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HIUS 221 National Park Essay

Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

There are many benefits to visiting historical museums or sites via walking tours. By actually witnessing a historical site, greater understanding of the events of past can be achieved. The visual learning dynamic as well as the tour guide learning scenario can all the more make “history come alive” and provide the student with a hands-on learning experience.

Completing This Assignment:

The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
When you are finished, your assignment must be:

o In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

o Formatted, including:

12-point Times New Roman font
double-spaced
1-inch margins
Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

o Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center

Name of the patient: Mrs. Linde

Age: 76 years

Gender: Female

Clinical Scenario

Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center where I worked as a nurse. While attending to her, I realized that she as well as most of the patients in my surgical unit developed a high level of acuity that could easily result into severe cardiac arrest and sudden death. Mrs. Linde was therefore transferred to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following her critical condition. I decided to talk to my Nurse Manager about rapid response team and how it can be helpful in reducing increasing cases of the contraction of cardiac arrest by the in-patients and unexpected admissions to the ICU. I believed this could be of great help to the hospital. Researchable and answerable is a significant step in the Evidence Based Practice (Fineout-Overholt and Johnston, 2005). Therefore, my manger suggested that I conduct more research to find solid evidence on the contribution of rapid response team in healthcare system. This prompted me to formulate a clinical question.

Research Question

I used PICOT (Patient’s population, issue of Interest, Comparison, Outcome and Time) format to formulate a research question. My PICOT question was derived from the prevailing aspects of the clinical issue at my surgical unit. These aspects include the increased level of acuity among the hospitalized patients in the surgical unit, increased number of in-patients contracting cardiac arrest, unexpected admissions into the ICU, and the intervention by the rapid response team. Since there was no team to provide rapid response to such patients and the hospital was not planning to address the issue of patient’s acuity prior to the impending crisis, element of the comparison (C component) in the PICOT was lack of rapid response team. The outcomes or the results in the question were constant admission into the ICU and in-patients contracting cardiac arrest. Other possible outcomes included prolonged hospitalization and deaths. My proposed picot question therefore was; “Among the adult in-patients in the surgical unit, how does the presence of a rapid response team compared with the absence of rapid response team influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients hospitalized for three months? In this question, the components of PICOT include

Patient Population (P) – the adult in-patients
Issue of Interest (I) – the presence of a rapid response team
Comparison(C) – the absence of rapid response team
Outcome (O) – influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients
Time (T) – hospitalized for three months

Literature Review

According to Stillwell et al. Evidence-Based Practice involves solving a problem in the health care delivery system by integrating the available evidences from the data of the patients and studies with the expertise of medical practitioners and values. From the above scenario, it is clear that various aspects affect personal experiences of patients throughout their stay in the hospital. Additionally, social aspects may influence and surpass curative variables without necessarily involving antiretroviral measures. However, Melnyk et al. 2009 suggests that it is important for nurses and medical practitioners to understand that the formulated question influences any attempt to find evidence to achieve a desirable outcome in patients so as to support a practical change. It is also evident from the previous studies that Rapid Response Teams are the best weapon to curb cardiac arrests since they evaluate the patients at an early stage of the disease thus reducing mortality rate (Dacey et al. 2007). Another study also pointed that while therapeutic interventions have been successfully administered to the patients, such interventions may not be helpful for long-term health care processes (Cheng, 2011).

References

Dacey MJ, et al. The effect of a rapid response team on major clinical outcome measures in a community hospital. Crit Care Med 2007;35(9):2076-82

Abstract

Background: Rapid Response Teams (RRTs) assess patients during early phases of deterioration to reduce patient morbidity and mortality. Objectives: This study aimed to evaluate the ability of earlier medical intervention by an RRT prompted by clinical instability in patients to reduce the incidence of and mortality from unexpected cardiac arrest at our hospital. Patients and Methods: A nonrandomized, population-based study before 2008 and after 2010 introduction of the Rapid Response Teams in a 300-bed private hospital. All patients were admitted to the hospital in 2008 (n = 25348) and 2010 (n = 28024). RRT (One doctor, one senior intensive care nurse and one staff nurse) attended to clinically unstable patients immediately with resuscitation drugs, fluid, and equipment. Response was activated by the bedside nurse or doctor according to predefined criteria. Main outcome measures were incidence and outcome of unexpected cardiac arrest. Results: The incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest was 17 per 1000 hospital admissions (431 cases) in 2008 (before RRT intervention) and 12.45 per 1000 admissions (349 cases) in 2010 (after intervention), with mortality being 73.23% (274 patients) and 66.15% (231 patients) respectively. After adjustment for case mix the intervention was associated with a 19% reduction in the incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest (odds ratio 0.81, 95% confidence interval 0.65-0.98). Conclusions: The RRT was able to detect preventable adverse events and reduce the mortality and incidence of unexpected cardiac arrests

Stillwell SB et al, Evidence-based practice, step by step: asking the clinical question: a key step in evidence-based practice. 2nd ed. Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams and Wilkins.

Abstract

The purpose of this series is to give nurses the knowledge and skills they need to implement EBP consistently, one step at a time. Articles will appear every two months to allow you time to incorporate information as you work toward implementing EBP at your institution. Also, we’ve scheduled “Ask the Authors” call-ins every few months to provide a direct line to the experts to help you resolve questions. Details about how to participate in the next call will be published with May’s Evidence-Based Practice, Step by Step

Melnyk BM, et al. Igniting a spirit of inquiry: an essential foundation for evidence-based practice. Am J Nurs2009;109(11):49-52

Abstract

This is the third article in a series from the Arizona State University College of Nursing and Health Innovation’s Center for the Advancement of Evidence-Based Practice. Evidence-based practice (EBP) is a problem-solving approach to the delivery of health care that integrates the best evidence from studies and patient care data with clinician expertise and patient preferences and values. When delivered in a context of caring and in a supportive organizational culture, the highest quality of care and best patient outcomes can be achieved.

Cheng, H. Y. Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM): What t Long -Term Care Providers Need to Know

Abstract

Evidence-based medicine (EBM) has been exponentially disseminated to every field of medicine over past 2 decades.1–7 EBM is now a part of postgraduate competency through practice-based learning.8 However, its potential use in the long-term care setting was only recently appreciated in the literature.1,9,10 EBM may play an important role in reforming nursing homes and improving quality care.1–5,9,10 The simple search term “EBM,” limited to English and human in Medline, generated 49,304 citations, which narrowed to only 173 when “nursing homes” was added, indicating that EBP is not rare and is being implemented in long-term care. It has been a great effort that each article in this special issue presents evidence-based recommendations to long-term care providers to guide their daily practice. In contrast to the evidence-based approach to individual geriatric conditions addressed in the other articles in this issue, this article briefly introduces the basic concept of EBM; addresses some potential benefits, harms, and challenges of its practice in a long-term care setting; and promotes its appropriate use among providers of long-term care. For those who already know the EBM basics and are interested in becoming experts, several textbooks on EBM are recommended.11–13 Attending an EBM workshop, such as one run by McMaster University,14 could also be helpful. Many Internet resources are also useful, including PIER: The Physicians’ Information and Education Resource (pier.acponline.org), Clinical Evidence.

Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH

Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH. Through their comical depiction of these situations, the viewer might have been left with the impression that the unethical behavior was actually appropriate. Share your thoughts about what can happen to a business if ethical standards are not taken seriously.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

Article Reviews Homework Help ASAP!

With the first weekend of March Madness underway, there has been plenty of talk regarding Power 5 (P5) Conferences versus non-P5 schools. Many sports analysts believe the P5 schools have an advantage in making the NCAA MBB tournament and when it comes to seeding in the tournament.

Read these articles:

http://www.newsobserver.com/sports/college/acc/article139198713.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

http://sports.yahoo.com/news/march-madness-day-2-recap-power-conference-dominance-sets-up-second-round-showdowns-042714662.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

If you are unfamiliar with the term P5, read this article to familiarize yourself. http://www.huffingtonpost.com/ken-reed/big-five-have-changed-col_b_5725772.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

The P5 schools earned $6 billion dollars last year compared to a mere $4 billon for ALL of the other schools combined.

Do you think March Madness favors P5 schools? Why or why not? If you think they do, what solutions do have to create parity for all schools? What are things FGCU can do to improve our likelihood of being selected to the NCAA tournament as an at-large bid.

For this paper, you will need two pages typed.

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner

n the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession? Your Response Must be over 200 words!

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Batman and Commissioner Gordon constantly involved themselves with local, state, and federal regulations. Think about the regulations in your locality and specifically reflect on one regulation that could use some improvement. What could be improved regarding this regulation?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

Nursing Paper PicOT Statement Help at www.homeworknest.com

This paper is on rapid research teams, it includes reasearch critique topic one and two as well as Picot statement with final draft.

Liberty University Math 201 Project 3 brase & brase

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

Analyzing Researched Information

Description

Overview

For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.

My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.

Instructions

For this assignment:

Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note:You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable.
Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment.

Conducting a Job Analysis

Description

Overview

Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.

Context

Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.

Requirements

You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.

Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.

Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:

A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job.
The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required.
Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state.
Additional Requirements

Required length 3–4 pages.
Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.

Resources

Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.

U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/

Question unit 1

Description

does the class think that when looking at data and reviewing numbers, that these numbers can be used to make changes in government and its agencies, where the provisioning of services tends to remain the same, rather than what we see in the private sector with improved production and sales goals?

Explain in a paragraph

Unit 2 Role of the Governor

Description

Constitutional constraints notwithstanding, the role and power of the governor has changed over the nation’s history. The office has evolved over time based on societal, technological and political needs. Compare the role of the executive office as described in your state’s constitution with the current roles and functions that your state governor plays. Does your state constitution state or imply the roles you have described for your current governor? Hint: Check local media stories or news articles.

Unit 2 Advice about Agency Heads

Description

The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.

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Recruiting

Description

Create a 10–12 slide presentation that includes your findings about Internet recruiting and a job posting for a sales representative position.

How organizations begin transitioning from recruiting a large pool of qualified applicants to selecting the best applicant for the position is a complex process that changes over time.

Employment selection decisions are significant for managers and organizations. Poor decisions can result in a tremendous loss for the company. Employee performance is critical to organizational effectiveness because an organization will only be as productive as its workers.

The Assessment 4 Context document contains additional information about the types of assessments used to select personnel.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

Have you ever taken a test in school or for a job that simply did not make sense to you? Which test would you have chosen instead?
2. Which type of hiring strategy (for example, permanent hire, using a temporary agency, et cetera) would you use for CapraTek’s new manufacturing employees? Why?
3. Which type of recruiting strategy (for example, permanent hire, contract-to-hire, et cetera) would you use to fill the four CapraTek sales positions? Why?
4. How might social media fit into your hiring plans?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 3 and 4 and review Chapters 1 and 2 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
As part of CapraTek’s human resources team, you have been asked to research other employers and their Internet recruiting practices. This assessment has three parts:

Evaluate two employers’ online application processes.
2. Evaluate two general online job search sites for ease of use and information available.
3. Develop a job description for the CapraTek regional sales representative posting.

Present your information in the form of a PowerPoint presentation deck of 10–12 slides. Ensure your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.

Requirements

Part 1: Identify two employers whose Web sites permit candidates to apply for positions online. You may choose any employer but preferably ones you might work for. Select only employers that allow online applications. Evaluate the user-friendliness of the application process and the value of the general job information found online. Consider whether the posted job information provides candidates with what they would want to know regarding the organization.

Using information from your research, create a PowerPoint slide presentation with bulleted points highlighting your key findings. Include the sites’ links. Add information in the slides’ notes section addressing the following:

* Articulate the user-friendliness of the Web sites.
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.

Part 2: Select two general job search Web sites (such as CareerBuilder, Indeed, SimplyHired, Monster). You may choose local or specific job sites. Look at the ease of use and the value of the general information provided on these Web sites.

Create additional slides for your presentation in which you include the links to the two Web sites and highlight your findings about them. Add information in the slides’ notes sections that includes the following:

* Articulate the user-friendliness of these Web sites. Would you use them to search for a job? Why or why not?
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.
* Summarize findings for or against CapraTek using these selected Web sites for posting positions and searching for applicants.

Part 3: Using your job analysis information for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives, develop a job posting for this position. Make location, salary, and working conditions assumptions as needed. Finish the presentation with slides outlining the essentials for the regional sales representative job description as follows:

* List the necessary qualifications, including educational background, technical experience, skills, and abilities.
* Describe the physical environment and working conditions.
* List the most important duties and responsibilities, with percentage of time spent on each, classifying each duty as essential or non-essential.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 1–4.

* Black, T. (2010). How to use social media as a recruiting tool. Retrieved from http://www.inc.com/guides/2010/04/social-media-recruiting.html

* Hartley, D. (2014). 8 findings about the impact of social media on hiring. Retrieved from http://thehiringsite.careerbuilder.com/surprising-findings-social-media-hiring/

* Heathfield, S. (2015). Recruiting stars: Top 10 ideas for recruiting great candidates. Retrieved from http://www.humanresources.about.com/cs/recruiting/a/candidatepool.htm

* JobDiva.com. (n.d.). Resume harvesting. Retrieved from http://www.jobdiva.info/transcripts/demos/harvesting.htm

* Larsen, M. (2013). The perfect recruiting email. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/the-perfect-recruiting-email/

* Recruiter.com. (n.d.). Recruitment. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/recruitment/

* Software Advice. (n.d.). Compare recruiting management software. Retrieved from http://www.softwareadvice.com/hr/recruiting-software-comparison/?layout=var_c0

Economics and the Growth of Modern Medicine

Description

In the history of health care delivery, the development of various types of technologies has advanced the growth of medical care. Examples of lifesaving technology include the development of the microscope, X-rays, surgical equipment, and medications. These lifesaving technologies have contributed to increased longevity and life expectancy. These technologies have also brought with them increased cost, the emergence of health insurance, managed care, and high malpractice premiums and awards.

Has the benefit derived from these technologies outweighed the associated costs? Why or why not? To support your comments, select, state, and explain about at least two technological developments that have impacted these costs.

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The Economics of Global Health Care

Description

As the costs of health care delivery in the United States continue to soar, it has become necessary to ‘benchmark’ with other countries abroad on how they deliver health care to their citizens. Countries to consider reviewing include:

England.
Canada.
France.
Germany.
Sweden.
Japan.
Cuba.

Select two countries and evaluate how they compare and contrast to how health care is financed.

Methods of Presenting and Communicating Information

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:

Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.

o Chapter 6, “Present and Communicate the Information,” pages 135–160.

o The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 6, pages 204–205.

Discussion Instructions

Graphs, charts, and dashboards are common methods of presenting and communicating information in a business environment. Marr (2010) recommends that leaders and managers keep the target audience in mind when using a four-step process to facilitate Step 4 of the EbM model: presenting and communicating information.

Research up-to-date Internet resources related to business management graphs, charts, and dashboard designs and templates.

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

Explain how a manager can be certain that a presentation focuses on the needs of the audience.
Explain how Marr’s four-step process ensures that presentations are compelling and powerful enough to engage the minds of the audience.
Identify common format choices for graphic presentations.
Discuss one of Marr’s tips for producing useful graphics. Why would this tip be effective?
Explain why dashboards are popular methods for business managers to communicate information.

EBM Process Reflection

Description

Discussion Resource

The following multimedia presentation is provided to help you complete this discussion:

Developing Reflective Practice Skills.

Discussion Instructions

Overview

Through the successful completion of your coursework in Units 6–9, you have explained the key components of the evidence-based management process used in health care management, analyzed sources of information used in evidence-based health care management, demonstrated analytical decision-making skills through the application of an evidence-based management process, and communicated in a manner that is professional and consistent with expectations for members of the business professions. Now that you have reached the end of the course, take time to reflect on your experience and learning over the past five weeks.

Instructions

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

Briefly discuss one of the most valuable personal learning experiences you have had in the last five weeks. Why does this experience stand out for you?
Share an example of something you learned that you will be able to use in your health care management career, either now or in the future. How will it affect your role?
Share an idea, material, resource, or topic that you would like to research or use further, in either your coursework or your career.
Provide links to resources you used in Units 6–9 that you want to save for future use. Provide the APA citations for your resources, and include the URLs for any online materials.

Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations.

Knowledge-to-Action Organizational Culture

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion:

Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.

o Chapter 7, “Turning Information Into Actionable Knowledge,” pages 163–188.

o The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 7, pages 206–208.

Discussion Instructions

Step 5 of the EbM model, making evidence-based decisions, involves asking two important questions:

How can we ensure that available evidence is used to make the decisions?
How do we create a knowledge-to-action culture?

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

Briefly discuss how each of these questions can be successfully answered through management or leadership style and actions.
Think about the organization where you currently work, or one where you worked in the past.

o Analyze the organization’s leadership, IT capability, and organizational culture in terms of the ability to turn information into action.

o Refer directly to Marr’s seven steps to creating a knowledge-to-action culture in your discussion post.

Application of the EbM Steps Presentation

Description

Describe your chosen business management issue.

o Globalization and Technological Advancement

Explain the goal(s) organizational leadership would like to achieve with regard to the issue.
Describe any successes in solving the issue that have already been achieved and the improvements that are still needed.
Analyze the needs of the internal and external stakeholders with regard to the issue.

o Identify the stakeholders.

o Explain how and why they are affected by the issue.

o Explain what they already know about the issue and what they still need to know.

o Explain what the stakeholders will do with the information you are presenting.

Explaining Your Approach and Research

Provide the KPQs and/or KAQs you created for your chosen business management issue.
Describe the types of data you identified as needed to address the issue.
Explain the role of the organization’s IT department and professionals in the data collection process.
Describe the methodologies that could be used to analyze the data. Be sure to include both quantitative and qualitative methods.
Summarize the example source of data that you researched.

o Describe the source of the data.

o Identify the methodology used to collect the data.

o Share an example of actual data you have located.

o Defend the validity and reliability of both the data and its source.

Share one of the articles from a year-to-date professional, peer-reviewed journal that you chose in support of your efforts to resolve the issue.

o Analyze the value of the information found in the article in addressing the business issue.

o What insights did you gain from the article?

o How might the information be applied to the business issue?

Communicating to Stakeholders

Describe the potential types of graphs, graphics, dashboards, and narratives that would be most appropriate and effective to use when presenting and communicating this information to stakeholders.

o Why do you believe your choices would be the best methods?

Explain how your choices support your KPQs and/or KAQs, while still being appropriate for the audience.

Governor’s attempts

Description

Do you think that your Governor attempts to influence agencies to do or not do actions to protect the business climate in your state? Explain.

Screening and Interviewing External Candidates.

Description

In a 13-slide presentation deck, develop a variety of interview questions based on the KSAs and required experience for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.

The most common applicant screening process looks something like this:

* Review of resumes/applications for basic qualifications.
* A phone interview (generally with HR).
* A screening interview with HR that may involve some initial testing, reference checking, or background screening.
* A department interview with more in-depth testing and background checking.
* Additional interviews with other stakeholders.
* A decision process.
* Offer made to selected candidate.

* Based on your own employment experiences, what seems to be the best way to screen applicants so that only qualified applicants are actually invited to be interviewed in person?
* Are background checks and reference checks good business practices? Are they legal?
* Consider an ineffective employment interview that you, a family member, or a coworker experienced. What could the interviewer have done differently to make the interview effective?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

* Familiarize yourself with Chapters 5–14 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.
* Read Baur, Buckley, Bagdasarov, and Dharmasiri’s 2014 article, “A Historical Approach to Realistic Job Previews: An Exploration Into Their Origins, Evolution, and Recommendations for the Future,” in Journal of Management History, volume 20, issue 2, pages 200–223. This article is linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.

Scenario

In Assessment 4, you developed a job analysis for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions. Based on that job analysis, you will interview candidates. Before you can do so, you must develop interview questions based on the required knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) and required experience for the CapraTek position.

Requirements

As a member of CapraTek’s human resources team, you believe the best way to develop the interview plan and select the best candidate is to include a variety of question types. Create a PowerPoint presentation deck containing the following elements, one question per slide. Ensure that your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.

4 structured interview questions.
3 semi-structured interview questions.
2 behavioral interview questions.
2 situational interview questions.

In addition, include the following:

* Explain why the questions are appropriate for CapraTek’s position and do not request illegal information. Place your explanation in the slides’ notes area.
* Describe which question type(s) relates to the KSAs or required experience for CapraTek’s position.
* Include a title slide and (if needed) a resources slide.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–14.
* Baur, J. E., Buckley, M. R., Bagdasarov, Z., & Dharmasiri, A. S. (2014). A historical approach to realistic job previews: An exploration into their origins, evolution, and recommendations for the future. Journal of Management History, 20(2), 200–223. doi:http://dx.doi.org/10.1108/JMH-06-2012-0046

Screening and Selecting Internal Candidates

Description

Write a 5–6 page report describing the process you used to select the best three candidates for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.

Recruiting candidates is only the first step in the hiring process. Evaluating candidates, selecting those to interview, conducting interviews and background screenings, presenting a job offer, and onboarding the new employee are subsequent tasks.

The Assessment 6 Context document provides additional information about these processes.

* Which employee development methods have you experienced in the workplace? How did these methods affect your retention and engagement? How could the manager have improved the strategies used to make them even more effective?
* What are the primary elements of an effective coaching style? How can a manager be a coach?
* How effective is a current or former manager’s coaching style and use of coaching strategies?
* What are the key steps you would include in a company’s internal recruiting and selection process manual?
* Why would an organization use a contract-to-hire approach to fill a job? How might an employee view this type of situation? Would you take a contract-to-hire job? Why or why not?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

* Read Chapter 15 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees.
* Complete the Candidate Selection interactive media piece, linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.

Scenario

You have written a job description for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions and determined job requirements. Now it is time to determine testing methods and choose the top three candidates to interview.

Requirements

After reviewing the CapraTek regional sales representative job description and requirements you developed for Assessment 5, use the Candidate Selection media piece to review the candidates’ resumes. In a 5–6 page report, include the following in your explanation of the candidate selection process:

* Explain why and when candidate background checks will be authorized.
– Identify pre-employment screening tests for the position being recruited.
– Articulate possible legal issues associated with candidate screenings.
* Select assessment methods to use based on the job being recruited and the budget available.
– Develop the sequence in which methods will be used to screen applicants.
– Explain how technology will impact choice of screening and selection methods.
* Design a final candidate selection process for the position being recruited.
– Describe the method you would use to make your final hiring decision (compensatory, hurdles, weighted, et cetera).
– Determine which candidates meet the basic job requirements.
– Identify the top three candidates to interview for the position.
– Explain your rationale for why the selected candidates should be interviewed.

Additional Requirements

* Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Double-spaced, typed pages.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 15.

* Use the transcript attached to analyze and apply initial screening methods for selecting candidates at CapraTek.

Oversight of Executive Branch

Description

How does your state legislature maintain the review and oversight of the actions of the executive branch? What types of questions should be asked by legislators at committee hearings of agency heads, in your opinion?

Performance Based Management.

Description

Progressive states have moved to performance-based management to create transparency and public accountability. They have also provided and encouraged easy access to information on how well the government is operating. Information for the public is often posted online. For a state website that does this, see www.vaperforms.virginia.gov/. What is the impact of posting agency performance and the role the state legislature plays in its oversight duties?

Unit 3 Assignment

Description

Write a 3-4 page paper discussing the response of legislators to a proposed gubernatorial change in policy towards the state’s natural resources based on the following scenario:

Governor Goode E. Nuff was elected on a platform that promised greater protection for the state of her state’s natural resources, including a bay with diverse habitat supporting bountiful fish and shellfish.

Over the past decade, developers have been changing the shores of her state’ bay turning what was once the source of a vital and productive fishery into a haven for large homes and resorts that take advantage of the beautiful water view.

The Governor is dedicated to changing the bureaucracy and the state legislature, which have tended toward favoring developers in the past, with an eye to focusing their efforts on policies more in line with the views and priorities of those citizens who voted her into office.

To that end, she has decided to include in her legislative agenda a major push to accomplish the realignment, during the third year of her four-year term.

This agenda includes:

A proposal to give citizen groups greater power to challenge new development based on evidence of it having an adverse impact on the environment
A reorganization of the agency responsible for protecting her state’s bay with the creation of a new enforcement policy empowering the state to bring civil suits for money damages against industrial and developmental polluters
Empowering citizen groups to intervene in county zoning decisions that would encroach upon naturally open space in environmentally sensitive areas
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A substantial budget increase for the environmental enforcement agency to for the hiring of 100 additional inspectors to monitor for violations and ensure adherence to state standards for environmental protection. This legislative program requires a 14% budget increase for that agency, an amount 10% above the average 4% increase for all other state agencies.

Some members of the legislature feel that Governor Goode E. Nuff is “radical” in her approach and in her attempt to gear state policy toward protection and preservation of natural resources.

Your paper must address the following criteria:

What tactics can the Governor expect from these legislators and other interested parties as they attempt to “moderate” the Governor’s program?
On what specific points can the Governor expect direct conflict with the legislators and opposing interest groups?
Which parts of the Governor’s agenda are most vulnerable to attack by her opponents in the legislature, and therefore most likely to be modified or even defeated during the legislative process? What risks might the legislature be taking? What gains or losses might they face from the success or failure of such attacks, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
What might be the best strategy for the administration to adopt in combating and countering those attacks? What gains or losses might she face from the success or failure of that strategy, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
How might the legislative opponents attack this agenda?

In addition to fulfilling the specifics of the Assignment, a successful paper must also meet the following criteria:

Lengthshould be 3-4 pages, excluding cover page and references; in 10-12 point font (Arial, Courier, and Times New Roman are acceptable).
Assignment should follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.).
Writingshould be well ordered, logical and unified, as well as original and insightful
Your work should display superior content, organization, style,and mechanics
Appropriate citationstyle should be followed.
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Healthcare

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

General Questions

For this assignment, read the case study, The 1920 Farrow’s Bank failure: a case of managerial hubris. This case is located in the ABI/Inform Complete Database found in the CSU Online Library (see reference below).

Hollow, M. (2014). The 1920 farrow’s bank failure: A case of managerial hubris? Journal of Management History, 20(2), 164-178.

Thomas Farrow had been evaluated as having been inflicted by managerial hubris at the time of the bank’s collapse in 1920. With this in mind, address the following questions, with thorough explanations and well-supported rationale.

How did corporate culture, leadership, power and motivation affect Thomas’ level of managerial hubris?
Relate managerial hubris to ethical decision making and the overall impact on the business environment.
Explain the pressures associated with ethical decision making at Farrows Bank.
Evaluate whether the level of managerial hubris would have been decreased if Farrow Bank had a truly ethical business culture. Could this have affected the final outcome of Farrow Bank? Explain your position.

Your response should be a minimum of three and half double- spaced pages (not including the refernce page and title page). References should include your required reading (attached) , case study (attached) reference plus a minimum of one additional credible reference. All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.

Business

For this assignment, you will take on the role of a Vice President of a major organization. The CEO has assigned you the responsibility of educating the leaders within the organization of the importance of maintaining an ethical culture. The tone of the presentation should be of a persuasive nature as you will also be asking these leaders to take this initiative to each of their areas. As you compile this presentation, include the following:

Explain exactly what it means to maintain an ethical culture within the organization.
Analyze the role that culture plays in global business ethics.
Describe and persuade on the importance and rationale for maintaining an ethical culture within the entire organization. Think about methods that could be used to motivate towards ethical business practices.
Recommend tactical methods that might be used within each of their areas.

Your PowerPoint presentation should be 14 slides, not including the title slide and reference slide. All sources used must be referenced and paraphrased. Directly quoted material must have accompanying citations and be cited per APA guidelines.

Use of speaker notes is required as well. In the speaker notes, you will provide what you would say if you were actually giving the presentation to an audience. Please write your notes in complete sentences and adhere to typical grammar and/or punctuation rules.

Business

Select a significant tragic event (either domestic or global) that has occurred during the last 50 years. The interactive PowerPoint in this unit provides some ideas of historical tragic events but understand that these are just ideas. After describing the event and the post-tragedy events, discuss the ethical aspects revolving around this incident. This may require some additional research to understand the ethical situations and the impact these had on affected people being able to move on with their lives.

Describe the actions of people and organizational leaders directly and indirectly involved with the tragedy. Specifically, address the ethical issues they faced.
What were some of the actions of local, state and federal personnel with respect to dealing with this tragedy?
Explain the strategies of organizations that attempted to assist with the clean-up after the tragic event. Describe several of the pressures that influenced their strategies. Distinguish between social responsibility, integrity and simple business ethics.
How has this event affected the ethical culture here in the United States? What other affect has it had on society as a whole?

Your response should be a minimum of three double-spaced pages. References should include, at minimum, one additional credible reference beyond the required reading (attached required reading). All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.

Business

Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

Business

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

Business

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

General Business

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

HIUS 221 National Park Essay

I have to turn in a report on a National Park or Museum in my area and I chose Serpent Mound Park in Peebles Ohio. See the directions below

Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

Completing This Assignment:

The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
When you are finished, your assignment must be:

o In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

o Formatted, including:

12-point Times New Roman font
double-spaced
1-inch margins
Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

Accounting

What is periodicity assumption? Please explain this accounting concept and provide examples when possible. This discussion needs to be at least 300-400 words.

History

Who is Vasco Núñez de Balboa? Please give a quick overview (around 3-5 paragraphs will do) of his early life, major contributions to explorations and history in general.

Mathematics

A car is traveling at 60 mph and is tailgating another car at distance of only 30 ft. If the reaction time of the tailgater is 0.5 seconds (time between seeing the brake lights of the car ahead flash and hitting the brake), how far will his car travel during his reaction time?

Important note: Please discuss comprehensively how you got your answer.

Psychology tests: What Is Reliability?

What are the types of Reliability considered in the field of Psychology? Explain each briefly. When possible, provide samples. Cite references please.

History

Discuss the damage wrought by the Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami. Include details on death tolls, total amount of damage, effect/impact on the cities affected, etc. Essay needs to be around 300-500 words.

Question on GDP and national growth rate

How does a country’s GDP factor in determining a country’s growth rate? Explain and give an example of a country. Cite references.

Need help with Physics word problem

A man is 2,000 m from the base of a tower and is launching a rocket in the direction of the same tower. When the rocket takes off the change in the angle between the flight path and the land is represented by Φ(t) according to time. Knowing that Φ'(t) = Π/3, determine:

The height of the rocket when Φ = Π/3 radians.

Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

Modern treatments for pre-eclampsia

Explain what preeclampsia is, symptoms, diagnosis, and the most recent treatments being offered. Cite references.

How Dialysis works as Kidney Treatment

How does the process of Dialysis work to resolve kidney problems? Please explain comprehensively how the process works and do cite medical references when possible.

Which formula should be used to determine the total cost

The wedding photographer for the Smith/Jones wedding charges $1,000 for her preparation and first 60 prints. The cost is $2.00 per photo for photos beyond the first 60. Which formula should be used to determine the total cost, C, as a function of the number of photos, p, that are purchased, assuming at least 60 are purchased?

C = 1000 p + 2
C = 1000(2p – 60)
C = 1000 + 2(p – 60)

Please explain your answer. Thanks!

Essay on Cloning morality, and its pros and cons

Why is the morality of cloning being questioned? Does the act of cloning have benefits or disadvantages? What are they? Please answer with a 500 word essay. Cite references.

Discuss the concept of Marxism

Please explain the concept of Marxism. Make sure to discuss its pros and cons in society. Give a detailed answer, cite references when possible. This has to be at least 500 words.

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Short essay on Pablo Neruda’s work

What was Pablo Neruda’s most notable work? Which one do you prefer? Explain your answers in 300-500 words.

Explain Hypothetical Syllogism

What does hypothetical syllogism mean in the field of Philosophy? Explain in 300 words, provide examples.

What is the ‘real story’ behind the animated film Pocahontas?

From what I know this film was based on a true story. Please discuss the factual turn of events in the Pocahontas – John Smith story and provide a brief comparison of those events and the characterization made on the film.

I just need a short, around 300-500 word essay on this. Thanks!

Essay on Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”

Provide a brief summary of Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”. In addition to the book’s basic plot, discuss as well how this relate’s to society and what significant lessons can be learned from it.

Essay/answer has to be no less than 500 words. Thank you!

Need help with Carbonic acid solution

How many milliliters of 60% carbonic acid must be mixed with how many milliliters of 15% carbonic acid to make 650 milliliters of a 38% carbonic acid solution?

Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

Japan’s rise to power after World War 2

Please discuss Japan’s rise back to power as a first-world country after the Second World War. How did they do it? How far have they progressed after that time in history? This essay needs to be at least 500 words.

Question on Caste culture in India

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? What is its good and bad sides? Please answer comprehensively and make sure to cite references. Answer must be no less than 300 words.

Question on Adam Smith and Capitalism

Discuss Adam Smith and His Invisible Hand of Capitalism. Discuss the merits of this theory. Please cite examples or situations whenever possible. Cite references.

Discuss the story of the Yamashita’s treasure

What is the story behind the ‘controversial’ Yamashita treasure? Discuss this in no less than 300 words. Make sure to share interesting facts.

Federal vs Republican Government – which is better?

What is the difference between a Federal and Republican government? Explain the good and bad sides of each, and please provide examples of countries where these two government systems are implemented. Answer needs to be at least 500 words. Cite references please.

What is systems theory in management?

What is the systems theory used in the management setting? What is pros and cons? Give or cite a workplace situation where you think it is most effective and why?

Need help factoring polynomials

Please help factor these polynomials. I would also appreciate if you can discuss briefly how you arrived at the answer, and provide tips on how to work on similar problems in the future. Thanks

1.) x² – 15x + 54

2.) x² – 8x – 9

3.) x² – 10x – 11

4) x² – 6x – 16

Describe the role of women in US politics

Describe the role of women in US politics in recent years. Give three names of women who have played a significant role in this field usually dominated by men. Give details on their contributions to the US legislation etc.

What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate?

What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate? What do you think are his merits? What do you think are the cons of voting for him? Please present this in an essay form, college-level writing, and do include political science concepts that apply to your answer.

Health & Medical

Give five examples of strength training exercises that runners can use in their daily training. Explain the steps for each, and how the athlete can benefit. Cite medical references when possible.

Science

What is the free energy change if the ratio of the concentrations of the products to the concentrations of the reactants is 22.3, and the temperature is 37.0 °C? ΔG°\’ for the reaction is –16.7 kJ/mol. Please explain how you got your answer

History

In a short essay, about 300-400 words please describe the French Renaissance era. Make sure to cite references.

Mathematics

Please solve: Solve log ( 2x + 1 ) – log 6 = 2 for x. Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

Philosophy

Can you please tell me a bit about Existential phenomenology? Just a brief explanation of what it’s all about will do.

What is the final temperature of the mixture?

An ice cube having a mass of 50 grams and an initial temperature of -10 degrees Celsius is placed in 400 grams of 40 degrees Celsius water. What is the final temperature of the mixture if the effects of the container can be neglected? Discuss your answer.

Help find the mean and standard deviation values

Seven samples were obtained having the values 21, 22, 26, 29, 27, 26 and 24. The mean and standard deviation values are ____________?

Economics international finance question.

Question

Assume the exchange rate is fixed (and expected to remain fixed). Using numbers and the ‘money supply-money demand and interest rate parity diagram’, explain how an increase in the U.S. interest rate from 3% to 7% affects the Mexican interest rate, foreign exchange reserves, and the money supply in the very short run. Hold domestic credit fixed. Also include the diagram that shows the flows in money and bonds.
The exchange rate is fixed. Using the two-sector model, explain how an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the traded sector affects domestic prices, wages, and the price level in the long run. Hold all other exogenous variables fixed.
Fill in the blanks. Do not explain; just fill in the blanks (put your answers in the booklet). (a) The exchange rate is fixed today. If, all of sudden, investors expect a devaluation of the domestic currency in the near future (there is an exogenous increase in the expected future exchange rate), the domestic interest rate ________ and foreign exchange reserves _________ in the very short run. (b) In the two-sector model with a fixed exchange rate, an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the non-traded sector causes the price of the non-traded good to _______ and the wage rate to _________ (hold other exogenous variables fixed). (c) In the early 1960s, the inflation rate in Japan was ___________ the inflation rate in the U.S. The last time that Canada had a fixed exchange rate was between the years 1962 and ________. (d) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, the exact equation for interest rate parity is ________________________. The approximate version of the Fisher equation is written as _____________________. (e) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, a temporary increase in the money supply results in ________ in the nominal interest rate and _________ in net exports.
(a) Draw the diagram for the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate (label the axes). Show the initial equilibrium as point A. Suppose there is a future increase in the money supply (the current-period money supply is unchanged). Show the shifts in the curves (or lines), if any, and denote the new equilibrium as point C. Just draw the diagram; do not explain. (b) Consider the three-sector model with a fixed exchange rate. Using equations, explain what determines the ‘terms of trade’ in the domestic eco
nomy (suppose the domestic economy exports the resource good and imports the manufactured good).

Why was grassroots conservatism?

Question

1.Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s? I need this question answered in simple summary form using simple words.

Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber War and his argument

Question

Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber Warand his argument that our current Cybersecurity protection programs are inadequate, outline the sixsteps he recommends to improve America’s security as presented in his final chapter “The Agenda,” and provide your personal assessment and analysis of his recommendations.
Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the TelecommunicationsCI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, impact on other CIs, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding the future security of telecommunications.
Discuss“Cyberpeace”as a concept. Include the possible applicability of international laws, treaties, enforcement of law and possible punishments, and other aspects that would be leveraged for success such as those used for the Nuclear Non-Proliferation programs. Is this concept realistic and can the nations of the World come together and make it happen? Explain.
Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the Transportation CI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding enhanced Cybersecurity of these key national assets.

Answers must be thorough and in APA format with sources cited. Answers must be 2 pages per question.

History 111

Question

What specific gains did the civil rights movement achieve in the 1960s and how were those gains limited?
Help

Question

Your best friends invite you over for pizza and a friendly game of cards. Describe how the following parts of the brain are involved during your evening of eating pizza, socializing, and playing cards: Broca’s area, hippocampus, hypothalamus, and occipital lobe.

Targeting unhealthy foods and drinks to children

Question

Read the link below and answer the following questions

Is the FCC missing the mark on their inability to hold social media to the same standard as television and radio? Does this pose an even greater threat to our children in the long run?

https://www.azcentral.com/story/news/health/2019/03/04/instagram-social-media-may-cause-kids-eat-unhealthy-study/3052978002/

The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function

Question

The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function. If represents the original area of the wound and if A equals the area of the wound, then the formula describes the area of a wound after n days following an injury when no infection is present to retard the healing. Suppose that a wound initially had an area of 100 square millimeters.a) If healing is taking place, how large should the area of the wound be after 3 days?b) How large should it be after 10 days?c) How many days will it take before the wound is 11 square centimeters?

Business stat

Question

Michael is running for president. The proportion of voters who favor Michael is 0.8. A simple random sample of 100 voters is taken. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between .70 and .90? Answer

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than .05 of the population proportion?

The average starting salary for this year’s graduates at a large university (LU) is $20,000 with a standard deviation of $4,000. Furthermore, it is known that the starting salaries are normally distributed. All probabilities should be to four decimal places.

What is the probability that a randomly selected LU graduate will have a starting salary of at least $30,400? Answer

Individuals with starting salaries of less than $15,600 receive a low income tax break. What percentage of the graduates will receive the tax break? (Round to two decimal places) Answer

What are the minimum and the maximum starting salaries of the middle 95% of the LU graduates? (Round to two decimal places) Minimum Answer, Maximum Answer

A department store has determined that 25% of all their sales are credit sales. A random sample of 75 sales is selected. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between 0.20 and 0.30? Answer

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than 0.15

An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance

Question

An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance structure is optimal. Compare a pharmaceutical R&D alliance with a prescription-drug marketing agreement, and recommend a governing mechanism for each. Provide reasons for your selections.

“Should We Require Labeling of Genetically Modified Food?”

Question

What do you think we can do to get our government to follow other country and require more disclosure on our food contents?

Why isn’t US requiring the same thing? What do we, the consumers, have to do to get our government to look out for our health rather than the pockets of the food producers.

Feasibility of CSR initiatives in SMEs – benefits and challenges

Question

Recognize and identify ethical issue(s) (i.e., competing viewpoints) present; identify the social responsibility complexities present and explain how they may impact resolution of the issues.

Select an issue of corporate social responsibility beyond the assigned readings and online discussions. The research paper should be 5 full pages of substantive content, and should rely on at least 3 credible sources. (Credible sources refer to books and published articles that are respected for academic purposes, and not web articles, blogs, or Wikipedia-type sources) The report will: 1) identify the issue; 2) describe any stakeholders involved in the issue and their role(s) in addressing it; 3) information/data pertaining to the issue from your researched source materials; 4) potential solutions to the issue; 5) any challenges or impediments in implementing the solution(s); and 6) Conclusion. You should include a cover page, a reference page (Bibliography), and end-notes page; these pages are not included in the pages of content.

Online/offline Marketing Audit

Conduct an online and offline marketing audit for a brand of your choosing. Discuss the current use of online & offline marketing techniques they use to get their marketing message out. Conduct a deep analysis of their website and the tools used to drive people to use their services and/or purchase their products.

Analyze an interactive marketing strategy for a company of your choosing.

3 full pages

Essay

Question

Summary:

Newspaper Article Assignment:

There are many critical international issues happening in the world today that are directly related to historical events or eras we’ve discussed in this class. For this assignment, you must find a recent news article (from a credible source – email me if you are unsure of a source) about a current event and write a paper about how the article relates to an event or era discussed in this class. This is not an informative paper, but rather you must use critical thinking to discuss how the current event is related to the history we’ve discussed and how it differs. Compare and contrast the present with the past using course readings, lectures, and outside sources if necessary to supplement your paper. Any supplemental sources should not be the main focus of your paper; your analysis of the newspaper article chosen is, and it should be obvious which is your main article.

Cite everything using footnotes (with full bibliographic information in them).

DO NOT PUT PARENTHESES IN YOUR TEXT.

*** Your answer must be about 5 pages (no more, no less), typed, DOUBLE SPACED, and 12-point Times New Roman font, one inch margins. You will be graded on content, grammar, punctuation, and following directions. Remember, these papers add up to 20% of your final grade; they should be a well thought out responses with a beginning, middle, and end. ***

Guidelines:

Find an article from a credible source – avoid 24-hour news channels (Fox News, CNN, MSNBC, etc.)… If you are unsure of your source, please email me.
Be specific. I want you to really think about this article and your response to it and how it fits into our course… You MUST cite course materials (lectures, readings, etc.)
Avoid replacing arguments with examples. Use examples to illustrate a general claim, not as a replacement for them. Examples by themselves tend toward selection bias and hasty generalizations.
I am interested in content, not clever rhetorical flourish. Thus, avoid filler material… DO NOT USE BLOCK QUOTES FROM THE ARTICLES OR READINGS. Direct quotes should be no longer than 2 sentences, MAXIMUM.
If you do not cite, even when you paraphrase, it will be considered plagiarism. PLAGIARIZED PAPERS WILL BE PENALIED EITHER BY AN F ON THE PAPER OR THE COURSE AND WILL BE REPORTED TO THE DEAN.
PROOFREAD YOUR PAPER. You will be marked off for typos, punctuation errors, and/or major disorganization.
The heading of your paper should be your name ONLY.
1-inch margins all around
The paper is to be at least 5 FULL pages long, not less (No cover page).

Topics to pick from:(Pick one that’s easy to for you)

-Fin de Siècle & The Dreyfus Affair “J’Accuse” (Emile Zola’s letter)
– Russo-Japanese War and the Antecedents to the Great War “The Serbs and the Hapsburgs”

– World War I “The Night the Angels Sang” essay

-The Armenian Genocide De Waal – Armenian Genocide
– The Bolshevik Revolution & Ukraine Famine Anthem by Ayn Rand & Jones chapter
– The Origins of the Nazi Party Excerpt from The Hitler Myth
– The Rise of the Nazis & Suppression of the Jews Excerpt from Between Dignity and Despair
-The Rape of Nanking Excerpt from The Rape of Nanking
– The Politics of World War II in Europe USHMM doc

It is no secret that we have a large trade deficit

Question

Read the below link and answer the questions.

Word count 300

Arguments for protectionism would be to aide job creation or to keep wages up. This sounds great, but can all business sectors be protected or just few?

https://www.forbes.com/sites/patrickwwatson/2019/02/06/science-says-protectionism-wont-work/#3864e00873b4

Algebra 1

Instruction

Students need to complete one project and submit it before Friday of week 15. The official deadline for submission is Apr 12, 2019, before 9 PM. Format guidelines The project can be any topic in relation to algebra and its applications. However, it should NOT be on the material that is already covered in class. The students must select their own projects and articles. Important: No part of the project can be a copy and paste from anywhere, including the article under discussion (except the data and images, which need to be properly cited). If in doubt read https://ombud.msu.edu/academic-integrity/plagiarism-policy.html Turnitin has a built-in plagiarism tracker. Please use it to your advantage. The entire document should be written in APA format and should be between 4 to 10 pages in length not including images and the cover page. No extra wide margins are allowed. The margins should not be more than 1” in any direction. Choosing a topic Students must choose their own topics. Once the topic is chosen please post the topic in the following thread https://online.brooklinecollege.edu/mod/forum/view.php?id=539558 Start a new thread with the topic of your project as the subject line and post your topic in this thread. The same topic is not allowed for any two students. The student who posts a topic first gets it. Examples of viable projects: Mortgage rates Auto loan Compound interest Submission All papers should be submitted as a pdf file via the Turnitin module of Week 15. If any technical issues are encountered then contact your instructor asap. Rubric The following are the sections on which the project will be graded. A clear description of the objective of the article (20%) A clear description of the algebraic methods used (30%) Interpretation of the results (30%) Analysis of the conclusions of the article (20%) These 4 sections form the essential parts of any research article. The competence demonstrated in achieving the objective of each of these sections will be awarded accordingly. The rubric for each section and the article as a whole is 0 – Incoherent content, rambling on for pages, a clear indication of no work done, poorly chosen topic, a generic topic with no original content, copy paste from Wikipedia, a topic which is disallowed on grounds of being textbook material 1 – Some content, poorly researched, and hastily put together at the last minute 2 – Some research is done but the substance is still incoherent showing a lack of understanding 3 – Sufficient work is done, but the sections are not well-written and contain loose language and lack general cohesiveness 4 – Well researched and well-written. Minor typos, grammatical errors, lack of organization of the paper, too short a paper 5 – Excellent work, very well researched. Sections are clearly defined in terms of meaningful progress. The plan of the paper binds everything together in a cohesive manner This is applicable to each of the four sections and the whole article. So a total of 25 points possible. That will be scaled to 100 by multiplying by 4.

Performing Arts

The incredible true story of how boundary-shattering New England astronomer Henrietta Leavitt trades with comforts of her rural home for a job at the Harvard Observatory in Massachusetts. Her ambition leaves both her family and her new colleagues (women knows simply as “computers”) perplexed. But with a single discovery, their views of themselves, each other, and the universe itself will be upended for all time. An incredible story of bold love, boundless determination, and the vast grandeur of the cosmos – an unparalleled treat for the heart, mind, and senses. Please write a one page review to include your opinion of the play (text), the production (lights, set, costumes, etc.), the performance (acting), and your overall experience.

Week 8 – Assignment: Interpret the Implications of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

Now is the time to compile all the concepts you have learned in this course into a comprehensive case study analysis. Assume you are an instructor presenting an unethical case study to your graduate students. Develop a PowerPoint presentation on a business of your choice. Be sure you include clear examples to support your findings. Please discuss unethical business actions that occurred from 2015 to present. Ensure to address the following key components for your student audience: Provide a brief historical summary of the organization. Identify and explain the unethical business practice examined. Reflect on ethical standards and why this practice was a violation of ethical behavior. Determine the influence of leadership in regards to this behavior. Explain any related cultural, environmental, and legal implications related to the behavior. Interpret the impact of the behavior on individuals, the organization, and society as a whole. Explain the outcome of the event, along with a comparison of the consequences (mention legal implications for the action). Determine the fairness of punishment. Explain your rationale using an ethical theory, as found in the recommended reading, to justify your rationale for the punishment’s fairness. Explain how organizational policies and procedures could be implemented to deter future occurrences like this from happening. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with at least eight scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 15-20 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Week 6 – Assignment: The Organization’s Influence on Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions The assigned reading articles provide a great deal of information regarding the impact that organizational systems have on unethical behavior. For example, in the article by Kilduff et al. (2016), the researchers note that rivalry can often increase unethical behaviors. This week, you will explain how an organization’s culture (e.g., systems and practices) can unknowingly/unintentionally increase unethical behavior among employees. Explain the importance of organizational culture and codes of conduct in encouraging ethical behavior. Assess three organizational policies or practices, as found in the reading and outside research, which can increase unethical behavior among employees. Propose informal and formal system solutions to reduce unethical behavior in organizations. Explain the benefits of these system solutions, as well as possible implications for these solutions. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

Week 5 – Assignment: Critique Ethical Issues Regarding Information Technology

Instruction

You have been hired as a consultant in the IT Department at Northcentral University. One of the University’s current goals is to minimize security threats and prevent breaches. To accomplish this, you have been asked to research last year’s “major hacks” to understand technology, information security measures, and issues in security management. Prepare a report for the IT supervisor that includes the following: Select one major incident to research regarding technological breaches. Identify the company that was affected, and then describe this incident and why you selected it. Explain the implications associated with this breach, specifically in terms of privacy laws and violations of the law. Analyze the impact that these technological breaches have on consumer safety and well-being. What recommendations would you make to this organization to further protect the privacy of clients? Support your report with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

Week 4 – Assignment: Effects of Ethical/Unethical Behaviors

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions While Wal-Mart may employ a number of individuals (e.g., 2.1 million worldwide), throughout the years, the company received negative attention in terms of their business model and practices. Not only has Wal-Mart been accused of treating employees poorly, but they have also been the target of discrimination scandals. Begin by referring to the article in the resources for this week concerning Wal-Mart. Then, conduct a review of relevant research regarding Wal-Mart and its practices. In your paper, after thoroughly researching the Wal-Mart Corporation, address the following: Briefly summarize WalMart’s mission, vision, and values. Evaluate WalMart’s actions (e.g., unethical behaviors). Elaborate on whether the actions by WalMart are illegal. Justify your rationale. Determine how WalMart can improve its corporate culture and leadership. Then, suggest steps for improvement that could be taken to improve WalMart’s culture. In addition to conducting your own research regarding WalMart, you may find it advantageous, when developing your assignment, to watch the videos included in this week’s resources. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

Week 3 – Assignment: Evaluate the Price of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you evaluate a recent business case of unethical behavior with which you are familiar. Be sure to address the following in your paper: Briefly summarize the historical scenario surrounding your selected case. Explain how and why you believe the unethical behaviors occurred for as long as they did. Evaluate the outcome of events, including relations with internal and external stakeholders. Determine and explain if the punishment was justified. Explain if and why it is difficult for us to identify ethical breaches that we personally commit. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Week 2 – Assignment: Examine Notions of Ethical Leadership

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Assume you are an instructor of a graduate-level leadership and ethics course. In this course, your students are not convinced that the actions of leaders can truly impact individuals, the organization, and society. Therefore, you need to convey how ethical behaviors do in fact impact many individuals and further reiterate the need for ethical leadership. Explain how the authors in your readings and additional research define leadership. Specifically, focus your explanation on what it means to be an ethical leader. Interpret the manner in which leaders serve as role models (better or worse) for ethical behavior. Determine the impact the concept of trustworthiness has on the level of trust in organizational leadership. Based on your research, describe the impact that leadership behavior can have on individuals, organizations, and society. Then, explain which of the articles above convinced you of the benefits of ethical leadership, as well as the role of leaders. Identify any correlations that exist between leadership, trustworthiness, and ethics. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 150-250 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate. Save the file as PPT with the correct course code information. Upload your assignment using the Upload Assignment button below.

Week 1 – Assignment: Assessing Ethical Influences

Instruction

In 2009, an article was published by Kostigen, which highlighted the names of 10 unethical business people. While the names on similar lists change throughout the years, the names on this 2009 list often strike most recall among the business community. Examine this list, which can be found at http://www.marketwatch.com/story/the-10-most-unethical-people-in-business. Then, select one individual on this list to focus your paper on. Provide information regarding the individual’s unethical action/behavior. Based upon the research you conduct on this individual, utilize the articles by Bagdasarov et al. (2016) and Schwartz (2016) to analyze factors that might have contributed to this individual’s unethical behavior. Focus specifically on how diversity (e.g., cultural, gender, religious, etc. could have impacted/influenced the unethical behavior). Explain and justify the factors that may have influenced this individual to make the decision that he/she did. Explain how the decision made is reflective of Figure 1 (e.g., the integrated ethical decision-making model), in the research article by Schwartz (2016). Determine how this behavior could have been prevented if one or more of the factors mentioned above were removed. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Computer Science

Instruction

Hello, I’m looking for a professional in computer science majors only. I have 3 classes. I will make it very clear I’m not looking for writers. 1. Data Analysis and Reporting Class: / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the VMware Horizon client. You also will use Visual Studio 2017. Also, there’s reading quizzes and assignment quizzes. These class 8 weeks work, which means 8 assignments in SQL database / ERDs. 24 quizzes “I will support you will old papers for all quizzes” 2. Data Analysis/Visualization Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016. Also, there’s an assignment project om SAM project website. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. 3. Predictive Data Analysis Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016 and you will Using R programing language for Introductory Econometrics by Florian Hess. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the whole classes or not. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus 1,2,3. These classes will end on May 6. So, it’s only 2 months’ work.

History

Instruction

Write an essay of 2 to 4 pages in length comparing the words used in the “U.S. Declaration of Sentiments of Seneca Fall (1848)” with “The Emancipation of Women and Resolutions of the International Congress of Women.

Finance
Convert the four financial statements by the selected company from the GAAP to IFRIS standard B. Write an analysis at the end of each financial statement that show the most important changes cause of converted. C. Answer the following question after you complete convert of all the financial statements:

Healthcare

Instruction

There are seven components to this paper. They follow the EBP process. You will combine all the components into one project.

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time?

Article review and power point

Instruction

I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise.

Nursing Homework Help

What is the role of health care reform in shifting the focus from a disease-oriented health care system toward one of wellness and prevention, and how does nursing fit into this shift?

Nursing Homework Help

What is the impact to the nursing profession and to the public related to the projected nursing shortage? Discuss at least one way that the nursing profession is working toward a resolution of this problem.

SCI/220 Week 2 Food Intake

Record food intake and activities performed for three days. The iProfile® will be utilized to analyze the 3-day Food Intake Record. The Activities data will be analyzed during Week 4.

Enter your food intake for three full days using the food journal within iProfile®.

Follow the WileyPLUS® iProfile® instructions. Save this information.

Access the Intake Spreadsheet within the reports menu. Select start and end dates in the calendar at the top of the screen. The intake spreadsheet will calculate and display the average for the three days. Attach a screenshot of your report or export the report using Excel or PDF.

Write a paper of at least 750 words that addresses the following points about your 3-day food intake:

Recorded intake of protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
Which foods in your recorded daily intake provide protein? Which provide carbohydrates? Which provide lipids?
Review how your recorded protein, carbohydrate, and lipid intake compares with the recommendations of the dietary reference intake. If your recorded protein-carbohydrate-fat intake was too high or too low, which foods might you add or remove to achieve your goal and keep other nutrients in balance?
Is the protein in each food you ate complete or incomplete, combining to become complementary? Why is this important?

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How much of your daily recommended protein, carbohydrates, and lipid intake did you achieve? If your macronutrient intake is insufficient or excessive, what might you do to bring it into the recommended range? Provide specific recommendations.
Macronutrient intake ranges
- Is macronutrient intake within the recommended range important? What are the effects of too much or too little of a macronutrient? What happens if you consistently eat too little protein? What happens if you eat too few carbohydrates? What happens if you eat too few lipids?
Fiber intake ranges
- Does your fiber total meet 100% of the recommendation for you as calculated at iProfile®?
- Does your diet meet the minimum number of servings of foods from each fiber-containing group? If not, which of the fiber-containing groups–fruits and vegetables–fell short of the recommended intake?
- Which specific foods provide the most fiber in your meals? Which provide the least? Identify trends in your food choices that might affect your fiber intakes.
Dietary modifications
- What changes might you make to increase the fiber in your diet?
- How might insufficient or excessive amounts of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, or fiber contribute to health or illness? Provide examples.
- What have you learned about your diet?

Cite three references other than the course text.

2 Discussion Question (Criminal Justice)

Questions:

Which model do you think contemporary American society prefers? Explain why
Are dangerous societal trends being captured in UCR/NIBRS or NCVS programs? Explain why or why not.
Reflection Paper

You have learned a great deal this term! You can now bring so much more to the table and help contribute to the success of your team and the company.

Reflect on what you have learned in this course and program.
Share with us three (3) strengthsyou can now bring to the table

Law Homework Help

Key Assignment Draft

In those states with the three strikes laws, any person who has 2 felony strikes and commits another felony, whether it be violent or not, can be required to serve a sentence of 25 years to life.

Look at the case of Ewing v. California:

Ewing v. California
- Click on the PDF link next to the case title.

The defendant had his third strike when he committed grand theft at a golf course in Los Angeles County. This was not a violent crime but he was subject to the three strikes laws. He appealed this case up to the United States Supreme Court—and lost.

The public has always been worried about violent crime, but just how worried are citizens about nonviolent crime? With mandatory sentencing, society will have many older inmates within the prison system. In the criminal justice community, it is known that inmates “age out of crime.” Can you imagine a 68-year-old man climbing in a window or jumping an 8-foot fence? By keeping these older inmates incarcerated, is this a disservice to society?

State prosecutors have the discretion to lower the charge so that the third offense would not be considered a third strike. For this assignment, you are a policy maker in your state legislature. You are concerned about the heavy tax burden on your constituents. The cost of the actual running of the prison and costs of personnel will rise.

You are also up for re-election, and the feedback that you have received from your constituents has shown that they are dissatisfied with the law that now stands. They are afraid of violent crimes, not just felonies, and are very aware that the last crime committed by the perpetrator does not have to be a violent crime. They are also worried about the use of their tax dollars to incarcerate nonviolent offenders.

Assignment Guidelines

Address the following in 5–7 pages:
- Develop a policy regarding the three strikes laws in the State of California. Address the following in your policy:
  - What alternatives would be placed in the law to give the state prosecutor more freedom to manipulate the third strike?
  - Many prosecutors “load up” charges against defendants to force a plea bargain. What can be done to limit or prevent this practice?
  - Will your policy allow multiple counts arising from the same incident to count as multiple strikes? (For instance, a man arrested for aggravated robbery because of the use of a weapon is charged with aggravated robbery and a felony gun possession charge. Should that count as 1 strike or 2?)
  - If one of the alternatives was supervised probation, how would you convince the public that it would be more cost-effective for the person to be supervised than incarcerated?
  - Show the public where you would be saving money by not incarcerating the perpetrator.
  - If brought up in the legislature to be an amendment to the law, could this be grandfathered in to help older inmates?
  - Could this have a backlash from the public, or would they approve? How? Why?
- Once you are finished with the policy, draft an executive summary of the policy to be used for political decision making.
Use 6–10 scholarly resources to support the provisions of your policy. Dictionaries and encyclopedias are not scholarly sources. Look at federal and state legislation and court cases.
Be sure to reference all sources using APA style.

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The Social Problems of Crime & Deviance Discussion Post

In about two paragraphs detail the relevance of Steffensmeier et al.’s findings. In other words, are there cases that you have read about that follow the sentencing trends documented in their study? Provide some details about the specific case or cases. Also, thinking about Burt et al., what are some possible solutions to the inequality in our criminal justice system?

Be sure to cite the course readings for full credit.

Literary Analysis Paper

Your task is to write will write a literary analysis of no fewer than 750 words on your chosen given topic.

Choose the topic below that corresponds with the novel you read in the novel study. The introduction should include a clear thesis (not a restatement of the prompt), which should be the claim upon which your essay will be built. Each body paragraph should begin with a strong topic sentence (an assertion), and contain evidence from the novel, as well as your own commentary, which will connect your evidence with the claim. End your essay with a strong conclusion in which you again revisit your thesis statement and give your reader “food for thought”– what didn’t you say in your essay that is relevant to the overall essay and your assertion?

ESSAY PROMPTS

Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Review the following themes of the novel:

Parents must take responsibility for their children, and creators must take responsibility for their creations.
Nature is a source of solace and inspiration.
Manipulation of nature has devastating effects.
Excessive pursuit of knowledge or ambition leads to destruction.
Human beings need love and companionship; repeated rejection and alienation leads to antisocial behavior.

Choice #1: Choose one of the above themes, and analyze how Shelley expresses the theme in the novel.

Choice #2: Analyze a key scene from the novel, discussing how this scene in particular advances one of Shelley’s major themes. In the introduction, contextualize the scene (where in the novel it is located, what characters are present). Then have a clear thesis in which you make your assertion about the scene’s importance (to plot, character, and theme).

Unit 5 Individual Project Final Paper.

Key Assignment

You will use the new venture business plan from ENTR615 and your work from Week 4 for this assignment. The final draft should incorporate feedback provided by your instructor and peers during the course.

The new venture business plan from ENTR615 should include the following sections:

Table of Contents (TOC)
Mission Statement
Vision Statement
Product or Service
Market Opportunity
Competitive Environment

Part 1

Incorporate any new information generated during this course to the following sections of your new venture business plan from ENTR615:

Product or Service
Market Opportunity
Competitive Environment

Part 2

Generate the following new sections for your new venture business plan from ENTR615:

Facilities
Operating Plans
Legal Structure

Part 3

The main component of this part of the assignment is the inclusion of updated and detailed pro forma financial documents.

The financial documents should include the following:

Balance sheet
Income statement
Cash flow statement

Polish and strengthen your plan to improve the following:

Format
Flow
Ideas

Be sure to focus on the following:

The sections should be tightly written and professional in a business rather than academic style.
Present charts, graphs, and other visual aids as appropriate.
Changes made to any aspect of your plan should be reflected in your financial information.

Submit your business plan and financial statements in PDF format. Your most recent EZ Numbers file for the proposed new venture should be submitted in .xlsm format.

Please submit your assignment.

For assistance with your assignment, please use your text, Web resources, and all course materials.

Personal Narrative

Your task is to write a 750-1000 word essay about a memorable event in your life.

ESSAY PROMPT

Annie Dillard’s and Louise Erdrich’s essays are observations of animals that lead back to reflections on their own lives. Write your own personal essay, following these steps.

Write about a memorable event in your life.
Explain how this event led to an insight about your own life or about the human condition.
Organize your ideas into a unified essay.

Step Two: Prewrite

Brainstorm possible topics.

List memorable events or encounters with nature or other people that you remember. Ask yourself questions about ways in which each encounter might be emblematic of a general truth.

Your essay will progress from the personal to the universal and include specific details to help the reader understand the insights gained from the experience.

Get Organized

Decide on the structure of your narrative and create an outline or use a story map to reflect your ideas.

Look back at Living Like Weasels and Local Deer to help you. Ask yourself these questions about each one:

How does the story begin? What techniques are used to engage the audience?
How does the writer develop the narrative? What is the sequence of events? How are the main ideas organized?
How does the writer use setting, people or characters, conflict, and events to reveal a theme about experiencing the natural world?
How does the narrative end? Is there a final observation or reflection on nature?

Flesh out your narrative with descriptive details. Visualize the places and people in your narrative, and write down details about them. Be sure to include qualities and characteristics that make them unique.

Record some ideas for revealing the insight you gained from this experience.

Draft Your Essay

Use your outline to write your essay.

Remember to

Begin by introducing your readers to the setting, people, and experience that will be central to the narrative.
Describe a chronological sequence of events (opens in a new window).
Write from the first-person point of view (opens in a new window), and allow your own unique voice to shine through.
Provide a powerful conclusion. A personal narrative should end with reflections on the events and experiences that have been described.

Revise and Edit

Revise for Words that Wow (opens in a new window).

Scoring

Grading will be assigned on the attached rubric.

Ideas and Evidence (20)

5 points – The introduction creates a vivid impression, clearly establishes the setting, and identifies the experience.
5 points – The narrative provides informative background to help explain events.
5 points – Descriptive details, realistic dialogue (if included), and reflection dramatically re-create the experience.
5 points – The conclusion powerfully summarizes the importance of the experience and offers an insightful observation.

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Organization (10)

4 points – The organization is effective; ideas are arranges logically and events are organized chronologically.
2 points – The pace is effective.
4 points – Well-chosen transitions clearly connect ideas and show the sequence of events.

Language (8)

2 points – A consistent, first-person point of view creates a unique voice.
2 points – Sensory language is used creatively to describe people, places, and events in vivid ways.
2 points – Sentence beginnings, lengths, and structures vary and have a rhythmic flow.
2 points – The writing demonstrates strong command of standard English writing, including spelling, capitalization, punctuation, grammar, and usage.

MLA Formatting (2)

2 points – All MLA Guidelines have been followed— margins, paragraphs indented, double-spacing, 12″ Times New Roman font, heading and title included and formatted correctly, page numbers.

Total marks = 40 points

SCI/220 Week 2 Carbohydrate Pamphlet

Create a 2-page pamphlet/brochure using the Microsoft® Publisher, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Brochure Builder, or another brochure building tool. Include the following details:

A title.
Define carbohydrates and outline the basic functions of sugars, starches and fiber in the body.
Describe the differences between simple and complex carbohydrates, stating healthy carbohydrate sources.
Describe how sugars are broken down and used in the body.
Explain the difference between soluble and insoluble fibers, stating how the difference can be applied to food selection and consumption so as to improve health.
Include information on one of the following disorders related to carbohydrates: lactose intolerance, diabetes, or hypoglycemia.

Include a definition, how it affects the body, and some courses of action used to treat and manage the disorder.

Include a reference with citations in APA format.

Include clip art and a background image.

American National Government Final Paper- Affordable Care Act

The Final Paper should utilize the POL201 Final Paper template and be at least six pages in length (not including title page and references) and based on your previously submitted assignments. It is important to utilize APA Style Elements (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. headings for major sections of your paper in order to ensure that the paper is easy to follow.

Scaffold your paper around the following outline:

Title page (see Introduction to APA (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.)
Introduction (half page) (see Introductions & Conclusions (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.)
- Describe the paper’s overall thesis.
- Provide an overview of main points.
First Main Point (one to one and a half pages) describes the historical and Constitutional basis of American government’s structure and how this relates to the policy.
- Describe the main point.
- Support the main point with research.
Second Main Point (one to one and a half pages) explains how the policy is involved within the process of checks and balances.
- Describe the main point.
- Support the main point with research.
Third Main Point (one to one and a half pages) describes how the policy relates to public policy and elections and how the policy is portrayed by the media.
- Describe the main point.
- Support the main point with research.
Fourth Main Point (one to one and a half pages) explains how the policy impacts voting and the election process.
- Describe the main point.
- Support the main point with research.
Conclusion (see Introductions & Conclusions (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.)
- Review your main points.
- Review your overall thesis.
References page (see Formatting Your References List (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.)

The Final Paper Assignment

Must be at least six double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA Style (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
Must include a separate title page with the following:
- Title of paper
- Student’s name
- Course name and number
- Instructor’s name
- Date submitted
Must use at least eight scholarly sources in addition to the course text. A minimum of five of the resources must be from peer-reviewed scholarly sources from the Ashford University Library.
- The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

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Discussion Post

Post an analysis of sources and methods of data collection in the context of your DBA doctoral research question. In your analysis, do the following:

Explain how the “Four Principles of Data Collection” from Yin (2018) support your ability to address your DBA doctoral research question.
Explain the importance of utilizing multiple sources of evidence and triangulation within the data collection process. Be sure to address the specific types of data triangulation (data, investigation, investigator, methodological) and their relationship to data quality. Be sure to provide a scholarly example to support your explanation.

Be sure to support your work with a minimum of two specific citations from this week’s Learning Resources and one or more additional scholarly sources.

To prepare for this Discussion, review this week’s Required Readings and consider why the different sources of evidence are important to the work of a DBA doctoral researcher, including the role of triangulation within the qualitative data collection process.

HR Director of A U.S. Based Medium-Sized Consumer Product Firm

For this written assignment you will focus on staffing.

Think about this scenario – you are the HR director of a U.S. based medium-sized consumer products firm. Your company is opening a sales office in [you choose the country]. Your job is to decide the best approach for staffing this new office.

For this assignment:

Decide what your product is.
Decide what country you will expand to.
Decide what Staffing Approach to use.
List Advantages and Disadvantages for the approach you chose.
What would be the Return on Investment for your choices?

Papers should be

3-4 pages in length (not including title and reference pages)
Reflect APA guidelines
- a title page
- reference page
- in-text citations
A minimum of two references are required

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1.HIUS 221 American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III – Research Paper

The topic I chose for this was the Boston Massacre and the project needs to be on “Could the Boston Massacre Have Been Prevented?”

American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III Instructions

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

The ability to perform solid research is a key to success in academics and professional life, but communicating that research in a clear and concise manner is equally as important. This part of the assignment provides you with the opportunity to develop writing skills—specifically in the areas of organization and use of proper grammar, mechanics, and style—and to show your ability to use sources with integrity.

Completing This Assignment:

For the topic selected in Module/Week 2 of the course and utilized again in Module/Week 4, you will complete in the actual body content at least an 800 word 3-page paper that presents the research conducted during the term.

The paper must be well organized and developed and provide a concise examination of the subject.

Utilizing the sources from Module/Week 4 that were closely connected to your original topic choice from Module/Week 2 give an extended paper overview of the event? Discuss your own arguments. Include opposing viewpoints you discovered in your research. As a result, did your opinions change? How?

Citations must conform to current Turabian citation style with properly formatted footnotes and bibliography for the 3 or more scholarly sources you use.

The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.

When you are finished, your assignment must be:

In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

Formatted, including:

12-point Times New Roman font

double-spaced

1-inch margins

Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

2.Psychology

Instructions
Research the psychological state of active shooters who enter an active shooter location.
Research the psychological state of police officers who enter an active shooter location.

Discuss in detail (3-5 well-developed paragraphs) the psychological state of active shooters versus the police officers who enter an active shooter location to neutralize them.

3. Classical v. Bureaucratic Modles

Description

Compare and contrast the classical and the bureaucratic models of an organization. What values do they both rely on and why is this important for understanding government processes?

Does the class think that the bureaucratic model will continue to have support as, the number of agencies and services the state provides continue to grow? Explain

4. Unit 2 Discussion question

Description

5. Examining the Legal Environment

Description

Overview

Write a 4–5 page report in which you analyze data concerning CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices.

Many U.S. laws, ordinances, and guidelines directly impact the hiring and selection process.

Context

Organizations use several methods to find job candidates. The Assessment 2 Context document contains information about the complexities involved in recruiting, hiring, retaining, and promoting employees.

Questions to Consider

* How should organizations respond to allegations of workplace discrimination?
* What are significant legal issues that you need to be cognizant of during the recruiting and selection process? How would these issues affect the recruiting process for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives?
* As social media becomes a growing hiring influence because of its reach and information prospective applicants freely share, how can organizations protect themselves against charges of invasion of privacy?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapter 6 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book

Read the scenario below.
Scenario
While planning for expansion, CapraTek is also concerned about its hiring and promotion practices at existing facilities. Management has asked for an analysis of the workforce in its flagship manufacturing facility. As the Recruiting Director for CapraTek’s major manufacturing facility you are concerned about the company’s hiring posture relative to women and minorities. Your manufacturing plant in a nearby major city especially worries you. You recently checked the latest statistics for the SMSA the plant is in and found the following:

* Females in the labor force: 35%
* Blacks in the labor force: 10%
* Hispanics in the labor force: 5%
* All other groups are 0%

To address your concerns you first looked at the selection statistics for the past 12 months. Note: This plant hires mostly unskilled laborers and then trains them. Here is what you found:

Hiring Statistic

	Total	Females	Black	Hispanic
Number Applied	80	20	10	5
Number Hired	20	6	3	1

Next you looked at your existing work force and found the following:

* Total: 450
* Females: 50
* Blacks: 22
* Hispanics: 20

Finally, you looked at how protected classes are being moved up in the plant. While workers are hired as unskilled laborers, that is not the whole story. There are two higher paying options open to them: they can become skilled machine operators (by passing an in-depth company run training program) and from there they can become line supervisors (this pays even more than the skilled jobs). You are concerned about how that program works also; the statistics are as follows:

Positions Within the Company

	Total	Females	Black	Hispanic
Unskilled Workers	350	45	20	15
Skilled Operators	50	1	2	3
Line Supervisors	25	2	1	1

Note: The above totals do not add up to 450 or the work force totals because there are other jobs in the plant not used in this analysis.

Requirements

Using what you know about CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices, prepare a report for top management addressing the following:

* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact using the 4/5ths rule. Consider the applicant flow.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact of employee utilization based on the relevant labor market for the state you chose in Assessment 1.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact on any protected class concentrated in lower-paying jobs.
* Assess CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices to support its growth strategy.

Additional Requirements

* Write 4–5 typed, double-spaced pages (not including title page or references).
* Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Include a title page and, if needed, a reference page.

References

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 6.

* Davison, H., Maraist, C., Hamilton, R., & Bing, M. (2012). To screen or not to screen? Using the Internet for selection decisions. Employee Responsibilities & Rights Journal, 24(1), 1–21.

* Houtenville, A., & Kalargyrou, V. (2012). People with disabilities: Employers’ perspectives on recruitment practices, strategies, and challenges in leisure and hospitality. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 53(1), 40–52.

6. Health Care Analytics

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:

Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
- Chapter 5, “Analyze the Data and Gain Insights,” pages 101–132.
- The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 5, pages 202–204.
Bernard Marr & Co. (n.d.). The 6 best hadoop vendors for your big data project. Retrieved from https://www.bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1418
EHR Intelligence. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://ehrintelligence.com
- Note: you may need to sign up with an e-mail address in order to have full access to this site.
Healthcare IT News. (2018). Analytics. Retrieved from https://www.healthcareitnews.com/category/resource-topic/analytics
Health Data Management. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.healthdatamanagement.com

Discussion Instructions

In 2010, Marr stated, “Most organizations are still more focused on simply collecting and distributing data than in doing any meaningful analysis” (p. 202). Since that time, technology has continued to rapidly advance. Support for health care leaders related to collection and analysis options for data and information has expanded as well.

Prepare for this discussion by researching the websites provided in the resources to increase your awareness of the current state of data collection and analysis in health care management. Then, locate and study a current article, blog, webcast, interview, or other source of information that addresses an issue, expert opinion, tool, new development, or future trend related to data analysis in the health care industry.

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

Provide the APA citation and URL (if applicable) of the source and summarize its content.
Explain how this information offers value to leaders managing in health care organizations.
- Consider your investigation of the websites linked in the Resources.
Based on this research and examination of information, do you think Marr’s statement above is still valid today in the health care industry? Explain your position.

Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations

7. Analyzing Researched Information

Description

Overview

My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.

Instructions

For this assignment:

Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note: You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable.
Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment

8. Conducting a Job Analysis

Description

Overview

Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.

Context

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.

Read the scenario below.

Requirements

Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:

Required length is 3–4 pages. Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.

Resources

Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.

U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/

9. Cloud Computing Security

Question

The topic I chose for my research paper is Cloud Computing Security. Cloud computing services have been provided by major vendors such as Google and Microsoft, until Apple announced iCloud for their customers. There were many issues with hackers gaining access private cloud storage of celebrities, particularly female. In my essay, I will use technology and information resources to research issues in information systems and technology. I will also focus on discussing the issues, vulnerabilities, problems, etc., and conduct an analysis, and provide recommendations.

10. Manipulating the Minitab Output

Question

Use the graphs and tables from W2 Assignment.

Create a brief Microsoft PowerPoint presentation describing your sample. Be sure to give an accurate and complete description, taking your instructor’s feedback from W2 Assignment into consideration.

11. Science Says that Protectionism wont Work

Question

Read the link below Answer the questions below

https://www.forbes.com/sites/patrickwwatson/2019/02/06/science-says-protectionism-wont-work/#3864e00873b4

Do you all feel that we should use protectionism as a foreign trade policy? How do you see it harming or benefiting our trade deficit or economy?

12. Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS

Question

Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS from initial handshake to close of the session. Create a detailed drawing of the steps and also annotate each step with additional detail.

13. How to Integrate Climate Change Risks and Opportunities into Supply Chain Management

Question

Read the link above focusing on a news article discussing supply chain issues

https://www.supplychain247.com/article/how_to_integrate_climate_change_risks_and_opportunities_into_scm

14. Discussion Topic need 8 different answers for post

Question

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

1. The visual system is very complex, as you can tell from this week’s reading! It would be great if you could discuss an element of the visual system that you find interesting and explain why (e.g., rods and cones, the retina, etc).

2. We have a few sensory systems to discuss in this chapter! Please describe a phenomenon associated with the auditory (hearing), somatosensory (touch), or gustatory (taste) system. Why is the system you choose to discuss unique?

3. As you will read, there are multiple brain regions that control sensorimotor function. What makes these regions important for how we move and balance our body?

15. In a lottery daily game, a player picks four num

Question

In a lottery daily game, a player picks four numbers from 0 to 9 without repetition. How many different does the player have

16. Creative Writing Poem

Question

ASSIGNMENT #3 DUE: Stanley Kunitz Imitation poem. Write another free-verse poem, but again with and focus on eliminating sentimentality and cliché. Try to write a poem that captures a moment, imitating Stanley Kunitz’s, “The Portrait”. The idea is to NARROW your poem down to a focused moment, or a specific experience that illustrates an emotional moment withOUT naming that emotion. Work on SHOWING through detail and imagery. But remember to ZOOM IN. Use the moment the way Kunitz does in The Portrait. Using a “WE” or “I” speaker, write about a specific shared/experience that captures the nuances of everyday relationships of loved ones. Feel free to LIE! This poem should be written in FREE VERSE (no rhyming). Try to follow the line and stanza patterns of the Kunitz poem.

17. Math question about combination safes

You are tasked with opening a safe without knowing the combination. Beginning with the dial at zero, the dial must be turned counterclockwise to the first combination number, then clockwise back to zero), and clockwise to the second combination number, (then counterclockwise back to zero), and counterclockwise again to the third and final combination number, whereupon the door will open immediately. There are 40 numbers of the dial, including the zero.

Without knowing the combination numbers, what is the maximum number of trials required to open the safe? (One trial means one attempt to dial a full three-number combination)

18. Coastline question math, hard concept

Suppose there’s a straight coastline and a lighthouse that is L=3 miles away from the coast. This light revolves at one revolution per minute. How fast is the beam of light travelling along the coastline? When the beam is 3L away from the coastal point closest to the light, how fast is the light travelling along the coast.

Explain how you got to the answer.

19. Career Planning and Management 300 words

Identify a possible entry-level or appropriate job for a career that might interest you. For example: Software Developer, Web designer, Web content writer, auto mechanic, or dental technician. Perform an Internet search for information about your career of interest.

Select several items from the search results list and go to their websites to see what you can learn about the career. Write down what you learn.
- Do some research about the career including job qualifications, a typical workday, good versus challenging aspects of the job, technical skills required for the job, and the company background and culture. Summarize your findings in writing.
- After your research, do you think this job is appropriate for you? Why do you think that is?
  
  Do web research, and create a brief report showing:
Recent statistical data on identity theft
Type of identity theft
Steps than can be taken to protect yourself against identity theft

20. Defend or refute one of the following statements

1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.

2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.

3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.

Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.

21. Learning Strategies Psychology

Topic is : Human Rights

1. Define the topic

2. Why do you believe that topic is social problem in our society?

3. How are people in this group treated in our society?

4. How have government (local, state and / or federal) attempted to address this problem?

5. What can you as an individual do to have positive impact on this issue?

Paper needs to be the introduction paragraph, body paragraph, conclusion paragraph and the the reference page.

300 words or more

22. Pole and minimum number of moves

There are three poles in front of you. One pole is stacked with 64 rings ranging in weight from one ounce (at the top) to 64 ounces (at the bottom). Your task is to move all of the rings to one of the other to poles so that they end up in the same order. The rules are that you can only move one ring at a time, you can move a ring only from one pole to another, and you cannot even temporarily place a ring on top of a lighter ring.

What is the minimum number of moves you need to make to achieve the task?

Show a detailed proof and give a thorough explanation please.

23. Math help

You’re standing at the center of a circular field of radius R. The field has a low wire fence around it. Attached to the wire fence (and restricted to running around the perimeter) is a large, sharp-fanged, hungry dog who likes to eat any humans he can catch.

You can run at speed v. Unfortunately, the dog can run four times as fast, at 4v. The dog will do his best to catch you if you try to escape the field. What is your running strategy to escape the field without feeding yourself to the dog.

Please explain your solution.

24. Math Help

John is talking to Mary while working on a deal book at 2AM. Mary learns that John’s sister has three children. “How old are the children?” asks Mark. “Well,” replies John, “the product of their ages is 36.” “Hmmm, the sum of their ages is the same as this figure right here,” says John pointing at the spreadsheet. “Still not enough information,” says Mary after thinking for a minute. “The eldest is dyslexic,” says John. How old are the children?

25. Unemployment compensation

Please answer the following in connection with unemployment compensation and worker’s compensation:

Evaluate: Everyone who loses his or her job is entitled to unemployment compensation.
Analyze: It is important to know whether one is an employee or an independent contractor in case the person is injured at work.
Evaluate this statement: Workers’ compensation legislation considers fault.
Explain why someone might think this statement is true: The worker’s compensation system is not always beneficial to workers.

At least a 300 words response. APA

26. Mirror question

Please help me out with this confusing question!

Why are images in a mirror flipped horizontally and not vertically? For example, although I wear my wristwatch on my left wrist, and my reflection wears his on his right wrist, my reflection is not standing on his head.

Please explain in your own words, 200 words minimum.

27. Business question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question:

Don is an elderly man who lives with his nephew Evan. Don is dependent upon Evan for care. Evan advises Don to “invest” in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Evan tells Don that he will no longer provide care unless Don makes the investment. Don sells all of his stocks and bonds and signs a contract with Evan investing the proceeds of his sale of the stocks and bonds in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Can Don set aside the contract? If Don is successful in setting aside the contract, what remedy should he seek in addition to setting aside the contract?

28. Business question 4 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 4:

General Equity Corporation enters a contract with Nancy, a local artist, to create a mosaic of her famous painting “The Birth of Industry” to be set into the floor in the entrance hall of the new corporate headquarters. Nancy delays and then eventually refuses to perform the contract. In the meantime, General enters a contract with Ideal Investments, Inc. to sell the new building to Ideal. Before the sale of the building is complete, Jewel Funds, Inc. offers General a higher price for the new building and General refuses to honor the contract with Ideal Investments. General brings a lawsuit against Nancy for her breach of contract and seeks the remedy of specific performance. Ideal, after successfully enjoining the sale of the building to Jewel Funds, brings a lawsuit against General seeking a court order compelling General to complete the sale to Ideal. In your answer, discuss whether or not a court would grant the plaintiff’s request for the remedy of specific performance in each case. If you conclude that a court would not grant the remedy of specific performance in either case, discuss what the measure of damages might be available to the plaintiff in that action.

29. Business Question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question: Publix Supermarkets, Inc. is a Florida Corporation with its principle offices located in Lakeland, Polk County, Florida (“Publix”). Publix’s corporate offices are located in the Tenth (10th) Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida. Publix has retail supermarket locations though out the State of Florida as well as other locations in the Southeastern part of the United States. Publix has several retail supermarket locations in Hillsborough County Florida. Hillsborough Country is in the Thirteenth (13th) Judicial District for the State of Florida. The Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida are in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida. Cases arising in the Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida that may be brought in a federal court would be heard initially in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida.

Some of the retail items sold to the public in the Publix stores located in Hillsborough County are delivered from a Publix distribution center located in Lakeland, Florida. The goods are delivered from the distribution center to the retail locations in Hillsborough County via a fleet of trucks owned by Publix and operated by Publix employees.

Sam Straight, a 30-year employee of Publix, is driving a Publix tractor trailer truck north bound on I-275 near downtown Tampa, Florida. Sam has the appropriate credentials to drive a tractor trailer truck in the State of Florida. He has been driving for Publix for 25 years of the 30 years he has been employed by Publix. Sam is driving under the posted speed limit and he is preparing to merge onto I-4 eastbound to return to the Publix distribution center in Lakeland.

Fred Fragile is a resident of the State of Georgia. His home is in DeKalb County Georgia, in the jurisdiction of the DeKalb County State Court. He is driving his motor home on the entrance ramp to northbound I-275 in downtown Tampa after a visit to the Florida Aquarium. Fred has the appropriate credentials to operate a motor home in the State of Georgia and Florida. He is driving under the posted speed limit. Fred wishes to merge onto I-275 and eventually travel northbound on I-275 to take I-75 northbound to return to his home in Georgia. When Fred merges onto I-275 northbound, he wants to move over one lane to his left to take I-275 North. When he enters I-275 North bound his vehicle is side by side with the Publix tractor trailer truck driven by Sam Straight. Sam wishes to merge one lane to his right to facilitate taking I-4 East to Lakeland. As the two vehicles negotiate the interchange, they come into contact with each other resulting in a multi-car accident closing I-275 North for several hours. Sam and Fred do not suffer any injuries because of the accident. Damage to Fred’s motor home totals $40,000. Damage to the Publix tractor trailer totals $25,000.

An extensive investigation by the Florida Highway Patrol has identified four people who were driving in the vicinity of the two vehicles at the time of the accident. One witness lives in Plant City, Florida. The second witness lives in Orlando, Florida. The third witness lives in Daytona Beach, Florida and the fourth witness lives in Toronto, Ontario.

Both Fred and Publix believe that there is evidence to suggest that either Fred or Sam is responsible for causing the accident. In answering the following questions, it is not necessary for you to discuss the potential for liability on the part of Publix and/or Fred.

A. If either Fred or Publix wishes to bring a claim to recover the damage to their respective vehicles, discuss the procedural steps that either party must take to initiate their claim. Discuss further the procedural steps the other party must take in response to a claim. Discuss what may occur in the event the defendant in the action fails to follow the required procedural steps if a claim is brought against them.

B. If Publix wishes to bring a claim against Fred for the damage to its tractor trailer, in addition to the steps discussed in your response to question 1 above, what elements must be present to bring the claim in a Florida court? What elements must be present to bring the claim in a Georgia court? Which state court, in your judgment, is mostly likely to hear the case?

C. If Fred wishes to bring a claim against Publix what elements must be present to hear the claim in a Georgia court? What elements must be present to hear the claim in a Florida Court?

D. The accident occurred in the Thirteenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Publix’s corporate headquarters are in the Tenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Assuming for the purpose of answering this question, that the litigation would be proper in either judicial district, what legal doctrine will be used to determine which district court will hear the case? If Fred’s claim is brought in the State of Florida, which district court, in your judgment, is most likely to hear the case?

E. Under what doctrine could Fred’s claim be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida? What requirements must be met in order for the claim to be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida? Are those requirements satisfied in this case?

30. Business Development

Please complete the following assignment.

You are the Business Development Manager for a microchip product manufactured by ABC Components Corporation. Please describe how your business development process and approach will change with each stage of the product life cycle. A five sentence paragraph should be sufficient to discuss your efforts in each of the stages: development, introduction, growth stage, maturity stage, decline stage (five paragraphs).

To get you started, think about the following…..in the development stage, who do you need to learn about, what kinds of information do you need marketing to generate, etc? Elaborate on this and provide more. This is relevant for the development stage. Each stage will be different, meaning, don’t just answer these questions for each stage. Think about each stage independently. There will be different approaches and considerations for each stage. Your responses should be based on concepts from the coursework, particularly the current chapter.

31. Business question 5 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 5:

Power Plus Battery Company (“PPBC”) has a production plant located in Tampa, Florida. PPBC manufactures batteries for motor vehicles. PPBC has 200 employees and sells its batteries to customers in twenty-five different states in the United States. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (“OHSA”) is a federal administrative agency that has the authority to establish safety standards, pursuant to the authority delegated to it by the United States Congress in the Occupational Safety and Health Act. These safety standards, also known as safety rules or regulations, apply to different industrial operations that have at least fifty (50) employees and are engaged in interstate commerce. OSHA proposes a new safety standard governing the handling of certain acids in the workplace. The proposed safety standard includes acids that PPBC uses in its production processes. After reviewing the proposed rule, PPBC concludes that compliance with the proposed rule will substantially increase its production costs and the proposed rule will not significantly increase worker safety. PPBC sends a letter to OSHA stating its objections and concerns to the new rule. Enclosed with the letter are independent research reports and other materials that support PPBC’s objections to the proposed rule. What procedures must OSHA follow when it adopts a new safety standard such as this one? What obligation does OSHA have to consider the objections and the materials submitted by PPBC? What options does OSHA have regarding the proposed rule? How does OSHA announce its final decision on the new rule? Once the new rule has been adopted, what source may interested parties use to find the final version of the new rule?

32. 2 Paragraphs question

Choose one article within the last 3 months about Marketing consumer behavior and write two paragraphs about it. It should include a link to the Article or the article on a different doc and give your thoughts on it. Examples and scenarios are more than welcome

MLA format.

33. Discussion Question – 2 Paragraphs

Discussion question: write 2 paragraphs with at least one reference

Now that you have completed a series of assignments that have led you into the active project planning and development stage for your project, briefly describe your proposed solution to address the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and how it has changed since you first envisioned it. What led to your current perspective and direction?

MLA format – 300 words minimum

34. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question

Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.

During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.

In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:

List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.

35. Answer the following questions

The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.

Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.

36. Business Questions

Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.

Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
1. Personal loss exposures
1. Property loss exposures
1. Liability loss exposures
With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.

37. Design and analysis of algorithms

Analysis & Design of Algorithms

Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.

Question

1. Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.

2. Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.

3. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.

4. Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.

5. Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.

6. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.

7. Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.

38. Web Development Exercise

Create a Movies class that determines the cost of a ticket to a cinema,

based on the moviegoer’s age. Assume that the cost of a full-price

ticket is $10. Assign the age to a private data member. Use a public

member function to determine the ticket price, based on the follow-

ing schedule:

Age Price

Under 5 Free

5 to 17 Half price

18 to 55 Full price

Over 55 $2 off

39. Software design and construction quiz

Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.

QUESTION 1

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QUESTION TEXT

You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?

Select one:

A. TOGAF

B. IEEE

C. MICROSOFT .NET

D. JAVA

QUESTION 2

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QUESTION TEXT

What does the MVC pattern do?

Select one:

A. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.

B. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.

C. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.

D. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.

QUESTION 3

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QUESTION TEXT

Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?

Select one:

A. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.

B. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.

C. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.

D. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.

QUESTION 4

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QUESTION TEXT

Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?

Select one:

A. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.

B. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.

C. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.

D. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.

QUESTION 5

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?

Select one:

A. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.

B. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.

C. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.

D. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.

QUESTION 6

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES

B. MODULARITY

C. AGILITY

D. INFORMATION HIDING

QUESTION 7

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is not an architectural style?

Select one:

A. CONNECTOR.

B. LAYERED.

C. CLIENT-SERVER

D. PEER-TO-PEER.

QUESTION 8

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QUESTION TEXT

Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?

Select one:

A. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.

B. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.

C. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.

D. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.

QUESTION 9

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?

Select one:

A. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.

B. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.

C. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.

D. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.

QUESTION 10

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QUESTION TEXT

What is software efficiency?

Select one:

A. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.

B. LOW COST.

C. HIGH OCTANE.

D. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.

QUESTION 11

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QUESTION TEXT

Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?

Select one:

A. NON-FUNCTIONAL.

B. NEITHER.

C. BOTH.

D. FUNCTIONAL.

QUESTION 12

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QUESTION TEXT

Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?

Select one:

A. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.

B. YES, IT DOES.

C. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?

D. NO, IT DOES NOT.

QUESTION 13

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QUESTION TEXT

What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?

Select one:

A. HIDE … POUNCE.

B. LISTEN … CORRECT.

C. WATCH …. GRAB.

D. TRY … CATCH.

QUESTION 14

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QUESTION TEXT

What is the role of connectors in software architecture.

Select one:

A. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.

B. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.

C. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.

D. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.

QUESTION 15

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is an example of a Connector?

Select one:

A. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.

B. BACKING UP FILES.

C. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.

D. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.

QUESTION 16

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QUESTION TEXT

What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?

Select one:

A. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS

B. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.

C. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.

D. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.

QUESTION 17

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INVENTED THE WEB.

B. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.

C. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?

D. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.

QUESTION 18

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.

B. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.

C. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.

D. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.

QUESTION 19

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QUESTION TEXT

Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. ME? NO WAY.

B. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.

C. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.

D. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.

QUESTION 20

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QUESTION TEXT

How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?

Select one:

A. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.

B. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.

C. THEY ALL LOVE IT.

D. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.

40. Create a small GUI application

Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.

Sum of the four values

Product of the four values

The smallest value

The largest of the values

The exit button will exit the application.

41. Sport Management and Drugs

Sports Management:

Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)

Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!

42. Budget Assignment

Instruction

For this exercise we are going to create a simple budget, and track our budget compliance over the course of a 12 month period. Although it is possible (and common) to track budget compliance on a month to month basis, to keep things simple for this exercise we are going to only examine the year end result. Start by creating a budget in Excel in the following format. The Budget Spreadsheet Image is attached… For the starting budget $ amounts you use the following logic. Determine the yearly values and enter them into your budget. Don’t forget to add the totals, and to determine the amount you are short/extra. Salary = $4,000 a month Rent = $1200 a month Car payment = $650 a month Phone = $95 a month Health Insurance = $250 a month Food = $500 a month We are now going to add the following data for the monthly amounts in out spreadsheet Salary: Your starting salary for the year is $4,000 a month. In June you get a 3% pay increase. Additionally you get a one-time bonus payout of $500 in October. Rent: Your monthly rent per your lease is $1,200 a month, with a 5% increase in November. Car: Your car is under lease at a rate of $650 a month. Phone: Your month rate for your phone is $95 a month, but you incurred overage charges of $25 each in the months of April, August, and December. Health Insurance: Your monthly installments for health insurance are $250 a month. Food: Food expense tends to be more varied than the other expenses be captured. Use the follow table to enter your food expenses. Food Expenses Spreadsheet is attached… Other: In the month of March you have a car repair bill of $750 and in August you took a $125 flight to visit your parents. Brief Write-up: Now review your actual income/expenses versus the budget that you established. Discuss in what areas you exceeded your budgetary amounts? What options do you have, and what actions would you take if your goal is to maintain your budget in all categories? Discuss how miscellaneous unexpected items can impact your budget.

43.History Assignment

Instruction

Choose an event or theme evident in U. S. History from the end of the Civil War to the near present and write a brilliant 3-5 pp. double-spaced paper based on one academic book, three scholarly journal articles, and at least two primary sources. The book must be published by a university press and the scholarly journal articles must be found on the JSTOR or America History and Life databases. The publication dates of the book and the articles must be between 1970 and 2015.

44.Healthcare

Instruction

• Name: Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool • Description: For this assignment, you will develop a Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool flyer for parents of children 5 years of age and less regarding the prevention of pediatric obesity. Pediatric obesity is a growing problem in the USA and is a major contributor to morbidity (hypertension, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, osteoarthritis) and mortality later in life. The tool should be developed according to the criteria established in the attached rubric. You are strongly urged to use the Center for Disease Control and Prevention as one reference (at least 3 references are required). References for the tool should be submitted in APA format and should be research based. Remember to use layman’s terms. Please review this rubric prior to completing this assignment

45. General Assignment

Instruction

Discussion #3: Communication & Motivation Select two of the three main topics to respond to and provide your mid-semester feedback. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tdmyoMe4iHM (Miracle, 4 min) Main Topic 3.1: Motivation Questions (2 parts) Question1) What motivates people? (See Module 6: Basic Motivation Model). Do you think it is money, Process Theory, or Content Theory? Question 2) Do you remember any particular motivational speech (graduation, sports, church, etc.) that inspired you to exceed what you thought were your capabilities? Main Topic 3.2: Path-Goal Does the Path-Goal Leadership concept fall under Content Theory or Process Theory of Motivation? Main Topic 3.3~Motivation What motivates employees to work hard and be more productive? The classic answer is — money! However, management texts tell us that motivation is not something you do to someone; motivation starts from within an individual with an unsatisfied need. Managers motivate employees by providing a means for them to satisfy that need. This is particularly challenging today as the Gen Y’ers (aka the Millenials) enter the workplace. For this discussion, in addition to the readings, visit the following three websites and address the question: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=owwM6FpWWoQ 60 minutes; Jason Dorsey; “Generation Y,” ( 3+ minutes) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=h7SnQPBC6yM Twixters; 60 minutes; “Generation Y” Jason Dorsey (4:42 min) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=erFRZimAJ0Y&feature=related Jason Dorsey~Keynote Speaker (10 min) ● Question: Do you agree with the portrayal of Gen Y, a.k.a. The Millennials? Do you fit in this category, or have children who do? Main Topic 3.4~Mid Semester Feedback If you have any comments, suggestions, complaints (compliments?) about the course to this point, please post them here. If you don’t want to go public, feel free to send me an e-mail.

46. Math Assignment

Instruction

Respond to the Main Topics, but prior to doing so, you might check out these clips: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6x0l_vkjozc (Civil Rights 3 min) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JENCxjbARFM (Sowell, 2 min) Main Topic 2.1: Affirmative Action or Diversity Management? Culture is generally defined as “the learned beliefs, values, norms, symbols, and traditions common to a group of people.” Ethnocentrism: the tendency for individuals to place their own group (ethnic, racial, or cultural) at the center of their observations of others and the world. → A tendency to think our own cultural values and ways of doing things are right and natural. [pg. 384] The ethnic mix in the U.S. has been changing since Columbus arrived in 1492. “Census projections suggest America may become a minority-majority country by the middle of the century,” according to Kenneth Johnson, a sociology professor at the University of New Hampshire. In other words, whites will make up less that 50% of the population. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (1964) prohibits discrimination by covered employers on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin. In the United States, Affirmative Action refers to equal opportunity employment measures that Federal contractors and subcontractors are legally required to adopt. These measures are intended to prevent discrimination against employees or applicants for employment, on the basis of “color, religion, sex, or national origin.” (Source = Wikipedia. Yes, I know it’s a double standard that students are not allowed to use Wikipedia, but I, as a faculty, am citing it. However, this is not a democracy; it is a benevolent dictatorship) Question: One train of thought is that “enlightened management” may be leaning toward Diversity Management, a concept which may make Affirmative Action superfluous, redundant, or obsolete. What are your thoughts on this? Main Topic 2.2: Dimensions of Difference Hofstede found that national culture explained more of the differences in work-related values and attitudes than did position within the organization, profession, age or gender. In summarizing the most important differences, Hofstede initially found that managers and employees varied on four primary dimensions:” Individualism and Collectivism; Power Distance; Uncertainty Avoidance; Career Success and Quality of Life. Later, Hofstede and his colleagues identified a fifth dimension: Confucian Dynamism. Question: Where is your culture located on Hofstede’s original four dimensions?

47. Science

1. Explain the competencies important for the role of nurse leader. 2. Report on the correlation from the text book theories. Did the nurse leader practice what was outlined in the text? Why or why not? 3. Reflect on at least four (4) insights gained from your interview and observation -There are 3 questions that need to be answered, each question requires a minimum of one paragraph.

48. Business

Instruction

The purpose of this assignment is for students to evaluate the lean techniques applied to business in today’s workforce. Assignment Steps Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains. Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency. Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques. Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean. Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project. Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

49. Security Regulation Compliance This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a written paper and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.

Instruction

In the day-to-day operations of information security, security professionals often focus the majority of their time dealing with employee access issues, implementing security methods and measures, and other day-to-day tasks. They often neglect legal issues that affect information security. As a result, organizations often violate security-related regulations and often have to pay heavy fines for their non-compliance. Thus, as a Chief Information Officer in a government agency, you realize the need to educate for senior leadership on some of the primary regulatory requirements, and you realize the need to ensure that the employees in the agency are aware of these regulatory requirements as well. Section 1: Written Paper 1. Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you: a. Provide an overview that will be delivered to senior management of regulatory requirements the agency needs to be aware of, including: i. FISMA ii. Sarbanes-Oxley Act iii. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act iv. PCI DSS v. HIPAA vi. Intellectual Property Law b. Describe the security methods and controls that need to be implemented in order to ensure compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. c. Describe the guidance provided by the Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), and other agencies for ensuring compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. d. Use at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

50. Math help

A road divides the neighborhood park into two parts. Calvin plots one part in a coordinate plane. The part of the park shown is a reflection over the x-axis of the other part. 8.g.3

Instruction

Part A: Draw the other part of the park. Part B: Write the coordinate of the vertices of the part that you drew. Then describe the effects of a reflection across the x-axis on the coordinates.

51. Psychology week 2

Instruction

Sensations Write a 1-2 page essay explaining how our sensations, thoughts, feelings, motives, actions, memories, and all other human capacities are associated with nervous system activities and structures; and discuss the types of damage that often affect the nervous system. Proper APA formatting is a requirement for all essay assignments. Cite at least three educational sources (one source may include the course textbook) in the essay.

52. Cultures in conflict week 2

Instruction

Theoretical Approach Summarize and explain the three major theoretical approaches that were introduced in this chapter – Durkheim and human consciousness, Benedict and Patterns of Culture, and Bourdieu and the principles of culture. (750-1250 words) · Which theoretical position seems clearest to you? · What evidence do you have for this theory in your own society? · Where have you potentially seen this exhibited?

53. Website Assignment

Instruction

Assignment Instructions Learning objective: To develop and design a professional webpage. Prompt: This week you are working on creating a webpage. Instructions: Build a website. Submit as Article #4 for your portfolio. Supporting Materials: https://websitesetup.org/ https://www.wix.com/ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=M5ZG7-BlG6Q

54. Attn: GreatContentCreator Nursing Capstone Wk7

Instruction

Summary paper of program not of each term From Novice to Beginning Professional Nurse: Your nursing evolution reflects ways you have evolved in nursing school. Reflect on at least 10 BSN courses, in which you write a detailed paragraph. Provide evidence of growth in each course. Describe growth and development in becoming a professional nurse after each nursing core course. Reflect on ways courses, especially concurrent running classes, support one another. Synthesize theories and concepts into clinical settings applied to human experiences. Apply multicultural literacy. Reflect on holistic patient care. Format each course as major text headings per the APA manual. Review the rubric for more information on how your paper will be graded.

55.History

Instruction

Write a paper based of the Netflix series “Prohibition” , cite everything NO OUTSIDE SOURCES NO PLAGIARISM. Chicago format , 2 pages.

56. Science

Instruction

1. What are the functions of the nose? 2. What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses? Look up sinusitis on the Internet and tell me more about why it is such a large problem today (cite your URL). 3. What important functions are lost when you take out your tonsils?

4. What are the effects of smoking on cilia lining the trachea? Why is this unhealthy?

5. What is the Heimlich maneuver and how is it done?

6. Where are the pleura and what is their function? How does their function differ from the pericardium (in the heart)?

7. What is surfactant and what is its function? How are premature newborns that don’t have it treated?

8. What is one cause of pulmonary edema and what changes does it bring to gas exchange? From the section on pulmonary ventilation there is some interesting information regarding how we breathe and what interferes with that process. You just need to know that during inspiration in the lungs more space (volume) is created in the intrapleural space. This causes a decrease in pressure that is translated to the lungs and the decrease in pressure in them leads to air rushing in from a place of higher pressure (outside the lung) to a place of lower pressure (inside the lung). Expiration is the reverse.

9. Explain pneumothorax – use the information about pressure to explain what happens.

10. Look up asthma on the Internet. What happens during an attack? Why? What drugs widen the airway (decrease resistance) and what drugs narrow the airway (increase resistance)?

11. What types of different sounds can be heard by listening to your lungs with a stethescope? Why is this simple test useful?

12. What is meant by the term partial pressure and what do you have to do mathematically to get one (hint: multiply what times what) (from the outline given to you in lab and attached here)? Give an example of the partial pressure of oxygen in outside air at sea level.

13. What is the percent concentration of oxygen in the outside air at sea level, 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet? What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen as you go higher? At what altitude are the partial pressures of oxygen in the aveoli equal to those of the venous blood approaching the lungs (from the outline)? What problem does this cause?

14. What happens to partial pressure as you go below sea level? What problems can that cause (outline and Internet)?

15. What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning? Why does it happen? (in the book or on the Internet).

16. In what ways are carbon dioxide molecules carried? When does the CO2 content of the blood increase? Why does it need to be buffered?

17. What are other factors besides acidity that influence the rate and depth of respiration?

18. What are two examples of chronic obstructive lung disease and what are the symptoms for each?

19. Why is lung cancer so deadly? What is the effect of smoking on the lungs? Does it cause lung cancer? Why or why not?

57. Psychology

Instruction

Social Workers walk a fine line between assisting persons diagnosed with disabilities and empowering persons to think of their abilities. It is not unusual in health and mental health work for a social worker to have the task of establishing /assembling proof of disability for a client seeking financial resources and at the same time to be engaged in interventions designed to help a client seek rehabilitation/recovery. That rehabilitation/recovery may well endanger a client’s financial stability and eligibility for medical coverage. This week, write about the role of social workers in medical settings (clinical primary care, hospitals, skilled nursing homes for example) as they work with persons identified as disabled by chronic disease processes. Specifically, talk about how the biology of disorders may assist or interfere with the common advocacy role of social work staff. Also, you may wish to comment on your thoughts around the concept of “permanent disability”, educating other medical team professionals on the strengths perspective of social work, or the special concerns of social workers who may identify as disabled, themselves. You may have thoughts about client self-determination and diseases where lifestyle choices are thought to further or even initiate the disease process (diabetes, cardiac disease) as this relates to disability determinations. An excellent example is the AMA statement last year regarding obesity as a disability.

58. Other

You are going to create a one-minute dramatic script. The following is the beginning “setup,” or the start of the story, of the script: “There are six snakes trapped in a pit.” Your assignment is to create a one-minute dramatic script from this statement. First, tell me what genre you will be using. Then, create action, conflict, characters, and dialogue. Type up your “play” in dialogue format and submit. Have fun with it. Be creative!

59. Healthcare

60. Article review and power point

Instruction

61. Business

Instruction

Strategic Plan: Part 2 In this second part of the final strategic plan development assignment, you will follow up on the introductory activities that you completed during the first portion in order to further develop your strategic plan. Please be sure to make adjustments as necessary based on some of your own desired adjustments and the professor’s comments as you work through the second part. During this portion of the process, your submission, which should be at least two pages in length not including any figures/graphics and the updated first portion, should include the following components: the results of a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis or similar analysis assessing current internal and external areas of concern, strengths, and opportunities as the strategic plan progresses This cannot be the same SWOT analysis that you used for the Unit IV assignment identification of organizational stakeholders, internal and external, and how their needs and participation will likely influence and contribute to the plan’s development. Be sure that you are remaining consistent with your organization. Also, please include Part 1 with updates based on feedback from your professor and Part 2 of your plan in one document. Please include only one title page and one reference page with this assignment. References: Use these references also along with the other ones on the first part of the assignment Hull, A. (1996). Strategic Plan-making in Europe: institutional innovation. Planning Practice & Research, 11(3), 253–264. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1080/02697459616834 Patel, M. S., Phillips, C. B., Pearce, C., Kljakovic, M., Dugdale, P., & Glasgow, N. (2008). General Practice and Pandemic Influenza: A Framework for Planning and Comparison of Plans in Five Countries. PLoS ONE, 3(5), 1–9. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1371/journal.pone.0002269 Schulze, R. N., & Post, T. (2010). Individual Annuity Demand Under Aggregate Mortality Risk. Journal of Risk & Insurance, 77(2), 423–449. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/j.1539-6975.2009.01340.x Yoon, Y.-R. (2017). Strategic disclosure of meaningful information to rival. Economic Inquiry, (2). https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/ecin.12372

62. General

This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore what you believe, and based on the course readings, are necessary (requisite) knowledge, skills, abilities, (KSAs) experiences, and techniques needed to effectively lead either a human resources department or one functional area of Human Resources Management (HRM) within a public organization. By “functional area” I mean one of the segments in the ‘Life-Cycle’ of an employee as noted in the chapters in Section II of our text (e.g., recruiting, performance management, compensation, benefits, training and development, etc.). This assignment also provides opportunities to link theory with practice, apply what has been learned and/or how the necessary KSAs could be acquired to effectively lead an organization’s human resources department.I suggest the foll

I suggest the following process:

Decide if you will focus on the HRM department as a whole, or on an HRM functional area. If focusing on an HRM functional area, decide which area.
Read, and if necessary, re-read the text chapter corresponding to your chosen functional area.
Narrowly focus your selection to avoid the pitfalls of inadequate detail.
Locate at least 5 published references that are no more than 10 years old that pertain to the specific HRM function you have chosen to investigate. You must not use any of the sources used in the Research paper in this course.
OPTIONAL: Conduct an Interview. You may wish to conduct a brief an interview with a manager or HR professional who has extensive experience HRM or the functional area you have selected. I am not requiring you do this; however, if you are able to find someone who is willing to speak with you, this often can be a helpful learning experience.

Paper Format:

Your paper should be at least five (5) pages long, not including the Title Page and Reference/Bibliography
Title Page: must contain the Assignment Number, a Topic, your Name and Student ID Number
Use 12-point font, double-spaced, and one-inch margins on all 4 sides.
Use in-text citations so I can decipher where exactly in your paper you drew upon others’ work.
Provide complete reference information (author, date, title, publication, volume and page numbers; providing a URL only is insufficient) on a separate sheet.
- Create a WORD document that contains complete citation information of all your print and/or electronic source material. To be considered “complete,” citation information must include author(s), title, date, and publisher plus, if a journal or magazine article, the name of the journal or magazine, volume and issue numbers, and page numbers. A reference citation containing only a URL is insufficient.

63.Healthcare

Instruction

Find a media article that reports the findings of an original empirical study on some psychology or health-related topic that is published in a newspaper, magazine, or other periodical, or on an Internet news website (CNN, Reuters, BBC, Vox, WebMD, Huffington Post, etc.). The media article should have been published in the last year. Thoroughly address the following questions (in ~ 2-3 double-spaced pages): What observation about human behavior/health is being reported? ~1-2 sentences (2.5 points) Describe the study sample (e.g., size, gender, age range, marital status, racial/ethnic group, SES). (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate sample to use for this research question?) ~3-4 sentences (5 points) What is the independent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) What is the dependent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) Are any other relevant variables discussed (e.g., moderators, mediators, covariates)? (If not discussed, what other variables do you think should be included in this study?) ~ 2 sentences (2.5 points) What type of study is being discussed: experimental vs. non-experimental, etc.? (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate type of study to use for this research question?) ~2 sentences (2.5 points) What are some limitations of the study? (e.g., methods used, conclusions drawn; you must discuss at least 2 limitations) ~4 sentences (5 points; 2.5 points per limitation) What are the implications of the study for research, practice, and/or policy? (If not discussed, what do you think the implications of the study are?) Discuss at least 2 implications (~3-4 sentences) (5 points; 2.5 points per implication) NOTES: Your assignment should be typed, 12-point font, double spaced, 1” margins. Assignments that contain grammatical, spelling, or punctuation errors will lose points. If you present in class, you will receive the full 2.5 points. The remainder of your grade is based on the extent to which you sufficiently address the above questions in writing (feedback presented in class does not reflect the grade on your assignment). Late assignments will lose 3 points per day – no exceptions. must have link to article to print out.

64. Psychology

Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive d

Instruction

Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.

65. Compare and Contrast- having two jobs

Essay 2 Directions

Choose one of the topics below and compose a 750 – 1250 word compare or contrast essay:

1. Two jobs you have had 2. Two towns, cities, or vacation spots 3. Two hobbies or activities you enjoy 4. High school and college 5. A big campus and a small college campus 6. Public school and private school 7. Playing video games and doing outdoor activities 8. Reading a book and watching television/movies 9. The Academic Success Center and the Library 10. A fast food restaurant and the Titan’s Café on Warner Robins campus 11. Two social media websites (Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Snapchat, etc.) 12. Online classes and on campus classes 13. Two movies, two television shows 14. Two characters, actors, or entertainers 15. Two cellphones 16. Smartphones and smartwatches 17. GIFs and memes/ emoji’s

You will follow the Five Steps of the Writing Process, once you have chosen a topic

66.Economics

Instruction

You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).

67.General

Epidemiology Paper (160 pts. total)

This paper is intended for you to demonstrate your analytical mind. A detailed rubric is shown below. This project

will be due in parts. Paper should be double spaced in no less than 11 pt TimesRoman.

– Each student will choose a disease or health-related condition as an epidemiology study

– Review the current descriptive and analytical data information sources for that condition,

– Write a paper (5-8 pages with references) that presents that information in a logical sequence,

– Organization of your paper should include:

I. Your title should succinct and be descriptive enough to the reader

II. Introduction:

– Introduce the topic (brief definition or description) and present it’s importance to human health status

– Explain why this condition should be studied (increasing trend, affects a large number of people, socio-

economic burden among those affected, etc)

– You might include some prevalence information here to indicate the impact

III. Descriptive Epidemiology:

– Describe and/or define the disease or condition using descriptive epidemiology references

– who tends to get this condition, where do they usually live, and at what age

IV. Rates:

– Present the most current national and local prevalence and incidence rates (when available)

V. Causes and Risk Factors

– Discuss the (presumed, known or theoretical) causes of this disease (if there are any)

– Provide the currently established risk factors associated with the disease

VI. Conclusion

– Summarize this condition and indicate any public health methods that may limit its impact

VII. Bibliography

– Reference all statements of fact.

– All citations should be referenced in the text and in a bibliography at the end of the paper

– Use the American Medical Association (AMA) 10th edition (2007) Manual of Style in your bibliography.

For examples: AMA style.

– Use of graphs or charts to explain relationships and describe the condition is strongly encouraged

– Entire paper should be submitted onto SHSU Blackboard turnitin . No exception, please.

68. Computer Science

Instruction

– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.

69. Computer Science

Instruction

I’m looking for specialized in business information systems, business analysis, and Computer science majors. I have 3 classes which are, Data Analysis and Reporting, Data Analysis/Visualization and Predictive Data Analysis. Data Analysis and Reporting Class / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the Vmware Horizon client. Data Analysis/Visualization Class / Is excel database and you will use excel 2016 inside the Vmware Horizon client. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the classes. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! I’m looking for someone and never give me good work. That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus.

70. History of Psychology

Discussion Questions

All assignments MUST be typed, double-spaced, in APA style and must be written at graduate level English. You must integrate the material presented in the text to support your discussion, citing in APA format. Outside sources may be used to support the text information, but not replace the text.

Your response to each question should be approx. 1 page per question.

Assignment should be 16 pages total plus a title and reference page
1. There are many reasons why the history of psychology is important. Pick two reasons and explain why they are important.
2. Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were important figures in Philosophy leading up to Psychology. Discuss how these three paved the way for Psychology.

3. Discuss how Augustine changed the locus of control human behavior, from forces outside the person to forces inside the person.

4. Discuss the mind-Body interaction as seen by Descartes. How did Descartes theories contribute to the beginning of Psychology?

5. Compare the roles of Locke, Berkeley, and Hume, and their importance in early Psychology.

6. Herbert was an important transitional figure between philosophy and psychology. How do his theories bring these two disciplines together?

7. Discus the commonalities and the differences between existentialism and romanticism.

8. What were Fechner’s contributions to the development of psychology as a science?

9. Compare and contrast Wundt’s view of Psychology with Titchener’s views. Which one do you agree with more?
10. There were many controversies over intelligence testing. Discuss the importance of Cattell, Binet, Spearman, Goddard, Terman and Yerkes in testing history. Briefly discuss the Bell Curve theory (without pictures), as it applies to testing IQ.
11. Discuss the difference between Structuralism and Functionalism. How were the two schools (Chicago and Columbia) similar and different?
12. Pavlov and Watson are major behaviorists. Explain William McDougall’s outlook and theories and why he is not as well known.
13. Skinner was known as the leading neobehavorist. Why were Tolman, Hull and Gutherie not as well known? Be sure to include Tolman, Hull and Gutherie’s theories.
14. Discuss the founding of Gestalt theory. What impact did it have on psychology and therapy?
15. Summarize the medical, psychological and supernatural models of mental illness and give examples of each.
16. Sigmund Freud is credited with being the Father of Psychoanalysis. Compare and contrast how Anna Freud, Carl Jung, Alfred Adler and Karen Horney morphed Freud’s original theories into working theories that we still use today.

71.Writing Essay

Prompt. In the documentary Catfish, we saw an individual create an imaginary identity as a way of dealing with her depressing offline reality. Eventually, the relationship turned into something more than a friendship although it was actually based on an elaborate lie. The articles”Love the One You’re Near” and “There Is Now Evidence That “There’s Now Evidence That Online Dating Causes Stronger, More Diverse Marriages” also address the issue of online romance. What do you think? Is the Internet a useful place to find a partner? Make an argument for or against online dating. Take a position and support it with reasons and evidence. Include a counterargument and rebuttal. You can use logical reasoning, personal examples, examples from the documentary and the articles, expert opinions, facts, and/or statistics. Also include at least one direct quote and a paraphrase with in-text citations.

72. Extra Credit: Researching Library Databases

Answer each question, the following questions for an extra Writer’s Notebook grade (this is extra credit).

Find the source that discusses police wearing body cameras by Kelly Freund. List the title of the article and summarize it (you can summarize the abstract).
Find the source that discusses transgender students’ bathroom rights from the Harvard Journal on Legislation. List the title of the article, the author, and the subject terms used to categorize it.
Find the source that discusses the sale of organs from Boston College Law Review. List the correct Works Cited entry.
Find a source that discusses raising the federal minimum wage. List the article title and author. Then describe how you searched for it and found it.

YouTube URL: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Z3y_2wzCS0c

Please watch the video below over accessing the online databases. Then complete the database activity in your next Writer’s Notebook below. You will be finding sources for your annotated bibliography and your argument research paper. You will use Academic Search Complete to find them. You need to find four sources that support your claim and one that is a counterargument.

You can access the online databases from the Richland College Library homepage (there is a link on the left sidebar). Click on Databases (in the left column) and then click on Academic Search Complete at the top of the page. You will have to login with your student ID email provided by DCCCD. Your email starts with a lowercase E followed by your student ID. Here’s an example:

Login: e1234567@student.dcccd.edu

Password: eConnect password

If you do not know your eCannect password, you can try logging in on the eConnect webpage. There is a box you can check to get your password hint as well.

Whenever you search a database, always look for the “Advanced Search” feature, which allows you to combine key terms. Using key terms selectively is also important. Also, when searching for authors in a database, always place the last name first, since items in a database are alphabetized. You can also use the drop down arrow to search specific things like authors, titles, journal names, or even ISBN numbers.

73. Project Management Discussion 5

1.Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost of buying 10,000 components = 10,000 * 72 = $720,000

2. Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

response for Naresh Erlapalli

1. Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Estimated cost of purchase = 10000 * 72 = 72000

cost for production = setup cost + defective repair cost + total raw material cost

Given:

Cost of raw material per component = $40

Setup cost = $100,000

cost of defective repair per component = $120

Percent defective 0 10 20 30 40

Probability of 10 20 30 25 15

occurrence

No. Of defective units as probability = sum of ((percent defective/100) * (probability of occurrence/100) )* (total units) )

= (((0/100) * (10/100) ) + ((10/100) * (20/100) ) + ((20/100) * (30/100)) + ((30/100) * (25/100) + ((40/100) * (15/100) ) * (10000)

= 0.215 *10000

= 2150 Units

Total estimated repairing cost = total defective units * cost per repair = 2150*120 = $258,000

Total cost of raw materials = total units * cost per unit

= 10000 * 40

= $400,000

total cost of production for 10,000 units = $258,000 + $400,000 + 100,000

= $758,000

Estimated cost of purchasing = 10,000 *72 = $720,000

Therefore, comparing the prices for purchasing and manufacturing, it is economically better to manufacture the products.

2. Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

The management may opt for manufacturing the product even though its costlier than purchasing the product because strategically thinking it gives them an opportunity to establish themselves in the market. By manufacturing the products in house they can look for long term solutions for future orders and they can also reduce the defective components by improving themselves and also it removes the dependency on external vendors which will make them more productive.

response for Tharun Varikoti

1. Using the expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost estimate with new high cost component:

$72×10,000=720,000

Another approach the management tried to take up was to build the component internally & setup:

Cost estimate if Teloxy builds it:

100,000+400,000= $500,000

Calculation after the defect:

0x10+0.1×20+0.2×30+0.3×25+0.4×15= 21.5 = 0.215

Total number of defective components for 10000 units=2150

Cost for defective component=$120

2150×120= $258,000

Thus, total cost If Teloxy builds it with the predicted defects= = 258,000 + 500,000 = $758,000

Coming to the difference if Teloxy builds it or buys it= 758,000-720,000 = $38,000.

Concluding to this calculation, economically it’s better for Teloxy to purchase it from the third-party vendor than building it.

2. Strategically thinking, why might the management opt for other than the most economical choice?

Utilizing the normal esteem, we see that it is financially savvy for the organization to make a segment than to get it. Be that as it may, now and again, the organization might opt to purchase the part

Despite the fact that it is increasingly costly as the organization is new to the assembling procedure and that there is an immense danger of disappointment or the harmed market esteem and the notoriety if there emerges a sudden hazard. Utilizing the normal esteem and the determined numbers above, we can see that last expense per unit is $75.8 if there should be an occurrence of make option and $77 in the event of purchasing the segment which is a less expense to the organization than the expense of building the market esteem and the notoriety once it is down a direct result of any looked for of disappointment. On the off chance that the organization thinks toward this path, then the organization might opt for purchasing the part despite the fact that it isn’t practical.

References:

1. Kerzner, H. (2017). Project management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling (12 ed.). Hoboken, NJ, USA: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

74. Assignment: Journaling

When you have a strong grasp of the basic tenets, strengths, and weaknesses of key theories of psychology, you can make an informed decision as to which theory or theories best apply in understanding a particular set of behaviors. By keeping a journal of sorts, you can document the characteristics of each theory as you learn about it. Your journaling will be a useful reference for you long after you complete this course. The Psychology Theories Template provides a matrix where you can record what you have learned about each theory.

For this Assignment, you will explore key concepts found in psychodynamic theories and begin your journaling of this week’s theories.

To complete

Begin populating the Psychology Theories Template related to this week’s theories—psychodynamic theories. As you begin populating your template, consider the following:

Identify who or what contributed to the development of the theory. Were there key researchers or seminal research that led to the theory?
Record whether the theory emphasizes nature (biology), nurture (environment), or both.
List the primary characteristics or features of the theory (its key tenets and concepts). Be sure to include if a particular period of life is emphasized.
List the noteworthy strengths and weaknesses of the theory.
(Optional) Include any notes that you find helpful in understanding and applying the theory, such as potential contemporary themes or fields of research in which the theory could be applied.

75. Term Paper

Upload your Term Project Paper here. You may write on any topic related to technology security.

You must produce a minimum of a 10 pages paper. You must use a minimum of 5 references.

– Assure you are citing in APA format

-You must use a minimum of one graphics (may use a table)

– Doublespace the paper

– You must use APA formatting (6th Edition)

76. Discussion

Cushing filed an application with the office of the Adjutant General of the State of New Hampshire for the use of the Portsmouth Armory to hold a dance on the evening of April 29. The application, made on behalf of the Portsmouth Area Clamshell Alliance, was received by the Adjutant General’s office on or about March 30. On March 31 the Adjutant General mailed a signed contract after agreeing to rent the armory for the evening requested. The agreement required acceptance by the renter affixing his signature to the agreement and then returning the copy to the Adjutant General within five days after receipt. Cushing received the contract offer, signed it on behalf of the Alliance, and placed it in the outbox for mailing on April 3. At 6:30 on the evening of April 4, Cushing received a telephone call from the Adjutant General revoking the rental offer. Cushing stated during the conversation that he had already signed and mailed the contract. The Adjutant General sent a written confirmation of the withdrawal on April 5. On April 6 the Adjutant General’s office received by mail from Cushing the signed contract dated April 3 and postmarked April 5.

a. What are the arguments that a binding contract exists?

b. What are the arguments that the contract does not exist or should not exist?

3 paragraphs with 3 references

77. Week 8- Discussion

Discussion Assignment:

Watch the following video:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1gHbwT_R9t0

Was the news segment compelling enough to convince you that the Earth could be flat? Whether we realize it or not, we are inundated with causal claims and arguments. The Flat Earth Wiki page explains that the evidence for a flat earth is derived from many different facets of science and philosophy. The world looks flat, the bottoms of clouds are flat, the movement of the Sun; these are all examples of your senses telling you that we do not live on a spherical heliocentric world. This is using what’s called an empirical approach, or an approach that relies on information from your senses.

The causes of the following events and phenomena are well known and frequently discussed. But do you understand these causes well enough to spell them out to someone else? See how well (and in how much detail) you can explain one of these events or phenomena. Post your explanation to the discussion thread. Is your explanation relatively clear, or does it seem more open to debate? earthquakes/tsunamis
swelling caused by a bee sting
sharp rises in reported cases of autism or asthma
fake news
climate change
popularity of the Netflix series 13 Reasons Why
increasing post-graduation debt for college students
outcome of the

2016 presidential election
controversies in schools and online over free speech

78. Computer Science

Question 1

Calculate the slope and intercept of the first order equation y=mx+b -> deg_c = m * deg_f + b

Here is the spreadsheet https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/CurveFitLab (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

Write a program/project in Netbeans using the same concepts as the spreadsheet. You can copy the degrees Fahrenheit column and place in a file. Then copy the column with error values included for degree Celsius. Calculate the slope and intercept for the data using the formulas in the spreadsheet.

Question 2

Create abstract classes to inherit, show polymorphic behavior and operator overloading. I have written the .h and main.cpp files for you. Complete by writing the .cpp class files.

https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/Review2_CIS17c_Object_Array

79. English Homework

Readings Required:

“Analyzing a Visual: Texting while Driving”, 473

Answer each question in 150-300 words:

How does the ad’s caption “Get the Message” have a double meaning? Do you find the caption effective? Why or why not?
Briefly argue how a visual argument about texting and driving (like this one) might be more or less effective than an essay on the same subject.

80. Education Homework

Story Plot

Section 4.2 of the text discusses in detail the importance and the various types of plot we see in the stories we read. Successful stories are those that have an identifiable plot or sequence of events (Coats, 2013). Our understanding of the types of plot will help us to better identify the kinds of stories our future students gravitate towards. For this post, you will complete “The Seven Basic Plots” chart, which is available in your online course. You will choose at least two children’s books that fit into each plot category. A title may fit into more than one category, but you must choose at least two books for each plot type. Then, briefly discuss how knowing this information will help you choose literature for your classroom.

81. Education homework

Picturebooks

The introduction for Chapter 3 of the text discusses picturebooks and the important role this type of literature can have in helping children develop in their visual, spatial, and gestural literacies (Coats, 2013). Our ability as teachers to understand the basics of picturebook design will assist us in our choosing of books. For this post, you will create a picturebook of your own, implementing and discussing those elements addressed in Chapter 3. Go to Storybird (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and design a picturebook to share with your classmates. If you need assistance with how to use Storybird, it is recommended you view the Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements. Include one picture and description for each of the following:

Color
Shape, line, and texture
Characters and icons
Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements. Include one picture and description for each of the following:

Color
Shape, line, and texture
Characters and icons
Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

82. Human Resource Management

Internet Search

Access the Internet and locate a health insurance company’s (e.g. UnitedHealth, Aetna, etc.) website. Write a three- to five-page double-spaced paper (excluding title and reference pages), addressing the following:

Describe member services and incentives.
Discuss new/current/upcoming technology.
Examine provider network and outreach.
Explain the insurance company’s commitment to excellence and quality.
List its accreditation and/or certification.
Generate two recommendations for improving the company’s member services and/or website.

The Internet Search assignment

Must be three to five double-spaced pages in length (excluding title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center. (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.
Must include a separate title page with the following:
- Title of paper
- Student’s name
- Course name and number
- Instructor’s name
- Date submitted
Must include an introduction and conclusion (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. paragraph.
Must use at least three scholarly, peer-reviewed, and/or other credible sources in addition to the course text.
- The Scholarly, Peer Reviewed, and Other Credible Sources (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. table offers additional guidance on appropriate source types. If you have questions about whether a specific source is appropriate for this assignment, please contact your instructor. Your instructor has the final say about the appropriateness of a specific source for a particular assignment. Be sure to integrate your research (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. rather than simply inserting it.
Must document all sources in APA style as outlined here (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and here (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
Must include a separate references page (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignmen

83.Human Resource Management

Information Systems Functionalities

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapter 23 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

Describe information systems functionalities in claims management and member services maintained by Managed Care Organizations (MCOs).
Identify the significance of information systems in maintaining provider network operated by MCOs.
Discuss the changes in information systems to support consumerism that can be recognized in MCOs.

84. Human Resource Management.

Employer-Sponsored Health Insurance

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapters 16 and 22 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

Describe the sales process in the employer-sponsored model.
Compare the differences between rating and underwriting.
Discuss the influence of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act on ONE of the four areas: (a) marketing, (b) sales, (c) rating, and (d) underwriting.

Your initial post should be at least 300 words. Support your response with a minimum of two scholarly sources (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. that were published in the last five years.

85. Political Science

Question 1: What are the major approaches to political development? Analyze critically different approaches to political development as well as the relationship between development and post-colonialism. (300 words)

Question 2: What is the relationship between political development and democracy? What is the relationship between political development and civil rights? Are they the same? Which one constitutes a prerequisite for the other?(300 words)

86. Accounting

Describe the organizations and rules that govern accounting.

87. Writing Essay

Need to write a paper with references for implementing new stores and what are cybersecurity plans and Risks. Please go through the screen shots for more details and how to write the paper,

88.Discussion

While some similarities between management and leadership exist, there are notable differences.

In your own words, explain what you believe the difference is between management and leadership.
Conduct research on the differences between management and leadership, and post your findings. References and citations are to be formatted according to APA style and formatting guidelines.

89. Entrepreneurship Case Analysis Essay

CASE ANALYSIS GRADING

Case analysis assignments are designed to demonstrate your analytical abilities and your critical thinking skills. They are NOT summaries of the case.

For each assignment, you need to show:

– The top issues which you think prompted the case to be written

– Your consideration of each issue, including any action that must be taken to address the issue and the pros/cons of that action

THEN

– Roll the electronic die.

– Assume the perspective of the company officer indicated by the die.

– Describe your reaction to the case from that officer’s perspective

You receive no points for summarizing the case.

You can receive a maximum of 5 points for issue identification.
You can receive a maximum of 15 points for your analysis of those issues.
You can receive a maximum of 5 points for the company officer perspective.

In exceptional cases, the point allocation may change.

Since we will identify key issues in the case class discussion, late analysis submissions will be discounted by 50%, unless significant new ideas are presented.

90. Information Systems

Instructions

Paper D: Reflective paper on class learning.

Consider this assignment as a reflective piece on class learning as it applies to Ethics in Information Technology. It describes your Ah-ha or Eureka moments. It is hoped that this course made you think about the ethical issues that occur in your personal and work lives and how to go about making ethical choices. Please use the ideas you learned from this course; how you will synthesize what you learned from your research about your topic including – over-arching issues, readings, discussion from class, and conclusions from other assignments that apply to your research.

Please address the following elements:

From a class learning perspective, what were some of your “take-aways?”
How has this impacted your understanding of the ethical issues?
What will you do differently?
How has what you have learned in this course influenced your career?
As we continue to move toward a global community, what new challenges might we see relating to ethics in IT?

You are to prepare a reflective piece of not more than 2-3 pages, double-spaced and submit it to your Assignment Folder as an attached Microsoft Word file. This paper may be subjective in nature!

(This assignment is for the ethics in technology class)

91. English homework Help

Student Newspaper Article Summary Template

Student name: _______________________________________

Author(s): _____________________________________________________

Date Published: _________________________________________________

Title: _________________________________________________________

Newspaper: ____________________________________________________

Website: _______________________________________________________

Date Accessed: __________________________________________________

APA Citation: __________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________

Paragraph 1: Introduction: Who are the actors in this story? What happened? How did it happen? When did it happen? Is it still happening? Where did it happen?

Paragraph 2: What are the natural elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these natural elements that the author(s) make?

Paragraph 3: What are the social elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these social elements that the author(s) makes? Are people of all genders and races represented? Whose voices are not heard that might be important to this story?

Paragraph: 4: What are the major findings of this story? What are the implications of this story?

92. Identify Variable Types And Values

In this assignment, you will be required to use the Heart Rate Dataset to complete the following:

Identify the types of data represented by variables
The range or types of values for each variable
Give a brief written description of the variables, and how they are used in the data set.

Steps

1. Open the Heart Rate Dataset in Excel

2. Identify each of the variables contained in the dataset by type

3. Identify the type of data each variable represents (e.g., qualitative or quantitative) and the possible values for each

4. Briefly describe how the variable is used in the dataset, (e.g., to identify a class, or to give a specific numeric value for an individual).

Additional Instructions:

Your assignment should be typed into a Word or other word processing document, formatted in APA style. The assignments must include

Correctly identifies all variable types

Correctly gives the range of values for each variable

Correctly describes each variable

Submitted assignment is well written and well organized demonstrating excellence in scholarly writing. Mechanics (spelling and punctuation) and grammar are excellent.

93. Applied sciences

Submit a Discussion post in which you respond to the following five questions. Be sure to support your responses with information you learned from the week’s Learning Resources.

Start your post with a brief description of a current or historical public health effort from your interactive courseware (e.g., water fluoridation) that is new or surprising.
Considering your daily activities, describe two specific instances where public health efforts such as those identified in your learning resources (e.g., immunization) may have an impact on individuals you know.
Explain how your examples might impact the burden of disease addressed in your Learning Resources this week.
How would (or do) your examples of public health affect people in other less developed countries? Provide an example to illustrate your point.

94. BYOD Is A Growing Trend In Corporate Environments

BYOD is a growing trend in corporate environments, where employees bring their own devices to work. Factors that have led to the growing popularity of BYOD include the benefits of work flexibility, increased productivity, and efficiency of employees. Despite these benefits, there are concerns over information security and privacy. Since BYOD allows employees to access organizational data anytime anywhere, it is necessary to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of organizational information resources and assets.

Discussion Questions

1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

2. What people, organization, and technology factors should be addressed when deciding whether to allow employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

Provide support for your statements and references, APA formatted.

95. Literature Analysis Research

Format: This assignment must be printed out for submission, following the standard MLA format.

Details: 2 Page (600-650 words) comparison/contrast of Masque of the Red death and The Tell-Tale Heart by Edgar Allen Poe ! Include the following:

Compare/contrast three (3) literary and poetic devices between literary works ,Define the literary and poetic devices.
Answer: how does each work use them differently or the same?
Answer: what affect do the literary devices have on the reader in terms of interpretation if some or all of the literary devices are NOT included? How would their absence change the literary work?
Answer: what other devices would YOU choose if you had the power to edit the literary work? Name at least two (2) and why.

For your title, you will need to list the following choice as how you would like this grade to be counted

A: Replacement grade for one (1) discussion board

96. Emerging-Threats-And-Countermeasures_ Discretion

How basic discretion steps can help in countermeasures?

3 references with minimum of 300 words

97. Discussion Question

From the perspective of a general manager in your field, which of the organizational control methods outlined in Chapter 19 of the Management textbook do you think would be the most universal? What does organizational control look like in your sphere of influence? The book is

Daft, R. (2014). Management (11th ed.). Vanderbilt University: South-Western Cengage learning. I need at least 2 refs. 1-2 pages can do the job.

98. Monologue

Write an monologue of “mama bear from the fairy tail- goldilocks and three bear”

99. Enterprise Risk Management_ Mars And California Health System

1)Approach Mars, Incorporated used to implement ERM

2)University of California Health System’s ERM development.

Do some research on above two topics and explain In what ways are the two organization’s approaches to ERM(Enterprise Risk Management) similar? How do they differ? Choose one aspect of each ERM implementation from which the other organization would benefit and explain why.

Minimum of 300 words with three references

100. Three 550-600 Word Research Papers. APA Format.3-4 Peer Reviewed References.No Plagiarism

Three 550-600 word research papers. APA format. APA format in paragraph citations. 3-4 Peer reviewed references. No plagiarism

Topics:

Question 1) Business Bluffing

Question 2) Stakeholder theory

Question 3)Organizational Integrity

Please follow below instructions, each paper should have,

DEFINITION: a brief definition of the key term followed by the APA reference for the term;

SUMMARY: Summarize the article in your own words- this should be in the 150-200 word range. Be sure to note the article’s author, note their credentials and why we should put any weight behind his/her opinions, research or findings regarding the key term.

DISCUSSION: Using 300-350 words, write a brief discussion, in your own words of how the article relates to the selected chapter Key Term. A discussion is not rehashing what was already stated in the article, but the opportunity for you to add value by sharing your experiences, thoughts and opinions. This is the most important part of the assignment.

REFERENCES: All references must be listed at the bottom of the submission in APA format.

101.Nursing

What are some factors that make some people healthy and others ill? Healthy People 2020 identifies five determinants of health that influence the health of individuals and populations. Healthy People 2020 describes them as “a range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status” (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2018, About Determinants of Health, para. 1). Determinants fall into five categories, including (a) policy making, (b) social factors, (c) health services, (d) individual behavior, and (e) biology and genetics.

Go to the Determinants of Health link at https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site., and click on each determinant to read about it.
Choose one of the five determinants other than individual behavior (as we are all aware of how individual behavior impacts health). In your post, describe this determinant and its importance.
Discuss how a community health nurse (CHN) could use one of the 17 intervention categories from the Public Health Intervention Wheel to address this determinant (Nies & McEwen, 2015).

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion. (2018). Healthy People 2020: About Determinants of Health. Retrieved from https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health

102. Company Name Apple Inc:

The aim of this assignment is to provide students the opportunity to perform a thorough case analysis. Select your company and get approval from your course professor before working on it. The case analysis should include the following elements:

Title Page

Executive Summary

Background

Introduce the company and provide the reader with background information about the company.

Situation Analysis

The Environment – PESTLE Analysis
1. Political environment
2. Economic environment
3. Social environment
4. Technological environment
5. Legal/Regulatory environment
6. Environmental environment
The Industry – Porter’s Five Forces Analysis
1. Bargaining power of suppliers
2. Threat of new entrant
3. Rivalry among existing competitors
4. Bargaining power of competitors
5. Threat of substitutes
The Firm
1. What is the mission and vision of the firm?
2. What are the strengths of the firm?
3. What is the firm’s financial condition?
4. What are the constraints and weaknesses of the firm (i.e. financial condition, organizational conflict)?
5. What is the management philosophy?
6. What does the organizational structure tell you about how decisions are made?
The Product
1. What good and/or service does the organization offer?
2. What consumer need does the product solve?
3. What promotional mix, channels of distribution, and pricing strategies are being used by the organization?
4. What competitive advantage does the marketing strategy offer?

SWOT Analysis

Strengths
- Identify strengths of the organization and answer the following questions:
  - How does this strength affect the operations of the organization?
  - How does this strength assist the company in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
Weaknesses
- Identify weaknesses of the organization and answer the following questions:
  - How does this weakness affect the operations of the organization?
  - How does knowledge of this weakness assist the organization in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
Opportunities
- Identify opportunities in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the following questions:
  - How is this opportunity related to serving the needs of our target market?
  - What actions must the organization take to capitalize on this opportunity?
Threats
- Identify threats in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the following questions:
  - How is this threat related to serving the needs of our target market?
  - What actions must the organization take to prevent this threat from limiting the capabilities of the organization?

Problem Statement

What is the primary problem in the case? Secondary problems? What are the ramifications of these problems in the long run? Short run? Include quantitative and qualitative analysis in your response.

Strategic Plan

Based on the problem identified, develop a 5-year strategic plan for the company. This plan should include:

1. Clear vision, mission statement and core values

2. SMART objectives to solve the problem

3. Corresponding strategies for the objectives identified

4. Implementation plan

5. Key Performance Indicators to monitor progress

Summary

Conclude the paper with a summary of the major points.

References

As groups prepare the project, please attend to the following additional guidelines:

· Length: 30 pages (double-spaced)

· Sources: 15 scholarly sources and 15 sources of business data

· Format: APA

Proofread the document carefully before submission at the end of the bi-term

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EMAN 620 – Information Technology in Emergency Management

Module # 5

Mapping Exercise

Due at the end of Module # 5

Goal:

The Goal of this exercise is to familiarize the student with online tools that help organize and display information on a map in a short time frame. The tool I recommend you use is Google Earth. You will be creating a map after an act of terrorism has occurred.

Objectives:

The objectives of this exercise are to:

Explore a online mapping platform like Google Earth
Identify Key Features for a functional site map
Produce a map with a legend that is clear, readable and has value to commanders and responders

Background Scenario:

A “ Dirty bomb “ has been detonated directly in front of the White house in Washington D.C . This occurred at 10 a.m. on 04-20-(this year). The President was not at the White House during the blast. It is utter chaos, with DC Fire/EMS responding.

Your role is the Emergency manager for the City of Washington D.C. Within minutes of the attack you activate all emergency functions. At 13:00 you are expected to provide a briefing to the Mayor of D.C., and the President of the United States at a nearby facility. You have been asked to keep your brief short with a single map that portrays the situation and the response effort.

Your initial assessment reveals that there is damage to buildings within a ¼ mile. There are currently 86 fatalities and 200+ injured.

There happens to be absolutely no wind on the day. However you are still concerned about the potential for radiation exposure. Your staff recommends a “ hot zone” with a mile radius. That means everything inside that area has potential for radiation.

Tasks:

Your overall task is to create a status map for the purpose of:

Assuming you watched the video and have downloaded Google Desk Top
1. If you cannot access Google Maps you can use another map making program to produce your map or you can create a paper map.
Review the scenario. More than enough information available.
1. Email or text me with any questions.
Create a status map that provides a snapshot of the situation. A few things you should consider
1. The immediate impact zone
1. The “ hot zone” i.e. suspected contamination zone
1. Points of ingress/egress for rescuers
1. Staging area for rescue areas
1. De-contamination area for people/equipment leaving
1. Temporary Debris Storage area. This should be a large area of debris from the rescue effort can be temporarily stockpiled.
Create a legend, Title and any other required formatting.

Deliverables:

By the end of Module # 5 you are to submit a file (yes PDF is ok) in the assignment folder with your result. The file should contain the Map with a legend that is clear and easy to read.

Notes:

I purposely provided sparse information. Take as many creative and logical liberties as like to develop the scenario on your own. The point is that you have to produce a single map – with what you feel is the most important info to provide a snapshot of the situation. It’s up to you decide to what should go on there.

The Role of Stakeholders

What are the stakeholders?
How do the three primary stakeholder groups influence organizations?
What steps would you take to effectively communicate a strategic plan?

Final Strategic Plan

Create the Final Strategic Plan. The Final Strategic Plan contains the elements of all the previous weeks’ components and incorporates instructor feedback. However, this is not a compilation or “cut-n-paste” of these prior papers. This is intended to be a stand-alone project that builds upon your earlier learnings. The strategic recommendations will be evaluated and the best options chosen for the recommendation. The final strategic plan contains: (JP Morgan Chase)

Table of Contents
Executive Summary (Word Document – 350 to 700 words)
Company Background
Mission Statement
Vision Statement
Value Statement
Environmental Scan
Internal and External Environmental Analysis
Strategic Recommendation
Implementation Plan
Organizational Change Management Strategies
Risk Management Plan
Conclusion
References

Create a 25- to 35-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation with speaker notes to present the strategic plan, combining all relevant elements from previous weeks. The objective is to sell the strategic plan to investors or company directors.

Format the assignment according to APA guidelines.
Support your assessments. Include a minimum of four authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your presentation/speaker’s notes as in-text citations.

Excel spreadsheet

Instructions:

For the purpose of grading the project you are required to perform the following tasks:

Step

Instructions

Points Possible

Start Excel. Open the downloaded Excel file named e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons.xlsx. Save the file with the name e03ch05_grader_a1_Lessons_LastFirstreplacing LastFirst with your last and first name. In the Security Warning bar, click Enable Content.

0.000

On the StudentData worksheet, select the range A7:K94, and then name the range Student_Data. Create a named range for each column in the Student_Data named range, using the top row as the range values.

2.000

On the DataInputs worksheet, select the range A3:B3, and then create a named range using the left column as the name.
Select the range A6:E10, and then create a named range using Lesson_Pricing as the name.
Select the range A13:E17, and then create a named range using Trans_Fees as the name.
Select the range A20:G24, and then create a named range using Uniform_Fees as the name.
Select the range H6:J7, and then create a named range using Entry_Fee as the name.

4.000

On the StudentData worksheet, in cell E5, add a COUNTIF function to count the Teacher field in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell E4. Copy the formula through cell I5.
In cell K5, add a DCOUNTA function to count the StudentID field in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in the range D1:K2.

8.000

In cell K8, add a VLOOKUP function nested in an IFERROR function to retrieve the price per hour, located in column 3 in the Lesson_Pricing named range, for each student on the basis of the student’s skill level, located in the Skill level field. The value should be looking for an exact match. To prevent an error from being displayed when the skill level is not known, use the IFERROR function to leave the cell blank.
Copy the formula through cell K94.

8.000

On the LessonData worksheet, in cell F3, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve Skill_level of each student listed in column B (StudentID). To prevent zeros from displaying when the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions in an IF function to leave the cell blank when the skill level equals 0. Copy the formula through cell F121.

8.000

On the LessonData worksheet, in cell G3, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the total fee located in the Lesson Pricing table on the DataInputs worksheet for each student listed in column B depending on their lesson length and skill level. To prevent an error from being displayed when the skill level is not known, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function, and display the default total fee of $50. Copy the formula down to G121.

8.000

On the Report worksheet, in cell B3, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the teacher’s name in the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The value should be looking for an exact match.
In cell B4, add an AVERAGEIF function to calculate the teacher’s (Teacher) average in the Price_Per_Hour field for the teacher listed in cell B3.
In cell B5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the student’s skill level in the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The value should be looking for an exact match.

8.000

In cell B6, add a COUNTIF function to count the StudentID field on the LessonData worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell B2.

In cell B7, add a SUMIF function to sum the Total Fee field on the LessonData worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell B2.

In cell B8, add a two nested IF function to determine how many free lessons the student has earned. If the student has had fewer than 5 total lessons, display 0 earned. If the student has had less than 10 lessons, display 1 earned; otherwise, display 2 earned.

9.000

In cell E5, add a VLOOKUP function to look up the student’s uniform size in the Student_Data table for the student listed in cell B2. The function should be looking for an exact match.

In cell E7, add a HLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s registration fee in the Entry_Fee named range for the registration type in cell E3. The function should be looking for an exact match.

In cell I13, add a COUNTIF function to count the number of uniforms in the Uniform_Size column of the Student Data table that meet the filter criteria in cell H12.

8.000

In cell I14, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the uniform fee located in the Uniform_Fee table on the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cells H12 and I13. To prevent an error from displaying when no uniforms of the size located in H12 are needed, nest the INDEX and MATCH functions inside an IFERROR function to leave the cell blank. (Hint: Set the match type to 1.)

8.000

In cell B12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s first name in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.

In cell C12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve the student’s last name in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.

8.000

In cell D12, add a VLOOKUP function to retrieve whether or not the student has a permission slip on file in the Student_Data table that meets the filter criteria in cell A12. The value should be looking for an exact match.

In cell E12, add a VLOOKUP function nested in an IF function to retrieve the student’s uniform size. To prevent zeros from being displayed when the uniform size is not known, nest the VLOOKUP function in an IF function to leave the cell blank. The value should be looking for an exact match.

6.000

In cell F12, add an AND function nested in an IF function to determine whether the student has a permission slip and a uniform. If the student has a permission slip and the uniform size is not blank, then display Yes in the field; otherwise, display No.
Highlight B12:F12 and then copy the formulas through cell range B38:F38.

6.000

In cell F39, add a COUNTIF function to determine how many students are currently traveling to the competition as indicated by Yes in cell range F12:F38.

5.000

In cell E8, add a MATCH function nested in an INDEX function to retrieve the transportation fee located in the Trans_Fee table on the DataInputs worksheet that meets the filter criteria in cell E4 and F39.

4.000

Click Save, exit Excel, and then submit your file as directed by your instructor.

0.000

Total Points

100.000

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen v List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenvvv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsenv

Liberty HIEU 201 History of Western Civilization Evaluative Essay 1 & 2 Thesis Statement

Evaluative Essay Instructions

Purpose

To evaluate an historical theme using assigned sources for support.
To compose a properly formatted, scholarly paper, using the most recent edition of Turabian, Notes-Bibliography.

General Directions:

For this assignment, students will choose 1 historical theme from the list below to research throughout the course:

Religion/Philosophy

Literature

Law

Science/Medicine/Technology

Economy/Labor

Students will write 2 analytical essays on their chosen theme, using the primary sources and topic prompts within the additional documents.

In Week 3, students will submit a thesis statement for Evaluative Essay 1 to the instructor for review. This pre-submission of the thesis statement will not be required for Evaluative Essay 2.

Evaluative Essay 1 will cover the period from 3000 BC through AD 476. It is due in Week 4.

Evaluative Essay 2 will cover the period from 476-1640. It is due in Week 7.

Specific Requirements:

The evaluative essay will consider assigned sources on the chosen theme, and evaluate those sources using the topic prompt provided in the additional documents for this assignment.

Format, Length and Organization:

Length: 750-1100 words (roughly 3-4 pages, double spaced – not counting footnotes)
Double spaced text, Times New Roman, size 12 font, standard margins and indentation (see Turabian: Notes-Bibliography)
The paper should have a title page, body, and bibliography page
Using Turabian Notes-Bibliography style, format footnotes for the paper.
Basic Organization (except literature topic, given in literature document): The paper will consist of an introduction, body and conclusion:
- Introduction should be one paragraph and should introduce the main argument, ending with a strong thesis statement. The thesis statement is the ONE SENTENCE argument.
- Body of the paper is a few paragraphs (3-4) developing and supporting the argument, showing comparison and contrast of the assigned documents, as well as further analysis and Biblical evaluation. The body of the paper should provide specific examples and details from the assigned sources.
- Conclusion is the final paragraph, restating the argument and summarizing the main points of the paper, drawing conclusions for the reader. No new information.

Sources:

The textbook and lectures can be used for basic background information, but the majority of supporting details should be drawn from the assigned sources within each topic document.
For Biblical analysis, you can use your own Bible, or one of the following websites for finding and using Scripture verses. Please note that you need to use a standard translation (such as KJV or ESV) and not a paraphrase Bible (such as the Message).

www.biblegateway.com

Srong’s Exhaustive Concordance https://books.google.com/books?id=3TBGAQAAMAAJ&printsec=frontcover&dq=strong%27s+exhaustive+concordance+of+the+bible&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwifx7zyxZHXAhXFPCYKHQwRBc0Q6AEIKDAA#v=onepage&q&f=false

Source Citation Examples:

Note that no citation is needed for common knowledge information, but specific examples, details, or arguments drawn from the assigned sources DO need proper source citation.

Martin Luther nailed the 95 Theses to the door of the Wittenburg Church in 1517. (common knowledge, no specific citation needed)

The Hebrew Old Testament is considered to be a book of folklore, myths and stories that is useful for some understanding of Hebrew history, but not always reliable as an historical source since it was written by religious devotees rather than historians.^[1] – citation needed because this expresses a specific view or argument.

**If you are unsure of whether or not a citation is needed, it is better to include the citation than to leave it out. You can also contact your instructor for assistance.

[1] Marvin Perry, et.al., Western Civilization Vol. 1, MindTap edition, 2-1c. (Note that this is short-form) E

WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?

Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.

Include the following in your paper:

Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
- How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
- How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?

Week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

Assess the organization’s current status:
- Leadership
- Board members
- Structure
- Number of employees
Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

Strategic Plan 4

Write a 1,400-word minimum strategic implementation plan in which you include the following:

Organization JP Morgan Chase
Create an implementation plan including:
- Objectives
- Functional tactics
- Action items
- Milestones and deadlines
- Tasks and task ownership
- Resource allocation
Recommend any organizational change management strategies that may enhance successful implementation.
Develop key success factors, budget, and forecasted financials, including a break-even chart.
Create a risk management plan including contingency plans for the identified risks.

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Implementation, Strategic Controls, and Contingency Plans

What are some current and potential risks in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
How can organizations benefit from performing a political risk analysis?
Under what conditions would it make sense to use a political weakness as an opportunity to transfer operations in the home country to a new market?
What are some potential advantages to implementing a cooperative strategy? What might be some potential risks?
What is a strategic network? What is a strategic center firm? How is a strategic center used in business-level, corporate-level, and international cooperative strategies?
What are the benefits of implementing International Cooperative Strategies? Why?
What are political risks and what are economic risks? How should firms approach dealing with these risks?
What is a top management team, and how does it affect a firm’s performance and its abilities to innovate and design and bring about effective strategic change?

Statistic for business


You may use Minitab or other software for any calculations. However, you must show your

 manual calculations when asked. You may paste your output onto your assignment to show your use of Minitab; however, this output does not replace any of the steps outlined below. This means that answers that are exclusively computer output may receive only one mark.

 If you are performing a hypothesis test, make sure you state the hypotheses, the level of significance, the rejection region, the test statistic (and p-value, if requested), your decision (whether to reject or not to reject the null hypothesis), and a conclusion that answers the question posed or interprets the decision taken. These steps must be completed in addition to any computer output.

 The data in the Minitab data files can be found in the file Assign1Data.xlsx.

Role of sport in education

Role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

Management Accounting Problem : Holzmann Cleaning Services

Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 1 (30 MARKS) Project 1 is due at the end of Week 3. It is out of 30 marks. Required: Assume the role of a partner in Martine’s consulting business. Martine has asked you to assist her with completing the analysis and developing a report for Gretel. Prepare a report and supporting exhibits for Gretel, president of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS), to analyze HCS’s current profitability and provide analysis of the overhead allocations used. It should include the following: 1. Profit analysis: Prepare a brief high-level overview of the 20X6 results in total based on Exhibit 1 in the project details document. Your discussion should highlight significant changes between 20X5 and 20X6 operations, and between 20X6 actual and 20X6 budgeted operations. (8 marks) 2. Costing analysis: Prepare overall comments on the current method HCS uses to allocate its overhead and provide further analysis on ways in which the company can improve its costing methods in order to assess and manage its costs. Your analysis should include the following: a) Calculate overhead applied rate per direct labour hour (rounded to the nearest dollar), the overhead applied amount and the resulting over- or underapplied overhead for 20X6 using the traditional costing approach. Base this on the existing method of allocating service overhead using direct labour hours as the allocation base. The 20X6 actual wages and benefit rate were the same as budgeted at $13.20 per hour. (2 marks) b) Use the regression analyses in Exhibit 3 in Project Details to determine the viability of each cost driver to predict costs for cleaning supplies and transportation. This should include reasons for choosing or not choosing the regression analyses that were provided. (3 marks) c) Use the regression analysis equation chosen in part (b) to separate the variable cost(s) from the fixed cost(s). Only the fixed cost(s) would be categorized with the other overhead costs. With the adjusted overhead costs, follow the traditional costing approach to recalculate the overhead application rate using direct labour hours as the allocation base. Calculate the over- or underapplied overhead by applying the new overhead rate. Compare your result to part (a) and provide an analysis of the differences between the two application rates. (4 marks) Intermediate Management Accounting Project 1 3 / 3 d) Using activity-based costing and the information in Exhibit 2 in Project Details, prepare a partial profit analysis for commercial and residential operations. Use wages and benefits costs (allocated on the same basis as revenue) and all costs from the activitybased data to prepare a partial operating statement that includes all direct/traceable costs. Compare the segment margins between the commercial and residential operations. (4 marks) Provide three points that highlight the reasons for the difference between cost allocations using activity-based costing and traditional costing. (3 marks) e) Provide overall comments on the results of these analyses in your report. (3 marks) In addition to the above, award 3 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar

Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 11 PROJECT DETAILS “Adding time to your day” is the slogan of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS). The company was started by Gretel, who began offering cleaning services to support herself while she was in university studying for a business degree. At the age of 21 she was determined to be known as more than a simple labourer who needed to fund her education. She researched different cleaning products and methodologies to deliver a fast and thorough service to her clients. Ten years later, the business has grown in size and has expanded throughout the city and local rural areas. Gretel is the majority shareholder of the private corporation with two other shareholders. The company consists of a full-time staff of three operations managers (one for commercial operations and two for residential operations), an administrative staff of three, and part-time cleaning staff of over 200 university students, called cleaning agents. Not only is Gretel able to provide high-quality cleaning services to her clients, but she is also able to offer university students part-time work, reducing the need for student loans. The company also owns a fleet of three vans that are used to transport cleaning agents to and from work sites. A fourth van is available for the operations managers to make site visits if necessary. Gretel’s training regimen is thorough as potential hires are trained in the areas of cleaning products, effective cleaning methods and acceptable deportment when entering a client’s residence or place of business. Through this training process, which Gretel carries out herself, she is able to hire only those individuals she feels would provide the high-quality service that keeps clients coming back. Recently, Gretel engaged Martine, a CPA and a local consultant, to review the latest operating statement. Gretel is discouraged with the 20X6 profit margin (Exhibit 1). Additionally, she is concerned with the cash flow as there are seasonal fluctuations in the work, with more work in the months of March and April when many homeowners request more hours for springcleaning chores. As such, Gretel must ensure that there is enough cash on hand to build cleaning supplies inventories and pay for training of any new recruits required to handle the extra work. Other than springtime, cleaning supplies inventory on hand is minimal. She is hoping that Martine will provide some guidance that will help the company attain its profit margins. She has called a meeting with Martine, Sam, the operations manager of commercial operations and Ling, one of the operations managers of residential operations. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 3 / 11 GRETEL: I thought we had a pretty good year; sales were up, and we’ve had great reviews. Yet when I look at the bottom line, the profit margin is only 9%. I was hoping for at least 12%. According to industry statistics, the profit margins should be at least 25%. The other issue is that we were short on cash in the late summer. MARTINE: Have there been any significant changes in the operations in the past year? LING: I’ve noted that we’re taking on more residential clients outside the city. I’ve had to make sure that we schedule in more travel time to reach the destination on time. SAM: And don’t forget that at the request of a majority of our commercial clients, we’ve included more eco-friendly cleaning products. It helps boost their image of being socially responsible. MARTINE: I can imagine that this has increased both your travel and cleaning supplies costs. How do you currently cost out your services and how do you arrive at a charge-out rate? GRETEL: We treat the wage costs of our cleaning agents as direct costs. The cost of cleaning supplies, transportation and operations managers’ salaries are considered overhead. We apply the overhead at $10 per direct labour hour and add on an additional 60% to arrive at our charge-out rate. MARTINE: Have you ever taken an activity-based approach to costing your services? Besides the increase in cleaning supplies’ costs, are there some other significant differences in the costs consumed by your commercial clients versus the costs consumed by your residential clients? LING: Well, I’ve had a bit of free time on the residential side so I’ve helped Sam out on occasion with the commercial side. I’ve noted that most of the commercial clients are clustered around the downtown core. So it takes less time to travel there. GRETEL: Because our commercial clients have in-house accounts payable departments, we usually only bill them once per month. While our more recent residential clients are on monthly billing, we still have some that are on weekly billing. However, you should note that we spend almost three times more hours training cleaning agents who work for our commercial clients than training those who work for our residential clients. Part of the reason is that eco-friendly products require more application knowledge. MARTINE: So I understand that the operations managers are not that busy on the residential side? What’s the breakdown between residential and commercial clients? GRETEL: We have about 120 regular commercial clients. They account for 60% of the revenue, even though they amount to less than half of the clients. As for the residential side, I’m not sure we require both full-time operations managers. Alex has gone home early on some days because there was a shortage of work. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 4 / 11 MARTINE: And are your cash disbursements pretty much in line with your revenues? GRETEL: For the most part. Our major expenses are cleaning supplies and transportation, which mostly fluctuate with revenues, except for annual preventive maintenance on our vans, which takes place in the slower months of July and August. Oh, and one more thing: I would really like a solid way of giving a potential client a quote before we begin a contract with them. Right now, I measure the square metres and estimate how many hours it will take to complete the work. I multiply that by the direct labour hourly rate and then add on our $10 overhead factor per direct labour hour and 60% for profit. Any ideas? MARTINE: Let me work on this and get back to you with a full report. In the week following the meeting, Martine spent time with Gretel, the operations managers and the administrative staff. She developed the following: · cost pools for indirect costs related to cleaning services along with the cost driver for each pool and activity breakdowns for residential and commercial clients (Exhibit 2) · regression analyses summary results (Exhibit 3) to determine the statistical relationship between: o direct labour hours and transportation costs o direct labour hours and cleaning supplies costs · details regarding expected growth for 20X7 (Exhibit 4) · details regarding a typical commercial and residential client that could be used to develop quotes (Exhibit 5) · details relating to cash collections and disbursements (Exhibit 6) Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 5 / 11 Exhibit 1 REVENUES AND EXPENSES 20X5 20X6 20X6 Budget Total revenue 728,910 819,000 778,050 90,090 12% 40,950 5% Cost of sales Wages and benefits 233,747 292,184 277,575 58,437 25% 14,609 5% Cleaning supplies 66,406 88,541 67,291 22,135 33% 21,250 32% Transportation costs (including fuel, insurance, depreciation and maintenance) 23,619 30,281 25,890 6,662 28% 4,391 17% Salaries of operations managers 116,000 120,000 118,000 4,000 3% 2,000 2% Cost of sales (direct expenses) 439,772 531,006 488,756 91,234 21% 42,250 9% Gross margin 289,138 287,994 289,294 Operating expenses Administrative labour (training and billing) 175,750 185,000 166,500 9,250 5% 18,500 11% Depreciation (excluding transportation vehicles) 2,703 2,350 2,303 (353) (13%) 47 2% Repairs and maintenance (excluding transportation) 881 890 872 9 1% 18 2% Utilities and telephone/telecommunication 4,712 4,620 4,528 (92) (2%) 92 2% Rent 10,320 10,320 10,114 0 0% 206 2% Interest and bank charges 998 1,050 1,029 52 5% 21 2% Business fees 4,200 4,200 4,116 0 0% 84 2% Advertising and promotion 1,890 2,520 2,470 630 33% 50 2% Insurance (excluding transportation) 2,594 2,730 2,675 136 5% 55 2% 204,048 213,680 194,607 9,632 5% 19,073 10% Net operating profit/loss 85,090 74,314 94,687 (10,776) (13%) (20,373) (22%) 11.67% 9.07% 12.17% Variance from 20X5 actual Variance from 20X6 budget EXHIBIT 1 Holzmann Cleaning Services — Report on Operations Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 6 / 11 Exhibit 2 Cost pools and activities for activity-based costing analysis Cost driver Cost pool Total activity Commercial activity Residential activity Cleaning supplies commercial Square metres $ 70,833 664,054 664,054 Cleaning supplies residential Square metres $ 17,708 442,703 442,703 Billing Number of invoices $ 129,500 3,054 1,062 1,992 Transportation Number of kilometres $ 30,281 53,124 15,937 37,187 Training Number of hours $ 55,500 554 416 138 Operations management Number of managers $ 120,000 3 1 2 Total expenses $ 423,822 Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 7 / 11 Exhibit 3 Summary results of regression analyses Analysis of transportation costs and statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.370106959 R Square 0.136979161 Adjusted R Square 0.050677077 Standard Error 205.6109076 Observations 12 ANOVA d f SS MS Regression 1 67100.46346 67100.46346 Residual 10 422758.4532 42275.84532 Total 11 489858.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept 2006.01049 414.9577567 4.8342523 Labour hours 0.280500299 0.222646934 1.25984353 TRANSPORTATION ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 8 / 11 Analysis of cleaning-supply costs and statistical relationship with direct labour hours (Based on monthly information) Regression Statistics Multiple R 0.834454446 R Square 0.696314222 Adjusted R Square 0.665945644 Standard Error 152.2094937 Observations 12 ANOVA d f SS MS Regression 1 531207.6171 531207.6171 Residual 10 231677.2996 23167.72996 Total 11 762884.9167 Coefficients Standard Error t-Stat Intercept 5922.619076 307.1846274 19.28032378 Labour hours 0.78922842 0.164820911 4.788399819 CLEANING SUPPLIES COST ANALYSIS USING LABOUR HOURS Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 9 / 11 Exhibit 4 20X7 expected growth data Change in dollars: Expected revenue growth (due to increase in charge-out rate to $39 per hour) 8% Expected increase in cleaning supplies costs due to increase in volume (residential and commercial) 7% Expected increase in commercial cleaning supplies costs due to price increase 9% Labour wage and benefit rate per hour $13.46 Expected increase in transportation costs 9% Change in activity for ABC analysis: Increase in overall square metres of cleaning 7% Increase in number of invoices (commercial only, see option 2 below for residential) 5% Increase total kilometres driven (30% of total kilometres relate to commercial clients) 8% All other expenses will be unchanged. Cost reduction options: 1. Reduce operations management staff costs by putting one residential operations manager on half-time. This would reduce the total cost from $120,000 to $100,000. 2. Change all residential billing to monthly. This would reduce the number of residential invoices sent out by 10% from 20X6 activity. Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 10 / 11 Exhibit 5 Client data for contract quote development According to Gretel, a cleaning agent is able to clean approximately 50 square metres per hour, on average. Base the annual sales amount on 50 annual visits for commercial clients and a per-visit basis for residential clients. Use the following variable costs: · Wages and benefits — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for hourly rates. · Cleaning-supply costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate per square metre. · Transportation costs — see 20X7 budget and information in Exhibit 4 for rate per kilometre. Commercial client: Typical commercial client details are as follows: · square metres 1,950 · kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 20 Residential client: Typical residential client details are as follows: · square metres 232 · kilometres driven per visit (round trip) 25 Intermediate Management Accounting Project Details 11 / 11 Exhibit 6 Cash collection and disbursement activity May June July August September October Sales revenue $85,100 $62,900 $67,155 $49,210 $50,875 $68,265 Purchases of cleaning supplies $7,664 $7,240 $7,500 $6,850 $6,900 $7,575 Transportation costs $2,022 $1,904 $2,323 $2,377 $1,327 $1,475 Direct labour wages $30,360 $22,440 $23,958 $17,556 $18,150 $24,354 Management salaries $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 $25,417 General operating expenses $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 $2,390 Cash collections: Cash sales 25% Credit collections: Amount collected in month of service 50% Amount collected in month following service 30% Amount collected in second month following service 15% Uncollectable 5% Cash disbursements: Transportation 100% Paid in month incurred Cleaning supplies 60% Paid in month incurred 40% Paid in month following Direct labour 50% Paid in month incurred 50% Paid in month following Remaining expenses 100% Paid in month incurred Additional notes: Depreciation included in monthly general operating expenses $ 196 Annual dividend payment to three shareholders, paid in August $8,000 Expected July 1 beginning cash balance $5,000

Intermediate Management Accounting 2 / 3 PROJECT 2 (40 MARKS) Project 2 consists of a second report from Martine to Gretel, the president of Holzmann Cleaning Services (HCS). It is due at the end of Week 5 and is out of 40 marks. 1. Prepare a complete 20X7 operating budget for both commercial and residential operations, based on the details provided in Exhibit 4 in Project Details. The operating budget will require adjustments to the activity-based analysis prepared for the direct costs in requirement 2 of Project 1. Indirect general costs should be allocated 60% to commercial and 40% to residential. (6 marks) Provide a discussion of the results in your report. (4 marks) Note: It is important to provide the analysis done in Project 1 so that markers don’t deduct marks for errors made in Project 1. 2. a) Revise the 20X7 operating budget statements to a contribution format. Assume the following are variable costs: i) Wages and benefits ii) Cleaning supplies iii) Transportation costs All remaining costs are fixed. (1 mark) Based on the 20X7 budget: b) Calculate the break-even point in sales dollars based on the 20X7 sales mix. (2 marks) c) Calculate the sales revenue required to achieve a 25% profit margin. (2 marks) d) Provide comments on the results in the report. Your discussion should also include comments on the margin of safety (1 mark) and the limits of the CVP analysis as it pertains to HCS. (2 marks) 3. To assist Gretel in submitting bids for new work, use the 20X7 contribution margin budget to determine an average markup percentage on variable costs for both commercial and residential cleaning services. Using the markup percentages, calculate the sales price of a typical commercial and residential contract (see Exhibit 5 in Project Details). (8 marks) Also provide a short discussion of the results in your report. (2 marks) Intermediate Management Accounting Project 2 3 / 3 4. Cash analysis: a) Prepare a cash budget for the quarter starting July 20X6 using the information in Exhibit 6 found in Project Details. (6 marks) b) Prepare a discussion that highlights your findings in your report. What advice can you give Gretel regarding the handling of cash and her operations during this period? (4 marks) In addition to the above, award 2 marks for report format and professionalism. Your report should clearly communicate the important details of the case and effectively persuade the reader to act on your advice. NOTE ON ROUNDING: Use unrounded numbers for all calculations and round the final answer to the nearest dollar.

Strategic Choice and Evaluation

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how? Why is this relationship important?
How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
What might encourage diversification?
What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam South University Advanced Pathophysiology Final Examv

How motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

Use examples to support your discussion.

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

CSTU 101 learning activity 1

Go online and find some information about the “Elgin Marbles” (also called the “Parthenon Marbles”). Read a little about the controversy between the British and Greek governments concerning the ownership of these marbles. In a 2-paragraph essay, first summarize the controversy in your own words, and then take a clear position by supporting either the Greek or British side. Discuss 2 main reasons that support your position. You do not need to do extensive research or reading to complete this assignment well. However, if you include sources, cite them in current APA format. This assignment must be 250–300 words and must include the word count in parentheses. Submit a draft of your Learning Activity to SafeAssign for feedback a few days before the assignment is due.

How motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

Use examples to support your discussion.

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33 statistics helpStatistics HLT 362V questions to be graded exercise 33

Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation

Include the following in your outline:

Organizations (Apple Inc)
Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

Strategic Plan, Part 3

Write a 1,400-word minimum internal environmental analysis in which you include the following:

Assess the organization’s internal environment. ( JP Morgan Chase )
Identify the most important strengths and weaknesses of your organization including an assessment of the organization’s resources.
Identify the most important internal environmental factors in the general, industry, and external analysis in relation to the internal analysis.
Perform competitor analysis.
Assess the structure of the organization and the influence this has on its performance.
Determine the organization’s competitive position and the possibilities this provides.

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Support your assessments with Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text citations.

Internal Capabilities and Resources


Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?

 What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?

 What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?

 What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?

 What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?

 What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?

 How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship

 How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

Week 2 General Questions/Thoughts

Why is it important for a firm to study and understand the external environment?
Which are most important among the economic, technological, social and demographic, political and ecological remote environmental factors impacting your own industry & firm? Make sure to explain your strategic thinking about your firm and be as specific as possible.
What are the differences between the general environment and the industry environment? Why are these differences important?
What is the external environmental analysis process (four parts). What does the firm want to learn when using this process?
Explain the differences among the seven segments of the general environment. Why are these details of interest to organizations?
How do the five forces of competition in an industry affect its profitability potential?
Why is it important for a company’s design to include sustainable processes?

MGT 279 Assignment 4

1. In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?

2. As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how would you summarize what went wrong with this project?

3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?

4. What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

MGT 270 Assignment 6

Questions

Based on demographic data supplied in “Our Community” (p. 3), provide a summary of some key characteristics of the community and its members.

Beginning in the 1990s, PWC tied its budget to achieving its strategic plan. Explain how PWC uses the strategic plan to establish the foundation of its budget, using specific examples from Citizens Guide.

What are the top four sources of revenue for PWC? Do you believe the PWC revenue profile is typical for counties in the USA? Explain your answer.

PWC divides its budget into two categories: capital budget and operating budget. What is the difference between the two. What is the primary source of revenue for the capital budget? For the operating budget?

A big portion of the PWC budget entails “transfer to schools.” What does this mean from both the Revenue and Expenditure perspective? Supplement your answer with data from Citizens Guide. Be sure to look at the special character of this budget item on p. 11.

Smart county budgeting requires political sensitivity of elected officials. How is such political sensitivity reflected in the PWC budget process? (Hint: See p. 14.)
The PWC Capital Improvement Program (CIP) is reasonably typical for counties in the USA. Why do county (and municipal) budgets distinguish between capital budgets and operating budgets? Which three budget areas dominate anticipated capital budget expenditures? Where do you think the money is being spent in these three areas?

MGT 270 Assignment 7

Slann points out that two prevailing traits of today’s world are increasing interdependence in the global economy and increased strength of ethnic and religious forces. Your response should be 1 – 2 pages long, single spaced. Note that the answers to these questions require thought and research on your part. There is no cookbook answer.

1. What evidence is there to back up Slann’s view?

To what extent do these two traits reinforce each other, or work in contrary directions?

Strategic Plan, Part 2: Strategic Planning Process Paper

You will perform an environmental scan for your target company.

Choose an organization according to the following:

Organization that you want to work for once you complete your MBA (JP Morgan Chase)

Write a 1,050-word minimum environmental analysis in which you include the following:

Determine how to create value and sustain competitive advantage using the environmental scanning strategy.
Evaluate the company’s external environment.
Identify and assess one or more of the Five Forces that are most important in driving competition in your organization’s external industry environment.
Assess the company’s general environment.
Evaluate the organization’s industry operating environment.

Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Support your assessments with Include a minimum of two authoritative references. Remember all references should be included in the body of your paper as in-text citations.

Qualitative study on Autism

Prior to beginning work on this assignment, be sure to have read all the required resources for the week.

Locate a peer-reviewed qualitative research study in the Ashford University Library on the topic you chose in Week One for your Final Research Proposal. You may choose to use a qualitative study that was included in the literature review you used in the Week One assignment by searching the reference list for qualitative research studies on the topic. It is also acceptable to utilize a qualitative research study on your topic that was not included in your literature review.

Once you have located an appropriate qualitative study, identify the specific qualitative research design used. Summarize the main points of the study including information on the research question, sampling strategy, research design, data analysis method(s), findings, and conclusion(s). Evaluate the published qualitative research study focusing on and identifying the researcher’s paradigm or worldview and any evidence of reflexivity described in the report. Explain whether or not potential biases were adequately addressed by the researchers. Describe how the researchers applied ethical principles in the research study.

Assignment # 1

Philosopher Report on Edward T. Hall. research the contributions of this ethicist to communication ethics. Detail the contributions of this writer to the understanding of communication ethics. Write a 4-5 page report and present your findings in this paper. The report should include: biographical information, an overview of his philosophy (main concepts he is known for) and the connection he has to communication ethics. Cite 5 sources.

Assignment # 6

Instructions Choose one of the articles below for analysis. Discuss the subject matter in the article, and interpret the results and what the confidence interval and margin of error mean as they apply to the specific subject matter. Bobkoff, D. (2016, Aug 05). Hillary clinton looks like she’s about to crush donald trump — but it might not be so simple. The News Herald Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1817877470?accountid=28180 McKnight, P. (2006, Jun 03). Understanding a poll’s margin of error: The Vancouver Sun Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/242148444?accountid=28180 Silver, N. (2013, Mar 08). A justice’s use of statistics, viewed skeptically. New York Times Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1315037352?accountid=28180 Graves, A. (2017, Jun 27). DID SOUTH ST. PETERSBURG’S POVERTY RATE FALL AS FAST AS RICK KRISEMAN SAID? EVIDENCE THIN. Tampa Bay Times Retrieved from http://search.proquest.com.proxy1.ncu.edu/docview/1914205644?accountid=28180 Alternatively, you may search for an original article. If you choose this route, locate a news article or report (in a popular news source such as Time, Newsweek, or the Wall Street Journal) in which a population mean is estimated from a sample. The article should include a margin of error and confidence interval. The Northcentral Library has created a resource to aid you in finding an appropriate article: Population in the News Assignment Guide Length: 1-2 pages not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts that are presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Assignment # 4

Read the article entitled, “Are We Smarter than Our Parents?” in chapter 5 of your textbook. This article addresses a study by Dr. James Flynn of the rise of the IQ rate over generations, and how statistics are involved in tracking this phenomenon, especially with reference to the material in chapter 5. Write a paper in which you explore some of the statistical data that has been found in this area of study. Additionally choose and answer one of the four questions below in a focused and clear manner. Remember to integrate the statistical data in the article that discusses this topic. 1.Which explanation do you favor for the Flynn effect: that people are getting smarter or that people are merely getting more practice at the skills measured on IQ tests? Defend your opinion. 2.The rise in performance on IQ tests contrasts sharply with a steady decline in performance over the past few decades on many tests that measure factual knowledge, such as the SAT. Think of several possible ways to explain these contrasting results, and form an opinion as to the most likely explanation. 3.Results on IQ tests tend to differ among different ethnic groups. Some people have used this fact to argue that some ethnic groups tend to be intellectually superior to others. Can such an argument still be supported in light of the Flynn effect? Defend your opinion. 4.Discuss some of the common uses of JQ tests. Do you think that IQ tests should be used for these purposes? Does the Flynn effect alter your thoughts about the uses of IQ tests? Explain. Length: 1-2 pages not including title and reference pages

Professional Portfolio Based on ISOP

Professional Portfolio This assignment requires you to gather a compilation of papers and projects from this course and previous courses and add them to your Professional Portfolio. The portfolio is designed to help you compile all you have learned throughout your undergraduate studies with the best examples of your work to represent what you are capable of doing when you graduate the program. This assignment also gives you a opportunity to reflect on what you have learned as a student of psychology, and to prepare to actualize your post-graduation goals. It will serve as a resource as you navigate the world of prospective employers and graduate admissions committees. The student portfolio is also a measure of effectiveness for the Argosy University baccalaureate program in Psychology. As you develop professionally following graduation, you can add work samples and other pertinent materials, as well as modify existing documents, to reflect that development. The Professional Portfolio includes two main sections. A Professional Profile section that is completed by all students with either an Employment focus or a Graduate School focus, depending on your post-baccalaureate plans. The second section holds your Professional Work Samples demonstrating your abilities, skills, and competencies across a range of tasks and objectives. This section also includes a Final Evaluation of your work samples, yourself, and the psychology program. The Professional Profile section summarizes your career planning and professional goals. You have already compiled the documents for this section in Modules 1 and 2 of this course. It contains the following documents: A Cover Letter as a way to introduce yourself to a potential employer This includes details about yourself and why you feel you are qualified for the position. (Employment). OR A Personal Statement describing your immediate and long-term career goals, including an explanation of why these goals are appropriate in terms of your knowledge, skills, personal characteristics, values, and experiences (Graduate School). Note: The personal statement is attached to the Curriculum Vitae (Graduate School), and the Cover Letter is attached to the Resume (Employment), so take the time to be creative and not repeat yourself. A Resume with list of References that is current, accurate, and professional in appearance. (Employment). OR A Curriculum Vitae with list of References that is current, accurate and professional in appearance. (Graduate School) OPTIONAL: A copy of your Transcript(s) The Professional Work Samples section demonstrates your performance and mastery of Argosy University’s program outcomes/competencies for the Psychology major. Select 3-5 documents to serve as samples of your best work in the program. Together, they should illustrate your mastery of all the 7 program outcomes listed below. Examples of the type of work that would illustrate each outcome is provided below, as well. The 3-5 documents should be samples of your work that you completed in previous courses as an undergraduate student. These outcomes are listed below, along with the assignments that could be included to demonstrate mastery of the outcome: Cognitive abilities (critical thinking and information literacy): Assignments or projects that demonstrate problem solving, analysis, synthesis, appropriate use of information resources, etc. Research skills: A copy of a research proposal, a survey developed, etc. Communication skills (written and oral): A topic paper, presentation outline, or PowerPoint that demonstrates your written and oral communication skills. Ethics & Diversity awareness: Papers that demonstrate your understanding and/or analysis of ethical and diversity issues in psychology. Knowledge of foundations of the field: Assignments, papers, or projects that demonstrate your understanding of basic concepts, theories, and empirical findings in one or more of the domains of psychology, including biological, cognitive, developmental, personality, and social. Knowledge of applied psychology: Assignments, papers, or projects from courses and/or an internship that demonstrates your ability to apply psychology to personal, social, and/or organizational problems. Interpersonal Effectiveness: PowerPoint presentations, videos of your presentations that demonstrate your ability to communicate effectively, appreciate diversity and cultural sensitivity and awareness of your impact on others. Once you have assembled your work samples, you will write a 700-1000 word narrative to serve as a preface to the Professional Work Samples section. This narrative should consist of a clear and thoughtful analysis of how each work sample reveals your strengths and areas for improvement, according to each of the seven areas addressed in the program outcomes/competencies (listed above). Towards this purpose, you will complete the Student Self Appraisal of Learningfirst, and then use that to generate the preface . Make sure you also address how you intend to strengthen your competencies in all areas as you graduate onto the next step of your professional career. On which areas will you focus most and why? This preface should also include an evaluation of the Psychology program as well as suggestions for the program that will enable it to help future Psychology majors develop these strengths and overcome these weaknesses in the future. Enter each of these components (Professional Profile, Professional Work Samples, with self- evaluation) into the Professional Profile Template.

GE’s Poor Planning Results in Delays & Increased Costs

ASSIGNMENT-1

Principles of Management (MGT101 )

2^nd Semester (2018-2019)

Assignment Workload:

This Assignment consists of a Mini Case.
Assignment is to be submitted by each student individually.

Assignment Purposes/Learning Outcomes:

After completion of Assignment-1 students will able to understand the

Recognize the functions of planning, organizing and controlling and how they interrelate (Lo2.1)
Ability to carry out organization’s role in ethics, diversity, and social responsibility. (Lo3.3)
Answer questions related to case study.

Assignment Regulation:

All students are encouraged to use their own words.
Student must apply “Times New Roman Font” with 1.5 space within their reports.
A mark of zero will be given for any submission that includes copying from other resource without referencing it.
Assignment -1 should be submitted on or before the end of Week-07.
If the assignment shows more than 25% plagiarism, the students would be graded zero.
Due date for the submission of Assignment-1:
Assignment -1 should be posted in the Black Board by Week-5.
The due date for the submission of Assignment-1 is end of 7th Week.
Assignment has to be in Word format only no PDF.

Assignment Structure:

A.No	Type	Marks
Assignment-1	Case Study	5
Total		5

Assignment-1

Please go to Chapter 5 “Planning” available in your textbook Management: A Practical Approach 7^th edition by Kinicki, A., & Williams, B., at the end of the Chapter read Case: “GE’s Poor Planning Results in Delays & Increased Costs” and answer the following questions:

Assignment Questions:

Q1. Which of the fundamentals of planning did GE execute ineffectively? Explain your rationale.

Q2. State two SMART goals for GE based on the case. Given the political issues discussed in the case, how might GE ensure that these goals are attainable? Discuss.

Q3. Using Figure 5.5 “The Planning /Control Cycle”, describe what GE could have done to improve the process of transporting the evaporator. Provide specific recommendations.

Q4. What did you learn about planning based on this case? Explain.

Ans:-

Graduate Course Analysis

Assignment Deadline: 2/15/2018

Assignment Deadline Time: 3:30pm M.S.T.

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

Write a 1,750-word essay report on perception and concept of forensic science in 21st-century criminal justice.

Be sure to THOROUGHLY ADRESS the following components in the essay:

How important is forensic science to policing and criminal investigations, court processes, and security efforts at various levels? Explain your rationale in a historical approach.

How accurate is the popular media representation of forensic science? How does this influence popular opinion on justice-related issues?

What possible influence does the “CSI” effect have on the judicial process?

Provide Subtitles for each section

Include at least four (4) Peer-Reviewed resources within the essay.

Properly quote and cite all references used. Essay MUST have direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.

Properly format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Paper MUST be in APA ESSAY FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Essay must have a strong introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences and paragraphs.

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

NOTE: cover page, reference page and subtitles are NOT included in the 1,750-word count for essay. Essay must have thoroughly detailed information and references to support analysis.

NAME __________________________________________

Introduction to Theatre Exam #1

List four distinguishing traits of Ancient Greek Theatre . . .

Shakespeare was a major theatrical influence during the

_____________________________________ era.

What is a cyclorama?

Explain how catharsis relates to Ancient Greek theatre.

When an audience sits on three sides of the stage, what type of stage configuration is that called?

Name three traits that can describe Roman Theatre.

What is the area downstage of the curtain line referred to as?

If you are hidden from the view of the audience in a proscenium theatre, you are likely ______________________________________________________ . (In what area?)

List three distinguishing traits associated with theatre during the Middle Ages.

What type of curtains are used to hide the offstage areas from the view of the audience?

What is the stuff called that you can put in front of a light to change its color?

List three major theatre artists from the Elizabethan era.

Explain the difference between a spot light and a flood light.

Give me the names of three major figures in Greek Theatre.

What purpose did theatre serve in the Middle Ages?

Describe to me how your experience might have been had you attended a public showing of a piece of theatre in the Elizabethan era.

What do you call a piece of masking that hangs vertically to hide the wing space of a proscenium stage?

What kind of stage configuration has audience sitting on four sides?

What’s the difference between private theatre and public theatre during the Elizabethan era?

What is the literal translations of tragedy according to the Ancient Greeks?

Describe what a pageant wagon from the Middle Ages would look like.

___________________________ was the god of wine, fertility, and theatre in Ancient Greece.

What kinds of Roman theatre are equivalent to our modern “reality” programming?

Who wrote POETICS?

Who was the most famous actor of the Elizabethan era?

What is the device called that goes between the lamp and the lens of a spot light that allows a designer to create patterns in the light?

List two distinctive traits of a proscenium stage.

Why might have the Greeks performed their theatre in an amphitheater?

What is a dithyramb?

Near the end of the Roman Empire, what entity outlawed theatrical performances?

What era of theatre history most resembles our current theatrical paradigm?

Please explain the difference between upstage and downstage.

Please, label each area of the stage on the plan view drawing below . . .

AUDIENCE IS HERE

What is a satyr play?

Who did the Romans get most of their theatrical ideas from?

What were the two possible purposes of an “orange girl” at an Elizabethan theatre performance?

Out of the four eras of theatre history we studied in class, which two were considered “Golden Ages” of theatre?

What era (of the four we studied) of theatre is the most intriguing to you, and why?

What is the name of the masking curtain that hangs horizontally to hide the stuff hanging above the stage from the view of the audience?

Explain how theatre lost its original purpose (why it was invented) throughout its history from the Greeks to the Romans to the Middle Ages.

At a public performance at the Globe theatre during the Elizabethan era, what choices might you have as to where you view the performance (hint: there are three of them).

What new type of lighting instrument allows you to use colored diodes to mix color while using a lot less electricity?

According to Aristotle’s POETICS what defines a play as a comedy?

What is a raked stage?

Who was employed to put on the plays depicting stories from the Old Testament in the Middle Ages?

Tell me what Hamlet is saying in this quotation in your own words . . .

“I have of late–but wherefore I know not–lost all my mirth, forgone all custom of exercises; and indeed it goes so heavily with my disposition, that this goodly frame, the earth, seems to me a sterile promontory; this excellent canopy, the air, look you, this brave o’erhanging firmament, this majestical roof fretted with golden fire, why, it appeareth nothing to me but a foul and pestilent congregation of vapors. What a piece of work is a man, how noble in reason, how infinite in faculties, in form and moving, how express and admirable in action, how like an angel in apprehension, how like a god! The beauty of the world; the paragon of animals; and yet to me what is this quintessence of dust? Man delights not me.

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Follow the directions in the assignment and the instructions listed below.

Write a well formed, essay-style paper to your manager addressing all of the points requested in the activity. Include separating section headers in your paper to identify each point you are addressing. Include screenshots of your search progress/results. Use of tables, charts and lists as appropriate is encouraged and recommended. Remember to identify and cite your sources
Use proper grammar and spelling.

Describe the original data warehouse designed for Indiana University Health and its limitations. Please describe the new data warehouse and the differences between each?

Type your answer here.

Q: Identify the major differences between a traditional data warehouse and a data mart? Explain the differences between the traditional data warehousing process compared to newly designed data warehouse in less than 90 days?

Type your answer here.

Q: While this case study supports a specific data warehouse product, please locate another case study from another data warehousing software company and explain the data warehouse that was designed in that case study?

Type your answer here.

Which software-development methodology would be best if an organization needed to develop a software tool for a small group of users in the marketing department? Why? Which implementation methodology should they use? Why? Give an example of a company who uses specific software for marketing.
Write a two-page APA paper, using research-based responses

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C-suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive: WRITE A MEMO IN 4 PAGES
Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business. 2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured. 3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better. 4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

Networking Trends Paper: In this paper, you will research and report on network design and management trends over the last three years (present year minus 2) in the areas of virtualization, security, hardware, network management tools, software defined networking, and wireless. Choose, at least, three areas and explain the general trend and trends within two subsets of the area (i.e., security has subsets of physical, perimeter, monitoring) over the last three years. Use at least one figure from Google Trends showing a trend discussed in your paper. Support your information and make sure all information sources are appropriately cited. The paper must use APA 6th ed., 7th printing formatting and contain a title page, 5 to 7 pages of content, and a minimum of four peer-reviewed references. Your assignment will be graded based on the rubric, which can be viewed when clicking on the assignment submission link above
Role and Relevance of an Information System to aid in decision making

Type your answer here.

Which software-development methodology would be best if an organization needed to develop a software tool for a small group of users in the marketing department? Why? Which implementation methodology should they use? Why? Give an example of a company who uses specific software for marketing. Write a two-page APA paper, using research-based responses.

Q. Use a red colored font for you answers.
Place the answers below the questions
1.How often are network standards reviewed? The standards are reviewed and updated approximately every 5 years.
2.What category of UTP cabling is the minimum for a telephone cable? Cat 5 is used for telephone cable, before Cat 5, Cat 3 was used.
3.What category of cabling should be installed as a best practice for a telephone cable? Cat 5
4.What is the problem with leaving abandoned cable in place in a building? It creates a fire hazard because of the extra combustible material.
5.Why must the twisting in the individual wires be maintained in a UTP cable?
6.How many wires does a gigabit cable use?
7.Is the labeling standard commonly used or not used?
8. Grounding should be attached to what in the building?
9. Horizontal cabling connects what areas to each other?
10.What is a plenum rated cable?
11.What is a riser tube used for?
12.What is the code for plenum rated horizontal cable?
13.How many wires in a UTP cable does Fast Ethernet use?
14.How many inches should separate UTP cable from 120 volt electrical cable?
15.What is the reason for grounding jumpers on each connection in ladder rack?
16.Why should overfilling of a riser tube be avoided?
17.Is the grounding of equipment a safety or a performance concern?
18.What are the current recognized horizontal cabling categories?
19.May an existing Category 5 cable be used to make network connections?
20.In the example used here what does the firestop material consist of?
21.In what circumstances will poorly installed cabling still function?
22.Why should the outer cover on a UTP cable be maintained in place?
23.Does cable labeling impact network performance?
24.May CM cable be used in the plenum space?
25.Why should a plastic riser tube not be used

Q. What is the UK Gateway Protection Programme? Top of Form Bottom of FormExplain its history, purpose, and achievements. Cite references. Thanks

Q. Describe the role of Jubal Early in the American Civil War. Top of Form

Bottom of Form

Give a quick backgrounder on his early life. Then discuss his role in the Civil War. Cite references as well

I need you to build a game that will be easy for me to explain because I have to present it to my professor and he will grade it for me so please I want good and easy game that meet the requirements below. I want you to tell me what game or application you will do for me before you do it. Please don’t copy and paste any code from outside websites because this is the last project I have and don’t want to screw up the work for the whole semester.
Learner Objectives:

At the conclusion of this programming assignment, participants should be able to:

Design, implement and test classes in C++

Apply game or application design principles

Implement and apply inheritance and polymorphism

Apply graphics to a solution

Prerequisites:

Before starting this programming assignment, participants should be able to:

Analyze a basic set of requirements for a problem

Compose basic C++ language programs

Describe what is inheritance

Create basic test cases for a program

Apply arrays, strings, and pointers

Declare and define constructors

Declare and define destructors

Compare and contrast public and private access specifiers in C++

Describe what is an attribute or data member of a class

Describe what is a method of a class

Apply and implement overloaded functions

Distinguish between pass-by-value and pass-by-reference

Discuss classes versus objects

III. Overview & Requirements:

Some game possibilities are listed below:

Chess

Texas Hold ’em

Battleship

Checkers

Others?

However, you may NOT develop a solution to the game of Snake or Pong!!! You must apply inheritance and polymorphism in your solution. You are also required to develop a test class and implement 5 test cases for your application.

Your goal for the assignment is build a complete graphical, and possibly networked, game or application. As a team you must ultimately decide how you will implement graphics. You have many tools and library options available to implement the graphics portion of the assignment. Some include the Unreal Engine, SFML, Qt, SDL, Allegro, DirectX, OpenGL, etc. Please be sure to also add some directions of how to play the game or use your application.

Aside from the requirements listed in the above paragraph, you are free to complete this assignment as you see fit. We will have a Gamefest! At which point you will need to allow other students in the class play your game or use your application.

Have fun with this assignment!

Submitting Assignments:

Your .zip file should contain a project workspace. Your project folder must have at least two header files (.h files), three C++ source files (which must be .cpp files), and project workspace. Delete the debug folder before you zip your project folders.
Your project must build properly. The most points an assignment can receive if it does not build properly is 200 out of 300.
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Addiction Paper- Alcohol

You will choose a specific addiction and complete a 3–5-page paper about the topic in current APA format. This is a research paper, so make sure you construct and write it appropriately. You may choose any addiction discussed in the course material; you must email the instructor if you are unsure of the appropriateness of a chosen topic. The paper must address possible causes of the addiction as well as the prevalence and potential treatments. Include at least 3 outside sources (not including the course textbooks) from current professional journals (published within the last 5 years). Your paper must include a title page, an abstract, and a reference page in addition to the 3–5 pages of text.

SuperFun Toys Case Study

Assignment Steps

Resources: Microsoft Excel^®, SuperFun Toys Case Study, SuperFun Toys Case Study Data Set

Review the SuperFun Toys Case Study and Data Set.

Develop a 250-word case study analysis including the following:

Compute the probability of a stock-out for the order quantities suggested by members of the management team (i.e. 15,000; 18,000; 24,000; 28,000).

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

Case Study – SuperFun Toys

SuperFun Toys, Inc., sells a variety of new and innovative children’s toys. Management learned the pre-holiday season is the best time to introduce a new toy because many families use this time to look for new ideas for December holiday gifts. When SuperFun discovers a new toy with good market potential, it chooses an October market entry date. To get toys in its stores by October, SuperFun places one-time orders with its manufacturers in June or July of each year.

Demand for children’s toys can be highly volatile. If a new toy catches on, a sense of shortage in the marketplace often increases the demand to high levels and large profits can be realized. However, new toys can also flop, leaving SuperFun stuck with high levels of inventory that must be sold at reduced prices. The most important question the company faces is deciding how many units of a new toy should be purchased to meet anticipated sales demand. If too few are purchased, sales will be lost; if too many are purchased, profits will be reduced because of low prices realized in clearance sales.

This is where SuperFun feels that you, as an MBA student, can bring value.

For the coming season, SuperFun plans to introduce a new product called Weather Teddy. This variation of a talking teddy bear is made by a company in Taiwan. When a child presses Teddy’s hand, the bear begins to talk. A built-in barometer selects one of five responses predicting the weather conditions. The responses range from “It looks to be a very nice day! Have fun” to “I think it may rain today. Don’t forget your umbrella.” Tests with the product show even though it is not a perfect weather predictor, its predictions are surprisingly good. Several of SuperFun’s managers claimed Teddy gave predictions of the weather that were as good as many local television weather forecasters.

As with other products, SuperFun faces the decision of how many Weather Teddy units to order for the coming holiday season. Members of the management team suggested order quantities of 15,000, 18,000, 24,000, or 28,000 units. The wide range of order quantities suggested indicates considerable disagreement concerning the market potential.

Having a sound background in statistics and business, you are required to perform statistical analysis and the profit projections which is typically done by the product management group. You want to provide management with an analysis of the stock-out probabilities for various order quantities, an estimate of the profit potential, and to help make an order quantity recommendation.

SuperFun expects to sell Weather Teddy for $24 based on a cost of $16 per unit. If inventory remains after the holiday season, SuperFun will sell all surplus inventories for $5 per unit. After reviewing the sales history of similar products, SuperFun’s senior sales forecaster predicted an expected demand of 20,000 units with a 95% probability that demand would be between 10,000 units and 30,000 units.

For Contemporary Decision Making

Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Error.
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Sampling Distribution of Sample Means
Provide your insights, questions and examples for Central Limit Theorem.
Provide your insights, questions and examples forStandard Error of the Mean.
Consider the concept of point estimate and discuss the need to build a confidence interval using the point estimate.
Consider the phrase “confidence interval” – what does the word “confidence” imply and what is the information provided by the word “interval”? Provide an example to illustrate the concepts.

Expansion Strategy and Establishing a Re-Order Point

Resources: Microsoft Excel^®, Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set,

Write a 500-word report based on the case you selected: Bell Computer Company Forecasts data set Scenarios.

Include answers to the following:

Case 1: Bell Computer Company

Compute the expected value for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of maximizing the expected profit?
Compute the variation for the profit associated with the two expansion alternatives. Which decision is preferred for the objective of minimizing the risk or uncertainty?

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques:

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion.

HRM 517 Week 9 DQ

Supply Chain Fundamentals and More Management Techniques: Evaluate how supply chain management affects the process of project management. Examine the impact SCM has on your project completion. Provide a rationale for your response.

Watch the video titled “More Management Techniques from The One Minute Manager” (6 min 28 s), found on NBC Learn. Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” NBC Learn Video Title: Management Techniques from “The One Minute Manager” Date: Sep 6, 1982 Duration: 00:06:28

From the video, give your opinion on the three approaches discussed in the video (goal setting, praise, and reprimand). Assess how these are or are not applicable to a team setting, and whether this is still pertinent in today’s workforce given that the video is nearly three decades old.

Community Support Pamphlet

You will create a pamphlet to be used in presenting to a community or church group in order to solicit support for substance abuse/addiction treatment. In your presentation or pamphlet, discuss the prevalence of addiction and what communities can do to help. Use at least 3 statistics regarding addiction, and give at least 3 ideas of ways communities can help. Make sure to document your sources in current APA format.

MY PAMPHLET NEEDS TO BE ON THE OPIOD EPEDIC IN THE STATE OF…

Pamphlet Instructions:

Your pamphlet may be constructed in Microsoft Word and must have an attractive, appealing design. It may be bi-fold or tri-fold, but it must include the following:

Information on both sides of the paper;
8 ½ X 11 or 8 ½ X 14 paper size;
12-point Times New Roman font;
A minimum of 3 statistics and 3 suggestions for community help; and
A separate reference page to be submitted with the pamphlet.

Normal Distribution

the use of the standard normal distribution. Next use the Excel functions NORMSINV and NORMSDIST and provide examples of your usage for each function.

The SOX Act Prepare a Power Point presentation of at least 20 slides that includes the following:

Assess the provision of the Sox Act that requires the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) and the measures that public accounting firms are taking to ensure that they maintain their independence in all audit assignments, including the mechanisms they are establishing to ensure that the necessary independence and integrity are prevalent in all aspects of their relationship with their clients.Analyze how executives of corporate America have embraced the new regulations and requirements of the Sox Act while maintaining their purpose to produce a profit for investors and staying in compliance of the new rules in the industry. Explain what those new requirements are for the CEO and CFO of publicly traded companies. Describe your assessment of the responsibilities established for accounting personnel—including protection for whistle-blowers—and for the public accounting auditors. Determine how the responsibilities of the board of directors audit committee have changed due to the Sox Act in overseeing the financial reporting process and to hire and be in charge of the independent auditors. Provide recommended sanctions to be imposed on those who do not comply with the SOX Act provisions, and whether or not the sanctions should be stiffened or should include other personnel in the organization. Researched sources should follow these guidelines: At least half of the researched sources should be from authoritative electronic sources related to the accounting field. The findings presented in the paper should be accurate renditions of the Sox Act, including citations and references. Follow APA guidelines when citing references. Include a reference slide.

SEJPME Final Exam

SEJPME Final Exam

1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver

Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment

3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information

economics

diplomacy

the military

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force

subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about

acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational

intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

maritime security

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members

media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service

Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

when directed by the President

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”

Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct

network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent

60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine

Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities

major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects

assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True

False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador

Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience

opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment

beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort

command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit

effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)

Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries

cyberspace operations
major combat operations

humanitarian assistance

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II

Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation

situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic

ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.

Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”

CJUS Quiz 3 L U

Question 1

Correct Answer:

As a result of two Supreme Court cases, ____________________, states

that have transfer hearings must provide certain rights to the juvenile,

including sufficient notice to the child”s family and defense attorney, the

right to counsel, and a statement of the reason for the court order

regarding transfer.

Question 2

Correct Answer:

____________________ in the juvenile justice system this is the

equivalent of parole in the adult criminal justice system.

Question 3

Correct

Answer:

At the end of the adjudication hearing, most juvenile court statutes require

the judge to make a factual finding on the legal issues and evidence. What

is not one of the ways the case is resolved?

Question 4

Correct Answer:

Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal

court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what

court to file charges.

Based on the scenario, what type of waiver procedure occurred?

Question 5

____________________ is the primary form of correctional treatment

used by the juvenile justice system.

Correct Answer:

Question 6

Correct Answer:

The process in which a juvenile referral is received and a decision made

to file a petition in juvenile court to release the juvenile, to place the

juvenile under supervision, or to refer the juvenile elsewhere is called:

Question 7

Correct Answer:

Milieu therapy, developed by William Glasser during the 1970s,

emphasizes current, rather than past, behavior by stressing that offenders

are completely responsible for their own actions.

Question 8

Correct Answer:

At what stage does a juvenile probation officer determine whether court

intervention is necessary?

Question 9

Correct

Answer:

Which of the following is not an associated problem with intake?

Allowing juvenile courts to enter into consent decrees with

juveniles without filing petitions and without formal adjudication

Question 10

Correct

Answer:

In a study of the extent of racial discrimination and disparity among

juvenile property offenders in Missouri, it was found that:

Question 11

Correct Answer:

Once the agency makes a decision that judicial disposition is required, a

____________ is filed.

Question 12

Correct Answer:

Today, all fifty states and the District of Columbia have statutory

restitution programs.

Question 13

Correct Answer:

Johnny was found delinquent and was sentenced to a secure detention

facility for 18 months. He was represented by a newly licensed juvenile

public defender. Johnny”s parents are considering an appeal based on

deficiencies in his defense.

Juvenile court statutes normally restrict appeals to cases where the

juvenile seeks review of a _________________, which is a document

that ends the litigation between two parties by determining all their rights

and disposing of all the issues.

Question 14

Correct Answer:

Which of the following items was not identified as one of the minimum

standards for all juveniles confined in training schools in the Inmates of

the Boys” Training School v. Affleck decision?

Question 15

Correct Answer:

Which of the following statement about balanced probation is true?

Question 16

Correct Answer:

Jeremy was adjudicated delinquent and must adhere to a strict set of

rules to avoid incarceration in a juvenile correctional facility. He wears an

ankle bracelet that allows him to travel in the community and informs his

probation officer of his location in real-time.

Based on the type of sanction, what correctional treatment has been

provided to Jeremy?

Question 17

Correct Answer:

What is false regarding what experts maintain that detention facilities

should provide youths housed in their facilities?

Question 18

Correct

Answer:

Which of the following best describes the effectiveness of Juvenile

Intensive Probation Supervision?

Question 19

Correct Answer:

What does a predisposition report not include?

Question 20

Correct

Answer:

Which of the following is a problem in public defender services for

indigent juveniles in Pennsylvania?

Question 21

Correct

Answer:

Which of the following is not an argument in favor of probation?

The justice system continues to have confidence in deterrence

and accommodates for legal controls and public protection.

Question 22

Correct Answer:

Programs that combine get-tough elements with education, substance

abuse treatment, and social skills training are generally referred to as:

Question 23

Correct Answer:

In 2008, formal probation accounted for more than ______ of all juvenile

dispositions.

Question 24

Correct Answer:

According to the text, about ___ percent of delinquency cases in 2008

involved males.

Question 25

Correct Answer:

Although there are more coed institutions for juveniles than in the past,

most girls remain incarcerated in single-sex institutions.

Question 26

Jeremy was adjudicated delinquent and must adhere to a strict set of

rules to avoid incarceration in a juvenile correctional facility. He wears an

ankle bracelet that allows him to travel in the community and informs his

probation officer of his location in real-time.

Correct Answer:

Within the context of the scenario, wearing an ankle bracelet can be

considered a:

Question 27

Correct Answer:

Programs involving outdoor expeditions that provide opportunities for

juveniles to confront the difficulties of their lives while achieving positive

personal satisfaction are generally referred to as:

Question 28

Correct Answer:

A guardian ad litem is often an attorney who represents the child during

special legal proceedings, including abuse, neglect, and dependency

cases.

Question 29

Correct Answer:

According to the text, most states use the indeterminate sentence in

juvenile court.

Question 30

Correct Answer:

The typical resident of a juvenile facility is a seventeen years old,

European American male.

Question 31

Correct Answer:

In 1989, the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA) of

1974 was amended to require that states allow juveniles to be detained

in adult jails and lockups.

Question 32

Correct Answer:

The typical delinquent detainee is all of the following except:

Question 33

Correct Answer:

Gerald is 16 years old and is on trial for a double homicide in a criminal

court. In the state where he was charged, the prosecutor decides what

court to file charges.

If Gerald is convicted in a criminal court of homicide, what sentencing

option(s) does the jury have?

Question 34

Correct Answer:

Non-judicial adjustment and handling or processing are all names for

what is commonly known as diversion.

Question 35

Correct Answer:

In what U.S. Supreme Court case did the justices end juvenile sentences

of life without parole?

Question 36

Correct Answer:

In about fifteen states, the prosecutor has the discretion of filing charges

for certain offenses in either juvenile or criminal court, this is called:

Question 37

Paul is a gang member who committed a robbery. As part of his

community treatment, he must remain in his residence from 8 p.m. until 8

a.m. daily, and is required to call into his probation officer from his home

phone when a computer-generated call is made to him.

Correct Answer:

In addition to electronic monitoring, Paul”s requirement to remain in for

12-hour intervals is considered:

Question 38

Correct Answer:

Virtually every state provides prosecutors and judges with access to the

juvenile records of juvenile offenders.

Question 39

Correct Answer:

What is not a goal of Juvenile intensive probation supervision?

Question 40

Correct Answer:

Sheila was found delinquent and placed in a juvenile correctional facility.

While institutionalized, she took part in counseling that focuses on

current behavior and requires her to accept responsibility for her actions.

After 3 years, she will be leaving the correctional facility in two weeks.

What type of therapy is Sheila undergoing?

CJUS300 Quiz 2 Liberty University

Question 1

Correct

Answer:

A clique is defined as:

Question 2

Correct Answer:

It is estimated that about _____ out of every 100 child abuse or neglect

cases reaches the trial stage.

Question 3

Correct Answer:

Farrington reported that bullies are likely to have children who bully

others.

Question 4

Correct Answer:

Experts have concluded that many of the underlying problems of

delinquency are connected with the nature and quality of the school

experience.

Question 5

Correct Answer:

In some instances, a peer group provides the social and emotional basis

for antisocial activity. When this happens:

Question 6

Correct Answer:

At the ____________________, the social service agency presents its

case plan, which includes visitation plans, services, or other conditions of

the formal agreement.

Question 7

Correct Answer:

Source control strategies cut off supplies of drugs by destroying overseas

crops and arresting members of drug cartels.

Question 8

Correct Answer:

The concept of deinstitutionalization was established by the Juvenile

Justice and Delinquency Act of 1994.

Question 9

Correct Answer:

Evidence that the behavior of children of divorce improves over time is

conclusive.

Question 10

Correct Answer:

Almost two-thirds of all admissions to treatment facilities in the United

States involved ______________________ as the primary drug of

abuse.

Question 11

Correct Answer:

According to work by Gottfredson and colleagues, what is the main

difference between school programs that work and those that do not?

Question 12

Correct Answer:

Crack is manufactured by using _________________________ to

remove hydrochlorides to create a crystaline form of cocaine that can be

smoked.

Question 13

Correct Answer:

According to the text, the most crucial part of an abuse or neglect

proceeding is the advisement hearing when the social service agency

presents its recommendations for care of the child.

Question 14

Correct Answer:

Which of the following is not a correlate of school failure according to the

text?

Question 15

Correct Answer:

Under the parens patriae philosophy, juvenile justice procedures are:

Question 16

Correct

Answer:

Which of the following statements about gangs in the 1950s and 1960s is

false?

Question 17

Correct Answer:

Which of the following best describes the United States Supreme Court

ruling in Ingraham v. Wright concerning corporal punishment in schools?

Question 18

The youngest children in a family may suffer the most from resource

dilution.

Correct Answer:

Question 19

Correct Answer:

The systematic nature of problem-oriented policing is characterized by its

adherence to a four-step model, often referred to as:

Question 20

Correct Answer:

According to the text, what is the biggest issue with mentoring

programs?

Question 21

Correct Answer:

Which of the following was noted as a problem of school-based

adolescent drug surveys?

Question 22

Correct Answer:

Family dysfunction increases the chances of dropping out of school

among all racial and ethnic groups.

Question 23

Correct Answer:

According to the profile developed by the U.S. Secret Service, school

shootings:

Question 24

Correct Answer:

For some adolescents, substance abuse is one of many problem

behaviors that begin early in life and remain throughout the life course.

This is known as:

Question 25

Correct Answer:

Kelly is 32 years old and has a history of substance abuse and

committing crimes. He drank at 10 and started using marijuana at 13 and

experimented with a variety of drugs over the years. His family was

violent and criminally inclined. He grew up in a lower-economic

neighborhood where crime thrived. Kelly dropped out of school at 16.

According to research by Elliott, which of the following is not an

association between substance abuse and delinquency?

Question 26

Correct Answer:

What happens with illegally seized evidence in juvenile proceedings?

Question 27

Correct Answer:

The main goal of Job Corps, developed and designed by the Department

of Labor, is:

Question 28

Correct Answer:

Which of the following were not among the early American gangs?

Question 29

Correct Answer:

A _________________ gang is heavily involved in criminality, particularly

in drug sales and they use violence to establish control over drug sale

territories.

Question 30

Correct Answer:

Casey is a 10-year old victim of sexual abuse by a family member. His

perpetrator”s case will go to trial and Casey is on the witness list.

According to the text, sexual abuse accusations often:

Question 31

Correct Answer:

Because people are generally sympathetic to abused children,

delinquents with abuse backgrounds get lighter sentences than those

who were not abused.

Question 32

Correct Answer:

According to the text, schools with fewer behavioral problems in the

student body are characterized by:

Question 33

Correct Answer:

Results from the most recent PRIDE survey (for the 2009-2010 school

year) indicate:

Question 34

Correct Answer:

Annually, it is estimated that the economic cost of methamphetamine use

in the United States exceeds?

Question 35

Correct Answer:

Jessica is 16, single and a mother of a 3-month old baby girl. She has

been provided weekly visits by a nurse who comes to her place of

residence. The nurse gives advice to Jessica about care of her child,

infant development, and the importance of proper nutrition.

What is not a long-term desirable effect of home visitation programs?

Question 36

Correct Answer:

Children from working poor families are most likely to suffer from

inadequate childcare.

Question 37

Correct Answer:

In ______________________, the Supreme Court rules that a child”s

asking to speak to his probation officer was not the equivalent of asking

for an attorney.

Question 38

Correct Answer:

James” parents were married for 10 years. Currently, he lives with his

divorced mom who works full-time.

Approximately what percent of children live with two parents?

Question 39

Correct Answer:

Policies that mandate specific consequences or punishments for

delinquent acts and do not allow anyone to avoid these consequences

are referred to as:

Question 40

Correct Answer:

Chronic victims of bullying experience more physical and psychological

problems than their peers who are not harassed by other children.

CJUS 300 Quiz 3 Liberty Uni

Question 1
Selected
Answer:
Cruz v. Beto, a Supreme Court decision involving the right of inmates to
exercise their religious beliefs, involved:
a Buddhist who was not allowed to use the prison chapel and
was placed in solitary confinement for sharing his religious
material with other prisoners.
Question 2
Selected Answer:
Today, prisoners must be given all but which of the following due process
rights?
All of the above must be given.
Question 3
Selected Answer:
Each frivolous or malicious lawsuit or appeal that an inmate files counts as
a ________ against the inmate.
strike
Question 4
Selected Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four main parts of the Prison
Litigation Reform Act?
Emotional abuse requirement
Question 5
Selected
Answer:
Which of the following is not one of the four goals that jails should attempt
to accomplish in preparing inmates for reentry in society?
Avoid a complex and time-consuming intake and
assessment process
Question 6
Selected Answer:
The overriding concern in prisons and jails is, and should be:
security.
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points
2 out of 2 points

Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to

Prepare a 700- to 1,050-word paper describing survey research and data collection as they relate to criminal justice research. Address each of the following in your paper:

Identify the various types of survey research utilized in the field of criminal justice.
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of:

o In person surveys

o Telephone surveys

o Computer-based surveys

o Focus group surveys

Describe the purpose of sampling as part of the research process.
Identify the types of reliability and validity as they are applied to criminal justice research.
Discuss the importance of ensuring that data collection methods and instruments are both reliable and valid.

Include at least four peer-reviewed references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment to the Assignment Files tab.

Reflection paper

You will write two pages (not including your title page) expressing your current worldview in regard to the subject of Administration of Justice Organizations. This paper’s content will include how the presentation in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder influences your worldview.

Law Reflection paper written at HomeworkNest.com

Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper

The student will choose a major event (disaster, incident, catastrophe or preplanned event) involving homeland security (emergency management focus allowed). The student will advise the instructor, through email, of the event topic for approval. The student will provide an in-depth analysis of the event starting with an overview of the event. The student will analyze the use of all phases of emergency management (mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery, and the subcomponents found in each phase) as much as is applicable to each based on the event. The analysis will be written in standard current APA formatting using headings and references. A minimum of 5 references are required. The analysis and critique must be at least 5 full pages of content. The student will conclude the analysis with recommendations for improvements in any areas found to be lacking.

The Analysis and Critique of Major Event Paper

After Action Results based on Analysis/Critique of Major Event Paper PowerPoint Presentation

The student will summarize his or her findings in an audio/visual PPT presentation. The student will use PPT Mix, which may be turned into a Windows Media Video WMV, to present and record his or her critique. A minimum of ten content slides are required. The student will at the minimum use the same headings as required in the written analysis. The presentation be at least ten minutes long and should last no more than 30 minutes maximum. References will be included on the last slide. Once submitted for grading the student will email his or her PPT video to the rest of the class for their review. The student does not have to show him or herself in the video unless they wish to.

Signing a non-compete after employment

Unit I Case Study

Course Textbook: Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

Reference Attached

Please read the case DCS Sanitation Management v. Eloy Castillo (and supporting notes), linked in the reference below:

DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?auth=CAS&url=http://www-lexisnexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/lnacui2api/api/version1/getDocCui? oc=00240&hnsd=f&hgn=t&lni=4J44-6R600038X2H9&hns=t&perma=true&hv=t&hl=t&csi=270944%2C270077%2C11059%2C8411&secondRedirectIndicator=true

Once you have read and reviewed the case scenario, respond to the following questions:

Discuss the legal implications for employers and employees for requiring employees to sign noncompete agreements. What factors did the court consider in making its decision? Compare and contrast Ohio and Nebraska’s positions on noncompete clauses.
Which state’s laws support ethical reasoning in the resolution of this case?

Your response should be a minimum of two pages in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA style citations.

References:

Course Textbook(s) Cihon, P. J., & Castagnera, J. O. (2017). Employment and labor law (9th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

DCS Sanitation Management v. Castillo, 435 F.3d 892, (8th Cir. 2006). Retrieved from https://advance-lexiscom.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/api/permalink/d34471c6-4b5b-4640-8dbe202b87d433b1/?context=1516831

LAW 531 Final Exam Guide 2018

Which of the following is a difference between embezzlement and larceny?

Embezzlement is an unintentional tort, whereas larceny is a nonintent crime.

Embezzlement is the stealing of property by a person to whom the property was entrusted, whereas larceny is the stealing of property by a person not entrusted with it.

Embezzlement is usually punishable by the payment of monetary damages, whereas larceny is usually punishable by the death penalty.

Embezzlement is the snatching of personal property from a person’s home, whereas larceny is the snatching of personal property from a person on the street.

Workers’ compensation is defined as the:

insurance obtained by employees from private insurance companies and government-sponsored programs.

remuneration awarded to employees and their families when the employees are injured on the job.

set of programs mandated by the government to ensure safety in places of work.

system that provides retirement and death benefits to covered employees and their dependents.

Corporate officers are best described as:

directors elected by a corporation’s shareholders.

owners of a corporation with limited liability for its debts and obligations.

employees appointed to manage the daily operations of a corporation.

partners pursuing a joint venture transaction

Which of the following scenarios is an example of law and ethics contradicting each other?

An iron-ore manufacturing company provides its employees with high-quality safety equipment.

A florist in the United States employs an illegal immigrant to help the immigrant and her family overcome their financial difficulties.

A large apparel retailer copies the trademarked garment designs of a well-known fashion designer.

A restaurateur, whose restaurant is violating labor laws, bribes a federal official to prevent him from reporting the violations.

Which of the following best describes the term warranty?

It refers to the terms in a sales contract stipulating the party that will bear the risk of loss of goods during shipment.

It is a purchaser’s title to goods obtained by the impersonation of another person.

It is the seller’s assurance to a buyer that the goods sold meet certain standards of quality.

It refers to the transfer of possession of stolen property to a person who had bought the property without the knowledge that it has been stolen.

Which of the following is a category of torts?

Nonintent crime

Professional malpractice

Strict liability

Personal liability

Which of the following is a remedy that requires the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract?

Special damages

Punitive damages

Binding arbitration

Specific performance

Which of the following is a characteristic of torts?

They are usually not tried by the jury.

They are punishable by the death penalty.

They are tried by criminal procedure.

They are brought to court by a plaintiff.

Laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, gender, or religion in the workplace primarily serve the function of:

creating a new status quo.

minimizing the freedom of employees.

advocating social justice.

providing a basis for compromise

Which of the following is a difference between arbitration and mediation?

Arbitration is an informal method of dispute resolution, whereas mediation is a formal method of dispute resolution.

The decision of an arbitrator is nonbinding, whereas the decision of a mediator is binding.

An arbitrator is authorized to issue an award, whereas a mediator can only assist in reaching a settlement.

The role of an arbitrator is merely to assist parties in reaching a settlement, whereas the role of a mediator is similar to the role of a trial judge.

Which of the following is an advantage of franchising?

It enables two businesses to pool their resources to pursue a common goal.

It allows a business to consist of only general partners.

It allows businesses to reach profitable new markets.

It grants free access to the intellectual property of a business to anyone in the same market.

Laws that protect governments from being overthrown primarily serve the function of:

minimizing individual freedom.

maintaining the status quo.

advocating social justice

providing bases for compromise

A goal of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to:

allow directors and executive officers of public companies to be given personal loans from the companies.

end conflicts of interest, establishing better corporate governance.

enable smooth settlement of alleged fraud among major corporations.

control and closely monitor the financial accounts of all corporations in the United States.

Insider trading is considered illegal because:

it fails to account for the short-swing profits brought into a company.

it limits investment opportunities for the investing public.

it results in excessive losses for the company.

it makes use of nonmaterial public information.

Which of the following is a criticism of the ethical fundamentalism theory?

It does not reach an agreement on what the universal rules should be.

It does not allow people to decide for themselves what is right and what is wrong.

It is impossible to measure the “good” that may result from different actions.

It is impossible in the real world to expect that everyone in society will obey moral rules.

Ken owns a small convenience store in a street corner in California. One afternoon, a teenage boy enters his store, looks around, and prepares to walk out without buying anything. Ken is wary of the boy because of the boy’s shabby clothing. He stops and asks the boy to empty his pockets and then questions him for about five minutes. After finding that the boy does not have anything from the store on him, Ken reluctantly lets him go. Which of the following is a merchant protection statute that Ken has violated?

Adverse possession

Reasonable grounds for suspicion

Adequate assurance of performance

Reasonable duration of detention

Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for an invention?

The invention must be original.

The invention needs to be recognizable to the general public.

The invention needs to be made of highly valuable components.

The invention must be in the form of a service.

Which of the following applies to trade restraints that are inherently anticompetitive?

The rule of reason

The per se rule

The rule of four

The pro rata rule

Which of the following is prohibited by the Food Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) with regard to food?

The sale of non-organic food products

The sale of adulterated food

Labeling of raw seafood products

Labeling of genetically engineered food products

The power and authority to exclude competition or control prices is known as __________.

monopoly power

implied power

enumerated power

reserved power

A group boycott occurs when:

competitors agree that they will distribute their goods to only a particular portion of the market.

competitors at one level of distribution collectively refuse to deal with others at a different level of distribution.

parties enter into a trade agreement that has greater anticompetitive effects than procompetitive effects.

parties at different levels of distribution enter into an agreement to adhere to a schedule that will stabilize prices.

When can an arbitrator’s decision and award be appealed to the courts?

While drafting a submission agreement

When an arbitration is binding

While entering a negotiation

When an arbitration is nonbinding

The obligation owed by individuals to one another not to cause any unreasonable harm or any risk of harm is called:

duty of restitution.

duty of restoration.

duty of loyalty.

duty of care

Robert orders coffee while having breakfast in a diner. He suffers third-degree burn injuries when the coffee accidently spills on him. He presses charges against the diner for failing to notify him that the coffee was exceptionally hot. In this scenario, the diner is guilty of a(n) __________.

nonintent crime

unintentional tort

intent crime

intentional tort

When an employer does not discriminate against women in general but treats women above the age of 40 differently, the employer is practicing __________.

racial discrimination

religious discrimination

sex-plus discrimination

color discrimination

The manifestation of the substance of a contract by two or more individuals is called ______.

acceptance

an offer

an agreement

consideration

When one party acquires a license to use another party’s business model and intellectual property in the distribution of goods and services, the arrangement is a __________.

franchise

joint venture

kickback

limited liability partnership

Corporate officers are elected by a corporation’s __________.

owners

common stockholders

board of directors

preferred stockholders

An agency that appears to be created by a principal but does not exist in reality is called a(n) __________.

fully disclosed agency

apparent agency

implied agency

agency by ratification

Helen buys a toy railway set for her 3-year-old son, Ben. The product’s cover mentions that the toy is suitable for children only aged between 3 and 12. While playing with the toy one evening, without Helen’s supervision, Ben chokes on an inch-long engine driver figure that forms part of the train. Although he survives, he is traumatized by the incident. For which type of defect can Helen sue the toy manufacturer?

Failure to warn

Defect in product packaging

Failure to tamperproof

Defect in manufacture

Patty Plaintiff’s Really Bad Week

In this assignment, you’ll need to decide whether Patty Plaintiff has any legal claims arising from a series of unfortunate events. After reading the scenario, answer the questions that follow, making sure to fully explain the basis of your decision.

Patty Plaintiff is shopping at her favorite store, Cash Mart. She is looking for a new laptop, but she can’t find one she likes. Then, realizing that she is going to be late for an appointment, she attempts to leave the store, walking very fast. However, before she can leave, she is stopped by a security guard who accuses her of shoplifting. Patty, who has taken nothing, denies any wrong doing. The officer insists and takes Patty to a small room in the back of the store. The guard tells Patty that if she attempts to leave the room she will be arrested and sent to jail. At this point, the guard leaves the room. Patty is scared and waits in the room for over an hour until the manager comes in and apologizes and tells Patty that she is free to go.

About this same time, Gerry Golfer is hitting golf balls in his backyard. Gerry decides to break out his new driver and hits a golf ball out of his backyard into the Cash Mart parking lot. The golf ball hits Patty Plaintiff on the head and knocks her unconscious just as she is leaving the store.

Five days later, after recovering from her injuries, Patty returns to work at Acme Corporation. Unfortunately, she used her company email to send her mom a personal email about her injury despite being aware that Acme’s company policy prohibits use of company email for personal communication. Patty’s supervisor, Barry Bossley, discovers Patty’s violation and Patty is reprimanded. When Patty goes home she uses her personal computer to post disparaging comments about her boss and Acme Corporation on social media. The next day Patty is fired from her job.

In 5-6 pages, answer the following question: What types of legal claims could Patty make against Cash Mart, Gerry, and Acme Corporation? Consider the following:

What are the possible tort claims that Patty can make against Cash Mart? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Was Gerry negligent when he hit the golf ball that injured Patty? Discuss the elements of negligence and use facts from the scenario to support your decision.
Does Patty have a right to privacy when using Acme Corporation’s e-mail system? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.
Can Patty be legally fired from her job for making negative comments about her boss and her company on social media? Discuss the elements of the claim and how those elements relate to the facts in the scenario.

Assignment 2 International crime witness. Part 1

Write a 3 to 5 pages paper in which you.

Determine the pertinent demograhic, social, political, and economic factors about your chosen county. The country is Saudi Arabia’

.2. Examine the manner in which your chosen country criminal code would likey view the crime you witnessed. Provide a rationale for the response.

3.Choose two individuals rights that the United States grants criminal suspects, such as search and seizure, right to counsel, etc., and analyze Saudi Arabia perspective on each right. Provide support for the analysis.

Investigate the manner in which the police in Sauri Arabia would likely treat the defendant, Provide justification for the response.
Classify the fundamental similarties and difference betwee the police culture in Saudi Ararbia compared to the United States.
Use at least 4 quality references. No wikipedia.

The Assignment must be APA Format. Typed, double space using Times New Roman font size 12 with one-inch margins on all sizes, citations and references must follow APA .

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student name, the professor name , the corse title and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page lenth.

I want origina work, my school use Safe assign. Paper must be less than 20%. Thanks Please disregard attachment that my student course guide. Once again thanks.

Levels Of Competing Cultures

Investigate the competing cultures within the Dallas, Texas metropolitan area also known as the ‘The Dallas–Fort Worth–Arlington, Texas Metropolitan Statistical Area’. To prepare for this assignment, read the attached and other information you find on the internet to answer the following.

You must use APA format. Citations and resources must also be included and documented properly according to APA format.

What is the African American population of the area?
Have Hispanic immigrants surpassed African Americans in numbers since 2000?
Do the numbers of foreign born in the area exceed the number of other native born Americans (with no African American or Hispanic American backgrounds) in this area?
Has unemployment in the area decreased since 2000? Has family income in the area decreased since 2000?
Has unemployment in the area increased for any specific group since 2000? Has family income in the area increased for any specifc groups since 2007?
Is there a coalition of some kind comprised of all major ethnic and racial groups in the area? Have there been cultural clashes as with the recent World Trade Center mosque proposal in New York City?

NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS

Discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS

In a well-organized, two to three page essay (minimum 750 words) discuss the case of NATIONAL FEDERATION OF INDEPENDENT BUSINESS ET AL. v. SEBELIUS. Be sure to include who benefited by this decision and what negative consequences might follow.

(Essay must be plagiarism free)

REference Showalter,J. S.(2012). The Law of Healthcare Administration.(7th ed.). Chicago, IL: Health Administration Press. ISBN: 978-1-56793-421-2

The Exclusionary Rule Evaluation

Write a 700- to 1,400-word paper in which you analyze the rationale and purpose of the exclusionary rule and identify exceptions to the exclusionary rule. In your analysis, state the costs and benefits of the exclusionary rule, as well as alternative remedies to the rule. State your position on the exclusionary rule and provide support for your position. Pleaseremember, when stating your position, not to use the first person. This is a requirement of proper APA formatting and my policies.

Incorporate information from the CJi Interactive activity in your paper.

http://media.pearsoncmg.com/pcp/pcp_94869_mutchnick_cj_uop/chapter6/ch6_issue2/index.html

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

There are two broad approaches to financing health care: a market-based

Who is provided access?

Most government financed frameworks are slanted to make accessible for each individual living in the country with treatment which proposes access to some major level of consideration. Dominant part of individuals pay for scope through duties and extra charges. In government financed health mind the government may give care itself, for example, the United Kingdom or they may contact different suppliers to do as such ex: Germany and Japan or in the United States government financed

Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions

This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.

(20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
13, 7, 6, 6, 3
14, 12, 11, 10, 8
65, 65, 65, 65, 65
12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
(20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
Why is the median relatively unaffected?
Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
(24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximatepercentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
(20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:

(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.

(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.

What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____

Type the curve best representing your answer: _____

(16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

Individual

Age

Score on Popular Music Test

Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

(2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

(2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

Consider Figure D (below).

(2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the directionand strength of the correlation coefficient?
(4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
(2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
(4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

Critical Writing Assignment

Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.

Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.

Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.

Organizational and Strategic leadership

Question:

Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history

Liberty Uni PHIL 201 quiz 3 complete solutions

Question 1

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following can be classified as a priori knowledge?

Question 2

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?

Question 3

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:

Question 4

3 out of 3 points

Plato holds that we obtain knowledge:

Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Plato was hesitant to build a theory of knowledge on the physical world because

Question 6

3 out of 3 points

The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:

Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following is NOT one of the five sources of knowledge listed in Dew & Foreman:

Question 8

3 out of 3 points

By “noumena” Kant is referring to:

Question 9

3 out of 3 points

Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:

Question 10

Rene Descartes was a:

Question 11

3 out of 3 points

Scientific anti-realism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:

Question 12

3 out of 3 points

The philosopher who believed we are born with innate “categories of understanding” was:

Question 13

3 out of 3 points

Locke divided knowledge into matters of fact and relations of ideas.

Question 14

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, source skepticism questions:

Question 15

3 out of 3 points

Evidentialists hold that some propositions are self-evident.

Question 16

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.

Question 17

3 out of 3 points

According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.

Question 18

Which is NOT Morris’ position on relativism:

Question 19

3 out of 3 points

According to the traditional definition of knowledge:

Question 20

3 out of 3 points

Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. Which category of skeptic is she?

Question 1

Which of the following statements are not true according to Hasker.

Question 2

The function of a metaphysical theory is to:

Question 3

In searching for the “ultimately real,” Hasker is looking for:

Question 4

According to Hasker, Metaphysical theories should be judged on the basis of their factual adequacy, logical consistency, and explanatory power.

Question 5

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

Question 6

The view that our choices are governed by whatever is our strongest motive in a given situation is called:

Question 7

According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:

Question 8

Determinism claims that ultimately our choices don’t make any difference.

Question 9

According to Hasker, a misconception that some have of libertarianism:

Question 10

The scientific case for determinism holds that:

Question 11

Behaviorism states that mental properties are merely a special category of physical properties.

Question 12

Which of the following statements is true about Behaviorism?

Question 13

Which of the following is a weakness/problem with Materialism?

Question 14

Emergentism states that the mind is produced by the brain and therefore is identical with the brain.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Dualism?

Question 16

The term “contiguity” means:

Question 17

Which of the following affirms the existence of essences?

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:

Question 19

Which of these is a characteristic of substances?

Question 20

According to Dr. Baggett, which of the following best describes libertarian free will:

Question 1

Which of the following is not true concerning expert authority?

Question 2

Which of the following is true of metaphysical theories?

Question 3

One rule of thumb in doing metaphysics is the recognition that there are some beliefs that should never be challenged or questioned.

Question 4

In the field of Metaphysics, wholism is the view that complex entities are identical to their component parts.

Question 5

In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.

Question 6

Which doctrine does Hasker suggest to be a way to resolve of the problem of divine foreknowledge and human freedom?

Question 7

The theory that says some actions are chosen and performed by the agent without their being any sufficient cause or condition prior to the action itself.

Question 8

For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:

Question 9

According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:

Question 10

One major argument for libertarianism is:

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?

Question 12

According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.

Question 13

On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.

Question 14

Based on his discussion of John Hick’s examples of resurrection, which of the following statements would Hasker NOT agree to?

Question 15

Idealism tries to avoid the MindBody problem by reducing mental properties to physical properties.

Question 16

An example of an essential property is the fruit on a tree.

Question 17

The kind of “relationship” that is the real problem behind the mind/body problem can be best characterized as:

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of substances:

Question 19

Of the elements of causality, the one that seems to be missing in the relationship between the mind and the body:

Question 20

Which of these is a characteristic of substances?

Question 1

In Philosophy, some ideas, concepts or beliefs should be accepted on the grounds of authority, and should never be questioned.

Question 2

Some of the most important questions in metaphysics deal with:

Question 3

Christian theology has made extensive use of pagan philosophy in developing and interpreting

Christian revelation.

Question 4

Which of the following is not a source of authority mentioned in Hasker?

Question 5

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

Question 6

According to Hasker, the most common response the determinist offers to the idea that rational thinking needs free choice is:

Question 7

According to Hasker, determinism claims that people never make choices.

Question 8

One major argument for libertarianism is:

Question 9

According to Hasker, divine foreknowledge means:

Question 10

For compatibilism a choice is considered free if the:

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not taught by Dualism?

Question 12

What is one of the advantages of Dualism?

Question 13

According to Hasker, emergentism implies that at least some nonhuman animals have souls.

Question 14

On the question of life after death, John Hick proposes a theory that involves total annihilation of the entire person, including the soul, at death.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is true about philosophical Materialism?

Question 16

Which of the following is not an element of causality?

Question 17

Which of the following is an essential property of a person according to the PointeCast.

Question 18

Metaphysical Realism says that:

Question 19 Which of the following is a correct statement about “essences?”

Question 20

Which of these is an example of an essential property?

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that epistemologists are generally hesitant to accept testimony as a source of knowledge:

Question 2

According to Hume, why can we never arrive at certainty?

Question 3

According to Dew & Foreman, faith is one of the sources of knowledge.

Question 4

For Locke, which of the ideas below would be a complex idea:

Question 5

For Hume, which of the following would be a matter of fact:

Question 6

For Plato, the realm where things are constantly in a flux and changing is:

Question 7

The philosopher who arrived at certainty through a process of doubting all of his knowledge was:

Question 8

Scientific antirealism is the view that science does not claim objects like electrons actually exist. They are just a fictional construct to explain how things work. This view fits best with which truth theory:

Question 9

David Hume was a:

Question 10

The one below that is NOT one of the necessary criteria for the traditional definition of knowledge:

Question 11

Which truth theory holds that a proposition is true if it matches reality:

Question 12

The basis for Descartes knowledge of the material world was:

Question 13

One problem with the coherence theory of truth is that it is not linked with the real world but only systems of beliefs.

Question 14

According to the traditional definition of knowledge:

Question 15

Certain basic beliefs can be accepted rationally without evidence or proof, according to:

Question 16

According to Morris, your feelings, desires, hopes and dreams are all dependent in some way upon your beliefs.

Question 17

According to Morris, the principle of belief conservation refutes the evidentialist principle.

Question 18

Morris’ list of ancient skeptics included:

Question 19

William James held that precursive faith allowed us to set aside evidence in order to choose a belief.

Question 20

Question 1

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker it is possible to establish some metaphysical beliefs to a point where they are beyond the possibility of challenge.

Question 2

3 out of 3 points

A good metaphysical theory should be characterized by explanatory power.

Question 3

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker, we can and should thoughtfully evaluate our worldviews.

Question 4

3 out of 3 points

According to Hasker, which is true of the premises we use in doing metaphysics?

Question 5

3 out of 3 points

The function of a metaphysical theory is to:

Question 6

3 out of 3 points

Why evolution is true 10 page critique and personal reflection

Term Draft Paper

APA style Focus on the reflections of the understanding of what evolution is and what it is not. Include personal journey of discovery related to concept of evolution. Philosophical, theological,and sociological reflections,

demonstrartion of a scientific understanding of evolution critique andevaluaute ideas presented in the book using scientific understanding of the process of evolution.

Lib University PHIL 201 quiz 6

Liberty Uni PHIL 201 quiz 6 complete

More than 11 different versions

Question 1

3 out of 3 points

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 2

3 out of 3 points

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 3

3 out of 3 points

Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 4

3 out of 3 points

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.

Question 6

3 out of 3 points

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity,

Judaism, and Islam:

Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Dualists believe in one God.

Question 8

3 out of 3 points

It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.

Question 9

3 out of 3 points

Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.

Question 10

3 out of 3 points

Sally believes that the truth about God cannot be known, so she cannot make a judgment on the issue. What position does Sally represent?

Question 11

3 out of 3 points

Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.

Question 12

3 out of 3 points

_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

Question 13

3 out of 3 points

What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 14

3 out of 3 points

“The universe might always have existed” is an irrelevant objection to the Cosmological argument.

Question 15

3 out of 3 points

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 16

3 out of 3 points

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 17

3 out of 3 points

The elements appealed to for design in the universe include which of the following?

Question 18

3 out of 3 points

“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 19

3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 20

Needs Grading

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 2

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 3

Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion.

Question 4

Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 5

The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.

Question 6

Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 7

If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 8

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 9

Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.

Question 10

What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 11

This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.

Question 12

The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 13

Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 14

Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 15

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 16

According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 17

The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.

Question 18

According to the class presentation, one can successfully provide a single argument for God’s existence.

Question 19

The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1

Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.

Question 2

If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:

Question 3

According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 4

In a critical dialogue about religious beliefs, Evans recommends beginning by asking the other person to accept your own religious presuppositions.

Question 5

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 6

Dualists believe in one God.

Question 7

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 8

What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 9 If all the premises of a valid deductive argument are true, then the argument is:

Question 10

Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

Question 11

According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 12

Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?

There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.
Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.

Question 13

The ontological argument states that the natural world appears to exhibit a purposive design and infers its cause must therefore be an intelligent designer.

Question 14

According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 15

Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 16

According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

Question 17

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 18

The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.

Question 19

A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1

Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”

Question 2

According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.

Question 3

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 4

According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 5

According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.

Question 6

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

Question 7

Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 8

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 9

Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his non-existence is not possible:

Question 10

Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.

Question 11

Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 12

Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

Question 13

The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

Question 14

Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

Question 15

Aquinas taught that “beneficial order” is the kind of order in nature that brings about good results.

Question 16

According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 17

In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 18

The fine-tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 19

A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 20

To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Selected Answer: It is possible to be wrong.

Question 1 3 out of 3 points

If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from non‐believers, she is acting like:

Question 2 3 out of 3 points

“Having the ability to think is a gift from God and He intended us to use it when examining religious beliefs.” Which view does this statement refute?

Question 3 3 out of 3 points

Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 4 3 out of 3 points

The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.

Question 5 3 out of 3 points

Since historians and sociologists sometimes study religious beliefs, they are also philosophers of religion. Question 63 out of 3 points

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 7 3 out of 3 points

________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 8 3 out of 3 points

Theological compatibilists hold that God knows the future because he wills it, including the free choices that each person will make.

Question 9 3 out of 3 points

Natural theologians attempt to see what can be known about God independently of any specific religious authority.

Question 10 3 out of 3 points

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

Question 113 out of 3 points

What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 12 3 out of 3 points

According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 13

3 out of 3 points Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 14 3 out of 3 points

Non‐temporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 15 3 out of 3 points

Which statement is the final premise of the following teleological argument?

There exist in nature many examples of beneficial order.

ii. Beneficial order is best explained as the result of an intelligent designer.

Question 16 3 out of 3 points

According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.

Question 17 3 out of 3 points

The aim of a best explanations approach to the question of God’s existence is to prove for certain that God exists.

Question 18 3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 19 3 out of 3 points

The fine‐tuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20

Needs Grading To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1

3 out of 3 points

Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.

Question 2

3 out of 3 points

_______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 3

3 out of 3 points

What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 4

3 out of 3 points

Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 5

3 out of 3 points

Philosophy of religion is a critical reflection on ________ beliefs.

Question 6

3 out of 3 points

Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

Question 7

3 out of 3 points

Which of the following are characteristics of the theistic conception of God?

Question 8

3 out of 3 points

Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.

Question 9

Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?

Question 10

3 out of 3 points

An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 11

3 out of 3 points

The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

Question 12

3 out of 3 points

Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

Question 13

3 out of 3 points

A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.

Question 14

3 out of 3 points

Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

Question 15

3 out of 3 points

_________ arguments are also known as first-cause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

Question 16

3 out of 3 points

According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

Question 17

3 out of 3 points

The Kalam version of the cosmological argument is a temporal form of the argument.

Question 18

3 out of 3 points

The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 19

3 out of 3 points

“Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 1 The ________ claims that it is wrong to reason about religion, but one must just believe and have faith.

Question 2 The weak foundationalist believes that basic knowledge must be absolutely certain.

Question 3 Philosophy of religion and natural theology are identical disciplines.

Question 4 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.

Question 5 Theology is an activity carried on outside of a religious tradition.

Question 6 Open Theism claims that God is indeed omniscient, but lacks knowledge of future free choices in his creatures.

Question 7 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 8 An argument is _____________ whenever the conclusion must be true if the premises are true.

Question 9 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:

Question 10 It is a requirement of freedom that one possess alternate probabilities, meaning that in order to act freely, there must be more than one thing to do.

Question 11 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 12 _________ arguments are also known as firstcause arguments because they attempt to infer that God must exist as the first cause of the universe.

Question 13 A divine command theory cannot account for individual obligations.

Question 14 Since God is the greatest possible being, it is impossible for God to exist only in the understanding of the fool. Who argued this position:

Question 15 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 16 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 18 According to Craig, atheists like Camus and Russell are inconsistent to promote love and brotherhood.

Question 19 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 2 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 3 According to Evans, philosophy of religion may be engaged in by thinkers who are not themselves religious at all.

Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:

Question 5 Fideists argue that to think rightly about religious matters, one should put aside all religious commitments and be completely neutral.

Question 6 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 7 Theism holds that God is a _________ being; his nonexistence is not possible:

Question 8 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 9 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.

Question 10 What is the term used to describe God’s awareness of future events, including the future choices that humans will make?

Question 11 According to Evans, it is the popularity of evolutionary theory, more than anything else, that has eroded the credibility of the traditional teleological argument.

Question 12 Naturalism claims that one should be moral because it is one’s best interest to be moral.

Question 13 What philosopher argued: God is, by definition, a being who does not merely happen to exist; if God exists at all, then his existence is necessary?

Question 14 The atheist must argue more than the possibility that God does not exist in order to overcome the ontological argument.

Question 15 Which view interprets moral obligations in terms of social approval and disapproval?

Question 16 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 17 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 19 According to Craig, atheists often respond to the idea that without God life has no value by inconsistently finding value in the pursuits and activities of life.

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1 Philosophy of religion attempts to answer such questions as, “Why does God allow suffering?”

Question 2 According to Evans, a person doesn’t need to be completely neutral about religion in order to objectively consider arguments for and against it.

Question 3 Weak foundationalism claims that some of our knowledge is fallible and subject to revision.

Question 4 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:

Question 5 According to Evans, the testing of religious beliefs is likely to be easier than the testing of scientific theories.

Question 6 Which solution to the divine foreknowledge versus human freedom problem claims that God possessed some knowledge prior to creation that he used to decide how to create the world?

Question 7 Agnosticism actually denies the existence of God.

Question 8 Theists hold that God is __________, meaning he is present everywhere by virtue of his activity and knowledge.

Question 9 Some theists teach that God is _________, meaning that God is unchangeable.

Question 10 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 11 This type of argument attempts to show that the very idea of God somehow implies that God actually exists.

Question 12 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 13 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:

Question 14 According to Evans, a necessary being is the only kind of being whose existence requires no further explanation.

Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 16 The moral argument claims that if objective moral norms exist, then God must exist because objective morality entails a moral law maker.

Question 17 According to Craig, believing that objective meaning, value, and truth exist in a universe that ultimately is meaningless and without value is

Question 18 In the end, according to Craig, the dilemma for the atheist is:

Question 19 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Question 1 If Miranda chooses to simply write off any criticisms of her religious views as simply being the product of coming from nonbelievers, she is acting like:

Question 2 According to strong or classical foundationalism, in order to know something, one must have a conclusive reason for thinking it is true.

Question 3 Fideism claims that _______ is the precondition for any correct thinking about religion.

Question 4 What view holds that genuine religious knowledge must consist of truths that are known with absolute certainty?

Question 5 _______ theology is where the theologian attempts to say what can be known about God or things divine, without committing to a specific religion.

Question 6 Naturalism entails ________ because the naturalist does not believe in anything divine or supernatural beyond nature.

Question 7 Dualists believe in one God.

Question 8 ________ is the dominant view of God in three of the world’s great religions: Christianity, Judaism, and Islam:

Question 9 If theism is true, then Christianity must be true.

Question 10 Which view recognizes a plurality of gods, but restricts allegiance to one god?

Question 11 Which argument is often referred to as the argument from design:

Question 12 The cosmological argument and the teleological argument complement each other and therefore could be viewed as part of a general case for the plausibility of theism.

Question 13 Nontemporal versions of the Cosmological argument contend that the universe had to have a beginning, with a cause being necessary to explain its existence in the first moment.

Question 14 Many argue that the universe has been __________ because the odds that a single universe just happening to have a combination of certain values that makes life possible are infinitesimally small:

Question 15 The ________ says that there are no real moral obligations. When a person says an act is wrong, he is expressing his individual feelings about the act.

Question 16 The finetuning of the universe is evidence supporting the:

Question 17 “Nescience” refers to something that exhibits intelligence in design but is not intelligent itself.

Question 18 A minimalistic concept of God argues for a merciful God.

Question 19 According to Craig, if there is not God, ultimate meaning is lost.

Question 20 To say that my case for God’s existence is ‘defeasible’ is to say:

Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment

Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.

Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.

Include the following in your evaluation:

Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.

Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.

CJA/475

Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444

Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.

What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
What kinds of responses might be considered?
What types of assessment would you perform?

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Securing Low Income Housing

Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library

Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:

Give a summary of the event
Outline the response by police and fire agencies
Detail roles within the structured incident command
Outline crisis response objectives
Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

Emergency Management Communication Paper

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:

the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:

the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities

Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375

Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:

Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
Outline termsand authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
The overall outcome of the situation

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

The Response and Recovery of City “X”

The Safety of Urban Air Mobility

Research and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management

The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.

An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There

Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.

Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.

Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

How can algebra help us to understand a probability question?

How can Algebra help us to understand a probability question? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer using MLA guidelines.

Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words?

Is there a language connection between mathematical terms and English words? Please provide an explanation and examples for your answer following MLA Guidelines.

Defend or refute one of the following statements

Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.
Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.
The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.

Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.

White Privilege and Colorism

Write a 100 – 500 words essay comparing and contrasting White privilege and colorism.

Organize your paper as an essay with introduction, body, and conclusion paragraphs.

Include answers to the following questions:

What is White privilege?
If you are a person of color, what are some examples of being denied privilege due to your color?
Can you think of privileges that change, depending on the social context (as one moves from one place or social setting to another)? Provide some examples.
What is colorism? How did this idea develop, and what are its roots?
What are some examples of colorism within today’s overall American society?

Cite and reference in APA style all sources of information used.

Format your assignment according to appropriate course-level APA guidelines

Factorial math problem help!

How many consecutive zeroes are there at the end of 100! (100 factorial). For example, 12! – 479,001,600 has two consecutive zeroes at the end.

Clock hand problem

What is the first time after 3 PM when the hour and minute hands of a clock are exactly on top of each other. Be as specific as possible to the time.

Windowless room math problem, help!!

A windowless room has three identical light fixtures, each with an identical light bulb contained within. Each light is connected to one of the three switches outside of the room. Each bulb is switched off at present. You are outside the room, and the door is closed. You have one, and only one, opportunity to flip any of the external switches. After this, you can go into the room and look at the lights, but you may not touch the switches again. How can you tell which switch goes to which light?

Need help with this proof, complex numbers, very hard

The function f(z) is complex valued in the complex plane. f(z) is bounded and entire. Prove that f(z) must be a constant.

HELP: Card Stopping Optimization

In your hands is a standard deck of 52 playing cards (26 black and 26 red). You are drawing cards one at a time. If you draw a red card you get a dollar. If you draw a black card you get fined a dollar. You can stop drawing cards anytime you want. Cards are not returned to the deck after being drawn. Come up with an optimal stopping rule that you can use to maximize your expected payoff. What is the expected payoff following your rule?

Noticing Patterns in Addition

What is the sum of integers from 1 to n?Justify your formula with a proof.

Black and White Marbles in Two Jars

Suppose there are a large number (>10000), N, of black marbles in a jar. There is an equal number, N, of white marbles in a separate jar.

A quantity, Q, of white marbles are taken out of the jar with white marbles and transferred to the jar with black marbles. The jar with black and white marbles is thoroughly mixed so that the distribution of black and white marbles is uniform.

Afterward, the same quantity of marbles, Q, is taken from the mixed jar of black and white marbles and transferred to the original jar of white marbles to restore the total number of marbles to the original number, N.

What is the expected relationship between the final proportion of white marbles in the white marble jar and black marbles in the black marble jar?

Need help understanding this topic and writing this essay on Heideigger

In his essay “The Question Concerning Technology,” Heidegger claims that technology is a

mode of revealing, with modern technology in particular revealing nature as standing-reserve.

Do information technologies like cell phones, social media, and the like, constitute a new mode

of revealing? First, give a brief presentation of Heidegger’s analysis of modern technology. Then,

either a) argue that information technology reveals nature in a way other than as standing-reserve

or b) argue that information technology reveals nature in the same way as modern technology

more generally. 500 words, Use MLA or Chicago-Turabian formatting and citation guidelines.

History and Racial Relations in the United States HELP ASAP

In the past, we have seen occurrences in places like Ferguson, Staten Island, Baltimore and Charleston that bring into question race relations on the structural level. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim about the extent to which the story of Elizabeth and Hazel is emblematic of contemporary race relations in the United States. Are the incidents recounted in this story representative of the structures of power at work today, or is the Elizabeth and Hazel story an anomaly, a thing of the past?

Is my thesis arguable? Thanks!

Charles Darwin created a lasting impact on how differently we view humanity because he explored his own identity, which lead him to produce new theories of evolution and exchange those ideas with the public, therefore encountering the resistance to his beliefs.

English Help

is this a metaphor or hyperbole:

her hair was a mass of gray ringlets

I Need Help Crafting a Narrative – Problem Scenario

This paper will be a creative effort. You may need to talk with others who have experience with the issue you’re writing about or do some reading to ensure that your description of the problem is accurate. Your personal experience with the problem is very important, but you want to make sure it is typical of the problem you are describing. What you want to produce in this section will be similar to the first act of a play or the first part of a short story. You don’t have to resolve the issues you raise in your description. Instead, you will leave the people you describe in the midst of a dilemma they can’t seem to solve. Your major characters will probably be unhappy, stressed, frightened, or anxious.

For example, you may describe the struggles between a young girl with eating disorders and the conflicts it creates in her family. You want your description to capture the essence of what it is like for both the young girl and her parents as they struggle with this problem. You may have personal experience with this situation or you might have observed other individuals and families who have struggled with this issue. If you need to go to other sources, you can find published case studies that will help you tell an accurate story of a family in this situation. 300 to 400 words. Use APA formatting

Problem Scenario

(10 pts) Believability: Does the scenario capture the essence of the problem?

(10 pts) Complexity: Does the scenario go beyond a superficial understanding?

Writing

(10 pts) APA professional appearance (margins, font, headings, etc.)

(10 pts) Structure, organization, and flow

(10 pts) Grammar and spelling

Discuss the American Dream

The concept of the American Dream is embedded in the fabric of this country. For this response, craft an argument and develop a claim regarding what the American Dream is today and how it might vary based on race, class, gender, education, sexuality. You must address at least one of these categories in your paper. If there is overlap between two categories (say, race and class or gender and sexuality) you may address how those factors interact.

Note: To answer this question, you must craft a working definition of the American Dream and this definition must be supported by evidence. However, claiming that the American Dream is “different things to different people” is not arguable. Be sure to craft a definition of the American Dream that can be supported and debated

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NR511 Midterm Exam 2018

Question

Question 1.Question : Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?

Creating a physician expert panel

Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence

Conducting an external review of a guideline

Developing evidence-based tables

Question 2.Question : African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

Inhaled corticosteroids

Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

Leukotriene receptor agonists

Oral corticosteroids

Question 3.Question : Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.

The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.

The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.

The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

Question 4.Question : Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Meclizine

Diphenhydramine

Diamox

Promethazine

Question 5.Question : Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:

Filiform/digitate wart

Dysplastic cervical lesion

Condyloma acuminata

Koilocytosis

Question 6.Question : Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Dementia

Alzheimer’s disease

Parkinson’s disease

Delirium

Question 7.Question : You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

“Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”

“Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”

“Drive to the emergency room now.”

“Call 911.”

Question 8.Question : A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?

NSAIDs

Beets

Vitamin A

Red meat

Question 9.Question : Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?

Fluid restriction

Hemodialysis 4 days a week

High-protein diet

Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80

Question 10.Question : Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

Glaucoma

Increased sperm quality

Bladder cancer

Eczema

Question 11.Question : A chronic cough lasts longer than:

3 weeks

1 month

6 months

1 year

Question 12.Question : The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Parkinson’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

A CVA

Bell’s palsy

Question 13.Question : When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

Tension

Migraine

Cluster

Stress

Question 14.Question : Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

African American men

Scandinavian men and women

Caucasian women

Asian men

Question 15.Question : The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

Pharyngitis

Allergies

Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

Perforation of the eardrum

Question 16.Question : Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

Severe asthma

A common valvular lesion

Severe hypertension

A prosthetic heart valve

Question 17.Question : A 34-year-old patient was treated for a UTI and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?

Send a urine specimen for microscopy and evaluate for fungal colonies.

Increase the dose of antibiotic.

Order a cytoscopy.

Order a different antibiotic.

Question 18.Question : Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.

A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.

A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.

The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 19.Question : Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?

It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone during pregnancy.

This condition only occurs on the face.

Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 20.Question : Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

“You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

“It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

“The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

“We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 21.Question : A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

Stage 2 hypertension

Hypertensive

Normal in healthy older adults

Acceptable if the patient has DM

Question 22.Question : When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?

1 month

3 months

6 months

As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.

Question 23.Question : Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

He should stop smoking today.

He should stop smoking tomorrow.

His quit date should be in 1 week.

He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.

Question 24.Question : When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

Spores

Leukocytes

Pseudohyphae

Epithelial cells

Question 25.Question : The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

No activity at all

A blank stare

Urine is usually voided involuntarily

The attack usually lasts several minutes

Question 26.Question : Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?

Permethrin cream

Lindane

Crotamiton lotion and cream

Ivermectin

Question 27.Question : The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

Viral conjunctivitis

Keratoconjunctivitis

Bacterial conjunctivitis

Allergic conjunctivitis

Question 28.Question : Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”

“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”

“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”

“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 29.Question : How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Every 3 months

Every 6 months

Annually

Whenever there is a problem

Question 30.Question : Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

Primary

Secondary

Tertiary

Question 31.Question : The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

Repeat the test.

Refer to a nephrologist.

Measure the serum protein.

Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 32.Question : Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

CN V

CN VII

CN IX

CN X

Question 33.Question : Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?

Kidneys, ureter, bladder x-ray

Cystoscopy with biopsy

Magnetic resonance imaging

Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

Question 34.Question : The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:

Biopsy

Best practice

Boundary

Border irregularity

Question 35.Question : Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.

After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 36.Question : Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

Greater than 30

Greater than 40

Greater than 50

Greater than 60

Question 37.Question : The most common cause of CAP is?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Legionella pneumoniae

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 38.Question : Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

Serum calcium

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

Complete blood cell count

Question 39.Question : A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.

Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.

A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.

The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 40.Question : Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?

Concurrent vertigo or ataxia

Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane

If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment

All of the above

Question 41.Question : Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?

BUN and creatinine

Electrolytes

Creatinine clearance

Urinalysis

Question 42.Question : Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?

It is an old wives’ tale.

It is used as a last resort.

Salicylic acid is more effective.

It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.

Question 43.Question : What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?

Penicillin

Quinolone

Cephalosporin

Macrolide

Question 44.Question : Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

Perforation of the tympanic membrane

Otosclerosis

Cholesteatoma

Presbycusis

Question 45.Question : Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

An ulcer

A fissure

Lichenification

An excoriation

Question 46.Question : A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.

The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.

Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.

Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 47.Question : The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

IgA

IgE

IgG

IgM

Question 48.Question : A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?

Pancreatitis

Peptic ulcer disease

Diverticulitis

All of the above

Question 49.Question : Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

B-type natriuretic peptide

C-reactive protein

Serum albumin

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 50.Question : You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

Baker phenomenon

Arnold reflex

Cough reflex

Tragus reflex

Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?

Western blot

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test

Viral load

Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

White blood cell count

Polymorphonuclear cells

C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

GABA

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Serotonin

Question 4.Question : Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:

Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?

The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.

The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.

When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.

Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Decreased C-reactive protein

Hyperalbuminemia

Morning stiffness

Weight gain

Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?

Dogs

Cats

Humans

Rodents

Question 8.Question : A 48-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of prolonged heavy menstrual periods. She is pale and states she can no longer exercise. Pelvic exam reveals a single, very large mass. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the clinician order first?

Transvaginal ultrasound

Endometrial biopsy

MRI

Abdominal computed tomography scan

Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”

“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”

“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”

All of the above

Question 10.Question : A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following tests should be ordered next?

Serum calcium

TSH

Electrolytes

Urine specific gravity

Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Insulin

Metformin

Glucotrol

Precose

Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

An enlarged rubbery gland

A hard irregular gland

A tender gland

A boggy gland

Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?

Remove the insect with tweezers.

Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.

Sedate Eddie with diazepam.

Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”

Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?

Anemia of chronic disease

Sideroblastic anemia

Iron-deficiency anemia

Thalassemia

Question 15.Question : An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Parkinson’s disease

Prostate cancer

All of the above

Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:

Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints

Rigid joints with diminished range of motion

Joint swelling and immobility on rising

A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub

Question 17.Question : A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. What should you do?

Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 18.Question : The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

1 month

3 months

6 months

12 months

Question 19.Question : A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

The scrotum will be dark.

The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

The scrotum will appear milky white.

The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?

A favorable prognostic trend

Disease progression

The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s

medications

The eradication of the HIV

Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:

Erythema infectiosum

Laterothoracic exanthem

Erythema migrans

Morbilli exanthem

Question 23.Question : You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:

Articular

Inflammatory

Nonarticular

A and B

Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?

1,200 mg/day

1,000 mg/day

1,300 mg/day

1,500 mg/day

Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?

Analysis of partner’s sperm

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Hysterosalpingogram

Estrogen level

Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

Superficial burns

Superficial partial-thickness burns

Deep partial-thickness burns

Full-thickness burns

Question 27.Question : A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Endometrial hyperplasia

Vagismus

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?

Two

Three

Four

Five

Question 29.Question : Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?

Testosterone level

Prostate-specific antigen

Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity

Prolactin level

Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

Osteoarthritis

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Rheumatoid arthritis

Sjögren’s syndrome

Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Acetylcholine

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Dopamine

Serotonin

Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?

Refer to a urologist immediately.

Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.

Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.

Prescribe ibuprofen.

Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Prednisone

Metformin

Synthroid

Cephalexin

Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?

Abdomen

Upper lateral thigh

Deltoid

Question 37.Question : It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?

Before the initiation of treatment

1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

When switching to a different medication

1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

Pregnancy

Pituitary dysfunction

Inadequate estrogen levels

Genetic disorders

Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Sertraline

Fluoxetine

Citoprolam

Imipramine

Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:

Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning

Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy

Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician

Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication

Question 41.Question : John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Valgus stress test

McMurray circumduction test

Lachman test

Varus stress test

Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?

Pain

Nausea

Light-headedness

Palpitations

Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Endometriosis

Sexually transmitted infections

Ovarian cyst

Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?

Tick

Brown recluse spider

Wasp

Stinging caterpillar

Question 45.Question : Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equine compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

Gastrocnemius weakness

A reduced or absent ankle reflex

Numbness in the lateral foot

Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?

Pregnancy test

Complete blood cell count

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Urine dip for protein

Question 47.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic after reading about metformin in a magazine. Which of the following conditions that the patient also has would be a contraindication to taking metformin?

Ketoacidosis

Cirrhosis

Hypoglycemic episodes

All of the above

Question 48.Question : The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?

SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.

SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.

SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than

TCAs.

SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?

Autogenic

Autologous

Allogeneic

Syngeneic

Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?

Arsenic

Lead

Carbon monoxide

Strychnine

Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:

Autonomy and feeling valued by others

Exhilaration and productivity

Spirituality

Career success and material rewards

Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

Overweight

Mild obesity

Moderate obesity

Morbid obesity

Question 53.Question : A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular selfexamination (TSE). Which of the following should be examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Testicular cancer

Inguinal hernia

Varicocele

All of the above

Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Radical orchidectomy

Lumpectomy

Radiation implants

All of the above

Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?

Chelation

Dialysis

Gastric lavage

Bowel irrigation

Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”

“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”

“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”

“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 57.Question : A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?

Fluconazole

Estrogen vaginal cream

Metronidazole

Doxycycline

Question 58.Question : The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?

A sprain

A strain

A partial fracture

A fracture

Question 60.Question : Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status temperature of at least 104.9°F, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea?

Heat cramps

Heat syncope

Heat exhaustion

Heat stroke

Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

CAGE

SANE

SAD PERSONAS

DIGFAST

Question 62.Question : One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?

Bone

Synovium

Tendons

Fascia

Question 63.Question : After returning from visiting his grandchildren in England, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

A viral syndrome

Lyme disease

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Relapsing fever

Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Sinus bradycardia

Atrial fibrillation

Supraventricular tachycardia

U waves

Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?

Pregnancy

Estrogen level

Progesterone level

LH level

Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Elevated TSH

Normal TSH

Low TSH

Undetectable TSH

Question 67.Question : A patient is 66 inches in height, weighing 200 pounds, and newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). Her fasting plasma glucose level is 215 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment?

No treatment at this time

Diet and exercise for 6-week trial

Diet, exercise, and oral medication

Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin

Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?

Diabetes mellitus

Hypertension

Atherosclerosis

All of the above

Question 69.Question : Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.

An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.

Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone

Doxycycline

Acyclovir

Metronidazole

Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

The goal of treat

NR511 Midterm Exam

NR511 Midterm Exam 2018

Question 1: The most cost-effective screening test for determining HIV status is which of the following?

Western blot

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test

Viral load

Question 2.Question : Which blood test is a nonspecific method and most helpful for evaluating the severity and course of an inflammatory process?

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

White blood cell count

Polymorphonuclear cells

C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 3.Question : Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

GABA

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Serotonin

Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

Question 5.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the musculoskeletal examination is true?

The uninvolved side should be examined initially and then compared to the involved side.

The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.

When possible, the patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to avoid causing pain.

Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 6.Question : Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Decreased C-reactive protein

Hyperalbuminemia

Morning stiffness

Weight gain

Question 7.Question : Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?

Dogs

Cats

Humans

Rodents

Transvaginal ultrasound

Endometrial biopsy

MRI

Abdominal computed tomography scan

Question 9.Question : A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

“Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”

“Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”

“Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”

All of the above

Serum calcium

TSH

Electrolytes

Urine specific gravity

Question 11.Question : Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Insulin

Metformin

Glucotrol

Precose

Question 12.Question : During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

An enlarged rubbery gland

A hard irregular gland

A tender gland

A boggy gland

Question 13.Question : Eddie, age 4, presents to the ED with a live insect trapped in his ear canal causing a lot of distress. What should be your first step?

Remove the insect with tweezers.

Immobilize the insect with 2% lidocaine.

Sedate Eddie with diazepam.

Shine a light in the ear for the insect to “find its way out.”

Question 14.Question : What is the most common cause of microcytic anemia?

Anemia of chronic disease

Sideroblastic anemia

Iron-deficiency anemia

Thalassemia

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

Parkinson’s disease

Prostate cancer

All of the above

Question 16.Question : Early rheumatoid disease is characterized by:

Pain and swelling in both small and large peripheral joints

Rigid joints with diminished range of motion

Joint swelling and immobility on rising

A cardiac rub or pulmonary friction rub

Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

1 month

3 months

6 months

12 months

The scrotum will be dark.

The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

The scrotum will appear milky white.

The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 20.Question : According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 21.Question : Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load. What does this indicate?

A favorable prognostic trend

Disease progression

The need to be more aggressive with Reuben’s

medications

The eradication of the HIV

Question 22.Question : The exanthem of Lyme disease is:

Erythema infectiosum

Laterothoracic exanthem

Erythema migrans

Morbilli exanthem

Articular

Inflammatory

Nonarticular

A and B

Question 24.Question : What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?

1,200 mg/day

1,000 mg/day

1,300 mg/day

1,500 mg/day

Question 25.Question : When assessing a woman for infertility, which of the following tests should be done first?

Analysis of partner’s sperm

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Hysterosalpingogram

Estrogen level

Question 26.Question : Which type of burn injury results in destruction of the epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

Superficial burns

Superficial partial-thickness burns

Deep partial-thickness burns

Full-thickness burns

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Endometrial hyperplasia

Vagismus

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 28.Question : As a rule of thumb, the estimated level of hematocrit is how many times the value of the hemoglobin?

Two

Three

Four

Five

Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 30.Question : A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?

Testosterone level

Prostate-specific antigen

Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity

Prolactin level

Question 31.Question : The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 32.Question : In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

Osteoarthritis

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Rheumatoid arthritis

Sjögren’s syndrome

Question 33.Question : The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Acetylcholine

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Dopamine

Serotonin

Question 34.Question : A 14-year-old male is seen with complaints of severe testicular pain. The clinician suspects testicular torsion. Which of the following is the appropriate action?

Refer to a urologist immediately.

Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan.

Instruct the patient to elevate the scrotum.

Prescribe ibuprofen.

Question 35.Question : Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Prednisone

Metformin

Synthroid

Cephalexin

Question 36.Question : During treatment for anaphylaxis, what site is used for the initial injection of epinephrine?

Abdomen

Upper lateral thigh

Deltoid

Before the initiation of treatment

1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

When switching to a different medication

1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 38.Question : What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

Pregnancy

Pituitary dysfunction

Inadequate estrogen levels

Genetic disorders

Question 39.Question : Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Sertraline

Fluoxetine

Citoprolam

Imipramine

Question 40.Question : The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include:

Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning

Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy

Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary care clinician

Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication

Valgus stress test

McMurray circumduction test

Lachman test

Varus stress test

Question 42.Question : The cardinal subjective symptom of sickle cell crisis is which of the following?

Pain

Nausea

Light-headedness

Palpitations

Question 43.Question : A 25-year-old woman is seen in the clinic complaining of painful menstruation. Which of the following pelvic pathologies is the most common cause of dysmenorrhea?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Endometriosis

Sexually transmitted infections

Ovarian cyst

Question 44.Question : Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and haemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue?

Tick

Brown recluse spider

Wasp

Stinging caterpillar

Gastrocnemius weakness

A reduced or absent ankle reflex

Numbness in the lateral foot

Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 46.Question : A 21-year-old woman is seen in the clinic requesting birth control pills. Which of the following tests is essential before prescribing any oral contraceptive?

Pregnancy test

Complete blood cell count

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Urine dip for protein

Ketoacidosis

Cirrhosis

Hypoglycemic episodes

All of the above

SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.

SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.

SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than

TCAs.

SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 49.Question : Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin?

Autogenic

Autologous

Allogeneic

Syngeneic

Question 50.Question : Pink, cherry red tissues and skin may result from which type of poisoning?

Arsenic

Lead

Carbon monoxide

Strychnine

Question 51.Question : Basic human needs are identified as:

Autonomy and feeling valued by others

Exhilaration and productivity

Spirituality

Career success and material rewards

Question 52.Question : The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

Overweight

Mild obesity

Moderate obesity

Morbid obesity

Testicular cancer

Inguinal hernia

Varicocele

All of the above

Question 54.Question : What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Radical orchidectomy

Lumpectomy

Radiation implants

All of the above

Question 55.Question : Which method is used to remove heavy metals, such as lead, that are ingested as poisons?

Chelation

Dialysis

Gastric lavage

Bowel irrigation

Question 56.Question : A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

“It is probably just a cyst because that is the most common breast mass.”

“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”

“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”

“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Fluconazole

Estrogen vaginal cream

Metronidazole

Doxycycline

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 59.Question : A history of overuse or excessive force, as opposed to a fall, hyperextension, or the twisting of a joint, is more likely related to which musculoskeletal injury?

A sprain

A strain

A partial fracture

A fracture

Heat cramps

Heat syncope

Heat exhaustion

Heat stroke

Question 61.Question : Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

CAGE

SANE

SAD PERSONAS

DIGFAST

Bone

Synovium

Tendons

Fascia

A viral syndrome

Lyme disease

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Relapsing fever

Question 64.Question : A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Sinus bradycardia

Atrial fibrillation

Supraventricular tachycardia

U waves

Question 65.Question : Which of the following tests is essential for a 46-year-old woman who the clinician suspects is perimenopausal?

Pregnancy

Estrogen level

Progesterone level

LH level

Question 66.Question : After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Elevated TSH

Normal TSH

Low TSH

Undetectable TSH

No treatment at this time

Diet and exercise for 6-week trial

Diet, exercise, and oral medication

Diet, exercise, and exogenous insulin

Question 68.Question : Which of the following should be considered in a patient presenting with erectile dysfunction?

Diabetes mellitus

Hypertension

Atherosclerosis

All of the above

Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.

Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

Question 70.Question : A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Ceftriaxone

Doxycycline

Acyclovir

Metronidazole

Question 71.Question : Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.

Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.

Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.

All of the above

Question 72.Question : Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?

Elevated uric acid level

Elevated blood urea nitrogen

Decreased urine pH

Decreased C-reactive protein

Question 73.Question : Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?

Absent cremasteric reflex

Pain relieved on testicular elevation

Testicle very low in the scrotum

Swollen scrotum with “red dot sign”

Question 74.Question : A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?

Reduces postprandial blood glucose

Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

Reduces total cholesterol

All of the above

Question 75.Question : A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

Pregnancy test

Pelvic ultrasound

Endometrial biopsy

Platelet count

Question 76.Question : What is the most common cause of generalized musculoskeletal pain in women ages 20 to 55?

Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)

Anemia

Fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)

Sports-related injuries

Question 77.Question : If the international normalized ratio (INR) result is above the therapeutic range in a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, what might the clinician do?

Stop the warfarin for 1 week, and then repeat the INR.

Withhold one or more days of anticoagulant therapy.

Restart therapy at a lower dose immediately.

The prothrombin time and INR should be reevaluated within 1 month of the dosage adjustments.

Question 78.Question : A 32-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because she has been unable to get pregnant after 12 months of unprotected sex. In order to determine the cause of the infertility, the clinician should question her about which of these possible causes?

Pelvic inflammatory disease

Oral contraceptive use for 15 years

Early menarche

Diet high in soy protein

Question 79.Question : Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?

There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.

Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.

Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.

All of the above

Question 80.Question : The clinician should prescribe an antibiotic that covers which of these organisms for a patient with acute prostatitis?

Gram-positive cocci

Gram-negative cocci

Gram-positive bacillus

Gram-negative bacillus

Question 81.Question : Which household solution should be used to clean a bathroom if sharing with a friend who has HIV?

100% bleach

50% bleach and 50% vinegar

Nine parts H2O to one part bleach

The friend must have his or her own bathroom.

Question 82.Question : Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit?

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Acute myelogenous leukemia

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Question 83.Question : Which of the following is identified as an eating disorder in which a person craves food substitutes, such as clay, ice chips, and cotton, and is considered an objective finding associated with severe iron deficiency?

Ferritin

Porter’s syndrome

Hypochromasia

Pica

Question 84.Question : The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?

High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4

Free T4 and serum calcium

Free T3 and T4

TSH and thyroxin antibodies

Question 85.Question : The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?

“As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”

“I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”

“My optometrist checks my eyes.”

“I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”

Question 86.Question : Triggering factors for acute exacerbations of which of the following conditions include exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B and UV-A rays?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Scleroderma

SLE

Sjögren’s syndrome

Question 87.Question : Which of the following characteristics separates anaphylaxis from a vasovagal reaction?

Bradycardia

Extreme diaphoresis

Severe bronchoconstriction

Hypotension

Question 88.Question : Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility,

minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician?

“Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful.”

“I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition.”

“I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy.”

“It would be crazy to use complementary therapies to treat such a serious condition.”

Question 89.Question : One benefit of motivational interviewing (MI) is:

It assumes that ambivalence is a normal part of the change process.

It can be utilized during routine office visits.

It is a therapeutic technique which is not necessarily time intensive.

All are benefits of MI.

Question 90.Question : What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?

18%

24%

36%

Question 91.Question : Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question 92.Question : Which statement about HIV postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for health-care workers is the most accurate?

PEP should be started within hours of exposure.

PEP should be started within 72 hours of exposure.

Renal and hepatic function tests should be done 6 weeks after beginning PEP.

PEP will prevent potential hepatitis C infection if present.

Question 93.Question : The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an xray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?

Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury

Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury

Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle

All of the above

Question 94.Question : A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Rice

Carrots

Spinach

Potatoes

Question 95.Question : A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve?

CN II

CN III

CN IV

CN V

Question 96.Question : A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

Pheochromocytoma

Hyperthyroidism

Cardiac arrhythmias

All of the above

Question 97.Question : Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?

Urinalysis

Gram stain of urethral discharge

Complete blood cell count with differential

Ultrasound of the scrotum

Question 98.Question : BATHEing the patient refers to:

A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral.

A technique used to facilitate cultural understandingc.

A technique used to perform psychotherapyd.

A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems

Question 99. Question :BATHEing the patient is an advanced practice nursingintervention that allows the practitioner to:

Develop a therapeutic relationship without “owning” the patient’s problem

Conduct psychological counseling within the context of the primary care encounter

Focus on the “process” and not the assessment

Make the patient and family happier

Question 100. Question A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with abnormaluterine bleeding and pain during intercourse. The clinicianshould consider which of the following diagnoses? Leiomyoma

Pregnancy

Ovarian cancer

All of the above

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam

Question

During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient’s vestibule and expects to see the:

A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice.

B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands.
D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands.
During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
A) Cervix
B) Uterus
C) Ovaries
D) Fallopian tubes
The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as:
A) anteverted and anteflexed.
B) retroverted and anteflexed.

C retroverted and retroflexed.

D)superiorverted and anteflexed.

An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should:
A) use the Tanner’s table on the five stages of sexual development.
B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age.
C) use Jacobsen’s table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data.
D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step.
A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign.
A) Tanner’s; Hegar’s
B) Hegar’s; Goodell’s
C) Chadwick’s; Hegar’s
D) Goodell’s; Chadwick’s
A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal.
B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.
C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria.
D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth.
The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are:

A)aging.

B)becoming fibrous.

C)estrogen dependent.

D)able to respond to estrogen.

The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause?
A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium
B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size
C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions
D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy
A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is.”
B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”
C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned.”
D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle.”
A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the:
A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening.
B) obstetric history because it is the most important information.
C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well.
D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first.
A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____.
A) 2; 2; 1
B) 3; 2; 0
C) 3; 2; 1
D) 3; 3; 1
During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion?

A)”I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed.”

B) “I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period.”
C) “I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night.”
D) “I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom.”
A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her:
A) “Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual.”
B) “Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding.”
C) “It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated.”

D)”It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week.”

A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she “wets herself a little.” She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is:
A) dysuria.
B) stress incontinence.
C) hematuria.
D) urge incontinence.
During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse’s most appropriate response to this would be:
A) “Oh, don’t worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal.”
B) “Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?”
C) “I’d like some information about the discharge. What color is it?”
D) “Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?”
A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, “Have you noticed:
A) a change in your urination patterns?”
B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?”
C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?”
D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?”
Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview?

A)”Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?”

B) “Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?”
C) “Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?”
D) “Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?”
A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask:
A) “Do you have a history of heart murmurs?”
B) “Will you be in a monogamous relationship?”
C) “Have you thought this choice through carefully?”
D) “If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?”
A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first?
A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics.
B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility.
D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert.
A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
A) “You know that it’s important to use condoms for protection, right?”
B) “Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”
C) “Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?”
D) “You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren’t you?”
When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening?
A) “Do you have any questions about growing up?”
B) “What has your mother told you about growing up?”
C) “When did you notice that your body was changing?”
D) “I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you’ll feel?”
When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement?
A) “It is okay that you have become sexually active.”
B) “Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?”
C) “If it is okay with you, I’d like to ask you some questions about your sexual history.”
D) “Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse.”
The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?
A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding.
B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions.
C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness.
D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted.
During the examination portion of a patient’s visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her?
A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head.
B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact.
C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table.
D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off.
An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination.
B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing.
C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam.
D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact.
The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman’s external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits?
A) Redness of the labia majora
B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts
C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green
D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora
The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct?
A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal
B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual
C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal
D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum
During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement.
B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted.
C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view.
The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal?
A) Nabothian cysts are present.
B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit.
C) The cervical surface is granular and red.
D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present.
A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
A) “If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina.”
B) “Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”
C) “If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you.”
D) “We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office.”
During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer?
A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool
B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash
C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash
D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount (“wet prep”)
When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
A) These findings are all within normal limits.
B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm.
C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.
D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix.
The nurse is palpating a female patient’s adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse’s most appropriate course of action would be to:
A) tell the patient that her examination was normal.
B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist.
C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings.
D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.
A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit?
A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking.
B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done.
C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard.
D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination.
The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation?
A) In the parent’s lap
B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table
C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups
D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended
When assessing a newborn infant’s genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant’s mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply:
A) “This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks.”

B “This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician.”

C) “We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits.”
D) “We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size.”
During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Atrophic vaginitis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is:
A) pediculosis pubis.
B) contact dermatitis.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) herpes simplex virus type 2.
When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer?
A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms.
B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer.
C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening.
D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years.
During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
A) an ovarian cyst.
B) endometriosis.
C) ovarian cancer.
D) an ectopic pregnancy.
A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of:
A) endometriosis.
B) uterine fibroids.
C) ectopic pregnancy.
D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
A) syphilitic chancre.
B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis).
C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts.
D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice).
During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear:
A) stellate.
B) small and round.
C) as a horizontal irregular slit.
D) everted.
A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
A) uterine
B) cervical
C) ovarian
D) endometrial
During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as:
A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree.
B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree.
C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree.
D) a normal finding.
A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, “How often do I need to have this Pap test done?” Which reply by the nurse is correct?

A)”It depends. Do you smoke?”

B)”This will need to be done annually until you are 65.”

C)”If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests.”

D)”After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years.”

The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass’s characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply.
A) Heavy and solid
B) Mobile and fluctuant

C)Mobile and solid

D) Fixed
E) Smooth and round
F) Poorly defined

HealthCare Information Systems (7pgs)

Questions:

How proper use of Information Systems can enhance Health Care?

Millennium development goals report

Instructions for developing the MDGs Report HLTH 4380 Fall 2018 In this Project, we will use the United Nations Millennium Declaration document called Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by world leaders at the dawn of the 21st century as our guide. The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are eight international development goals that were established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, and subsequent adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration. Although these Goals have universal appeal, they are readily applicable to mainly developing countries and Middle-income countries of the world. Of course they have some relevance to the United States, but you are not required to make any comparison with US or any other industrialized country. The idea of including this part of the project is for us to examine the global perspectives of public health and the extent to which world leaders (governments, civil society groups, NGOs) in low-resource settings are affected by the poor health vulnerabilities and efforts being made by countries to improve population health. The MDGs has eight goals with targets and indicators; and range from halving extreme poverty rates to halting the spread of HIV/AIDS and providing universal primary education by the target date of 2015. I have provided the eight goals below: 1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger 2. To achieve universal primary education 3. To promote gender equality and empower women 4. To reduce child mortality 5. To improve maternal health 6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases 7. To ensure environmental sustainability 8. To develop a global partnership for development These goals have been reviewed in July 2015, and a new development plan Agenda 2030 Sustainable Development Goals has been put in place. I have posted a copy of final review of the MDGs document on Blackboard (under MDG Assignment Resources). Your role is to select TWO GOALS from the MDGs and two specific countries outside the United States and other industrialized countries to assess the extent to which your selected countries did in achieving the goal by July 2015 (the target and indicators for that MDG goals you picked by July of 2015). You may include what the country need to do as part of your postMDG steps. The post MDG’s are Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) MDG Expectation: Visit the web link of countries you have selected for this project. You can just google by typing “your selected country and MDG report.” For example, if I selected Ghana, I will google “Ghana MDG report” and you will find all MDG reports for Ghana in different years. Select the three most current reports of the respective country selected. The link below is for the assessment of UN member’s countries progress towards achievement of MDG’s. Assess (based on your chosen goals and targets for the MDG’s) whether the country (of your interest) is likely to meet those MDG’s (for that country) by 2015 according to your specific objective /goals. Critically evaluate whether your specific community or your country of interest will meet respective goals and objectives as well as the accompanying dates. Prepare a six page comparative analytic report that includes the information below (you may additional information for extra credit): • Short definition or description of your Goals (from the MDGs) for the two countries, and a briefly descriptions of each country’s background context. The context of each country is important for understanding why or why not the results achieved in the manner in they have been reported. • Most important issue each country addressed in each Goal. • Individuals most affected by this objective (age, gender, ethnicity, etc.) and a country of your interest. • Ethnic/racial groups most affected • Value of addressing this Goal and consequences of not meeting your objective • Most interesting data to use to gain more attention to this objective or Goal • Details of community and national efforts to address this issue and any local data that you may be able to secure. There is detailed information on the MDG’s and what countries are doing to achieve a specific goal. Make sure to select a peer reviewed publication and cite appropriately. Please, refer to this website for additional information on MDGs: http://www.healthpolicyinitiative.com/index.cfm?id=onlineCDs&groupID=7 3 Note that the MDG’s are primarily United Nations target to improve health and social wellbeing of populations of the world (mainly outside the United States). The US uses the Healthy People as a national guide for improving health and social outcomes. Healthy People are a set of goals and objectives spanning a 10-year period, designed to guide national health promotion and disease prevention efforts for the population in the United States. Prepare a critical and detailed six-page report to address those issues. You will utilize and cite, according to the APA Style and Format (6th edition). Make sure that you have at least seven additional references aside the Healthy People 2020 and MDGs documents. My suggestions when writing this paper is to avoid direct quoting from any source (even those you will cite those sources). I strongly recommend that you paraphrase and cite appropriately instead of direct quoting.

BSBSUS401 Implement & monitor environmentally sustainable work practices

What is the purpose of National Greenhouse & Energy Reporting Legislation?

What is the purpose of Environment Protection & Biodiversity Conservation Legislation?
What is the Kyoto Protocol?
Who has the prime responsibility for environmental protection?
How do organisations know how to behave ethically in regards to sustainability?

Activity 2.

What process might an assessor follow when analysing procedures to ensure compliance with

environmental regulations?
How might an assessor conduct an assessment?

Activity 3.

What is resource efficiency?
What is an Environmental Management System?
How can a work group be engaged in disseminating environmental and resource efficiency information?

Activity 4.

Explain the differences between qualitative and quantitative information.
What do you think are the advantages of presenting analysed data in graphical format, rather than a written report?
Your organisation is interested in analysing and organising information about the amount of paper it uses. Convert the data provided into a format that is easily used.

Activity 5.

What are the goals of resource usage assessments? Give at least 6 examples.
List the steps (in order) that need to be taken when carrying out a resource usage assessment.

Activity 6.

Identify 5 benefits of environmental purchasing.

Activity 7.

How can organisations ensure that work processes meet environmental requirements and identify areas in which changes need to be made? Give at least 6 examples.
What is problem solving in the context of environmental work processes and what is its aim/s?

Activity 8.

List at least 5 various ways that organisations can access stakeholder input.

Activity 9.

What are the advantages of joining an industry association? List two examples.
What are the advantages of joining an environmental program? Give 2 examples.
What is the hierarchy of control?
Rearrange the controls in their correct order, as specified in the hierarchy of control:

Administration, Elimination, Engineering, Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), and Substitution.

Activity 11.

What are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)?
What five criteria should be met when creating targets?
Identify what is wrong with the following targets and rewrite them so they conform to SMART criteria.
The Absolute Advertising Agency will reduce its paper waste.
The Fish Factory will reduce its energy consumption to zero in the next month.

Activity 12.

Identify five things a business could do to reduce its energy consumption.
Identify five things an organisation could do to reduce its waste.

Activity 13.

Identify the four steps of the continuous improvement cycle.
Identify five things an organisation can do to improve the performance of its employees.

Activity 14.

Explain why it is a good idea to integrate environmental procedures and practices with pre-existing organisation procedures and practices.
What needs to be done when existing procedures or work practices are changed or new procedures and work practices are introduced?

Activity 15.

Define the term “Engagement”.

Engagement is the emotional commitment the employee has to the organization and its goals. It relates to a state of involvement and participation.

Why is it important to ensure that employees do not become disengaged?
What are the benefits of having a diverse team?

Activity 16.

List at least six people/groups who might make up an organisations stakeholders.
Each stakeholder will have different areas of expertise. Complete the table by providing reasons that an organisation should seek suggestions & ideas about their environmental and resource efficiency management for each of the listed stakeholders.

Activity 17.

A school is thinking about installing low-flush toilets in all of its bathrooms and air hand-driers to replace paper towel dispensers. Purchasing new toilets for the entire school will cost $22,000. It will need to employ plumbers to fit the toilets at a cost of $9,500. It is estimated that this will save the school $16,000 in water consumption fees. The hand driers will cost $13,500. The cost of employing electricians to install the hand driers will come to $4,400. As the school will no longer have to purchase paper towels, it will save $7,300 per year. It also estimates it will save $1,000 a year in cleaning costs, as the bathrooms will take less time to clean, and bins will need to be emptied less frequently. The school will incur additional electricity costs of $1,700 per year, however. Calculate the combined payback period for the installation of low flush toilets and air hand driers.

Activity 18.

Determine whether the following statements are true or false.

Activity 19.

Place the steps, which need to be observed when creating an environment report in their correct order.

Communicate with the audience to understand their concerns, questions, expectations & interests.
Create performance Indicators.
Decide how you are going to publish report.
Gather the data and evaluate it.
Identify the data you will need to produce the report.
Identify key environmental aspects that need to be covered by the report.
Identify the target audience for your report.
Make improvements to reporting procedures for future reports.
Obtain Feedback.
Produce, publish and distribute the report.

Identify 5 benefits of creating and distributing an environmental report.

Activity20.

Why is it important to carry out regular evaluations of environmental management systems/ strategies and improvement plans?

Activity 21.

List 5 reasons that efficiency targets should be/ might need to be regularly reviewed.

Activity 22.

Identify the characteristics of an effective reward system. Give 4 examples.

Question 1.

What methods can be used to convey information and identify sustainability improvements?

Question 2.

What are the essential features of a non-compliance form that could be used by employees to report any non-compliance issues?

Question 3.

What is the effect of environmental regulations and legislation on business?

Question 4.

What common environmental and energy efficiency issues can you think of?

Question5.

What benchmarks might be used for environmental & resource sustainability?

List at least 8 examples of techniques or tools that can be used to achieve efficiency.

Question 6.

Define the term “Sustainability” and explain how it relates to resource usage.

Question 7.

What are the steps in creating an Environment Management System (EMS)?

Question 8.

How do sustainable businesses foster ethical behaviours in staff and management?

Summative Assessment 2

Project 1.

Essay Question –write a response to the following quote from Unlimited Sustainable Development Solutions.

Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:

“Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental, and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives”.

Your response should include a discussion of:

Complex environmental issues.
Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact.
Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact.

Project 2.

Youare the supervisor of a group of 15 workers in a business involved in an industry of your choice. You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relation to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.

Identify a minimum of 3 appropriate work group activities and provide an overview of what is involved with each activity.
Develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvements for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken by your work group.

Millennium development goals

Pick two MDGs

Evaluate the progress with a case study of two developing countries.

HSA 505 Case Study 3 Missed Opportunities

Due Week 9 and worth 200 points

Read the case study titled “Missed Opportunities”, located in the online course shell.

Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

Examine the pros and cons from the perspective of Crestview Hospital of the placement of its new billboard directly adjacent to Briarwood Medical Center. Interpret the reaction of customers and other community stakeholders to the billboard postings.
Use competitive marketing entry strategies to suggest the action that Briarwood Hospital should undertake to counter the messages in the new Crestview Hospital Billboard postings.
Recommend the marketing communication strategy or strategies that both Crestview and Briarwood Hospitals should employ. Justify why the Governing Board of both hospitals should take a proactive role in promoting and implementing effective marketing strategies.
Assess the value of the various marketing research tool(s) that Briarwood and Crestview hospital could use to promote effective marketing communication strategies. Justify your response.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Evaluate marketing research tools involved in the marketing process.
Formulate competitive market entry strategies based on analysis of global markets that comply to initiatives in the health care industry.
Determine the marketing communications strategy used in health care services.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health services strategic marketing.
Write clearly and concisely about health services strategic marketing using proper writing mechanics.

HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets

HSA 599 week 5 Case Study – GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets

Read the case study titled “GE Healthcare (A): Innovating for Emerging Markets” located in the XanEdu case pack (Link Below)

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Determine two (2) emerging trends in the external environment that prompted General Electric (GE) Healthcare to develop a new strategy for the production and marketing of a low cost Electroencephalography (EEG) machine in bottom of the pyramid markets (BOP).
Examine two (2) internal barriers GE Healthcare faced when developing its BOP market in India and determine the manner in which they hindered GE Healthcare’s growth in this market segment.
Analyze two (2) of the significant external barriers that GE Healthcare faced when trying to meet its marketing goals in the Indian market. Propose two (2) ways to address these barriers.
Analyze the specific steps GE took in developing its strategy to grow its BOP market. Determine the manner in which those actions apply to the principles of strategic thinking and strategic planning.
Determine the manner in which GE Healthcare’s strategy to improve its position in BOP markets contributed to the organization’s value chain in both emerging and developed markets.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.

Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Differentiate between strategic management, strategic thinking, strategic planning, and managing strategic momentum.
Analyze the significance of the external environment’s impact on health care organizations.
Examine the role of internal environmental analysis in identifying the basis for sustained competitive advantage.
Examine the organizational value chain, including the components of the service delivery and support activities.
Examine barriers to new product development that comply with initiatives in the health care industry.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the strategic management of health care organizations.
Write clearly and concisely about strategic management of health care organizations using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic / organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric.

Week 2 – Healthy People 2020

After reviewing the Healthy People 2020 website, discuss the concept of MAP-IT. Choose a health topic of your choice to briefly discuss how MAP-IT can be implemented in the community of your choice.
Topic: Affordable Medication Program

Length: Minimum of two full pages of text in length. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format. Please ensure you cite your references in APA format with a minimum of 3 references

https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/tools-and-resources/Program-Planning

Influences of Health Care Research

Identify one innovation that has been developed in the past 20 years that has influenced the health care industry, such as: Telemedicine Organ transplants Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that discusses the following: Explain how evidence-based research influences the health care industry. Compare external influences on health care research. Cite 3 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your paper. Format your paper according to APA guidelines.

Human Resource Management Overview

Assignment 1: Human Resource Management Overview

Due Week 4 and worth 200 points

Using the course readings, articles, and your personal experiences, address the role of human resource management.

Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:

1.Determine key roles that human resource management plays in the health care field..

2.Evaluate three to five (3-5) functions of human resource management in terms of their level of support to the health care field, and then select which one you believe is the primary function in furthering the health care field..

3.Analyze the role of human resource management in an organization’s strategic plan..

4.Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources..

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions..
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length..

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Appraise the aspects of managing human resources (HR) in health care organizations. .
Use technology and information resources to research issues in health care human resources management..
Write clearly and concisely about health care human resources management using proper writing mechanics..

MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017

MN568 Unit 10 Final latest 2017

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Which statement about confusion is true?

Question options:

a) Confusion is a disease process.
b) Confusion is always temporary.
c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.

Question 2 0 / 2 points

Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Question options:

a) Meclizine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Diamox
d) Promethazine

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

Question options:

a) No activity at all
b) A blank stare
c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily
d) The attack usually lasts several minutes

Question 4 2 / 2 points

How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Question options:

a) Every 3 months
b) Every 6 months
c) Annually
d) Whenever there is a problem

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Question options:

a) A teenage male
b) A 65-year-old male
c) A 25-year-old female
d) A 60-year-old female

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a specific test to MS?

Question options:

a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) A lumbar puncture
d) There is no specific test.

Question 7 2 / 2 points

Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antidepressants
d) Atypical antipsychotics

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?

Question options:

a) Epidural hematoma
b) Subdural hematoma
c) Subarachnoid hematoma
d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

Question options:

a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X

Question 10 2 / 2 points

Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

Question options:

a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

Question options:

a) A female in her reproductive years
b) A 40-year-old African American male
c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Question options:

a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Delirium

Question 13 2 / 2 points

Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?

Question options:

a) Purulent meningitis
b) Chronic meningitis
c) Aseptic meningitis
d) Herpes meningitis

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?

Question options:

a) MRI
b) CT
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d) An initial lumbar puncture

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

Question options:

a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c) A pain that is worse upon awakening
d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 16 1 / 1 point

Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

Question options:

a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

Question options:

a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 18 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?

Question options:

a) Resting tremor
b) Bradykinesia
c) Rigidity
d) Postural instability

Question 19 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?

Question options:

a) Light sensitivity
b) Pulsatile pain
c) Sound sensitivity
d) Experiencing an aura

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?

Question options:

a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.

Question 21 2 / 2 points

Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?

Question options:

a) Greater than 25%
b) Greater than 50%
c) Greater than 75%
d) Only for 100% occlusion

Question 22 2 / 2 points

What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?

Question options:

a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogrel
d) Aspirin and clopidogrel

Question 23 2 / 2 points

Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?

Question options:

a) MRI
b) CT
c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d) EEG

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?

Question options:

a) Sam-e
b) Saint John’s Wort
c) Melatonin
d) Saw Palmetto

Question 25 0 / 2 points

Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?

Question options:

a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean

Question 26 2 / 2 points

About 90% of all headaches are?

Question options:

a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Without pathological cause

Question 27 2 / 2 points

Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

Question options:

a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
d) These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?

Question options:

a) Glatiramer acetate
b) Natalizumab
c) Fingolimod
d) Glucocorticoids

Question 29 2 / 2 points

The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Question options:

a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) A CVA
d) Bell’s palsy

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?

Question options:

a) Spinothalamic dysfunction
b) Ratcheting
c) Cogwheeling
d) Hand tremors

Question 31 2 / 2 points

Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?

Question options:

a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Huntington’s disease

Question 32 1 / 1 point

Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?

Question options:

a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Delirium

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:

Question options:

a) SLUMS
b) MoCA
c) FAST
d) MMSE

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?

Question options:

a) 1 hour
b) 3 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours

Question 35 2 / 2 points

When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

Question options:

a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Stress

Question 36 2 / 2 points

The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

Question options:

a) Acetylcholine
b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin

Question 37 2 / 2 points

The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

Question options:

a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months

Question 38 1 / 1 point

A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?

Question options:

a) Pheochromocytoma
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Cardiac arrhythmias
d) All of the above

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?

Question options:

a) Benzodiazepines
b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
c) Tricyclic antidepressants
d) Cognitive behavioral therapy

Question 40 1 / 1 point

Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

Question options:

a) Hypersomnolence
b) Blunted feelings
c) Loss of interest in significant activities
d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?

Question options:

a) Decrease in adrenal size
b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone
c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone
d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone

Question 42 2 / 2 points

The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?

Question options:

a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.
b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.
c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.
d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.

Question 43 2 / 2 points

After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

Question options:

a) 2 weeks
b) 3 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 5 weeks

Question 44 2 / 2 points

It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?

Question options:

a) Before the initiation of treatment

b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment

c) When switching to a different medication

d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications

Question 45 2 / 2 points

A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?

Question options:

a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.

b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.

c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.

d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.

Question 46 1 / 1 point

According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?

Question options:

a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance

b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression

c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

d) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Question 47 1 / 1 point

The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?

Question options:

a) Memory impairment

b) Sexual dysfunction

c) Dry mouth

d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.

Question 48 2 / 2 points

Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?

Question options:

a) GABA

b) Acetylcholine

c) Dopamine

d) Serotonin

Question 49 2 / 2 points

What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?

Question options:

a) 0.05

b) 0.1

c) 0.2

d) 0.3

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?

Question options:

a) Every 30 minutes

b) Every 60 minutes

c) Every 90 minutes

d) Every 180 minutes

Question 51 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?

Question options:

a) Hypercholesterolemia

b) Hypermagnesmia

c) Leukocytosis

d) Decreased TRH

Question 52 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?

Question options:

a) Sertraline

b) Fluoxetine

c) Citoprolam

d) Imipramine

Question 53 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

Question options:

a) Liver function

b) Vision

c) Growth parameters

d) Renal function

Question 54 2 / 2 points

It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c) Substance abuse

d) PTSD

Question 55 2 / 2 points

Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

Question options:

a) 2 weeks

b) 1 month

c) 3 months

d) 6 months

Question 56 2 / 2 points

Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?

Question options:

a) Depression

b) Anxiety

c) Substance-related addictions

d) Gambling

Question 57 1 / 1 point

What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?

Question options:

a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention

b) Personality or environmental problems

c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors

d) Global assessment of functioning

Question 58 2 / 2 points

Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?

Question options:

a) CAGE

b) SANE

c) SAD PERSONAS

d) DIGFAST

Question 59 2 / 2 points

Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?

Question options:

a) ADHD

b) Bipolar

c) Depression

d) Anxiety

Question 60 1 / 1 point

Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?

Question options:

a) Substance abuse and medication effects

b) Medical and neurological disorders

c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression

d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 61 1 / 1 point

The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 62 1 / 1 point

Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 63 1 / 1 point

Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 64 1 / 1 point

Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 65 1 / 1 point

Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 66 1 / 1 point

The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 67 1 / 1 point

A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 68 1 / 1 point

Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 69 1 / 1 point

Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 70 1 / 1 point

When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 71 1 / 1 point

A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?

Question options:

a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

b) Endometrial hyperplasia

c) Vagismus

d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 72 2 / 2 points

A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?

Question options:

a) Ceftriaxone

b) Doxycycline

c) Acyclovir

d) Metronidazole

Question 73 1 / 1 point

A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?

Question options:

a) Gonorrhea

b) HPV

c) Chlamydia

d) Trichomonas

Question 74 1 / 1 point

A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

Question options:

a) Trichomonas

b) Bacterial vaginosis

c) HPV

d) Herpes simplex virus

Question 75 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

Question options:

a) Metronidazole

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Diflucan

d) Doxycycline

Question 76 1 / 1 point

A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?

Question options:

a) Fluconazole

b) Estrogen vaginal cream

c) Metronidazole

d) Doxycycline

Question 77 2 / 2 points

Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:

Question options:

a) Filiform/digitate wart

b) Dysplastic cervical lesion

c) Condyloma acuminata

d) Koilocytosis

Question 78 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 79 2 / 2 points

Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?

Question options:

a) Necrotizing fasciitis

b) Periorbital cellulitis

c) Erysipelas

d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis

Question 80 2 / 2 points

The forced vital capacity is decreased in:

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Emphysema

d) Restrictive disease

Question 81 2 / 2 points

The most common cause of CAP is?

Question options:

a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

b) Klebsiella pneumoniae

c) Legionella pneumoniae

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 82 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Increased white blood cells

c) Insulin resistance

d) Hyperactivity

Question 83 2 / 2 points

The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

Question options:

a) IgA

b) IgE

c) IgG

d) IgM

Question 84 2 / 2 points

A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

Question options:

a) The scrotum will be dark.

b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.

c) The scrotum will appear milky white.

d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 85 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 86 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?

Question options:

a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.

d) There is metastasis to distant organs.

Question 87 1 / 1 point

A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Risk of osteoporosis

b) May have hot flushes

c) May have impotence

d) All of the above

Question 88 1 / 1 point

A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Testicular cancer

b) Inguinal hernia

c) Varicocele

d) All of the above

Question 89 1 / 1 point

What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Question options:

a) Radical orchidectomy

b) Lumpectomy

c) Radiation implants

d) All of the above

Question 90 1 / 1 point

A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?

Question options:

a) Every month

b) Every 3 to 4 months

c) Every 6 to 12 months

d) Every year

Question 91 2 / 2 points

Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

Question options:

a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 92 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

Question options:

a) An ulcer

b) A fissure

c) Lichenification

d) An excoriation

Question 93 2 / 2 points

A bulla is:

Question options:

a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter

b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular

c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid

d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent

Question 94 1 / 1 point

A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?

Question options:

a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 95 1 / 1 point

Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 96 1 / 1 point

The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 97 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Question options:

a) Prednisone

b) Metformin

c) Synthroid

d) Cephalexin

Question 98 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

Question options:

a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion

b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions

c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions

d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion

Question 99 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Question options:

a) Insulin

b) Metformin

c) Glucotrol

d) Precose

Question 100 1 / 1 point

A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Anxiety disorder

b) Pheochromocytoma

c) Psychosis

d) All of the above

MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017

MN568 Unit 8 Exam latest 2017

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Question options:

a) Insulin

b) Metformin

c) Glucotrol

d) Precose

Question 3 2 / 2 points

After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

Question options:

a) Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.

b) Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.

c) Send her for acupuncture treatments.

d) All of the above

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

Question options:

a) Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

b) Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

c) Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

d) Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 5 2 / 2 points

John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain.The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Question options:

a) Valgus stress test

b) McMurray circumduction test

c) Lachman test

d) Varus stress test

Question 6 2 / 2 points

The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort.Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?

Question options:

a) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

b) “You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

c) “You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

d) “It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?

Question options:

a) Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury

b) Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury

c) Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle

d) All of the above

Question 8 2 / 2 points

The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?

Question options:

a) A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s

b) Recent exposure to mumps

c) Vegetarian diet

d) Allergy to iodine

Question 9 2 / 2 points

A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Question options:

a) Rice

b) Carrots

c) Spinach

d) Potatoes

Question 10 2 / 2 points

One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:

Question options:

a) Goiter

b) Abnormal serum calcium

c) Elevated urine biochemical markers

d) Bony fracture

Question 11 2 / 2 points

After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Question options:

a) Elevated TSH

b) Normal TSH

c) Low TSH

d) Undetectable TSH

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Question options:

a) Decreased C-reactive protein

b) Hyperalbuminemia

c) Morning stiffness

d) Weight gain

Question 13 2 / 2 points

The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

Question options:

a) “I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

b) “I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

c) “It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

d) “Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 14 2 / 2 points

The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 15 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Question options:

a) The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.

b) Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.

c) Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.

d) All of the above

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?

Question options:

a) Prednisone

b) Metformin

c) Synthroid

d) Cephalexin

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

Question options:

a) Gastrocnemius weakness

b) A reduced or absent ankle reflex

c) Numbness in the lateral foot

d) Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 18 2 / 2 points

You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM with gravity eliminated. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient?

Question options:

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) 5

Question 19 2 / 2 points

A diabetic patient asks the clinician why he needs to check his blood sugar at home even when he feels good. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

Question options:

a) “Control of glucose will help postpone or delay complications.”

b) “Regularly checking blood sugar will help establish a routine.”

c) “Monitoring glucose will promote a sense of control.”

d) All of the above

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

Question options:

a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion

b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions

c) Random plasma glucose greater than or equal to 200 in a person with symptoms of hyperglycemia

d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion

Question 21 2 / 2 points

A patient with type 2 diabetes asks the clinician why she needs to exercise. In order to answer her, the clinician must understand that exercise has what effect on the patient with type 2 diabetes?

Question options:

a) Reduces postprandial blood glucose

b) Reduces triglycerides and increases high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

c) Reduces total cholesterol

d) All of the above

Question 22 0 / 2 points

A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Anxiety disorder

b) Pheochromocytoma

c) Psychosis

d) All of the above

Question 23 2 / 2 points

The clinician has been doing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following statements by the patient would indicate that teaching has been effective?

Question options:

a) “As long as I don’t need glasses, I don’t have to worry about going blind.”

b) “I know I need to have my eyes checked every year.”

c) “My optometrist checks my eyes.”

d) “I will see my eye doctor when my vision gets blurry.”

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Question options:

a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.

b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.

c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.

d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.

Question 25 2 / 2 points

A patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first?

Question options:

a) Check his blood sugar.

b) Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.

c) Call 911.

d) Ask him about his usual eating habits.

Question 26 2 / 2 points

The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit?

Question options:

a) High sensitivity thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4

b) Free T4 and serum calcium

c) Free T3 and T4

d) TSH and thyroxin antibodies

Question 27 2 / 2 points

A 25-year-old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the clinician notices a sinus bradycardia; muscular stiffness; coarse, dry hair; and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes.Which of the following tests should be ordered next?

Question options:

a) Serum calcium

b) TSH

c) Electrolytes

d) Urine specific gravity

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Gray is a 55-year-old woman who presents with tightness, pain, and limited movement in her right shoulder. She denies any history of trauma. Her examination reveals a 75% reduction in both active and passive ROM of the right shoulder. Mrs. Gray also is experiencing tenderness with motion and pain at the deltoid insertion. Her medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her social history reveals that she is a secretary and that she is right-handed. Based on her examination and medical history, you suspect adhesive capsulitis, or “frozen shoulder.” Which clue in Mrs. Gray’s history supports this diagnosis?

Question options:

a) History of hypertension

b) Her affected shoulder is also her dominant arm.

c) Her history of diabetes mellitus

d) Her work as a secretary predisposes her to repetitive motions.

Question 29 2 / 2 points

What is the recommended daily calcium intake for adults over the age of 50 with low bone mass?

Question options:

a) 1,200 mg/day

b) 1,000 mg/day

c) 1,300 mg/day

d) 1,500 mg/day

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Question options:

a) Sinus bradycardia

b) Atrial fibrillation

c) Supraventricular tachycardia

d) U waves

Question 31 2 / 2 points

You have detected the presence of crepitus on examination of a patient with a musculoskeletal complaint. Additionally, there is limited range of motion (ROM) with both active and passive movement. These findings suggest that the origin of the musculoskeletal complaint is:

Question options:

a) Articular

b) Inflammatory

c) Nonarticular

d) A and B

Question 32 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements concerning the treatment of fibromyalgia syndrome is true?

Question options:

a) There is currently no cure for the disorder; however, patients should be made aware that symptom relief is possible.

b) Treatment is directed toward controlling discomfort, improving sleep, and maintaining function.

c) Fibromyalgia syndrome can be difficult to manage, requiring a variety of approaches and multiple medications.

d) All of the above

Question 33 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Thomas was seen in the office complaining of pain and point tenderness in the area of her elbow. The pain has increased following a day of gardening one week ago. A physical finding that differentiates the diagnosis and is most consistent with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is:

Question options:

a) Ecchymosis, edema, and erythema over the lateral epicondyle

b) Pain at the elbow with resisted movements at the wrist and forearm

c) Inability to supinate and pronate the arm

d) Inability to flex or extend the elbow against resistance

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates?

Question options:

a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs.

b) There is potential for upper GI irritation, so these medications are contraindicated in people with abnormalities of the esophagus or delayed esophageal emptying.

c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals.

d) None of the above

Question 35 2 / 2 points

The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as:

Question options:

a) Apprehension sign

b) Bulge sign

c) Thumb sign

d) None of the above

Question 36 2 / 2 points

Normal estrogen function is important for preventing osteoporosis in both men and women. Estrogen works to prevent osteoporosis in which of the following ways?

Question options:

a) By decreasing the erosive activity of osteoclasts

b) By promoting osteoclastogenesis

c) By inhibiting osteoclast apoptosis

d) All of the above

Question 37 2 / 2 points

Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr.W’s diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Bone scan

b) Computed tomography (CT) scan

c) X-ray of the foot

d) Culture of the ulcer

Question 38 2 / 2 points

One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular structure?

Question options:

a) Bone

b) Synovium

c) Tendons

d) Fascia

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient?

Question options:

a) Elevated uric acid level

b) Elevated blood urea nitrogen

c) Decreased urine pH

d) Decreased C-reactive protein

Question 40 2 / 2 points

Urine-free cortisol is one of four diagnostic tests recommended for Cushing’s syndrome.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Joyce is seen in the clinic complaining of vague symptoms of nervousness and irritability. She says that her hair will not hold a permanent wave anymore. On physical examination, the clinician finds an irregular heartbeat and brisk reflexes. The differential diagnosis should include which of the following conditions?

Question options:

a) Myxedema

b) Thyrotoxicosis

c) Cushing’s syndrome

d) Pan-hypopituitarism

Question 42 0 / 2 points

How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

Question options:

a) Once a year

b) Every 6 months

c) Every 3 months

d) Every visit

Question 43 2 / 2 points

A BMI of 29 kg/m2 is considered obesity.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 44 2 / 2 points

Jennifer is an 18-year-old who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited ROM in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

Question options:

a) Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.

b) There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.

c) Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require great force to result in injury.

d) Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 45 2 / 2 points

The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications?

Question options:

a) Low-dose aspirin

b) Thiazide diuretics

c) Ethambutol

d) All of the above

Question 46 2 / 2 points

Metformin is the first line of pharmacologic treatment for type 2 DM.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 47 2 / 2 points

Mrs. Anderson is a 35-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. She has two young children and asks the clinician what the chances are that they also will develop carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following responses would be correct regarding the risk of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

Question options:

a) Carpal tunnel syndrome commonly occurs in families. Genetic factors are thought to account for about one-half the risk of developing carpal tunnel.

b) Only people with occupations that require repeated flexion extension of the wrist, use of hand tools that require forceful gripping, or use of hand tools that vibrate are at risk for developing carpal tunnel.

c) An underlying musculoskeletal disorder must be present for a person to develop carpal tunnel.

d) Carpal tunnel syndrome only occurs in the presence of a hormonal imbalance.

Question 48 2 / 2 points

Fruit juice with added sugar is the treatment of choice for anyone experiencing hypoglycemia.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 49 2 / 2 points

The patient is prescribed radioactive iodine (RAI) and asks the clinician how this drug works. The clinician’s response should include which of the following data?

Question options:

a) RAI prevents the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

b) RAI binds free T4.

c) RAI destroys thyroid tissue.

d) RAI reduces freely circulating iodine.

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Lifestyle modification is the treatment of choice for metabolic syndrome.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017

MN568 Unit 6 Exam latest 2017

Question 1 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Pancreatitis

b) Peptic ulcer disease

c) Diverticulitis

d) All of the above

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?

Question options:

a) Refer to a urologist for surgery.

b) Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.

c) Recommend cranberry supplements.

d) Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

Question options:

a) Repeat the test.

b) Refer to a nephrologist.

c) Measure the serum protein.

d) Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?

Question options:

a) 0.05% liquid formulation

b) 0.1% cream

c) 1% foam

d) 0.02% cream

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?

Question options:

a) Pruritis

b) Glycosuria

c) Irritability

d) Hypotension

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?

Question options:

a) Keratosis pilaris

b) Dennie’s sign

c) Keratoconus

d) Pityriasis alba

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Erectile dysfunction

b) Glaucoma

c) Hypotension

d) Headache

Question 8 2 / 2 points

When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?

Question options:

a) A piece of hair or a thread

b) Hyphae

c) Leukocytes

d) Spores

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D?

Question options:

a) Vagistat vaginal cream

b) Monistat combination pack

c) Terazol vaginal cream

d) Diflucan, 150 mg

Question 10 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?

Question options:

a) NSAIDs

b) Beets

c) Vitamin A

d) Red meat

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of CRF?

Question options:

a) BUN and creatinine

b) Electrolytes

c) Creatinine clearance

d) Urinalysis

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Eighty percent of men have noticeable hair loss by what age?

Question options:

a) 35

b) 50

c) 70

d) 85

Question 13 0 / 2 points

When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes.What do you suspect they are?

Question options:

a) Spores

b) Leukocytes

c) Pseudohyphae

d) Epithelial cells

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24-year-old woman with a UTI?

Question options:

a) Last menstrual period

b) Method of birth control

c) Last unprotected sexual contact

d) All of the above

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Question options:

a) Radical orchidectomy

b) Lumpectomy

c) Radiation implants

d) All of the above

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of epididymitis?

Question options:

a) Urinalysis

b) Gram stain of urethral discharge

c) Complete blood cell count with differential

d) Ultrasound of the scrotum

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this?

Question options:

a) Bullous impetigo

b) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

c) Nonbullous impetigo

d) Ecthyma

Question 18 2 / 2 points

An example of ecchymosis is:

Question options:

a) A hematoma

b) A keloid

c) A bruise

d) A patch

Question 19 2 / 2 points

An 82-year-old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Prostate cancer

d) All of the above

Question 20 0 / 2 points

A 30-year-old man is seen with a chief complaint of loss of libido. Which of the following laboratory tests would help establish a diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Testosterone level

b) Prostate-specific antigen

c) Nocturnal penile tumescence and rigidity

d) Prolactin level

Question 21 2 / 2 points

A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of painful erections, and he notices his penis is crooked when erect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Peyronie’s disease

b) Damage to the pudendal artery

c) Scarring of the cavernosa

d) All of the above

Question 22 2 / 2 points

Question options:

a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.

b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.

c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.

d) There is metastasis to distant organs.

Question 23 0 / 2 points

During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

Question options:

a) An enlarged rubbery gland

b) A hard irregular gland

c) A tender gland

d) A boggy gland

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Tinea unguium is also known as:

Question options:

a) Onychomycosis

b) Tinea versicolor

c) Tinea manuum

d) Tinea corporis

Question 25 2 / 2 points

The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure (ARF).Which of the following data obtained from the history should alert the provider that this is a case of prerenal azotemia?

Question options:

a) Recent heat stroke

b) Nephrolithiasis

c) Recent infection where gentamicin was used in treatment

d) All of the above

Question 26 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is accurate when you are removing a seborrheic keratosis lesion using liquid nitrogen?

Question options:

a) Do not use lidocaine as it may potentiate bleeding.

b) Pinch the skin taut together.

c) Use gel foam to control bleeding.

d) This should be performed by a dermatologist only.

Question 27 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with urge incontinence. Before prescribing Detrol XL, the provider should question the patient about which of these contraindications to this medication?

Question options:

a) Diarrhea

b) Parkinson’s disease

c) Closed-angle glaucoma

d) Breast cancer

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

Question options:

a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”

b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”

c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”

d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 29 2 / 2 points

A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?

Question options:

a) Risk of osteoporosis

b) May have hot flushes

c) May have impotence

d) All of the above

Question 30 2 / 2 points

Josh, aged 22, has tinea versicolor. Which description is the most likely for this condition?

Question options:

a) There are round, hypopigmented macules on his back.

b) Josh has red papules on his face.

c) There are crusted plaques in Josh’s groin area.

d) There are white streaks on his neck.

Question 31 2 / 2 points

The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:

Question options:

a) A skin tag

b) Actinic keratosis

c) A melanoma

d) A basal cell lesion

Question 32 2 / 2 points

Which scalp problem can be caused by a fever and certain drugs?

Question options:

a) Telogen effluvium (TE)

b) Trichotillomania

c) Psoriasis

d) Alopecia areata

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A 46-year-old man presents with urinary hesitancy and low back pain. He has no history of UTI. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a normal prostate, and a diagnosis of prostatodynia is made. Which is the appropriate treatment?

Question options:

a) Terazosin 2 mg PO once a day

b) Ice pack to the scrotal area

c) Saw palmetto 320 mg per day

d) All of the above

Question 34 2 / 2 points

A 30-year-old patient presents with pain on urination. The urine microscopy of unspun urine shows greater than 10 leukocytes/mL, and a dipstick is positive for nitrites. What is the probable diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Lower urinary tract infection

b) Chlamydia infection

c) Candidiasis

d) Pyelonephritis

Question 35 2 / 2 points

Which of the following foods should be limited in a patient with CRF?

Question options:

a) Milk

b) Bananas

c) Soy sauce

d) All of the above

Question 36 2 / 2 points

An example of a primary skin lesion is a/an:

Question options:

a) Bulla

b) Scale

c) Excoriation

d) Fissure

Question 37 2 / 2 points

A 76-year-old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinician should explore which of these causes of incontinence in men?

Question options:

a) Urethral polyps

b) Urinary tract infection (UTI)

c) Anticholinergic medication

d) All of the above

Question 38 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of hematuria. To make a differential diagnosis, which of the following questions should be asked?

Question options:

a) “Do you have a history of liver disease?”

b) “What medications are you currently taking?”

c) “Have you noticed swelling in your ankles?”

d) All of the above

Question 39 2 / 2 points

A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with Stage D bladder cancer and asks the provider what that means. Which is the best response?

Question options:

a) “There is no such thing as Stage D cancer.”

b) “You have cancer that has spread to the surrounding tissue.”

c) “Your cancer has spread to other organs.”

d) “Your cancer can be cured by removing your bladder.”

Question 40 2 / 2 points

Treatment for epididymitis includes which of the following?

Question options:

a) Warm sitz baths

b) Scrotal elevation

c) Masturbation

d) All of the above

Question 41 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the office complaining of severe flank pain. The clinician should assess this patient for which risk factor for kidney stones?

Question options:

a) Hypertension

b) Constipation

c) Tubal ligation

d) Diabetes

Question 42 2 / 2 points

A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Psychogenic nocturia

b) Urethral polyp

c) Irritative posterior urethral lesion

d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy

Question 43 0 / 2 points

A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?

Question options:

a) Every month

b) Every 3 to 4 months

c) Every 6 to 12 months

d) Every year

Question 44 2 / 2 points

Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity.Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to gas production by which anaerobic bacteria?

Question options:

a) Staphylococcal aureus

b) Clostridium perfringens

c) S. pyrogenes

d) Streptococcus

Question 45 2 / 2 points

Ian, age 62, presents with a wide, diffuse area of erythematous skin on his lower left leg that is warm and tender to palpation.There is some edema involved. You suspect:

Question options:

a) Necrotizing fasciitis

b) Kaposi’s sarcoma

c) Cellulitis

d) A diabetic ulcer

Question 46 2 / 2 points

Why do people of African descent have a lower incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer?

Question options:

a) They have an increased number of melanocytes.

b) Their darker skin protects from ultraviolet radiation.

c) Their skin is thicker.

d) Their immune system is stronger.

Question 47 2 / 2 points

A 23-year-old sexually active man is seen in the clinic with unilateral painful testicular swelling, and he is diagnosed with epididymitis.In order to prescribe the correct drug, the clinician must understand that which of these is the most common causative organism?

Question options:

a) Escherichia coli

b) Staphylococcus aureus

c) Chlamydia trachomatis

d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question 48 2 / 2 points

When instructing your elderly client about treating her xerosis, what do you tell her?

Question options:

a) A daily hot bath may help the associated pruritus.

b) Rub the skin briskly to make sure it is completely dry after bathing.

c) Only take short tepid showers.

d) Use a gel that is alcohol-based after bathing to soften the skin.

Question 49 2 / 2 points

Which of the following instructions should be given to the patient with nephrolithiasis?

Question options:

a) Take ibuprofen, 600 mg every 8 hours.

b) Take Tums? for stomach upset.

c) Drink more black tea.

d) Increase intake of vegetables, like spinach.

Question 50 2 / 2 points

The 56-year-old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80 mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 mg (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long?

Question options:

a) 3 to 7 days

b) 14 to 21 days

c) 3 to 6 weeks

d) 6 to 12 weeks

MN568 Unit 4 Exam

MN568 Unit 4 Exam latest 2017

Question 1 0 / 2 points

Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?

Question options:

a) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.

b) Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,

c) He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.

d) All of the above

Question 2 2 / 2 points

A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?

Question options:

a) Very early

b) 3 to 4 hours after perforation

c) Late in inflammation

d) Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.

Question 3 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Gastroenteritis

b) Inflammatory bowel disease

c) Lactase deficiency

d) All of the above

Question 4 0 / 2 points

If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?

Question options:

a) Peptic ulcer

b) Hiatal hernia

c) Costochondritis

d) Pericarditis

Question 5 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?

Question options:

a) Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea

b) Wakens at night with diarrhea

c) History of international travel

d) All of the above

Question 6 2 / 2 points

In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?

Question options:

a) First-degree AV block

b) Second-degree Mobitz I AV block

c) Second-degree Mobitz II AV block

d) Third-degree AV block

Question 7 2 / 2 points

For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?

Question options:

a) 6 hours

b) 8 hours

c) 10 hours

d) 12 hours

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?

Question options:

a) Malabsorption

b) Constipation

c) Rectal bleeding

d) Esophageal ulceration

Question 9 2 / 2 points

A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?

Question options:

a) CBC with differential

b) Urine human chorionic gonadotropin

c) Barium enema

d) Computed tomography of the abdomen

Question 10 2 / 2 points

Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

Question options:

a) Greater than 30

b) Greater than 40

c) Greater than 50

d) Greater than 60

Question 11 2 / 2 points

A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea.Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary care physician (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?

Question options:

a) Feels relief after a bowel movement

b) Sometimes is constipated

c) Does not defecate in the middle of the night

d) All of the above

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?

Question options:

a) A physiologic split S2

b) A fixed split S2

c) S3

d) S4

Question 13 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?

Question options:

a) This is a premalignant tissue.

b) This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.

c) This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.

d) All of the above

Question 14 0 / 2 points

A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?

Question options:

a) Increased breakdown of red blood cells

b) Inadequate hepatocyte function

c) Biliary obstruction

d) All of the above

Question 15 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

Question options:

a) B-type natriuretic peptide

b) C-reactive protein

c) Serum albumin

d) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Your patient with permanent afib asks when he can discontinue his warfarin. You tell him:

Question options:

a) When your internalized normalized ratio reaches 3.0, you can stop taking your warfarin permanently.

b) When you no longer feel ill

c) One month after your symptoms dissipate

d) You’ll probably be on it indefinitely.

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

Question options:

a) Serum calcium

b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

d) Complete blood cell count

Question 18 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?

Question options:

a) It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.

b) Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.

c) It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.

d) None of the statements are true.

Question 19 2 / 2 points

A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be?

Question options:

a) Obtain a complete history.

b) Order a barium enema.

c) Schedule a Bernstein’s test.

d) Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.

Question 20 2 / 2 points

A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical examination?

Question options:

a) Digital rectal exam

b) Pelvic exam

c) Sexual history

d) All of the above

Question 21 2 / 2 points

A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain particular with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely?

Question options:

a) Her age

b) Frequent constipation

c) Flatulence

d) Colicky abdominal pain

Question 22 2 / 2 points

Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?

Question options:

a) 911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.

b) One more dose of NTG may be tried.

c) The person should be given two aspirin to chew.

d) A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.

Question 23 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain that is radiating to the middle of the back. The NP suspects acute cholelithiasis. The NP should expect which of the following laboratory findings?

Question options:

a) Decreased alanine aminotransferase and decreased aspartate aminotransferase

b) Elevated alkaline phosphatase

c) Elevated indirect bilirubin

d) Decreased white blood cells

Question 24 2 / 2 points

A patient is diagnosed with giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

Question options:

a) Vancomycin

b) Penicillin

c) Metronidazole

d) Bactrim

Question 25 2 / 2 points

A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse.The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?

Question options:

a) Stool culture

b) Liver enzymes

c) Antihepatitis D virus

d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

Question 26 2 / 2 points

Statins are approved for which age group?

Question options:

a) Children over the age of 2

b) Children over the age of 6

c) Children over the age of 10

d) Only adolescents and adults

Question 27 2 / 2 points

When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?

Question options:

a) 1 month

b) 3 months

c) 6 months

d) As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Mary has hypertension and previously had a stroke. Which hypertensive drug would you order for her?

Question options:

a) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

b) Calcium channel blocker

c) Angiotensin II receptor blocker

d) Beta blocker

Question 29 2 / 2 points

What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?

Question options:

a) Less than 0.25

b) Less than 0.50

c) Less than 0.90

d) Greater than 1

Question 30 2 / 2 points

Which group would most benefit from statins?

Question options:

a) Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL

b) Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease

c) Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%

d) Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)

Question 31 2 / 2 points

Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours?

Question options:

a) Stable angina

b) Unstable angina

c) Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)

d) Probably not angina but hiatal hernia

Question 32 2 / 2 points

The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association states which of the following regarding the use of non-statin lipid-lowering agents?

Question options:

a) Nicotinic acid derivatives are effective for lowering LDL and triglycerides (TGs).

b) Bile acid sequestrates increase HDL.

c) Cholesterol absorption inhibitors decrease LDL.

d) There is no sufficient evidence to use non-statin lipid-drugs.

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation.The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?

Question options:

a) Multivitamin

b) Magnesium hydroxide

c) Pepto-Bismol

d) Ibuprofen

Question 34 2 / 2 points

You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?

Question options:

a) 1 month

b) 3 months

c) 6 months

d) 1 year

Question 35 2 / 2 points

The patient with GERD should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities?

Question options:

a) Swimming

b) Weight lifting

c) Golfing

d) Walking

Question 36 2 / 2 points

A patient has acute pancreatitis with seven of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s criteria. In order to plan care, the NP must understand that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?

Question options:

a) A high mortality rate

b) An increased chance of recurrence

c) A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic

d) All of the above

Question 37 2 / 2 points

A Delta wave on the ECG may be present in which condition?

Question options:

a) Prinzmetal’s angina

b) Bundle branch block

c) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

d) Aortic stenosis

Question 38 2 / 2 points

Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include:

Question options:

a) Maintaining a body mass index of 17

b) Restricting dietary sodium to 2 grams per day

c) Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day

d) Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day

Question 39 2 / 2 points

Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?

Question options:

a) Fleeting

b) Moving

c) Diffuse

d) Localized

Question 40 2 / 2 points

Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?

Question options:

a) T-wave inversion

b) ST-segment elevation

c) Significant Q wave

d) U-wave

Question 41 0 / 2 points

A 29-year-old Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?

Question options:

a) His gender

b) His age

c) His use of Alka-Seltzer

d) His ethnic origin

Question 42 2 / 2 points

Which murmurs are usually ‘watch and wait’?

Question options:

a) Systolic murmurs

b) Diastolic murmurs

c) They both are dangerous and need immediate attention.

d) You can ‘watch and wait’ for both of them.

Question 43 2 / 2 points

A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Endometriosis

b) Colon cancer

c) Diverticulitis

d) All of the above

Question 44 2 / 2 points

George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158. He is being treated for hypertension.You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?

Question options:

a) His age

b) His cholesterol level

c) His systolic BP

d) The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication

Question 45 2 / 2 points

The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?

Question options:

a) Use of NSAIDs

b) Cigarette smoker

c) Ethanol consumption

d) All of the above

Question 46 2 / 2 points

In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the‘A’ stands for:

Question options:

a) Anticoagulation

b) Autoimmune disease

c) Age

d) Antihypertension

Question 47 2 / 2 points

Jamie, age 55, has just started on a statin after having his liver function tests (LFTs) come back normal. He now asks you how often he has to have the LFTs repeated. What do you tell him?

Question options:

a) Initially in 6 weeks

b) Every 3 months

c) Every 6 months

d) It’s no longer necessary for his statin regimen.

Question 48 0 / 2 points

Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?

Question options:

a) Eliminate coffee.

b) Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.

c) Recline and rest after meals.

d) Limit the amount of antacids.

Question 49 2 / 2 points

Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

Question options:

a) Severe asthma

b) A common valvular lesion

c) Severe hypertension

d) A prosthetic heart valve

Question 50 2 / 2 points

You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?

Question options:

a) Her waist is 36 inches.

b) Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.

c) Her BP is 128/84.

d) Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.

MN568 Unit 2 Exam

MN568 Unit 2 Exam latest 2017

Question 1 0 / 2 points

Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?

Question options:

a) 0 to 7 mm Hg

b) 8 to 21 mm Hg

c) 22 to 40 mm Hg

d) 40 to 80 mm Hg

Question 2 0 / 2 points

Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Emphysema

d) COPD

Question 3 0 / 2 points

A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

Question options:

a) The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.

b) The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.

c) Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.

d) Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens?

Question options:

a) Coxsackievirus

b) Cytomegalovirus

c) Francisella tularensis

d) Group A streptococcus

Question 5 2 / 2 points

The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection?

Question options:

a) HSV type 2

b) HIV

c) Pneumonia

d) Syphilis

Question 6 0 / 2 points

Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:

Question options:

a) 0 to 5 mcg/mL

b) 5 to 10 mcg/mL

c) 5 to 15 mcg/mL

d) 10 to 20 mcg/mL

Question 7 0 / 2 points

African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

Question options:

a) Inhaled corticosteroids

b) Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

c) Leukotriene receptor agonists

d) Oral corticosteroids

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?

Question options:

a) The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.

b) Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.

c) Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.

d) Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

Question options:

a) He should stop smoking today.

b) He should stop smoking tomorrow.

c) His quit date should be in 1 week.

d) He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.

Question 10 2 / 2 points

The forced vital capacity is decreased in:

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Chronic bronchitis

c) Emphysema

d) Restrictive disease

Question 11 2 / 2 points

A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough. When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:

Question options:

a) Metoprolol

b) Clopidogrel

c) Tadalafil

d) Captopril

Question 12 0 / 2 points

You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

Question options:

a) “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”

b) “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”

c) “Drive to the emergency room now.”

d) “Call 911.”

Question 13 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?

Question options:

a) Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.

b) Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.

c) Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.

d) There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.

Question 14 0 / 2 points

You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

Question options:

a) Baker phenomenon

b) Arnold reflex

c) Cough reflex

d) Tragus reflex

Question 15 0 / 2 points

Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting. What should you do?

Question options:

a) Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.

b) Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.

c) Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.

d) Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.

Question 16 2 / 2 points

Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis?

Question options:

a) IgA

b) IgE

c) IgG

d) IgM

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

Question options:

a) Glaucoma

b) Increased sperm quality

c) Bladder cancer

d) Eczema

Question 18 0 / 2 points

Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

Question options:

a) African American men

b) Scandinavian men and women

c) Caucasian women

d) Asian men

Question 19 2 / 2 points

Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?

Question options:

a) The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.

b) Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum.

c) Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake.

d) Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy.

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Sinusitis

c) Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis

d) Influenza

Question 21 2 / 2 points

Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?

Question options:

a) Mild intermittent

b) Mild persistent

c) Moderate persistent

d) Severe persistent

Question 22 2 / 2 points

A chronic cough lasts longer than:

Question options:

a) 3 weeks

b) 1 month

c) 6 months

d) 8 weeks

Question 23 0 / 2 points

Severe pain associated with acute otitis media signifies perforation of the tympanic membrane.

Question options:

a) True

b) False.

Question 24 0 / 2 points

As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of ‘cotton wool’ spots can be detected. Cotton wool spots refer to:

Question options:

a) Nerve fiber layer infarctions

b) Blood vessel proliferation

c) Venous beading

d) Retinal hemorrhage

Question 25 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Increased white blood cells

c) Insulin resistance

d) Hyperactivity

Question 26 2 / 2 points

Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically. How do you instruct her to take them?

Question options:

a) Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.

b) Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.

c) Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.

d) Take them with food to prevent nausea.

Question 27 0 / 2 points

Sam, age 78, presents to the clinic with respiratory symptoms. His pulmonary function tests are as follows: a normal total lung capacity, a decreased PaO2, and an increased PaCO2. On assessment, you auscultate coarse crackles and forced expiratory wheezes. What is your diagnosis?

Question options:

a) Asthma

b) Emphysema

c) Chronic bronchitis

d) Influenza

Question 28 0 / 2 points

Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?

Question options:

a) Nuclear cataracts

b) Cortical cataracts

c) Posterior cataracts

d) Immature cataracts

Question 29 0 / 2 points

Otitis media is considered chronic when:

Question options:

a) Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.

b) There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.

c) Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.

d) All of the above

Question 30 0 / 2 points

Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

Question options:

a) Perforation of the tympanic membrane

b) Otosclerosis

c) Cholesteatoma

d) Presbycusis

Question 31 0 / 2 points

A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause?

Question options:

a) Gonorrhea

b) Mononucleosis

c) Influenza

d) Herpes zoster

Question 32 0 / 2 points

You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. Her score is 3. What should you do?

Question options:

a) Consider home treatment.

b) Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization.

c) Closely supervise her outpatient treatment.

d) Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.

Question 33 2 / 2 points

The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

Question options:

a) Pharyngitis

b) Allergies

c) Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

d) Perforation of the eardrum

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?

Question options:

a) Concurrent vertigo or ataxia

b) Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane

c) If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment

d) All of the above

Question 35 2 / 2 points

Marci has been started on a tuberculosis (TB) regimen.Because isoniazid (INH) may cause peripheral neuropathy, you consider ordering which of the following drugs prophylactically?

Question options:

a) Pyridoxine

b) Thiamine

c) Probiotic

d) Phytonadione

Question 36 2 / 2 points

The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:

Question options:

a) Chronic coughing

b) Hyperinflation

c) Polycythemia

d) Pulmonary hypertension

Question 37 0 / 2 points

A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

Question options:

a) The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.

b) Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.

c) A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.

d) The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 38 0 / 2 points

Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?

Question options:

a) Fever

b) Headache

c) Exudative pharyngitis

d) Rhinorrhea

Question 39 0 / 2 points

Which statement about adenocarcinoma of the lung is accurate?

Question options:

a) It is the least common type of lung cancer, representing approximately 5% to 10% of cases.

b) It is the most prevalent carcinoma of the lungs in both sexes and in nonsmokers, representing 35% to 40% of all tumors.

c) It is more common in men than in women and occurs almost entirely in cigarette smokers.

d) It is aggressive, with rapid growth and early local and distant metastases via the lymphatic and blood vessels.

Question 40 0 / 2 points

A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain.On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition?

Question options:

a) Otitis media

b) Meniere’s disease

c) Tinnitus

d) Otitis externa

Question 41 2 / 2 points

Supplemental oxygen for how many hours per day has been shown to improve the mortality associated with COPD?

Question options:

a) 3 to 5 hours

b) 6 to 10 hours

c) 11 to 14 hours

d) 15 to 18 hours

Question 42 0 / 2 points

Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape?

Question options:

a) Pilocarpine

b) Timolol

c) Brinzolamide

d) Acetazolamide

Question 43 2 / 2 points

You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help. Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye. The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick. You:

Question options:

a) instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.

b) stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.

c) find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.

d) call 911.

Question 44 2 / 2 points

You have a patient who is a positive for Strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxacillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5 F in office). You also note significant adenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide:

Question options:

a) to refer the patient.

b) that he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic.

c) that his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed.

d) that he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection.

Question 45 2 / 2 points

Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis?

Question options:

a) Vasomotor rhinitis

b) Rhinitis medicamentosum

c) Atrophic rhinitis

d) Viral rhinitis

Question 46 2 / 2 points

In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?

Question options:

a) Recurrent sinusitis

b) Allergic sinusitis

c) Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy

d) All of the above

Question 47 0 / 2 points

The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?

Question options:

a) Weber test

b) Schwabach test

c) Rinne test

d) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test

Question 48 0 / 2 points

Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than:

Question options:

a) 4 weeks

b) 8 weeks

c) 12 weeks

d) 16 weeks

Question 49 2 / 2 points

Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:

Question options:

a) Fungi

b) Viruses

c) Gram-negative bacteria

d) Pneumococcal pneumonia

Question 50 2 / 2 points

Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma.What additional medication should she be taking?

Question options:

a) Inhaled corticosteroid

b) Leukotriene receptor antagonist

c) Systemic corticosteroid

d) Methyl xanthenes

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 4

Question 1. Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall.

She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.

There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.

Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.

Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question.2 In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

Osteoarthritis

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Rheumatoid arthritis

Sjögren’s syndrome

Question.3 Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?

a.Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

b.Elevated T4

c.Elevated TRH

d.All of the above

Question.4 Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?

Benzodiazepinesb.

Antipsychoticsc.

Anticonvulsantsd.

Antidepressants

Question.5 When may confidentiality be overridden?

When personal information is available on the computer

When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company

When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene testX

When a patient has a communicable disease

Question.6 What percentage of burns is involved using the rule of nines if both front legs are burned?

18%

24%

36%

Question.7 The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

Low-dose aspirin

Thiazide diuretics

Ethambutol

All of the above

Question.8 Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question.9 Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?

Autonomy

Beneficence

Justice

Veracity

Question.10 George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever

Question.11 A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

Pregnancy test.

Endometrial biopsy

Pelvic ultrasound

Platelet count

Question.12 Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above

Question.13 During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question.14 Which drug commonly prescribed …. partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?

Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

Silver nitratex

Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question.15 A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.

“We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”

“We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”

“Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question.16 After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation

Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan

Send her for acupuncture treatments

All of the above

Question.17 Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

Metranidazole

Ceftriaxone

Diflucan

Doxycycline

Question.18 Most adult poisonings are:

intentional and self-inflicted.

accidental.

caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.

not attributed to any reason.

Question.19 Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?

Dilute povidone-iodine solutionx

Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

Saline solution infused with an antibiotic

Saline irrigation or soapy water

Question.20 A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Sinus bradycardia

Atrial fibrillation

Supraventricular tachycardia

U waves

Question.21 What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

A stabbing pain on one small area of the body

A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body

A pain that is worse upon awakening

A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question.22 Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

A female in her reproductive years

A 40-year-old African American male

A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily

A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question.23 If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.

The area will be super sensitive.

The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.

The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question.24 The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?

Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood

Compete eradication of the virus

Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals

Complete abstinence

Question.25 The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

Overweight

Mild obesity

Moderate obesity

Morbid obesity

Question.26 The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?

You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.

You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.

You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.

It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.

Question.27 In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

Commitment

Consensusx

Certification

Collaboration

Question.28 Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?

Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate painbut should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.

An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.

Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.

All of the above

Question.29 Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

Superficial burns

Superficial partial-thickness burns

Deep partial-thickness burns

Full-thickness burns

Question.30 CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and non physician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components. Which of the following are part of the components used to calculate the per CPT code payment rate?

a. Clinician education loans

b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense

c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts

d. Clinician volume of patients treated

Question.31 Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

10%

x 20%

30%

50%

Question.32 A bulla is:

A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.

An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.

A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.

Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.

Question.33 Clinicians who learn how to code and document Evaluation and Management (E&M) and clinician services will be more successful in gaining timely payment for care delivery. Which or the following Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) practices are designed to financially penalize clinicians who do not bill according to CMS guidelines?

Audits and probes

Add-on codes

Modifier codes

HAC guidelines

Question 34. Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

Abrupt onset

Impaired attention

Affective changes

Delusions

Question.35 Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.

The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.

The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.

Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question.36 A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?

Testicular cancer

Inguinal hernia

Varicocele

All of the above

Question.37 When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

Spores

Leukocytes

Pseudohyphae

Epithelial cells

Question.38 Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?

Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms

Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support

Identifying and managing complications of care

All of the above

Question.39 Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

Primary

Secondary

Tertiary

Question.40 Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

Propranolol

Timolol

Ergotamine

Topiramate

Question.41 A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Endometrial hyperplasia

Vagismus

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question. 42 How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

Once a year

Every 6 months

Every 3 months

Every visit

Question.43 A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

Trichomonas

Bacterial vaginosis

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question.44 After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Normal TSH

Low TSH

Undetectable TSH

Question.45 The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:

Good liability insurance

A collaborating physician

Good documentation

Open communication skills

Question.46 The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

1 month.

3 months.

6 months.

12 months.

Question. 47 What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Radical orchidectomy

Lumpectomy

Radiation implants

All of the above

Question. 48 Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? Gastrocnemius weakness

A reduced or absent ankle reflex

Numbness in the lateral foot

Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question.49 Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Cholinesterase inhibitors

Anxiolytics

Antidepressants

Atypical antipsychotics

Question.50 Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Decreased C-reactive protein

Hyperalbuminemia

Morning stiffness

Weight gain

NAPSRx Final Exam

1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?

A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action

B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects

C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects

D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness

2. Bone marrow transplants…

A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.

B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.

C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.

D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.

3. What does AMA stand for?

A. American Medical Academy

B. American Medical Accreditation

C. American Medical Association

D. Association of Medical Assistants

4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?

A. adverse reactions

B. contraindications

C. overdosage

D. warning/precautions

5 What is tertiary care?

A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect

B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems

C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility

D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?

A. brand personality

B. brand positoning

C. brand quality

D. brand values

7 What are vasodilators used to do?

A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow

B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system

C. narrow the blood vessels

D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster

8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?

A. homeostasis

B. steady state

C. titration

D. tolerance

9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?

A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.

B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.

C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.

D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.

10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?

A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies

B. the NIH

C. the U.S. Government

D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies

11. How are most drugs excreted?

A. via the bloodstream

B. via the heart

C. via the kidneys

D. via the skin

12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?

A. Limitations have decreased.

B. Limitations have increased significantly.

C. Limitations have increased slightly.

D. Limitations have remained about the same.

13. Answer: Branding name

14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?

A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.

B. Both drugs are generics.

C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.

D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.

15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?

A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs

B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives

C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives

D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives

16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:

A. MS

B. OH

C. SM

D. SS

17 What is an internist?

A. a physician who practices internal medicine

B. a physician’s intern

C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy

D. an internal sales representative

18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?

A. erythrocytes

B. insulin

C. Lymphocytes

D.HCs

19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?

A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry

B. to become more familiar with their territories

C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.

D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.

20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?

A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.

B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.

C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.

D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.

21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?

A. about 20%

B. about 60%

C. about 70%

D. about 95%

22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?

A. by borrowing them from hospitals

B. by ordering them over the Internet

C. by trading them for services

D. directly from sales representatives

23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?

A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.

B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.

C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.

D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.

24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?

A. cardiology

B. psychiatry

C. urology

D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.

25. What affects the rate of active transport?

A. the availability of carriers. but not energy

B. the availability of energy. but not carriers

C. the availability of carriers and energy

D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy

26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?

A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.

B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing

C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality

D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.

27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?

A. patients liking their providers

B. patients using only one pharmacist

C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs

D. support groups

28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?

A. the drug’s inventor

B. the drug’s manufacturer

C. the FDA

D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council

29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?

A. multipotent

B. pluripotent

C. totipotent

D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.

30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?

A. It decreases.

B. It increases.

C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.

D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.

31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?

A. cardiac and smooth

B. only skeletal

C. skeletal and cardiac

D. skeletal and smooth

32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?

A. the cardiovascular system

B. the cellular system

C. the gastrointestinal system

D. the musculoskeletal system

33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?

A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues

B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence

C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues

D. through genetic mutation

34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?

A. AMA guide

B. Blue Book

C. FDA drug list

D. Orange Book

35. What does subcutaneous mean?

A. beneath the intervention

B. beneath the muscle tissue

C. beneath the outer skin

D. beneath the suture

36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?

A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet

B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet

C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet

D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way

37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.

A. pharmaceutical

B. positive

C. potent

D. primary

39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?

A. distributors and supply chains

B. pharmacists and NAMs

C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors

D. retailers and institutions

40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?

A. contraindicative indication

B. off-indication usage

C or D. off-label

41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?

A. KN

B. PC

C. PK

D. pT

42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.

B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.

C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.

D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.

44. What entity grants drug patents?

A. the FDA

B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription

C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter

D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office

45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?

A. formulation

B. mycoplasma

C. peptide

D. saccharide

46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?

A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.

B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.

C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.

D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.

47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?

A. a certification program

B. an associate’s degree

C. a bachelor’s degree

D. a graduate degree

48. How many names must a drug have?

A. at most three

B. at least three

C. at most five

D. at least five

49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?

Answer: Increasing the cost of capital

50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.

A. three

B. five

C. ten

D. fifteen

51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?

A. DEA

B. FTC

C. OIG

D.TSA

52. What is passive diffusion?

A. a type of pinocytosis

B. membrane transport via vesicles

C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one

D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one

53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?

A. active drugs and active placebos

B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals

C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals

D. prescription and non prescription

54. Answer: Oxytocin

55. What are all metabolites?

A. active substances

B. inactive substances

C. injections

D. products of metabolism

56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?

A. intestine

B. liver

C. pancreas

D. stomach

57. What is the medical term for swelling?

A. assay

B. edema

C. instillation

D. protease

58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?

A. be a consultant. not a rep

B. identify what your product does

C. reflect

D. visualize the power of 10

59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?

A. abstract

B. findings

C. letter to the editor

D . methods

60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?

A. animal lung extract

B. germicides

C. sympathomimetic drugs

D. theophylline

61. What does parenteral mean?

A. child prescriptions

B. injection

C. oral

D. tablet

62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?

A. adjuvant

B. indicated

C. ligase

D peptide

63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?

A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.

B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.

C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.

D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.

64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?

A. active transport

B. homeostasis

C. passive diffusion

D. pinocytosis

65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?

A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.

B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.

C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.

D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.

66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?

A. anatomy

B. antology

C. clinical pharmacology

D. pathology

67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?

A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable

B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality

C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices

D. that they receive too many drug samples

68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?

A. GPO

B. In-state wholesaler

C. PPO

D. RPO

69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?

A. large molecule

B. oligonucleotide

C. orgaanism

D. small molecule

70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?

A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.

B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.

C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.

D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.

71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?

A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products

B. repeating a question you already asked

C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room

D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.

72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?

A. dose-response relationship

B. margin of safety

C. the placebo effect

D. therapeutic window

73. What are excipients?

A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists

B. another term for generic equivalents

C. sites of action besides the target sites of action

D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation

74. What is another term for the AWP?

A. dock-to-dock price

B. float price

C. list price

D. non-stock price

75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?

A. to induce labor

B. to make the urine more alkaline

C. to supplement oral food intake

D. to treat hyperthyroidism

76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?

A. Canada

B. Japan

C. Spain

D. none of these

77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?

A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach

B. to minimize absorption by the intestine

C. to minimize nausea

D. to pass through the stomach more quickly

78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?

A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.

B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.

C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.

D. None of these

79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?

A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.

B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.

C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.

D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.

80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?

A. auscultation

B. cardioversion

C. catheterization

D. echocardiography

81. What do enteric coatings do?

A. facilitate vomiting

B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach

C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly

D. prevent dissolution in the stomach

82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?

A. 6 months

B. 1 year

C. 7 years

D. 15 years

83. What do National Account Managers do?

A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation

B. manage the FDA approval process

C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs

D. sell only to pharmacies

84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?

A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.

B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.

C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.

D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.

85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?

A. Phase I

B. Phase III

C Phase IV

D. Phase IX

86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?

A. preclinical

B. Phase I

C. Phase II

D. Phase III

87. How do antacids work?

A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach

B. by lowering gastric pH

C. by raising gastric pH

D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver

88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. Caterers

B. Pharcists

C. receptionists

D. travel time

89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?

A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions

B. molecules stop moving

C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely

D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely

90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?

A. autologous antigens

B. liposomes

C. naked DNA

D. viruses

91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?

A. margin fee

B. recharge

C. standard fee

D. upcharge

92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?

A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.

B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.

C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.

D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.

93 What is clinical effect?

A. federally funded research condition

B. the effect of maximum dosage

C. the response produced by a medication

D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy

94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?

A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day

B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated

C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name

D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it

95. What is the average circulation time of blood?

A. about a minute

B. about 5 minutes

C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions

D. about 10 minutes

96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?

A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.

B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.

C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.

D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.

97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?

A. brokerages

B. buying clubs

C. manufacturers

D. physicians

98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?

A. a department in pharmaceutical companies

B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services

C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency

D an arm of the FDA

99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?

A. quantity of life over quality of life

B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used

C. the inferiority of OTC drugs

D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life

100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?

A. the drug’s inventor

B. the Food and Drug Administration

C. the United States Adopted Name Council

D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council

101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.

A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.

B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws

C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.

D. none of these

102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?

A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.

B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.

C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.

D. The drug must not be water-soluble.

103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?

A. clinical research organization

B. investigator

C. researcher

D. sponsor

104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.

A. chemical

B. generic

C. pharmaceutical

D. proprietary

105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?

A. acceptable if only the physician attends

B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100

C. acceptable if the total is under $100

D. unacceptable

106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.

A. experiment

B. legislation

C. process

D. research

107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?

A. caliber

B. chronicity

C. indication

D. toxicity

108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?

A. a weaker patients’ rights movement

B. lack of insurance coverage

C. less reliance on the Internet

D. proliferation of herbal remedies

109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?

A. diffusion

B. efficacy

C. protease

D. vector

110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?

A. Choice

B. cost

C. inquiries

D. safety

111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?

A. only if they are branded generics

B. only if they have been contested

C. always

D never

112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?

A. preclinical trials

B. Phase II trials

C. Phase III trials

D. Phase IV trials

113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?

A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.

B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.

C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.

D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.

114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?

A. potentiation

B. ischemia

C. TID

D. titration

115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?

A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies

B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments

C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising

D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing

116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?

A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin

B. lymphatic tissue

C. muscle tissue

D. the stomach, via a special type of needle

117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?

A. adverse effects

B. mechanism of action

C. pharmacokinetics

D. the proprietary name and the established name

118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?

A. pharmacodynamics

B. pharmacogenetics

C. pharmacogenomics

D. pharmacokinetics

119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the

A. closing of the sale

B. first time advantage

C. likeability factor

D. power of knowledge

120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?

A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.

B It inhibits the production of viruses.

C. It prevents proper DNA replication.

D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells

121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?

A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.

B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.

C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.

D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.

122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?

A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.

B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.

C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.

D. all of these

123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?

A. decrease risk of infection

B. increase risk of infection

C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies

D. treat psoriasis

124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?

A. antineoplastics

B. cardiovascular agents

C. CNS agents

D. mitotic inhibitors

125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?

A. en vivo

B. ex vitro

C. ex vivo

D. intra vivo

126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?

A. $5-10 billion

B. $40-50 billion

C. $800-900 billion

D.$ 2-5 trillion

128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?

A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.

B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.

C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.

D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.

129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?

A. cell tolerance

B. cross-tolerance

C. indicated tolerance

D. minimized tolerance

130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.

A. ten

B. fifteen

C. twenty

D. thirty

131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?

A. only under the branded generic name

B. only under the generic name

C. only under the original trade name

D. under the original trade name or a generic name

132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?

A. It causes no serious adverse effects.

B. It causes no side effects.

C. It has an active placebo.

D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.

133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?

A. doctors

B. lawyers and office managers

C. pharmaceutical companies

D. sales representatives

134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is

A. alternative licensure

B. equivalence practice

C. necessitated substitution

D. pharmaceutical substitution

135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?

A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.

B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.

C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.

D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.

136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?

A. DE

B. ED

C. EFD

D. eff D

137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?

A. to assess patients’ expectations

B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness

C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff

D. to assess the subjects’ demographics

138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?

A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.

B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.

C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.

D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.

140. Where are most drugs metabolized?

A. interstitial spaces

B. liver

C. stomach

D . the bloodstream

141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?

A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.

B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.

C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.

D. all of these

142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?

A. Dear Personnel Department.

B. Dear Sir or Madam,

C. Dear Sir

D.To Whom It May Concern.

143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. asking for feedback

B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products

C. keeping your market share goals the same each term

D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals

144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?

A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat

B. the drug’s active metabolites

C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage

D. the drug’s usual dosage range

145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?

A. conditioning

B. deciling

C. detailing

D. private labeling

146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?

A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.

B. It is a new drug.

C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.

D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.

147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.

A. binders

B. disintegrants

C. dispersing agents

D. lubricants

148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?

A. It educates patients on their treatment options.

B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.

C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.

D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.

149. What are the components of the central nervous system?

A. the brain and sense organs

B. the brain and spinal cord

C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system

D. the spinal cord and sense organs

150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?

A. cytology

B. discovery

C. etiology

D. pathology

151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…

A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.

B. …have an autoimmune disease.

C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.

D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.

152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?

A. disease state ads

B. branded billboards and disease state ads

C. branded highway billboards

D. branded radio ads

153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?

A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.

B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.

C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.

D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.

154. What are PBMs?

A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare

B. organizations that design marketing campaigns

C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers

D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications

155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?

A. by limiting the competition

B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market

C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period

D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA

156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?

A.homeostatic maximization

B.steady state administration

C.Sustained release

D.Titration

157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?

A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion

B. dose-response effects

C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction

D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered

158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?

A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.

B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.

C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.

D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.

159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?

A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist

B. another term for a generic prescription drug

C. another term for a prescription drug

D. another term for an OTC drug

160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?

A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle

B. only after the district’s sales representatives

C. only prior to launch

D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.

NAPSRx Final Exam

1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?

A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action

B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects

C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects

D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness

2. Bone marrow transplants…

A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.

B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.

C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.

D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.

3. What does AMA stand for?

A. American Medical Academy

B. American Medical Accreditation

C. American Medical Association

D. Association of Medical Assistants

4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?

A. adverse reactions

B. contraindications

C. overdosage

D. warning/precautions

5 What is tertiary care?

A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect

B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems

C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility

D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?

A. brand personality

B. brand positoning

C. brand quality

D. brand values

7 What are vasodilators used to do?

A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow

B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system

C. narrow the blood vessels

D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster

A. homeostasis

B. steady state

C. titration

D. tolerance

9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?

A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.

B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.

C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.

D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.

10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?

A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies

B. the NIH

C. the U.S. Government

D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies

11. How are most drugs excreted?

A. via the bloodstream

B. via the heart

C. via the kidneys

D. via the skin

12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?

A. Limitations have decreased.

B. Limitations have increased significantly.

C. Limitations have increased slightly.

D. Limitations have remained about the same.

13. Answer: Branding name

14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?

A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.

B. Both drugs are generics.

C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.

D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.

15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?

A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs

B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives

C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives

D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives

16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:

A. MS

B. OH

C. SM

D. SS

17 What is an internist?

A. a physician who practices internal medicine

B. a physician’s intern

C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy

D. an internal sales representative

18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?

A. erythrocytes

B. insulin

C. Lymphocytes

D.HCs

19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?

A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry

B. to become more familiar with their territories

C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.

D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.

20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?

A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.

B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.

C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.

D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.

21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?

A. about 20%

B. about 60%

C. about 70%

D. about 95%

22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?

A. by borrowing them from hospitals

B. by ordering them over the Internet

C. by trading them for services

D. directly from sales representatives

23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?

A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.

B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.

C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.

D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.

24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?

A. cardiology

B. psychiatry

C. urology

D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.

25. What affects the rate of active transport?

A. the availability of carriers. but not energy

B. the availability of energy. but not carriers

C. the availability of carriers and energy

D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy

26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?

A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.

B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing

C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality

D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.

27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?

A. patients liking their providers

B. patients using only one pharmacist

C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs

D. support groups

28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?

A. the drug’s inventor

B. the drug’s manufacturer

C. the FDA

D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council

29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?

A. multipotent

B. pluripotent

C. totipotent

D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.

30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?

A. It decreases.

B. It increases.

C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.

D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.

31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?

A. cardiac and smooth

B. only skeletal

C. skeletal and cardiac

D. skeletal and smooth

32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?

A. the cardiovascular system

B. the cellular system

C. the gastrointestinal system

D. the musculoskeletal system

33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?

A. by activating synapses between different types of tissues

B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence

C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues

D. through genetic mutation

34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?

A. AMA guide

B. Blue Book

C. FDA drug list

D. Orange Book

35. What does subcutaneous mean?

A. beneath the intervention

B. beneath the muscle tissue

C. beneath the outer skin

D. beneath the suture

36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?

A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet

B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet

C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet

D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way

37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.

A. pharmaceutical

B. positive

C. potent

D. primary

39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?

A. distributors and supply chains

B. pharmacists and NAMs

C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors

D. retailers and institutions

40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?

A. contraindicative indication

B. off-indication usage

C or D. off-label

41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?

A. KN

B. PC

C. PK

D. pT

42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.

B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.

C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.

D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.

44. What entity grants drug patents?

A. the FDA

B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription

C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter

D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office

45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?

A. formulation

B. mycoplasma

C. peptide

D. saccharide

46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?

A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.

B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.

C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.

D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.

47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?

A. a certification program

B. an associate’s degree

C. a bachelor’s degree

D. a graduate degree

48. How many names must a drug have?

A. at most three

B. at least three

C. at most five

D. at least five

49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?

Answer: Increasing the cost of capital

50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.

A. three

B. five

C. ten

D. fifteen

51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?

A. DEA

B. FTC

C. OIG

D.TSA

52. What is passive diffusion?

A. a type of pinocytosis

B. membrane transport via vesicles

C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one

D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one

53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?

A. active drugs and active placebos

B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals

C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals

D. prescription and non prescription

54. Answer: Oxytocin

55. What are all metabolites?

A. active substances

B. inactive substances

C. injections

D. products of metabolism

56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?

A. intestine

B. liver

C. pancreas

D. stomach

57. What is the medical term for swelling?

A. assay

B. edema

C. instillation

D. protease

58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?

A. be a consultant. not a rep

B. identify what your product does

C. reflect

D. visualize the power of 10

59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?

A. abstract

B. findings

C. letter to the editor

D . methods

60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?

A. animal lung extract

B. germicides

C. sympathomimetic drugs

D. theophylline

61. What does parenteral mean?

A. child prescriptions

B. injection

C. oral

D. tablet

62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?

A. adjuvant

B. indicated

C. ligase

D peptide

63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?

A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.

B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.

C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.

D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.

64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?

A. active transport

B. homeostasis

C. passive diffusion

D. pinocytosis

65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?

A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.

B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.

C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.

D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.

66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?

A. anatomy

B. antology

C. clinical pharmacology

D. pathology

67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?

A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable

B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality

C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices

D. that they receive too many drug samples

68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?

A. GPO

B. In-state wholesaler

C. PPO

D. RPO

69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?

A. large molecule

B. oligonucleotide

C. orgaanism

D. small molecule

70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?

A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.

B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.

C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.

D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.

71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?

A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products

B. repeating a question you already asked

C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room

D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.

72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?

A. dose-response relationship

B. margin of safety

C. the placebo effect

D. therapeutic window

73. What are excipients?

A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists

B. another term for generic equivalents

C. sites of action besides the target sites of action

D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation

74. What is another term for the AWP?

A. dock-to-dock price

B. float price

C. list price

D. non-stock price

75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?

A. to induce labor

B. to make the urine more alkaline

C. to supplement oral food intake

D. to treat hyperthyroidism

76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?

A. Canada

B. Japan

C. Spain

D. none of these

77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?

A. to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach

B. to minimize absorption by the intestine

C. to minimize nausea

D. to pass through the stomach more quickly

78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?

A. Community health center formularies are more restrictive.

B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.

C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.

D. None of these

79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?

A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.

B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.

C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.

D. Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.

80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?

A. auscultation

B. cardioversion

C. catheterization

D. echocardiography

81. What do enteric coatings do?

A. facilitate vomiting

B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach

C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly

D. prevent dissolution in the stomach

82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?

A. 6 months

B. 1 year

C. 7 years

D. 15 years

83. What do National Account Managers do?

A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation

B. manage the FDA approval process

C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs

D. sell only to pharmacies

84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?

A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.

B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.

C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.

D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.

85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?

A. Phase I

B. Phase III

C Phase IV

D. Phase IX

86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?

A. preclinical

B. Phase I

C. Phase II

D. Phase III

87. How do antacids work?

A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach

B. by lowering gastric pH

C. by raising gastric pH

D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver

88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. Caterers

B. Pharcists

C. receptionists

D. travel time

89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?

A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions

B. molecules stop moving

C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely

D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely

90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?

A. autologous antigens

B. liposomes

C. naked DNA

D. viruses

91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?

A. margin fee

B. recharge

C. standard fee

D. upcharge

92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?

A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.

B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.

C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.

D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.

93 What is clinical effect?

A. federally funded research condition

B. the effect of maximum dosage

C. the response produced by a medication

D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy

94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?

A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day

B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated

C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name

D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it

95. What is the average circulation time of blood?

A. about a minute

B. about 5 minutes

C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions

D. about 10 minutes

96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?

A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.

B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.

C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.

D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.

97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?

A. brokerages

B. buying clubs

C. manufacturers

D. physicians

98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?

A. a department in pharmaceutical companies

B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services

C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency

D an arm of the FDA

99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?

A. quantity of life over quality of life

B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used

C. the inferiority of OTC drugs

D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life

100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?

A. the drug’s inventor

B. the Food and Drug Administration

C. the United States Adopted Name Council

D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council

101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.

A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.

B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws

C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.

D. none of these

102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?

A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.

B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.

C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.

D. The drug must not be water-soluble.

103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?

A. clinical research organization

B. investigator

C. researcher

D. sponsor

104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.

A. chemical

B. generic

C. pharmaceutical

D. proprietary

105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?

A. acceptable if only the physician attends

B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100

C. acceptable if the total is under $100

D. unacceptable

106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.

A. experiment

B. legislation

C. process

D. research

107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?

A. caliber

B. chronicity

C. indication

D. toxicity

108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?

A. a weaker patients’ rights movement

B. lack of insurance coverage

C. less reliance on the Internet

D. proliferation of herbal remedies

109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?

A. diffusion

B. efficacy

C. protease

D. vector

110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?

A. Choice

B. cost

C. inquiries

D. safety

111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?

A. only if they are branded generics

B. only if they have been contested

C. always

D never

112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?

A. preclinical trials

B. Phase II trials

C. Phase III trials

D. Phase IV trials

113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?

A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.

B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.

C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.

D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.

114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?

A. potentiation

B. ischemia

C. TID

D. titration

115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?

A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies

B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments

C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising

D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing

116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?

A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin

B. lymphatic tissue

C. muscle tissue

D. the stomach, via a special type of needle

117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?

A. adverse effects

B. mechanism of action

C. pharmacokinetics

D. the proprietary name and the established name

118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?

A. pharmacodynamics

B. pharmacogenetics

C. pharmacogenomics

D. pharmacokinetics

119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the

A. closing of the sale

B. first time advantage

C. likeability factor

D. power of knowledge

120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?

A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.

B It inhibits the production of viruses.

C. It prevents proper DNA replication.

D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells

121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?

A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.

B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.

C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.

D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.

122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?

A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.

B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.

C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.

D. all of these

123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?

A. decrease risk of infection

B. increase risk of infection

C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies

D. treat psoriasis

124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?

A. antineoplastics

B. cardiovascular agents

C. CNS agents

D. mitotic inhibitors

125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?

A. en vivo

B. ex vitro

C. ex vivo

D. intra vivo

126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?

A. $5-10 billion

B. $40-50 billion

C. $800-900 billion

D.$ 2-5 trillion

128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?

A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.

B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.

C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.

D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.

129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?

A. cell tolerance

B. cross-tolerance

C. indicated tolerance

D. minimized tolerance

130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.

A. ten

B. fifteen

C. twenty

D. thirty

131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?

A. only under the branded generic name

B. only under the generic name

C. only under the original trade name

D. under the original trade name or a generic name

132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?

A. It causes no serious adverse effects.

B. It causes no side effects.

C. It has an active placebo.

D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.

133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?

A. doctors

B. lawyers and office managers

C. pharmaceutical companies

D. sales representatives

134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is

A. alternative licensure

B. equivalence practice

C. necessitated substitution

D. pharmaceutical substitution

135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?

A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.

B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.

C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.

D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.

136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?

A. DE

B. ED

C. EFD

D. eff D

137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?

A. to assess patients’ expectations

B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness

C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff

D. to assess the subjects’ demographics

138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?

A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.

B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.

C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.

D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.

140. Where are most drugs metabolized?

A. interstitial spaces

B. liver

C. stomach

D . the bloodstream

141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?

A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.

B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.

C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.

D. all of these

142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?

A. Dear Personnel Department.

B. Dear Sir or Madam,

C. Dear Sir

D.To Whom It May Concern.

143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. asking for feedback

B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products

C. keeping your market share goals the same each term

D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals

144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?

A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat

B. the drug’s active metabolites

C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage

D. the drug’s usual dosage range

145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?

A. conditioning

B. deciling

C. detailing

D. private labeling

146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?

A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.

B. It is a new drug.

C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.

D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.

147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.

A. binders

B. disintegrants

C. dispersing agents

D. lubricants

148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?

A. It educates patients on their treatment options.

B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.

C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.

D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.

149. What are the components of the central nervous system?

A. the brain and sense organs

B. the brain and spinal cord

C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system

D. the spinal cord and sense organs

150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?

A. cytology

B. discovery

C. etiology

D. pathology

151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…

A. …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.

B. …have an autoimmune disease.

C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.

D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.

152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?

A. disease state ads

B. branded billboards and disease state ads

C. branded highway billboards

D. branded radio ads

153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?

A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.

B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.

C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.

D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.

154. What are PBMs?

A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare

B. organizations that design marketing campaigns

C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers

D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications

155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?

A. by limiting the competition

B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market

C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period

D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA

156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?

A.homeostatic maximization

B.steady state administration

C.Sustained release

D.Titration

157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?

A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion

B. dose-response effects

C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction

D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered

158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?

A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.

B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.

C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.

D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.

159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?

A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist

B. another term for a generic prescription drug

C. another term for a prescription drug

D. another term for an OTC drug

160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?

A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle

B. only after the district’s sales representatives

C. only prior to launch

D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.

Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz

Question 1

A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?

a. K

b. D

c. E

d. B12

Question 2

A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

a. Sideroblastic anemia

b. Hemolytic anemia

c. Pernicious anemia

d. Iron deficiency anemia

Question 3

For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:

a. Proliferated

b. Activated

c. Sequestered

d. Infected

Question 4

A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?

A. Collagen

B. Fibrinogen

C. Thrombin

D. Fibrin

Question 5

A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:

a. Defective DNA synthesis

b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin

c. Defective use of vitamin C

d. Blocked protein synthesis

Question 6

A 62-year-old female tells her health care provider she has been experiencing regular night sweats that cause her to wake up drenched. She also remarks that she has been unintentionally losing weight. Physical exam reveals enlarged lymph nodes on her neck that do not appear to be painful. She should be screened for which of the following cancers?

a. Epstein-Barr virus

b. Hodgkin lymphoma

c. Acute leukemia

d. Burkitt lymphoma

Question 7

A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:

a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.

b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.

c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.

d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.

Question 8

A 60-year-old female emphysema patient experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness, and fatigue with exertion. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand?

a. Bronchoconstriction

b. Increased rate and depth of breathing

c. Dyspnea

d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response

Question 9

A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.

a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

b. Eosinophils

c. Basophils

d. Neutrophils

Question 10

While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:

a. 1,000-2,000/mm3

b. 5,000-10,000/mm3

c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3

d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3

Question 11

A 65-year-old male experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before his death. Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:

a. Brain hypoxia

b. Liver hypoxia

c. Heart failure

d. Kidney failure

Question 12

A 34-year-old male presents in the emergency room with extreme fatigue and shortness of breath. His skin and sclera appear to have a yellowish discoloration. These assessment findings are consistent with which type of anemia?

a. Posthemorrhagic anemia

b. Iron deficiency anemia

c. Aplastic anemia

d. Hemolytic anemia

Question 13

The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?

a. United States

b. Japan

c. Denmark

d. Great Britain

Question 14

After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?

a. Increased viscosity of blood

b. Decreased cardiac output

c. Altered coagulation

d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state

Question 15

Thrombocytopenia may be:

a. Transient or consistent

b. Normal or abnormal

c. Congenital or acquired

d. Active or inactive

Question 16

A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?

a. Monocyte

b. Macrophage

c. Lymphocyte

d. Eosinophils

Question 17

A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:

a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)

c. Hodgkin lymphoma

d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Question 18

A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?

a. Movement of fluid into the cell

b. Decreased cardiac output

c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin

d. Peripheral vasoconstriction

Question 19

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

a. Iron deficiency anemia

b. Pernicious anemia

c. Sideroblastic anemia

d. Hemolytic anemia

Question 20

A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:

a. Erythrocytes

b. Spleen pulp

c. Bone marrow

d. Liver tissue

Question 21

A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:

a. Vitamin B12 deficiency

b. Iron deficiency

c. Folate deficiency

d. Bone marrow failure

Question 22

During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:

a. Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.

b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.

c. Microorganisms are accumulating.

d. The nodes are not functioning properly.

Question 23

How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

a. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.

b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.

c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.

d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.

Question 24

A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:

a. Bone marrow transplant

b. Immunotherapy

c. Chemotherapy

d. Localized radiation therapy

Question 25

A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?

a. Eosinophilia

b. Basophilia

c. Monocytosis

d. Lymphocytosis

Question 26

While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:

a. Leukocytes

b. Lymphocytes

c. Erythrocytes

d. Thrombocytes

Question 27

A 10-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, night sweats, fever, and weight loss. He is diagnosed with Burkitt lymphoma. Upon obtaining the history, which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

b. Adenovirus

c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Question 28

A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:

a. Lymph node enlargement.

b. Fever and sore throat

c. Rash on the trunk and extremities

d. Fatigue

e. Enlargement of liver and spleen

Question 29

A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:

a. Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes

b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation

c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding

d. Activate a humoral response

Question 30

A 20-year-old female undergoes lab testing for anemia.Results show high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis to be documented on the chart?

a. Pernicious anemia

b. Folate deficiency anemia

c. Iron deficiency anemia

d. Sideroblastic anemia

Question 31

A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?

a. Leukocytosis

b. Hypoglycemia

c. Decreased red blood cell count

d. Decreased platelets

Question 32

When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:

a. Hyperchromic

b. Hypochromic

c. Macrocytic

d. Microcytic

Question 33

In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:

a. Prothrombin is activated.

b. Clotting factors are depleted.

c. Inflammatory mediators are released.

d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.

Question 34

A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?

a. Hyperactivity

b. Spoon-shaped nails

c. Gait problems

d. Petechiae

Question 35

The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?

a. Serum ferritin

b. Transferrin saturation

c. Bone marrow biopsy

d. Total iron-binding capacity

PAD 599 Competency Assessment

Question 1
1. A process-oriented definition of “democracy” emphasizes
equality of result.
the ways in which government works,
that everyone is equal.
the ambiguity of the term “democracy.”
1 points
Question 2
1. Benchmarking performance improvement programs means
targeted specific programs or functions.
achieved some dramatic results.
attempted to combine reduction of costs with increases in quality and timeliness.
using standards and points of comparisons
1 points
Question 3
1. The idea of equality in American democratic thought generally refers to
equality of talent and ability.
equality of material possessions as an ideal.
an equal claim to life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
the idea that the integrity of the individual is of supreme importance.
1 points
Question 4
1. The unusual visibility of the public administrator
is rooted in the public purposes that are pursued.
is rooted in the tendency toward corruption.
is similar to the business administrator’s visibility.
does not affect efficiency and responsiveness issues.
1 points
Question 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of New Public Management?
organizations need to be mission-driven
organizations need to be incentive-based.
organizations need to be centralized.
organizations need to be responsive inter-organizational networks
1 points
Question 6
1. In a democratic society, which is NOT a characteristic of pluralistic decision making?
is a common feature of government.
involves the participation by many groups and officials in governmental decisions.
is a distinguishing feature that differentiates public and business administration.
reduces the accountability of public officials
1 points
Question 7
1. The Office of Management and Budget is
a feature of each state’s budget-making apparatus.
concerned solely with evaluation of the fiscal efficiency of management practices.
located in the Congress as an advisory body.
the White House office charged with the actual preparation of the executive budget proposal that is conveyed to Congress.
1 points
Question 8
1. An example of “clientele support” is
the American Association of Retired Persons’ lobbying of Congress in support of Social Security Administration budgets.
when the supervisors of the budget officer support that person.
the National Rifle Association’s lobbying of Congress in support of better urban transportation systems.
When the budget officer enjoys the support of the chief executive.
1 points
Question 9
1. As a management tool, the budget steps include
proposal, amendment, passage.
incremental, rational, bargained agreements.
budget formation, approval, execution, and audit.
committee hearings, mark-up, and report of budgets.
1 points
Question 10
1. Fiscal policy is concerned principally with
the amount of money in circulation in the economy.
funding of government programs.
the impact of government taxation and expenditures of the economy.
the business cycle.
1 points
Question 11
1. A grant by the federal government to a state or locality may be in the form of a block grant, which is
funding provided for a specific purpose or project.
for any purpose officials may select (within the law).
funding provided for a general program or functional area.
funding for a specific city block or neighborhood.
1 points
Question 12
1. About half of all local government revenue is obtained from the ______.
property tax
income tax
sales tax
payroll tax
1 points
Question 13
1. Internal sources of bureaucratic power include
clientele groups.
information and expertise.
vague legislative enactments.
power-hungry administrators.
1 points
Question 14
1. The writing of vague policy and law by the Congress implies what for government agencies?
Highly restricted agency action.
The lack of administrative discretion.
A highly accountable government agency.
An opportunity for government agencies to shape policy through implementation.
1 points
Question 15
1. The strong mayor system of city government
is rarely used in larger American cities.
provides for the mayor to have a great deal of administrative and budgetary authority.
is most common in small mid-western towns.
does not give city councils policymaking authority
1 points
Question 16
1. Inputs into the systems model of politics and policy include
Laws, regulations, and decisions.
Election results, public opinion, communication to elected officials, and personal experiences of decision makers.
Rules developed by administrative agencies.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 17
1. Any issue, problem or idea that could be considered in the policy process that does not fall outside various social and political norms in a particular society is found on the
agenda universe.
systemic agenda.
institutional agenda.
decision agenda.
1 points
Question 18
1. Public agencies
write public policy proposals.
do not provide testimony in support of policy proposals.
have no role in formulating public policy.
are not involved in the policy process
1 points
Question 19
1. Public policies are
the laws.
made only in Congress.
never made by public administrators.
authoritative statements by legitimate governmental actors about public problems.
1 points
Question 20
1. Viewing public service in an ethical dimension involves recognition that actions taken by public administrators to carry out public policy
include an effort to discover or clarify the public interest.
are always subject to examination by legislators.
will always involve moral dilemmas.
are amoral, since they involve power.
1 points
Question 21
1. The Pendleton Act of 1883 prohibited
active participation in political campaigns by federal employees.
political contributions by any federal employee.
state employees from engaging in election campaign work.
federal employees from serving as delegates to a party convention.
1 points
Question 22
1. The tension between efficiency and responsiveness is rooted in
issues of effectiveness versus equity.
issues of bureaucracy versus democracy.
responsibility and irresponsibility.
federalism
1 points
Question 23
1. The idea that a bureaucracy of professionals, who follow the mandates of a legislature, can meet the administrative requirements of a democracy is called the doctrine of
hierarchical organization.
the spoils system.
neutral competency.
the iron law of oligarchy.
1 points
Question 24
1. When the administrator attempts to make a judgment concerning the desires of the public with respect to his/her tasks, this is an example of_____.
objective responsibility
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 25
1. A way of insuring administrative responsiveness that focuses on strict legislative supervision and tightly drawn statutes is ______.
subjective responsibility
representative bureaucracy
objective responsibility
participatory decision making
1 points
Question 26
1. The cost-effectiveness approach involves
a focus on identifying the impacts of alternative proposals.
translating “effective” approaches into their dollar values.
avoiding the use of dollar values in assessing either the effectiveness or costs associated with a proposal.
identifying the critical path in a project.
1 points
Question 27
1. A common limitation of quantitative techniques for selecting a policy alternative is
the difficulty of assigning dollar value to such variables as pain, suffering, and lives saved.
the inability to take account of the effects of inflation.
lack of access to computers.
the lack of quantitative methods
1 points
Question 28
1. In the effort to contract out governmental activities
non-governmental organizations have taken on governmental roles.
no new ethical questions concerning the motives of service-providers are raised.
existing mechanisms for control and accountability will continue to work well.
little challenge to issues of democratic values is involved.
1 points
Question 29
1. Which of the following is NOT a problem faced by researchers involved in the conduct of a true experiment in a social program?
identifying the treatment or intervention
difficulty in establishing two comparable groups, one experimental, the other a control group.
ethical concern for the fate of participants in the experimental group.
establishing randomness in assignment of persons to the experimental or control group.
1 points
Question 30
1. In an experiment, the control group is
the recipient of intervention or treatment.
unnecessary.
unknown to the experimenter.
not the recipient of intervention or treatment.
1 points
Question 31
1. Someone studying the number of lives saved as a result of the national government’s automobile safety regulations would conduct
an outcomes evaluation.
a process evaluation.
an experiment.
intensive interviews.
1 points
Question 32
1. The compilation of all federal rules currently in effect is:
Code of Federal Regulations
U.S. Code
Federal Register
U.S. Code Annotated
1 points
Question 33
1. The U.S. Supreme Court has held that local zoning regulations are constitutional if:
They bear a rational relation to the health and safety of the community
They are uniformly applied throughout the state
They do not restrict commercial development
Owners are paid fair market value compensation if the uses of their property are restricted
1 points
Question 34
1. Which of the following most accurately describes how to read a statute:
All relevant statutory provisions will be collected into a single section
Although there may be multiple publications containing statutes only the official publication will always be up to date
Internet versions are always more reliable than the print versions
Both print and Internet versions should be checked for later changes
1 points
Question 35
1. On what basis did the U.S. Supreme Court find that the Equal Protection Clause applied to the federal government?
The express terms of the Constitution
Combined with due process it is part of basic fairness
The Ninth Amendment
The Sixth Amendment
1 points
Question 36
1. To what extent must criminal trials be open to the public?
They may be closed only to protect a compelling governmental interest in a manner narrowly tailored to that purpose
They may never be closed
They may be closed at the judge’s discretion
They may be closed except for a right of press access
1 points
Question 37
1. Corpus Juris Secundum is:
A legal encyclopedia with broad coverage of most legal subjects
An Internet update service
The principle that an opinion should be followed unless the law has changed
The principle that statutes should always be double-checked
1 points
Question 38
1. An agency rule that explains an agency’s understanding of the law or its regulations is known as:
Substantive
Interpretive
Procedural
Appellate
1 points
Question 39
1. POSDCORB
is an acronym developed by Woodrow Wilson
refers to the functions of public management.
refers to the functions of the post office.
is a type of organizational structure
1 points
Question 40
1. Arbitration in labor-management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 41
1. Mediation in labor management negotiations
uses a neutral third party to negotiate a settlement.
uses a third party to investigate and issue specific recommendations concerning a settlement.
is a fact-finding process, normally followed by binding recommendations.
does not occur in the governmental sector.
1 points
Question 42
1. In recent years state and local merit systems in the personnel function
have contracted as a result of due process requirements based on court decisions.
have become weaker as a result of pressure from the federal government.
have been strengthened as a result of expanding public employee due process protection provided by courts.
have been dominated by political party machines.
1 points
Question 43
1. The Pendleton Act provided for
establishment of a Human Rights Commission.
mandated federal employee contributions to election campaigns.
merit-based selection of government employees.
the spoils system
1 points
Question 44
1. Employers are responsible for the acts of their employees’ negligence:
Only if the employee’s act was intentional
Only if the employer failed to give warnings of foreseeable harm
If the negligent act was within the scope of authority associated with the work
Only if the negligent act was not within the scope of authority associated with the work
1 points
Question 45
1. One of the main criticisms of globalization is that it
makes the powerful more powerful and wealthy.
actually makes everyone less well off.
outsources jobs from developing to developed countries.
prevents poorer countries from expanding their economies.
1 points
Question 46
1. Democratic peace theory asserts that
there is a connection between regime type and war.
the balance of power in the international system is predictive of conflict.
countries with stagnant economies are more likely to engage in war.
religious fundamentalism is an important factor behind conflict.
1 points
Question 47
1. A primary objective for both insurgency and guerilla warfare is to
defeat the enemy on the field of battle.
raise the costs of conflict as higher than any benefit to the attacker.
force the intervention of the UN to end the conflict.
use high-tech weapons against the attacker.
1 points
Question 48
1. International politics is an area in which vital decisions are made based on
understandings of cause and effect.
fear and misunderstanding.
political will.
moral guidance.
1 points
Question 49
1. The U.S. government wants China to allow its currency to increase in value in order to
raise the value of the U.S. dollar.
help moderate the American trade deficit with China.
lower American interest rates.
create competitive devaluation.
1 points
Question 50
1. The evolution of today’s international system has been dominated by
the expansion of colonialism.
the development of a system of sovereign states in Europe and its spread to the rest of the world.
the establishment of the United Nations and its growing influence.
the development of the Cold War in the twentieth century.

Walden NURS6501 Week 8

Walden NURS6501 Week 8 Quiz latest

Question 1

A 40-year-old female presents complaining of pain near the midline in the epigastrium. Assuming the pain is caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ, the pain felt is classified as:

a. Visceral
b. Somatic
c. Parietal
d. Referred

Question 2

An 8-week-old male was recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following digestive alterations would be expected?

a. Insufficient bile production
b. Gastric atrophy
c. Hypersecretion of stomach acid
d. Nutrient malabsorption

Question 3

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:

a. acetaldehyde accumulation.
b. bile toxicity.
c. acidosis.
d. fatty infiltrations.

Question 4

Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?

a. Sinusoids
b. Bile ducts
c. Hepatic portal vein
d. Hepatic artery

Question 5

Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:

a. fat-soluble vitamins.
b. carbohydrates.
c. protein.
d. calcium and magnesium.

Question 6

A 27-year-old male presents with fever, GI bleeding, hepatomegaly, and transient joint pain. He reports that as a child he received blood transfusions following a motor vehicle accident. He also indicates he was vaccinated against hepatitis B. Which of the following types of hepatitis does the clinician think he most likely has?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Question 7

Prolonged diarrhea is more serious in children than adults because:

a. children have lower adipose reserves.
b. fluid reserves are lower in children.
c. children have a lower metabolic rate.
d. children are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy.

Question 8

A 40-year-old male develops an intestinal obstruction related to protrusion of the intestine through the inguinal ring. This condition is referred to as:

a. Intussusception
b. A volvulus
c. A hernia
d. Adhesions

Question 9

A 60-year-old male presents with GI bleeding and abdominal pain. He reports that he takes NSAIDs daily to prevent heart attack. Tests reveal that he has a peptic ulcer. The most likely cause of this disease is:

a. Increasing subepithelial bicarbonate production
b. Accelerating the H+ (proton) pump in parietal cells
c. Inhibiting mucosal prostaglandin synthesis
d. Stimulating a shunt of mucosal blood flow

Question 10

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a. Right lower quadrant
b. Right upper quadrant
c. Epigastric
d. Suprapubic

Question 11

A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with cancer of the esophagus. Which of the following factors most likely contributed to his disease?

a. Reflux esophagitis
b. Intestinal parasites
c. Ingestion of salty foods
d. Frequent use of antacids

Question 12

The primary complication of enterocolitis associated with Hirschsprung disease is related to which finding?

a. Fecal impaction
b. Pancreatic insufficiency
c. Hyperactive peristalsis
d. Ileal atresia

Question 13

The most common cause of chronic vascular insufficiency among the elderly is:

a. Anemia
b. Aneurysm
c. Lack of nutrition in gut lumen
d. Atherosclerosis

Question 14

The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.

a. rectal
b. duodenal
c. esophageal
d. intestinal

Question 15

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.This condition is most likely caused by:

a. Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels
b. Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions
c. Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement
d. Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

Question 16

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

a. Constipation
b. Diarrhea
c. Vomiting
d. Heartburn

Question 17

A 55-year-old male died in a motor vehicle accident. Autopsy revealed an enlarged liver caused by fatty infiltration, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. The most likely cause of his condition is:

a. Bacterial infection
b. Viral infection
c. Alcoholism
d. Drug overdose

Question 18

Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

a. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
b. fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. impaired ammonia metabolism.
d. decreased cerebral blood flow.

Question 19

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

a. diverticulosis.
b. hemorrhoids.
c. esophageal varices.
d. cancer.

Question 20

A 3-month-old female develops colicky pain, abdominal distention, and diarrhea after drinking cow’s milk. The best explanation for her symptoms is:

a. Deficiency of bile that stimulates digestive secretions and bowel motility
b. Excess of amylase, which increases the breakdown of starch and causes an osmotic diarrhea
c. Overgrowth of bacteria from undigested fat molecules, which leads to gas formation and de creased bowel motility
d. Excess of undigested lactose in her digestive tract, resulting in increased fluid movement into the digestive lumen and increased bowel motility

Question 21

A 55-year-old female has general symptoms of gallstones but is also jaundiced. IV cholangiography would most likely reveal that the gallstones are obstructing the:

a. Intrahepatic bile canaliculi
b. Gallbladder
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct

Question 22

A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal hypoxic injury to the bowel resulting in bacterial invasion and perforation. This condition is referred to as:

a. Infective enteropathy
b. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
c. Mucoviscidosis
d. Ileus

Question 23

For the patient experiencing esophageal reflux, the nurse would expect which sphincter to be malfunctioning?

a. Pyloric
b. Lower esophageal
c. Upper esophageal
d. Gastric

Question 24

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

a. accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.
b. obstruction of the cystic duct by a gall-stone.
c. accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.
d. viral infection of the gallbladder.

Question 25

A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of “currant jelly” stool. Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve and invaginated into the large intestine. This type of obstruction is referred to as:

a. Prolapse
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Intussusception
d. Imperforation

Question 26

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.

a. Infectious
b. Cushing
c. Ischemic
d. Curling

Question 27

Chronic gastritis is classified according to the:

a. severity.
b. location of lesions.
c. patient’s age.
d. signs and symptoms.

Question 28

Reflux esophagitis is defined as a(n):

a. Immune response to gastroesophageal reflux
b. Inflammatory response to gastroesophageal reflux
c. Congenital anomaly
d. Secretory response to hiatal hernia

Question 29

The cardinal signs of small bowel obstruction are:

a. Vomiting and distention
b. Diarrhea and excessive thirst
c. Dehydration and epigastric pain
d. Abdominal pain and rectal bleeding

Question 30

The nurse assessing the patient with biliary atresia would expect to find which primary clinical manifestation?

a. Anemia
b. Jaundice
c. Hypobilirubinemia
d. Ascites

Question 31

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

a. Motility
b. Hypotonic
c. Secretory
d. Osmotic

Question 32

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

a. Pattern of remission/exacerbations
b. Abdominal pain
c. Malabsorption
d. Diarrhea

Question 33

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:

a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Gastric cancer
d. Achalasia

Question 34

The exocrine portion of the pancreas contains:

a. alpha cells.
b. beta cells.
c. acinar cells.
d. islets of Langerhans.

Question 35

Outbreaks of hepatitis _____ often occur in young children attending day care centers and can be attributed to poor hand washing.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz

Question 1

A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?

a. K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2

A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

a. Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3

For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:

a. Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4

A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?

A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin

Question 5

A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:

a. Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6

a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma

Question 7

A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:

a. The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.

Question 8

a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response

Question 9

A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.

a. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils

Question 10

While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:

a. 1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3

Question 11

a. Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure

Question 12

a. Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

Question 13

The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?

a. United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14

After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?

a. Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15

Thrombocytopenia may be:

a. Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16

A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?

a. Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils

Question 17

A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:

a. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Question 18

A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?

a. Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

Question 20

A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:

a. Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue

Question 21

A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:

a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22

During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes. Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender b

because:

Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.

Question 23

How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.

Question 24

A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:

Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25

A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?

Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26

While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:

Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes

Question 27

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Question 28

A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:

Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen

Question 29

A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:

Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response

Question 30

Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia

Question 31

A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?

Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets

Question 32

When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:

Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33

In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:

Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34

A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?

Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae

Question 35

The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?

Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity

Walden NURS6501 Week 7 Quiz

Question 1

A 52-year-old male IV drug user was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He is now experiencing impaired blood clotting. The nurse suspects a decrease in which of the following vitamins?

K
b. D
c. E
d. B12
Question 2

A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

Sideroblastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
Question 3

For a patient experiencing hypersplenism, the nurse expects the erythrocytes to be:

Proliferated
b. Activated
c. Sequestered
d. Infected
Question 4

A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make?

Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
C. Thrombin
D. Fibrin

Question 5

A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia. The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:

Defective DNA synthesis
b. Abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin
c. Defective use of vitamin C
d. Blocked protein synthesis
Question 6

Epstein-Barr virus
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Acute leukemia
d. Burkitt lymphoma

Question 7

A nurse checks individuals with liver disease for clotting problems because:

The liver is often the site of platelet pooling.
b. Clotting factors are produced in the liver.
c. High levels of bilirubin interfere with the clotting system.
d. Treatment medications for liver failure cause fibrinolysis.

Question 8

Bronchoconstriction
b. Increased rate and depth of breathing
c. Dyspnea
d. Activation of the renin-angiotensin response

Question 9

A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis. Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.

Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Neutrophils

Question 10

While checking lab results, the nurse remembers the normal leukocyte count is:

1,000-2,000/mm3
b. 5,000-10,000/mm3
c. 4.2-6.2 million/mm3
d. 1.2-2.2 million/mm3

Question 11

Brain hypoxia
b. Liver hypoxia
c. Heart failure
d. Kidney failure

Question 12

Posthemorrhagic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

Question 13

The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?

United States
b. Japan
c. Denmark
d. Great Britain
Question 14

After initial compensation, what hemodynamic change should the nurse monitor for in a patient who has a reduction in the number of circulating erythrocytes?

Increased viscosity of blood
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Altered coagulation
d. Hyperdynamic circulatory state
Question 15

Thrombocytopenia may be:

Transient or consistent
b. Normal or abnormal
c. Congenital or acquired
d. Active or inactive
Question 16

A group of cells isolated in the laboratory have membrane-bound granules in their cytoplasm and they show phagocytic activity.Which of the following cells is most similar?

Monocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophils

Question 17

A nurse monitors for the most common childhood cancer, which is:

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Question 18

A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood.Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?

Movement of fluid into the cell
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Decreased oxygen release from hemoglobin
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Question 19

A newborn is diagnosed with congenital intrinsic factor deficiency. Which of the following types of anemia will the nurse see documented on the chart?

Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

Question 20

A staff member wants to know where the greatest proportion of iron is located. How should the nurse respond? The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the:

Erythrocytes
b. Spleen pulp
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver tissue

Question 21

A 67-year-old female has chronic gastrointestinal bleeding.A nurse recalls the primary cause of her anemia is:

Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Folate deficiency
d. Bone marrow failure
Question 22

During an infection, the nurse assesses the lymph nodes.Lymph nodes enlarge and become tender because:

Lymphocytes are rapidly dividing.
b. Edema accumulates within the fibrous capsule.
c. Microorganisms are accumulating.
d. The nodes are not functioning properly.

Question 23

How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion in the urine.
b. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes.
c. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity.
d. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample.

Question 24

A 5-year-old female is diagnosed with acute leukemia. The nurse will most likely treat this patient with:

Bone marrow transplant
b. Immunotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Localized radiation therapy
Question 25

A 35-year-old male with hyperthyroidism begins treatment to decrease thyroid activity. A nurse monitors for which of the following conditions that could result secondary to the treatment?

Eosinophilia
b. Basophilia
c. Monocytosis
d. Lymphocytosis
Question 26

While reviewing lab results, the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are:

Leukocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes

Question 27

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Question 28

A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When the patient asks how he got this disease, how should the nurse respond? The most likely cause is:

Lymph node enlargement.
b. Fever and sore throat
c. Rash on the trunk and extremities
d. Fatigue
e. Enlargement of liver and spleen

Question 29

A nurse is teaching the staff about platelets. Which information should the nurse include? In addition to playing a role in hemostasis, platelets have the ability to:

Stimulate bone marrow production of erythrocytes
b. Release biochemical mediators of inflammation
c. Undergo cell division in response to bleeding
d. Activate a humoral response

Question 30

Pernicious anemia
b. Folate deficiency anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Sideroblastic anemia

Question 31

A 45-year-old female undergoes a splenectomy to remove a tumor. Which of the following assessment finding is most likely to occur following surgery?

Leukocytosis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased platelets

Question 32

When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:

Hyperchromic
b. Hypochromic
c. Macrocytic
d. Microcytic
Question 33

In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse assesses for active bleeding after intravascular clotting because:

Prothrombin is activated.
b. Clotting factors are depleted.
c. Inflammatory mediators are released.
d. Tissue factor (TF) is inactivated.
Question 34

A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?

Hyperactivity
b. Spoon-shaped nails
c. Gait problems
d. Petechiae

Question 35

The nurse will check which of the following tests to directly measure iron stores?

Serum ferritin
b. Transferrin saturation
c. Bone marrow biopsy
d. Total iron-binding capacity

PAD 599 Competency Assessment

NURS6521 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017

Question 1 A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is A.Antianxiety

B.Narcotic Analgesics

C.Barbituates

D.Antitussives

Question 2 A nurse has just completed a medication history on a newly admitted patient. In order to complete medication reconciliation for this patient the nurse will

A.Provide instructions pertaining to each medication the patient is currently taking and thenadd the medications ordered during the hospitalization.

B.compare the medications ordered by the health care provider with the list of medicationsobtained from the patient and communicate discrepancies to the health care provider.

C.explain to the patient the pharmacokinetics of each drug he will be taking in the hospital. D.determine the best pharmacy for the patient to buy his medications

Question 3 A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a

C-I drug.
C-II drug.
C-III drug.
C-IV drug

Question 4 A nurse works in a private hospital and needs to administer some narcotic drugs to one of her patients. Which of the following should the nurse consider when administering narcotics to patients in a hospital setting?

Narcotics are banned in private settings and cannot be used.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital after obtaining written approval from the Joint Commission for Accreditation of Hospitals and Healthcare Organizations(JCAHO).
Narcotics to be used in the hospital are dispensed only with a written prescription.
Narcotics can be used in the hospital according to patient preferences

Question 5 Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for abuse, both psychological and physiologic. In an emergency, a Schedule 2 drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within 72 hours with the words authorization for emergency dispensing written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates. This is scheduled drug

A.Schedule 1

B.Schedule 2

C.Schedule 3

D.Schedule 4

Question 6 A nurse receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The nurse begins the process by

A.washing his or her hands before handling the medications.

B.consulting a drug guide for compatibility.

C.identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient to state his name.

D.questioning the patient concerning allergies.

Question 7 A nurse working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the nurse be responsible for during this stage of drug development?

Working with animals who are given experimental drugs
Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, whohave the disease that the drug is meant to treat
Administering investigational drugs to patients
Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occurfrom taking an experimental drug

Question 8 Federal legislation dictates a lengthy and rigorous process of testing for new drugs. What is the primary purpose of this testing process?

To protect state and federal departments from legal liability
To maximize autonomy and treatment options for citizens
To facilitate the efficiency of health care delivery
To ensure the safety of the public

Question 9 These drugs have a potential for abuse, but the potential is lower than for drugs on Schedule 2. These drugs contain a combination of controlled and noncontrolled substances. Use of these drugs can cause a moderate to low physiologic dependence and a higher psychological dependence. A verbal order can be given to the pharmacy and the prescription can be refilled up to five times within 6 months. Examples include certain narcotics (codeine) and nonbarbiturate sedatives. This is scheduled drug

Schedule 3
Schedule 4
Schedule 5
Schedule 2

Question 10 Which of the following patients should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine?

A 47-year-old female with hypertension
A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes
A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection
A 62-year-old male with gout

Question 11 Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use.They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this?

Schedule 1
Schedule 2
Schedule 3
Schedule 4

Question 12 A patient has taken an overdose of a vitamin/mineral supplement containing magnesium. The nurse will be sure to assess

blood pressure.
body temperature.
fluid intake.
skin changes

Question 13 A nurse practitioner understands when prescribing a medication that there are certain questions to address. Check all that apply.

A.Is there a need for the drug in treating the presenting problem?

B.Is this the best drug for the presenting problem?

C.Can the patient take the prescribed drug?

None of the above

Question 14 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient of Chinese origin who has bipolar disorder. The physician has prescribed lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat the disorder. The nurse is aware that the lithium dose will likely be given in a

higher-than-normal dose.
weight-based protocol dose.
lower-than-normal dose.
child’s dose

Question 15 The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml tid for 10 days? The nurse practitioner would expect the pharmacist to fill the prescription bottle with how many ml?

50 ml
100 ml
120 ml
150 ml

Question 16 A patient will begin three new medications as part of her treatment plan. The nurse practitioner understands that proper disposal of medications is key when the nurse practitioner states

Many medications can be potentially harmful if taken by someone other than the person the medication was prescribed.
Consult with several pharmacists to determine the cost of each drug.
educate the patient to discard syringes in recycle bin
consult with the physician concerning choice of medications for the patient.

Question 17 A nurse is providing a patient with a list of drugs as a part of the patient’s plan of care. Which of the following drug nomenclatures should the nurse use to list the drugs?

The drugs’ chemical names
The drugs’ generic names
The drugs’ trade names
The drugs’ biologic names

Question 18 A nurse is providing care for a 71-year-old woman who was sponsored to emigrate from Mexico to the United States 6 months ago. Earlier this week, the woman slipped while getting off a bus and fractured her hip. How should the woman’s nurse best exemplify cultural competence in the care of this patient?

Ensure that the woman receives care solely from Spanish-speaking caregivers.
Consider dimensions of the woman’s cultural background when planning care.
Integrate teaching about American culture when interacting with the patient.
Address the woman’s children first when explaining her care and changes in her health status.

Question 19 Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents?

American Pharmaceutical Association
United States Adopted Names Council
Nursing drug guides
Federal legislation

Question 20 A nurse is admitting a Mexican woman to the hospital who cannot speak or understand English. The patient is alone, and there is no interpreter available. When trying to communicate with the patient the nurse will

Speak loudly
Exaggerate her mouth movements
Use nonverbal language
Speak fast

Question 21 A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal?

National Provider Identification (NPI)

B.Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)

C.Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)

D.None of the above

Question 22 A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe’s medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse’s response to this request should be

“I’m sorry, but that will not be possible.”
“I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.”
“As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient’s preoperative care, it will be okay.”
“I don’t think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual.”

Question 23 A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that

under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription.
drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves.
she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.

Question 24 A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive

a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.
one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins.

Question 25 A nurse is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called

pharmacotherapeutics.
pharmacodynamics.
pharmacoeconomics.
pharmacogenomics

NUR6550 Final Exam

The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?

Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?

Nephrotic syndrome

Decompensated congestive heart failure

Cirrhosis

Renal failure

Deep venous thrombosis

Late-stage pregnancy

All of the above

Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.

Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?

A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border

A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border

A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line

The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.

True

False

Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:

Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL

Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?

Hyponatremia

Hypokalemia

Metabolic acidosis

Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

Symbol Unclassified

All of the above

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

Myocardial infarction

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Supraventricular tachycardia

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)

ACE inhibitors

Induction if stable

Emergent cesarean section if unstable

Digoxin

Nitroglycerin

What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?

Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation

Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi

Acute pulmonary edema

Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.

True

False

A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?

Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)

Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )

Almotriptan (Axert ® )

Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )

You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:

Drug-related reaction.

Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.

Early sign of dementia.

Normal age-related change in hearing

While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?

Nitrites

30 mg/dL protein

Epithelial cells

pH>8

All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:

Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.

Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.

Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.

Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.

A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?

Usually obliterates S2.

Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.

Occurs late in systole.

Has localized area of auscultation

You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

Pressure ulcer

Pyoderma gangrenosum

Venous ulcer

Arterial ulcer

You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:

Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.

Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.

Checking her blood pressure.

Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.

A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:

Migraine with aura.

Cluster headache.

Transient ischemic attack.

Tension-type headache.

You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:

Early systole.

Late systole.

Early diastole.

Late diastole.

32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:

Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel

Anti-HAV Negative HBsAg Negative Anti-HCV Positive

IgM Negative Anti-HBc Negative HCV RNA Negative

IgM NegativeAnti-HBs Positive

You recognize the patient is susceptible to:

Hepatitis A and B

Hepatitis B and C

Hepatitis B only

Hepatitis A only

When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:

The likelihood of polypharmacy.

Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.

An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.

Presence of comorbid conditions.

When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.

A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.

A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.

A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.

A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.

The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:

Duty of care.

Non-malfeasance.

Autonomy.

Scope of practice.

When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?

A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).

A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.

A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.

A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.

The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Primary syphilis.

Secondary syphilis.

Genital herpes.

Gonorrhea.

A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:

Testicular torsion.

Syphilis.

Varicocele.

Testicular cancer.

An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):

Continuous pulse oximetry reading

Peak expiratory flow reading

Chest X-ray

Arterial Blood Gas

A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

T wave inversion.

Pathologic Q wave.

ST segment elevation.

Tall R wave.

A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?

Sotalol (Betapace ® )

Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )

Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )

Enalapri

A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?

Occurs late in systole.

Widely split S?.

Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.

Murmur follows mid-systolic click.

You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Impetigo.

Herpes zoster.

Drug-related adverse reaction.

Viral exanthem.

An NP’s duty of care can be established:

Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).

When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.

Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.

Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.

In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?

Warfarin (Coumadin®)

Clopidogrel (Plavix®)

Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)

Unfractionated heparin

An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:

2 sets of blood cultures.

Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

Urinalysis.

Lumbar puncture.

A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?

Neutrophilia with reactive forms.

Thrombocytosis.

Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.

Diminished ALT/AST levels.

“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:

Office visits.

Hospital.

Nursing home.

Home visits.

A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?

≤ 6.5%

≤ 7.0%

≤ 8.0%

≤ 9.0%

You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:

Dementia.

Depression.

Delirium.

Drug interaction.

You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist

Angiotensin receptor blocker

Beta-adrenergic antagonist

A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:

Parkinson’s disease.

Delirium.

Dementia.

Early stage of congestive heart failure.

Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:

Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?

A randomized controlled trial.

Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.

Observational study.

Cohort study.

A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:

-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL

-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)

-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL

-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)

These findings are most consistent with:

Iron deficiency anemia.

Anemia of chronic disease.

Folate deficiency anemia.

Thalassemia trait.

You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?

Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )

Citalopram (Celexa ® )

Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )

Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )

All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:

A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.

A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.

A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.

A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?

Sodium

Calcium

Potassium

Chloride

When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:

Testimony from a family member or close friend

A living will.

A “do not resuscitate” order.

A durable power of attorney for healthcare.

Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?

Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.

Non-randomized controlled study.

Observational study.

Case-control study.

Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium

Pathologic Q wave

Tall R wave

T wave inversion

ST segment elevation

Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?

A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.

A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.

Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.

Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.

The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?

Oxygen therapy.

Beta-adrenergic blockade.

Tricyclic antidepressant.

Dietary reduction of amines.

All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:

The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.

The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.

Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.

A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:

Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

Medium-dose ICS

Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)

High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )

A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:

Serum uric acid.

Joint X-ray.

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.

Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?

Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).

Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).

Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )

Community Health Project

Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.

In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:

Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.

APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Community Health Project

Review your state public health department and environmental quality departments online to identify vector-related diseases affecting your community.

In a report format of 1,250-1,500 words, address the following:

Describe the health concerns of the community.
Identify current environmental risk assessment methods which apply to public health issues.
Suggest a modifier or new prevention or intervention program based on your research.
Create a sample program budget.
Complete a SWOT analysis of the proposed program.

APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

NUR6550 Final Exam

The Valsalva maneuver and the squat-to-stand maneuver are likely to increase the sound of a cardiac murmur associated with which of these conditions?

Which of the following conditions may result in lower extremity edema?

Nephrotic syndrome

Decompensated congestive heart failure

Cirrhosis

Renal failure

Deep venous thrombosis

Late-stage pregnancy

All of the above

Art Bakke is a 46-year-old male who is being treated for an acute myocardial infarction. He has now developed significant dyspnea at rest and, per physical exam, has coarse rales involving the lower 2/3 of the lung fields bilaterally. You suspect acute pulmonary edema due to papillary-muscle rupture and acute mitral-valve regurgitation.

Question: Which of the following physical findings would support this diagnostic hypothesis?

A palpable diastolic murmur maximal in the second intercostal space (ICS) at the left sternal border

A harsh, rumbling, diastolic murmur heard maximally in the fourth ICS at the left sternal border

A holosystolic systolic murmur heard maximally in the fifth ICS at the midclavicular line

The most common ECG finding in a patient with a cardiomyopathy is an ST-elevation MI.

True

False

Nina Martinez is a 70-year-old female who experienced an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is now seen in the office at 2 weeks post discharge. Her metabolic panel includes the following lab values:

Na 126 mEq/L
K 4.0 mEq/L
Cl 93 mEq/L
CO2 28 mEq/L
BUN 40 mg/dL
Cr 1.3 mg/dL

Question: This patient has which of the following abnormalities as a likely consequence of diuretic overuse?

Hyponatremia

Hypokalemia

Metabolic acidosis

Which of the following are primary cardiomyopathy categories, as described by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1995?

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Symbol Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Symbol Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Symbol Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia

Symbol Unclassified

All of the above

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?

Myocardial infarction

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Supraventricular tachycardia

Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia; aka arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)

Which of the following are treatment options for a patient who presents with peripartum cardiomyopathy while still carrying the fetus? (Select all that apply.)

ACE inhibitors

Induction if stable

Emergent cesarean section if unstable

Digoxin

Nitroglycerin

What are the 3 major clinical complications related to cardiomyopathies?

Arrhythmias; including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation

Thromboembolic complications; including DVT, PE, and ventricular thrombi

Acute pulmonary edema

Some patients with primary cardiomyopathies remain asymptomatic throughout their lifetime.

True

False

A 38-year -old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of a rapid heartbeat, tremors, and chest tightness. She reports earlier in the day she was feeling a migraine starting so she took a pill given to her by her friend who also experiences migraines. Her medical history reveals that she is currently taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor for depression. Which migraine medication did she most likely take?

Acetaminophen and caffeine (Excedrin ® Migraine)

Naproxen sodium (Aleve ® )

Almotriptan (Axert ® )

Butalbital, acetaminophen and caffeine (Fioricet ® )

You are seeing a 68-year-old woman for treatment of an uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI). She has well-controlled hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and dyslipidemia and takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), statin, biguanide, and low-dose aspirin (ASA). She worked in a dry cleaning facility until approximately 8 years ago. During her evaluation, she mentions that she sometimes has difficulty understanding conversation, especially in noisy environments. This is likely a:

Drug-related reaction.

Consequence of occupational chemical exposure.

Early sign of dementia.

Normal age-related change in hearing

While evaluating a 33-year-old female with a 2-day history of dysuria, which of the following findings in urinalysis is most suggestive of urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by a Gram-negative organism?

Nitrites

30 mg/dL protein

Epithelial cells

pH>8

All of the following are examples of primary prevention strategies except:

Counseling an elderly patient prior to discharge about fall risk at home and how to prevent falls through adequate illumination.

Performing a hemoglobin A1C for all patients admitted to the hospital.

Conducting a study to identify the leading cause of mortality in teenagers and how to reduce risk.

Immunizing all adults ?60 years with zoster vaccine.

A 23-year-old woman is being evaluated for an upper respiratory tract infection. As you prepare for auscultation, the patient states “I have a benign murmur that has been with me my whole life”. Anticipating a physiologic murmur, you would expect which of the following characteristics?

Usually obliterates S2.

Becomes softer when going from a supine to standing position.

Occurs late in systole.

Has localized area of auscultation

You see a 73-year-old woman with a 40 pack- year smoking history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who presents with an ulcer on the sole of her left foot. The ulcer has an irregular edge and pale base and a punched out appearance, with the surrounding skin white and shiny. The patient states that the pain is worse at night in bed and when the legs are elevated. The most likely diagnosis is:

Pressure ulcer

Pyoderma gangrenosum

Venous ulcer

Arterial ulcer

You see a 76-year-old woman living at home who is accompanied by her home care provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:

Administering the seasonal influenza vaccine.

Screening for physical or financial abuse/Checking her blood glucose level.

Checking her blood pressure.

Adjusting her insulin dosing regimen.

A 43-year-old woman is being evaluated in the emergency department with a complaint of a severe headache. She describes a unilateral, pulsing headache that was preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm. The patient stated she noticed a “funny smell” prior to the symptoms starting. This description is most typical of:

Migraine with aura.

Cluster headache.

Transient ischemic attack.

Tension-type headache.

You see a 54-year-old man living in subsidized housing with a history of hypertension. He states that he stopped taking his blood pressure medication about 4 months ago because of costs. He is concerned because his blood pressure is high whenever he checks it, though he does not report any symptoms. His BP at this visit is 196/104 mm Hg. Upon examination of this patient, you would expect to detect an S 4 sound heard during:

Early systole.

Late systole.

Early diastole.

Late diastole.

32-year-old man requires evaluation for hepatitis infection prior to taking a job as a restaurant cook. He presents with the following laboratory results:

Hepatitis A Panel Hepatitis B Panel Hepatitis C Panel

Anti-HAV Negative HBsAg Negative Anti-HCV Positive

IgM Negative Anti-HBc Negative HCV RNA Negative

IgM NegativeAnti-HBs Positive

You recognize the patient is susceptible to:

Hepatitis A and B

Hepatitis B and C

Hepatitis B only

Hepatitis A only

When evaluating illness symptoms in older patients, the disease will often present differently from younger adults due to:

The likelihood of polypharmacy.

Decreased compensatory mechanisms in the elderly.

An increased physiologic response to illness in the elderly.

Presence of comorbid conditions.

When prioritizing risk factors for bacterial endocarditis, the nurse practitioner knows who among the following patients has the highest risk.

A 55-year-old man with 3-vessel coronary artery bypass grafts with stents.

A 23-year-old woman with mitral valve prolapse without tissue redundancy.

A 65-year-old man with nonobstructive cardiomyopathy.

A 75-year-old woman with a nonorganic prosthetic aortic valve.

The legal authority for NPs to perform healthcare services as defined by state law is called:

Duty of care.

Non-malfeasance.

Autonomy.

Scope of practice.

When developing a management plan for patients with genitourinary infections, which of the following would you most likely recommend for follow-up imaging following resolution of their infection?

A 27-year-old nonpregnant woman with acute, uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI).

A 38-year-old nonpregnant woman with 2 acute, uncomplicated UTIs in the past 9 months.

A 57-year-old man with acute bacterial prostatitis.

A 43-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and recurrent pyelonephritis.

The NP is called to evaluate Jane, a 43-year- old woman, who presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash that began on the trunk but now covers the entire body, including the palms and soles. The rash is not itchy but wart-like sores are present in the mouth and genital area as well as skin folds. Initial evaluation reveals generalized lymphadenopathy and a low-grade fever, and she complains of lethargy and headache. The patient reports that she had a painless genital ulcer that healed on its own about 3 weeks earlier. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Primary syphilis.

Secondary syphilis.

Genital herpes.

Gonorrhea.

A 27-year-old man presents with a chief concern of an abnormal mass within his left scrotum. He describes it as feeling like a “bag of worms” and is present when he is standing but disappears when he lies down. His past medical history is unremarkable and his BMI is 29 kg/m 2 . He has been in a monogamous relationship for the past 4months. The most likely diagnosis is:

Testicular torsion.

Syphilis.

Varicocele.

Testicular cancer.

An 18-year-old man is being evaluated for a severe exacerbation of asthma. He is currently taking an inhaled corticosteroid, a long- acting beta-agonist, and a short-acting beta-agonist on an as needed basis. The most important component of the initial assessment includes a(n):

Continuous pulse oximetry reading

Peak expiratory flow reading

Chest X-ray

Arterial Blood Gas

A 67-year-old man is being evaluated for shortness of breath. His medical history reveals that he experienced a myocardial infarction about 2 years ago and a history of hypertension, which is well controlled by diet.. Otherwise, his medical history is unremarkable. Which of the following would you expect to find on electrocardiogram (ECG)?

T wave inversion.

Pathologic Q wave.

ST segment elevation.

Tall R wave.

A 74-year-old male with asymptomatic atrial fibrillation underwent electrical cardioversion that successfully restored the heart’s rhythm. Which of the following medications can be considered for the purpose of maintaining the heart’s rhythm?

Sotalol (Betapace ® )

Digoxin (Lanoxin ® )

Dabigatran (Pradaxa ® )

Enalapri

A 14-year-old male is brought in for evaluation after he reportedly collapsed during a tennis match, though he quickly regained consciousness. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. You suspect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of the following heart murmur characteristics would support the diagnosis?

Occurs late in systole.

Widely split S?.

Becomes louder when going from a supine to standing position.

Murmur follows mid-systolic click.

You see a 64-year-old man with an area of erythema concentrated on the left side of his neck with clusters of vesicles forming a line. He reported pain in the area a couple of days before the eruption of the lesions. He states that he recently initiated biologic therapy for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Impetigo.

Herpes zoster.

Drug-related adverse reaction.

Viral exanthem.

An NP’s duty of care can be established:

Only in the setting of a healthcare institution (e.g., hospital, clinic, etc.).

When the NP gives professional advice or treatment in any setting.

Only when a fee is charged, either to the patient or third-party payer, for services.

Only when both the NP and patient acknowledge a patient-provider relationship.

In managing a 58-year- old woman who is admitted for deep vein thrombosis, caution should be used with which of the following medications due to a risk of drug-induced thrombocytopenia?

Warfarin (Coumadin®)

Clopidogrel (Plavix®)

Dabigatran (Pradaxa®)

Unfractionated heparin

An 84-year-old female patient is admitted from a local long-term care facility (illnes). The patient is normally awake, alert, and oriented. She resides in the LTCF because she has not fully recovered from a broken hip resulting from a fall 4 months ago; otherwise she is in relatively good health. She can walk short distances with a walker, though she primarily stays in a wheelchair. Today, however, the nursing staff found her to be acutely confused and unable to ambulate without falling. She was transferred to the emergency department for evaluation. Initial laboratory testing must include:

2 sets of blood cultures.

Serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

Urinalysis.

Lumbar puncture.

A 23-year-old college student presents with a 2-day history of severe sore throat and difficulty eating or drinking due to trouble swallowing. A physical examination reveals exudative pharyngitis and minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The NP suspects infectious mononucleosis and would expect which of the following laboratory findings?

Neutrophilia with reactive forms.

Thrombocytosis.

Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes.

Diminished ALT/AST levels.

“Incident-to” services are defined as those which are “an integral, although incidental, part of the physician’s personal professional services in the course of diagnosis or treatment of an injury or illness”. As long as certain criteria are met, “incident to” billing is an option in all of the following settings except:

Office visits.

Hospital.

Nursing home.

Home visits.

A 78-year- old male is being treated for a hypoglycemic episode. He has a long history of type 2 diabetes mellitus as well as congestive heart failure and COPD. He is currently taking basal insulin with a sulfonylurea. What is the acceptable A1C goal for this patient?

≤ 6.5%

≤ 7.0%

≤ 8.0%

≤ 9.0%

You see a 74- year-old male who is accompanied by his granddaughter who lives with him. He has hypertension, a prior myocardial infarction, long-standing type 2 diabetes, and recently underwent a lower limb amputation secondary to diabetes. He is currently taking an ACE inhibitor, statin, low-dose aspirin, biguanide, and insulin. The granddaughter reports that since the amputation, her grandfather sometimes becomes withdrawn, irritable and moody for no apparent reason, does not want to participate in the typical activities he enjoys, and often does not appear to eat much during the day. She also states that he often complains of being tired but normally wakes up in the early morning hours. The most appropriate action is to evaluate the patient for:

Dementia.

Depression.

Delirium.

Drug interaction.

You see a 58-year-old man who complains of a persistent dry, hacking cough. He reports that he recently started taking a medication to treat high blood pressure. He is most likely taking a(n):

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Alpha-adrenergic antagonist

Angiotensin receptor blocker

Beta-adrenergic antagonist

A 77-year-old woman is accompanied by her husband for evaluation. She is currently being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor ® ) for hypertension and digoxin (Lanoxin ® ) for atrial fibrillation. He reports that his wife is becoming increasingly forgetful over the past year, failing to note important family events such as birthdays, and sometimes becomes confused with driving directions to familiar locations. She has no previous psychiatric history. The most likely diagnosis is:

Parkinson’s disease.

Delirium.

Dementia.

Early stage of congestive heart failure.

Mrs. Conner is a 76- year-old woman living in a long-term care facility and has been bedridden with a respiratory infection for the past 4 days. She is brought in for evaluation and you note signs of dehydration as well as a section of epidermal skin loss about 3 cm in diameter on her right hip. The dermal layer appears intact. This would be considered a pressure ulcer of Stage:

Which of the following represents the highest level of scientific evidence when evaluating clinical research?

A randomized controlled trial.

Systematic review/ Meta-analysis of randomized controlled troals.

Observational study.

Cohort study.

A 64-year- old woman with chronic kidney disease presents with a chief complaint of lethargy. His hemogram is as follows:

-Hemoglobin (Hg)=9.9 g/dL (12–14 g/dL

-Hematocrit (Hct)=30% (36%–42%)

-Mean cell volume (MCV)=81 fL (80–96 fL

-Reticulocytes=0.7% (1%–2%)

These findings are most consistent with:

Iron deficiency anemia.

Anemia of chronic disease.

Folate deficiency anemia.

Thalassemia trait.

You see a 68-year-old woman who is being treated for moderate depression. She complains that her medication is causing symptoms of dry mouth and constipation. She is most likely taking which of the following medications?

Venlafaxine (Effexor ® )

Citalopram (Celexa ® )

Fluoxetine (Prozac ® )

Nortriptyline (Pamelor ® )

All of the following persons are eligible for Medicare services except:

A 74-year-old ex-smoker with COPD and high income from assets.

A 69-year-old undocumented resident in the US with atrial fibrillation.

A 62-year-old with a permanent physical disability due to a motor vehicle accident.

A 72-year-old permanent legal resident (non-US citizen) with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

When initiating therapy with spironolactone for a patient who is also on an ACE inhibitor, you advise the patient to return in 5 days to check which of the following laboratory parameters?

Sodium

Calcium

Potassium

Chloride

When considering an end-of-life decision for a terminally ill person with Alzheimer-type dementia who can no longer communicate, all of the following can be used as an advanced directive except:

Testimony from a family member or close friend

A living will.

A “do not resuscitate” order.

A durable power of attorney for healthcare.

Which of the following types of clinical studies represents the lowest level of evidence used to guide medical decisions?

Clinical experience of renowned expert in field.

Non-randomized controlled study.

Observational study.

Case-control study.

Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes do you expect to find in a person with myocardial ischemia?calcium

Pathologic Q wave

Tall R wave

T wave inversion

ST segment elevation

Which of the following statements is false regarding end-of-life decision-making for a patient that is hopelessly and terminally ill?

A durable power of attorney for healthcare can be used to authorize another person to make healthcare decisions.

A videotaped or audiotaped discussion with the patient can include advanced directives.

Advanced directives are legally binding and recognized in all 50 states.

Living wills and do not resuscitate orders are examples of advanced directives.

The nurse practitioner is evaluating a 19-year- old male suffering from a severe headache. He has a history of headaches that tend to occur in clusters over a few days. He has unsuccessfully tried several therapeutic modalities. A positive response to which of the following interventions supports the diagnosis of cluster headache?

Oxygen therapy.

Beta-adrenergic blockade.

Tricyclic antidepressant.

Dietary reduction of amines.

All of the following are required Medicare terms and conditions for paying NP services except:

The services are within the NP’s scope of practice as defined by state law.

The services performed are those for which a physician would be able to bill Medicare. The services are performed in collaboration with a physician.

Separate charges are billed for NP services and facility charges.

A 28- year- old male with asthma presents with a chief complaint that he has to use his rescue inhaler multiple times each day. An evaluation reveals that he has moderate-to-severe asthma and requires Step 4 treatment. An appropriate regimen would include:

Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

Medium-dose ICS

Medium-dose ICS plus a long-acting beta?-agonist (LABA)

High-dose ICS plus LABA plus omalizumab (Xolair ® )

A 62-year-old woman presents in the emergency department complaining of severe toe pain that originated overnight. She has a history of renal disease and is currently taking a thiazide diuretic. Her BMI is 37 kg/m 2 . In considering a diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis, the nurse practitioner knows that the best diagnostic indicator is:

Serum uric acid.

Joint X-ray.

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

Analysis of joint aspirate for urate crystals.

Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for a 57-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis and who has type 2 diabetes mellitus, COPD and a beta-lactam allergy?

Cephalexin (Keflex ® ).

Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin ® ).

Trimethoprim with or without sulfamethoxazole (Primsol ® , Bactrim ® ).

Levofloxacin (Levaquin ® )

NSG6420 Week 8 Quiz Latest 2017

Question 1. Which of the following best describes the pain associated with osteoarthritis?

Constant, burning, and throbbing with an acute onset

Dull and primarily affected by exposure to cold and barometric pressure

Begins upon arising and after prolonged weight bearing and/or use of the joint

Begins in the morning and limits continued ambulation

Question 2. Your 63-year-old Caucasian woman with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) will begin treatment with corticosteroids until the condition has resolved. You look over her records and it has been 2 years since her last physical examination and any laboratory or diagnostic tests as she relocated and had not yet identified a health-care provider. In prioritizing your management plan, your first orders should include:

Recommending she increase her dietary intake of Calcium and Vitamin D

Ordering once a year bisphosphonate and a proton pump inhibitor

Participate in a fall prevention program

Dual-energy X-ray (DEXA) scan and updating immunizations

Question 3. In providing health teaching related to dietary restrictions, the nurse practitioner should advise a patient with gout to avoid which of the following dietary items:

Green leafy vegetables

Beer, sausage, fried seafood

Sugar

Gluten and bread items

Question 4. A 33-year-old female reports general malaise, fatigue, stiffness, and pain in multiple joints of the body. There is no history of systemic disease and no history of trauma. On physical examination, the patient has no swelling or decreased range of motion in any of the joints. She indicates specific points on the neck and shoulders that are particularly affected. She complains of tenderness upon palpation of the neck, both shoulders, hips, and medial regions of the knees. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential diagnoses:

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Fibromyalgia

Polymyalgia rheumatica

Question 5. A 46-year-old female complains of fatigue, general malaise, and pain and swelling in her hands that has gradually worsened over the last few weeks. She reports that pain, stiffness, and swelling of her hands are most severe in the morning. On physical examination, you note swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. These are common signs of:

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Scleroderma

Sarcoidosis

Question 6. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is true?

It affects primarily weight-bearing joints

It is a systemic inflammatory illness

The metacarpal phalangeal joints are commonly involved

Prolonged morning stiffness is common

Question 7. The most appropriate first-line treatment for an acute gout flare is (assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk):

Indomethacin 50 mg thrice daily for 2 days; then 25 mg thrice daily for 3 days

Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 5 days

Prednisolone 35 mg four times a day for 5 days

Ice therapy

Question 8. A 34-year-old female presents with fever, general malaise, fatigue, arthralgias and rash for the last 2 weeks. On physical examination, you note facial erythema across the nose and cheeks. Serum diagnostic tests reveal positive antinuclear antibodies, anti-DNA antibodies, elevated C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential problems:

Fibromyalgia

Sarcoidosis

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 9. Your 66-year-old male patient has recently started treatment for metabolic syndrome and is currently taking the following medications: an ACE inhibitor and beta blocker for treatment of hypertension. He is also taking a statin medication, simvastatin for hyperlipidemia, and a biguanide, metformin, for type 2 diabetes. The patient complains of myalgias of the legs bilaterally and blood work shows elevated serum creatine kinase. Which of the medications can cause such a side effect?

Beta blocker

ACE inhibitor

Statin medication

Metformin

Question 10. A 20-year-old male construction worker is experiencing new onset of knee pain. He complains of right knee pain when kneeling, squatting, or walking up and down stairs. On physical examination, there is swelling and crepitus of the right knee and obvious pain with resisted range of motion of the knee. He is unable to squat due to pain. Which of the following disorders should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

Joint infection

Chondromalacia patella

Prepatellar bursitis

All of the above

Question 11. A 17-year-old male complains of severe right knee pain. He was playing football when he heard a “pop” at the moment of being tackled and his knee “gave away” from under him. On physical examination, there is right knee swelling and decreased range of motion. There is a positive anterior drawer sign. These findings indicate:

Knee ligament injury

Osgood-Schlatter disease

Prepatellar bursitis

Chondromalacia patella

Question 12. A 55-year-old patient complains of lower back pain due to heavy lifting at work yesterday. He reports weakness of the left leg and paresthesias in the left foot. On physical examination, the patient has diminished ability to dorsiflex the left ankle. Which of the following symptoms should prompt the clinician to make immediate referral to a neurosurgeon?

Straight leg raising sign

Lumbar herniated disc on X-ray

Loss of left sided patellar reflex

Urinary incontinence

Question 13. Your patient is a 43-year-old female golfer who complains of arm pain. On physical examination, there is point tenderness on the elbow and pain when the patient is asked to flex the wrist against the clinician’s resistance. These are typical signs of:

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Osteoarthritis of the wrist

Epicondylitis

Cervical osteoarthritis

Question 14. Which of the following describes the pathology of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

Irritation of a tendon located on the radial side of the wrist, near the thumb

Impingement of the median nerve, causing pain in the palm and fingers

Fluid-filled cyst that typically develops adjacent to a tendon sheath in the wrist

Ulnar nerve compression at the olecranon process

Question 15. What is the most common cause of hip pain in older adults?

Osteoporosis

Osteoarthritis

Trauma due to fall

Trochanteric bursitis

Question 16. A 43-year-old female was in a bicycling accident and complains of severe pain of the right foot. The patient limps into the emergency room. On physical examination, there is no point tenderness over the medial or lateral ankle malleolus. There is no foot tenderness except at the base of the fifth metatarsal bone. According to the Ottawa foot rules, should an X-ray of the feet be ordered?

Yes, there is tenderness over the fifth metatarsal

No, there is not tenderness over the navicular bone

Yes, the patient cannot bear weight on the foot

A and C

Question 17. 38-year-old Asian male, Mr. Chen, with past medical history significant for prehypertension who has recently taken up softball presents with three to five weeks of shoulder pain when throwing overhead. Ice minimally alleviates pain. Medications: Naproxen minimally alleviates shoulder pain. Allergies: Penicillin-associated rash. Family history: Brother has rheumatoid arthritis.

Which of the following musculoskeletal causes of shoulder pain would merit urgent diagnosis and management?

Adhesive capsulitis

Septic subacromial bursitis

Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon

Calcific tendinopathy

Question 18. If Mr. Chen had restricted passive as well as active ROM of the shoulder, what problems involving the shoulder might you consider?

Adhesive capsulitis

Rotator cuff tear

Tendinopathy of the long head of the biceps

Rotator cuff impingment

Question 19. What is the essential dynamic stabilizer of the shoulder joint?

Labrum

Rotator muscle group

Glenohumeral ligaments

Teres major muscle

Question 20. Given Mr. Chen’s repetitive overhead activities, some injury to his rotator cuff muscle group is most likely. Of the following exam findings, which one would not support the diagnosis of rotator cuff tendinopathy?

Positive Apley’s Scratch test

Weakness and pain with empty can testing

Limited active ROM

Inability to raise arm above his head

NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz

NSG6420 Week 7 Quiz Latest 2017

Question 1.When a patient presents with a skin-related complaint, it is important to first:

Fully inspect all skin lesions before asking the patient how the lesion in question developed

Obtain a full history about the development of the skin lesion prior to the physical examination

Complete a full physical examination of the body prior to inspecting the skin lesion

Examine the skin lesion without hearing a health history in order to not prejudice the diagnosis

Question 2. Which of the following dermatological conditions results from reactivation of the dormant varicella virus?

Tinea versicolor

Seborrheic keratosis

Verruca

Herpes zoster

Question 3. An older adult male presents with pain in his right chest wall for the past 48 hours. Upon examination, the nurse practitioner notices a vesicular eruption along the dermatome and identifies this as herpes zoster. The NP informs the gentleman that:

All symptoms should disappear within three days

Oral medications can dramatically reduce the duration and intensity of his symptoms

He has chickenpox and can be contagious to his grandchildren

He has a sexually transmitted disease

Question 4. A 70-year-old white male comes to the clinic with a slightly raised, scaly, pink, and irregular lesion on his scalp. He is a farmer and works outside all day. You suspect actinic keratosis, but cannot rule out other lesions. What recommendation would you give him?

Ignore the lesion, as it is associated with aging.

Instruct him to use a nonprescription hydrocortisone cream to dry up the lesion.

Perform a biopsy or refer to a dermatologist.

Advise him to use a dandruff shampoo and return in one month if the lesion has not gone away.

Question 5. The appearance of a 2-10 cm. herald patch with subsequent development of parallel oval lesions on the trunk in a christmas tree distribution involving the upper arms and upper legs are common in:

Pityriasis Rosea

Shingles

Psoriasis

Lymes Disease

Question 6. Mr. Fitzgerald is a 68-year-old previously healthy man with a history of significant sun exposure who presents with a progressively enlarging 18 x 16 mm erythematous pruritic oval patch on his left forearm that has been present for three to four years. Your differential would include all of the following EXCEPT:

Fungal skin infection

Eczema

Seborrheic Keratosis

Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

Question 7. What kind of lesions are caused by the herpes simplex virus?

Scales

Vesicles

Plaques

Urticaria

Question 8. Among the following conditions, which needs to be treated with systemic antifungal agents?

Tinea pedis/tinea magnum

Tinea corporis/tinea cruris

Tinea capitis/Tinea unguium (onychomycosis)

Tinea pedis /tinea faciale

Question 9. Which lesions are typically located along the distribution of dermatome?

Scabies

Herpes zoster

Tinea

Dyshidrosis

Question 10. A smooth round nodule with a pearly gray border and central induration best describes which skin lesion?

Seborrheic keratosis

Malignant melanoma

Herpes zoster

Basal cell carcinoma

Question 11. Cellulitis is a deep skin infection involving the dermis and subcutaneous tissues. The nurse practitioner suspects cellulitis in a 70-year-old Asian diabetic male presenting with reddened edematous skin around his nares. Which statement below will the nurse practitioner use in her decision-making process for the differential diagnosis pertaining to reddened edematous skin?

Cellulitis is two times more common in women

Facial cellulitis is more common in people >55

There is low incidence of cellulitis in patients with diabetes

Cellulitis is only a disease of the lower extremities of patients with known arterial insufficiency

Question 12. Folliculitis is most commonly due to:

Contact dermatitis

Varicella zoster

Dermatophytes

Staphylococcal infection

Question 13. The anti-inflammatory properties of topical corticosteroids result in part from their ability to induce vasoconstriction to the small blood vessels in the upper dermis. Of the following, which is the most potent topical corticosteroid?

Hydrocortisone 2.5%

Triamcinolone acetonide 0.1%

Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05%

Alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%

Question 14. Which of the following descriptions accurately documents cellulitis?

Cool, erythematous, shiny hairless extremity with decreased pulse

Scattered, erythematous ring-like lesions with clear centers

Clearly demarcated, raised erythematous area of face

Diffusely inflamed skin that is warm and tender to palpation

Question 15. Asymmetrical bi-color lesion with irregular border measuring 8 mm is found on the right lower arm of an adult patient. This assessment finding is consistent with:

Melanoma

Basal cell carcinoma

Leukoplakia

Senile lentigines

Question 16. Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?

Circular erythematous patches with papular, scaly annular borders and clear discharge

Inflamed scaly dry patches with broken hairs

Web lesions with erythema and scaling borders

Scaly pruritic erythematous lesions on inguinal creases

Question 17. A patient has a tender, firm, nodular cystic lesion on his scalp that produces cheesy discharge with foul odor. This is most likely a:

Bacterial folliculitis

Basal cell carcinoma

Bullous impetigo

Epidermoid cyst

Question 18. Patient presents with complaint of a “swollen node” under his arm. The area is tender and the node has progressed in size over the past few days. Which of the following should be included in your differential diagnosis?

Hidradenitis suppurativa

Epidermoid cyst

Furuncle

Both A and C

Question 19. A patient suffered a laceration of the shin three days ago, and today presents with a painful, warm, red swollen region around the area. The laceration has a purulent exudate. The clinician should recognize that the infected region is called:

Contact dermatitis

Folliculitis

Hidradenitis suppurativa

Cellulitis

Question 20. A woman complains of malaise and arthralgias. You note a butterfly-shaped, macular, erythematous rash across her cheeks and nose. These conditions are common in:

Psoriasis

Lichen planus

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Erythema nodosum

NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz

NSG6420 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2017

Question 1.Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?

Asians

Hispanics

African Americans

American Indians

Question 2.Men with an initial PSA level below 2.5 ng/ml can reduce their screening frequency to what intervals?

Every 6 months

Yearly

Every 2 years

Every 2 to 4 years

Question 3. Your 55-year-old male patient presents to your office with complaints of sudden development of severe right-sided, colicky lower abdominal pain. He cannot sit still on the examining table. The patient has previously been in good health. On physical examination, there are no signs of peritoneal inflammation. A urine sample reveals hematuria and crystalluria. Which is the next diagnostic test that should be done immediately?

Ultrasound of the abdomen

Abdominal X-ray

Digital rectal examination

Spiral CT scan

Question 4. The most common complication of an untreated urinary obstruction due to a ureteral calculus is:

Ureteral rupture

Hydronephrosis

Kidney mass

Renal artery stenosis

Question 5. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:

Lower urinary tract infection

Nephrolithiasis

Hydronephrosis

Pyelonephritis

Question 6. On a physical examination for employment, a 45-year-old male shows no significant findings and takes no medications. Past medical history and surgery are unremarkable. On urinalysis, hematuria is present. The urinalysis is repeated on another day and still reveals microscopic hematuria. It is important to recognize that painless hematuria can be diagnostic of:

Urinary tract infection

Bladder cancer

Nephrolithiasis

Pyelonephritis

Question 7. On DRE, you note that a 45-year-old patient has a firm, smooth, non-tender but asymmetrically shaped prostate. The patient has no symptoms and has a normal urinalysis. The patient’s PSA is within normal limits for the patient’s age. The clinician should:

Refer the patient for transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy

Obtain an abdominal X-ray of kidneys, ureter, and bladder

Recognize this as a normal finding that requires periodic follow up

Obtain urine culture and sensitivity for prostatitis

Question 8. Age-related changes in the bladder, urethra, and ureters include all of the following in older women except:

Increased estrogen production’s influence on the bladder and ureter

Decline in bladder outlet function

Decline in ureteral resistance pressure

Laxity of the pelvic muscle

Question 9. Mr. Jones is a 68-year-old retired Air Force pilot that has been diagnosed with prostate cancer in the past week. He has never had a surgical procedure in his life and seeks clarification on the availability of treatments for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse practitioner to tell him the side effects of a radical prostatectomy. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of this procedure?

Urinary incontinence

Impotence

Dribbling urine

Selected low back pain

Question 10. Your 77-year-old patient complains of frequent urination, hesitation in getting the stream started, and nocturnal frequency of urination that is bothersome. On DRE, there is an enlarged, firm, non-tender, smooth prostate. The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:

Urethritis

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Prostatitis

Prostate cancer

Question 11. Your 24-year-old female patient complains of dysuria as well as frequency and urgency of urination that develops the day after she uses her diaphragm. Urine culture reveals a bacterial count of 100 CFU/mL. These signs and symptoms indicate:

Upper urinary tract infection

Normal bacteriuria

Lower urinary tract infection

Urethritis

Question 12. A 79-year-old man is being evaluated for frequent urinary dribbling without burning. Physical examination reveals a smooth but slightly enlarged prostate gland. His PSA level is 3.3 ng/ml. The patient undergoes formal urodynamic studies, and findings are as follows: a decreased bladder capacity of 370 ml; a few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246 mL; an increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225 ml; and a slightly decreased urinary flow rate. Which of the following is not consistent with a normal age-associated change?

PSA level of 3.3 ng/ml

Decreased bladder capacity

Involuntary detrusor contradictions

Increased postvoid residual urine volume

Question 13. Mrs. L. Billings is a 77-year-old Caucasian female who has a history of breast cancer. She has been in remission for 6 years. As her primary care provider, you are seeing her for follow-up of her recent complaint of intermittent abdominal pain of a 3-month duration and some general malaise. Given the brief history above, what will you direct your assessment at during physical examination?

Examination of her thyroid to rule out thyroid nodules that may contribute to her feeling fatigued.

Auscultation of her abdomen for abnormal bowel sounds to rule out peritonitis.

Thorough abdominal and gynecological exam to rule out masses and identify any tenderness.

A rectal examination to rule out colon cancer as a secondary site for breast cancer.

Question 14. A 27-year-old male comes in to the clinic for symptoms of dysuria, urinary frequency, as well as urgency and perineal pain. Transrectal palpation of the prostate reveals a very tender, boggy, swollen prostate. The clinician should recognize these as signs of:

Prostatitis

Prostate cancer

Urethritis

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Question 15. Which of the following males would be at greatest risk for testicular cancer?

John, a 52-year-old, married African American Attorney who lives in Detroit, MI

Jacob, a 22-year-old, homosexual male, who works as an accountant, resides in Cumming GA, and has a history of cryptorchidism

Andy, a 27-year-old, Caucasian, single male who resides in Waukesha, WI and works as a maintenance mechanic

Ryan, a 34-year-old healthy, married man from Sweden, who works as a Registered Nurse in Boston, MA

Question 16. A 43-year-old male patient complains of right-sided abdominal and pain in the back in the right costovertebral angle region, fever, chills, dysuria, and nausea. On physical examination, there is 102 degree fever, tachycardia, and right costovertebral angle tenderness to percussion. The most likely condition is:

Lower urinary tract infection

Pyelonephritis

Nephrolithiasis

Hydonephrosis

Question 17. Which of the following disorders can cause urinary incontinence?

Cystocele

Overactive bladder

Uterine prolapse

All of the above

Question 18. Your 18 year old sexually active patient presents with sudden right sided groin pain that is sharp and constant. Inspection of his genitals reveals a swollen and erythematous right scrotum. His right testicle is exquisitely tender, swollen and has no palpable masses. Elevation of the testis results in no reduction in pain. The left scrotum and the testicle are normal. Epididymis and other scrotal contents were within normal limits. The scrotum does not transilluminate. Cremasteric reflex is present on the left side but absent on the right. There is no penile discharge, inguinal lymphadenopathy, or hernias.

Based on the history and physical exam your immediate concern is for:

Torsion

Infection

Cancer

Rupture

Question 19. The Prehn sign is utilized to distinguish epididymitis from testicular torsion. Epididymitis is considered when the Prehn sign is positive. When is the Prehn sign determined to be positive?

Pain is relieved by lifting of the testicle.

Tenderness is limited to the upper pole of the testis.

Lightly stroking or pinching the superior medial aspect of the thigh causes testicular retraction.

A small bluish discoloration is visible through the skin in the upper pole.

Question 20. Which of the following exam findings makes the diagnosis of testicular tumor more likely?

A scrotal mass that is accompanied by exquisite tenderness.

Testicular swelling is mostly fluid and transilluminates easily

A testicular mass that is non-tender to palpation

Dilated and tortuous veins in the pampiniform plexus

NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz

NSG6420 Week 5 Midterm Quiz Latest 2017

Question 1: Which of the following symptoms is common with acute otitis media?

Bulging tympanic membrane

Bright light reflex of tympanic membrane

Increased tympanic membrane mobility

All of the above

Question 2. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:

Inhibited by drugs

Induced by drugs

Inhibited or induced by drugs

Associated with decreased liver perfusion

Question 3. In AR disorders, carriers have:

Two mutated genes; one from each parent that cause disease

A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease

A single gene mutation that causes the disease

One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease

Question 4. A 56-year-old male complains of anorexia, changes in bowel habits, extreme fatigue, and unintentional weight loss. At times he is constipated and other times he has episodes of diarrhea. His physical examination is unremarkable. It is important for the clinician to recognize the importance of:

CBC with differential

Stool culture and sensitivity

Abdominal X-ray

Colonoscopy

Question 5. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?

History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision

History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision

History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush

All of the above

Question 6. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:

Bacterial sinusitis

Allergic rhinitis

Drug abuse

Skull fracture

Question 7. An 82-year-old female presents to the emergency department with epigastric pain and weakness. She admits to having dark, tarry stools for the last few days. She reports a long history of pain due to osteoarthritis. She self-medicates daily with ibuprofen, naprosyn, and aspirin for joint pain. On physical examination, she has orthostatic hypotension and pallor. Fecal occult blood test is positive. A likely etiology of the patient’s problem is:

Mallory-Weiss tear

Esophageal varices

Gastric ulcer

Question 1. Susan P., a 60-year-old woman with a 30 pack year history, presents to your primary care practice for evaluation of a persistent, daily cough with increased sputum production, worse in the morning, occurring over the past three months. She tells you, “I have the same thing, year after year.” Which of the following choices would you consider strongly in your critical thinking process?

Seasonal allergies

Acute bronchitis

Bronchial asthma

Chronic bronchitis

Question 2. A patient presents complaining of a 5 day history of upper respiratory symptoms including nasal congestion and drainage. On the day the symptoms began he had a low-grade fever that has now resolved. His nasal congestion persisted and he has had yellow nasal drainage for three days associated with mild headaches. On exam he is afebrile and in no distress. Examination of his tympanic membranes and throat are normal. Examination of his nose is unremarkable although a slight yellowish-clear drainage is noted. There is tenderness when you lightly percuss his maxillary sinus. What would your treatment plan for this patient be?

Observation and reassurance

Treatment with an antibiotic such as amoxicillin

Treatment with an antibiotic such as a fluoroquinoline or amoxicillin-clavulanate

Combination of a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and a long acting beta2 agonist inhaler.

Question 3.Emphysematous changes in the lungs produce the following characteristic in COPD patients?

Asymmetric chest expansion

Increased lateral diameter

Increased anterior-posterior diameter

Pectus excavatum

Question 4. When palpating the posterior chest, the clinician notes increased tactile fremitus over the left lower lobe. This can be indicative of pneumonia. Areas of increased fremitus should raise the suspicion of conditions resulting in increased solidity or consolidation in the underlying lung tissue, such as in pneumonia, tumor, or pulmonary fibrosis. In the instance of an extensive bronchial obstruction:

No palpable vibration is felt

Decreased fremitus is felt

Increased fremitus is felt

Vibration is referred to the non-obstructed lobe

Question 5. Your patient presents with complaint of persistent cough. After you have finished obtaining the History of Present Illness, you realize that the patient may be having episodes of wheezing, in addition to his cough. The most common cause of cough with wheezing is asthma. What of the following physical exam findings will support your tentative diagnosis of asthma?

Clear, watery nasal drainage with nasal turbinate swelling

Pharyngeal exudate and lymphadenopathy

Clubbing, cyanosis and edema.

Diminished lung sounds with rales in both bases

Question 6.Which of the following imaging studies should be considered if a pulmonary malignancy is suspected?

Computed tomography (CT) scan

Chest X-ray with PA, lateral, and lordotic views

Ultrasound

Positron emission tomography (PET) scan

Question 7. A 26-year-old, non-smoker, male presented to your clinic with SOB with exertion. This could be due to:

Exercise-induced cough

Bronchiectasis

Alpha-1 deficiency

Pericarditis

Question 8. Upon assessment of respiratory excursion, the clinician notes asymmetric expansion of the chest. One side expands greater than the other. This could be due to:

Pneumothorax

Pleural effusion

Pneumonia

Pulmonary embolism

Question 9. A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation. After a long day of driving, they stop for dinner.Midway through the meal, the woman becomes very short of breath, with chest pain and a feeling of panic. Which of the following problems is most likely?

Pulmonary edema

Heart failure

Pulmonary embolism

Pneumonia

Question 10. A cough is described as chronic if it has been present for:

2 weeks or more

8 weeks or more

3 months or more

6 months or more

Question 11. Testing is necessary for the diagnosis of asthma because history and physical are not reliable means of excluding other diagnoses or determining the extent of lung impairment. What is the study that is used to evaluate upper respiratory symptoms with new onset wheeze?

Chest X-ray

Methacholine challenge test

Spirometry, both with and without bronchodilation

Ventilation/perfusion scan

Question 12. In classifying the severity of your patient presenting with an acute exacerbation of asthma. You determine that they have moderate persistent symptoms based on the report of symptoms and spirometry readings of the last 3 weeks. The findings that support moderate persistent symptoms include:

Symptoms daily with nighttime awakening more than 1 time a week. FEV1 >60%, but predicted <80%. FEV1/FVC reduced 5%

Symptoms less than twice a week and less than twice a week nighttime awakening. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal

Symptoms more than 2 days a week, but not daily. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times a month. FEV1 >80% predicted. FEV1/FVC normal

Symptoms throughout the day with nighttime awakenings every night. FEV1< 60% predicted. FEV1/FVC reduced >5%

Question 13. The following criterion is considered a positive finding when determining whether a patient with asthma can be safely monitored and treated at home:

Age over 40

Fever greater than 101

Tachypnea greater than 30 breaths/minute

Productive cough

Question 14. Medications are chosen based on the severity of asthma. Considering the patient that is diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma, the preferred option for maintenance medication is:

High-dose inhaled corticosteroid and leukotriene receptor antagonist

Oral corticosteroid—high and low dose as appropriate

Short acting beta2 agonist inhaler and theophylline

Low dose inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta2 agonist inhaler

Question 15. A 75-year-old patient with community-acquired pneumonia presents with chills, productive cough, temperature of 102.1, pulse 100, respiration 18, BP 90/52, WBC 12,000, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 22 mg/dl. He has a history of mild dementia and his mental status is unchanged from his last visit. These findings indicate that the patient:

Can be treated as an outpatient

Requires hospitalization for treatment

Requires a high dose of parenteral antibiotic

Can be treated with oral antibiotics

Question 16. Which of the following is considered a “red flag” when diagnosing a patient with pneumonia?

Fever of 102

Infiltrates on chest X-ray

Pleural effusion on chest X-ray

Elevated white blood cell count

Question 17. A 23-year-old patient who has had bronchiectasis since childhood is likely to have which of the following:

Barrel-shaped chest

Clubbing

Pectus excavatum

Prolonged capillary refill

Question 18. Your patient has just returned from a 6-month missionary trip to Southeast Asia. He reports unremitting cough, hemoptysis, and an unintentional weight loss of 10 pounds over the last month. These symptoms should prompt the clinician to suspect:

Legionnaires’ disease

Malaria

Tuberculosis

Pneumonia

Question 19. A 76-year-old patient with a 200-pack year smoking history presents with complaints of chronic cough, dyspnea, fatigue, hemoptysis, and weight loss over the past 2 months. The physical exam reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the left lower lung field. The chest X-ray demonstrates shift of the mediastinum and trachea to the left. These are classic signs of:

Lung cancer

Tuberculosis

Pneumonia

COPD

Question 20. A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after sustaining multiple traumatic injuries after a motorcycle accident.Upon examination, you note tachypnea, use of intercostal muscles to breathe, asymmetric chest expansion, and no breath sounds over the left lower lobe. It is most important to suspect:

Pulmonary embolism

Pleural effusion

Pneumothorax

Fracture of ribs

NSG6420 Week 2

NSG6420 Week 2 Quiz latest 2017

Question 1. An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to:

Acoustic neuroma

Cerumen impaction

Otitis media

Ménière’s disease

Question 2. In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of:

Bacterial sinusitis

Allergic rhinitis

Drug abuse

Skull fractur

Question 3. A 45 year old patient presents with ‘sore throat’ and fever for one week. After a quick strep screen you determine the patient has Strep throat. You know that streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent complications and to shorten the course of disease. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered when a patient is allergic to Penicillin?

Amoxicillin

EES (erythromycin)

Bicillin L-A

Dicloxacillin

Question 4. Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with:

Physiologic aging

Ménière’s disease

Cerumen impaction

Herpes zoster

Question 5. Epistaxis can be a symptom of:

Over-anticoagulation

Hematologic malignancy

Cocaine abuse

All of the above

Question 6. Your patient has been using chewing tobacco for 10 years. On physical examination, you observe a white ulceration surrounded by erythematous base on the side of his tongue. The clinician should recognize that very often this is:

Malignant melanoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Aphthous ulceration

Behcet’s syndrome

Question 7. A 26 year old patient presents with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note that their eyes have been watering clear fluid and a ‘runny nose’ since yesterday. They note they ‘feel miserable’ and demand something to make them feel better. What would be the best first plan of treatment?

Saline nasal spray for congestion and acetaminophen as needed for pain.

Z-pack (azithromycin) for infection and Cromolyn nasal for congestion

Hydrococone/acetaminophen as needed for pain and Guaifensin for congestion

Cephalexin for infection and Cromolyn ophthalmic for congestion

Question 8. Which of the following findings should trigger an urgent referral to a cardiologist or neurologist?

History of bright flash of light followed by significantly blurred vision

History of transient and painless monocular loss of vision

History of monocular severe eye pain, blurred vision, and ciliary flush

All of the above

Question 9. Dizziness that is described as “lightheaded” or, “like I’m going to faint,” is usually caused by inadequate cerebral perfusion and is classified as?

Presyncope

Disequilibrium

Vertigo

Syncope

Question 10. It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected.

Cataract

Macular degeneration

Acute closed-angle glaucoma

Chronic open-angle glaucoma

Question 11. Mr. GC presents to the clinic with nausea and vomiting for 2 days, prior to that time he reports occasional ‘dizziness’ that got better with change in position. He denies a recent history of URI or any history of headaches or migraines. What would the most likely diagnosis be?

Vestibular neruitis

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

Vestibular migraine

Benign hypertensive central vertigo

Question 12. Which of the following patients with vertigo would require neurologic imaging?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and sudden acute onset constant vertigo. She has right nystagmus that changes direction with gaze and that does not disappear when she focuses.

A 45-year-old man with recurrent episodes of brief intense vertigo every time he turns his head rapidly. He has no other neurologic signs or symptoms. He has a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

A 66-year-old man with recurrent episodes of vertigo associated with tinnitus and hearing loss. His head thrust test is positive.

A 28-year-old otherwise well woman with new onset constant vertigo with no other neurologic symptoms. On physical exam, she has unidirectional nystagmus that disappears when her gaze is fixed.

Question 13.A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your examination reveals the palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely with:

Bacterial conjunctivitis

Allergic conjunctivitis

Chemical conjunctivitis

Viral conjunctivitis

Question 14. In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a “red flag” finding when associated with eye redness?

History of prior red-eye episodes

Grossly visible corneal defect

Exophthalmos

Photophobia

Question 15. A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the inflammation?

Bacterium

Allergen

Virus

Fungi

Question 16. Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of Immunoglobulin E (IgE) will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response. This release of histamine results in which of the following?

Sinus pain, increased vascular permeability, and bronchodilation

Bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and vasodilatation

Contraction of smooth muscle, decreased vascular permeability, and vasoconstriction

Vasodilatation, bronchodilation, and increased vascular permeability

Question 17. You have a patient complaining of vertigo and want to know what could be the cause. Knowing there are many causes for vertigo, you question the length of time the sensation lasts. She tells you several hours to days and is accompanied by tinnitus and hearing loss. You suspect which of the following conditions?

Ménière’s disease

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

Migraine

Question 18. In examining the mouth of an older adult with a history of smoking, the nurse practitioner finds a suspicious oral lesion. The patient has been referred for a biopsy to be sent for pathology. Which is the most common oral precancerous lesion?

Fictional keratosis

Keratoacanthoma

Lichen planus

Leukoplakia

Question 19. Rheumatic heart disease is a complication that can arise from which type of infection?

Epstein-Barr virus

Diphtheria

Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 20. A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered?

Mono spot

Strep test

Throat culture

All of the above

NSG6420 Week 1

NSG6420 Week 1 Quiz latest 2017

Question 1. The major impact of the physiological changes that occur with aging is:

Reduced physiological reserve

Reduced homeostatic mechanisms

Impaired immunological response

All of the above

Question 2. Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:

Less obesity rates than women

Prostate enlargement

Testosterone

Less estrogen than women

Question 3. The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:

Inhibited by drugs

Induced by drugs

Inhibited or induced by drugs

Associated with decreased liver perfusion

Question 4. Functional abilities are best assessed by:

Self-report of function

Observed assessment of function

A comprehensive head-to-toe examination

Family report of function

Question 5. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) is classified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. This classification refers to which of the following laboratory data?

Hemoglobin and Hematocrit

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) and Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)

Serum ferritin and serum iron

Total iron binding capacity and transferrin saturation

Question 6. When interpreting laboratory data, you would expect to see the following in a patient with Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD):

Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH decreased

Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV increased, MCH increased

Hemoglobin <12 g/dl, MCV normal, MCH normal

Hemoglobin >12 g/dl, MCV decreased, MCH increased

Question 7. The pathophysiological hallmark of ACD is:

Depleted iron stores

Impaired ability to use iron stores

Chronic unable bleeding

Reduced intestinal absorption of iron

Question 8. The main focus of treatment of patients with ACD is:

Replenishing iron stores

Providing for adequate nutrition high in iron

Management of the underlying disorder

Administration of monthly vitamin B12 injections

Question 9. In addition to the complete blood count (CBC) with differential, which of the following laboratory tests is considered to be most useful in diagnosing ACD and IDA?

Serum iron

Total iron binding capacity

Transferrin saturation

Serum ferritin

Question 10. Symptoms in the initial human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection include all of the following except:

Sore throat

Fever

Weight loss

Headache

Question 11. Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except:

Chief complaint

History of the present illness

Current vital signs

All of the above are essential history components

Question 12.Which of the following clinical reasoning tools is defined as evidence-based resource based on mathematical modeling to express the likelihood of a condition in select situations, settings, and/or patients?

Clinical practice guideline

Clinical decision rule

Clinical algorithm

Clinical recommendation

Question 13. The first step in the genomic assessment of a patient is obtaining information regarding:

Family history

Environmental exposures

Lifestyle and behaviors

Current medications

Question 14.In autosomal recessive (AR) disorders, individuals need:

Only one mutated gene on the sex chromosomes to acquire the disease

Only one mutated gene to acquire the disease

Two mutated genes to acquire the disease

Two mutated genes to become carriers

Question 15. In AR disorders, carriers have:

Two mutated genes; two from one parent that cause disease

A mutation on a sex chromosome that causes a disease

A single gene mutation that causes the disease

One copy of a gene mutation but not the disease

Question 16. A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder will:

Not be affected by the disorder herself

Transmit the disorder to 50% of her offspring (male or female)

Not transmit the disorder to her daughters

Transmit the disorder to only her daughters

Question 17. According to the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA):

Nurse Practitioners (NPs) should keep all genetic information of patients confidential

NPs must obtain informed consent prior to genetic testing of all patients

Employers cannot inquire about an employee’s genetic information

All of the above

Question 18. Which of the following would be considered a “red flag” that requires more investigation in a patient assessment?

Colon cancer in family member at age 70

Breast cancer in family member at age 75

Myocardial infarction in family member at age 35

All of the above

Question 19. Your 2-year-old patient shows facial features, such as epicanthal folds, up-slanted palpebral fissures, single transverse palmar crease, and a low nasal bridge. These are referred to as:

Variable expressivity related to inherited disease

Dysmorphic features related to genetic disease

De novo mutations of genetic disease

Different penetrant signs of genetic disease

Question 20.In order to provide a comprehensive genetic history of a patient, the NP should:

Ask patients to complete a family history worksheet

Seek out pathology reports related to the patient’s disorder

Interview family members regarding genetic disorders

All of the above

NR 511 Week 4

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5

Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics

Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:

intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure

Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity

Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?

Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?

Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells

Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

10%
20%
30%
d. 50%

Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test

Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

Pregnancy test
Pelvic ultrasound
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

Propranolol
Ergotamine
b. Timolol
Topiramate

Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 3

Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?

Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care

Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics

Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

Metranidazole
Ceftriaxone
Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:

intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

“It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure

Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

Commitment
Consensus
Certification
d. Collaboration

Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

Overweight
Mild obesity
Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity

Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above

Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

4
8 d
10
d. 15

Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?

Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

Radical orchidectomy
Lumpectomy
Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

“L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

Spores
Leukocytes
Pseudohyphae
Epithelial cells

Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer

Inguinal hernia
Varicocele
d. All of the above

Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

Low-dose aspirin
Thiazide diuretics
Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy

Beneficence
Justice
d. Veracity

Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

10%
20%
30%
d. 50%

Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test

Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above

Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

An enlarged rubbery gland
A hard irregular gland
A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?

You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.

Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

Sinus bradycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test

Pelvic ultrasound .
Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

Propranolol
Timolol
Ergotamine
d. Topiramate

Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

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BSBMKG414 Undertake marketing activities

Formative question

Activity 1.

What is marketing? (20-40words)

What is the USP? (20-40 words)

Consider an organisation with a strong market presence. How does the organisation market itself and what is its USP? (50-75 words)

Activity 2.

What might policies and procedures used in the workplace in regard to marketing activities bebased on? (30-50 words)

What information can you find in an organisation’s marketing plan in relation to pricing? What will the organisation have taken into account when setting pricing levels? 100-150words

Activity 3.

How can you determine the need for marketing activities? Provide at least three examples.

Activity 4.

How can you investigate previous marketing activities for relevant information? Provide at least five examples.

Describe the meaning of tactical, strategic and investment decision that might have been made in previous marketing activities. 1sentence each

Activity 5.

Explain the value of profiling the market segment. 75-125words

Think about a product that has been successfully marketed. Identify the market segments that have been targeted as part of the marketing campaign. 20-40words

Activity 6.

What is positioning? 1 sentence

What is market mix? 20-40words

Describe how to create a positioning strategy. 150-200 words

Activity 7.

What question might an organisation ask to identify expected marketing activity outcomes? Provides at least three examples.

How can colleagues be prepared for marketing activities? Provide at least two examples.

Activity 8.

How can information be analysed? Provide at least three examples

What question do you need to ask when conducting a customer analysis? Provide at least five examples

Activity 9.

What steps can be taken to develop activity plans? 1 sentence

What resource might be needed for documenting work activities? Provide at least three examples

Activity 10

From whom should you seek approval for plans? Provides at least three examples

What processes could you go through to obtain approval of plans? 1 sentence

Activity 11.

What types of resouces can be required for implementing marketing activities? Provide three examples.

You have been asked to put together a sample bag to be given out at a product launch. What will you need to do? 75-125 words

Activity 12

What type of marketing activities might an organisation become involved in? Provide at least two examples.

Consider an organization with a strong market presence. What types of activities does it undertake? Which work best? Why? 50-75 words

Activity 13

Outline the responsibilities of a copywriter. 30-50words

Who are considered relevant marketing personnel within an organization? Provide at least five examples.

Activity 14.

How can marketing activities be reviewed? Provide at least five examples.

When marketing activities have been reviewed, how can they be amended? 30-50words

Activity 15

How can outcomes of marketing activities be measured? Provide at least three examples.

How can outcomes of marketing activities be documented? Provide at least two examples.

Activity 16.

Hoe can you review expected outcomes of marketing activities? 40-60words

How can they be documented? 1 sentence

Acitivty 17.

What are the main components of a report? You shoud able to identify at least 10

Summative assessment 1

Question 1.

Identify the seven basic steps in planning marketing activities.

Question 2

List five examples of basic marketing activities.

Question 3.

Describe the difference between organisational policies, procedures and practices. 150-200 words

Question 4.

Outline how market research can be used to assess suitability of an organisation’s existing products. Why is it difficult to introduce and market a new product or service? 75-100words

Summative Assessment 2.

Project

The owner of a new animal training school, which uses a special new technique and claims to be able to teach dogs read, contacts your advertising agency.

The short-term goal of the new training school is to expand its small premises on the outskirts of Brisbane to a nationally recognised company with many school in all the major cities and large provincial towns

The long-term goal of the school is to expand, over a 10 year period, from its base in Australia into America.

Describe in a report form how you would put together a team to :

Conduct market research
Develop product knowledge
Examine the situation including previous marketing activities and decide on a plan of action
Clearly describe the goals that you have set
How you would allocate roles and responsibilities to individuals members of your team
What resources will you required (including team members)
Set realistic timeline for your campaign
Describe how you will obtain budget figures and relate actual cost to the budget
Compile and attach an agenda for the inaugural team meetings
Outline promotional activities that should be planned and some advertising methods that could be used but may not be appropriate
Detail why, in your opinion, they would not be appropriate
Describe how you intend to set up relationships with relevant groups and what groups would be targeted
What networks will be used to assist in the promotion
What brainstorming is and why it can be useful
Review marketing activities

1000-2000words

Production/Operation

Draft written responses to the following text questions. Please be sure to answer the whole question as an essay in a thorough manner. Please provide at least a full page of text

Define Inventory and give 5 examples of inventory
Give 4 reasons to hold inventory
What is the difference between fixed order quantity and fixed order interval in inventory management?
Explain briefly what does the 80/20 rule means in inventory management

DEVRY POLI330 Week 8 Final Exam 1

(TCO 1) Historians and political scientists are different because historians _____ and political scientists _____. (Points : 2)

A) Historians look for generalizations, while political scientists are reluctant to generalize
B) Historians are somewhat more reluctant to generalize, while political scientists look for generalizations
C) Historians are much more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists are
D) Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, while political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations

(TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)

A) Political scientists often train politicians
B) Politicians often train political scientists

C)Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter

D) Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable

(TCO 1) Voting for someone who is charismatic but whose policies might not benefit you would be considered _____ behavior. (Points : 2)

A) irrational
B) rational
C) legitimate
D) selfish

(TCO 1) _____ is the use of public office for private gain.(Points : 2)

A) Sovereignty
B) Corruption
C) Authority
D) Legitimacy

(TCO 1) The notion that we acknowledge the rightful roles of our leaders or our laws is known as _____. (Points : 2)

A) sovereignty
B) authority
C) legitimacy
D) monarchy

(TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____

A) scholarship
B) theory
C) power
D) culture

(TCO 1) The term for measuring with numbers is _____. (Points : 2)

A) quantify
B) hypothesis
C) qualify
D) empirical

(TCO 4) The English common law stressed the rights of free and equal men and was developed on the basis of precedent set by earlier judges, known today as _____. (Points : 2)

A) judge-made law

B) judicial precedent

C) example by trial

D) court-generated

(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern? (Points : 2)

A) Extortion

B) Theft

C) Divorce

D) Trafficking

(TCO 4) The concept of judicial review falls under which article of the U.S. Constitution?(Points : 2)

A) Article I: The Legislative Branch

B) Article III: The Judicial Branch

C) Article VI: Debts, Supremacy, Oaths

D) Judicial review is not mentioned in the U.S. Constitution.

(TCO 4) Who nominates and approves federal judges in the U.S. court system? (Points : 2)

A) The President and the Senate

B) The Senate and the House

C) The President and Speaker of the House

D) The Senate and the Secretary of State

(TCO 4) Which of the following was an argument against granting the U.S. Supreme Court the power of judicial review? (Points : 2)

A) Many feared that such a power would give the Court a double check and compromise its neutrality.

B) Some thought that such power would create untrustworthy judges.
C) The founding fathers argued that judicial review would lead to undue indictments by the Court.
D) Drafters of the Constitution feared that few laws would ever be set in stone.

(TCO 4) Examine the ideal role of American judges. (Points : 2)

A) Judges should intervene frequently, interpreting the law according to their expertise and ensuring a fair trial

B) Judges should act as umpires, passively watching the legal drama and ruling only on disputed points of procedure
C) Judges should not intervene unless attorneys object, at which point they may either overrule or sustain the objection

D) Judges should take an active role, questioning witnesses, eliciting evidence, and commenting on procedure.

(TCO 4) In Lombard v. Louisiana (1963), the Warren Court supported _____, ruling that blacks who had refused to leave a segregated lunch counter could not be prosecuted. (Points : 2)

A) boycotts

B) sit-ins

C) picket lines

D) protests

(TCO 5) Why do the responsibilities of legislative and executive powers often overlap? (Points : 2)

A) Separation of powers is rarely clear-cut
B) Separation of powers is rare among industrialized nations
C) Separation of powers is absolute
D) Separation of powers grants obtuse levels of power to the executive branch.

(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)

A) Every four years
B) Every six years
C) Every eight years
D) When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executivelegislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States. (Points : 2)

A) cooperation
B) stagnation
C) deadlock
D) insolvency

(TCO 5) Who directly calls forth the leader of the largest party to take office with a cabinet and become the prime minister? (Points : 2)

A) The voters
B) Parliament
C) The monarch
D) The House of Commons

DEVRY POLI330 Week 8 Final Exam 2

(TCO 5) When it comes to electing officials, which factor matters the most to voters in both presidential and parliamentary elections? (Points : 2)

A) Party affiliation

B) Political ideologies

C) Money invested in campaign

D) Personality

(TCO 5) Who receives the most attention in both parliamentary and presidential systems? (Points : 2)

A) Head of state

B) Chief executive

C) The legislature

D) Voting citizens

(TCO 5) Describe how the United States expands its cabinet. (Points : 2)

A) The president can create a new department at his or her will
B) Congress must agree on the new department and provisions for its funds must be made
C) In order for a new department to be developed, a former one must be deleted
D) New departments are no longer developed

(TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations. (Points : 2)

A) Marxism

B) laissez-faire

C) public-choice

D) Keynesian

(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissezfaire policies developed by Adam Smith? (Points : 2)

A) Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, while Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens
B) Laissez-faire policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, while Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach
C) Keynesian policies advocate for increased government control of economics, while traditional laissez-faire economics argues for a hands-free approach
D) The more liberal laissez-faire economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, while Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top one percent

(TCO 7) What event is largely considered responsible for deterring Johnson’s War on Poverty? (Points : 2)

A) Great Society

B) Vietnam War

C) Middle-class entitlements

D) Tax expenditures

(TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)

A) The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily

B) Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class

C) Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others

D) Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system

(TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)

A) Many would be left without enough to support them

B) Caps to these program would undermine the welfare state

C) It can cost them votes

D) Both are primary social safety nets

(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)

A) Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States

B) Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States

C) The United States allocates about the same to welfare

D) Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare

(TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points :2)

A) Citizens will default on their mortgages

B) Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest

C) Ultimately, the government will profit

D) Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior

(TCO 9) What is the most common response to serious domestic unrest? (Points : 2)

A) Revolution

B) Coup d’état

C) Military takeover

D) UN diplomatic action

(TCO 9) Riots triggered by police beating youths, protests against globalization, and labor strikes against austerity are all examples of _____. (Points : 2)

A) purely traditional violence

B) issue-oriented violence

C) violence carried out by civilian institutions of government

D) coups

(TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)

A) They will almost assuredly turn to violence

B) Not much will happen

C) The people will organize themselves, regardless

D) They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness

(TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)

A) They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism

B) They are poorly funded

C) They have a great deal of red-tape to get through in order to be able to communicate

D) They are often unwilling to communicate with each other

(TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____.(Points : 2)

A) for it alone ended with a democratic institutions
B) because it became an example for other nations
C) because it managed to route what was then the great world power
D) for it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions

(TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)

A) Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
B) Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
C) Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
D) Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure

(TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage?(Points : 2)

A) The low level of education in developing nations

B) The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations

C) The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations

D) The massive corruption now found in the developing lands

POLI330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?

Communities where some possess much

Communities where some have nothing

All of the above

None of the above

Question 2

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

Life is nasty and brutish.

Power resided with the proletariat.

Empirical research is important.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.

the contractualists

Marxists

behavioralism

systems theory

Question 4

(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.

the social contract

institutions

behavioralism

superstructure

Question 5

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

Question 6

(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?

Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.

Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.

Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.

Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.

Chapter 3, page 37

Question 7

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

Markets regulate themselves.

Question 8

(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?

Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.

Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.

Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.

Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.

Question 9

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

Liberals

Conservatives

Marxists

Libertarians

Question 10

(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.

Liberalism

Conservatism

Socialism

Fascism

POLI330 Week 1 Quiz

Question

Question 1

(TCO 1) Aristotle’s view that humans live naturally in herds is most related to what explanation for political power?

Biology

Psychology

Anthropology

Economics

Question 2

(TCO 1) The statement “Man is by nature a political animal”is attributed to _____.

Niccolo Machiavelli

Seymour Martin Lipset

Mao Zedong

Aristotle

Question 3

(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.

irrationally

rationally

politically

legitimately

Question 4

(TCO 1) The notion that we acknowledge the rightful roles of our leaders or our laws is known as _____.

sovereignty

authority

legitimacy

monarchy

Question 5

(TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____.

charisma

control

legitimacy

sovereignty

Question 6

(TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence.

quantify

hypothesis

qualify

empirical

Question 7

(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.

reason

balance

theory

rationality

Question 8

(TCO 1) Descriptions of political phenomena often lack _____.

rationality

reasoning

theory

balance

Question 9

(TCO 1) _____ is a subfield of political science.

Public administration

Anthropology

Biology

Sociology

Question 10

(TCO 1) Which are both true for most politicians?

They think practically and are skeptical of power.

They seek popularity and hold firm views.

They offer single causes and think abstractly.

They seek accuracy and offer long-term consequences.

POLI330 Week 3 Quiz

Question

Question 1

(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.

a monarchy

a republic

institutionalization

a state

Question 2

(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.

corrupt; one

corrupt; a few

corrupt; many

legitimate; many

Question 3

(TCO 2) Which of the following descriptions best depicts a federal system of government?

The central government maintains all the power.

The first-order subdivisions maintain all the power.

Federal systems exist where there are no governments.

Federal systems have divided power between a central government and first-order governments.

Question 4

(TCO 2) In a single-member district election, the winner receives a minimum of _____.

a plurality of the votes

50% of the votes

two-thirds of the votes

three-fourths of the votes

Question 5

(TCO 2) If the Green Party receives 15% of the vote in a proportional system, which of the following is likely to happen?

The Green Party would receive no seats.

The Green Party would try to form a coalition with other parties.

The Green Party would attempt to gerrymander districts to its advantage.

The Green Party would demand a recount of the votes.

Question 6

(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?

High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits

Question 7

(TCO 2) The concept of basic law originated in which country?

Britain

France

Germany

United States

Question 8

(TCO 2) Which type of regime has a free media, competitive elections, and protected civil liberties?

Democratic

Transitional

Authoritarian

Totalitarian

Question 9

(TCO 2) The mass media in totalitarian states _____.

show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, but practice a mildly critical attitude toward the official ideology

question the system, but still push the official ideology

show the system is functioning well under wise leaders, and sell the official ideology

question the system only in times of crisis, otherwise selling the official ideology

Question 10

(TCO 2) What are features of an all-encompassing ideology?

An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and acceptance of an imperfect society

An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in black-and-white terms, and claims of a perfect society

An eclectic sense of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society

An official theory of history and economics, a portrayal of the world in complex terms, and claims of a perfect society

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation

Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process. Address the following in your multimedia presentation:

Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?

Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.

Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.

Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.

Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab

For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document

POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.

Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.

Electoral College Simulation Exercise

Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election. Based on information contained in the chart determine the following

The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis

Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?

Alabama91,159,245749,948

Alaska3195,227112,878

Arizona111,089,449975,674

Arkansas6554,724478,912

California555,976,0486,350,244

Colorado91,076,1241,055,465

Connecticut7714,368824,202

Delaware3184,348190,229

District of Columbia390,108125,978

Florida294,129,9973,784,259

Georgia161,740,7761,508,254

Hawaii4200,454224,728

Idaho4376,989245,774

Illinois202,529,4272,615,226

Indiana111,257,0701,148,334

Iowa6740,291752,882

Kansas6645,822512,678

Kentucky8997,244878,421

Louisiana81,002,124924,855

Maine4332,427368,399

Maryland101,029,2781,257,722

Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331

Michigan162,414,7772,391,872

Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624

Mississippi6649,442502,292

Missouri101,245,9781,440,356

Montana3259,129174,434

Nebraska5499,927276,321

Nevada6398,727412,012

New Hampshire4340,492332,638

New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209

New Mexico5369,284370,544

New York293,688,4213,828,477

North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476

North Dakota3197,245110,289

Ohio182,829,6872,777,421

Oklahoma7845,779624,552

Oregon7901,244904,100

Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542

Rhode Island4200,440210,402

South Carolina9850,050714,846

South Dakota3230,727154,786

Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385

Texas383,789,4593,598,334

Utah6500,450401,290

Vermont3122,774182,104

Virginia131,547,9941,607,747

Washington121,390,2241,420,462

West Virginia5364,449367,429

Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202

Wyoming3130,757100,527

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________

Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

click “View in Browser.”

Click the link above to submit your assignment.

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:

Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):

Facts of the case
Issues
Rule

Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.

Your assignment must:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.

Rubric:

Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Grid View
List View

Unacceptable Below 70% F

Fair 70-79% C

Proficient 80-89% B

Exemplary 90-100% A

PAD525-A3-1
1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-2
2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-3
3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

PAD525-A3-4
4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

PAD525-A3-5
5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

PAD525-A3-6
6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)

Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

PAD525-A3-7
7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

PAD525-A3-8
8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)

More than 6 errors present

Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)

5-6 errors present

Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)

3-4 errors present

Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)

0-2 errors present

PAD525-A3-9
9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)

Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)

Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)

Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)

Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.

Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

POLI 330 Week 1 to week 6

POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.

Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.

Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.

Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?

Social contract theory

The role of power in politics

The role of wealth in society

The connection between race and politics

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.

irrationally

rationally

politically

legitimately

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.

sovereignty

corruption

authority

legitimacy

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.

sovereignty

authority

legitimacy

monarchy

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.

scholarship

corruption

a methodology

a hypothesis

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.

reason

balance

theory

rationality

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?

People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.

Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.

Republicans are older than Democrats.

Corruption is rampant in government.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?

Public administration

Public policy

Comparative politics

Political theory

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?

They think practically and seek accuracy.

They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.

They offer single causes and think abstractly.

They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.

POLI330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following best characterizes Aristotle?

He explained both what is and what ought to be.

He neither explained what is nor what ought to be.

He only explained what ought to be.

He only explained what is.

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

Empirical research is important.

Power resided with the proletariat.

Life is nasty and brutish.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) If _____ were alive, he might suggest that poor academic performance in schools could be attributed to a society that does not promote education and provides few resources devoted to schools.

Jean-Jacques Rousseau

Thomas Hobbes

John Locke

Niccolo Machiavelli

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following would most likely be supported by the bourgeoisie?

Conflict for economic gain

Minority rights

Equality for all

A revolt by the proletariat

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Which statement best applies to Adam Smith?

Marxists promoted his views because of concerns of the proletariat.

His views began as conservative, but are now associated with modern liberalism.

His views were once considered liberal, but are now promoted by conservatives.

His views have always been advocated by liberals.

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

Markets regulate themselves.

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Modern American conservatism would favor government involvement in what activity?

Regulating markets

A progressive tax system

Religious promotion

Protecting organized labor

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

Marxists

Liberals

Conservatives

Libertarians

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 6) Fascism existed during the 20th century in what country?

Italy

Iceland

Ireland

France

POLI330 Week 3 Quiz Latest 2018

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.

a monarchy

a republic

institutionalization

a state

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.

corrupt; one

corrupt; a few

corrupt; many

legitimate; many

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.

unitary

confederal

federal

proportional

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.

proportional representative systems

majoritarian systems

single-member districts

multimember districts

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.

a strong two-party system

the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party

representation of minor parties

the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?

High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.

liberal judges

conservative judges

judicial restraint by judges

willingness to override legislatures

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws

popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited

the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.

Authoritarian

Transitional

Oligarchic

Totalitarian

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.

To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity

To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures

To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order

To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order

POLI330 Week 4 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.

Women

The elderly

A wide variety of people

Rich individuals

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?

The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.

The people had no desire for a public option.

Democrats were not interested in a public option.

Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.

economic downturns

corporate boardrooms

specialized agencies

secret

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.

lobbying for

fully funding

advertising

openly debating

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.

rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns

give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system

establish a monocultural dependence on the party system

enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.

third parties can“post” to earn representation

major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties

it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins

it tends to promote more equal representation

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?

Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.

Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.

Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.

Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?

Typically, given the enormous number of immigrants the United States plays host to, most U.S.nonvoters are poorly versed in the tradition of voting, and are therefore are largely unengaged by most elections.

Typically, more than half of U.S. nonvoters say they that while they are interested in and satisfied with candidates, they still feel that their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.

Typically, most U.S.nonvoters say they are uninterested in or dissatisfied with candidates, feeling their vote makes no difference or that none of the candidates are really good, and the two large parties may not offer an interesting or clear-cut choice.

Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?

African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.

African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?

Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised

Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average

Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers

Partly because men tend to vote more than women

POLI330 Week 5 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Which of the following statements best defines feudalism?

A political structure in which power is dispersed evenly

A system of political power dispersed among layers

A political structure in which power rests with church leaders

A system of political power distributed to the working class

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Countries with limits on government have usually had feudal pasts, which suggests what about the dispersion of power?

Equal distribution of power is the only effective political structure.

Power must be distributed by the working class.

Power should be concentrated among the lower classes.

Dispersion of power is good and concentration of power is bad.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system?

Every 4 years

Every 6 years

Every 8 years

When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Because of the separation of powers inherent in a presidential system, some scholars think that executive-legislative _____ is common in systems like that used in the United States.

cooperation

stagnation

deadlock

insolvency

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Describe how the election process in a parliamentary system slightly resembles presidential elections in the United States.

Party chiefs run as candidates for prime minister.

Citizens vote directly for the each new prime minister.

Citizens vote for a party member with the knowledge that the next prime minister will be the head of the largest party.

The prime minister is appointed for a 4-year term and can be reappointed one time.

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Distinguish the process that a parliamentary system uses to oust a chief executive from the one available in the U.S. presidential system.

Parliamentary systems rely on impeachment and presidential ones rely on constructive no confidence.

Parliamentary systems use constructive no confidence and presidential systems have the option of impeachment.

The prime minister can dissolve parliament and the president can resign from office.

Parliamentary systems can hold a vote of no confidence and presidential ones have the option of impeachment.

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which of the following issues is a civil concern?

Extortion

Theft

Divorce

Trafficking

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) International law consists of _____ and established customs recognized by most nations.

treaties

ratification

amendments

cease-fires

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges?

Judicial Ratings Bureau

Federal Bureau of Judicial Review

American Bar Association

Office of Legal Assessment

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison.

The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.

The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.

The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.

The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.

POLI330 Week 6 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Radicals use the term “political economy” instead of _____ to describe their critique of capitalism and the inequitable distribution of wealth among nations.

Marxism

laissez-faire

public choice

Keynesian

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) How do Keynesian economic policies differ from the traditional laissez-faire policies developed by Adam Smith?

Laissez-faire policies advocate for “cutthroat” capitalism, and Keynesian policies seek to spread wealth equally among a nation’s citizens.

Keynesian economics advocates for increased government control of economics, and traditional laissez-faire argues for a hands-free approach.

Smithian policies advocate for increased spending and stimuli for government-run businesses, and Keynesian economics argues for a hands-free approach.

The more liberal Smithian economies distribute wealth more evenly among society, and Keynesian economics tends to distribute wealth among the top 1%.

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) During the 1970s, critics developed this new term to describe inflation with stagnant economic growth.

Growth Slope

Quagmire

Stagflation

Recession

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____.

doubled

greatly decreased

slightly increased

rapidly increased

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) The _____ administration simplified the Food Stamp program by eliminating the provision that recipients buy the stamps at a discount with their own money.

Kennedy

Johnson

Ford

Carter

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Medical costs consume nearly _____% of the U.S.gross domestic product, most of it paid through government and private health insurance.

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Many Americans think the federal budget goes primarily toward welfare, which is _____.

absolutely true

somewhat exaggerated

not at all the case

slightly offensive

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations?

Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.

Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.

The United States allocates about the same to welfare.

Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) What was the poverty line in 2012?

$14,505

$17,060

$23,050

$26,750

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 7) Investigate what historically happens to conservatives when firms are supposedly “too big to fail.”

Conservatives argue for expensive bail-out packages.

Most conservatives suggest letting the free market run its course.

Most argue against expensive stimulus packages.

They switch parties.

POLI330 Week 3 Quiz

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Hereditary rule by one person is known as _____.

a monarchy

a republic

institutionalization

a state

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) According to Aristotle, democracy is the _____ form of government by _____.

corrupt; one

corrupt; a few

corrupt; many

legitimate; many

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) The idea that American states serve as “laboratories of democracy” is an advantage of _____ systems of government.

unitary

confederal

federal

proportional

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) In _____, representatives are elected based on their party’s percentage of the vote.

proportional representative systems

majoritarian systems

single-member districts

multimember districts

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) An advantage of a proportional representation system of government would be _____.

a strong two-party system

the ability to draw districts to favor the majority party

representation of minor parties

the ability of the central government to provide benefits to the populations

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Welfare states tend to have which of the following combinations of state ownership and welfare benefits?

High levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

High levels of state ownership but low levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and high levels of welfare benefits

Low levels of state ownership and low levels of welfare benefits

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Judicial activism refers to _____.

liberal judges

conservative judges

judicial restraint by judges

willingness to override legislatures

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Though rare, a “true” democracy, is a system in which _____.

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials

all citizens meet periodically to elect officials and personally enact laws

popular accountability is common, but political competition is extremely limited

the wealthy almost always have greater influence than the poor

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) _____ states regularly use organized terror and violence against their citizens to maintain control and achieve their goals.

Authoritarian

Transitional

Oligarchic

Totalitarian

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 2) Describe the purpose of total control as relates to the image of the state.

To reveal the state as a genuine and open entity

To excuse the state’s invasive and/or violent political measures

To convey to the citizens a perception of only everyday order

To convey to visitors a perception of nearly perfect order

POLI330 Week 4 Quiz

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Explain which individuals have the most influence on politics via interest groups.

Women

The elderly

A wide variety of people

Rich individuals

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why did the 2010 healthcare reform bill contain no provision for public insurance options?

The insurance industry blocked the Democrats’ efforts for a public option.

The people had no desire for a public option.

Democrats were not interested in a public option.

Farmers, heavily invested in the insurance industry, blocked them

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) A great deal of legislation originates in _____.

economic downturns

corporate boardrooms

specialized agencies

secret

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Some interest groups maintain a low profile by promoting their objectives without _____ them.

lobbying for

fully funding

advertising

openly debating

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) By welcoming new groups into their ranks, parties _____.

rob those groups of their individual interests and concerns

give groups a pragmatic and psychological stake in the overall political system

establish a monocultural dependence on the party system

enhance political hegemony by disenfranchising voters outside of these groups

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) The American electoral system is based on the British “first past the post” (FPTP) system, named so because _____.

third parties can“post” to earn representation

major parties are subject to intense scrutiny by third parties

it resembles a horse race; even a nose better wins

it tends to promote more equal representation

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Which of the following is an advantage to having less powerful, less centralized parties?

Fluid and flexible parties may be better able to process demands from a wider range of citizens.

Multiple party platforms possess greater persuasive abilities over the general public.

Parties can form a stronger organizational identity based around a single, cohesive ideology.

Third parties can effectively shoot for power grabs at legislative seats.

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why do Americans vote so little?

Typically, most U.S.voters find it impossible to convince others to vote, despite the fact that nonvoters are most likely to vote if convinced by those close to them.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) What was the relationship between African American voting rates and Barack Obama’s run for president?

African American voting rates rose to those of white voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates unexpectedly remained far below those of white voters as African American income and education levels remained steady.

African American voting rates rose to those of Hispanic voters as African American income and education levels rose.

African American voting rates fell unexpectedly below those of white voters despite African American income and education levels rising.

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) Why is it that in most of the world, cities have higher turnouts than rural areas?

Partly because those who live rurally tend to feel less enfranchised

Partly because urbanites have higher education levels on average

Partly because people who have lived in the same place are less likely to vote than are transients or newcomers

Partly because men tend to vote more than women

POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz

POLI 330 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018

Question

Question 1

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists?

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.

Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.

Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.

Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

Question 2

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following did Machiavelli contribute to the study of politics?

Social contract theory

The role of power in politics

The role of wealth in society

The connection between race and politics

Question 3

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____.

irrationally

rationally

politically

legitimately

Question 4

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A political leaders’ ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____.

sovereignty

corruption

authority

legitimacy

Question 5

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Issues related to a border dispute between the United States and Canada would relate to _____.

sovereignty

authority

legitimacy

monarchy

Question 6

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) A theory that is tested in an attempt to prove or refute with evidence, is known as _____.

scholarship

corruption

a methodology

a hypothesis

Question 7

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) When scholars consider various approaches to studying a given topic, they are most concerned with _____.

reason

balance

theory

rationality

Question 8

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which of the following is the best example of theory?

People join groups because of an innate desire to be with others who have similar views.

Democratic governments last longer than nondemocratic governments.

Republicans are older than Democrats.

Corruption is rampant in government.

Question 9

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which political science subfield studies the interface of politics and economics?

Public administration

Public policy

Comparative politics

Political theory

Question 10

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 1) Which are both true for most political scientists?

They think practically and seek accuracy.

They seek popularity and are skeptical of power.

They offer single causes and think abstractly.

They are skeptical of power and offer long-term consequences.

The Politics and Administration Dichotomy

The issues of politics and administration dichotomy first raised by Woodrow Wilson continue to generate debate among scholars of public administration in modern time. While some think Wilson’s idea was useful, others reject the idea as impossible. In a 2-3 page paper, and in your opinion, is that distinction practical and workable? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using such a dichotomy today as a way to advance that field of study? Support your case with examples.

Korea Unification

Assignment 1-1050 words

How can a culture that produces exquisite art still be at war? Well, I suppose that the two have little to do with each other.

Of course, one has to question whether or not war is really a matter of the Korean Peninsula per se. Rather, Korea seems to have been caught in the global cold war. Right on the front lines of the conflict between the United States and China and the Soviet Union, Korea was pulled apart more by global forces than by internal politics.

After the fall of the Soviet Union, after the money used to support North Korea is gone, we are left with a tense situation on the Korean Peninsula itself.

So what can be done?

Can Korea reunify?

Case Assignment

Please answer the following question:

Given the lessons you learned about German reunification in the last module, what are the most important issues facing efforts towards Korean peninsula reunification?

Please answer this question in three to five pages and turn it in by the end of this module. Do not forget to refer closely to the background information.

Assignment 2-700 word

What role does the United States play in the current Korean conflict?

Review the material in the background information page.

Then write a two to three page paper answering this question:

Why is the United States such an important player in the potential reunification of Korea?

Upload your papers for grading.

The SLP assignments in POL 201 generally call for a detailed analysis of the involvement of US interests in the nation being studied. In addressing SLP questions, such an analysis requires some historical perspective and a balanced and thorough consideration of that involvement

Describe about the organization American Red Cross. At least 300 words!

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Case study 10-4 performance management

Possible illegal discrimination at tractors, Inc.

As the new human resource manager, you have been asked to identify those areas of current performance management system that could face legal challenge. Develop a one page summantion, the currentsystem identifying the potentially illegal aspect of the current system and your suggestion for making the current system more legally sound.

Lance Berkman is the controller of Saturn

Lance Berkman is the controller of Saturn, a dance club whose year-end is December 31. Berkman prepares checks for suppliers in December, makes the proper journal entries, and posts them to the appropriate accounts in that month. However, he holds on to the checks and mails them to the suppliers in January. Requirement: 1. What financial ratio(s) most affected by the action? 2. What is Berkman’s purpose in undertaking this activity?

Emma Williams’s Case

Emma Williams’s Case (Arbitration) Arbitration is a formal process of non-judicial settlement of dispute in which decision are made by independent third party known as Arbitrator. Both party in a case should be agree for the matter of referred to the arbitration. The arbitrator make decision of case either it will be in the form of documentation or hearing that take placed on agreed venue. (Source: http://www.ciarb.org). The solving dispute of employer and employee is known as labor arbitration. It solved the dispute of employer and employee, their contract or agreement, authority and employment. It is a non-judicial power that investigates and listens to the grievances, of the parties and provides a decision, which is binding on all parties involved in dispute (D. Meltzer, 1976).

Ross’s Lipstick Company’s long-term

Ross’s Lipstick Company’s long-term debt agreements make certain demands on the business. For example, Ross may not purchase treasury stock in excess of the balance of retained earnings. Also, long-term debt may not exceed stockholders’ equity, and the current ratio may not fall below 1.50. If Ross fails to meet any of these requirements, the company’s lenders have the authority to take over management of the company. Changes in consumer demand have made it hard for Ross to attract customers. Current liabilities have mounted faster than current assets, causing the current ratio to fall to 1.47. Before releasing financial statements, Ross’s management is scrambling to improve the current ratio. the controller points out that an investment can be classified as either long-term or short-term, depending on management’s intention. By deciding to convert an investment to cash within one year Ross can classify the investment as short-term – – current asset. On the controller’s recommendation, Ross’s board of directors votes to reclassify long-term investments to shortterm. 1. What effect will reclassifying the investments have on the current ratio? Is Ross’s true financial position stronger as a result of reclassifying the investments?2. Shortly after the financial statements are released, sales improve; so, too, does the current ratio. As a result, Ross’s management decides not to sell the investments it had reclassified as short-term. Accordingly, the company reclassifies the investments as long-term. Has management behaved unethically? Give the reasoning underlying your answer.

Rick Pines and Joe Lopez

Rick Pines and Joe Lopez are the plant managers for High Mountain Lumber’s particle board division. High Mountain Lumber adopted a just-in-time management philosophy. Each plan combines wood chips with chemical adhesives to produce particle board to order, and all products is sold as soon as it is completed. Laura Green is High Mountain Lumber’s regional controller. All of High Mountain Lumber’s plants and divisions send Green their production and cost information. While reviewing the numbers of the two particle board plants, she is surprised to find that both plants estimate their ending Work-in-Process Inventories at 75% complete, which is higher than usual. Green calls Lopez, whom she has known for some time. He admits that to ensure their division would meet its profit goal and that both he and Pines would make their bonus (which is based on division profit), they agreed to inflate the percentage completion. Lopez explains, “Determining the percent complete always requires judgment. Whatever the percent complete, we’ll finish the Work-in-Process Inventory first thing next year.” 1. How would inflating the percentage completion of ending Work-in-Process Inventory help Pines and Lopez get their bonus? 2. The particle board division is the largest of High Mountain Lumber’s divisions. If Green does not correct the percentage completion of this year’s ending Work-in-Process Inventory, how will the misstatement affect High Mountain Lumber’s financial statements? 3. Evaluate Lopez’s justification, including the effect, if any, on next year’s financial statements.4. Address the following: What is the ethical issue? What are the options? What are the potential consequences? What should Green do?

Maverick Wings, Inc

Maverick Wings, Inc. manufactures airplanes for use in stunt shows. Maverick’s factory is highly automated, using the latest in robotic technology. To keep costs low, the company employs as few factory workers as possible. Since each plane has different features (such as its shape, weight, and color), Maverick uses a job order costing system to accumulate product costs.

legislative process

Explain the value that professional nursing organizations have in networking and in the legislative process?

Colorado springs welcome home parade

Scope Overview: Colorado is the home to multiple branches of military and six major bases including Fort Carson and the Air force academy. The city of Colorado Springs, Colorado, USA, planned a parade to welcome home troops returning from Iraq. The parad…

Nano Tech is ready to begin production

Question 1

Nano Tech is ready to begin production of its exciting new technology. The company is evaluating three methods of production: (A) a small production facility with older equipment, (B) a larger production facility that is more automated, and (C) subcontracting to an electronics manufacturer in Singapore. The costs of each alternative are shown below. Deter- mine for what level of demand each production process should be chosen.

Question 2:

Trace the path of the medication list and denote possible failure points. Construct a process ﬂowchart of the existing process and create a new chart of an improved process.
Think about the different settings: the ambulance, the emergency room, the hospital room, and the nurse’s station. How is data handled in each setting? Can the process of recording information be changed so that everyone is using the same data? How can the accuracy of the data be assured?
Given Melanie’s reaction, do you think this error will happen again? Why or why not?

Question 3:

The Henry Street Mission uses volunteers to assemble care packages for needy families during the holiday season. The mission would like to organize the work as efficiently as possible. A list of tasks, task times, and precedence requirements follows:

If the mission wants to complete a care package every 10 minutes, how many volunteers should be called in? Balance the line and calculate the efficiency. How many packages can be assembled in a four-hour period?
Suppose that volunteers are plentiful. Balance the line to maximize output. What is the efficiency of the line? How many care packages can be assembled in a four-hour period?

Question 5

Given the following network and probabilistic activity time estimates, determine the expected time and variance for each activity and indicate the critical path:

Question 6:

The following table provides the information necessary to construct a project network and project crash data:

Construct the project network.
Determine the maximum possible crash time for the network, and crash the network the maximum amount possible.
Compute the normal project cost and the cost of the crashed project.

Team cohesiveness

Discuss team cohesiveness dealing with:

Diversity

Benefits, problems/challenges of managing Diversity

Performance Review

Business Forecasting

 What is capacity management and why is it an important focus for firms?

 How does one execute capacity planning?

 Compare and contrast capacity planning for service and manufacturing businesses.

 What are enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems and why are they important?

 How are supply chains enabled and improved via ERP systems?

 How is information shared amongst business units via ERP systems?

 Why is it important for firms to focus on forecasting models?

 Compare and contrast the various types of forecasting models

Operations Forecasting

Assignment Steps

Resources: Microsoft^® Excel^®

Select a business operations dataset from the internet or other sources which can be used for forecasting in the University Library.

Develop a minimum of three quantitative forecasts using Microsoft^® Excel^®.

Compare and contrast each quantitative forecast you develop.
Choose the one forecast you determine would be the best for the firm and be prepared to explain why you chose this.
Evaluate the impact this forecast would have on the firm from a financial metrics standpoint.

Develop a 700-word report in which you describe your forecasting project including details on all the assignment steps.

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Six Sigma DMAIC

Develop a 2- to 3 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation, including talking points, highlighting your work on the three phases of the Six Sigma process improvement project.

Use the same business: Chick-Fil-A

Execute the analyze phase of the Six Sigma DMAIC project including the following:

Determine the most likely causes of defects.
Understand why defects are generated by identifying the key variables most likely to create process variation.
Identify necessary/unnecessary process steps.

The existence of just five large CPA firms that service virtually all of the major industrial and

The existence of just five large CPA firms that service virtually all of the major industrial and financial companies and thus dominate the accounting profession has led to criticism through the years.

What dangers do you see from the dominance of a few large CPA firms? What advantages?
During the 1980s and 1990s, mergers among the large public accounting firms reduced the Big 8 to the Big 5. The death of Arthur Andersen (because of the Enron scandal) reduced the number to four. One reason offered for the mergers was that they improved the ability of the merging firms to provide the broad array of consulting services that provided an increasing share of the revenues of the large accounting firms.

What problems have intensified as public accounting firms have earned an ever-larger share of their income from consulting?

Select one to two (1-2) contemporary issues in modern police operations and examine the related law

Due Week 10 and worth 180 points

Select one to two (1-2) contemporary issues in modern police operations and examine the related law enforcement agencies, change, and efficiency. The suggested contemporary issues are below:

Terrorism
Police evidence collection
Children and juvenile
Law enforcement hiring process
Criminal investigation
Gangs and drugs
Police patrol
Or other issues or topics from the textbook that interest you

Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:

Summarize the history of law enforcement operations as it relates to the issue(s) that you selected.
Determine the key law enforcement agencies that are responsible for enforcing law related to your chosen issue(s).
Explain at least one (1) major change to law enforcement operations related to the issue(s) that you selected. Next, provide at least one (1) reason why the identified change was necessary. Support your response.
Give your opinion as to whether or not the change that you determined in Question 3 improved police operations in dealing with your selected issue(s). Provide a rationale for your response.
Discuss the main requirements related to training that local and federal law enforcement agencies must address as they relate to your selected issue(s).
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources as references, such as journal articles, newspapers, magazines, and publications from law enforcement associations. Note: Wikipedia, blogs, and similar websites do not qualify as quality academic resources.

Marilyn Terrill is the senior auditor for the audit of Uden Supply Company

Reference Case Study 5-53 in the textbook.

Marilyn Terrill is the senior auditor for the audit of Uden Supply Company for the year ended December 31, 20X4. In planning the audit, Marilyn is attempting to develop expectations for planning analytical procedures based on the financial information for prior years and her knowledge of the business and the industry, including:

Based on economic conditions, she believes that the increase in sales for the current year should approximate the historical trend.
Based on her knowledge of industry trends, she believes that the gross proﬁt for 20X4 should be about 2 percent less than the percentage for 20X3.
Based on her knowledge of regulations, she is aware that the effective tax rate for the company for 20X4 has been reduced by 5 percent from that in 20X3.
Based on a review of the general ledger, she determined that average depreciable assets have increased by 10 percent.
Based on her knowledge of economic conditions, she is aware that the effective interest rate on the company’s line of credit for 20X4 was approximately 12 percent. The average outstanding balance of the line of credit is $2,300,000. This line of credit is the company’s only interest-bearing debt.
Based on her discussions with management and her knowledge of the industry, she believes that the amount of other expenses should be consistent with the trends from prior years.

Comparative income statement information for Uden Supply Company is presented in the table in Case Study 5-53 in the textbook.

Required:

Describe the purpose of analytical procedures performed in the planning stage of the audit.
Develop the expected amounts for 20X4 for each of the income statement items.
Uden’s unaudited financial statements for the current year show a 31 percent gross profit rate. Assuming that this represents a misstatement from the amount that you developed as an expectation, calculate the estimated effect of this misstatement on net income before taxes for 20X4.
Indicate whether you believe that the difference calculated in part (c) is material. Explain your answer.

Your paper should be 3-4 pages in length. Follow APA format, according to CSU-Global Guide to Writing and APA Requirements. Include a title page and reference page. Use two outside academic sources other than the textbook, course materials, or other information provided as part of the course materials.

Project Management

Choose a business in the media having difficulties with its operating model or one which is struggling in your community.

Evaluate how all or some of the items from the Operations Consulting Tool Kit in Operations and Supply Chain Management could help this business get back on track.

Determine the resources and data you will need to deploy an operations consulting engagement with this business.

Develop a business case including financial benefits on how operations consulting can have a positive impact on the business.

Develop a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation of an operations consulting engagement proposal to the Chief Operating Officer (COO) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the target firm.

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Project Management Project Management Project Management

How do companies go about designing products and services?
What are some of the issues with product and services design?
What are some of the differences in designing products for manufacturing and services?
What is operations consulting and how can it help firms to become more efficient?
What are some of the tools used by operations consultants?
How can one execute the tools of operations consulting to improve business processes?

Team cohesiveness

Discuss team cohesiveness dealing with:

Diversity

Benefits, problems/challenges of managing Diversity

Performance Review

hr management discussion

Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.

Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)

Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:

How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?

Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.

*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.

Study questions set

1.What does the Shchekino experiment tell us about the state of the Soviet economy?

2.Do planned economies offer a workable alternative to capitalism? Explain.

3.How did repressed inflation likely play a role in undermining the success of the

Gorbachev reforms in the USSR?

4.Using the Khrushchev reforms as an example, explain what “top down” reforms do not appear to be successful?

5.Explain the operation of the following sectors of the USSR: international trade, credit markets and taxation.

6.Explain the organization of the command structure within the USSR.

7.What challenges did the historic events in China present to China when it attempted to transition to a more capitalist economy under Deng Xiaoping?

Study questions for international economics

Question 1. The country of Uncoordinated requires 5 units of labor to produce one unit of corn and 10

units of labor to produce one unit of housing. Uncoordinated has 100 total units of labor

available. Uncoordinated has Leontief preferences (right-angle indifference curves) with the bend at equal shares of housing and corn. The country of Gifted requires 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of corn and 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of housing. Gifted has 10 units of labor available and Leontief preferences (right-angle

indifference curves) with the bend at 2 units of corn for every unit

of housing.

The country of Gifted requires 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of corn and 1 unit of labor to produce one unit of housing. Gifted has 10 units of labor available and Leontief preferences (right-angle indifference curves) with the bend at 2 units of corn for every unit of housing.

a) Find the autarky levels of output for both countries.

b) Identify which country has the comparative advantage in the production of each of the goods.

c) Identify which country has the absolute advantage in the production of each of the goods.

d) Develop a scheme of international trade that leaves both countries better off. In other words, show how specialization and trade can generate higher levels of consumption.

e) Is the scheme developed in (d) the only possible welfare improving trade outcome? Why or why not?

2) How would a vacation to Disneyland by Russian tourists be classified in by the BOP accounts? What if the same vacation were taken by U.S. tourists?

1) Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US,but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.

2) Explain how international factor flows (capital or labor) can substitute for international trade.

3) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events.

Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market
Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market
Imposition of a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market

4) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events.

a. Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market

Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market

5) If the US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will the welfare effect on the exporting country be?

Kelly Essay please help!!

Please see attached file for assisnment requirments. Must use 2 scholar articles.

Analyze the 4 common elements in most human disturbance according to Kelly (threat, fear, anxiety, and guilt). Compare each of these constructs with what Scripture says regarding these particular elements.

This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations

ITNW1337.20180827.543633: Introduction to the Internet

Cases and Places Activity #3 on page 32 (at the end of Chapter 1) in the HTML5 and CSS: Comprehensive, 7th Edition section of your textbook. The activity is titled Learn More About Web Access Issues. Follow the directions in the assignment and the instructions listed below.

Write a well formed, essay-style paper to your manager addressing all of the points requested in the activity.

Include separating section headers in your paper to identify each point you are addressing

Include screenshots of your search progress/results.

Use of tables, charts and lists as appropriate is encouraged and recommended.

Remember to identify and cite your sources

Use proper grammar and spelling.

Quick resources!

ITNW 1337 – 14377/003 Introduction to the internet Instructor Course Description Introduction to the Internet with emphasis on using the World Wide Web to locate, transfer, download, install, and publish information. Survey of emerging technologies on the internet. Prerequisites COSC1300 Introduction to Computers OR COSC1301 Personal Computing You will be expected to have: A personal computer with Microsoft Windows 98/2000/XP, if you wish to work at home. An internet provider (for access to the internet), if you wish to work at home. Microsoft Internet Explorer 7.0 or Firefox 2.0 (these are the latest versions) An email program to send and receive email. An email address. A word processor with spell check. Instructional Methodology This course is taught using distance-learning technologies. Exams Two exams will be given Grade Policy Grades will be based on both concepts and practical application. Exams 50% Weekly Assignments 50% Grade Scale A = 90 – 100 B = 80 – 89 C = 70 – 79 D = 60 – 69 F = all scores below 60 Required Texts New Perspectives on the Internet, 6th Edition, Comprehensive By Gary Schneider, Jessica Evans Course Technology, 2007 ISBN 13: 978-1-4188-6071-4 ISBN 10: 1-4188-6071-9 Topics and assignments Week 1 Tutorial 1 Browser Basics Week 2 Tutorial 2 Basic communication on the Internet: email encryption Week 3 Tutorial 3 Searching the Web Week 4 Tutorial 4 Information Resources on the Web Week 5 Tutorial 5 Downloading and Storing Data Week 6 Exam 1 Covers Tutorials 1 – 5 Week 7 Tutorial 6 Real-time communication on the Internet Week 8 Tutorial 7 Mass communication on the Internet Week 9 Tutorial 8 Creating Effective Web Pages Week 10 Tutorial 9 Security on the Internet and the Web Week 11 Tutorial 10 Electronic Commerce Week 12 Exam 2 Covers Tutorials 6 – 10 An Introduction to the Internet What is the Internet? The Internet is a worldwide network of computer networks that connects university, government, commercial, and other computers in over 150 countries. There are thousands of networks, tens of thousands of computers, and millions of users on the Internet, with the numbers expanding daily. Using the Internet, you can send electronic mail, chat with colleagues around the world, and obtain information on a wide variety of subjects. Three principal uses of the Internet are: • Electronic mail. Electronic mail, or e-mail, lets you electronically “mail” messages to users who have Internet E-mail addresses. Delivery time varies, but it’s possible to send mail across the globe and get a response in minutes. LISTSERVs are special interest mailing lists which allow for the exchange of information between large numbers of people. • USENET newsgroups. USENET is a system of special interest discussion groups, called newsgroups, to which readers can send, or “post” messages which are then distributed to other computers in the network. (Think of it as a giant set of electronic bulletin boards.) Newsgroups are organized around specific topics, for example, alt.education.research, alt.educa

Final Essay Assignment

Using the Word skills you have learned in this course, develop a position paper on how Word will make you a more efficient employee or student and how it relates to being a Christian. Use the following guidelines to complete your paper:

Find at least 3 sources in the Liberty University Online Library that support your position. You must demonstrate critical thinking and analysis in your paper.
Integrate a biblical perspective with your position concerning the topic. Cite directly from the Bible.
Format your paper in current APA, MLA, or Turabian style. The format you choose must be used consistently throughout your paper. For example, if you are using MLA, all formatting, in-text citations, and sources cited must be in MLA style. Use the resources available in the Additional Materials folder of Module/Week 7 to format your paper according to the proper style guidelines.
In the footer of your paper, state the formatting style used. For example, if using APA, your footer on every page must have “APA” in it.
Cite the sources in your paper, using in-text citations.
Include a citation page per your selected formatting style.
Your paper must be 500–750 words, not including the words in the headers/footers or on the title page/header and bibliography/works cited/reference page.
Apply techniques you have learned in Word to complete the final editing phase of your paper. For example, use functions such as margins, tabs, stops, spacing, indentation, and reference tools to format your paper.
Save your document as a .docx file.

Transformative Mediation Manual

For all journals, articles and books using this link: https://sherman.library.nova.edu/

You most use academic scholar they must be recent one.

Write 25 pages not include the references pages and Make sure you use APA style. Also make sure you are using good citation and inside text citation.

Mediation Manual Project

Transformative Mediation Manual

Section II – Conflict Resolution Concepts

Mediation vs. Litigation (be sure to compare directly to Transformative Model)

Similarities between Mediation and Negotiation

Section 2: Conflict Resolution Concepts

Define and understand the differences between mediation and litigation and describe the strengths of mediation (according to your model).9. Understand and demonstrate effective use of basic principles of negotiation in mediation.10. Understand how mediation is an extension of negotiation.

Section IV – Communication Skills

Asking the Right Questions

Taking Effective Notes

Using Appropriate Format for Drafting Agreement/s

Sample Agreement

Section 4: Communication Skills

Identify and demonstrate the essential elements of questioning for this mediation model.21. Identify and demonstrate the essential elements for effective note-taking or memory log of the session. 22. Identify and demonstrate the appropriate format for recording the understanding of the parties, including the use of the appropriate language for persons, dates and financial sums. 23. Understand and draft an example of a settlement agreement

Overall Sections

Clarity of the proposal
Organized training manual effectively and logically
Stressed theory, research and practice
Focused directly on the topic of mediation and readings
Supported arguments and ideas with our course readings
Provided justifications and rationales for decisions made in the trainingmanual

Clear definitions provided throughout
Clearly described “how” topics would be covered in the session (in terms of both content and process material)

Table of contents, Promotional Material & Reference Page ( sources)
Overall creativity of the training manual
Inclusion of important and relevant information
Appropriate & Effective Activities and Exercises that tie inwith course readings and material

N.Personalized manual to reflect voice, thoughts, style and ideas of student

Specifically addressed the learning objectives in the assignment

Changing health information technology landscape.

Identify a recent change in health information technology architecture or infrastructure. How has this changes processes, outcomes, or the organization?

how did the english bill of rights define english society in 1689?

how did the english bill of rights define english society in 1689? what elements of the original english bill of rights were used to shape english common law and then the american constitution through english colonialization

developing a set of data filters which could be used for an application such as audio processing in JAVA

The objective of this project is to practice producing class hierarchies, by developing a set of data filters which could be used for an application such as audio processing. This project will involve using abstract classes and inheritance to create several related classes which share functionality.

Overview:

1. Create the abstract class DataSource, which allows data to be read one floating point number at a time.
2. Create three subclasses of DataSource, namely ArraySource which draws its input from an array; SineSource which produces a sine-wave output; and DataFilter, which draws its input from another DataSource.
3. Create subclass of DataFilter called ScaleFilter, which scales (multiplies) the input by a constant; and SineScaleFilter, which scales the input by a sine wave.
4. Create a subclass of DataFilter called BufferedFilter, which uses a circular buffer to remember a range of previous input.
5. Create a subclass of BufferedFilter called EchoFilter which echoes the input with a certain delay.

Audio processing typically involves taking streams of digital data – streams of discrete, oscillating numbers – and performing various mathematical operations on them. However, there are a number of different operations you can use to process an audio stream – from the simple, like amplitude scaling (increasing and decreasing the volume), to more complicated, like filters which isolate certain audio frequencies, to specialized ones which produce different audio effects. In this project, we will set up a framework for audio filtering, and produce a few basic filters.Rules

1. You may not import any extra functionality besides the default (i.e. System, Math)
2. The main method will not be tested; you may use it any way you want.
3. All fields must be declared private or protected. This will be verified manually.
4. You may write your own helper methods, but any methods which are specifically asked for must match exactly (i.e. capitalization of the method name; number and order of the parameters).

DataSource: ( 10p)
public abstract class DataSource implements java.util.Iterator We can begin with a class that represents a generic source of data. The data we will be dealing with is a stream of Double data (remember that Double is just the reference version of the double primitive type). The data from the stream is to be read one floating point number at a time, for as long as there is data left on the stream. This class is abstract – our data-reading methods are left there as a placeholder for future classes to override. The class should implement the following:

- public DataSource() we don’t need to do anything at this point, but it’s still nice to have a constructor as a placeholder.
- @Override public abstract Double next(); this would pull the next unit of data from the stream; not implemented yet.
- @Override public abstract boolean hasNext(); this would tell us if there is more data left in the stream; not implemented yet.
- public void display() while hasNext() indicates that there is more data left in this source, println the result of toString() (hint: there’s nothing fancy about this method, and it can be written in as little as one line of code). The result will be a visual depiction of the data stream.
- @Override public String toString() this pulls a value from the source using next() and uses it to produce a text string containing a single asterisk surrounded by whitespace. Use the following code: @Override public String toString() {
  double d = next();
  if (d < -5 || d > 5) return “”;
  int i = (int)(7*d + 40);
  return String.format(“%” + i + “s”, “*”);
  }

Notice how the class declares that it implements some kind of iterator? That’s something which we gained for free, just by ensuring that we gave our methods the right names.ArraySource: (10p)
public class ArraySource extends DataSourceWe already have data sources which have no data! Let’s do something about that. This basic data source will allow you to enter an array of Double values to use as input. Calls to next() will begin with the first value in the array, and continue in order until there are no more values in the array, at which point hasNext() will begin to return false. The only new method in this class will be the constructor, although next() and hasNext() must be overriden so that the class is no longer abstract:

- public ArraySource(Double[] a) initializes the source using the array a (assume that it’s not null.
- @Override public Double next().
- @Override public boolean hasNext().

SineSource: (10p)
public class SineSource extends DataSourceThe SineSource is another source of data, but this time it generates its own data. As you may be able to guess from the name, it generates a sine wave. A sine wave has several parameters: the amplitude a represents how large it is; the frequency f represents how quickly it oscillates; and the offset d represents the moment it begins. Together, they form an equation like the following:a×sin(f×t + d)
The variable t above represents the time step: the first time you call next() corresponds to zero, the next time to 1, etc. Assume that the angle is in radians, to be consistent with Java’s built in Math functionality. We want the input to be finite so our constructor will include a maximum number of time steps before the sine wave runs out. You will implement:

- public SineSource(Double a, Double f, Double d, int steps) initializes the source using the given parameters; a, f, and d correspond to parameters in the sine equation, while steps is the total number of steps for which the SineSource will have data.
- @Override public Double next() Retrieves the next unit of data from the sine wave.
- @Override public boolean hasNext() return false once the SineSource has exceeded all of its allotted steps.

Once you’ve created this class and you think it works, you can try the following as a simple test to see what happens:new SineSource(3.0, Math.PI/20, 0.0, 100).display();
DataFilter: (10p)
public class DataFilter extends DataSourceThis class takes another DataSource as input, and sends it directly through to the next() method. This will not be useful in and of itself, but we will derive classes later which modify this functionality in order to be able to do something interesting with the data. Like with the other sources, you have the following to implement:

- public DataFilter(DataSource src) initializes so that the output of src is being used to send data to the output of this filter.
- @Override public Double next() initializes so that the output of src is being used to send data from input to output.
- @Override public boolean hasNext() this should depend on whether the input filter object still has data in it or not.

ScaleFilter: (10p)
public class ScaleFilter extends DataFilterThis filter doesn’t just pass the input to the output: it also multiplies it by a scaling constant before doing so. So if it has a scaling constant of c=5.0 and it recieves an input of 0.2, then the output it produces with next() will be 1.0. This filter will implement the following:

- public ScaleFilter(DataSource src, Double c) initializes the filter with the given data source and scaling constant c.
- @Override public Double next().

SineScaleFilter: (10p)
public class SineScaleFilter extends DataFilterThis filter is similar to the ScaleFilter, except that instead of multiplying by a constant at every step, it multiplies by a sine wave (see SineSource) at every step. This filter will implement the following:

- public SineScaleFilter(DataSource src, Double a, Double f, Double d) initializes the filter with the given data source and sine wave parameters a for amplitude, f for frequency, and d for offset.
- @Override public Double next().
- Need homework help? Click Here!

Implementation note: although you must derive this class from DataFilter, you are not required to derive directly from DataFilter. You can either leave the declaration as-is, or use a variant (for example, derive SineScaleFilter from ScaleFilter, or derive both of them from some intermediate class).BufferedFilter:(20p)
public class BufferedFilter extends DataFilterWhile you’re reading data through the filter, it’s possible to use a buffer (in this case an array of Double values) to remember input which you’ve already seen. For example, if you have an array of 20 Double values, then you can remember the past 20 input values which have passed through your filter. If you want to remember which data you’ve seen 5 time units ago, all you need to do is look back 5 places in your array.There’s a catch, though: when you begin, you only have a fixed-size buffer, but your input can go on for a long time. The input may be so long, that you don’t even want to keep a buffer large enough to capture all of it. Maybe your input is 100,000 time units long, but you only care about remembering the past 20 time steps. A solution is to use a circular buffer. The buffer fills up, but when it gets to the end, it starts back at the beginning and starts overwriting what’s already there. Basically, the buffer has a moving head and a moving tail.So if our buffer is length 20, at the beginning, our head is at position 0, our tail is at position 1, and the data for the previous time step is at position 19, and five time steps ago is at position 15. We read in a bit of data, and it gets stored at position 0. Now, the head is at position 1, the tail is at position 2, the previous time step (the one you’ve just read in) is at position 0, and five time steps ago is at position 16. Etc…For this class you implement a circular buffer which will store input values as you read them from the source, after which you forward them out as-is through the filter. You will implement the following:

- public BufferedFilter(DataSource src, int bufSize) initializes the filter with the given data source and a buffer of length bufSize. Hint: it’s expected that your array will be all zeros at the start, but if you declare a list of Double values, their initial value would be null instead of zero.
- public Double getLast(int t) retrieve the memory of the input from t time units ago. If t is zero, then it refers to the most recently read input. Assume that t is within the range of the buffer size, otherwise the result is undefined.
- public Double inputNext() this retrieves the next input value from the input DataSource, stores it in the circular buffer (updating anything you need to update in the process), and returns the value you’ve just read in.
- @Override public Double next() uses inputNext() to send on the next input from the source as-is.

EchoFilter: (10p)
public class EchoFilter extends BufferedFilterThis filter uses the memory of previous inputs to produce an echo effect. At every step, it will output a value which is the sum of the current input and an input from some n steps ago. To do this, the following needs to be implemented:

- public EchoFilter(DataSource src, int echo) initializes the filter with the given data source and an echo delay of echo. To produce an echo which is delayed by a certain number of steps, Think about how big of a buffer we need: if we want a delay of 1 step, for example, then our memory would need to store both the current step and the previous step, so two steps. What about if we want an echo delay of 5 steps? We’d need the previous five steps plus the current step, so a 6 step memory. So if we wanted a delay of length echo, how big of a buffer do we need to ask for?
- @Override public Double next() produces an output which is the result of adding the current input to the input from echo steps ago

Assignment 1: Essay

WEEK 4 ASSIGNMENT 1 – SUBMIT HERE

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.

Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 1: Essay

Due Week 4 and worth 100 points

Choose one (1) of the three (3) reading selections from the list of topic choices below. The focus is on brief but important primary source material written by important authors. In each case, the subject relates to the problems of certain people who are oppressed or impoverished. In each topic, a different genre or approach is adopted to help readers see and perhaps address the problem. Read the selections as identified with each topic below. Write a four-to-five (4-5) paragraph essay (350 words minimum) which analyzes the work following the list of four things “your paper should cover” given just after the topics.

Topic Choices

Reading selection of Swift’s A Modest Proposal. The selection should be read in full at http://www.victorianweb.org/previctorian/swift/modest.html. It is essential to recognize the genre of this work, as discussed in our class text (pp. 781-3 in chap. 24), which you should consult and cite. The context is the plight of the very poor in Ireland in the early 1700s.
Reading selection from Equiano’s Interesting Narrative of the Life of Olaudah Equiano, written in 1789. This selection can be found in chapter 26 of our class text on pp. 877-8 (with background on pp. 869-872). The context is the process of enslavement and then passage across the Atlantic.
Reading selection of Olympe de Gouges’ Declaration of the Rights of Woman and the Female citizen (written in 1791). The selection should be read in full athttp://chnm.gmu.edu/revolution/d/293/ with background provided on p. 852 of our class text. You should also look at the revolutionary document of 1789 that she is “correcting”, calledDeclaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen(http://avalon.law.yale.edu/18th_century/rightsof.asp ). Olympe de Gouge has the status of women as her main concern. The general context is the French Revolution and the attempts to redefine rights and status once one replaces monarchy.

For the reading selection and topic you choose, your paper should cover the following:

Briefly introduce the writer and the situation that this reading is about. Identify the genre or nature of the reading.
Using specific examples or lines within the reading, suggest the author’s key views and key aims for the reading audience.
Evaluate the author’s strategy and what you see as the work’s likely effectiveness (or lack of effectiveness) for the target audience. If there is any known historical result, discuss that.
Evaluate how the reading impacted you. Identify any analogous situations today, and also key lessons you get from the reading that could be relevant to one’s professional and personal life.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

This course requires the use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than others Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.

Include a title page containing the title of the assignment, your name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date of submission. The cover page and the source list are not included in the required assignment length (350 words minimum).
You must the class text and also any source(s) identified (with links) above for the topic you choose, focusing on the main primary source of that author. If you use any additional source (optional), it must be from the university’s online Library and of good academic quality for college work.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Explain how key social, cultural, and artistic contributions contribute to historical changes.
Explain the importance of situating a society’s cultural and artistic expressions within a historical context.
Examine the influences of intellectual, religious, political, and socio-economic forces on social, cultural, and artistic expressions.

Identify major historical developments in world cultures from the Renaissance to the contemporary period.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in the study of world cultures.
Write clearly and concisely about world cultures using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.

Management homework

What causes scope creep
What can be done to reduce scope creep
Use examples from your personal experience
Best practices on scope management

BUS 499 week 5 discussion

Week 5 Discussion Question

Read the “Victory Motorcyclesb Case in the blue pages of the textbook. Please respond to the following:

From the e-Activity and the case study, evaluate the corporate-level strategy of Victory Motorcycles to determine whether you believe the strategy is appropriate to offset forces in the industry. Provide specific examples to support your response. Be sure to use terminology from Chapter 6 readings. Do not research or offer corporate level strategies outside of the textbook for this course. Do not forget to give us the bwhyb.
Make recommendations for improving this strategy as well as describing any challenges you foresee in executing those recommendations. Provide specific examples to support your response. Do not forget to give us the bwhyb.

Radiologic Technologist – 500 words

Question description

the below guideline needs to be followed. These are the disussion topics in which need to be followed. III. DISCUSSION

What extent are Radiologic Technologist satisfied with their leadership and does this make an impact on their overall job satisfaction? (Penny 2017) (Douget 2015) (Jones 2015) (Watson 2009)
Does employee wages have an impact on job satisfaction? (Bisset 2017) (Satterfield 2017) C. Does job stress have influence on job satisfaction within the field of Radiologic Technologist? (Reynold 2015) (Dunlop 2015) IV. CONCLUSION A. Radiologic Technologist’s job satisfaction begins with Leadership engagement. B. Pay is a quantifiable incentive to increase job satisfaction.
Stress does have influence over job satisfaction, however employee’s level of stress is decreased with a supportive Leadership team.

These references need to be used no additions or removals. Bisset, G. 3. (2017). An honest day’s work: pay for performance in a pediatric radiology department.

Pediatric Radiology, 47(7), 798-802. doi:10.1007/s00247-017-3824-y Douget, K. (2015). Successful Transformational Radiology Leaders. Radiology Management, 37(1), 27-31

Dunlop, J. (2015). Directed Reading. . Meditation, Stress Relief, and Well-Being. Radiologic Technology, 86(5), 535-555. Jones, J. (2015). Effective Leadership in the 21st Century. Radiology Management, 37(6), 16-19.

Penny, S. M. (2017). Serving, Following, and Leading in Health Care. Radiologic Technology, 88(6), 603-617. Reingold, L. (2015). Evaluation of Stress and a Stress-Reduction Program Among Radiologic Technologists. Radiologic Technology, 87(2), 150-162. Satterfield, L. (2017). Factors Affecting Job Satisfaction of Radiologic Sciences Faculty: Implications for Recruitment and Retention. Radiologic Science & Education, 22(2), 15-21. Watson, L. (2009). Leadership’s influence on job satisfaction. Radiologic Technology, 80(4), 297-308.

Trauma and Growth Presentation

Create a presentation with a minimum of 8 slides, using whichever platform you prefer (i.e. PowerPoint, Prezi, Story Bird, Smilebox, Capzles, Slidestory, etc.) The presentation describes a traumatic/near death experience that either you or someone you know has experienced. You must explain how relationships with others impacted the individual during the traumatic experience and whether or not there is evidence of the positive psychology concept of post-traumatic growth, resulting in increased resilience, once the traumatic event had resolved. Include a slide that addresses the ways in which traumatic experiences can be opportunities for growth.

Please don’t share overly sensitive, private, intimate or identifying information. Some students feel more comfortable created a fake name or using a pseudonym if they are writing about their personal experiences. A good way to approach this assignment is to image you are presenting a case study and sharing it in a professional or academic environment (which you are!) so please don’t get too graphic or detailed about the trauma that occurred.

Your presentation must contain at least one citation from our course readings/textbook or UOPX library
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Identify and review the response consideration to a weapon of mass destruction incident for a local agency.

Question description

Identify and review the response consideration to a weapon of mass destruction incident for a local agency.
2. Explain how an emergency manager can apply effective crisis resource management skills and communication skills to emergency teams to improve response times in WMD situations.

Deep Work: Students Guide on How to Be Productive

Cal Newport’s book Deep Work has officially landed on our top reads this year. The concept of Deep Work is defined as the ability focus without distraction on a cognitively demanding task. We must agree that learning itself is a highly demanding cognitive task. In this day and age where distractions are within our reach, productivity is greatly affected. Here are some ways to be productive using deep work:

Eliminate All Distractions

Distractions in the 21^st Century are in often self-induced. From the quick glances we make at our phones, the “constructive noise” we create by listening to music or podcasts while studying and the areas we chose to study from knowing too well that people will walk in or make noises that will affect our concentration. Deep work requires that you are in a less distractive environment and that you eliminate anything that could affect your efficiency. Switch your phone off, go to the library or a quiet study space and avoid any noises that could affect your concentration.

Deep Work is Purposeful

For you to effectively achieve deep work, you need to get your mind into purposely deciding to start and finish a task. Purpose to stay until you have achieved everything you had planned to achieve. Do not do anything else until that one task is completed. Make it a personal commitment to finish everything you have set out to finish and I guarantee you the level of satisfaction you will walk out with is going to be out of this world.

Thou Shall Not Multi-Task

Multitasking affects the optimal performance of your brain as it distracts you from the main task of the day. You need to set your environment in a way that ensures that there are no items that will affect your concentration and lead to handling other matters that are not a part of your agenda. This is the reason why we are against listening to anything when we are trying to achieve deep work. The information you get from listening to music or podcasts affects your brain’s optimal performance while engaging in a task.

It is NOT Easy

Deep work is not an easy process. It requires that you give it your best and setting your intentions right to complete the task. To focus on one task for a long while is not an easy endeavor, however when you are fully committed to achieving something substantial, you will give it your all. Although it might not be easy at first, practice makes perfect, you will soon be getting into deep work effortlessly.

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Response paper Phil 201

Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
On the Cosmological Argument:
McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
On the Teleological Argument:
McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
On the Problem of Evil:
McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
On Atheism as Comforting:
In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

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Supplemental Assignment 2 Instructions

You will take an active part (e.g., spend half a day volunteering/helping out) in a community outreach activity (not a university or church activity unless it is an activity that reaches out to the community) of your choosing, which will familiarize you with the needs of the community. Some examples of activities include volunteering at a shelter, a camp, a recreation center, a home for girls or boys, a soup kitchen, a clothing bank, a detoxification center, a tutoring center for younger children, a vocational rehabilitation center, Habitat for Humanity, a minority community center, etc. After the completion of the activity, you will document your experience by writing a paper. The paper will be written in current APA format and will include one title page, one abstract page, two full pages of text, and one reference page. The paper will explain in detail: (1) the experience (what was observed, how it affected you), (2) what was learned from the project (what the community’s needs are, what ethics are in place, how you can help make a difference), and (3) a discussion of two course concepts that relate to your observations. For number three (3), cite two empirical studies from the research literature that address each one of the two course concepts discussed relating to sociocultural diversity that you observed in the outreach activity. Make sure to cite each of these concepts in correct APA format.

Six Sigma DMAIC

Select a business ( Chick-fil-A ) where you are able to gather data, and for which you can identify processes to improve.

Develop a 3- to 4 -slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation, including detailed speaker notes

Execute the define phase of the Six Sigma DMAIC project including the following:

Identify a project suitable for Six Sigma efforts based on:

Business objectives.

Customer needs and feedback. For example, if the team chooses a fast food chain, they could observe and record defects with preparation and delivery of the food, cleaning of the restaurant inside and out, including the rest rooms

Data Warehouse questions

Describe the original data warehouse designed for Indiana University Health and its limitations. Please describe the new data warehouse and the differences between each?

Type your answer here.

Q2: Identify the major differences between a traditional data warehouse and a data mart? Explain the differences between the traditional data warehousing process compared to newly designed data warehouse in less than 90 days?

Type your answer here.

Q3: While this case study supports a specific data warehouse product, please locate another case study from another data warehousing software company and explain the data warehouse that was designed in that case study?

Type your answer here.

Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health

Read the “Assessing Spirituality – The Relationship between Spirituality and Mental Health” article. (link below)

In this quantitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the possible relationship between two spirituality variables (religious coping styles and spiritual well-being) and two psychological variables (anxiety and depression). Also studied were differences between those who self-disclosed a spiritual/religious identity and those who did not. Their data analysis concluded that individuals who reported a high use of religious coping styles also reported high levels of spiritual well-being.

The authors felt a limitation of their study was in defining ‘spirituality.’ State how that can be an obstacle in doing religious counseling.
The authors state, “Spiritual well-being can clearly incorporate God into ones’ life while also incorporating self-reliance.” Is this not a seeming contradiction? Give your thoughts on this.

CIS 500 INFORMATION SYSTEMS

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C-suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive: WRITE A MEMO IN 4 PAGES

Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business. 2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured. 3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better. 4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

Lean Techniques

Assignment Steps

Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains.

Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency.

Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques.

Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean.

Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project.

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Research Paper on a Business

his is a five full page minimum research paper on your chosen industry – the group of companies that compete within the same set of product offerings – and company. You must include a minimum of 10 scholarly sources, use APA formatting, and write in third person.

Sample industry questions:

What are the major companies within the industry?

What are the industry trends?

How is the product or service manufactured?

Distribution….?

Trends…?

Outlook…?

Sample company questions:

The size of a company and the scope of its operations say a great deal about the companyâ€™s ambitions and opportunities for advancement. Try to answer the following questions:

Has the company expanded globally?

Is it expanding or downsizing?

What are its divisions and subsidiaries?

How many employees does it have?

How many clients does it serve?

How many locations does it have?

Direction and planning

Answers to questions about the companyâ€™s plans may be difficult to find outside of the companyâ€™s Web site, annual report, newspaper business pages, business magazines, or the industryâ€™s trade publications. The following information is worth pursuing as it lets you know some of the hot issues to address or avoid:

What are the companyâ€™s current priorities?

What is its mission?

What long-term contracts has it established?

What are its prospects?

What are its problems?

Is it initiating any new products or projects?

Products or services

You shouldnâ€™t go into a job interview without at least knowing what products or services are the bedrock of the companyâ€™s business. Find the answers to these questions:

What services or products does the company provide?

What are its areas of expertise?

How does it innovate in the industry â€” by maintaining cutting edge products, cutting costs, or what?

Competitive profile

How the company is positioned within its industry and how hard competitors are nipping at its heels are measures of the companyâ€™s long-term health and the relative stability of your prospective job there. Get to the bottom of these issues by asking:

Who are the companyâ€™s competitors?

What are the companyâ€™s current projects?

What setbacks has it experienced?

What are its greatest accomplishments?

Is the company in a growing industry?

Will technology dim its future?

Does it operate with updated technology?

Culture and reputation

The answers to these questions are likely to be subjective, but they say a great deal about how well youâ€™ll be able to fit into the corporate culture:

Does the company run lean on staffing?

Whatâ€™s the picture on mergers and acquisitions?

What is the companyâ€™s business philosophy?

What is its reputation?

What kind of management structure does it have?

What types of employees does it hire?

Is it family-friendly?

Is it woman-friendly?

What is the buzz on its managers?

How does it treat employees?

Has it pushed out older workers?

Company history

Assess how the companyâ€™s future may be influenced by its past. Was the company part of a hostile takeover? Has it been doing the same things the same way for years because its founder would have wanted it that way? Ask the following questions to find out:

When and where was it established?

Is it privately or publicly owned?

Is it a subsidiary or a division?

Has it changed much over time?

How quickly has it grown?

Company financials

Collecting current and accurate information about financials is a long chase, but itâ€™s better to learn a companyâ€™s shaky financial picture before youâ€™re hired than after youâ€™re laid off. Dig for the following nuggets:

What are the companyâ€™s sales?

What are its earnings?

What are its assets?

How stable is its financial base?

Is its profit trend up or down?

How much of its earnings go to its employees?

How far in debt is the company?

Criminal Justice Ethics #2

Essay, 350 words.

Instructions

Visit https://ucr.fbi.gov/nibrs/2013/the-advantage-of-NIBRS-data for an example of NIBRS data.

Scroll down and open either the Murder and non-negligent manslaughter report.

How does the NIBRS report differ from the UCR collection of murder data?
Read the data thoroughly on both pages. What did you find interesting about the data?
Locate an additional source that supports the item you found interesting and discuss. For example, you may find it interesting that most murders occur between 7PM and 3AM. You could research time as it relates to crime.

Cite your sources.

Criminal Justice Ethics

Be submitted on time for a grade
2. Contain at least 350 or more words
3. Be written using correct spelling and grammar
4. Include an outside reliable source in addition to the textbook.
5. Outside source must be cited in APA or MLA format.
6. Sources cannot include wikidpedia or other blog/opinion sites. Please seek assistance from school media specialist/librarian for information on reliable and scholarly websites.
7. Word Count must be posted

An undercover police officer was on duty inside a bar conducting surveillance activities on crime suspects. The officer bought a beer to maintain her cover. Unbeknownst to the officer, buying the beer automatically qualified her for a contest sponsored by a beer company. The grand prize winner would win a new car worth $20,000. It was later announced that the undercover officer was the grand prize winner.

Her employer, the New York City Police Department (NYPD), believes the car should be turned over to the department because she bought the beer with department money and was on duty at the time.

The officer argues that the car should be hers because her employer did not require her to buy beer at the bar. She merely had some good luck, and the department wishes to capitalize unfairly on her good fortune. The case was sent to the city’s Board of Ethics to settle the dispute.

As a member of the Board of Ethics, how would you evaluate the competing claims of the officer and the NYPD?
Would your answer be different if the undercover officer walked into the bar and was awarded the new car for being the 10,000th customer inside the bar? Why or why not?
Does this case represent absolute ethics or relative ethics? Support your response with an explanation.
What do you consider the biggest ethical challenge/s for young people today? Explain your answer.
COLLEGE LEVEL WRITING EXPECTED. SOURCES MUST BE CITED. SOURCES MUST BE USED (textbook is suitable source).

BSBREL401 establish network

Formative assessment

Activity 1.

Identify five question you could ask another person at a networking event to begin to eatablish a relationship with them. 40-80 words

Think about business relationship or friendship you currently have. How do you maintain those relationships? 40-80 words

Activity 2.

Choose an industry ( eg the wedding industry, pet related business, real esate, child-related business) and make a list of the types of business organisations in that industry should network with and pursue to maximise their range of contacts. What opportunities might they have for maximising their contacts? 75-100 words
How would you record, store and categories contact details people you meet at networking events? Why would you use this method? 75-100words

Activity 3.

What do you consider to be the main reasons why you should network? 75-100words

What do you think is the most important benefit? Why? What do you think is the least important benefit? Why?

How might you communicate information regarding new networks and their benefits? 10-25words

To whom should you communicate this information? 10-25 words

Activity 4.

Locate three professional associations in an industry you are interested in (eg accountancy, advertising). Find out what they offer to members in the way of professional development to maintain knowledge and skills. evaluate the professional development opportunities offered by each association.

Write a report on your findings and explain which association you would choose to become a member and why.

Activity 5.

You have made a new network contact. You have exchanged relevant information and believe that the contact you have made will be useful for a particular client. How will you go about developing a good relationships with your new contact and how will you negotiate the appropriate level of support that can be provided for the client? If possible use an example, from your work, to describe the procedures you would follow. 100-150words

Write one page code of ethnics that could be used to ensure that you maintain relationship that assist you in meeting organisational/ client requirements. The code od ethnics should be also used to maintain trust and confidence of contacts through demonstrations of high standards of business practices. Do not limit your responses to information provided in the text

The code should have two componets:

An inspirational section that outlines the organisation’s aspirations—the ideals to which it hopes to live up

A list of rules or principles, to which members of the organisation will be expected to adhere.

You might need to conduct your own research to complete this task,

Activity 6.

Think about a time when you were involved in a negotiation. This might have been a time when you undertook negotiation in the process of buying a house or a car. It might have been a situation in which you negotiated a pay rise. Alternately, it might have been a time when you negotiated what movie to see or what restaurant to go with friend. Describe the situation. What negotiation skills did you use? Was the outcome of the negotiation positive? Why/why not? What would you do differently next time you were involved in a negotiation? 100-150 words

Negotiation is a problem-sloving process. You need to identify the problem, gather data, determine the best problem, make a decision about the problem solution and implement the solution.

Effective collaboration with others is necessary for win-win solutions. Explain what a win-win situation is and how it can be achieved. 100-150 words

Activity 7.

Think about a time you were faced with a problem. How did you solve that problem? How did you/ might you have used collaborative problem-solving techniques to solve that problem? 75-100words

Why is it necessary to use collaboration when negotiating problem solutions? 75-100words

Activity 8.

From whom could you seek specialist advice in the development of contacts? 75-100 words

Locate a specialist networking organisation. What do they do? What networking specialist advice do they offer? How can you become a member of or join the networking group? Do you think this organisation could provide a valuable role in helping you to develop more contacts? Why/ why not? 100-150words?

Activity 9.

What are the strategies might you utilise to communicate the goals and objectives of a particulars networking relationship to the management of the organisation for which you work? 100-150 words

Activity 10

Use effective writing skills to create an email asking a potential contact for help to grow your business. 50- 75 words
Write a script of a conversation that you might have with a potential contact to establish what they do and how a relationship with them might be mutually beneficial. Assume that English is not a first language for the person that you are speaking to. (100-150words)
Design and develop a written presentation promoting:

An organisation and its products/ service

A particular product or service that this organisation offers.

Put this into email format ready for an electronic mail out to a contact list. 250 -500words

Activity 11.

When making verbal presentations you should, if possible, collect feedback from your audience in order to determine whether you presented the information clearly and whether the presentation material met the needs of the audience. What do you think are the best ways to do this? 100-150 words
Design a set of questions that you might ask your audience to determine what they thought of the presentation (not the product or service being offered). 100-150words

Summative assessment 1.

Question 1.

Explain the strategies you would to establish and maintain business relationship. 200-500words

Question 2.

What networks, organisations, agencies etc could you join to make useful contacts? Explain 100-150words

Question 3.

Describe the principles and techniques needed to negotiate positive outcomes. 150-500 words

Question 4.

Explain how you can use policies and procedures to make sure you comply with an organisation’s expectation in relation to establishing business relationships. 100-150words

Question 5

Outline methods of obtaining feedback on promotional activities. 100-150words

Summative assessment 2.

Project 1.

You have been asked to write a series of short articles for a networking magazine. There are six articles in all

The topics of the articles are:

What networking is and its benefits

How to establish and maintain network contacts/ relationships

Networking ethically.

How to negotiate and get what you want from network contacts/ relationships.

How network contacts can help you solve problems

Identifying your networking goals and finding ways of fulfilling them.

Each articles should be at least 500 words and have:

A suitable headline

Relevant pictures/ diagrams and charts( if applicable)

Real-life examples of successful and unsuccessful networking

Any relevant statistics

The articles should demonstrate an understanding of the learning material provide in this unit of work; however, you will need to conduct some of your own research to complete this project

BSBWHS401 Implement and monitor WHS policies, procedures and programs to meet legislative requirement

Formative assessments

Activity 1.

The impact of workplace injury is wide reaching. Discuss in 50 to 80 words.
How is the integrity (validity) of information ensured? Discuss 50 to 80 words.
List three sources of health and safety information in your state/ territory.

Activity 2.

Why is it important that all workers have access to health and safety information? Discuss in 80 to 100 words.

If a worker had made suggestion to improvement for the design, development and management of health and safety in a comoany in which they worked, how could they go about having them ratified and implemented by senior management? Discuss in 80 to 100 words.

Before submitting strategies for the design , development and management of health and safety to senior management for approval, should the worker consult with the members of their team/ department to get their imput? Why/ why not? Discuss in 100 to 120 words.

Activity 3.

Where might information about hazards and the outcomes of risk assessment and control result from? Discuss in 120 words and 150 words

List five ways that PCBUs can provide clear explanation to work teams about identified hazards about the outcomes of risk assessment and control.

Activity 4.

what types of changes in the workplace would benefit from consultation between PCBUs and workers ( or their representatives)? Discuss in 150 to 180 words.

What are the benefits of consulting with workers about health and safety issues? Discuss in 120 to 150 words.

Activity 5.

Explain (50-80 words) the role of the HSR in each of these consultation procedures:

Attendance at team meetings.

Early response to work suggestions, requests, reports, and concerns put forward to management.

Requirements as specified in Commonwealth and state/ territory legislation, regulations and codes of practice.

Activity 6.

What strategies can PCBUs use to consult with workers on health and safety issues? Discuss in 80 to 100 words.

Health and safety issues raised through consultation should be dealth with promptly. Why is this? Discuss in 120- 150 words

Activity 7.

Create a meeting agenda template suitable for a HSC

Create a meeting minute template suitable for HSC.

Activity 8.

What is training needs analysis and how can it be conducted? Discuss in 100- 120 words.

What tools can be used to identify the skills a worker needs? Discuss in 100- 120 words.

What are the 6 steps in developing a training program?

Activity 9.

Your team is concerned that they have insufficient knowledge/ understanding of safety procedures and legislative requirement in your workplace. They also feel that the incidence od accident in your section is higher than it should be. They have asked you to submit, to senior management, a proposal for a formal health and safety training program.

1.what information would you include in the proposal and how would you encourage senior management to support this initiative? What procedures would you follow in gathering data and information to support your proposal? How likely is it that this or a similar proposal would be accepted in your workplace? Discuss in 120-150 words

what critical information must be contained in a new worker induction program? Discuss in 50-80 words.
Why is only providing induction training and no follow-on-training unsatisfactory? Discuss in 50- 80 words.

Activity 10.

What are the benefits of evaluating training to both workers and the organisation? Discuss in 80-100 words.

When evaluating health and safety training, how can you determine the appropriateness and effectiveness of the training? Discuss in 80-100 words.

What should be evaluated in relation to a health and safety training program? Discuss in 150- 180 words.

Activity 11.

Your organisation had identified and increase in injuries to workers who use the new plant. You are responsible for training in the area where the injuries occur. Your rate (for the exercise) is $360 per day. A training need analysis concludes a training program will reduce the injury rate.

Consider:

The training needs analysis will take two days. Including reporting to management

It will take you dfive days to develop the training program

You can get a good training video at a cost of $375

You will need to hire a TV/ video for each session, cost $120

Handouts will cost $12 per participant

Management wants you to conduct the training at a venue that cost $195 per day

Catering is available, $25 per participants per day

You will deliever the training

Lost production is costed at $320 per day per participant

You will train 20 workers in fice groups. Each course runs for one day. Administrative support works out at $28 per participant

Calculate the cost of training.

Activity 12.

What is difference between a risk and a hazard? Discuss in 50 -80 words.

Create a 1 page checklist for a managers/ supervisor to assist them with the identification of hazards.

Activity 13.

Why should organisations have comprehensive risk assessment procedures? Discuss in 50-80 words

A hazard had been assessed as being unlikely, but would have major consequences. Using the risk matrix, identify the risk and what it means to the organisation

Risk assessment matrix: See attachment

Activity 14.

Give an example of each of the following types of controls of managing hazards.

Elimination

Substitution

Engineering

Administration

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

Activity 15.

You are the safety supervisor at a commercial construction company. The company employs 12 administration personnel, 18 construction personnel and 60 construction subcontractors.

The worker who work on-site face a changing work site each day and are often working with people from other companies. Three months ago you were alarmed at the number of back injuries being reported and introduced new procedures that were aimed at ensuring heavy items were lifted in accordance with the legislative requirements of yours state/ territory and work requiring bending for long periods was minimised. You provided a toolbox meeting to inform the workers of the new procedures and techniques. You now need to evaluate this strategy to determine whether it has met your aim of reducing back injuries.

Information: see attachment

Using the supplied information, develop a procedures (1 page) for system evaluation that covers:

Inclusion of external data in the evaluation process

External input into the evaluation process, eg stakeholders

Hoe to identified areas for improvement will be documented and actioned

How top management will be involved in the review process

Activity 16.

Why is it important to keep health and safety records? Discuss in 50-80 words.

Name three health and safety records that must be kept by every organisation.

If you were the health and safety representative of a company, how would you ensure that the workers you represent are aware of the recordkeeping requirements? Discuss in 50 -80 words.

Activity 17.

A workplace employs 75 workers, who work a total of 150,000 hours in a year. They have experience eight lost time injuries for the year, resulting in 65 days off.

Calculate the following:

Frequency rate.

Incidence rate.

Average lost time/ severity rate.

Provide your workings.

You are required to present these statistics to your next senior executive weekly committee meeting. Describe how you will present this information. Include copies of any graphs or tables that might be relevant.

Summative question 1.

Question 1.

What are the key aspects of health and safety legislation? Discuss in 220- 250 words.

Question 2.

What processes or procedures might an organisation use to identify hazards and monitor risk control procedures? Discuss in 220- 250words.

Question 3.

Why is it important to provide information to work teams on the relevant health and safety legislation, the organisation’s health and safety policies, procedures and programs, and any identified hazards and their controls? Discuss in 80 -100 words.

Question 4.

Explain the importance of effective consulatative mechanism in managing health and safety risk and describe what they entail. Discuss in 80-100words.

Question 5.

Explain how the hierarchy of control applies in the work area. Discuss in 220-250 words.

Summative assessment 2

Project 1.

You work in a large department store and are the newly appointed health and safety representative for your work group. The organisation is wanting in its compliance with health and safety compliance.

You have just completed an investigation and have discovered the following:

Workers are unsure of health and safety legislation and codes of practice that relate to them

Works have not received training in the organization’s health and safety policies, procedures and programs for two years and people are unsure which are current and which have been superseded

There is no mechanism to inform workers of hazards (and their assessment) that have been identified in their work area

Historically there has been little encouragement or support for work teams to manage work area hazards

If workers raised issues they were generally ignored

There was little communication back to workers if consultation about health and safety issues did occur

A health and safety training needs analysis has not been conducted for two years

There are some pressing health and safety information gaps that can be addressed by training

Management are reluctant to approve health and safety training as they fear it will cost too much

The workplace hazards assessment has not been updated for the last six months

There are four hazards that were identified in the last hazards assessment that have not been actioned

There is no procedure in place to use data to identify risks, control those risk, or monitor outcomes of reported inadequacies

Management are unsure of what health and safety records must be kept or how to fill them out

Your task is to create a action plan (3-5 pages) for what you will do to address these problems and turn over your workplace into an example of health and safety best practice. Use the template provided as a guide.

Resource management

The paper must be about the key to an effective resource management system.

The paper will be researching an writing on the following subtopics below.

Resource Planning
Aggregate Planning
Disaggregation
Managing Inventory Resources
Benefits, problems/challenges of managing resources

PSYC 341 Week 6 Essay

Essay Instructions

The essay should be in APA format and should discuss the required prompt. This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations.

Each essay will review a different topic from the text and will also link each topic with Scripture. Each essay should have a word count of at least 500 words.

Using the Jerry Falwell Library, select two full-text, scholarly (peer-reviewed) journal articles that directly relate to the topic for each essay. The textbook may be used, but does not count toward the two required scholarly references.

Essay Topic

Examine McCrae and Costa’s 5-factor model of personality. Pick 1 of the factor’s listed (extraversion, neuroticism, openness, agreeableness, or conscientiousness) and describe 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be high in that area and 1 person in Scripture that you would consider to be low in that area. Please use the same factor for both people and support your stance with Scripture.

Selecting Appropriate Journal Articles

If you need assistance finding scholarly journal articles, click here to learn how to navigate through the Jerry Falwell Library.

When searching Liberty University’s online library, from the Jerry Falwell Library home page, select “Advanced Search” and be sure to select the appropriate dates (within the last 7 years). Under Show Only select the following: “Items with full text online”, “Scholarly materials, including peer-reviewed.” Under Exclude from results: select all three options. To find useful articles, narrow the search by selecting, keywords or phrases to use as your search parameters.

The articles researched must be from scholarly journals. It is preferred that the journal have the word “Journal” in the title (Journal of Marriage and Family, etc.). Ideally, each journal that you review should have a Methods section as well as Data, Results, and Conclusion sections, but these sections are not required. Please note: You may not use book reviews, magazine articles, or online articles that have not been published in scholarly journals.

IST7000 – Data Management – Week 2 ERD Diagram Definition

Name: your name

The entity relationship diagram is crucial to the creation of a successfully implemented application and database. A good understanding of how to identify the components that define the Entity Relationship Diagram is needed. Select one of the following 5 scenarios and design an entity relationship diagram with the following components:

Identify the entities that need to be modeled
Identify the attributes that each entity will include
Identify the relationships as required.
Identify the primary keys (identifier attributes)
Identify any business rules or assumptions that are associated with your data model

Scenario 1 – Online Ordering and Delivery Service for Sandwich Shop

Joe’s Sub Shop is starting an online ordering system that will provide local delivery within five miles of the sub shop. The customer can order a limited menu of the sandwiches the sub shop creates. The online order system will need to track the following information customer, order and product. They shop will need to know the quantity ordered, toppings and other directions for the order. The delivery driver will need to know the address and phone number of the customer.

ANSWER:

ERD Diagram for Definition for Scenario Question 1.

An entity-relationship diagram (ERD) can be defined as a data modeling technique that is design graphically to illustrates an information system’s entities and the relationships between those entities. The ERD is a conceptual and representational model of data used to represent the entire entity framework infrastructure.

Below is my explanation:

Entities: The entities from my scenario and my diagram are; Customers, Address, Orders, Products and Payment.

Attributes:

Customer: Customer name, customer_Id, phone number.

Address: Address_Id , place, Zip code

Orders: Customer_Id, quantity order, prices, payment_Id, and Date

Products: Product_Id, product name, and product type (sandwich)

Payment: Payment_Id, payment type, and card type.

Relationships:

Customer has only one address, therefore, customer is having one to one relation between customer and address.

Customer places many orders, therefore, customers are having many to many relationships between customer and order.

Order has many products; therefore, order is having one to many products between order to the product

Order has one payment; therefore, payment is having one to one payment methods between order to payment.

Primary Keys:

Customer_Id, address_Id, Order_Id, Product_Id, online order_Id, and Payment_Id.

The business rules are stated below:

Joe’s Sub Shop is starting an online ordering system. Joe’s Sub shop would be providing delivery locally to the customers within the range of five miles to the sub shop with the limited menu of the sandwiches.

Any online order system will need to be tracked the customer’s information.

Here is the question.

Assignment Definition:

For this assignment, you are to utilize the data model that was designed from the Week 2 ERD Diagram Definition assignment. This data model will be further reviewed and taken from the conceptual model to logical and physical model status.

Make sure you define the following:

Select a database management system (Oracle, SQL Server, MYSQL, etc.) and identify the data types and sizes for all attributes.
Make sure all relationships have been addressed and corrected.
Review the data model to ensure that it is in at least 3rd normal form (as defined by the normalization process).

Intermediate Accounting

The scheduling manager tells me you have some time available. We have recently been advised that management of Back-I-Up Corporation (BIUC) has received an offer from Ventura Capital partners to sell 100% of all issued an outstanding common shares. I have a meeting with management in two weeks regarding this issue, and I havent had much time to think about this engagement.

I have prepared some background informationon the company for you to review, including background information on the client (Exhibit 1), the company’s most recent internal financial statements (Exhibit11), and the proposed share purchase agreement (Exhibit 111). I have also met with BIUC management earlier this month and made some notes from that meeting (Exhibit 1V). they should all be in your inbox by now.

Can you please prepare a report that I can use for the upcoming meeting?

PSYC 341

ESSAY INSTRUCTIONS

The Essay assignments occur in Module 2, Module 4, Module 6 and Module 8. Each essay should be in APA format and should discuss the required prompt. This assignment does not require a Title page or Abstract page, but does require a Reference page and in-text citations.

Each essay will review a different topic from the text and will also link each topic with Scripture. Each essay should have a word count of at least 500 words.

Essay Topics

Module 4: Identify Maslow’s 5 basic assumptions regarding motivation as well as Maslow’s Heirarchy of Needs. Discuss each assumption and hierarchy level. Include specific examples from Scripture regarding motivation.

Selecting Appropriate Journal Articles

If you need assistance finding scholarly journal articles, click here to learn how to navigate through the Jerry Falwell Library.

The articles researched must be from scholarly journals. It is preferred that the journal have the word “Journal” in the title (Journal of Marriage and Family, etc.). Ideally, each journal that you review should have a Methods section as well as Data, Results, and Conclusion sections, but these sections are not required. Please note: You may not use book reviews, magazine articles, or online articles that have not been published in scholarly journals.

Reference

Soni, B., & Soni, R. (2016). Enhancing maslow’s hierarchy of needs for effective leadership. Competition Forum, 14(2), 259-263. Retrieved from http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.ezproxy.liberty.edu/docview/1838503588?accountid=12085

D’Souza, J., & Gurin, M. (2017). Archetypes based on maslow’s need hierarchy.Journal of the Indian Academy of Applied Psychology, 43(2), 183-188. Retrieved from http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.ezproxy.liberty.edu/docview/1964553265?accountid=12085

Leadership strategy

Prior to creating organizational strategies, it is important to thoroughly understand the sector in which the organization operates, along with typical strategies organizations within this sector use to achieve their long-term and short-term goals and objectives. Analyzing the sector includes examining the overall industry, identifying what determines success in that industry, what stimulates growth, and what strategies other successful organizations are implementing to achieve their goals and objectives. Based on a comprehensive sector analysis, executive leaders can begin outlining a strategic plan.

Instructions

Analyze the sector your organization operates in and create a report for the organizational stakeholders. Respond to the following in your report:

Identify the sector that the organization belongs to.

Determine the main goal of that sector in terms of achievement and operational goals. (Examples: increase profits, serve more people, increase revenue, etc.) Identify some of the largest and most successful organizations within the sector.

Explain how your organization specifically fits within the sector in terms of size and success.

Determine the internal and external forces that influence the success or failure of the organizations within this sector.

Support your assignment with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Performance, Legal, and Ethical Issues

The selected company is APPLE INC the product/service were iPad, watches, iPhone, televisions, and computers.

1 – Introduction (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

Describe separately in sub-titled sections:

a – the company,

b – the product,

c – and the elements you will be addressing in your plan,

2 – Incorporate Executive Summary (Week 6)

After researching the components typically included in an Executive Summary, provide such elements. Using numbers, include:

Strategic Objectives (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
Products or Services (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
Resources Needed (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)
Projected Outcomes (3 years) (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

3 – Incorporate Understanding Target Markets (Week 2)

Describe separately in sub-titled sections:

a – Select a geographical area,

b – provide a customer demographic profile (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

c – provide the quantitative demographics for the geographical area (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

d – compute the area market potential for the selected target market (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

4 – Incorporate Promotion and the Product Life Cycle (Week 3)

Describe separately in sub-titled sections:

Here you discuss how Promotion Strategies change in each one of the five stages – (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

a -Introduction,

b – Growth,

c – Maturity, ‘

d – Decline,

e – Termination)

of the PLC

5 – Incorporate Price and Channel Strategy (Week 4)

Describe separately in sub-titled sections:

Here you provide your Distribution Plan for

a – your product/service,(Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

b – your selected channels (be specific) – (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

c – and the pricing (use ‘numbers’) schedules for the selected channels. – (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

6 – Incorporate Marketing Communication and Brand Strategy (Week 5)

Describe separately in sub-titled sections:

Here you describe

a – the message you would use to start your brand and (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

b – to then maintain your brand, (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

c – and describe the 6 marketing elements strategies to build and maintain your product/service brand. (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

7 – Legal, Social and Ethical Considerations (Week 6)

Describe separately in sub-titled sections:

Here you enter:

a – legal, (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

b – social (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

c – and ethical issues related to the marketing of your product and service. (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

8 – Develop a process to monitor and control marketing performance (Week 6)

Describe separately in sub-titled sections:

Use specific numbers or

a – expected number ranges and (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

b – describe how you would monitor your marketing implementation. (Domestic and Foreign in separate sub-headings)

9 – Conclusion

Here you conclude your plans.

Please, make sure that your paper contains 9 Titled and numbered Sections to reflect the assignment titles and numbers as they are listed above.

Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed references.

Include all peer-reviewed references from the previous weeks’ individual assignments in your marketing plan.

ELEMENTS OF MARKETING

THE SIX CORE ELEMENTS OF MARKETING ARE:

1 – Positioning

2 – Targeting

3 – Product strategy

4 – Pricing strategy

5 – Promotion strategy

6 – Distribution strategy

A – Choose a product or service of your choice, and describe its tangible and intangible qualities

B – Identify and define the Key Performance Indicators you would use to monitor your promotion strategy:

B1 – for a television strategy

B2 – for a print strategy

B3 – for a web site strategy

B4 – for a social media strategy

Discussion Board Forum- PSYC 351

opic: Stages of Displacement – The Immigration Experience of Latinos- MUST BE OVER 250 words

Read the “Stages of Displacement – The Immigration Experience of Latinos” article found in the Reading & Study folder.

In this qualitative study, the authors attempted to investigate the following research question: What are the displacement stages of Latinos immigrating to the United States? Their data analysis concluded 5 distinct stages of displacement for Latino immigrants: 1. Seeking Opportunities, 2. Emotional Reactions, 3. Adjustment, 4. Rationalization, and 5. Acknowledgement.

Assignment: Write 1 theme the authors found for each stage. Although there is more than 1 theme per stage, cite only 1 per stage for this assignment. State how you as a counselor, counseling a Latino client who shares his or her immigration experience with you, would use your client’s disclosure to develop the therapeutic alliance. Connect your response to the article.

ASSIGNMENT 1 BOTTLING COMPANY CASE STUDY

Imagine you are a manager at a major bottling company. Customers have begun to complain that the bottles of the brand of soda produced in your company contain less than the advertised sixteen (16) ounces of product. Your boss wants to solve the problem at hand and has asked you to investigate. You have your employees pull thirty (30) bottles off the line at random from all the shifts at the bottling plant. You ask your employees to measure the amount of soda there is in each bottle. Note: Use the data set provided by your instructor to complete this assignment.

Psychology 355 homework

Problem Set 2: The paired-samples t test

Research Scenario: A clinical psychologist is studying the differences in the number of Facebook® friends between identical twins raised apart. She believes that twins raised in different environments will have differences in the number of friends, which would help point to the influence of environmental factors over inherited factors on social outcomes. She divides the twins into two groups (“Twin 1” and “Twin 2”), collects the data and creates the table below.

Using this table, enter the data into a new SPSS data file and run a paired-samples t test to test the claim that the identical twins raised apart will have a different number of Facebook® friends. Create a boxplot to show the difference between the number of friends for each group.

Problem Set 2: The paired-samples t test

Twin 1

254

174

207

136

212

230

Twin 2

198

119

180

112

100

126

259

Paste SPSS output.

Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation

Who can help me with homework psych 355

Problem Set 2: The paired-samples t test

Twin 1

254

174

207

136

212

230

Twin 2

198

119

180

112

100

126

259

Paste SPSS output.

Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation.

Leadership Theory

Analyze the leadership theories within the organization you chose to research in Week 1. Write a paper addressing the following:

Explain which leadership theories are used most often in the sector in which the organization operates. Provide specific examples within the sector, including other successful organizations as well, to support your findings.
Determine the leadership theories used by each of the specific executive leaders. Provide specific examples for support.
Explain whether the executive leaders of the organization are successful in implementing these leadership theories into their leadership roles.

Support your assignment with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

There are several theories related to leadership, and although there are similarities and overlap in many of the theories, each theory has unique characteristics distinguishing it from the others. All leadership theories can be effective given the right situation and sector. Some industry sectors have different leadership needs; therefore, leadership theories that can best be applied in one sector may differ from the most effective leadership theories in other industry sectors

BSBSUS401 Implement and monitor environmentally sustainable work practices

Project 1

Essay question- write a response to the following quote from unlimited sustainable development solutions

Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:

‘Sustainability is achieved when we understand the economic, environmental and social consequences of our actions and make deliberate choices that allow all people to lead healthy, productive and enjoyable lives.’

Your response should include a discussion of;

Complex environmental issues

Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact

Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact

Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact

1000-2000words

Project 2

You are the supervisor of a group of 15 worker in a business involved in an industry of your choice (forexampke manufacturing, finance, customer service, education, health etc). You have been asked to plan and organise a number of work group activities in relations to measuring current resource use and devising strategies to improve usage.

1 identify a minimum of three appropriate work group activities and provide an pverview of what is involved in each activity.

2 develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvement for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken bu your work group.

BSBSUS401 Implement and monitor environmentally sustainable work pratices

Project 1

Essay question- write a response to the following quote from unlimited sustainable development solutions

Organisations today are being asked to address an increasingly complex set of environmental issues. As noted in the quote:

Your response should include a discussion of;

Complex environmental issues

Methods of measuring an organisation’s environmental impact

Methods of managing an organisation’s environmental impact

Methods of reducing an organisation’s environmental impact

1000-2000words

Project 2

1 identify a minimum of three appropriate work group activities and provide an pverview of what is involved in each activity.

2 develop a plan to monitor resource use and improvement for environmental performance as a result of the activities undertaken bu your work group.

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Ramp 3

	PE	Max Seed (v)
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