zoster
Question 32 0 / 2 points
You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. Her score is 3. What should you do?
Question options:
a) Consider home treatment.
b) Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization.
c) Closely supervise her outpatient treatment.
d) Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:
Question options:
a) Pharyngitis
b) Allergies
c) Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)
d) Perforation of the eardrum
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
Question options:
a) Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b) Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c) If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d) All of the above
Question 35 2 / 2 points
Marci has been started on a tuberculosis (TB) regimen.Because isoniazid (INH) may cause peripheral neuropathy, you consider ordering which of the following drugs prophylactically?
Question options:
a) Pyridoxine
b) Thiamine
c) Probiotic
d) Phytonadione
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:
Question options:
a) Chronic coughing
b) Hyperinflation
c) Polycythemia
d) Pulmonary hypertension
Question 37 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?
Question options:
a) The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b) Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c) A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d) The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.
Question 38 0 / 2 points
Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?
Question options:
a) Fever
b) Headache
c) Exudative pharyngitis
d) Rhinorrhea
Question 39 0 / 2 points
Which statement about adenocarcinoma of the lung is accurate?
Question options:
a) It is the least common type of lung cancer, representing approximately 5% to 10% of cases.
b) It is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lungs in both sexes and in nonsmokers, representing 35% to 40% of all tumors.
c) It is more common in men than in women and occurs almost entirely in cigarette smokers.
d) It is aggressive, with rapid growth and early local and distant metastases via the lymphatic and blood vessels.
Question 40 0 / 2 points
A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain.On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition?
Question options:
a) Otitis media
b) Meniere’s disease
c) Tinnitus
d) Otitis externa
Question 41 2 / 2 points
Supplemental oxygen for how many hours per day has been shown to improve the mortality associated with COPD?
Question options:
a) 3 to 5 hours
b) 6 to 10 hours
c) 11 to 14 hours
d) 15 to 18 hours
Question 42 0 / 2 points
Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape?
Question options:
a) Pilocarpine
b) Timolol
c) Brinzolamide
d) Acetazolamide
Question 43 2 / 2 points
You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help. Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye. The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick. You:
Question options:
a) instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.
b) stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.
c) find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.
d) call 911.
Question 44 2 / 2 points
You have a patient who is a positive for Strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxacillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5 F in office). You also note significant adenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide:
Question options:
a) to refer the patient.
b) that he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic.
c) that his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed.
d) that he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection.
Question 45 2 / 2 points
Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis?
Question options:
a) Vasomotor rhinitis
b) Rhinitis medicamentosum
c) Atrophic rhinitis
d) Viral rhinitis
Question 46 2 / 2 points
In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?
Question options:
a) Recurrent sinusitis
b) Allergic sinusitis
c) Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy
d) All of the above
Question 47 0 / 2 points
The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?
Question options:
a) Weber test
b) Schwabach test
c) Rinne test
d) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
Question 48 0 / 2 points
Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than:
Question options:
a) 4 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 16 weeks
Question 49 2 / 2 points
Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:
Question options:
a) Fungi
b) Viruses
c) Gram-negative bacteria
d) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Question 50 2 / 2 points
Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma.What additional medication should she be taking?
Question options:
a) Inhaled corticosteroid
b) Leukotriene receptor antagonist
c) Systemic corticosteroid
d) Methyl xanthenes
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4
Question 1. Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall.
She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question.2 In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Rheumatoid arthritis
Sjögren’s syndrome
Question.3 Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a.Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b.Elevated T4
c.Elevated TRH
d.All of the above
Question.4 Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepinesb.
Antipsychoticsc.
Anticonvulsantsd.
Antidepressants
Question.5 When may confidentiality be overridden?
When personal information is available on the computer
When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene testX
When a patient has a communicable disease
Question.6 What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?
9%
18%
24%
36%
Question.7 The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
All of the above
Question.8 Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
Question.9 Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
Veracity
Question.10 George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?
a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever
Question.11 A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test.
Endometrial biopsy
Pelvic ultrasound
Platelet count
Question.12 Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question.13 During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
a. An enlarged rubbery gland
b. A hard irregular gland
c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question.14 Which drug commonly prescribed …. partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
Silver nitratex
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question.15 A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.
“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question.16 After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
Send her for acupuncture treatments
All of the above
Question.17 Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
Doxycycline
Question.18 Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
accidental.
caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
not attributed to any reason.
Question.19 Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?
Dilute povidone-iodine solutionx
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
Saline irrigation or soapy water
Question.20 A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
U waves
Question.21 What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
A pain that is worse upon awakening
A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question.22 Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
A 40-year-old African American male
A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question.23 If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
The area will be super sensitive.
The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question.24 The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?
Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
Compete eradication of the virus
Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
Complete abstinence
Question.25 The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
Morbid obesity
Question.26 The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question.27 In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensusx
Certification
Collaboration
Question.28 Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?
Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate painbut should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
All of the above
Question.29 Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
Superficial partial-thickness burns
Deep partial-thickness burns
Full-thickness burns
Question.30 CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and non physician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components. Which of the following are part of the components used to calculate the per CPT code payment rate?
a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated
Question.31 Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
x 20%
30%
50%
Question.32 A bulla is:
A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.
Question.33 Clinicians who learn how to code and document Evaluation and Management (E&M) and clinician services will be more successful in gaining timely payment for care delivery. Which or the following Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) practices are designed to financially penalize clinicians who do not bill according to CMS guidelines?
Audits and probes
Add-on codes
Modifier codes
HAC guidelines
Question 34. Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
Impaired attention
Affective changes
Delusions
Question.35 Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question.36 A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
All of the above
Question.37 When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question.38 Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?
Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
Identifying and managing complications of care
All of the above
Question.39 Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Question.40 Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
Topiramate
Question.41 A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Endometrial hyperplasia
Vagismus
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question. 42 How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
Every 6 months
Every 3 months
Every visit
Question.43 A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
Trichomonas
Bacterial vaginosis
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question.44 After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?
Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Normal TSH
Low TSH
Undetectable TSH
Question.45 The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:
Good liability insurance
A collaborating physician
Good documentation
Open communication skills
Question.46 The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
3 months.
6 months.
12 months.
Question. 47 What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
All of the above
Question. 48 Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Gastrocnemius weakness
A reduced or absent ankle reflex
Numbness in the lateral foot
Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question.49 Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
Anxiolytics
Antidepressants
Atypical antipsychotics
Question.50 Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
Hyperalbuminemia
Morning stiffness
Weight gain
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
NAPSRx Final Exam
NAPSRx Final Exam
1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?
A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action
B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects
C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects
D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness
2. Bone marrow transplants…
A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.
B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.
C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.
D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.
3. What does AMA stand for?
A. American Medical Academy
B. American Medical Accreditation
C. American Medical Association
D. Association of Medical Assistants
4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?
A. adverse reactions
B. contraindications
C. overdosage
D. warning/precautions
5 What is tertiary care?
A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect
B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems
C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility
D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?
A. brand personality
B. brand positoning
C. brand quality
D. brand values
7 What are vasodilators used to do?
A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow
B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system
C. narrow the blood vessels
D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster
8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?
A. homeostasis
B. steady state
C. titration
D. tolerance
9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?
A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.
B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.
C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.
D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.
10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?
A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies
B. the NIH
C. the U.S. Government
D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies
11. How are most drugs excreted?
A. via the bloodstream
B. via the heart
C. via the kidneys
D. via the skin
12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?
A. Limitations have decreased.
B. Limitations have increased significantly.
C. Limitations have increased slightly.
D. Limitations have remained about the same.
13. Answer: Branding name
14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?
A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.
B. Both drugs are generics.
C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.
D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.
15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?
A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs
B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives
C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives
D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives
16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:
A. MS
B. OH
C. SM
D. SS
17 What is an internist?
A. a physician who practices internal medicine
B. a physician’s intern
C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy
D. an internal sales representative
18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?
A. erythrocytes
B. insulin
C. Lymphocytes
D.HCs
19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?
A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry
B. to become more familiar with their territories
C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.
D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.
20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?
A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.
B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.
C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.
D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.
21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?
A. about 20%
B. about 60%
C. about 70%
D. about 95%
22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?
A. by borrowing them from hospitals
B. by ordering them over the Internet
C. by trading them for services
D. directly from sales representatives
23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?
A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.
B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.
C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.
D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.
24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?
A. cardiology
B. psychiatry
C. urology
D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.
25. What affects the rate of active transport?
A. the availability of carriers. but not energy
B. the availability of energy. but not carriers
C. the availability of carriers and energy
D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy
26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?
A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.
B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing
C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality
D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.
27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?
A. patients liking their providers
B. patients using only one pharmacist
C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs
D. support groups
28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the drug’s manufacturer
C. the FDA
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?
A. multipotent
B. pluripotent
C. totipotent
D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.
30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?
A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.
D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.
31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?
A. cardiac and smooth
B. only skeletal
C. skeletal and cardiac
D. skeletal and smooth
32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?
A. the cardiovascular system
B. the cellular system
C. the gastrointestinal system
D. the musculoskeletal system
33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?
A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues
B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence
C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues
D. through genetic mutation
34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?
A. AMA guide
B. Blue Book
C. FDA drug list
D. Orange Book
35. What does subcutaneous mean?
A. beneath the intervention
B. beneath the muscle tissue
C. beneath the outer skin
D. beneath the suture
36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?
A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet
B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet
C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet
D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way
37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.
A. pharmaceutical
B. positive
C. potent
D. primary
39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?
A. distributors and supply chains
B. pharmacists and NAMs
C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors
D. retailers and institutions
40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?
A. contraindicative indication
B. off-indication usage
C or D. off-label
41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?
A. KN
B. PC
C. PK
D. pT
42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.
B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.
C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.
D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.
44. What entity grants drug patents?
A. the FDA
B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription
C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter
D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office
45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?
A. formulation
B. mycoplasma
C. peptide
D. saccharide
46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?
A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.
B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.
C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.
D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.
47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?
A. a certification program
B. an associate’s degree
C. a bachelor’s degree
D. a graduate degree
48. How many names must a drug have?
A. at most three
B. at least three
C. at most five
D. at least five
49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?
Answer: Increasing the cost of capital
50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.
A. three
B. five
C. ten
D. fifteen
51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?
A. DEA
B. FTC
C. OIG
D.TSA
52. What is passive diffusion?
A. a type of pinocytosis
B. membrane transport via vesicles
C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one
D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one
53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?
A. active drugs and active placebos
B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals
C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals
D. prescription and non prescription
54. Answer: Oxytocin
55. What are all metabolites?
A. active substances
B. inactive substances
C. injections
D. products of metabolism
56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?
A. intestine
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. stomach
57. What is the medical term for swelling?
A. assay
B. edema
C. instillation
D. protease
58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?
A. be a consultant. not a rep
B. identify what your product does
C. reflect
D. visualize the power of 10
59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?
A. abstract
B. findings
C. letter to the editor
D . methods
60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?
A. animal lung extract
B. germicides
C. sympathomimetic drugs
D. theophylline
61. What does parenteral mean?
A. child prescriptions
B. injection
C. oral
D. tablet
62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?
A. adjuvant
B. indicated
C. ligase
D peptide
63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?
A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.
B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.
C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.
D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.
64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?
A. active transport
B. homeostasis
C. passive diffusion
D. pinocytosis
65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?
A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.
B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.
C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.
D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.
66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?
A. anatomy
B. antology
C. clinical pharmacology
D. pathology
67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?
A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable
B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality
C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices
D. that they receive too many drug samples
68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?
A. GPO
B. In-state wholesaler
C. PPO
D. RPO
69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?
A. large molecule
B. oligonucleotide
C. orgaanism
D. small molecule
70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?
A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.
B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.
C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.
D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.
71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?
A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products
B. repeating a question you already asked
C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room
D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.
72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?
A. dose-response relationship
B. margin of safety
C. the placebo effect
D. therapeutic window
73. What are excipients?
A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists
B. another term for generic equivalents
C. sites of action besides the target sites of action
D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation
74. What is another term for the AWP?
A. dock-to-dock price
B. float price
C. list price
D. non-stock price
75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?
A. to induce labor
B. to make the urine more alkaline
C. to supplement oral food intake
D. to treat hyperthyroidism
76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?
A. Canada
B. Japan
C. Spain
D. none of these
77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?
A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach
B. to minimize absorption by the intestine
C. to minimize nausea
D. to pass through the stomach more quickly
78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?
A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.
B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.
C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.
D. None of these
79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?
A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.
B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.
C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.
D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.
80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?
A. auscultation
B. cardioversion
C. catheterization
D. echocardiography
81. What do enteric coatings do?
A. facilitate vomiting
B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly
D. prevent dissolution in the stomach
82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account Managers do?
A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation
B. manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?
A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A. Phase I
B. Phase III
C Phase IV
D. Phase IX
86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?
A. preclinical
B. Phase I
C. Phase II
D. Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. Caterers
B. Pharcists
C. receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B. molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely
90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B. liposomes
C. naked DNA
D. viruses
91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A. margin fee
B. recharge
C. standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A. federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?
A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day
B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it
95. What is the average circulation time of blood?
A. about a minute
B. about 5 minutes
C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D. about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.
D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A. brokerages
B. buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D. physicians
98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?
A. a department in pharmaceutical companies
B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services
C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency
D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A. quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?
A. the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C. the United States Adopted Name Council
D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.
B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.
D. The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A. clinical research organization
B. investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A. chemical
B. generic
C. pharmaceutical
D. proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A. acceptable if only the physician attends
B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C. acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.
A. experiment
B. legislation
C. process
D. research
107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?
A. caliber
B. chronicity
C. indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D. proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A. diffusion
B. efficacy
C. protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?
A. Choice
B. cost
C. inquiries
D. safety
111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B. only if they have been contested
C. always
D never
112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?
A. preclinical trials
B. Phase II trials
C. Phase III trials
D. Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.
B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.
C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A. potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D. titration
115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?
A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?
A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A. adverse effects
B. mechanism of action
C. pharmacokinetics
D. the proprietary name and the established name
118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A. pharmacodynamics
B. pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C. likeability factor
D. power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?
A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.
B It inhibits the production of viruses.
C. It prevents proper DNA replication.
D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.
B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.
D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.
B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?
A. decrease risk of infection
B. increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D. treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?
A. antineoplastics
B. cardiovascular agents
C. CNS agents
D. mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?
A. en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D. intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?
A. $5-10 billion
B. $40-50 billion
C. $800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.
D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A. cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C. indicated tolerance
D. minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.
A. ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D. thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C. only under the original trade name
D. under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A. It causes no serious adverse effects.
B. It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C. pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A. alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D. pharmaceutical substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A. DE
B. ED
C. EFD
D. eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness
C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D. to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.
140. Where are most drugs metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C. stomach
D . the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.
C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.
D. all of these
142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?
A. Dear Personnel Department.
B. Dear Sir or Madam,
C. Dear Sir
D.To Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A. asking for feedback
B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C. keeping your market share goals the same each term
D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?
A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D. the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?
A. conditioning
B. deciling
C. detailing
D. private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?
A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B. It is a new drug.
C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.
A. binders
B. disintegrants
C. dispersing agents
D. lubricants
148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?
A. It educates patients on their treatment options.
B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.
D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of the central nervous system?
A. the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?
A. cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D. pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B. branded billboards and disease state ads
C. branded highway billboards
D. branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B. organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period
D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA
156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.homeostatic maximization
B.steady state administration
C.Sustained release
D.Titration
157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B. dose-response effects
C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?
A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist
B. another term for a generic prescription drug
C. another term for a prescription drug
D. another term for an OTC drug
160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?
A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle
B. only after the district’s sales representatives
C. only prior to launch
D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
a. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
a. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
a. Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
a. Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
a. Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
a. Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
a. Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
a. Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
a. Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
a. Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
a. Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
a. Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
a. Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
Walden NURS6501 Week 8
Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest
Question 1
A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:
a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred
Question 2
An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?
a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption
Question 3
In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:
a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.
Question 4
Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?
a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery
Question 5
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:
a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.
Question 6
A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Question 7
Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:
a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.
Question 8
A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:
a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions
Question 9
A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:
a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow
Question 10
Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?
a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic
Question 11
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?
a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids
Question 12
The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?
a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia
Question 13
The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:
a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis
Question 14
The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal
Question 15
A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:
a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux
Question 16
The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:
a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn
Question 17
A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:
a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose
Question 18
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:
a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.
Question 19
The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:
a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.
Question 20
A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:
a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility
Question 21
A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:
a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
Question 22
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:
a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus
Question 23
For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?
a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric
Question 24
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:
a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.
Question 25
A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:
a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation
Question 26
A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.
a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling
Question 27
Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:
a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.
Question 28
Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):
a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia
Question 29
The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:
a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding
Question 30
The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?
a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites
Question 31
A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.
a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic
Question 32
Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?
a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea
Question 33
A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia
Question 34
The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:
a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.
Question 35
Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender b
because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz
Question 1
A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?
K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2
A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?
Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3
For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:
Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?
Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin
Question 5
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6
A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?
Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma
Question 7
A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:
The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.
Question 8
A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?
Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response
Question 9
A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils
Question 10
While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:
1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3
Question 11
A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure
Question 12
A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?
Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 13
The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14
After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?
Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15
Thrombocytopenia may be:
Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16
A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?
Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils
Question 17
A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
Question 18
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?
Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?
Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
Question 20
A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:
Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue
Question 21
A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:
Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22
During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:
Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.
Question 23
How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?
Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.
Question 24
A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:
Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25
A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?
Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26
While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:
Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
Question 27
A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
Question 28
A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:
Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen
Question 29
A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:
Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response
Question 30
A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?
Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia
Question 31
A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?
Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets
Question 32
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:
Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33
In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:
Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae
Question 35
The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?
Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
PAD 599 Competency Assessment
Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1 A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is A.Antianxiety
B.Narcotic Analgesics
C.Barbituates
D.Antitussives
Question 2 A nurse has just completed a medication history on a newly admitted patient. In order to complete medication reconciliation for this patient the nurse will
A.Provide instructions pertaining to each medication the patient is currently taking and thenadd the medications ordered during the hospitalization.
B.compare the medications ordered by the health care provider with the list of medicationsobtained from the patient and communicate discrepancies to the health care provider.
C.explain to the patient the pharmacokinetics of each drug he will be taking in the hospital. D.determine the best pharmacy for the patient to buy his medications
Question 3 A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a
C-I drug.
C-II drug.
C-III drug.
C-IV drug
Question 4 A nurse works in a private hospital and needs to administer some narcotic drugs to one of her patients. Which of the following should the nurse consider when administering narcotics to patients in a hospital setting?
Narcotics are banned in private settings and cannot be used.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital after obtaining written approval from the Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospitals and Healthcare Organizations(JCAHO).
Narcotics to be used in the hospital are dispensed only with a written prescription.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital according to patient preferences
Question 5 Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for abuse, both psychological and physiologic. In an emergency, a Schedule 2 drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within 72 hours with the words authorization for emergency dispensing written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates. This is scheduled drug
A.Schedule 1
B.Schedule 2
C.Schedule 3
D.Schedule 4
Question 6 A nurse receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The nurse begins the process by
A.washing his or her hands before handling the medications.
B.consulting a drug guide for compatibility.
C.identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient to state his name.
D.questioning the patient concerning allergies.
Question 7 A nurse working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the nurse be responsible for during this stage of drug development?
Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, whohave the disease that the drug is meant to treat
Administering investigational drugs to patients
Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occurfrom taking an experimental drug
Question 8 Federal legislation dictates a lengthy and rigorous process of testing for new drugs. What is the primary purpose of this testing process?
To protect state and federal departments from legal liability
To maximize autonomy and treatment options for citizens
To facilitate the efficiency of health care delivery
To ensure the safety of the public
Question 9 These drugs have a potential for abuse, but the potential is lower than for drugs on Schedule 2. These drugs contain a combination of controlled and noncontrolled substances. Use of these drugs can cause a moderate to low physiologic dependence and a higher psychological dependence. A verbal order can be given to the pharmacy and the prescription can be refilled up to five times within 6 months. Examples include certain narcotics (codeine) and nonbarbiturate sedatives. This is scheduled drug
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 5
Schedule 2
Question 10 Which of the following patients should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine?
A 47-year-old female with hypertension
A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes
A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection
A 62-year-old male with gout
Question 11 Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use.They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this?
Schedule 1
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Question 12 A patient has taken an overdose of a vitamin/mineral supplement containing magnesium. The nurse will be sure to assess
blood pressure.
body temperature.
fluid intake.
skin changes
Question 13 A nurse practitioner understands when prescribing a medication that there are certain questions to address. Check all that apply.
A.Is there a need for the drug in treating the presenting problem?
B.Is this the best drug for the presenting problem?
C.Can the patient take the prescribed drug?
None of the above
Question 14 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient of Chinese origin who has bipolar disorder. The physician has prescribed lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat the disorder. The nurse is aware that the lithium dose will likely be given in a
higher-than-normal dose.
weight-based protocol dose.
lower-than-normal dose.
child’s dose
Question 15 The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml tid for 10 days? The nurse practitioner would expect the pharmacist to fill the prescription bottle with how many ml?
50 ml
100 ml
120 ml
150 ml
Question 16 A patient will begin three new medications as part of her treatment plan. The nurse practitioner understands that proper disposal of medications is key when the nurse practitioner states
Many medications can be potentially harmful if taken by someone other than the person the medication was prescribed.
Consult with several pharmacists to determine the cost of each drug.
educate the patient to discard syringes in recycle bin
consult with the physician concerning choice of medications for the patient.
Question 17 A nurse is providing a patient with a list of drugs as a part of the patient’s plan of care. Which of the following drug nomenclatures should the nurse use to list the drugs?
The drugs’ chemical names
The drugs’ generic names
The drugs’ trade names
The drugs’ biologic names
Question 18 A nurse is providing care for a 71-year-old woman who was sponsored to emigrate from Mexico to the United States 6 months ago. Earlier this week, the woman slipped while getting off a bus and fractured her hip. How should the woman’s nurse best exemplify cultural competence in the care of this patient?
Ensure that the woman receives care solely from Spanish-speaking caregivers.
Consider dimensions of the woman’s cultural background when planning care.
Integrate teaching about American culture when interacting with the patient.
Address the woman’s children first when explaining her care and changes in her health status.
Question 19 Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents?
American Pharmaceutical Association
United States Adopted Names Council
Nursing drug guides
Federal legislation
Question 20 A nurse is admitting a Mexican woman to the hospital who cannot speak or understand English. The patient is alone, and there is no interpreter available. When trying to communicate with the patient the nurse will
Speak loudly
Exaggerate her mouth movements
Use nonverbal language
Speak fast
Question 21 A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal?
National Provider Identification (NPI)
B.Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
C.Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)
D.None of the above
Question 22 A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe’s medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse’s response to this request should be
“I’m sorry, but that will not be possible.”
“I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.”
“As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient’s preoperative care, it will be okay.”
“I don’t think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual.”
Question 23 A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that
under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription.
drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves.
she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.
Question 24 A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive
a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
Question 25 A nurse is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called
pharmacotherapeutics.
pharmacodynamics.
pharmacoeconomics.
pharmacogenomics
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
Community Health Project
Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.
In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:
Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.
APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
NUR6550 Final Exam
NUR6550 Final Exam
The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?
Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?
Nephrotic syndrome
Decompensated congestive heart failure
Cirrhosis
Renal failure
Deep venous thrombosis
Late-stage pregnancy
All of the above
Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.
Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?
A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border
A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border
A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line
The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.
True
False
Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:
Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL
Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
Symbol Unclassified
All of the above
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
Myocardial infarction
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Supraventricular tachycardia
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)
ACE inhibitors
Induction if stable
Emergent cesarean section if unstable
Digoxin
Nitroglycerin
What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?
Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation
Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi
Acute pulmonary edema
Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.
True
False
A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?
Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)
Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )
Almotriptan (Axert ® )
Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )
You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:
Drug-related reaction.
Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.
Early sign of dementia.
Normal age-related change in hearing
While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?
Nitrites
30 mg/dL protein
Epithelial cells
pH>8
All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:
Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.
Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.
Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.
Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.
A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?
Usually obliterates S2.
Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.
Occurs late in systole.
Has localized area of auscultation
You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:
Pressure ulcer
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Venous ulcer
Arterial ulcer
You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.
Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.
Checking her blood pressure.
Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.
A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:
Migraine with aura.
Cluster headache.
Transient ischemic attack.
Tension-type headache.
You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:
Early systole.
Late systole.
Early diastole.
Late diastole.
32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:
Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel
When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:
The likelihood of polypharmacy.
Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.
An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.
Presence of comorbid conditions.
When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.
A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.
A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.
A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.
A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.
The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:
Duty of care.
Non-malfeasance.
Autonomy.
Scope of practice.
When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?
A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).
A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.
A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.
A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.
The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary syphilis.
Secondary syphilis.
Genital herpes.
Gonorrhea.
A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:
Testicular torsion.
Syphilis.
Varicocele.
Testicular cancer.
An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):
Continuous pulse oximetry reading
Peak expiratory flow reading
Chest X-ray
Arterial Blood Gas
A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?
T wave inversion.
Pathologic Q wave.
ST segment elevation.
Tall R wave.
A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?
Sotalol (Betapace ® )
Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )
Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )
Enalapri
A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?
Occurs late in systole.
Widely split S?.
Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.
Murmur follows mid-systolic click.
You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Impetigo.
Herpes zoster.
Drug-related adverse reaction.
Viral exanthem.
An NP’s duty of care can be established:
Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).
When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.
Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.
Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.
In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?
Warfarin (Coumadin®)
Clopidogrel (Plavix®)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)
Unfractionated heparin
An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:
2 sets of blood cultures.
Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.
Urinalysis.
Lumbar puncture.
A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?
Neutrophilia with reactive forms.
Thrombocytosis.
Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.
Diminished ALT/AST levels.
“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:
Office visits.
Hospital.
Nursing home.
Home visits.
A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?
≤ 6.5%
≤ 7.0%
≤ 8.0%
≤ 9.0%
You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:
Dementia.
Depression.
Delirium.
Drug interaction.
You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Beta-adrenergic antagonist
A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:
Parkinson’s disease.
Delirium.
Dementia.
Early stage of congestive heart failure.
Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:
1
2
3
4
Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?
A randomized controlled trial.
Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.
Observational study.
Cohort study.
A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:
-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL
-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)
-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL
-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)
These findings are most consistent with:
Iron deficiency anemia.
Anemia of chronic disease.
Folate deficiency anemia.
Thalassemia trait.
You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?
Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )
Citalopram (Celexa ® )
Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )
Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )
All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:
A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.
A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.
A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.
A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:
Testimony from a family member or close friend
A living will.
A “do not resuscitate” order.
A durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?
Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.
Non-randomized controlled study.
Observational study.
Case-control study.
Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium
Pathologic Q wave
Tall R wave
T wave inversion
ST segment elevation
Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?
A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.
A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.
Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.
Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.
The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?
Oxygen therapy.
Beta-adrenergic blockade.
Tricyclic antidepressant.
Dietary reduction of amines.
All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:
The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.
The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.
Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.
A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
Medium-dose ICS
Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)
High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )
A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:
Serum uric acid.
Joint X-ray.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?
Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).
Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).
Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).
Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the pain associated with osteoarthritis?
Constant, burning, and throbbing with an acute onset
Dull and primarily affected by exposure to cold and barometric pressure
Begins upon arising and after prolonged weight bearing and/or use of the joint
Begins in the morning and limits continued ambulation
Question 2. Your 63-year-old Caucasian woman with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) will begin treatment with corticosteroids until the condition has resolved. You look over her records and it has been 2 years since her last physical examination and any laboratory or diagnostic tests as she relocated and had not yet identified a health-care provider. In prioritizing your management plan, your first orders should include:
Recommending she increase her dietary intake of Calcium and Vitamin D
Ordering once a year bisphosphonate and a proton pump inhibitor
Participate in a fall prevention program
Dual-energy X-ray (DEXA) scan and updating immunizations
Question 3. In providing health teaching related to dietary restrictions, the nurse practitioner should advise a patient with gout to avoid which of the following dietary items:
Green leafy vegetables
Beer, sausage, fried seafood
Sugar
Gluten and bread items
Question 4. A 33-year-old female reports general malaise, fatigue, stiffness, and pain in multiple joints of the body. There is no history of systemic disease and no history of trauma. On physical examination, the patient has no swelling or decreased range of motion in any of the joints. She indicates specific points on the neck and shoulders that are particularly affected. She complains of tenderness upon palpation of the neck, both shoulders, hips, and medial regions of the knees. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential diagnoses:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Fibromyalgia
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Question 5. A 46-year-old female complains of fatigue, general malaise, and pain and swelling in her hands that has gradually worsened over the last few weeks. She reports that pain, stiffness, and swelling of her hands are most severe in the morning. On physical examination, you note swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. These are common signs of:
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Scleroderma
Sarcoidosis
Question 6. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is true?
It affects primarily weight-bearing joints
It is a systemic inflammatory illness
The metacarpal phalangeal joints are commonly involved
Prolonged morning stiffness is common
Question 7. The most appropriate first-line treatment for an acute gout flare is (assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk):
Indomethacin 50 mg thrice daily for 2 days; then 25 mg thrice daily for 3 days
Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 5 days
Prednisolone 35 mg four times a day for 5 days
Ice therapy
Question 8. A 34-year-old female presents with fever, general malaise, fatigue, arthralgias and rash for the last 2 weeks. On physical examination, you note facial erythema across the nose and cheeks. Serum diagnostic tests reveal positive antinuclear antibodies, anti-DNA antibodies, elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential problems:
Fibromyalgia
Sarcoidosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 9. Your 66-year-old male patient has recently started treatment for metabolic syndrome and is currently taking the following medications: an ACE inhibitor and beta blocker for treatment of hypertension. He is also taking a statin medication, simvastatin for hyperlipidemia, and a biguanide, metformin, for type 2 diabetes. The patient complains of myalgias of the legs bilaterally and blood work shows elevated serum creatine kinase. Which of the medications can cause such a side effect?
Beta blocker
ACE inhibitor
Statin medication
Metformin
Question 10. A 20-year-old male construction worker is experiencing new onset of knee pain. He complains of right knee pain when kneeling, squatting, or walking up and down stairs. On physical examination, there is swelling and crepitus of the right knee and obvious pain with resisted range of motion of the knee. He is unable to squat due to pain. Which of the following disorders should be considered in the differential diagnosis?
Joint infection
Chondromalacia patella
Prepatellar bursitis
All of the above
Question 11. A 17-year-old male complains of severe right knee pain. He was playing football when he heard a “pop” at the moment of being tackled and his knee “gave away” from under him. On physical examination, there is right knee swelling and decreased range of motion. There is a positive anterior drawer sign. These findings indicate:
Knee ligament injury
Osgood-Schlatter disease
Prepatellar bursitis
Chondromalacia patella
Question 12. A 55-year-old patient complains of lower back pain due to heavy lifting at work yesterday. He reports weakness of the left leg and paresthesias in the left foot. On physical examination, the patient has diminished ability to dorsiflex the left ankle. Which of the following symptoms should prompt the clinician to make immediate referral to a neurosurgeon?
Straight leg raising sign
Lumbar herniated disc on X-ray
Loss of left sided patellar reflex
Urinary incontinence
Question 13. Your patient is a 43-year-old female golfer who complains of arm pain. On physical examination, there is point tenderness on the elbow and pain when the patient is asked to flex the wrist against the clinician’s resistance. These are typical signs of:
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Osteoarthritis of the wrist
Epicondylitis
Cervical osteoarthritis
Question 14. Which of the following describes the pathology of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?
Irritation of a tendon located on the radial side of the wrist, near the thumb
Impingement of the median nerve, causing pain in the palm and fingers
Fluid-filled cyst that typically develops adjacent to a tendon sheath in the wrist
Ulnar nerve compression at the olecranon process
Question 15. What is the most common cause of hip pain in older adults?
Osteoporosis
Osteoarthritis
Trauma due to fall
Trochanteric bursitis
Question 16. A 43-year-old female was in a bicycling accident and complains of severe pain of the right foot. The patient limps into the emergency room. On physical examination, there is no point tenderness over the medial or lateral ankle malleolus. There is no foot tenderness except at the base of the fifth metatarsal bone. According to the Ottawa foot rules, should an X-ray of the feet be ordered?
Yes, there is tenderness over the fifth metatarsal
No, there is not tenderness over the navicular bone
Yes, the patient cannot bear weight on the foot
A and C
Question 17. 38-year-old Asian male, Mr. Chen, with past medical history significant for prehypertension who has recently taken up softball presents with three to five weeks of shoulder pain when throwing overhead. Ice minimally alleviates pain. Medications: Naproxen minimally alleviates shoulder pain. Allergies: Penicillin-associated rash. Family history: Brother has rheumatoid arthritis.
Which of the following musculoskeletal causes of shoulder pain would merit urgent diagnosis and management?
Adhesive capsulitis
Septic subacromial bursitis
Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon
Calcific tendinopathy
Question 18. If Mr. Chen had restricted passive as well as active ROM of the shoulder, what problems involving the shoulder might you consider?
Adhesive capsulitis
Rotator cuff tear
Tendinopathy of the long head of the biceps
Rotator cuff impingment
Question 19. What is the essential dynamic stabilizer of the shoulder joint?
Labrum
Rotator muscle group
Glenohumeral ligaments
Teres major muscle
Question 20. Given Mr. Chen’s repetitive overhead activities, some injury to his rotator cuff muscle group is most likely. Of the following exam findings, which one would not support the diagnosis of rotator cuff tendinopathy?
Positive Apley’s Scratch test
Weakness and pain with empty can testing
Limited active ROM
Inability to raise arm above his head
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.When a patient presents with a skin-related complaint, it is important to first:
Fully inspect all skin lesions before asking the patient how the lesion in question developed
Obtain a full history about the development of the skin lesion prior to the physical examination
Complete a full physical examination of the body prior to inspecting the skin lesion
Examine the skin lesion without hearing a health history in order to not prejudice the diagnosis
Question 2. Which of the following dermatological conditions results from reactivation of the dormant varicella virus?
Tinea versicolor
Seborrheic keratosis
Verruca
Herpes zoster
Question 3. An older adult male presents with pain in his right chest wall for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notices a vesicular eruption along the dermatome and identifies this as herpes zoster. The NP informs the gentleman that:
All symptoms should disappear within three days
Oral medications can dramatically reduce the duration and intensity of his symptoms
He has chickenpox and can be contagious to his grandchildren
He has a sexually transmitted disease
Question 4. A 70-year-old white male comes to the clinic with a slightly raised, scaly, pink, and irregular lesion on his scalp. He is a farmer and works outside all day. You suspect actinic keratosis, but cannot rule out other lesions. What recommendation would you give him?
Ignore the lesion, as it is associated with aging.
Instruct him to use a nonprescription hydrocortisone cream to dry up the lesion.
Perform a biopsy or refer to a dermatologist.
Advise him to use a dandruff shampoo and return in one month if the lesion has not gone away.
Question 5. The appearance of a 2-10 cm. herald patch with subsequent development of parallel oval lesions on the trunk in a christmas tree distribution involving the upper arms and upper legs are common in:
Pityriasis Rosea
Shingles
Psoriasis
Lymes Disease
Question 6. Mr. Fitzgerald is a 68-year-old previously healthy man with a history of significant sun exposure who presents with a progressively enlarging 18 x 16 mm erythematous pruritic oval patch on his left forearm that has been present for three to four years. Your differential would include all of the following EXCEPT:
Fungal skin infection
Eczema
Seborrheic Keratosis
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
Question 7. What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus?
Scales
Vesicles
Plaques
Urticaria
Question 8. Among the following conditions, which needs to be treated with systemic antifungal agents?
Tinea pedis/tinea magnum
Tinea corporis/tinea cruris
Tinea capitis/Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)
Tinea pedis /tinea faciale
Question 9. Which lesions are typically located along the distribution of dermatome?
Scabies
Herpes zoster
Tinea
Dyshidrosis
Question 10. A smooth round nodule with a pearly gray border and central induration best describes which skin lesion?
Seborrheic keratosis
Malignant melanoma
Herpes zoster
Basal cell carcinoma
Question 11. Cellulitis is a deep skin infection involving the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. The nurse practitioner suspects cellulitis in a 70-year-old Asian diabetic male presenting with reddened edematous skin around his nares. Which statement below will the nurse practitioner use in her decision-making process for the differential diagnosis pertaining to reddened edematous skin?
Cellulitis is two times more common in women
Facial cellulitis is more common in people >55
There is low incidence of cellulitis in patients with diabetes
Cellulitis is only a disease of the lower extremities of patients with known arterial insufficiency
Question 12. Folliculitis is most commonly due to:
Contact dermatitis
Varicella zoster
Dermatophytes
Staphylococcal infection
Question 13. The anti-inflammatory properties of topical corticosteroids result in part from their ability to induce vasoconstriction to the small blood vessels in the upper dermis. Of the following, which is the most potent topical corticosteroid?
Hydrocortisone 2.5%
Triamcinolone acetonide 0.1%
Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05%
Alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%
Question 14. Which of the following descriptions accurately documents cellulitis?
Cool, erythematous, shiny hairless extremity with decreased pulse
Scattered, erythematous ring-like lesions with clear centers
Clearly demarcated, raised erythematous area of face
Diffusely inflamed skin that is warm and tender to palpation
Question 15. Asymmetrical bi-color lesion with irregular border measuring 8 mm is found on the right lower arm of an adult patient. This assessment finding is consistent with:
Melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Leukoplakia
Senile lentigines
Question 16. Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?
Circular erythematous patches with papular, scaly annular borders and clear discharge
Inflamed scaly dry patches with broken hairs
Web lesions with erythema and scaling borders
Scaly pruritic erythematous lesions on inguinal creases
Question 17. A patient has a tender, firm, nodular cystic lesion on his scalp that produces cheesy discharge with foul odor. This is most likely a:
Bacterial folliculitis
Basal cell carcinoma
Bullous impetigo
Epidermoid cyst
Question 18. Patient presents with complaint of a “swollen node” under his arm. The area is tender and the node has progressed in size over the past few days. Which of the following should be included in your differential diagnosis?
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Epidermoid cyst
Furuncle
Both A and C
Question 19. A patient suffered a laceration of the shin three days ago, and today presents with a painful, warm, red swollen region around the area. The laceration has a purulent exudate. The clinician should recognize that the infected region is called:
Contact dermatitis
Folliculitis
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Cellulitis
Question 20. A woman complains of malaise and arthralgias. You note a butterfly-shaped, macular, erythematous rash across her cheeks and nose. These conditions are common in:
Psoriasis
Lichen planus
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Erythema nodosum
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz
NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1.Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
Asians
Hispanics
African Americans
American Indians
Question 2.Men with an initial PSA level below 2.5 ng/ml can reduce their screening frequency to what intervals?
Every 6 months
Yearly
Every 2 years
Every 2 to 4 years
Question 3. Your 55-year-old male patient presents to your office with complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal inflammation. A urine sample reveals hematuria and crystalluria. Which is the next diagnostic test that should be done immediately?
Ultrasound of the abdomen
Abdominal X-ray
Digital rectal examination
Spiral CT scan
Question 4. The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a ureteral calculus is:
Ureteral rupture
Hydronephrosis
Kidney mass
Renal artery stenosis
Question 5. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Nephrolithiasis
Hydronephrosis
Pyelonephritis
Question 6. On a physical examination for employment, a 45-year-old male shows no significant findings and takes no medications. Past medical history and surgery are unremarkable. On urinalysis, hematuria is present. The urinalysis is repeated on another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria. It is important to recognize that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:
Urinary tract infection
Bladder cancer
Nephrolithiasis
Pyelonephritis
Question 7. On DRE, you note that a 45-year-old patient has a firm, smooth, non-tender but asymmetrically shaped prostate. The patient has no symptoms and has a normal urinalysis. The patient’s PSA is within normal limits for the patient’s age. The clinician should:
Refer the patient for transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy
Obtain an abdominal X-ray of kidneys, ureter, and bladder
Recognize this as a normal finding that requires periodic follow up
Obtain urine culture and sensitivity for prostatitis
Question 8. Age-related changes in the bladder, urethra, and ureters include all of the following in older women except:
Increased estrogen production’s influence on the bladder and ureter
Decline in bladder outlet function
Decline in ureteral resistance pressure
Laxity of the pelvic muscle
Question 9. Mr. Jones is a 68-year-old retired Air Force pilot that has been diagnosed with prostate cancer in the past week. He has never had a surgical procedure in his life and seeks clarification on the availability of treatments for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse practitioner to tell him the side effects of a radical prostatectomy. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of this procedure?
Urinary incontinence
Impotence
Dribbling urine
Selected low back pain
Question 10. Your 77-year-old patient complains of frequent urination, hesitation in getting the stream started, and nocturnal frequency of urination that is bothersome. On DRE, there is an enlarged, firm, non-tender, smooth prostate. The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Question 11. Your 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria as well as frequency and urgency of urination that develops the day after she uses her diaphragm. Urine culture reveals a bacterial count of 100 CFU/mL. These signs and symptoms indicate:
Upper urinary tract infection
Normal bacteriuria
Lower urinary tract infection
Urethritis
Question 12. A 79-year-old man is being evaluated for frequent urinary dribbling without burning. Physical examination reveals a smooth but slightly enlarged prostate gland. His PSA level is 3.3 ng/ml. The patient undergoes formal urodynamic studies, and findings are as follows: a decreased bladder capacity of 370 ml; a few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246 mL; an increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225 ml; and a slightly decreased urinary flow rate. Which of the following is not consistent with a normal age-associated change?
PSA level of 3.3 ng/ml
Decreased bladder capacity
Involuntary detrusor contradictions
Increased postvoid residual urine volume
Question 13. Mrs. L. Billings is a 77-year-old Caucasian female who has a history of breast cancer. She has been in remission for 6 years. As her primary care provider, you are seeing her for follow-up of her recent complaint of intermittent abdominal pain of a 3-month duration and some general malaise. Given the brief history above, what will you direct your assessment at during physical examination?
Examination of her thyroid to rule out thyroid nodules that may contribute to her feeling fatigued.
Auscultation of her abdomen for abnormal bowel sounds to rule out peritonitis.
Thorough abdominal and gynecological exam to rule out masses and identify any tenderness.
A rectal examination to rule out colon cancer as a secondary site for breast cancer.
Question 14. A 27-year-old male comes in to the clinic for symptoms of dysuria, urinary frequency, as well as urgency and perineal pain. Transrectal palpation of the prostate reveals a very tender, boggy, swollen prostate. The clinician should recognize these as signs of:
Prostatitis
Prostate cancer
Urethritis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Question 15. Which of the following males would be at greatest risk for testicular cancer?
John, a 52-year-old, married African American Attorney who lives in Detroit, MI
Jacob, a 22-year-old, homosexual male, who works as an accountant, resides in Cumming GA, and has a history of cryptorchidism
Andy, a 27-year-old, Caucasian, single male who resides in Waukesha, WI and works as a maintenance mechanic
Ryan, a 34-year-old healthy, married man from Sweden, who works as a Registered Nurse in Boston, MA
Question 16. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:
Lower urinary tract infection
Pyelonephritis
Nephrolithiasis
Hydonephrosis
Question 17. Which of the following disorders can cause urinary incontinence?
Cystocele
Overactive bladder
Uterine prolapse
All of the above
Question 18. Your 18 year old sexually active patient presents with sudden right sided groin pain that is sharp and constant. Inspection of his genitals reveals a swollen and erythematous right scrotum. His right testicle is exquisitely tender, swollen and has no palpable masses. Elevation of the testis results in no reduction in pain. The left scrotum and the testicle are normal. Epididymis and other scrotal contents were within normal limits. The scrotum does not transilluminate. Cremasteric reflex is present on the left side but absent on the right. There is no penile discharge, inguinal lymphadenopathy, or hernias.
Based on the history and physical exam your immediate concern is for:
Torsion
Infection
Cancer
Rupture
Question 19. The Prehn sign is utilized to distinguish epididymitis from testicular torsion. Epididymitis is considered when the Prehn sign is positive. When is the Prehn sign determined to be positive?
Pain is relieved by lifting of the testicle.
Tenderness is limited to the upper pole of the testis.
Lightly stroking or pinching the superior medial aspect of the thigh causes testicular retraction.
A small bluish discoloration is visible through the skin in the upper pole.
Question 20. Which of the following exam findings makes the diagnosis of testicular tumor more likely?
A scrotal mass that is accompanied by exquisite tenderness.
Testicular swelling is mostly fluid and transilluminates easily
A testicular mass that is non-tender to palpation
Dilated and tortuous veins in the pampiniform plexus
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz
NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz Latest 2017
Question 1: Which of the following symptoms is common with acute otitis media?
Bulging tympanic membrane
Bright light reflex of tympanic membrane
Increased tympanic membrane mobility
All of the above
Question 2. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 3. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; one from each parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 4. A 56-year-old male complains of anorexia, changes in bowel habits, extreme fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. At times he is constipated and other times he has episodes of diarrhea. His physical examination is unremarkable. It is important for the clinician to recognize the importance of:
CBC with differential
Stool culture and sensitivity
Abdominal X-ray
Colonoscopy
Question 5. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 6. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fracture
Question 7. An 82-year-old female presents to the emergency department with epigastric pain and weakness. She admits to having dark, tarry stools for the last few days. She reports a long history of pain due to osteoarthritis. She self-medicates daily with ibuprofen, naprosyn, and aspirin for joint pain. On physical examination, she has orthostatic hypotension and pallor. Fecal occult blood test is positive. A likely etiology of the patient’s problem is:
Mallory-Weiss tear
Esophageal varices
Gastric ulcer
Question 1. Susan P., a 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history, presents to your primary care practice for evaluation of a persistent, daily cough with increased sputum production, worse in the morning, occurring over the past three months. She tells you, “I have the same thing, year after year.” Which of the following choices would you consider strongly in your critical thinking process?
Seasonal allergies
Acute bronchitis
Bronchial asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Question 2. A patient presents complaining of a 5 day history of upper respiratory symptoms including nasal congestion and drainage. On the day the symptoms began he had a low-grade fever that has now resolved. His nasal congestion persisted and he has had yellow nasal drainage for three days associated with mild headaches. On exam he is afebrile and in no distress. Examination of his tympanic membranes and throat are normal. Examination of his nose is unremarkable although a slight yellowish-clear drainage is noted. There is tenderness when you lightly percuss his maxillary sinus. What would your treatment plan for this patient be?
Observation and reassurance
Treatment with an antibiotic such as amoxicillin
Treatment with an antibiotic such as a fluoroquinoline or amoxicillin-clavulanate
Combination of a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and a long acting beta2 agonist inhaler.
Question 3.Emphysematous changes in the lungs produce the following characteristic in COPD patients?
Asymmetric chest expansion
Increased lateral diameter
Increased anterior-posterior diameter
Pectus excavatum
Question 4. When palpating the posterior chest, the clinician notes increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe. This can be indicative of pneumonia. Areas of increased fremitus should raise the suspicion of conditions resulting in increased solidity or consolidation in the underlying lung tissue, such as in pneumonia, tumor, or pulmonary fibrosis. In the instance of an extensive bronchial obstruction:
No palpable vibration is felt
Decreased fremitus is felt
Increased fremitus is felt
Vibration is referred to the non-obstructed lobe
Question 5. Your patient presents with complaint of persistent cough. After you have finished obtaining the History of Present Illness, you realize that the patient may be having episodes of wheezing, in addition to his cough. The most common cause of cough with wheezing is asthma. What of the following physical exam findings will support your tentative diagnosis of asthma?
Clear, watery nasal drainage with nasal turbinate swelling
Pharyngeal exudate and lymphadenopathy
Clubbing, cyanosis and edema.
Diminished lung sounds with rales in both bases
Question 6.Which of the following imaging studies should be considered if a pulmonary malignancy is suspected?
Computed tomography (CT) scan
Chest X-ray with PA, lateral, and lordotic views
Ultrasound
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
Question 7. A 26-year-old, non-smoker, male presented to your clinic with SOB with exertion. This could be due to:
Exercise-induced cough
Bronchiectasis
Alpha-1 deficiency
Pericarditis
Question 8. Upon assessment of respiratory excursion, the clinician notes asymmetric expansion of the chest. One side expands greater than the other. This could be due to:
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
Pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Question 9. A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner.Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath, with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely?
Pulmonary edema
Heart failure
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia
Question 10. A cough is described as chronic if it has been present for:
2 weeks or more
8 weeks or more
3 months or more
6 months or more
Question 11. Testing is necessary for the diagnosis of asthma because history and physical are not reliable means of excluding other diagnoses or determining the extent of lung impairment. What is the study that is used to evaluate upper respiratory symptoms with new onset wheeze?
Chest X-ray
Methacholine challenge test
Spirometry, both with and without bronchodilation
Ventilation/perfusion scan
Question 12. In classifying the severity of your patient presenting with an acute exacerbation of asthma. You determine that they have moderate persistent symptoms based on the report of symptoms and spirometry readings of the last 3 weeks. The findings that support moderate persistent symptoms include:
Symptoms daily with nighttime awakening more than 1 time a week. FEV1 >60%, but predicted <80%. FEV1/FVC reduced 5%
Symptoms less than twice a week and less than twice a week nighttime awakening. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms more than 2 days a week, but not daily. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times a month. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal
Symptoms throughout the day with nighttime awakenings every night. FEV1< 60% predicted. FEV1/FVC reduced >5%
Question 13. The following criterion is considered a positive finding when determining whether a patient with asthma can be safely monitored and treated at home:
Age over 40
Fever greater than 101
Tachypnea greater than 30 breaths/minute
Productive cough
Question 14. Medications are chosen based on the severity of asthma. Considering the patient that is diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma, the preferred option for maintenance medication is:
High-dose inhaled corticosteroid and leukotriene receptor antagonist
Oral corticosteroid—high and low dose as appropriate
Short acting beta2 agonist inhaler and theophylline
Low dose inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta2 agonist inhaler
Question 15. A 75-year-old patient with community-acquired pneumonia presents with chills, productive cough, temperature of 102.1, pulse 100, respiration 18, BP 90/52, WBC 12,000, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dl. He has a history of mild dementia and his mental status is unchanged from his last visit. These findings indicate that the patient:
Can be treated as an outpatient
Requires hospitalization for treatment
Requires a high dose of parenteral antibiotic
Can be treated with oral antibiotics
Question 16. Which of the following is considered a “red flag” when diagnosing a patient with pneumonia?
Fever of 102
Infiltrates on chest X-ray
Pleural effusion on chest X-ray
Elevated white blood cell count
Question 17. A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:
Barrel-shaped chest
Clubbing
Pectus excavatum
Prolonged capillary refill
Question 18. Your patient has just returned from a 6-month missionary trip to Southeast Asia. He reports unremitting cough, hemoptysis, and an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month. These symptoms should prompt the clinician to suspect:
Legionnaires’ disease
Malaria
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
Question 19. A 76-year-old patient with a 200-pack year smoking history presents with complaints of chronic cough, dyspnea, fatigue, hemoptysis, and weight loss over the past 2 months. The physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the left lower lung field. The chest X-ray demonstrates shift of the mediastinum and trachea to the left. These are classic signs of:
Lung cancer
Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
COPD
Question 20. A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after sustaining multiple traumatic injuries after a motorcycle accident.Upon examination, you note tachypnea, use of intercostal muscles to breathe, asymmetric chest expansion, and no breath sounds over the left lower lobe. It is most important to suspect:
Pulmonary embolism
Pleural effusion
Pneumothorax
Fracture of ribs
NSG6420 Week 2
NSG6420 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to:
Acoustic neuroma
Cerumen impaction
Otitis media
Ménière’s disease
Question 2. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:
Bacterial sinusitis
Allergic rhinitis
Drug abuse
Skull fractur
Question 3. A 45 year old patient presents with ‘sore throat’ and fever for one week. After a quick strep screen you determine the patient has Strep throat. You know that streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent complications and to shorten the course of disease. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered when a patient is allergic to Penicillin?
Amoxicillin
EES (erythromycin)
Bicillin L-A
Dicloxacillin
Question 4. Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with:
Physiologic aging
Ménière’s disease
Cerumen impaction
Herpes zoster
Question 5. Epistaxis can be a symptom of:
Over-anticoagulation
Hematologic malignancy
Cocaine abuse
All of the above
Question 6. Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years. On physical examination, you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue. The clinician should recognize that very often this is:
Malignant melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Aphthous ulceration
Behcet’s syndrome
Question 7. A 26 year old patient presents with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note that their eyes have been watering clear fluid and a ‘runny nose’ since yesterday. They note they ‘feel miserable’ and demand something to make them feel better. What would be the best first plan of treatment?
Saline nasal spray for congestion and acetaminophen as needed for pain.
Z-pack (azithromycin) for infection and Cromolyn nasal for congestion
Hydrococone/acetaminophen as needed for pain and Guaifensin for congestion
Cephalexin for infection and Cromolyn ophthalmic for congestion
Question 8. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?
History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision
History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision
History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush
All of the above
Question 9. Dizziness that is described as “lightheaded” or, “like I’m going to faint,” is usually caused by inadequate cerebral perfusion and is classified as?
Presyncope
Disequilibrium
Vertigo
Syncope
Question 10. It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected.
Cataract
Macular degeneration
Acute closed-angle glaucoma
Chronic open-angle glaucoma
Question 11. Mr. GC presents to the clinic with nausea and vomiting for 2 days, prior to that time he reports occasional ‘dizziness’ that got better with change in position. He denies a recent history of URI or any history of headaches or migraines. What would the most likely diagnosis be?
Vestibular neruitis
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Vestibular migraine
Benign hypertensive central vertigo
Question 12. Which of the following patients with vertigo would require neurologic imaging?
A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and sudden acute onset constant vertigo. She has right nystagmus that changes direction with gaze and that does not disappear when she focuses.
A 45-year-old man with recurrent episodes of brief intense vertigo every time he turns his head rapidly. He has no other neurologic signs or symptoms. He has a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
A 66-year-old man with recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with tinnitus and hearing loss. His head thrust test is positive.
A 28-year-old otherwise well woman with new onset constant vertigo with no other neurologic symptoms. On physical exam, she has unidirectional nystagmus that disappears when her gaze is fixed.
Question 13.A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely with:
Bacterial conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis
Chemical conjunctivitis
Viral conjunctivitis
Question 14. In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a “red flag” finding when associated with eye redness?
History of prior red-eye episodes
Grossly visible corneal defect
Exophthalmos
Photophobia
Question 15. A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation?
Bacterium
Allergen
Virus
Fungi
Question 16. Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of Immunoglobulin E (IgE) will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response. This release of histamine results in which of the following?
Sinus pain, increased vascular permeability, and bronchodilation
Bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and vasodilatation
Contraction of smooth muscle, decreased vascular permeability, and vasoconstriction
Vasodilatation, bronchodilation, and increased vascular permeability
Question 17. You have a patient complaining of vertigo and want to know what could be the cause. Knowing there are many causes for vertigo, you question the length of time the sensation lasts. She tells you several hours to days and is accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss. You suspect which of the following conditions?
Ménière’s disease
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Migraine
Question 18. In examining the mouth of an older adult with a history of smoking, the nurse practitioner finds a suspicious oral lesion. The patient has been referred for a biopsy to be sent for pathology. Which is the most common oral precancerous lesion?
Fictional keratosis
Keratoacanthoma
Lichen planus
Leukoplakia
Question 19. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication that can arise from which type of infection?
Epstein-Barr virus
Diphtheria
Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question 20. A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered?
Mono spot
Strep test
Throat culture
All of the above
NSG6420 Week 1
NSG6420 Week 1 Quiz latest 2017
Question 1. The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is:
Reduced physiological reserve
Reduced homeostatic mechanisms
Impaired immunological response
All of the above
Question 2. Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:
Less obesity rates than women
Prostate enlargement
Testosterone
Less estrogen than women
Question 3. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:
Inhibited by drugs
Induced by drugs
Inhibited or induced by drugs
Associated with decreased liver perfusion
Question 4. Functional abilities are best assessed by:
Self-report of function
Observed assessment of function
A comprehensive head-to-toe examination
Family report of function
Question 5. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) is classified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. This classification refers to which of the following laboratory data?
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) and Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)
Serum ferritin and serum iron
Total iron binding capacity and transferrin saturation
Question 6. When interpreting laboratory data, you would expect to see the following in a patient with Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD):
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH decreased
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV increased, MCH increased
Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV normal, MCH normal
Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH increased
Question 7. The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is:
Depleted iron stores
Impaired ability to use iron stores
Chronic unable bleeding
Reduced intestinal absorption of iron
Question 8. The main focus of treatment of patients with ACD is:
Replenishing iron stores
Providing for adequate nutrition high in iron
Management of the underlying disorder
Administration of monthly vitamin B12 injections
Question 9. In addition to the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, which of the following laboratory tests is considered to be most useful in diagnosing ACD and IDA?
Serum iron
Total iron binding capacity
Transferrin saturation
Serum ferritin
Question 10. Symptoms in the initial human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection include all of the following except:
Sore throat
Fever
Weight loss
Headache
Question 11. Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except:
Chief complaint
History of the present illness
Current vital signs
All of the above are essential history components
Question 12.Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations, settings, and/or patients?
Clinical practice guideline
Clinical decision rule
Clinical algorithm
Clinical recommendation
Question 13. The first step in the genomic assessment of a patient is obtaining information regarding:
Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease
Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to acquire the disease
Two mutated genes to become carriers
Question 15. In AR disorders, carriers have:
Two mutated genes; two from one parent that cause disease
A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease
A single gene mutation that causes the disease
One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease
Question 16. A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will:
Not be affected by the disorder herself
Transmit the disorder to 50% of her offspring (male or female)
Not transmit the disorder to her daughters
Transmit the disorder to only her daughters
Question 17. According to the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA):
Nurse Practitioners (NPs) should keep all genetic information of patients confidential
NPs must obtain informed consent prior to genetic testing of all patients
Employers cannot inquire about an employee’s genetic information
All of the above
Question 18. Which of the following would be considered a “red flag” that requires more investigation in a patient assessment?
Colon cancer in family member at age 70
Breast cancer in family member at age 75
Myocardial infarction in family member at age 35
All of the above
Question 19. Your 2-year-old patient shows facial features, such as epicanthal folds, up-slanted palpebral fissures, single transverse palmar crease, and a low nasal bridge. These are referred to as:
Variable expressivity related to inherited disease
Dysmorphic features related to genetic disease
De novo mutations of genetic disease
Different penetrant signs of genetic disease
Question 20.In order to provide a comprehensive genetic history of a patient, the NP should:
Ask patients to complete a family history worksheet
Seek out pathology reports related to the patient’s disorder
Interview family members regarding genetic disorders
All of the above
NR 511 Week 4
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5
Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells
Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Ergotamine
b. Timolol
Topiramate
Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3
Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?
Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care
Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?
Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit
Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics
Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?
Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
d. Doxycycline
Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:
intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.
Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?
“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”
Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.
Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?
Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above
Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?
Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions
Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure
Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?
Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.
Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?
Commitment
Consensus
Certification
d. Collaboration
Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?
Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain
Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?
The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.
Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?
Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity
Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?
Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)
Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?
The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above
Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?
Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes
Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
4
8 d
10
d. 15
Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants
Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?
Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above
Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
“L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?
The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.
Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas
Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral
Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?
Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells
Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer
Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
d. All of the above
Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?
Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
d. All of the above
Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
d. Veracity
Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?
10%
20%
30%
d. 50%
Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?
Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test
Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above
Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?
An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland
Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.
Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?
You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.
Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?
Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves
Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue
Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns
Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?
Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?
Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.
Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?
Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound .
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count
Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?
Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
d. Topiramate
Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin
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Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)
Activity 2.
What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)
What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words
Activity 3.
How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.
How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.
Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each
Activity 5.
Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words
Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words
Activity 6.
What is positioning? 1 sentence
What is market mix? 20-40words
Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words
Activity 7.
What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.
How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.
Activity 8.
How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples
What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples
Activity 9.
What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence
What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples
Activity 10
From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples
What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence
Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.
Question 2
List five examples of basic marketing activities.
Question 3.
Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words
Question 4.
Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words
Summative Assessment 2.
Project
The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.
The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns
The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.
Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :
Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
Review marketing activities
1000-2000words
Production/Operation
Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text
Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management
(TCO 1) Historians and political scientists are different because historians _____ and political scientists _____. (Points : 2)
A) Historians look for generalizations, while political scientists are reluctant to generalize
B) Historians are somewhat more reluctant to generalize, while political scientists look for generalizations
C) Historians are much more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists are
D) Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, while political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations
(TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)
A) Political scientists often train politicians
B) Politicians often train political scientists
C)Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter
D) Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable
(TCO 1) Voting for someone who is charismatic but whose policies might not benefit you would be considered _____ behavior. (Points : 2)
A) irrational
B) rational
C) legitimate
D) selfish
(TCO 1) _____ is the use of public office for private gain.(Points : 2)
A) Sovereignty
B) Corruption
C) Authority
D) Legitimacy
(TCO 1) The notion that we acknowledge the rightful roles of our leaders or our laws is known as _____. (Points : 2)
A) sovereignty
B) authority
C) legitimacy
D) monarchy
(TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____
A) scholarship
B) theory
C) power
D) culture
(TCO 1) The term for measuring with numbers is _____. (Points : 2)
A) quantify
B) hypothesis
C) qualify
D) empirical
(TCO 4) The English common law stressed the rights of free and equal men and was developed on the basis of precedent set by earlier judges, known today as _____. (Points : 2)
A) judge-made law
B) judicial precedent
C) example by trial
D) court-generated
(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern? (Points : 2)
A) Extortion
B) Theft
C) Divorce
D) Trafficking
(TCO 4) The concept of judicial review falls under which article of the U.S. Constitution?(Points : 2)
A) Article I: The Legislative Branch
B) Article III: The Judicial Branch
C) Article VI: Debts, Supremacy, Oaths
D) Judicial review is not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution.
(TCO 4) Who nominates and approves federal judges in the U.S. court system? (Points : 2)
A) The President and the Senate
B) The Senate and the House
C) The President and Speaker of the House
D) The Senate and the Secretary of State
(TCO 4) Which of the following was an argument against granting the U.S. Supreme Court the power of judicial review? (Points : 2)
A) Many feared that such a power would give the Court a double check and compromise its neutrality.
B) Some thought that such power would create untrustworthy judges.
C) The founding fathers argued that judicial review would lead to undue indictments by the Court.
D) Drafters of the Constitution feared that few laws would ever be set in stone.
(TCO 4) Examine the ideal role of American judges. (Points : 2)
A) Judges should intervene frequently, interpreting the law according to their expertise and ensuring a fair trial
B) Judges should act as umpires, passively watching the legal drama and ruling only on disputed points of procedure
C) Judges should not intervene unless attorneys object, at which point they may either overrule or sustain the objection
D) Judges should take an active role, questioning witnesses, eliciting evidence, and commenting on procedure.
(TCO 4) In Lombard v. Louisiana (1963), the Warren Court supported _____, ruling that blacks who had refused to leave a segregated lunch counter could not be prosecuted. (Points : 2)
A) boycotts
B) sit-ins
C) picket lines
D) protests
(TCO 5) Why do the responsibilities of legislative and executive powers often overlap? (Points : 2)
A) Separation of powers is rarely clear-cut
B) Separation of powers is rare among industrialized nations
C) Separation of powers is absolute
D) Separation of powers grants obtuse levels of power to the executive branch.
(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)
A) Every four years
B) Every six years
C) Every eight years
D) When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executivelegislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States. (Points : 2)
A) cooperation
B) stagnation
C) deadlock
D) insolvency
(TCO 5) Who directly calls forth the leader of the largest party to take office with a cabinet and become the prime minister? (Points : 2)
A) The voters
B) Parliament
C) The monarch
D) The House of Commons
DEVRY POLI330 Week 8 Final Exam 2
(TCO 5) When it comes to electing officials, which factor matters the most to voters in both presidential and parliamentary elections? (Points : 2)
A) Party affiliation
B) Political ideologies
C) Money invested in campaign
D) Personality
(TCO 5) Who receives the most attention in both parliamentary and presidential systems? (Points : 2)
A) Head of state
B) Chief executive
C) The legislature
D) Voting citizens
(TCO 5) Describe how the United States expands its cabinet. (Points : 2)
A) The president can create a new department at his or her will
B) Congress must agree on the new department and provisions for its funds must be made
C) In order for a new department to be developed, a former one must be deleted
D) New departments are no longer developed
(TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations. (Points : 2)
A) Marxism
B) laissez-faire
C) public-choice
D) Keynesian
(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissezfaire policies developed by Adam Smith? (Points : 2)
A) Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, while Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens
B) Laissez-faire policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, while Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach
C) Keynesian policies advocate for increased government control of economics, while traditional laissez-faire economics argues for a hands-free approach
D) The more liberal laissez-faire economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, while Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top one percent
(TCO 7) What event is largely considered responsible for deterring Johnson’s War on Poverty? (Points : 2)
A) Great Society
B) Vietnam War
C) Middle-class entitlements
D) Tax expenditures
(TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)
A) The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily
B) Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class
C) Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others
D) Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system
(TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)
A) Many would be left without enough to support them
B) Caps to these program would undermine the welfare state
C) It can cost them votes
D) Both are primary social safety nets
(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)
A) Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States
B) Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States
C) The United States allocates about the same to welfare
D) Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare
(TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points :2)
A) Citizens will default on their mortgages
B) Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest
C) Ultimately, the government will profit
D) Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior
(TCO 9) What is the most common response to serious domestic unrest? (Points : 2)
A) Revolution
B) Coup d’état
C) Military takeover
D) UN diplomatic action
(TCO 9) Riots triggered by police beating youths, protests against globalization, and labor strikes against austerity are all examples of _____. (Points : 2)
A) purely traditional violence
B) issue-oriented violence
C) violence carried out by civilian institutions of government
D) coups
(TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)
A) They will almost assuredly turn to violence
B) Not much will happen
C) The people will organize themselves, regardless
D) They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness
(TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)
A) They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
(TCO 2) Which of the following descriptions best depicts a federal system of government?
The central government maintains all the power.
The first-order subdivisions maintain all the power.
Federal systems exist where there are no governments.
Federal systems have divided power between a central government and first-order governments.
Question 4
(TCO 2) In a single-member district election, the winner receives a minimum of _____.
a plurality of the votes
50% of the votes
two-thirds of the votes
three-fourths of the votes
Question 5
(TCO 2) If the Green Party receives 15% of the vote in a proportional system, which of the following is likely to happen?
The Green Party would receive no seats.
The Green Party would try to form a coalition with other parties.
The Green Party would attempt to gerrymander districts to its advantage.
The Green Party would demand a recount of the votes.
Question 6
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
(TCO 2) The concept of basic law originated in which country?
Britain
France
Germany
United States
Question 8
(TCO 2) Which type of regime has a free media, competitive elections, and protected civil liberties?
Democratic
Transitional
Authoritarian
Totalitarian
Question 9
(TCO 2) The mass media in totalitarian states _____.
show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, but practice a mildly critical attitude toward the official ideology
question the system, but still push the official ideology
show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, and sell the official ideology
question the system only in times of crisis, otherwise selling the official ideology
Question 10
(TCO 2) What are features of an all-encompassing ideology?
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and acceptance of an imperfect society
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and claims of a perfect society
An eclectic sense of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society
An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec
POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation
Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process. Address the following in your multimedia presentation:
Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?
Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.
Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.
Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.
Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab
For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet
Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.
Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.
Electoral College Simulation Exercise
Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election. Based on information contained in the chart determine the following
The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis
Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?
Alabama91,159,245749,948
Alaska3195,227112,878
Arizona111,089,449975,674
Arkansas6554,724478,912
California555,976,0486,350,244
Colorado91,076,1241,055,465
Connecticut7714,368824,202
Delaware3184,348190,229
District of Columbia390,108125,978
Florida294,129,9973,784,259
Georgia161,740,7761,508,254
Hawaii4200,454224,728
Idaho4376,989245,774
Illinois202,529,4272,615,226
Indiana111,257,0701,148,334
Iowa6740,291752,882
Kansas6645,822512,678
Kentucky8997,244878,421
Louisiana81,002,124924,855
Maine4332,427368,399
Maryland101,029,2781,257,722
Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331
Michigan162,414,7772,391,872
Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624
Mississippi6649,442502,292
Missouri101,245,9781,440,356
Montana3259,129174,434
Nebraska5499,927276,321
Nevada6398,727412,012
New Hampshire4340,492332,638
New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209
New Mexico5369,284370,544
New York293,688,4213,828,477
North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476
North Dakota3197,245110,289
Ohio182,829,6872,777,421
Oklahoma7845,779624,552
Oregon7901,244904,100
Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542
Rhode Island4200,440210,402
South Carolina9850,050714,846
South Dakota3230,727154,786
Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385
Texas383,789,4593,598,334
Utah6500,450401,290
Vermont3122,774182,104
Virginia131,547,9941,607,747
Washington121,390,2241,420,462
West Virginia5364,449367,429
Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202
Wyoming3130,757100,527
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________
Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________
Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________
Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center. Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.
Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:
Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
Facts of the case
Issues
Rule
Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.
Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.
Rubric:
Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights
Grid View
List View
Unacceptable Below 70% F
Fair 70-79% C
Proficient 80-89% B
Exemplary 90-100% A
PAD525-A3-1 1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-2 2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.
PAD525-A3-3 3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.
PAD525-A3-4 4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%
Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)
Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)
Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)
Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)
Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?
Social contract theory
The role of power in politics
The role of wealth in society
The connection between race and politics
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.
sovereignty
authority
legitimacy
monarchy
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.
scholarship
corruption
a methodology
a hypothesis
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.
reason
balance
theory
rationality
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?
People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.
Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.
Republicans are older than Democrats.
Corruption is rampant in government.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?
Public administration
Public policy
Comparative politics
Political theory
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?
They think practically and seek accuracy.
They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.
They offer single causes and think abstractly.
They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.
POLI330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following best characterizes Aristotle?
He explained both what is and what ought to be.
He neither explained what is nor what ought to be.
He only explained what ought to be.
He only explained what is.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?
Individuals join and stay in civil society.
Empirical research is important.
Power resided with the proletariat.
Life is nasty and brutish.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) If _____ were alive, he might suggest that poor academic performance in schools could be attributed to a society that does not promote education and provides few resources devoted to schools.
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Thomas Hobbes
John Locke
Niccolo Machiavelli
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which of the following would most likely be supported by the bourgeoisie?
Conflict for economic gain
Minority rights
Equality for all
A revolt by the proletariat
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?
Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.
The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.
Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.
Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Which statement best applies to Adam Smith?
Marxists promoted his views because of concerns of the proletariat.
His views began as conservative, but are now associated with modern liberalism.
His views were once considered liberal, but are now promoted by conservatives.
His views have always been advocated by liberals.
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?
Markets regulate themselves.
Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.
No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.
Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Modern American conservatism would favor government involvement in what activity?
Regulating markets
A progressive tax system
Religious promotion
Protecting organized labor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.
Marxists
Liberals
Conservatives
Libertarians
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 6) Fascism existed during the 20th century in what country?
Italy
Iceland
Ireland
France
POLI330 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2018
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.
unitary
confederal
federal
proportional
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.
proportional representative systems
majoritarian systems
single-member districts
multimember districts
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.
a strong two-party system
the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party
representation of minor parties
the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.
liberal judges
conservative judges
judicial restraint by judges
willingness to override legislatures
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws
popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited
the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.
Authoritarian
Transitional
Oligarchic
Totalitarian
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.
To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity
To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures
To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order
To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order
POLI330 Week 4 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.
Women
The elderly
A wide variety of people
Rich individuals
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?
The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.
The people had no desire for a public option.
Democrats were not interested in a public option.
Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.
economic downturns
corporate boardrooms
specialized agencies
secret
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.
lobbying for
fully funding
advertising
openly debating
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.
rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns
give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system
establish a monocultural dependence on the party system
enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.
third parties can“post” to earn representation
major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties
it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins
it tends to promote more equal representation
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?
Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.
Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.
Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.
Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?
Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.
Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?
African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.
African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?
Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised
Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average
Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers
Partly because men tend to vote more than women
POLI330 Week 5 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Which of the following statements best defines feudalism?
A political structure in which power is dispersed evenly
A system of political power dispersed among layers
A political structure in which power rests with church leaders
A system of political power distributed to the working class
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Countries with limits on government have usually had feudal pasts, which suggests what about the dispersion of power?
Equal distribution of power is the only effective political structure.
Power must be distributed by the working class.
Power should be concentrated among the lower classes.
Dispersion of power is good and concentration of power is bad.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system?
Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executive-legislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States.
cooperation
stagnation
deadlock
insolvency
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Describe how the election process in a parliamentary system slightly resembles presidential elections in the United States.
Party chiefs run as candidates for prime minister.
Citizens vote directly for the each new prime minister.
Citizens vote for a party member with the knowledge that the next prime minister will be the head of the largest party.
The prime minister is appointed for a 4-year term and can be reappointed one time.
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 5) Distinguish the process that a parliamentary system uses to oust a chief executive from the one available in the U.S. presidential system.
Parliamentary systems rely on impeachment and presidential ones rely on constructive no confidence.
Parliamentary systems use constructive no confidence and presidential systems have the option of impeachment.
The prime minister can dissolve parliament and the president can resign from office.
Parliamentary systems can hold a vote of no confidence and presidential ones have the option of impeachment.
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern?
Extortion
Theft
Divorce
Trafficking
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) International law consists of _____ and established customs recognized by most nations.
treaties
ratification
amendments
cease-fires
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges?
Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison.
The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.
POLI330 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Radicals use the term “political economy” instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations.
Marxism
laissez-faire
public choice
Keynesian
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissez-faire policies developed by Adam Smith?
Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, and Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens.
Keynesian economics advocates for increased government control of economics, and traditional laissez-faire argues for a hands-free approach.
Smithian policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, and Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach.
The more liberal Smithian economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, and Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top 1%.
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) During the 1970s, critics developed this new term to describe inflation with stagnant economic growth.
Growth Slope
Quagmire
Stagflation
Recession
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____.
doubled
greatly decreased
slightly increased
rapidly increased
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) The _____ administration simplified the Food Stamp program by eliminating the provision that recipients buy the stamps at a discount with their own money.
Kennedy
Johnson
Ford
Carter
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Medical costs consume nearly _____% of the U.S.gross domestic product, most of it paid through government and private health insurance.
11
18
22
26
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Many Americans think the federal budget goes primarily toward welfare, which is _____.
absolutely true
somewhat exaggerated
not at all the case
slightly offensive
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations?
Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) What was the poverty line in 2012?
$14,505
$17,060
$23,050
$26,750
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 7) Investigate what historically happens to conservatives when firms are supposedly “too big to fail.”
Conservatives argue for expensive bail-out packages.
Most conservatives suggest letting the free market run its course.
Most argue against expensive stimulus packages.
They switch parties.
POLI330 Week 3 Quiz
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.
a monarchy
a republic
institutionalization
a state
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.
corrupt; one
corrupt; a few
corrupt; many
legitimate; many
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.
unitary
confederal
federal
proportional
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.
proportional representative systems
majoritarian systems
single-member districts
multimember districts
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.
a strong two-party system
the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party
representation of minor parties
the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?
High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits
Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.
liberal judges
conservative judges
judicial restraint by judges
willingness to override legislatures
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials
all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws
popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited
the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.
Authoritarian
Transitional
Oligarchic
Totalitarian
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.
To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity
To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures
To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order
To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order
POLI330 Week 4 Quiz
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.
Women
The elderly
A wide variety of people
Rich individuals
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?
The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.
The people had no desire for a public option.
Democrats were not interested in a public option.
Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.
economic downturns
corporate boardrooms
specialized agencies
secret
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.
lobbying for
fully funding
advertising
openly debating
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.
rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns
give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system
establish a monocultural dependence on the party system
enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.
third parties can“post” to earn representation
major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties
it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins
it tends to promote more equal representation
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?
Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.
Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.
Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.
Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?
Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.
Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.
Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?
African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.
African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.
African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?
Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised
Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average
Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers
Partly because men tend to vote more than women
POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz
POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018
Question
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?
Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?
Social contract theory
The role of power in politics
The role of wealth in society
The connection between race and politics
Question 3
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.
irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately
Question 4
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.
sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy
Question 5
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.
sovereignty
authority
legitimacy
monarchy
Question 6
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.
scholarship
corruption
a methodology
a hypothesis
Question 7
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.
reason
balance
theory
rationality
Question 8
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?
People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.
Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.
Republicans are older than Democrats.
Corruption is rampant in government.
Question 9
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?
Public administration
Public policy
Comparative politics
Political theory
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?
They think practically and seek accuracy.
They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.
They offer single causes and think abstractly.
They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.
The Politics and Administration Dichotomy
The Politics and Administration Dichotomy
The issues of politics and administration dichotomy first raised by Woodrow Wilson continue to generate debate among scholars of public administration in modern time. While some think Wilson’s idea was useful, others reject the idea as impossible. In a 2-3 page paper, and in your opinion, is that distinction practical and workable? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using such a dichotomy today as a way to advance that field of study? Support your case with examples.
Korea Unification
Assignment 1-1050 words
How can a culture that produces exquisite art still be at war? Well, I suppose that the two have little to do with each other.
Of course, one has to question whether or not war is really a matter of the Korean Peninsula per se. Rather, Korea seems to have been caught in the global cold war. Right on the front lines of the conflict between the United States and China and the Soviet Union, Korea was pulled apart more by global forces than by internal politics.
After the fall of the Soviet Union, after the money used to support North Korea is gone, we are left with a tense situation on the Korean Peninsula itself.
So what can be done?
Can Korea reunify?
Case Assignment
Please answer the following question:
Given the lessons you learned about German reunification in the last module, what are the most important issues facing efforts towards Korean peninsula reunification?
Please answer this question in three to five pages and turn it in by the end of this module. Do not forget to refer closely to the background information.
Assignment 2-700 word
What role does the United States play in the current Korean conflict?
Review the material in the background information page.
Then write a two to three page paper answering this question:
Why is the United States such an important player in the potential reunification of Korea?
Upload your papers for grading.
The SLP assignments in POL 201 generally call for a detailed analysis of the involvement of US interests in the nation being studied. In addressing SLP questions, such an analysis requires some historical perspective and a balanced and thorough consideration of that involvement
Describe about the organization American Red Cross. At least 300 words!
Recently Homework Nest introduced a new and exciting project, Revision Question Segment that allows students to access questions frequently asked in class discussions and examinations. The main idea behind this project was to give students an idea on what to expect and to make exam preparation easier. Our team at Homework Nest partnered with an amazing team of examination experts and we managed to gather questions from different universities around the world ease accessibility to our students. The content has been prepared on slide share and you can access and download them for free here.
Many of you are wondering how we arrived at this decision. After our last interview with our CEO, Tony Craig on his college life, he shared some challenges he experienced. One of the issues he expressed was the lack of enough revision material due to limited access. He shared that along with other students, they would struggle to get these questions online and if they were lucky enough to have students in other institutions, they would exchange past papers and questions shared in class. Tony really wished to have easy access to this content and we sort to inquire why these revision questions were so important to him and other students. Here is what he shared with us.
1. Exposure to a Variety of Questions
Exam questions are set in different ways, depending on the intention of examiner. Tony shared that while he was studying, there were professors who wanted to assess critical thinking, decision making, problem solving and basic knowledge. Basic knowledge questions were mainly definitions and questions that are directly derived from class notes. The teacher mainly wants to assess how well you understand the basic concepts of the subject and whether you can give a few examples from these concepts. Critical thinking, decision making and problem solving questions are often in the form of case studies and analytical questions. They are often looking into how you can apply all the concepts learnt and use them to solve real life problems. Therefore, revision questions are able to expose you to different approaches to answering questions.
2. Helps The Student Understand the Examiner’s Mindset
Most examiners aim at setting exam questions with considerations to changes in the curriculum, job market and external factors such as the influences of technology in learning. In addition to this, the mindset of the examiner is to evaluate critical and analytical abilities of the student. However, it can be challenging to predict what exactly a specific examiner seeks to evaluate as some use different methods in setting different papers. Some examiners can use different terms so as to confuse the student which could mislead how they answer the question. One common example is questions relating to the terms “Compare and Contrast.” Most students confuse these two terms and end up answering the question wrongly by either giving a contrast or similarity instead of both. Revision questions will make it easy for you to understand what exactly the examiner had in mind while they were setting the questions and what they expect of you in delivering the answers. This way you are able to approach questions more accurately without going out of topic.
3. Identify Frequently Asked Topics/Questions
Examiners often apply the method of question or topic repetition for a number of reasons. One is that the questions and topics could be a common challenge among students and they are seeking to gauge their understanding of these topics. In many instances, these questions are mandatory if the exam paper provides the option to select a few number of questions.
Secondly, these questions and topics are key concepts in the subject and they are highly applicable in the job market. The third and most important reason is that most students tend to assume these repeated questions and they do not take time to review them which is often a trap created by the examiner. For the diligent students, repeated revision questions are often considered as free marks as they have practiced them a number of times and they understand the concept making it easier for them to handle these questions even when framed differently.
4. Introduce You to Unfamiliar Territories
“We once exchanged revision question papers with students from another country who were taking the similar course. For a moment, I almost confused the content for another subject because of how these questions were set.” Tony shared this experienced that almost got him thinking that he was not studying extensively and enough. Later on, he realized that the examiner was focused on the same subject but the approach used to frame the question was quite different and with different response expectations. He also stated that he realized that the level of complexity was more advanced than what they were used to in their institution. Revision questions are able to expose you to different and unfamiliar examining approaches that could not be similar with those in your institution.
5. Improves the Quality of Your Study Notes
The chances that you will come across concepts and terms that have not been discussed in class in revision papers are very high. With a variety of revision papers, you will be able to identify what has not been taught, do research on it and build on your class notes. In addition to this, you will be able to stay ahead of your classmates when it comes to having content that some of them might not be bothered to review. Tony states that, at the end of my campus years, “I gathered all the books I used for writing my revision notes and I was surprised at how I had used up so many books in creating extra notes to supplement what was already taught.” These notes were instrumental as at times these concepts were examined and many students claimed to be clueless.
BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activities
Exam questions are set in different ways, depending on the intention of examiner. Tony shared that while he was studying, there were professors who wanted to assess critical thinking, decision making, problem solving and basic knowledge. Basic knowledge questions were mainly definitions and questions that are directly derived from class notes. The teacher mainly wants to assess how well you understand the basic concepts of the subject and whether you can give a few examples from these concepts. Critical thinking, decision making and problem solving questions are often in the form of case studies and analytical questions. They are often looking into how you can apply all the concepts learnt and use them to solve real life problems. Therefore, revision questions are able to expose you to different approaches to answering questions.
Most examiners aim at setting exam questions with considerations to changes in the curriculum, job market and external factors such as the influences of technology in learning. In addition to this, the mindset of the examiner is to evaluate critical and analytical abilities of the student. However, it can be challenging to predict what exactly a specific examiner seeks to evaluate as some use different methods in setting different papers. Some examiners can use different terms so as to confuse the student which could mislead how they answer the question. One common example is questions relating to the terms “Compare and Contrast.” Most students confuse these two terms and end up answering the question wrongly by either giving a contrast or similarity instead of both. Revision questions will make it easy for you to understand what exactly the examiner had in mind while they were setting the questions and what they expect of you in delivering the answers. This way you are able to approach questions more accurately without going out of topic.
Secondly, these questions and topics are key concepts in the subject and they are highly applicable in the job market. The third and most important reason is that most students tend to assume these repeated questions and they do not take time to review them which is often a trap created by the examiner. For the diligent students, repeated revision questions are often considered as free marks as they have practiced them a number of times and they understand the concept making it easier for them to handle these questions even when framed differently.
“We once exchanged revision question papers with students from another country who were taking the similar course. For a moment, I almost confused the content for another subject because of how these questions were set.” Tony shared this experienced that almost got him thinking that he was not studying extensively and enough. Later on, he realized that the examiner was focused on the same subject but the approach used to frame the question was quite different and with different response expectations. He also stated that he realized that the level of complexity was more advanced than what they were used to in their institution. Revision questions are able to expose you to different and unfamiliar examining approaches that could not be similar with those in your institution.
